Objective Type

Objective type Question Bank of Personnel dte.
INDEX
1. Bills
2. D&A Rules
3. Man Power Planning
4. Suitability Test
5. Selection
6. Pay Fixation
7. Advances
8. Appointment on Compassionate Ground
9. Indents/Recruitments
10. Pass Rules
11. New Pension Scheme
12. Safety Related Retirement Scheme
13. Compulsory Retirement
14. SC/ST/OBC Reservation Policy
15. Training
16. Leave Rules
17. Pass Rules
18. Staff Welfare & Education Facilities
1
BILLS
Model Questions (Multiple choice type: correct answers underlined)
Q1 The period of one month for which monthly salary is drawn is called –
a) Monthly salary
b) Wage period
c) Assumed Attendance
d) Monthly period
Q2 Allowance granted to compensate high cost of living based on the rise of price index is
called –
a) Interim Relief
b) Dearness Pay
c) Dearness Allowance (R 1303)
d) Special Compensatory Allowance
Q3 Which is currently the base year for granting dearness allowance –
a) 1982
b) 1960
c) 1996
d) 1986
Q4 To draw monthly salary, which attendance is taken into account –
a) Actual attendance
b) Assumed attendance
c) Both the above
d) None of the above
Q5 During suspension, dearness allowance is drawn on the basis of –
a) Subsistence allowance
b) Substantive pay
c) No dearness allowance is drawn
d) Half of the original DA rate
Q6 Dearness Pay has been introduced in 5th CPC scale w.e.f. –
a) 1.1.2004
b) 1.4.2004
c) 1.3.2004
d) 1.6.2004
Q7 What percentage of existing DA rated is converted to Dearness Pay –
a) 55%
b) 52%
c) 49%
d) 50%
Q27 What is the name of allowances given to a railway employee to meet the higher rent
they have to pay for private accommodation for non-availability of railway
accommodation –
a) Special Allowance
2
b) House Rent Allowance
c) Special Compensatory Allowance
d) Marginalized Rent Allowance
Q28 What is the condition for drawing HRA in favour of employees who are living in their
own house -
a) They are not eligible to get HRA

b) They should furnish a certificate that they are paying income tax
c) They should furnish a certificate that they are paying/contributing towards
house/property tax (R II – 1706)
d) They are living in a house which is at least 25 km away from his working place
Q30 What is the rate of HRA in an „X‟ class city –
a) 25% of Pay
b) 20% of Pay
c) 35% of Pay
d) 30% of Pay
Q31 What is the rate of HRA in an „Y‟ class city –
a) 20% of Pay
b) 15% of Pay
c) 25% of Pay
d) 22.5% of Pay
Q32 What is the rate of HRA in „Z‟ and „B-2‟ class cities –
a) 15% of Pay
b) 12.5% of Pay
c) 10% of Pay
d) 7.5% of Pay
Q35 During leave without pay, how many days‟ HRA and CCA can be drawn in favour of an
employee –
a) 120 days‟
b) 150 days‟
c) 160 days‟
d) 180 days‟ (RB‟s lr.No.E(P&A)II 89/HRA/48 dt.07.08.92)
Q36 When a railway employee is on extraordinary leave, for how many days HRA and CCA
can be drawn in favour of him –
a) 180 days‟
b) 135 days‟
c) 160 days‟
d) 120 days‟
Q37 In which of the following circumstances, HRA can be drawn in favour of an employee –
a) He/she lives in his/her daughter‟s accommodation allotted by Govt but he

incurs payment for rent
b) He/she lives in his/her own house but does not incur any expenditure on house
or property tax
c) He/she lives in his/her brother‟s accommodation provided by Govt. and incurs
expenditure for rent (RB‟s lr.No.E(P&A)II/89/HRA/1 dt.02.02.90)
d) He/she lives in his/her son‟s accommodation provided by Govt.
Q38 Which element does not constitute leave salary on retirement
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a) NPA
b) HRA
c) D.A.
d) Pay
Q39 At what rate can HRA be drawn when an employee is on suspension –
a) At the rate of subsistence allowance

b) At the rate the employee was drawing before being placed on suspension
c) No HRA and CCA is admissible
d) 75% of the rate the employee was drawing before being placed on suspension
Q40 For how many days an employee is entitled to draw HRA & CCA during study leave –
a) 180 days
b) 150 days
c) 135 days
d) 120 days (RB‟s lr.No.E(P&A)II/90/CCA-1 dt. 01.03.90)
Q41 What is the rate of Transport Allowance in a “X & Y” class city in grade pay Rs. 4200 to
Rs. 4800 and those drawing grade pay below Rs. 4200 but drawing pay in the pay band
equal to Rs. 7440 & above –
a) Rs.3200 + DA
b) Rs.1600 + DA
c) Rs. 800 + DA
d) Rs.600 + DA
Q42 What is the rate of Transport Allowance in other than “X & Y” Class City in grade pay
Rs. 4200 to Rs. 4800 and those drawing grade pay below Rs. 4200 but drawing pay in
the pay band equal to Rs. 7440 & above –
a) Rs. 400 + DA
b) Rs. 600 + DA
c) Rs. 800 + DA
d) Rs. 1000 + DA
Q43 What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay in grade pay below
Rs. 4200 and pay in the pay band below Rs. 7440 in “X & Y” class city -
a) Rs.600/- + DA
b) Rs.500/- + DA
c) Rs.400/- + DA
d) Rs.300/- + DA
Q44 What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay in grade pay below
Rs. 4200 and pay in the pay band below Rs. 7440 -
a) Rs.200/- + DA
b) Rs.300/- + DA
c) Rs.400/- + DA
d) Rs.600/- + DA
Q45 What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay in the grade pay Rs.
5400 and above “X & Y”class city -
a) Rs.1600 + DA
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b) Rs.3200 + DA
c) Rs.6400 + DA
d) Rs.7000 + DA
Q46 What is the rate of Transport Allowance for employees drawing pay in the grade pay Rs.
5400 and above in other cities than “X & Y” class city -
a) Rs.1600 + DA
b) Rs.3200 + DA
c) Rs.6400 + DA
d) Rs.7000 + DA
Q47 What is the rate of Transport Allowance to the handicapped railway employees who
does not use railway vehicles -
a) Rs.10% of pay
b) Double the normal rate of Transport allowance
c) No changes
d) Rs.1000/- to all
Q48 To be eligible for drawal of Travelling Allowance, what is the minimum distance a
railway employee has to travel beyond his place of work ?
a) 12 kms
b) 10 kms
c) 8 kms
d) 9 kms
Q49 To get maximum rate of TA, i.e. 100%, what is the minimum hour an employee has to
be absent from his HQ
a) 14 hrs
b) 12 hrs
c) 10 hrs
d) 7 hrs
Q50 To get 70% of TA, what is the minimum hour an employee has to be absent from his HQ
a) 7 hrs
b) 5 hrs
c) 6 hrs
d) 4 hrs
Q51 The daily allowance/TA for continuous halt at a place may be drawn at full rate upto
how many days –
a) 120 days
b) 150 days
c) 135 days
d) 180 days
Q53 What is the maximum no. of months for which HRA can be drawn in favour of a Govt.
servant on transfer to another station who has been permitted to retain Govt.
accommodation in the old station –
a) 4 months
b) 8 months
c) 6 months
d) 12 months
Q54 In case where no specific rate has been prescribed either by the Director of Transport
or the concerned State, what is the rate of taxi hire charges per km –
5
a) Rs.16 per km
b) Rs.7 per km
c) Rs.7.50 per km
d) Rs.6 per km
Q55 In case where no specific rate has been prescribed either by the Director of Transport
or the concerned State, what is the rate of auto rickshaw hire charges per km –
a) Rs.6 per km
b) Rs.5 per km
c) Rs.8 per km
d) Rs.3 per km
Q56 What is the maximum days for which TA/DA can be drawn on a temporary transfer –
a) 150 days
b) 180 days
c) 200 days
d) 170 days
Q57 What is the percentage of TA/DA eligible to a staff deputed to attend a training course
where the course fee includes the cost of boarding and lodging or the boarding
and lodging is borne by the railway administration –
a) 100% of normal TA/DA rate

b) 50% of normal TA/DA rate
c) 25% of normal TA/DA rate
d) 40% of normal TA/DA rate
Q58 What is the name of allowance drawn in favour of a railway employee on transfer to
meet the expenses for shifting of luggage and family members –
a) Transfer and Packing Allowance

b) Transfer Advance
c) Composite Transfer Grant (CTG)
d) Transportation charges
Q59 What is the maximum amount of composite transfer grant that can be sanctioned in
case of transfer from one station to another where the distance is beyond 20 kms –
a) Rs.10000/-
b) One months‟ gross salary
c) One months‟ pay
d) One months‟ pay
Q60 What is the rate of admissibility of CTG to an employee who has joined railway services
after 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal belongings including a car on
transfer –
a) 75% of pay
b) 60% of pay
c) 50% of pay
d) 80% of pay
after 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal belongings but no car is carried –
a) 75% of pay
b) 60% of pay
c) 50% of pay
6
d) 90% of pay
prior to 01.05.76 and uses VPU to transport his personal effects on transfer –?
a) 85% of pay
b) 90% of pay
c) 80% of pay
d) 75% of pay
Q63 What is the rate of CTG admissible for transfer within the same city/short distance
transfer within the distance of 20 kms –
a) ½ of Pay
b) ¼ th of pay
c) 75% of Pay
d) 1/3rd of Pay
Q65 What is the rate of weightage for every hour of night duty –
a) 20 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 5 minutes
Q66 Working between which hours shall qualify for payment of Night Duty Allownace –
a) 22 to 06 hrs
b) 24 to 06 hrs
c) 23 to 06 hrs
d) 01 to 06 hrs
Q67 Nursing staff of railway hospitals are not eligible to get which of the following
allowances –
a) Nursing allowance
b) Washing allowance
c) Night Duty allowance
d) Uniform allowance
Q68 What is the rate of Nursing Allowance admissible to a nursing staff –
a) Rs.1500/- p.m.
b) Rs.1000/- p.m.
c) Rs.1700/- p.m.
d) Rs.1600/- p.m.
e) Rs. 3200/-p.m.
Q69 What is the rate of the uniform allowance admissible to a nursing staff –
a) Rs.300/- p.m.
b) Rs.500/- p.m.
c) Rs.400/- p.m.
d) Rs.500/- p.m.
Q70 What is the rate of Washing Allowance admissible to a nursing staff –
a) Rs.175/- p.m.
b) Rs.200/- p.m.
c) Rs.300/- p.m.
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d) Rs.125/- p.m.
Q71 What is the allowance given to a railway officer holding a permanent post taking charge
of another post in addition to his own post –
a) Charge allowance
b) Dual Charge allowance
c) Additional allowance
d) Extra Duty allowance
Q72 What is the rate of dual charge allowance –
a) 20% of existing pay, DP, DA

b) 30% of pay only
c) 10% of pay DA
d) 25% of pay and DA
Q73 What is the minimum days for which a dual charge allowance can be granted –
a) 60 days
b) 45 days
c) 50 days
d) 30 days
8
Q75 What is the allowance drawn in favour of Railway Doctors to compensate for not
practicing privately –
a) Doctor Allowance
b) Special Medical Allowance
c) Non-practicing Allowance
d) Extra Facility Allowance
Q76 What is the quantum of non-practicing allowance drawn in favour of Doctors –
a) 25% + DA of Basic Pay

b) 25% if Pay & DA only
c) Rs.2000/- p.m.
d) 25% of Pay, D.Pay and DA only
Q77 Non-gazetted rly.servant who do not enjoy public holidays are granted –
a) Special Holiday Allowance

b) Compensatory Holiday Allowance
c) National Holiday Allowance
d) No allowance is given
Q78 What is the maximum basic pay upto which National Holiday Allowance can be drawn –
a) Rs.10000/- p.m.
b) Rs.9750/- p.m.
c) Rs.10300/- p.m.
d) Rs.10500/- p.m. (RBE 151/98)
Q79 Amongst the following, who are eligible to get Night Duty Allowance –
a) Group C Workshop staff

b) Group D Workshop staff
c) Supervisory workshop staff working on regular shift duty
d) All the above
Q80 Amongst the following, who are eligible to get washing allowance –
a) All Group D staff

b) Group D staff who are provided with uniform
c) None of the above
Q81 Project allowance is given for fulfilling which of the following conditions –
a) The project should be a large scale project

b) The construction is spread over a number of years
c) The staff who are employed in the project must reside within the project area
or nearby locality
d) All of the above
Q82 Which allowance is sanctioned in favour of a railway employee who is posted in a

development block in Tribal plan area of some specific state –
a) Special Area Allowance

b) Tribal Area Allowance
c) Development Area Allowance
d) Extra Duty Allowance
Q83 What is the name of the allowance sanctioned in favour of a railway employee who is
posted in remote areas in different states and Union Territories listed as per a, b, c & d-
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a) Special Compensatory (Remote Locality) Allowance
b) Far Area Allowance
c) Extraordinary Allowance
d) Extra Compensatory Allowance
Q84 What are the elements taken into account for drawal of overtime allowance for the
railway employees who are governed by the Factories Act –
a) Pay + D.Pay + DA + HRA + CCA

b) Pay + D.Pay + DA + CCA
c) Pay + DA + HRA + CCA
d) Pay + D.Pay + DA + HRA
Q85 Which of the following elements is not taken into account for drawal of overtime
allowance for a railway employee governed by HOER –?
a) D.Pay
b) DA
c) HRA
d) CCA
Q86 When a rly.servant works on a temporary basis in other Govt. Department, Company,
Corporation, provided the transfer is outside the normal field of deployment, he is
entitled to get –
a) Extra Duty Allowance

b) Charge Allowance
c) Dual Charge Allowance
d) Deputation Allowance
Q87 The rate of deputation allowance as admissible when the transfer is within the same
station is –
a) 10% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.500/-

b) 5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.2000/-
c) 7.5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/-
d) 15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/-
Q88 The rate of deputation allowance when the transfer is outside the same station is –
a) 10% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.4000/-

b) 15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1000/-
c) 15% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1500/-
d) 12.5% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.1250/-
Q89 Which scheme is intended to provide substantial motivation towards achievement of

higher productivity –
a) Awards
b) PLB
c) Honorarium
d) Special benefits
Q90 How many days a casual labour or an employee having temporary status or substitute
has to work to qualify for PLB –
a) 180 days
b) 150 days
c) 120 days
d) 90 days
Q91 What is the maximum wage taken into account for drawal of PLB –
10
a) Rs.1600/- p.m.
b) Rs.2000/- p.m.
c) Rs.3500/- p.m.
d) Rs.2800/- p.m.
Q92 Under what circumstances, HRA can be drawn in favour of a transferred railway servant
who is still in occupation of railway accommodation in his earlier station of posting –
a) If he has permission to retain the said quarter

b) He is eligible to get HRA irrespective of any permission
c) He is paying the rent for quarter in market rate
d) He is not eligible to get any HRA
Q93 What is the rate of HRA admissible to a transferred railway servant who is in occupation
of a railway quarter in his old station but no permission has been taken for retention of
the said quarters –
a) 50% of HRA admissible in the new station

b) No HRA is admissible in this case
c) Rs.500/- p.m.
Q94 What is the name of the document issued by the salary bill compiling officer in favour
of the staff transferred from the jurisdiction of one account to another and for those
who retire from railway service showing details of the salary drawn and amount
recovered in the last month of service –
a) Pay Certificate
b) Salary particulars
c) Last Pay Certificate (LPC)
d) CO7
Q95 What is the new computerised package introduced in South Eastern Railway for drawal
of salary –
a) AFRES
b) COBOL
c) PRIME
d) LINUX
Q96 What is the full form of PRIME –
a) Pay Related Independent Module

b) Pay Rate Insertion Module
c) Practical Relationship of Individual Module
Q97 What is the allowance drawn in favour of a Gazetted Officer when he is posted to look
after duties of his Senior Scale –
a) Gazetted Officer Allowance

b) Extra Duty Allowance
c) Special Duty Allowance
d) Charge Allowance
Q98 What is the amount of Charge Allowance –
a) Rs.1000/- p.m.
b) The amount he should get if he is posted in the higher scale in regular post
subject to Rs.700/- as maximum
11
c) 20% of pay
d) 15% of pay
Q99 What are the other allowances admissible on Charge Allowance –
a) All the other allowances

b) DA only
c) No other allowance
d) HRA and CCA only
12
D&A Rules
RS(D&A) RULES
1) Which of the following Rules of D& A R‟‟1968 does specify the Penalties?
a) Rule 9
b) Rule 11
c) Rule 6
d) Rule 5
2) Rule 9 of the R.S.(D &A) Rules‟ 68 deals with the procedure for….
a) Suspension
b) Imposing of minor penalties
c) Imposing of Major penalties
d) Appeal
3) Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of Deemed
Suspension?
a) S.F-1
b) S.F.-3
c) S.F-2
d) S.F-5
4) Which of the following is not a penalty under S (D & A) Rules‟ 68?
a) Censure
b) Withholding of promotion
c) Compulsory retirement
d) Suspension
5) Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance?
a) House rent
b) Court attachment
c) Income Tax
d) Station debits
6) Whether withholding of passes and PTOs should be for a specific period or for a number of
set?
a) For a specific period

b) For number of sets
c) Both
d) None of these
(Bd‟s No. E (D&A) 61 –RG-6-34 Dt. 27-7-61 & E (D&A) 67 –RG-6-57 Dt. 14-12-66.
7) Minimum period of withholding of increment ……

a) 2 months
b) 3 months
c) 4 months
d) 6 months
(CPO/GRC‟s E.S.No.282/89)
8) A serving Rly. Servant can act as defense council in …..
a) 5 cases
b) 3 cases
13
c) 2 cases
d) 4 cases
9) A retired railway servant is allowed to act as defense counsel in D&A proceedings for not
more than –
a) 3 cases
b) 5 cases
c) 7 cases
d) None
(ES No. 80/03)
10) What is the relevant rule in RS(D&A) ules 1968 for common proceedings ?
a) Rule 9
b) Rule 11
c) Rule 13
d) Rule 14
11) Who is the appointing authority when the records are not available in respect of actual
appointing authority ?
a) Rly. Board
b) GM
c) PHOD
d) DRM/CWM
(ES No.188/82)
12) Who will impose Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissal from service ?
a) Controlling officer
b) Disciplinary authority
c) Appointing authority
d) None
(ES: 34/86)
13) Reduction to a lower stage in a time-scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years
without cumulative effect and not adversely effecting his pension comes under –
a) Major penalty
b) Minor penalty
c) Neither Major not Minor penalty
d) None
(ES: 03/91)
14) Delinquent employee should be informed if charge sheet is dropped within a period of
a) 45 days
b) 01 year
c) 02 months
d) 03 months
(ES: 213/66)
15) Disciplinary authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should invariably pass –
a) Order for penalty

b) Speaking order
c) Order of the Enquiring Officer impose a penalty
d) None
(ES: 90/92)
14
16) Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS(D&A) Rules 1968 ?
a) President of India
b) Ministry of Railways
c) Director Establishment
d) Secretary Railway Board
17) The Railway Servants D&A rules 1968 came into force w.e.from –
a) 01.10.1968
b) 01.01.1968
c) 01.11.1968
d) 01.04.1968
(Rule 1 of DAR 1968)
18) Under the provisions of which article of the commission of India RS(D&A) rules have been
amended from time to time ?
a) Article 310
b) Article 311
c) Article 309
d) Article 421
19) Casual labour can be governed under D&A Rules –
a) After 4 months from engagement date

b) After 6 months from engagement date
c) After attaining temporary status
d) After regular absorption
(RB‟s No.E/NG/60/CL/13 dated 13.5.1965)
20) Who is competent to sign the notice of final penalty?
a) Controlling Officer
b) Enquiry Officer
c) Disciplinary authority
d) Appointing authority
(ES: 11/68)
21) What is the time limit for submission of appeal under D&A Rules 1968?
a) 45 days
b) 35 days
c) 25 days
d) 55 days
(Rule 20 of RS(D&A) Rules 1968)
22) Consideration of appeal is governed by ____ of RS(D&A) Rules 1968.
a) Rule 25
b) Rule 10
c) Rule 22
d) Rule 24
23) Which are the following authorities is empowered to order for cut in pension to a retired
railway servant as a measure of penalty followed by DAR proceedings?
a) President
b) GM
c) Prime Minister
d) DRM/CWM
(ES No. 38/2003)
15
24) How many numbers of Annexures are there in a major penalty charge memorandum ?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
25) While DAR is normally applicable to every railway servant, certain class of persons
working on railways is expressly exempted which one of the following is not exempted?
a) A member of RPF as defined in RPF Act, 1957

b) A member of all India service
c) A person in casual employment
d) A casual labour with temporary status working on railways.
26) Forwarding of inquiry officer‟s report is a must where an enquiry has been held before
imposing penalty.
a) No
b) Reasonable opportunity has already been given
c) Yes
d) None
(E S: No. 289/89)
27) Suspension is not a punishment. However, suspension visits employee with various
disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of
suspension?
a) All the privilege passes cannot be availed

b) During the period, he cannot leave head quarter without permission of the DA
c) He need not sign the attendance register
d) No increment is drawn during the suspension period
(ES: No. 119/83)
28) What for S F-7 is issued?
a) To issue major charge sheet

b) For placing an employee under suspension
c) For revocation of suspension
d) For Appointment of inquiry officer.
29) In a disciplinary case while under suspension, the railway servant after a disciplinary
inquiry is awarded a minor penalty only, the period of suspension is to be treated as …
a) Suspension only
b) Leave at his credit
c) Duty
d) none
(ES: 90/86)
30) How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating action against a
railway employee under DAR‟68?
a) One
b) Five
c) eleven
d) Twelve
16
MAN POWER PLANNING
1. Q. What is vacancy Bank?
(a) Where vacancies are kept.
(b) International Bank of United Nations.
(c) Money value of surrendered post.
Ans:(c) Authority: E(MPP)96/1/15 dated 26.06.96.
2. Q. Delegation of Powers for creation of Non-Gazetted Divisional Control posts.

(a) PHOD
(b) HOD
(c) DRM
Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No.248/98
3. Delegation of Powers for creation of Non-Gazetted HQ Control & Workshop‟s

posts.
(a) PHOD
(b) CWM
(c) GM
Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No.248/98, RBE
NO. 172/98
4. Q. What is the surrender value for creation of Division controlled posts?

(a) 50% more
(b) 25% more
(c) 100% more
Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE
NO. 172/98
5. Q. What is the crediting % money value to Board‟s vacancy Bank for creation of HQ
controlled and Workshops posts?
(a) 50%
(b) 75%
(c) 25%
Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98. Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE
NO. 172/98
6. Q. What is the crediting % money value to Board‟s vacancy Bank for

creation of Divl. controlled posts?
(a) 25%
(b) 75%
(c) 50%
Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)98EC2-3 dated 03.08.98, Estt. Srl. No. 248/98, RBE
NO. 172/98
7. Q. What is the method of calculation for surrender and creation of posts?

(a) Pay
(b) Pay + DA
(c) Mean Pay+GP+DA
Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2008/1/81Pt. dated 02-04-2009, Estt. No. 225/04,
RBE No. 61/2009
8. Q. Who is empowered to create operational posts, posts required to meet

statutory requirement as also required for Security and Vigilance Department?
(a) GM
(b) DRM
(c) Rly. Board, subject to the approval of GM.
Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/91/PO/Genl/ 2 dated 24.06.91, Estt. No. 126/91.
9. Q. When the cost of staff is released from private parties, who will provide
the matching surrender for the said creation?
17
(a) From HQ Staff Bank
(b) Railway revenue
(c) Private party.
Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)90EC2-7 Dated 06.04.92, Estt. Srl. No. 82/92.
10. Q. When the cost of staff is released from private parties, the surrender value can
be utilised for creation of posts by the Railways?
(a) Yes
(b) Crediting in the Staff Bank.
(c) No
Ans: (c) Authority: E(G)90EC2-7 Dated 06.04.92, Estt. Srl. No. 82/92.
11. Q. What is the intake ratio of manpower?

(a) ½ of the retirement
(b) 1/4th of the retirement
(c) 1/3rd of the retirement
Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 17.01.2003, Estt. No. 20/2003
12. Q. Which intake of manpower cannot be counted as a part of normal attrition for
calculation of 1/3rd of retirement?
(a) Appointment through RRB.
(b) Appointment on Sports Quota.
(c) Compassionate appointment.
13. Q. Whether the intake of manpower can be taken for Gr.-„C‟ & „D‟?
(a) Only Gr.-„C‟
(b) Only Gr.-„D‟
(c) Together for Gr.-„C‟ & „D‟
14. Q. Whether resignation and transfer will be considered while calculating 1/3rd of
retirement for intake?
(a) Only resignation will be counted.
(b) Only transfer will be counted.
(c) Both transfer & resignation will be counted.
Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 15.03.2005, Estt. No.51/05.
15. Q. Which categories are exempted from the purview of rightsizing?

(a) Ministerial Categories.
(b) Group-„D‟ categories.
(c) RPF categories
Ans: (c) Authority:E(MPP)2002/1/83 Pt. dated 02.09.03, Estt. Srl. No.144/03
16. Q. Except RPF Category, which categories are exempted from the purview of
rightsizing?
(a) Group-„D‟ categories.
(b) Ministerial Categories.
(c) Safety categories
Ans: (c) Authority:E(MPP)2002/1/83 dated 10.09.03, Estt. Srl. No. 149/03.
17. Q. How surplus Staff are identified?

(a) The senior most of the employees
(b) The employee who retired shortly.
(c) The junior most of the employees
Ans: (c) Authority: E(NG)II/90/RE-1/MASTER CIRCULAR dt.27-3-91
18. Q. What is the procedure for dealing with vacant surplus posts having DR quota?
(a) Kept frozen
(b) Transfer to other Units.
(c) Surrendered
18
Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No. 221/00
19. Q. What is the procedure for dealing with manned surplus posts?
(a) Transfer to other Units.
(b) Surrender
(c) Staff profile and redeployment plan should be drawn
Ans: (c) Authority: E(MPP)99/1/75 Dt.25.11.00, Estt. No.221/00
20. Q. What procedure is to be adopted for redeployment of surplus staff retiring

shortly?
(a) At the other station in any deptt.
(b) At the other station.
(c) At the same station in any deptt.
21. Q. Staff who retiring shortly and can not be redeployed at same station what
procedure will be followed?
(a) Posts should be frozen.
(b) Posts should be transferred to other Units.
(c) Staff should be placed against Special Supernumerary posts.
22. Q. What procedure is to be adopted for redeployment of surplus staff in

grade Rs.2550-3200/-
(a) Within any grade of group-„D‟ in accepting department.
(b) In the next higher grade of the accepting department.
(c) In the same grade of the accepting department.
23. Q. What is the procedure for training of surplus staff other than in grade
Rs.2550-3200/-?
(a) Not to be retrained before redeployment
(b) Retrained after redeployment
(c) Retrained before redeployment
24. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff against posts
having element of DRQ other than the grade Rs.2550-3200/-?
(a) Posted in any grade
(b) Posted in the net higher grade
(c) Posted in the same grade
25. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff where direct
recruitment vacancies in the same grade are not available?
(a) After creation of the special supernumerary post
(b) Redeployed against DPQ.
(c) Accepting deptt. along with the post
26. Q. What is the time limit prescribed for completing the process of re-deployment
of surplus staff in the case of grades having element of DRQ.
(a) Two months
(b) Six months
(c) Four months
27. Q. What is the procedure for redeployment of surplus staff working in intermediate
grades.
(a) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post before training
(b) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post without training
(c) Transferred/re-deployed along with the post after training
19
28. Q. What is the time limit prescribed for completing the process of re-deployment
in the case of surplus staff in intermediate grades?
(a) Four months
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
29. Q. What is the procedure to be followed for dealing with surplus staff found unfit
for re-deployment after training?
(a) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training
(b) Re-deployed in the accepting dept. along with the post.
(c) Placed against special supernumerary posts
30. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment in

case of small number of staff?
(a) Merged with bottom seniority
(b) Seniority will be fixed as per date of appointment
(c) Merged with full seniority
31. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment to

new Units in case of large number of staff?
(b) Merged with bottom seniority
(c) Full seniority irrespective of educational qualification
32. Q. How seniority of surplus staff will be determined on re-deployment to

existing Units in case of large number of staff?
(a) Full seniority irrespective of educational qualification
(b) Seniority will be fixed as per date of appointment
(c) Transferred/ re-deployed along with the post after training
33. Q. Whether pay and allowances will be admissible to surplus staff undergoing re-
deployment training
(a) NO
(b) Only pay
(c) Yes
34. Q. What is the procedure to accommodate the staff rendered surplus where vacant
posts are not available?
(b) Re-deployed in the accepting dept. along with the post.
(c) To create special supernumerary posts
35. Q. Fixation of pay of RRB recruited staff rendered Surplus appointed from a higher
grade to lower grade or equivalent alternative posts.
(a) Pay will be fixed as per normal rule.
(b) Personal pay equal to the appropriate number of increment.
(c) Increments equal to the number of years
36. Q. Fixation of pay of the RRB recruited staff appointed to an alternative post
carrying an identical time scale
(a) Increments equal to the number of years
(b) Completed years of service in the higher posts.
20
(c) Pay should be fixed under the normal rules.
21
SUITABILITY TEST
Q 1. Who is the competent authority to decide the classification of posts as Non-
selection in each Department?
a) GM
b) HOD
c) Rly. Board
d) DRM
Ans: c) (para 210-212 of IREM 1989)
Q2. A suitability test should held at the interval which should not be less then:-
a) 4 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
d) 15 months.
Ans: b) (Estt.Srl.No. 16/64)
Q3. The period of 6 months for holding a fresh suitability test is reckoned from :-
a) The date of assessment of vacancy

b) The date of announcement of the previous result
c) After completion of promotion order
d) None of these
Ans: b) (Para 5 of IREM ‟89)
Q4. How many Officers are required for holding a departmental suitability test?
a)1
b)2
c)3
d)4
Ans: a)
Q5. In case of suitability test, the vacancies are to calculated on the basis of :-
a) Existing vacancy
b) Anticipated vacancy
c) Resultant vacancy
d) All of the above
Ans: d) (Estt.Srl.No. 51/98)
Q6. In case of suitability test, anticipated vacancies will be taken into account for the:-
a) Next 4 months
b) Next 6 months
c) Next 12 months
d) Next 15 months
Ans: b) Next 12 months.
Q7. In case of Trade test, anticipated vacancy will be taken into account for the :-
a) Next 4 months
b) Next 6 months
c) Next 12 months
22
d) Next 15 months
Ans: a) (Estt.Srl.No. 144/96)
Q8. What is the number of staff to be called for appearing in Suitability/Trade test for
Promotion to non-selection post in Gr.‟C‟ category?
a) 3 times the number of vacancies

b) 5 times the number of vacancies
c) Equal to the number of vacancies
Ans: c) (Estt. Srl.No. 51/98)
Q9. Non selection posts are filled by promotion of staff on the basis of:-
a) Seniority
b) Suitability
c) Seniority-cum-Suitability
d) None of these
Ans: c)
Q10. Continuity suitability test will be done within:-
a) 4 months
b) 6 months
c) 12 months
d)15 months
Q11. What period of service in the lower grade is required for promotion in Gr.‟C‟ post
(Non-safety Category) ?
a) 1 year
b) 2 years
c) 3 years
d) 4 years
Q12. The condition of 2 years service should stand fulfilled

a)At the time of actual promotion
b)At the stage of consideration
c)At the stage of appearing the suitability test
d)None of these
Q13. Modified suitability will be held on the basis of
a) Written test
b) Viva-voce
c)Written test and Viva-voce
d)Service record and confidential reports/working report
Ans: d) (Estt.Srl.No. 4/04)
Q14. How many marks are to be obtained in a suitability test against an unreserved vacancy ?
a) 40 %
b) 50%
23
c) 60%
d) 80%
Q15. How many marks are to be obtained in a suitability test against a reserved vacancy?
a) 40 %
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 80%
24
SELECTION
Q1. Who is the authority to declare a post as selection or non-selection?
a)GM
b)PHOD
c)Rly.Board
d)DRM
Ans: c) para 212 of IREM‟89
Q2. How many members will be there in a Selection Board for forming a panel in selection
posts?
a)5
b)3
c)4
d)1
Ans: b) Para 218(a) of IREM
Q3. In case of selection post, the vacancy will be calculated on the basis of
a) Existing vacancy
b) Anticipated vacancy
c) Resultant vacancy
d) All of the above
Ans: d) Para 215 (f) of IREM‟89
Q4. In case of selection, anticipated vacancy will be taken into account for the:-
a) Next 4 months
b) Next 6 months
c) Next 12 months
d) Next 15 months
Ans: d) (Estt.Srl.No.160/97)
Q5. What number of staff are to be called in a selection of Gr ‟C‟ post?
a) Equal to the number of vacancy

b) 3 times the number of vacancy
c) 5 times the number of vacancy
Ans: b) (Estt.Srl.No.290/76)
Q6. Modified selection will be held on the basis of:-
a) Written test
b) Viva-voce
c) Written test and Viva-voce
d) Service record and confidential report
Ans: d) (Estt.Srl.No. 4/04)-2-
Q7. An employee belonging to general community must secure how many marks for
becoming eligible to be empanelled?
a) 30 marks out of 50 for professional ability
25
b) Over all 50 marks out of 100
c) Over all 40 marks out of 100
d) 60% in overall aggregate including 60% in professional ability and viva-voce
Ans: d)
Q8. Second supplementary selection may be held with the personal approval of :-
a) CPO
b) DRM
c) GM
d) Rly.Board
Ans: a) (Estt.Srl.No.181/86)
Q9. A panel once approved may be cancelled after obtaining the approval of:-
a) Selection Board
b) Authority who approved the panel
c) Authority next higher than one who approved the panel
d) GM
Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No.32/69)
Q10. What percentages of marks are to be obtained in the selection for being declared
“outstanding”?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 80%
d) 70%
Ans: c)
Q11. An employee belonging to reserved community must secure how many marks for
becoming eligible to be empanelled against reserved vacancy?
a) 25 marks out of 50 for professional ability

b) Over all 60 marks out of 100
c) Over all 40 marks out of 100
d) 50% in overall aggregate
Ans: d)
Q12. The life of a selection panel is:-
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) None of these
Ans: c) para 220 of IREM‟89
Q13. In selection posts if the required number of staff of reserved community against reserved
posts is not available even by applying relaxed standards of examination, the best among
the failed candidates, who secure only ____ % of the marks under each of items of
judging the suitability of the candidates, will be promoted on ad-hoc basis with in-
service training.
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%
26
Ans : c) (Estt.Srl.No.230/85)
27
PAY FIXATION
Q1. How many pay commission have been getting to Central Govt. employee.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Ans: d)
Q5. What % of pay will be added to the basic pay of a running staff parentally posted in a
Non- running post?
a) 30%
b) 40%
c) 20%
d) None of these
Ans: a) (Estt.Srl.No. 133/87 & 45/64)
Q8. Senior employee will get stepping up of pay vis-a-vis junior so promoted if the junior: -
a) Promoted on regular post on regular measure
b) Promoted on ad-hoc basis
c) Promoted in an ex-cadre post
d) None of these
Ans: a)
Q9. If a junior employee promoted to higher post and submitted an option for fixation of
pay w.e.f the date of increment, senior employee will be given
a) Stepping up of pay
b) Antedate
c) Neither stepping up nor antedate
Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No. 118/82)
Q11. A employee is working in a cadre post; subsequently he is transferred on promotion

against Ex-cadre post. Thereafter he has been promoted further in higher grade against
ex-cadre Post his pay will be fixed on the basis of :
a) From ex-cadre to ex-cadre
b) From cadre to ex-cadre
c) None of these
Ans; b) (Estt.Srl.No. 14/86)
Q.12. Senior was promoted without Spl. pay of Rs.70/- but junior was promoted with Spl. pay
of Rs.70/- senior will given
a) Stepping of pay
b) Same pay at per with junior
c) None of these
Ans: c) (Estt.Srl.No. 274/88,158/90)
Q17. Benefits of 2nd pay commission of Central Govt Employee were implemented from:
a)1.1.58
b)1.7.59
c)1.7.58
d)1.1.59
28
Ans: b)
Q22. RSRPR‟97 took effect from:
a) 1.1.97
b) 1.7.97
c) 1.1.96
d) 1.7.96
Ans c)
Q23. Which is the highest basic pay emphasized in RSRPR‟97?
a) Rs.30,000/-
b) Rs.28,800/-
c) Rs.28,000/-
d) Rs.26,000/-
Ans: d) (RSRPR‟97)
Q28. How many increment(s) will be given to an employee for gold medal winning
performance during the National Championship?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 4
d) 2
Ans: d) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)
Q29. Who is the advising authority for granting increment for Excellence at National Level?
a) GM
b) Finance Commissioner
c) Railway Board
Ans: c) (Estt. Srl. No.128/2000)
29
ADVANCES
1. Who is the authority to grant the advance for purchase of convenience?
a) ED b) ADG & DA-III c) CPO d) DG

Answer: b) (Note : For Gaz – ADG, Non-Gaz.-DA-III)
2. Which Ministry does control the House Building Advance?
a) Railways
b) Urban affairs and employment
c) Pensioners and Public welfare
d) Rural development
Answer: (b) Urban affairs and employment (ES No.57/2000)
3. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of bicycle?

a) 4.5%
b) 5.5%
c) 6.5%
d) NIL
Answer: d) (Interest free)
4. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of motor car?
a) 11.5%
b) 8.5%
c) 9.5%
d) 7.5%
Answer: a) 11.5% (ES No.186/2004)
5. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of House Building Advance for amount
upto Rs.1, 50,000/- ?
a) 4.5%
b) 5.5%
c) 6.5%
d) 7.5%
Answer: c) 6.5% (ES No.85/2003)
6. What is the rate of interest on advance for purchase of motor cycle / scooter / moped?
a) 7.5%
b) 5.5%
c) 6.5%
d) 8%
Answer: d) 8% (ES No.186/2004)
7. What is the pay limit and the amount of advance for purchase of a motor car?
a) Rs.10500 & Rs.180000
b) Rs.19530 & Rs.160000 to 180000
c) Rs.12000/- & Rs.170000
d) Rs.12500 & Rs.190000
Answer: b) (Rs.19530 & Rs.180000 max )
8. What amount of advance will be granted to a Gr.B Officer in the event of natural calamity?
a) Rs.5000
b) b) Rs.6000
c) c) Rs.10000
d) d) None
Answer: d) None (ES No.84/98)
9. How much quantum of natural calamity advance is admissible to a non-gazetted railway

employee?
a) Rs.5000
30
b) Rs.4500
c) Rs.5500
d) Rs.6000
Answer: a) Rs. 5000 (ES No.________)
10. Non-gazetted who are in receipt of grade pay not exceeding Rs…….is eligible for festival
advance.
Ans : Rs. 4800
11. What is the pay limit and the amount of advance for purchase of a cycle?
a) Rs.1400 & Rs.4500
b) Rs.1600 & Rs.5500
c) Rs.2800/- & Rs. 3000/-
d) Rs.1500 & Rs.5000
Answer: c) (Grade pay does not exceed Rs. 2800/- amount Rs.3000/- (ES
No.90/98)
31
APPOINTMENT ON COMPASSIONATE GROUND
Qn.1. The rule governing employment assistance on compassionate ground has framed
w.e.f.
a) 30.4.1993
b) 30.4.1948
c) 30.4.1979
d) 30.4.1980
Ans. 1.(c) [Authority: Board‟s letter No.E(NG)III/78/RC-1/1 dated:30.4.1979,(SER-
Esstt.Srl.No.163/79)]
Qn.2. First consolidated instruction regarding appointment on compassionate ground

was issued under Estt.Srl.No.
a) 163/79
b) 120/83
c) 12/85
d) 202/80
Ans. 2. ( b ) [Authority: Board‟s letter No.E(NG)II/78/RC-1/1 dated:7.4.1983]
Qn.3. The existing orders/circulates were consolidated into one Master Circular on the
subject of appointment on compassionate ground was issued under:-
a) Master Circular No.13
b) Master Circular No.14
c) Master Circular No.15
d) Master Circular No.16
Ans. 3. (d) Master Circular No.16 [Authority: Board‟s letter No.E(NG)II/90/RC-1/117
dated:12.12.1990]
Qn.4. For over looking the priority list, who is empower for appointment in Gr.‟D‟ post.
a) ADRM
b) DRM
c) CPO
d) GM
Ans. 4. ( c ), [Authority: Board‟s letter No. ENGIII/78/RC-III dated:
7.4.1983 (SER-Esstt.Srl. No. 120/83)]
Qn.5. In case of appointment to Gr.C post sanction of which authority must be obtain to
depart from the priority list.
a) DRM
b) CPO
c) Departmental PHOD
d) GM
Ans. 5. (d ), [Authority: Board‟s letter No. ENGIII/78/RC-III dated:
7.4.1983 (SER-Estt.Srl. No.120/83)]
Qn.6. Initially 5 yrs. time limit were to be relaxed up to 10 yrs. in death cases, with the
approval of ---
a) DRM
b) CPO
c) Departmental PHOD
d) GM
Ans. 6. (d), (SER- Estt.Srl. No.106/85)]
Qn.7. Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment of 1 st son/1st

daughter, where request has been made after a period of 5 yrs. from the date of
medical invalidation, (in respect of cases up to 20 yrs. old)?
a) DRM
b) CPO
c) AGM
d) GM
Ans. 7. (d) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/98/RC-1/64
32
dated:28.7.2000 (SER- Estt.Srl. No.144/2000)]
Qn.8. Who is empowered for compassionate appointment of other than 1 st son/1st

daughter, where request has been made after a period of 5 yrs. from the date of
death, (in respect of cases up to 20 yrs. old)?
a) GM
b) DRM
c) AGM
d) CPO
Ans. 8. (a) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. dated: (SER-Estt.Srl.
No.146/2000)]
Qn.9. Consideration of application submitted more than 2 yrs. after the candidate
becoming major is done by ----
a) Railway Board
b) GM
c) CPO
d) DRM
Ans. 9. (b) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. dated: (SER-Estt. Srl.
No. 146/2000)]
Qn.10 For recruitment to Gr.D post in the Railways, minimum educational qualification
prescribed as Class-VIII pass has been effective from ---
a) 4.10.98
b) 4.11.98.
c) 4.12.98
d) 4.12.99
Ans. 10.(c) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/98/RR-1/107 dated:
4.12.98.(RBE No. 277/98) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 18/99)]
Qn.11 Which of the persons have been exempted from processing the educational
qualification as Class-VIII pass for compassionate appointment in Gr.‟D‟ post?
a) Son of the ex-employee
b) Daughter of the ex-employee
c) Brother of the ex-employee
d) Widow of the ex-employee
Ans. 11. (b) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/98/RC-1/139
dated:4.3.99. (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 68/99)]
Qn.12 What is the upper age limit for recruitment in a Gr.C post?
a) 25 yrs.
b) 26 yrs.
c) 28 yrs.
d) 30 yrs.
Ans. 12. (d)] Estt. Srl. No. 221/2004
Qn.13 The maximum age limit for appointment of Gr.D employees belonging to general
community --
a) 28 yrs.
b) 30 yrs.
c) 33 yrs.
d) 35 yrs.
Ans. 13. (c) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated:
9.9.2004, ( RBE No.199/2004), (SER-Estt.Srl. No. 221/2004)]
Qn.14 What is the Lower age limit for recruitment of a general candidate in Gr.C/D
Category?
a) 18 yrs.
b) 20 yrs.
c) 25 yrs.
33
d) 30 yrs.
Ans. 14. (a) IREM provision.
Qn.15 Relaxation of lower age limits upto 1 yr. (i.e. 17 yrs.)for appointment in
compassionate ground can be considered by ----
a) GM
b) CPO
c) Railway Board
d) DRM
Ans. 15. (a) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. dated: (SER- Estt.Srl.
No. 120/83)]
Qn.16 Relaxation of lower age limit beyond 1 yr. for appointment in compassionate
ground will require the approval of ---
a) DRM
b) GM
c) Ministry of Railways
d) CPO
Ans. 16. (c) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. dated: ( SER.Estt.Srl.
No. 120/83)]
Qn.17 In making appointment on compassionate ground, who may relax age limit in case
of appointment to Gr.D post?
a) ADRM
b) DRM
c) CPO
d) GM
Ans. 17. (b) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/90/RC-1/117 dated:
12.12.1990, ( MG- 16 )]
Qn.18 The candidate shall acquire the requisite qualification within a prescribed time
limit of 2 yrs to get compassionate appointment, with the permission of
a) CPO
b) Deptt.HOD
c) GM
d) Railway Board
Ans. 18. (d) (SER. Estt.Srl. No. 57/89)]
Qn.19 While the employee, who is medically incapacitated or decategorised and retired
from service, and has no son or daughter or son/daughter is minor, wife can get
compassionate appointment with the approval of --
a) DRM
b) CPO
c) Deptt.HOD
d) GM
Ans. 19. (b) (SER. Estt.Srl. No.228/84)]
Qn.20 Married daughter can be given compassionate appointment as a matter of

discretion and satisfaction that she would be act as a bread winner of the family
by --
a) DRM
b) CPO
c) GM
d) Railway board
Ans. 20. (c) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/85/RC-1/10
dated:16.4.1987(SER-Estt.Srl. No.115/87)]
Qn.21 Compassionate appointment to a dependant brother / sister of a railway employee

dying as a bachelor/spinster can be offered by --
a) Railway Board
b) GM
34
c) CPO
d) DRM
Ans. 21.(b) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/88/RC-1/Policy
dated:4.9.96. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.5/97)]
Qn.22 Wards / widows of the missing railway employees can get compassionate
appointment with the permission of --
a) GM
b) Deptt. HOD
c) CPO
d) DRM
Ans. 22.(a) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/97/RC-1/210
dated:26.7.98 (SER-Estt.Srl. No.289/98)]
Qn.23 Adopted son / daughter can be considered for compassionate appointment with
the approval of ---
a) Railway Board
b) GM
c) DRM
d) CPO
Ans. 23.( b ) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/96/RC-1/1/Policy, dated: 21.5.85
(SER- Estt.Srl. No.141/88)]
Qn.24 Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment to Dependent

divorced/widowed daughter, (similar to the case of married daughter) --
a) CPO
b) GM
c) DRM
d) Railway Board
Ans. 24.(b) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/2001/RC-1/ER/5, dated:21.11.01 (
RBE No.224/2001), (SER- Estt.Srl. No.157/01)]
Qn.25 Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment to the wards
of missing railway employees up to 20 yrs. old case –
a) DRM
b) GM
c) CPO
d) Railway board
Ans. 25.(b) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/99/RC-1/SC/12 dated:
7.3.01. (SER-Estt.Srl. No.51/2001)]
Qn.26 How many chances are given by GM to the widow to appear in the suitability test
in case of compassionate appointment-
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 3rd
d) 4th
Ans. 26. (c) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/2001/RC-1/Genl/II,
dated:21.9.01.(RBE No.192/01), (SER Estt.Srl. No.128/2001)]
Qn.27 Compassionate appointment in favour of wife/eligible wards of the ex-employee

who are medically decategorised between 29.4.99 and 18.1.2000 but were
retired after 18.1.2000 can be granted by --
a) GM
b) CPO
c) DRM
d) Railway Board
Ans. 27. (a) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/2000/RC-1/Gen/17 dated:26.5.04.
(SER- Estt.Srl. No.125/04)
35
Qn.28 Who is the competent authority to give compassionate appointment in the clerical
category?
a) CPO
b) Ministry of Railways
c) GM
d) DRM
Ans. 28. (c) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/91/RR-1/20 dated:
10.3.92. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.60/92)]
Qn.29 Compassionate appointment to the wards of CPC as Casual Staff as Casual Labour
(fresh face) or as Substitute can be granted by –
a) Railway Board
b) CPO
c) DRM
d) GM
Ans. 29. (d) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/97/RC-1/22 dated:
01.4.97.(SER- Estt.Srl. No.91/97)]
Qn.30 Which one of the following would not come within the categories of person
eligible for compassionate appointment
a) Brother-in-law
b) Daughter
c) Son
d) Wife
Ans. 30. (a) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/87/RC-1/152 dated:
19.10.87. (SER- Estt.Srl. No.73/91)]
Qn.31 Compassionate appointment case will be considered to the wards of the missing
employee before how many years of scheduled date of retirement from which he
has been missing --
a) Less than 1 year to retire
b) Less than 2 year to retire
c) Less than 3 year to retire
d) Less than 4 year to retire
Ans. 31. ( b )
Qn.32 Who is competent authority to exercise powers in regard to appointment of

dependents of Gazetted Officers on compassionate grounds in Gr.‟C‟ and „D‟ in the
initial grade?
a) CPO
b) Railway Board
c) DRM
d) GM
Ans. 32. (d ) (SER-Estt.Srl. No.120/83)]
Qn.33 In case of Gr.D post the power to make compassionate appointment is vested to
a) DRM
b) GM
c) CPO
d) Railway Board
Ans. 33. (a ) (SER-Estt.Srl. No.163/79)
Qn.34 Wards/Widow of a Casual Labour with temporary status can be considered for
compassionate appointment at the discretion of --
a) CPO
b) Railway Board
c) DRM
d) GM
Ans. 34. ( d ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No.94/87)
36
Qn.35 Minimum educational qualification for compassionate appointment to the NTPC
Category is --
a) Graduate Degree
b) Matriculation with 50% marks
c) Passed in Matriculation
d) Passed Class-VIII
Ans. 35. ( c ) (CPO‟s letter dtd:23.10.92)
Qn.36 Who is the competent authority to grant higher fixation of pay to a compassionate
appointee?
a) DRM
b) GM
c) CPO
d) Railway Board
Ans. 36. (d) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.266/83)
Qn.37 The candidates applying for appointment on compassionate ground in a Gr.C post,
suitability test should be adjudged by Sr. Scale Officers consists of--
a) 1 members
b) 2 members
c) 3 members
d) 4 members
Ans. 37.( c ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 274/89)
Qn.38 The minimum qualification to the post of Skilled Artisan for the compassionate
appointee is prescribed as --
a) Class X pass with 3 yrs. training
b) Class VIII pass with 3 yrs. training
c) Dip. Holder with 3 yrs. training
d) Class XII pass with 3 yrs. training
Ans. 38.( a) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.127/2000)
Qn.39 The 2nd wife and her child is considered for compassionate appointment on the
following stipulation --
a) 2nd marriage has been done by own decision
b) 2nd marriage done with the consent of 1st wife
c) Administration have given permission for 2nd marriage
d) 2nd marriage done without intimation of the Admn.
Ans. 39. ( c ) (SER- Estt.Srl. No. 20/92)
Qn.40 Find the odd man out from the following in connection with the compassionate
appointment: -
a) A declaration is necessary to maintain the family member
b) A declaration is not necessary to maintain the family member
c) Dependent family member kept on record
d) Service will be terminated if the family members are neglected
Ans. 40. ( b ) (SER- Estt. Srl. No.200/2000)
Qn.41 Who is the competent authority to terminate the service of a compassionate

appointee after giving „Show Cause Notice‟ for non-compliance of any condition of
properly maintaining the dependent family member?
a) Sr. DPOs
b) Any JAG Officer
c) GM/CPO
d) Any Sr. Scale Officer
Ans. 41.(c) (Esstt.Srl.No.47/2002, 20/2000)
37
Qn.42 Who is the competent authority to monitor to set right the difficulties/delays in
providing appointment on compassionate grounds at Divisional level
a) DRMs
b) ADRMs
c) Sr.DPOs
d) APOs
Ans. 42. (c) [Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/98/RC-I/64/17 dt:30.7.02) (
P/Comp/Poly/Pt.VI, dtd: 26.12.2002)
Qn.43 By whom, the difficulties/delays in providing appointment on compassionate

grounds will be monitored at Hd.Qrts. level to set right?
a) AGM
b) DGM
c) CPO
d) CPO(A)
Ans. 43.(d)
38
Indents/Recruitment
1. Indents against Direct Recruitment Quota for Group-C categories are Placed on :-
(a)Chief Personnel Officer
(b)General Manager
(c)Railway Recruitment Board
(d) Divisional Railway Manager
Answer: 1(c)S.E.Rly‟s Estt.Srl.No.95/2001)
2. How many times indents for various Group-C posts are placed with Railway Recruitment
Board in a year:-
(a)Two
(b)three
(c)four
(d)five
Answer: 2(a) RBE No.136/2001&S.E.Rly‟s Estt.Srl.No.95/2001)
3. Currency of relaxation of 3 years upper age limit extended upto:
(a) 03.02.2010
(b) 03.8.2004
(c) 03.8.2003
(d) 03.8.2002
Answer: 3(a)
4. Reservation Quota for candidates belonging to OBC :-
(a)15%
(b)10%
(c)7.5%
(d)27%
Answer: 4(d) (RBE No.234/2002 & S.E.Rly‟s Estt Srl.No.44/2003).
5. Educational Qualification for recruitment of Prob. Assistant Station Master against Direct
Recruitment Quota is:-
(a) Graduate
(b) Diploma
(c) Degree
(d) Higher Secondary
Answer: 5(a) Estt.Srl.No.41/2001)
6. What is the percentage for Direct Recruitment Quota of ASM:-

(a)25%
(b)40%
(c)60%
(d)20%
Answer: 5(a) S.E.Rly‟s Estt.Srl.No.41/2001
7. Designation of Diesel/Electric Assistant in scale Rs.3050-4590 has been re-designated as:
(a)Assistant Driver(Diesel/Elect)
(b)Asstt.Loco Pilot(Diesel/Elect)
(c)Technician, Gr.III
39
(d)Motorman
Answer: 7(b) (RBE No.29/2004 & S.E.Rly’s .48/2004)
8. Currency of Group-C panels supplied by RRBs is:-
(a)One year
(b)Two year
(c)Six month
(d)Three month
Answer: 8(a) (RBE No.35/2002 & S.E.Rly‟s Estt.Srl.No.79/2002).
9. Education Qualification for recruitment of Group-D posts is:-
(a)Class X
(b)Class IX
(c)Class V
(d)Class VIII
Answer: 9(d) (RBE NO.237/99 & SE.Rly‟s Estt.Srl.No. 274/99)
10. Training period of Diesel/Electric Assistant is:-
(a) 39 weeks
(b) 45 days
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months
Answer: 10(a) (RBE No.254/98 & S.E.Rly’s Estt. Srl.No.281/98)
11. Switchman is now re-designated as :

(a) Trackman
(b) Gangman
(c) Cabin Master
(d) Messenger
Answer: 11(c)(RBE No.nil & S.E.Rly.Estt. Srl No.288/99)
12. Indent for CKP & RNC Division are placed with:-
(a) RRB/KOL
(b) RRB/RNC
(c) RRB/BBS
(d) RRB/SC
Ans: 12 (b) Authority: RRCB No. 12/2004
13. Indent for HQ, KGP & ADA Divisions are placed with:-
(a)RRB/KOL
(b)RRB/RNC
(c)RRB/BBS
(d)RRB/SC
Ans.: 13(a)Authority : RRCB No. 12/2004.
14. Physically Efficiency Test(PET) is made for recruitment of :-

(a)Group-C post
(b)Group-D post
(c)Group-A post
(d)Group-B post
Ans: 14(b)
40
15. Currency of Group-D panels formed by RRB is:-
(a)One year
(b)Two year
(c)Six month
(d)three month
Ans: 15(b) S.E.Rly‟s Estt.Srl.No.251/2004)
16. Quota Reserved for Ex.Serviceman for Group-C posts:-

(a)20%
(b)3%
(c)10%
(d)15%
Ans: 16(c) S.E.Rly Estt.Srl No.14/81)
17. Quota Reserved for Ex. Serviceman for Group-D posts is:-
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 15%
(d) 27%
Ans: 17(b)(S.E.Rly Estt.Srl No.14/81)
18. Direct Recruitment Quota for Depot Material Supdt

In scale Rs.6500-10500 after restructuring:-
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 50%
Ans: 20(b) (RBE No.177/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl No.152/2003)
19. What is the compulsory test for the candidates who qualify in the written examination
for the posts of Switchman, ASM, Diesel/Elect Asstt., Goods Driver & Motorman:-
(a) Physical Test
(b) Psychological Test
(c) Interview Test
(d) Merit Test
Ans: 21(b) (RBENo.144/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.151/2003)
20. What is the D.R.Quota for the categories of TNC, TC, CC,Shroff,
& Office Clerk:-
(a)25%
(b)30%
(c)50%
(d)20%
Ans: 22(c)(RBE No.165/2003 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.145/2003)
21. Direct Recruitment Quota for filling up vacancies of ESM-III/MSM-III, TCM-III & WTM-III of
S&T Deptt. is:-
(a)50%
(b)30%
(c)25%
(d)20%
Ans: 23(a) (RBE No.10/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.41/2003)
22. Calculation of vacancies in safety categories is made on the basis of:-
41
(a) Existing vacancies only
(b) Anticipated vacancies upto two years only
(c) Existing vacancies plus anticipated vacancies including Training period upto two
years
(d) Vacancies against non-materialisation only
Ans: 24(c)(RBE No Nil & S.E.Rly. Estt.Srl.No.171/2003)
23. What is the D.R.Quota for the posts of Field Worker(Male/Female),Extension Educator &
Health Visitor (Multipurpose):-
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 50%
Ans: 25(d)(RBE No. 202/2001 & S.E.Rly. Estt.Srl.No.141/2001)
24. Qualification for Field Worker(Male/Female) in scale PB-2, Grade Pay Rs.1900 against
D.R.Quota is:-
(a)Matriculation or equivalent
(b)Matriculation with 50% marks in aggregate
(c)Graduate
(d)Post Graduate
Ans: 26(a) (RBE No. 202/2001 & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.141/2001)
25. What is the percentage for D.R.Quota for selection of Group-C In GDCE:-
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 50%
(d) 20%
Ans: 27(a)(RBE No.165/2001 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.103/2001)
26. Skilled Artisan,Gr.III(Trade) is now re-designated as :-

(a) Artisan,Gr.III
(b) Technician,Gr.III(Trade)
(c) Technician
(d) None above
Ans: 28(b)RBE No.97/2003 & S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.174/2003)
27. Which of the post belongs to Safety Category:-

(a) Clerk
(b) Staff Nurse
(c) Asstt.Station Master
(d) Stenographer
Ans: 29(c)(RBE No.25/2002& S.E.Rly Estt.Srl.No.33/2002)
28. Which of the candidates are required Examination Fees while submitting application to
Railway Recruitment Board:-
(a) UR
(b) SC
(c) ST
(d) Ex.SM
Ans: 30(a)(RBE No.Nil & S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.87/2003)
42
29. Who is the competent authority to extend the life of RRB Group-C Panels
(a) CPO
(b) GM
(c) DRM
(d) DPO
Ans: 31(b)(RBE No.35/2002 & S.E.Rly‟s Estt.Srl.No.79/2002).
30. Medical classification for the posts of ASM, Goods Guard, Traffic Apprentice & Cabin
Master is:-
(a) A-1
(b) A-2
(c) A-3
(d) B-1
Ans: 32(b) Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V
31. Medical Classification for the posts of Commercial Clerk, Enqy- cum- Resv. Clerk &
Commercial Apprentice :-
(a) A-1
(b) B-1
(c) C-1
(d) C-2
Ans: (C)Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V
34 Medical Classification for the post of Assistant Driver(Elect/Diesel):-

(a) A-1
(b) B-1
(c) C-1
(d) A-2
Ans: (a) Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V
32. Medical Classification for the post of Trains Clerk is:-

(a) C-2
(b) B-2
(c) C-1
(d) A-3
Ans: (d)
Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V
33. Educational Qualification for the post of Trains Clerk is:-

(a) Matriculation or its equivalent with not less that 50% marks in aggregate.
(b) Matriculation or its equivalent
(c) Class X pass
(d) Class VIII pass
Ans: (a). Authority: IREM
34. Educational Qualification for Section Engineer(P.Way):-

(a) Degree in Civil Engineering
(b) Degree in Mechanical Engineering
(c) Degree in Electrical Engineering
(d) Degree in Automobile Engineering
Ans: (a)Authority: IREM
35. Medical Classification for the post of Ticket Collector is:-

(a) C-2
(b) B-2
(c) A-2
(d) B-1
43
Ans; (b)Authority: IRMM-Vol-I(Third Edition) Chapter-V
36. Educational Qualification for the post of Cabin Master(earlier Switchman) is:-
(a) Matriculation or its equivalent
(b) A pass in 10+2 System
(c) Class VIII pass
(d) Class IX pass
Ans: (a) (RBE No.136/99& S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.151/99)
37. Educational Qualification for the post of J.E-II(C&W)/TXR:-

(a) Degree in Mechanical/Electrical/Engineering
(b) Diploma in Mechanical/Electrical/Engineering
(c) Bachelor‟s Degree in Science with Physics and Chemistry with a minimum of 45%
marks
(d) Diploma in Civil or Mechanical Engineering
Ans: (b)(RBE No152/2001& S.E.Rly.Estt.Srl.No.99/2001)

PASS RULES
1. Gazetted staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service
are entitled to get post retirement passes at the rate of
a) 1 set per annum

b) 2 sets per annum
c) 3 sets per annum
d) none
Answer:- b) 2 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)
2. Gazetted staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post
retirement passes at the rate of
a) 1 set per annum

b) 2 sets per annum
c) 3 sets per annum
d) none
Answer:- c) 3 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)
3. Group „C‟ staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service
a) 1 set per annum

b) 2 sets per annum
c) 3 sets per annum
d) none
Answer:- a) 1 set per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)
4. Group „C‟ staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post
a) 1 set per annum

b) 2 sets per annum
c) 3 sets per annum
d) none
Answer:- b) 2 sets per annum (Estt. Srl. No. 28/94 & 27/96)
44
5. Group „D‟ staff having completed 20 years and more but less than 25 years of service
a) 1 set per annum

b) 2 sets per annum
c) 3 sets per annum
d) nil
Answer:- a)
6. Group „D‟ staff having completed 25 years and more service are entitled to get post
a) 1 set per annum

b) 2 sets per annum
c) 3 sets per annum
d) none
Answer:- a) ( Group D staff is entitled only one set of PRC pass after completing 20 years or
more service only)
7. The widowed mother of the retired employee shall be included in the post retirement
complimentary passes as any other family member of the retired railway employees.
a) No
b) Yes
c) I don‟t know
d) none
Answer:- b) Yes (Estt. Srl. No. /96)
8. Widow complementary passes may be issued to a widow whose husband was a railway
employee and
a) Expired
b) Missing
c) Either expired or missing
d) Retired
Answer:- c) either expired or missing (Estt. Srl. No. 118/98)
9. Revised pay limit for issue of I st class pass for non gazetted Group B & C appointed
prior to 1.8.69 is………
a) Drawing pay of Rs. 5000/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be
Rs. 7000/-
b) Drawing pay of Rs. 5375/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be
Rs. 7000/-
c) Drawing pay of Rs. 4900/- or above, in the scale the maximum of which should be
Rs. 6000/-
d) none of the above
Answer:- (c ) Drawing pay of Rs. 4900/- or above, in the scale the maximum of
which should be Rs. 6000/- (Estt.Srl. No. 35/99)
10. Employees appointed after 1.2.99 serving in pay scale of Rs. 5000-8000/- & Rs. 5500-
9000/- and drawing pay of Rs. 7250/- or above but less than Rs. 7600/- shall be entitled to
a) II nd class „A‟
b) I class
45
c) II nd class
d) none of the above
Answer:- (a ) II nd class „A‟ (Estt.Srl. No. 35/99)
11. Administrative Grade officer can travel in ACC 1 st class when on duty.
a) They are put in J A Grade

b) They are in receipt of pay of Rs. 14,300 and above
c) Restriction to availability of berth
d) None of the above.
Answer:- (b ) When they are in receipt of pay of Rs. 14,300 and above (Estt.Srl. No. 167/99)
12. In residential card passes a person can be accompanied as:
a) Attendant
b) Companion
c) Both
d) None is allowed
Answer : d) No Attendant is allowed. (Estt. Srl No: )
13. Facility of a companion will be provided on the post retirement complimentary pass
holders of:
a) First and 1A Pass

b) First, 1A & 2A Passes
c) All classes passes
d) First Class Only.
Answer (a) First & 1A Pass (Rule No: 31/99 & 18/2000)
14. Attendant as defined in pass rules means
(a) Any relative of the employee

(b) A person employed in house hold works of an employee
(c) A person exclusively employed on salary in the personal service of a Railway Servant (d)
None of the Above
Answer: (c) A person exclusively employed on salary in the personal service of a Railway
Servant (RB. No: E(W)93 PS 5 – ½ of 17.05.1993
15. One post retirement complimentary pass should be stopped for each month or part
thereof above ten days of unauthorized occupation of Railway Quarter.
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Can‟t Say
(d)
Answer: (b) True (ES No: 295/99)
16. One Widow complimentary pass should be stopped for each month or part thereof
above ten days of unauthorized occupation of Railway Quarter
(a) False
(b) True
(c) Can‟t Say
(d)
46
Answer: (a) False (ES No: 295/99)
17. Inclusion of divorced and widow daughter in post retirement complimentary passes is:
(a) Allowed
(b) Disallowed
(c) Under consideration
(d) both B & C
Answer: (a) Allowed (ES. No: 109/2003-RB No: 63/2003)
18. What will be the colour of “II Class” „A‟ Pass?
(a) Pink
(b) Green
(c) Yellow
(d) Red
Answer: (c) Yellow (ES No: 37/99 & 111/2003, RB No: 17/99 & 88/2003)
19. A Guardian can be included in the school pass for

(a) A boy under 18 yrs.
(b) A Girl of any age
(c) A Physically Handicapped boy above 18 Years.
(d) All the Three
Answer: (d) All the three. (ES No: 88/2004)
20. Widow complimentary pass can be issued to the widows of Railway Employees:
(a) Who were in service on or after 12.03.87

(b) Who were in service prior to 12.03.87
(c) Who make one time payment of Rs. 250/-
(d) All the above
Answer: (d) All the above (ES. No: 26/2001, RBE No: 174/87 & 52/2001)
47
NEW PENSION SCHEME
Q1. New pension scheme is effective from
a) 01.01.2004
b) 01.07.2004
c) 01.04.2004
d) None of these.
Ans: a) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. F(E)III/2003/PNI/24 dt.31.12.03 RBE No.225/03, SER
No.2/04)
Q2. New entrants in Railway Service will come under New Pension Scheme
a) Automatically
b) By option
c) On Administrative option
d) None of these.
Ans: a) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. F(E)III/2003/PNI/24 dt.31.12.03 RBE No.225/03,

SER No.2/04)
Q3. New Pension Scheme is
a) Contributory
b) Non contributory
c) None
d) All are correct.
Ans: a) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. F(E)III/2003/PNI/24 dt.31.12.03 RBE No.225/03,

SER No.2/04)
Q4. New Pension Scheme is
a) Single tire system

b) Two tire system
c) Three tire system
d) None of these
Ans: a) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER
No.66/04)
Q5. The contribution payable by the employee
a) Monthly basis
b) Quarterly basis
c) Half yearly basis
d) Yearly basis
No.66/04)
Q6. Permanent Pension Account Number will consist of
a) 12 digits
b) 14 digits
c) 16 digits
d) 20 digits
Ans: c) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER
No.66/04)
48
Q7. The Nodal Officer for each Railway is
a) GM
b) CPO
c) Dy. GM
d) FA&CAO
Ans: d) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. 2004/AC-II/21/1 dt.19.02.04 RBA No.05/04, SER
No.66/04)
Q8. The Officer-in-charge at HQ Office is
a) FA&CAO
b) FA&CAO(HQ)
c) Dy.CAO(G)
d) SAO(Pension)
No.66/04)
Q9. The contribution towards New Pension Scheme is
a) @ 8% of pay
b) @ 9% of pay
c) @ 10% of pay
d) @ 12% of pay
No.66/04)
Q10. Dearness Allowance is to be taken with pay for contribution.

a) Yes
b) No
c) Partly true
d) Partly wrong.
No.66/04)
49
SAFETY RELATED RETIREMENT SCHEME
Q1. This Scheme covers 2 safety categories, viz.
a) Drivers & Gangmen

b) Drivers & Guards
c) Drivers & Signallers
d) Guards & Gangmen
Ans: a) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04,

SER No.03/04)
Q2. The age limit for this scheme is
a) 50-55 years
b) 55-60 years
c) 50-57 years
d) 52-60 years
Ans: c) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04,

SER No.03/04)
Q3. Minimum years of service for this scheme is
a) 25 years
b) 30 years
c) 33 years
d) 28 years
Ans: c) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04, SER
No.03/04)
Q4. Under this scheme Employment Assistance will be provided to
a) One ward
b) No ward
c) Son only
d) None is true

SER No.03/04)
Q5. The ward will be considered for appointment
a) As per his choice

b) Respective category
c) Administrative choice
d) None is true
Ans: b) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04,

SER No.03/04)
Q6. Eligibility condition of wards for appointment is
a) At per with DR Quota

b) Matriculation in each case.
c) No instructions
d) Nothing is true
50
SER No.03/04)
Q7. Retiring employee will get weight age towards qualifying service under
this scheme.
a) Partly true
b) True
c) False
d) Partly false
Ans: c) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04,

SER No.03/04)
Q8. Residential accommodation to the wards will be treated
a) At per with DR
b) Father and son rule
c) No Railway accommodation will be provided
d) Either (a) or (b) is correct

SER No.03/04)
Q9. This scheme is effective from
a) 01.01.2004
b) 02.01.2004
c) 31.01.2004
d) 01.04.2004
Ans: b) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/R-2/KW dt.02.01.04 RBE No.04/04,

SER No.03/04)
Q10. Recruitment of ward will be made through
a) RRB
b) GM
c) HOD Committee
d) Railway Board.
Ans: c) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(P&A)I-2001/RT-2/(KW) dt.15.04.05 RBE

No.064/05, SER No.81/05)
51
COMPULSORY RETIREMENT
Q1. Every Railway servant shall retire from service
a) On the last date of the month

b) On the day he attains 60 years
c) 1st day of the month
d) As desired by administration
Ans: a) (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)
Q2. The retirement age becomes 60 years w.e.f.
a) 01.01.96
b) 01.07.96
c) 01.07.97
d) 13.05.98
Ans: d) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. E(P&A)I-98/RT-6 dt.14.05.98 RBE No.103/98, SER
No.108/98)
Q3. Premature retirement can be made by the
a) GM
b) Railway Board
c) HOD concerned
d) Appointing authority
Ans: d) (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)
Q4. A railway employee in group „A‟/‟B‟ service or posts may be retired on attaining the age
of
a) 50 years
b) 55 years
c) 58 years
d) 60 years
Ans: a) (Authority: Rule 1802 R-II)
Q5. A group-„C‟ railway employee may be retired on attaining the age of
a) 50 years
b) 55 years
c) 58 years
d) 60 years
Ans: b) (Authority: Rule 1803 R-II)
Q6. Review of service in case of a Railway employee is to be done when he-
a) Complete 30 years of service

b) Attain 55 years of age
c) Which ever is earlier
d) All are correct
Ans: c) (Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf.
Letter No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)
Q7. Provisions exists in the relevant rules which provide reciprocal right on railway
employee to seek vol. retirement after
a) 30 years of service
b) 30 years of qualifying service
c) On attaining of 50/55 years of age
52
d) Both (a) & (c) are correct
Ans: d)(Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter
No.P/R/14/61A/1(Procedure) dated 02.01.80)
Q8. Review Committees in Divisional Level to consider cases will consists of
a) 1 Member
b) 2 Members
c) 3 Members
d) 1 Chairman & 2 Members
Ans: d)(Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter
Q9. A railway employee must retire
a) If the integrity is doubtful

b) If the appointing authority so desires
c) If he request so
Ans: A)(Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter
Q10. Review Committees are to be set up
a) Department-wise
b) Division-wise
c) Both (a) & (b)
Ans: c)(Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter
Q11. No railway employee should ordinarily be retired, if he would be retiring on

superannuation
a) Within 6 months
b) Within 10 months
c) Within 1 year
Ans: c) (Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf. Letter
Q12. The group-„C‟ railway employee may be retired under
a) Rule 1803 R-II

b) Rule 1803 R-II read with para 620(ii) MRPR
c) Only 620(ii) MRPR
d) All are correct
Ans: a) (Authority: Board‟s D.O. letter No. dt. SER Estt. No. 95/92)
Q13. Premature retirement Rules
a) May be used as Disciplinary proceedings

b) May not be used as Disciplinary proceedings
c) Neither (a) nor (b)
d) Both are correct
53
Ans: a) (Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf.
Q14. These rules may be used
a) For reduction of surplus staff

b) As a major of effecting general economy
c) Both are correct
d) Both are wrong
Ans: d) (Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf.
Q15. Review should be based on
a) An assessment of the entire service record

b) Only CRs
c) None is correct
d) As desired by appointing authority
Q16. A retired employee may submit a representation
a) Within 7 days
b) Within 10 days
c) Within 3 weeks
Ans: c) (Authority: Board‟s Conf. letter No. E(P&A)I-77/RT-53 dt.15.11.79 SER Conf.
Q17. The representation to be submitted to
a) HODs concerned
b) Dy. GM
c) DRMs
d) Representation committee
Q18. The representation committee will consider each case
a) Within 1 week
b) Within 2 weeks
c) Within 3 weeks
Q19. Next stage of the representation committee is
a) AGM
b) GM
c) DRM
d) Sr. DGM
54
Q20. If any retired railway employee, subsequently re-instated the non duty
Period may be adjusted
a) Against leave due

b) Dies non
c) Duty
d) Any of the above
Ans: a) (Authority: Board‟s letter No. F(E)III/77PW-1/4 dt.06.05.81 SER Estt. Srl. No.
114/81)
SC/ST/OBC RESERVATION POLICY

1) Article 16 of Indian Constitution placed under the heading of “Right to Equality” a part of
which indicates the provision of reservation in favour of any backward class of citizen.
A) Article 16(1)
B) Article 16(2)
C) Article 16(3)
D) Article 16(4)
Ans : D – Article 16(4) Authority: Brochure (3rd Edition) ‟85, Page-1.
2) When SC/ST Reservation provided first in Direct Recruitment ?

A) 13.09.49
B) 13.09.50
C) 13.09.51
D) 13.09.52
Ans: B- 13.09.50
Authority: Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-4
3) When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by selection in Gr.‟C‟ & „D‟ posts provided?
A) 1957
B) 1963
C) 1972
D) 1976
Ans : B – 1963
Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-5
4) When Reservation percentage increased from 12% to 15% for SC and 5% to 7-1/2% for ST ?
A) 13.09.50
B) 13.09.51
C) 13.09.63
D) 25.03.70
Ans : D- 25.03.70
Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, page 4
5) When SC/ST Reservation in promotion by seniority-cum-suitability in Gr. „C” & „D‟ posts
provided?
A) 1957.
B) 1963
C) 1972
D) 1976
Ans: C- 1972
Authority : Brochure (3rd Edition) 85, Page-5
6) When 27% reservation provided for OBC candidates in Civil posts and services under the
55
Govt. of India?
A) 13.08.90
B) 25.09.91
C) 10.10.91
D) 08.09.93
Ans : D- 08.09.93. Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No. 90-E(SCT)I/71/1 dated

14/15.10.93, Estt.Srl. No.262/93.
7) Who is the Appellate Authority to issue SC/ST Caste Certificate in the State of West
Bengal?
A) Tashilder
B) Gazetted Officer
C) Local MP/MLA
D) SDO, DM etc.
Ans : D- SDPO, DM etc.

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No. 94-E(SCT)I/31/2 dated 29.11.94,
Estt.Srl. No.45/95.
8) Delay Submission of SC/ST Caste certificate may be accepted from the date of :
A) Submission
B) Issue
C) None of these.
Ans : A – Submission
Estt.Srl. No.250/83
9) If a candidate belonging to SC/ST/OBC Community is unable to produce his caste

certificate in time, he may be considered for offer of :-
A) Appointment
B) Temporary Apptt.
C) Provisional Apptt.
D) None of these.
Ans : C- Provisional Appointment

Estt.Srl. No.185/95.
10) On verification through the District Magistrate, if the caste certificate produced by
SC/ST/OBC candidate is revealed false, such candidate would be :-
A) Terminated.
B) Suspended
C) Punished under D&A rules
D) None of these.
Ans : A- Terminated
Authority : Estt.Srl. No.185/95.
11) Home town posting facility may be considered to the candidates who are belonging to :-
A) PHP Community
B) UR Community
C) OBC Community
D) SC/ST Community
Ans : D-SC/ST Community

Authority : Estt.Srl. No.22/86
12) 10% Quota for SC/ST is applicable for allotment of Quarter where total numbers of
Quarter are 50 or more.
A) Type-I only
B) Type-II only
C) Both Type I & II
D) None of these.
56
Ans : C- Both Type I & II
Authority : RBE No.148/99, Estt. Srl. No. 191/99.
13) 15% for SC, 7-1/2 % for ST and 27% for OBC are to be maintained to the Post based Roster
System in Gr. „C‟ & „D‟ posts for :-
A) Local Recruitment
B) All India Basis recruitment
C) Other than open market recruitment.
D) All kinds of recruitment.
Ans : D- All kinds of recruitment

RBE No.113/97, Estt.Srl. No.181/97.
14) When Post Based Roster is applicable in recruitment ?

A) 10.02.95.
B) 21.08.97
C) 27.08.97.
D) 15.12.97.
Ans : B- 21.08.97
RBE No.113/97, Estt.Srl. No.181/97.
15) When Post-based Roster is applicable in promotion?

A) 10.02.95
B) 09.04.97
C) 21.08.97
D) 27.08.97
Ans : A- 10.02.95
Authority : RBE No.114/97, Estt.Srl. No.135/97.
16) “L” Shape Roster is applicable in both Recruitment and promotional categories separately
where the total cadre is less
than: -
A) 13.
B) 14.
C) 15
D) 16
Ans C- Less than 15.

Authority : As referred at item No.14 & 15.
17. What points of Roster are applicable both in Recruitment and promotional categories
where the total no. of posts in a cadre is more than 15 :
A) 100 point
B) 200 point (separately)
C) 14 Point (L Shape)
D) None of this
Ans : B- 200 point Roster (Separately)

18. “L” Shape Roster is operated: -

A) Based on post.
B) Based on vacancy
C) Based on percentage
D) Based on Rotation.
Ans : D – Based on rotation.

Authority: As referred at item No.14 & 15.
57
19) Total reservation of SC/ST/OBC should in no case exceed: -
A) 50% of total cadre
B) 50 % of total vacancy
C) 50% of total Reserved vacancy
D) None of these.
Ans : A- 50% of total cadre

Authority: As referred at item No.14 & 15.
20) In a small cadre i.e. up to 14 posts, if a SC/ST incumbent promoted to higher grade post
this vacancy will be treated as :-
A) Reserved vacancy
B) Consumed
C) UR Vacancy
D) None of these.
Ans B- Consumed by SC/ST

21) Reservation is applicable to fill up: -

A) Ex cadre post
B) Sports Quota
C) Cultural Quota
D) Compassionate apptt.
Ans : A- Ex Cadre post.

Authority : Estt. Srl. No.63/97.
22) Reservation is applicable to fill up vacancy: -

A) Raised on transfer
B) Raised on deputation
C) Raised on PH Quota
D) None of these.
Ans : C- Raised on PH Quota.

Authority :Rly. Bd‟s Lr. No. 90-E(SCT)I/71/1 dated 02.12.94, Circular No.P/R&R/Physical
Handicapped /Poly /II/1158 dated 19.04.95.
23) Pre-selection coaching should be imparted to SC/ST candidates in selection for a period
of :-
A) 2- weeks.
B) 15- days
C) 2-3 weeks
D) 3-4 weeks
Ans : D- 3-4 weeks.

Authority: Rly. Bd‟s letter No. 88-E(SCT)I/42/II dated 08/11/04.91, Estt. Srl. No.81/91.
24) Pre-selection coaching need not require where no SC/ST vacancy is available in: -
A) All selections
B) All non-selections
C) Selection to safety category only.
D) None of these.
Ans : A- All selections.

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No. 83-E(SCT)42/1 dated 14.4.83. Brochure (3 rd
Edition)‟85 page 482.
25) Best among the failed candidates may be given ad-hoc promotion, if he secured in written
test minimum: -
A) 10% marks
B) 20% marks
58
C) 30% marks
D) 35% marks
Ans : B- 20% marks

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No. 88-E(SCT)I/23/1 dated 22.11.94. Estt. Srl. No.2/95.
26. Best among the failed SC/ST candidates may be included in the final select list on
completion of his service training for the period of :-
A) 3 months.
B) 4 months
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
Ans : C- 6 months
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No. 2002-E(SCT)I/25/11 dated 24.10.2002, RBE No.
192/2002, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2002.
27. At the end of 6 months period, the case of best among the failed SC/ST candidates is
forwarded to the competent authority and the competent authority decides for not
including him in the final select list, then the case may also be reviewed by the:-
A) SPO(RP)
B) CPO(A)
C) CPO
D) D) HOD, if the appointing authority is lower than the HOD, otherwise GM.
Ans : D- HOD,
Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No.2002-E(SCT) I/25/11 dated 24.10.2002, RBE No.
192/2002, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2002.
28) Examination charges incurred for open market recruitment through RRB is required to be
paid by all applicants except: -
A) SC/ST
B) OBC
C) P.H.P., Ex S/M.
D) SC/ST, PHP, Ex. S/M.
Ans : D- SC/ST, PHP, Ex. SM.

Authority: Railway Board‟s Letterr.No.98-E/RRB/25/52 dated 07.04.99,RBE
No.67/99.Estt.Srl No. 176/2002.
29) The marks relaxation / lesser standard of evaluation of SC/St candidates in the case of
promotion was withdrawn and subsequently restored back and applicable w.e.f. :-
A) 27.03.99.
B) 27.03.2000
C) 03.10.2000
D) None of these.
Ans : C- 03.10.2000.
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.97-E(SCT)I/49/14 dated 12.12.2000, RBE No.
215/2000, Estt. Srl. No. 225/2000.
30) Age relaxation of SC/ST for recruitment in govt. services: -

A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) None of these.
Ans : B- 5 years.
59
Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No .E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dt.9.9.04,RBENo.199/04,
Estt.Srl.No 221/04.
31 Age relaxation of OBC for recruitment in Govt. Services: -

A) 3 years
B) 5 years
C) None of these.
Ans: A- 3 years.
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No 90-E(SCT)I/71/1dt 02.2/3.95, Estt. Srl. No. 77/95
32. The period of upper age limit of SC/ST/OBC for recruitment in Gr. „C‟ & “D‟ categories has
been extended up to
A) 03.08.2005
B) 03.09.2005
C) 03.2.2008
D) 31.12.2005.
Ans : A – 03.02.2008.
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No. E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 5-2-2007, RBE
No.199/2004, Estt. Srl No.221/2004
33) At present upper age limit of SC/ST in Group „C‟ category is :-
A) 30 years
B) 33 years
C) 34 years
D) 35 years
Ans : D – 35 years.
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 09.09.2004 RBE
No.199/2004, Estt. Srl. No 221/2004.
34) At present upper age limit of OBC in Group „C‟ category is :-

A) 30 years
B) 33 years
C) 34 years
D) None of these.
Ans : B- 33 years
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-1/29 dated 09.09.2004 RBE
No.199/2004, Estt. Srl. No 221/2004.
35) Marks relaxation for SC/St candidates in Direct Recruitment Quota is :-

A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Ans : A- 10%
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.97-E(SCT)I/25/25 dated 13.03.2000, RBE No.
43/2000, Estt. Srl. No. 179/2000.
36) SC/ST candidates are eligible to be called for interview in Direct Recruitment, if he
secured minimum :-
A) 10% marks
B) 20% marks
C) 30 marks
D) 40% marks
Ans : B- 20% marks.

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.E(NG)II/90/RRB/53 dated 15.04.91.Estt. Srl.No.90/91.
60
37) Minimum qualifying marks is prescribed for SC/ST candidates in selection posts :-
A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Ans : C- 50%
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.E(SCT) 61/CM-15/10 dated 12.01.70, Estt. Srl. No.
41/70 & Rly. Board‟s letter No. E(NG)I-98/PM1/Pt. Dated 20.10.99, RBE No. 272/99, Estt.
Srl. No. 266/99
38) Minimum Qualifying marks for SC/ST candidates in non-selection post is :-

A) 30%
B) 40%
C) 50%
D) 60%
Ans : B- 40%
Srl. No. 266/99.
39) At present upper age limit of SC/ST is Gr. D category is :-

A) 33 years.
B) 36 years
C) 38 years
D) 40 years.
Ans : C- 38 years.
Authority :Railway Board‟s letter No.E(NG)II/94/RR-I/29 dated 9.9.2004, RBE No.
199/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 221/2004.
40) At present upper age limit of OBC in Gr‟D‟ category is :-

A) 33 years
B) 36 years
C) 38 years
D) None of these.
Ans : B- 36 years.
Srl. No. 266/99.
41) If a point in a Roster is earmarked for SC/ST in single cadre post, it may be filled up :-
A) On regular basis.
B) On ad-hoc basis
C) On tenure basis
D) None of these.
Ans : B- On Ad-hoc basis

Authority :Railway Board‟s letter No.97-E(SCT)I/25/4 dated 11.02.2001 RBE No. 6/2002,
Estt. Srl. No. 11/2002.
42) In promotion to the posts of Gr.B and lowest rank of Gr. A, the carry forward in case of
single vacancy is permissible for :-
A) 1 selection year.
61
B) 2 selection years
C) 3 selection years
D) None of these.
Ans : A- One selection/recruitment year.

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E (SCT)I/25/26 dated 16.03.2001, RBE No.
58/2001, Estt. Srl. No. 08/2002
43) SC vacancy cannot be exchanged by ST candidate or vis-à-vis in the case of :-

A) Gr. D post only
B) Gr. C post only
C) Gr. B Post only
D) Gr. D, C & B posts
Ans : D- Gr. D, C & B posts.

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04,RBE No. 3/2004, Estt.
Srl. No. 21/2004
44 SC/ST/OBC carry-forward vacancies can be filled up in subsequent selection/recruitment

year for :-
A) More than 50%
B) Not more than 50%
C) No restriction
D) None of these.
Ans : C- No restriction/bar to fill up all vacancies at a time.

Authority :Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04, RBE No. 3/2004, Estt.
Srl. No. 21/2004
45) 50% limitation for filling up of SC/ST vacancies in a selection/recruitment year is

applicable: -
A) On total back-log vacancy
B) On current vacancy
C) Both backlog & current vacancies.
D) None of these.
Ans : B- On current vacancy

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04 ,
RBE No. 3/2004, Estt. Srl. No. 21/2004
46) After 3 recruitment/selection years, the carried forward SC/ST vacancies in the limited
cadre will be treated as :-
A) De-reserved
B) Lapsed
C) Carry forward to 4th years
D) None of these
Ans : B- Lapsed
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/16 dated 6/1/04 ,RBE No. 3/2004, Estt.
Srl. No. 21/2004
47) Ad-hoc promotion may be made by

following :-
A) Without Reservation
B) SC/ST Reservation
C) General Seniority
D) None of these.
Ans : B- SC/ST Reservation.
Authority: IREM(Vol-.I) 1989, Estt. Srl. No. 130/98.
48) Who is the Chief Liaison Officer to look after the welfare of SC/ST
62
A) SPO(RP)
B) CPO(A)
C) CPO
D) GM
Ans : C – CPO. Brochure (3rd Edition) ‟85 Page 545
49) Who is the Liaison Officer to look after the welfare of SC/ST
A) SPO(RP)
B) Dy.CPO(HQ)
C) CPO(A)
D) CPO
Ans :A – SPO(RP). Brochure (3rd Edition) ‟85 Page 546
50) For promotion to the Higher Grade post, the qualifying service of SC/ST/UR in the
immediate lower grade is minimum :
A) 1 year.
B) 2 years
C) 3 years
D) None of these.
Ans : B- 2 years.
Authority :Railway Board‟s letter No.E(NG)I/2002/PM-1/21 dated 21.4.2003, RBE No.
64/2003, Estt. Srl. No. 91/2003
51) For higher grade promotion of SC/ST in Gr. „ C‟, 2 years service criteria may be relaxed to
1 year with the approval of :-
A) GM
B) CPO
C) CPO(A)
D) SPO(RP)
Ans : A – GM
Authority :Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.3.2003, RBE
No.51/2003,Estt. Srl. No. 65/2003,
52) Can SC/ST post be filled up by UR without de-reservation?
A) Yes
B) No
Ans : B – No
Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No.90-E(SCT)I/71/1-Pt.1 dated 10.10.96,Estt. Srl. No.
142/96.
53) Is SC/ST reservation applicable in restructuring of cadre?

A) Yes
B) No
Ans : A- Yes
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.PC-III/03/CRC/6 dated 9/10/2003 ,RBE No. 90/2002,
Estt. Srl. 152/2003.
54) In the case of engagement of Casual Labour/Substitutes, the reservation is also applicable
for determining:
A) SC
B) ST
C) SC/ST/OBC
D) None of these
Ans : C – SC/ST/OBC
Authority :Railway Board‟s letter No.90-E(SCT)I/71/1/Pt.I dated 12.01.95, Estt. Srl. No.
63/95.
63
55) In a selection where the SC/ST vacancies are available, the selection Committee is
constituted with the officers, one of the officers should be :-
A) SC Community only
B) ST Community only
C) OBC Community only
D) SC/ST Community
Ans : D- SC/ST Community

Authority :Railway Board‟s letter No.E(NG)I-98/PM-1/17 dated 20.10.99 , RBE No. 272/99,
Estt. Srl. No. 266/99
56) In a selection where the SC/ST vacancy is not available but SC/ST candidates are coming
within the zone of consideration against the UR vacancies, in such cases, is the SC/ST
officer required to be included in the Selection Committee?
A) Yes
B) No
Ans : A – Yes
Authority :Railway Board‟s letter No.E(NG)I-98/PM-1/17 dated 20.10.99 , RBE No. 272/99,
Estt. Srl. No. 266/99.
57) Due to non-availability of SC/ST candidates, the promotional post which is not involved in
Direct Recruitment Category, can temporarily be diverted into D.R Quota to make good
the same by respective community of reserved candidates from open market?
A) Correct
B) Incorrect
C) Partially correct
Ans : A- Correct
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.03.2003 , RBE No.
51/2003, Estt. Srl. No. 65/2003
58) Due to want of SC/ST candidates in a category where D.R is not permissible, the shortfall
vacancies may be down graded to make good the same by SC/.ST candidates from next
lower grade
A) Yes
B) No
Ans: A – Yes
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/10 dated 27/28.03.2003 , RBE No.
51/2003,Estt. Srl. No. 65/2003
59) SC/ST candidates promoted on their own merit will be adjusted against un-reserved post,
this principle is applicable in the case
of :-
A) Selection post
B) Non-selection post
C) None of these
Ans : A- Selection Post

Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No.99-E(SCT)I/25/13/dated 6.5.2005,Estt.Srl. No.
95/2005
60) Any serving SC/ST Railway Employees can be a member of SC/ST Railway Employees
Association including the person: -
A) Retired from Rly. service.
64
B) Under suspension
C) Remove from service
D) All of these.
Ans : D – All A,B & C
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/3/da. 24/26.02.03, Circular
No.P/RP/SCT/NG/Poly/625 dt.17.03.2003.
61) Co-option of Office bearers from other than SC/ST to be member of SC/ST Rly. Employees
Association is not accepted:-
A) Correct
B) Incorrect
C) Partially correct
D) None of these
Ans : A- Correct
Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/3/da. 24/26.02.03, Circular
No.P/RP/SCt/NG/Poly/625 dated 17.03.2003.
62) The list of Office bearers of SC/ST Railway Employees Association at Zonal Level is
circulated with the approval of :-
A) Railway Board
B) GM
C) CPO
D) CEC with the Joint Signature of President/Working President and Secretary
Ans : D- CEC with the Joint Signature of President/Working President and Secretary
Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.93 –E(SCT)I/22/1/dated 16.6.94 ,Circular no.
P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.IV/2514 dated 5.7.1994.
63) In case of malpractice, dishonesty and incapability found to run any executive committee
at Zonal /Divisional level, it may be suspended/dismissed by the: -
A) GM
B) CPO
C) CEC
D) None of these
Ans : C- CEC
Authority: As per Bye-laws of SC/ST Association.
64) Who may act as Election Officer for conducting Election of SC/ST Railway Employees
Association in absence of outgoing President?
A) Outgoing President
B) Outgoing General Secy.
C) Outgoing Vice-President
D) None of these.
Ans : C- Outgoing Vice President.

Authority: As per Bye-Laws of SC/ST Association.
65) There is a provision for holding informal meeting between Railway Administration and
SC/ST Railway Employees Association at least: -
A) Once in a year
B) Twice in a year
C) Thrice in a year
D) No bar
Ans : B- Twice in a year.

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.88-E(SCT)I/80/2 dated 12.7.97 , Circular No.
65
P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.V/3283 dated 30.7.96.
66) SC/ST Railway Employees may be spared as on duty as and when they are summoned by
the National Commission for hearing in connection with their representations on service
matter/court cases are entitled to get benefit of: -
A) Duty
B) Pass
C) Accommodation
D) All of these
Ans : D- All benefits of A, B & C

Authority: Railway Board‟s letter No.2000-E(SCT)I/25/17 dated 29.6.2001, Estt. Srl. No.
97/2001
67) How many office bearers of SC/ST Association allowed for attending informal meeting at
Divisional Level :-
A) 30 Members
B) 15 Members
C) 20 members
D) None of these
Ans : C- 20 members
Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No.97- E(SCT)I/22/12/ dated 18.08.98 ,Estt. Srl. No.
236/98
68) Railway Board is the competent authority for circulation of the list of office bearer of
CEC.
A) Correct
B) Incorrect
Ans : A- Correct
Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No.93 –E(SCT)I/22/1/dated 16.6.94 Circular No.
P/RP/SCT/ORGN/Pt.IV-2514 dated 5.7.1994.
69) STD/Inter-Divisional Telephone is provided to the President, Working President &

Secretary both the SC/ST Association and OBC Federation at:
A) Branch Level
B) Unit Level
C) Zonal Level
D) None of these
Ans :C- Zonal Level

Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No.2003-E(SCT)I/22/27/Pt.VII dated 14.7.2004, Estt. Srl.
No. 176/2004.
70) All facilities are given to the All India OBC Railway Employees Federation as given to the :-
A) AIRF.
B) NFIR.
C) SC/ST Association.
D) None of these.
Ans : C- SC/ST Association

Authority : Railway Board‟s letter No. 2000-E(SCT)I/71/16 dated 26.6.2003, Circular
No.P/RP/SCT/NG/Poly/1517 dated 10.07.2003.
66
TRAINING
Q.1. The Probationers recruited to the 9 organized Railway services shall undergo sandwich type
of training (except Medical Service) for a period of ….
a) One year b) Two years
c) Three years d) Four years
Ans. Two years (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.2. The probationers recruited to Medical Service shall undergo sandwich type of training for pa
period of ….
a) Three weeks b) Three days
c) Three months d) Three years
Ans. Three months (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.3. The Probationers of all the services other than Indian Railway Medical Service shall undergo
Foundational Course for a period of …..
a) 6 weeks b) 7 weeks
c) 8 weeks d) 9 weeks
Ans. 8 weeks (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.4. Probationers of all services excepting Indian Railway Medical Service shall undergo Induction
Course at Railway Staff College, Vadodara for period of …...
a) 6 weeks b) 7weeks
c) 8 weeks d) 9 weeks
Ans. 6 weeks (Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.5. Probationers of IRTS, IRSS, IRAS and IRPS services shall undergo Induction Course during….
a) Three years probationary training b) One year probationary training
c) Two years probationary training d) Four years probationary training
Ans. During two years probationary training

(Para-101 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.6. The probationers of IRSME, IRSSE, IRSEE shall undergo Induction Course from ……
a) Working post in the 1st year of b) Working post in 2nd year of their probation
their probation
c) Working post in the 3rd year of d) Working post in the 4th year of their probation
their probation
Ans. Working post in the 3rd year of their probation
Q.7. Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Engineers (IRSE)
situated at
a) Pune b) Vadodara
c) Nasik d) Secunderabad
67
Ans. Pune (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.8. Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Electrical
Engineering (IRSEE) situated at….
a) Pune b) Vadodara
Ans. Nasik (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.9. Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Signal Engineers
(IRSSE) situated at……
a) Pune b) Vadodara
Ans. Secunderabad (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.10. Institution monitoring of probationary training for Indian Railway Service of Mechanical
Engineer (IRSME) (both Engineering Graduates recruited as probationers and Special Class
Railway Apprentices) situated at……..
a) Jamalpur & Kharagpur b) Jamalpur & Katni
c) Jamalpur & Kolkata d) Jamalpur & Kurla
Ans. Jamalpur & Kharagpur (Para-102 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.11. Probationers of all services excepting Indian Railway Medical Services (IRMS) shall undergo
two years Probationary training as per schedules of training laid down by the…..
a) UPSC b) Training Centre
c) Staff College,Vadodara d) Ministry of Railways
Ans. Ministry of Railways (Para-103 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.12. During the two years period of probationary training probationers shall maintain a Diary to
indicate their….
a) Opinion on the Training b) Day-to-day activity
c) Opinion on the Professors d) Day-to-day Tours
Ans. Day-to-day activity (Para-104 of IREM, Vol.-I)
Q.13. Diary maintained by the probationers during the probationary training shall be checked
periodically by the…….
a) Principal b) Chairman, Rly. Board
c) Training Director d) UPSC
Ans. Training Director (Para-104 of IREM, Vol.-I)
Q.14. Probationer shall be confirmed in junior scale only after their passing the examination
prescribed after completion of ….
a) Institutional training & all b) UPSC & Training Centres
68
departmental examinations.
c) UPSC & Training Director d) UPSC & Principal of Training Centre
Ans. Institutional training & all departmental examinations.

Q.15. The inter-se-seniority of Group 'A' probationers of particular examination batch and of a
particular service on their confirmation to junior scale, will be decided on the basis of
marks obtained by them during…..
a) UPSC b) Probation
c) Probation & UPSC d) Training & Probation
Ans. Probation & UPSC (Para-106 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.16. Departmental Examinations I, II & III of the Group „A‟ probationer for I.R.S.M.E. cadre
conducted by…..
a) Railway Board b) UPSC
c) Training Centre d) South Eastern Railway
Ans. South Eastern Railway (Para-107 of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.17. The Departmental Examinations for probationers will consist of…..
a) Written test and Viva voce b) Written test
c) Viva-voce d) None
Ans. Written test and Viva voce (Para-107 of IREM, Vol.-I)
Q.18. The Training period for the post of Asstt.Station Master will be …..
a) 12 months b) 8 months
c) 9 months d) 1 Year 6 months
Ans. 9 months (Para-122(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.19. The Training period for the post of Traffic Inspectors will be…..
c) 9 months d) Three years
Ans. Two years (Para-125(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.20. The Training period for the post of Enquiry-cum-Reservation Clerks (ECRC) will be……..
a) Three months b) Four months
c) Five months d) Six months
Ans. Three months (Para-129(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.21. The Training period for the post of Commercial Apprentice will be…..
69
c) 9 months d) Three years
Ans. Two years (Para-130(2)(iii) of IREM, Volume-I)
Q.22. The initial Training period for Trainee Draftsman in Mechanical, Electrical & Signal
Telecommunication departments will be…..
a) 6 months b) 12 months
c) 18 months d) 24 months
Ans. 18 months (RBE No.61/2004 SER No.12/05)
Q.23. The Training period in respect of “Diploma Holders” being appointed as Skilled Artisans on
compassionate ground may be ……
a) 3 years b) 2 years
c) 1 year d) 6 months
Ans. 2 years (RBE No.266/2004 SER No.17/2005)
Q.24. Pass marks in the examination conducted by Training Centres at the end of the course for
non-safety category should be….
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 60% d) 70%
Ans. 50% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004)
Q.25. The total marks as objective type question in the question papers for initial and promotional
courses should contain….
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 60% d) 70%
Ans. 40% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004)
Q.26. The total marks as objective type questions in the question paper for refresher courses
should have
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 60% d) 70%
Ans. 70% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004)
Q.27. Pass marks for SC/ST candidate in the examination conducted by training centers at the end
of the course for safety categories including running staff should be
a) 40% b) 50%
c) 60% d) 70%
Ans. 60% (RBE No.113/2004 SER No.120/2004)
Q.28. The nomenclature of Zonal Training Centres renamed as……
a) Zonal Railway Training Centre b) Zonal Railway Training Institute
c) Zonal Railway Training School d) Zonal Railway Training College
70
Ans. Zonal Railway Training Institute (RBE No.198/2003 SER No.13/2004)
Q.29. Signal Supervisors promotional course is mandatory while promoting ……

a) JE-II to JE-I b) JE-III to JE-II
c) JE-I to SE d) SE to SSE
Ans. JE-II to JE-I (RBE No.193/2003 SER No.24/2004)
Q.30. The maximum limit of honorarium payable to an Instructor per annum for conducting Yoga
Training is…..
a) Rs.10000/- b) Rs.5000/-
c) Rs.15000/- d) Rs.20000/-
Ans. Rs.5000/- (RBE No.95/2004 SER No.102/2004)
Q.31. The Railway Staff College, Vadodara is headed by the Director General in the rank of ……
a) GM b) AGM
c) PHOD d) HOD
Ans. GM (RBE No.219/2001 SER No.01/2002)
Q.32. The performance of the trainers and availability of infrastructure and training aids of all the
training centers/institutions on the railway will personally monitor by….
a) Principal b) GM
c) AGM d) Railway Board
Ans. AGM (Board‟s No.E(MPP)2001/19/3-Recomm-36 dated 29.06.2001 RBE No.126/01)
Q.33. Probationary Training of Group ‟A‟ officers of Railway Protection Force is centrally co-
ordinated and monitored by…..
a) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training b) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Sasaram
Centre, Lucknow
c) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training d) Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Muri
Centre, Patna
Ans. Jagjivan Ram RPF Training Centre, Lucknow
(Para-5.2.1 of Manual on Management of Training)
Q.34. Probationary Training of Group‟A‟ officers of Medical department is controlled and

monitored by the …..
a) Railway Board b) GM of Zonal Railway
c) CMD of Zonal Railway d) MD of Zonal Railway
Ans. CMD of Zonal Railway

(Para-5.2.1 of Manual on Management of Training)
Q.35. The nominated departmental Training Managers for Personnel Branch at Zonal level is ….
a) AGM b) CPO
c) CPO(A) d) Dy.CPO
Ans. CPO(A) (Para-8.2.3 of Manual on Management of Training)
Q.36. Induction Training to Group „D‟ staff of Personnel Department as per approved modules for
……
71
a) 5 days b) 4 days
c) 3 days d) 2 days
Ans. 3 days (Course No.PERS-1 Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel
Department)
Q.37. Induction Training to Clerks/Sr. Clerks of Personnel Department as per approved modules for
……
a) 15 days b) 12 days
c) 10 days d) 9 days
Department)
Q.38. Refresher Training for Clerks/Sr. Clerks/head Clerks of Personnel Department as per
approved modules for….
c) 7 days d) 5 days
Department)
Q.39. Training for promotion to Sr. Clerk of Personnel Department as per approved modules for…..
a) 6 days b) 7 days
c) 8 days d) 9 days
Ans. 6 days (Course No.PERS-4 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel
Department)
Q.40. Training for promotion to OS-II of Personnel Department as per approved modules for…..
a) 6 ½ days b) 7 ½ days
c) 8 ½ days d) 9 ½ days
Ans. 6 ½ days (Course No.PERS-5 of Approved Modules for Stage wise Training of Personnel
Department)
Q.41. Refresher Training for OS-II/OS-I with 2 years service in the grade of Personnel Department
as per approved modules for……
c) 8 days d) 7 days
Department)
Q.42. Induction Training for PI/WI of Personnel Department as per approved modules for….
c) 8 days d) 6 days
72
Department)
Q.43. Refresher Training for CPI/CWI of Personnel Department as per approved modules for….
a) 7 days b) 6 days
c) 5 days d) 4 days
Department)
Q.44. Induction Training for Law Assistant of Personnel Department as per approved modules
for….
a) 8 days b) 7 days
c) 6 days d) 5 days
Department)
Q.45. Basic Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at….
a) Adra b) Kharagpur
c) Tatanagar d) Ranchi
Ans. Kharagpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)
Q.46. Diesel Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at …

a) Rourkela b) Bokaro
c) Bondamunda d) Ranchi
Ans. Rourkela (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)
Q.47. Engineering Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at …
a) Adra & Chakradharpur b) Chakradharpur & Kharagpur
c) Chakradharpur & Bokaro d) Khargpur & Adra
Ans. Adra & Chakradharpur

(RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)
Q.48. C&W Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at …
a) Adra ,Chakradharpur & Kharagpur b) Chakradharpur, Kharagpur, Muri
c) Chakradharpur, Bokaro & Ranchi d) Khargpur, Adra, Bokaro
Ans. Adra ,Chakradharpur & Kharagpur

(RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)
Q.49. Supervisors‟ Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at ….
a) Adra b) Kharagpur
c) Chakradharpur d) Ranchi
Ans. Kharagpur (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)
73
Q.50. Electrical Training Centre is located in S.E.Railway at
a) Rourkela b) Tatanagar
c) Bokaro d) Muri
Ans. Tatanagar (RBE No.14/2005 SER No.39/2005)
74
D&A RULES
Qn.1. Which of the following statement do bear the title of Discipline and Appeals Rule in
Railways?
(a) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1968

(b) The Discipline and Appeal Rules, 1966
(c) The Railway Servants (Discipline and Appeal) Rules, 1968
(d) None of these
Ans. (C)
Qn.2. What is the current date from which the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 came into
force ?
(a) On the first day of January, 1968

(b) On the 22nd day of August, 1968
(c) On the first day of October, 1968
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Qn.3 Which No. of standard form is used for issuance of Major penalty charge sheet on
disciplinary proceedings?
(a) SF-11
(b) SF-5
(c) SF-5
(d) None of these
Ans. (C)
Qn.4 Which of the following Rules of DAR 1968 does specify the penalties?
(a) Rule-9
(b) Rule-11
(c) Rule-6
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
Qn.5 Board of enquiry appointed by the Disciplinary authority?
(a) Not more than 5 members

(b) Not less than 2 members
(c) Not less than 3 members
(d) Not more than 4 members
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd‟s Ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-24 dt. 20.2.01.
Qn.6 Where appointing authority are not available who should be treated as appointing
authority?
(a) Controlling Officer

(b) DRM
(c) GM
(d) CPO
Ans. (C) Reference: Rly. Board‟s No.E(D&A)63 RG6-23 dt.21.02.64.
75
Qn.7 Disciplinary Authority while passing orders for imposing a penalty should invariably
pass?
(a) Orders for penalty

(b) Speaking order
(c) None
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd‟s No. E(D&A)91/RG 122 dt. 21.2.92.
Qn. 8 Who is the competent authority to make rule on RS (D&A) Rules?
(a) President of India

(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Member(Staff)
(d) Secretary Rly.Bd.
Ans. (a)
Qn.9 When casual labours can be governed under the Railway disciplinary rules?
(a) After 4 months from engagement date

(b) After 6 months from engagement date
(c) After attaining temporary status
(d) After regular absorption
Ans. (C) Rly.Board‟s No. E(NG)60-CL-13 dt. 13.5.65.
Qn.10. Recognised Trade Union official can be allowed to act as defence counsel in DAR cases
in
(a) 2 Nos. of cases

(b) 3 Nos. of cases
(c) 5 Nos. of cases
(d) Any number of cases
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd‟s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-148 dt. 9.1.92.
Qn.11. (a) Which is relevant rules in R.S. (D&A) Rules, 1968 for common proceedings?
(a) Rule 9
(b) Rules 11
(c) Rule 13
(d) Rule 20
Ans. (c)
Qn.12. If the disciplinary authority of a charged official is also involved in the same case, this
case should dealt with by the
(a) Disciplinary Authority

(b) Revising Authority
(c) The next higher authority
(d) None
76
Ans. (C) Ref: Rly. Board‟s No. E(D&A)90 RG6-123 dt. 09.11.90.
Qn.13. Whether the disciplinary cases initiated against a Rly. Servant and RS(D&A) Rules,
subsequently he is expired his case should be
(a) Continue and finalised

(b) Sent to Rly.Board
(c) Sent to GM
(d) Closed
Ans. (d) Rly.Bd‟s No. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-26 dt. 19.6.2000.
Qn.14 What would be correct procedure when a faulty charge-sheet requires

modification/addition
(a) Canceling the earlier C/sheet with reasons

(b) Without canceling a fresh C/sheet may be issued
(c) Continue the proceedings
(d) None of these
Ans.(a) Rly.Bd‟s No. E(D&A) 2001-RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02.
Qn.15 Which of the standard form is required to be used for issuing the order of deemed
suspension?
(a) SF-1
(b) SF-3
(c) SF-2
(d) SF-4
Ans. (c)
Qn.16 How many Annexures are attached with major penalty charge memorandum?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4
Ans. (d)
Qn.17 A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment simultaneously is going promotion
to the next grade. The penalty will given effect to the
(a) Promotion of the grade for same period

(b) But not result in greater monetary loss
(c) Retrospective effect
Ans. (a) Rly.Bd‟s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-13 dt. 8.10.01.
Qn.18 A person appointed directly to a post grade or time scale of pay can be reduced by way
of punishment to a post in lower scale/grade service or to a post which he never held
before?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Can be reduce but his pay to be protected
77
(d) None
Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A)89 RG6-17 dt. 7.3.89.
Qn.19. An acting Rly. Servant can be allowed to act as Defence counsel?

(a) 2 No. of cases
(b) 3 No. of cases
(c) 4 No. of cases
(d) 5 No. of cases
Ans. (a)
Qn. 20. How many cases are dealing a retd. Railway employee as a defense assistant at a time?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 3
Ans. (b)Ref. RB‟s No. E(D&A)2002 RG-6-13 dt. 14.5.03 (RBE 83/13)
Qn.21 Which deduction from subsistence allowance cannot be made?

(a) House Rent
(b) P.F.subscription
(c) Income Tax
(d) None
Ans. (b)Ref. RB‟s No. F(P)62 PF1/14 dt. 12.7.73.
Qn.22 Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance?
(a) House Rent

(b) Income Tax
(c) Court attachment
(d) Station debits
Ans. (C)
Qn.23 Suspension is not a punishment. However suspension visits employee with various
disadvantages. Which one of the following is not a disadvantage as a consequence of
suspension?
(a) During the period he can not leave Hq. Without permission
(b) He need not sign attendance register
(c) Privilege passes cannot be availed
(d) No increment is drawn during suspension
Ans. (b)Ref.Rly. Bd‟s No. E(D&A) 83 RG-6-17 dt. 13.5.83.
Qn.24 When a Rly. Employee placed under suspension but only a minor penalty is imposed,
the treatment of the suspension period is as
(a) Dies non
(b) Non duty
(c) Duty
(d) None
Ans. (C)
Qn.25 If an employee is placed under suspension on the date of retirement, under who is
competent to sign the charge sheet?
a) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Rly.Bd.

b) Charge sheet shall be signed by the GM
78
c) Charge sheet shall be signed by the Disciplinary authority as on the date of
retirement
d) President of India
Ans. (C) Ref. E(D&A) 2001 RG 6-3 dt. 20.10.02.
Qn.26 Stiff major penalty namely.
(a) Compulsory retirement

(b) Stoppage of increment
(c) Reduction to the lower stage
(d) None
Ans. (a)
Qn.27 A Railway servant under suspension is entitled to
(a) Leave his head qrs.

(b) Have passes for attending PNM/JCM
(c) Act as defence counsel
(d) None
Ans. (C)
Qn. 28 An employee under suspension can be called to appear at a written examination

required for selection to the promotion?
a) May be called to appear during suspension

b May be called after suspension is over
c)To be decided by the Disciplinary Authority.
d)None of these
Ans. (a)
Qn.29 Compassionate allowance in case of removed employee may be granted under
(a) Rule 20 of pension rules,1993

(b) Rule 64 of pension rules, 1993
(c) Rule 65 of pension rules, 1993
(d) None
Ans. (C)
Qn. 30 An employee under suspension, when he reports sick is eligible for grant of sick leave?
a) Grant of sick leave

b) Grant of extraordinary leave
c) Grant of Half pay leave
d) Not grant of sick leave
Ans. (d)
Qn. 31 How many types of standard forms that are used while initiating action against any
Railway employee under D&A Rules, 1968.
(a) One
(b) Five
(c) Eleven
(d) Seven
Ans. (C) Ref. Rule No. 5 of DAR 1968.
79
Qn.32 A Rly. Servant punishment with stoppage of increment for a specified period and
becomes due for promotion he should be promoted
(a) Immediate effect

(b) After expiry of the penalty
(c) With the approval of GM
Ans. (a)
Qn.33 A Railway servant shall be deemed to have been placed under suspension if he has been
put in police custody for a period?
(a) exceeding 24 hours
(b) exceeding 48 hours
(c) immediate effect
(d) none
Ans. (b) Ref. RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.
Qn.34 50% of subsistence allowance granted under?
(a) Rule 1342 R-II

(b) Rule 1343 R-II
(c) Rule 1345 R-II
(d) None
Ans. (a)
Qn.35 Review of suspension cases is done
(a) After 4 months

(b) After 3 months
(c) After 2 months
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Qn.36 What amount shall be taken into account for calculating subsistence allowance in case
of running staff?
(a) 40% of basic pay

(b) 30% of basic pay
(c) 50% of basic pay
(d) 60% of basic pay
Ans. (b)
Qn.37 When an employee under suspension is acquitted by a court of law?
(a) Full pay and allowance are granted

(b) Half pay and allowance for granted
(c) 75% pay and allowance are granted
(d) No payment
Ans. (a) Ref.1343 IREC R-II
Qn. 38 Compulsory deduction from subsistence allowance?
(a) PF subscription
(b) LIC premia
(c) House rent
80
(d) Court attachment
Ans. (c)
Qn.39 „Gr C‟ and „Gr.D‟ employees under suspension may be given
(a) 3 sets of pass per calender year

(b) 2 sets of pass
(c) one set of pass
(d) None of these
Ans. (C)
Qn. 40 Can a railway servant placed under suspension act as a defence helper?
(a)A Railway servant act as a defence helper

(b) Decided by Disciplinary Authority
(c) Decided by GM
(e) None of these
Ans. (a) Ref.E(D&A) 74 RG6-31 dt. 11.11.74
Qn.41 The limitation period of revocation of suspension of non-gazetted employee caught red
handed while accepting bribe in trap cases?
(a) 18 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) none
Ans. (b) Ref.88/V-1/CBI/5/3 dt. 30.9.99.
Qn.42 Inquiry is not mandatory under Rule
(a) Rule 5
(b) Rule 14(ii)
(c) Rule (13)
(d) None
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd‟s No. E(D&A) 85 RG-6-72 dt. 16.5.86.
Qn.43 D&A Rules 1968 will not apply to
(a) Permanent employee

(b) Apprentice
(c) Casual lab our with temporary status
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Qn.44 Whether Sr.Section Engineer are empowered to suspend a Jr.clerk in scale RS.3050-
4050 (RSRP) working under his control?
(a) Sr.Section Engineer is Competent Authority

(b) Depends upon offence
(c) Office Supdt. is competent authority
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Ref. As per DOP in schedule II.
81
Qn.45 Inquiry officer‟s report is to be supplied to
(a) Presenting officer

(b) Controlling officer
(c) Charged officer
(d) None
Ans. (C) Ref. E(D&A) RG 6-151 dt. 10.11.89
Qn.46 On transfer from one division to another division, a staff does not report for duty at the
new place of posting who will be the competent authority for taking disciplinary action?
(a) GM
(b) D&A Authority at new place
(c) D&A authority at old place
(d) None
Ans. (2) Ref. E(D&A) 69 RG 6-8 dt. 29.9.69.
Qn.47 The notice of final penalty should be signed by

(a) Enquiry officer
(c) Disciplinary authority
(d) None
Ans. (C) Rly.Bd‟s No. E(D&A)67 RG 6-35 dt. 20.12.67.
Qn.48 What would be appropriate disciplinary authority when staff working under the
administrative control of DOM and misconduct pertains to violations of Commercial rule
or safety rules?
(a) DCM/Sr.DCM
(b) DSO/Sr.DSO
(c) DOM/Sr.DOM
(d) DPO/Sr.DPO
Ans. (C) E(D&A) 2001 RG-3 dt. 20.10.02.
Qn.49 All DAR cases are to be completed within the model time scheduled fixed by the
Rly.Board.
(a) 202 days

(b) 300 days
(c) 150 days
Ans. (c) 150 days
Qn.50 Under which Rule of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 the appellate authority can act as
revising authority?
(a) Rule-25
(b) Rule - 25 A
(c) Rule-22
(d) Rule-21
Ans. (a)
Qn.51 A charged employee has a choice for choosing an Assistant Railway employee (DC).
However certain classes of employees are based as DC‟s which one of the following
classes are barred?
(a) Vigilance inspector
82
(b) Law Assistant
(c) Railway servants under suspension
(d) None the above
Ans. (d) Ref.Bd‟s No. E(D&A) 92 RG 6-175 dt. 18/12/92.
Qn.52 Reappointment of Railway employee in cases of removal from service may be

considered by the
(a) Revising authority

(b) Disciplinary authority
(c) Higher than the Revising authority
(d) None of the these
Ans. (c)
Qn.53 Reduction to a lower stage in a time scale of pay for a period not exceeding 3 years
without calculation effect and not adversely affecting his pension is
(a) Major penalty

(b) Minor penalty
(c) None
(d) Both of these
Ans. (b) Ref. Bd‟s No. E(D&A) 90 RG 6-12 dt. 16.11.90.
Qn. 54 Penalty of compulsory retirement, removal or dismissed from service should be imposed
only by
(a) controlling officer

(b) disciplinary authority
(c) appointing authority
(d) none
Ans. (c) Ref.RB‟s No. E(D&A) 80/RG-25 dt. 20.1.86.
Qn.55 The following are not in penalty under D&A Rules?
(a) Censure
(b) Warning
(c) Stoppage of pass
(d) The recovery from pay of any pensionary loss
Ans. (b)
Qn.56 Whether ad-hoc promotee officers are competent to initiate disciplinary proceedings?
Ans. No.
Qn.57 Which penalty is not recorded in the service sheet?

(a) Stoppage of increment
(b) Stoppage of passes
(c) Warning
(d) Censure
(e) None
Ans. (C)
Qn. 58. While forwarding appeals under Rule 21(3) of the R.S.(D&A) Rules to the appellate
authority should confirm its comments to
(a) the points raised in the appeal only
83
(b) comment on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged official has had no
opportunity to explain his position
(c) discuss past cases
(d) comments on his personality
Ans. (a) Rly.Bd‟s ref. E(D&A) 99 RG-6-40 dt. 13.1.2000.
Qn.59 Whether Divisional safety officer can act as disciplinary authority in the case of
misconduct of Dy.S.S.Working under D.O.M?
(a) Division Safety Officer is competent
(b) Divisional Safety Officer is not competent
(c) Divisional Personnel Officer is competent
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 74 RG 6-69 dt. 4.8.97.
Qn.60 Whether issuance of inquiry or counseling or Govt. Displeasure can constitute a penalty
under D&A Rule?
(a) is a penalty under D&A Rules
(b) is not a penalty under D&A Rules
(c) All are penalty under D&A Rule
(d) None of these
Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 77 RG 6-20 dt. 10.5.77.
Qn.61 Can a disciplinary authority order for stoppage of increment under Rule 6 of the
R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 effecting from the date of issuance of order or from date of next
increment due.
(a) effect from the date of issue of order
(b) effect from date of next increment date
(c) from the retrospective effect
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
Qn.62 What is the permissible time limit for preferring a revision petition to the revising
Authority?
(a) 60 days
(b) 45 days
(c) 90 days
(d) none
Ans. (b)
Qn.63 Which Rules comes under when revision petition is not prefer within the time limit?
(a) Rule 25
(b) Rule 27
(c) None
(d) Rule 22
Ans. (b)
Qn.64 Under which circumstances „ex-parte‟ inquiry can be held?
(a)Charge official does not appear before I.O. more than two occasion.
(b) Presenting Officer not appear before IO
(c) Disciplinary Authority not appear before IO
(d )None of these.
Ans. (a)
Qn.65 Can any of the penalties specified in Rule 6 of the Railway servants (D&A)Rules be
imposed with retrospective effect?
(a) With retrospective effect

(b) Both are prospective and immediate effect as admissibleS
(c) Always be prospective effect
84
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
Qn.66 During the pendency of a penalty of stoppage of pass/PTO whether promotion of a
Railway staff will be affected.
(a) promotion will be affected

(b) promotion will not be affected
(c) promotion will effect after expiry of punishment
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
Qn.67 When it is not practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the Railway servants (D&A)
Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered?
(a) Rule 6
(b) Rule 14(ii)
(c) Rule 13
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Qn.68 What is the correct Rule under R.S.Rules (D&A)for common proceeding?
(a) Rule 14
(b) Rule 18
(c) Rule 13
(d) None
Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.D&A Rules, 1968.
Qn.69 Under which Rule before disposing the revision petition by the GM the case should be
refer to RRT for advice.
(a) Rule 14(i)
(b) Rule 31
(c) Rule 24
Ans. (C) Ref. R.S.(D&A) Rule, 1968.
Qn.70 Is it necessary the Inquiry Officer should be sufficiently senior in rank to the charged
official?
(a) Always IO should be senior
(b) IO may be junior
(c) IO may be equal in rank with CO
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Rly.Bd‟s ref. E(D&A) 2000 RG-6-24 dt. 20.2.01.
Qn.71 Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms of
Rule 25 (i) (iv)?
(a) The officer not below the rank of DRM

(b) The officer not below the rank of JA officer
(c) The officer not below the rank of PHOD
Ans. (a) E(D&A)2003/RG 6-37 dt. 13.2.04.
Qn.72 Whether it is obligatory of the inquiry officer to inform defence counsel engaged by the
charged official in each hearing?
(a) IO should inform DC
(b) IO should not inform DC
(c) DA should inform DC
(d) None of these
85
Ans. (a)
Qn.73 What is the current Rule for granting compassionate allowance to Railway employees
who are removed or dismissal from service?
(a) Rule 64 of R.S.(Pension) Rules

(b) Rule 65 of R.S.(Pension) Rules
(c) Rule 60 of R.S.(Pension) Rules
Ans. (b)
Qn.74 Fresh appointment/Re-appointment under D&A Rule can be consider in terms of Rule
(a) 502 IREC Vol-I
(b) 402 IREC Vol-1
(c) 302 IREC Vol-1
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Qn.75 How many total number of Rules, the Railway Servants (D&A) Rules, do contain and how
many parts are they divided.
(a) 31 Rule in IV parts

(b) 25 Rule in VI parts
(c) 31 Rule in VII parts
Ans. (C)
Qn.76 Rule 11 of the R.S.(D&A) Rules, 1968 deals with the procedure for
(a) Suspension
(b) Major penalty proceedings
(c) Appeal cases
(d) Minor penalty proceeding
Ans. (d)
Qn. 77 Which of the following is not termed as penalty under DAR 1968?
(a) Censure
(b) Withdrawing of promotion
(c) Suspension
(d) None
Ans. (C)
Qn.78 Which of the following person is not allowed to be engaged as defence counsel?
(a) A serving Rly. Employee

(b) A retired Rly. Employee
(c) A legal petitioner
(d) A trade union official
Ans. (c)
Qn.79 Removal from service of Mr.X. Hd.Clerk, CPO‟s office, who had absented himself by
overstaying his leave without giving him an opportunity of showing cause why he should
not be removed.
86
(a) No show cause is necessary
(b) No opportunity against article 311 of the constitution of India
(c) Approval of PHOD
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b)
Qn.80 While forwarding appeals under Rules 21(3) of the Railway servants (D&A) Rules to the
Appellate Authority should ?
(a) Confine its comments to the points raised in the appeal only
(b) Can comments on any extraneous circumstances on which the charged
employee had had no opportunity to explain his position
(c) Confine its comments with the approval of Revising Authority
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Ref.RB”s No. E(D&A)99 RG6-40 dt. 13.1.2000 (RBE 7/2000)
Qn.81 Who is the competent to review under Rule 25 A the Railway servants (D&A) Rules,
1968?
(a) General Manager
(b) PHOD
(c) Railway Board
(d) The President of India
Ans. (d)
Qn.82 Who is the competent authority to consider the appeal without restriction of time limit?
(a) PHOD
(b) GM
(c) DRM
(d) HOD
Ans. (b)
Qn.83 When it is no practical to hold any inquiry under Rule 9 of the Railway servants (D&A)
Rules, whether removal/dismissal can be directly ordered?
(a) Rule 9
(b) Rule 13
(c) Rule 14(ii)
(d) None of these
Ans. (C)
Qn.84 Who would be competent to issue Govt‟s displeasure to a retd. Railway employee whose
case has been dropped after retirement but initiated before retirement?
(a) Railway Board

(b) HOD/PHOD
(c) AGM/GM
(d) None of these.
Ans. (C) Ref.Bd‟s No.E(D&A)2001 RG6-3 dt. 20.10.02
Qn.85 Who can exercise reversionary power when no appeal has been preferred in terms of
Rule 25(i) (iv)?
(a) DCM
(b) SrDPO
(c) DRM
(d) None of these.
87
Ans. (C) Ref. In RB‟s No. E(D&A)2003/RG-6/37 dt. 13.2.04.
Qn.86 Which authority to cut in pensionary benefit
(a) GM
(b) Rly.Board
(c) President of India
(d) None
Ans. (C) Ref. Rule 9 of RS(Pension) Rules 1993.
Qn.87 Whether Revision/Review of cases already finalsied before retirement of the Railway
employees can be initiated after his retirement with a view to impose a cut in his
pensionary benefits?
(a) Can be initiated.

(b) Cannot be initiated.
(c) Can be initiated with the approval of GM.
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b) Rly.Board‟s ref. E(D&A)93 RG 6-61 dt. 11.1.2000.
Qn.88 Whether pension is payable in the cases of removal or dismissal of a railway servant?
(a) Pension is payble.
(b) Pension is not payable.
(c) Compassionate allowance can be considered.
(d) None of these.
Ans. (c) Ref. E(D&A)2003-RG6-2 dt. 13.1.04.
Qn.89 Under which Rule is permissible for consideration of appeal
(a) Rule 20
(b) Rule 22
(c) Rule 25
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Qn.90 Which of the following is the order against which no appeal lies?
(a) An order of suspension

(b) An order for enhancement of penalty
(c) Any order passed by an inquiry authority in the course of an enquiry
(d) None of these.
Ans (C)
Qn.91 Whether The Railway servants (D&A) Rules, 1968 are applicable to constable of the
Railway protection force?
(a) are applicable.
(b) are not applicable.
(c) are applicable in certain cases.
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b)
Qn.92 Who is the competent to initiate & finalise the D&A proceedings against a Comml.
Superintendent.
a) Sr. DPO
b) DEE
88
c) SCM
d) None of these.
Ans (C)
Qn. 93 Reduction to a lower stage in the time scale of pay cannot affect promotion
during penalty.
a) Not affect promotion

b) Affect promotion
c) Affect promotion after expiry of punishment
d) None of these.
Ans (A)
Qn. 94 What is Rule 14(II) of the RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.
a) Removal / Dismissal after an SF 5 is issued.

b) Removal / Dismissal without any inquiry when it is not practicable to hold
inquiry in a normal manner.
c) Compulsory retirement without any inquiry.
d) Removal / Dismissal in case of conviction.
Ans. (B)
Qn. 95 A Railway servants cannot be promoted during the punishment period either minor or
major? Which one of the following is an exception to the above provisions?
(a) Recovery of pecuniary loss caused to the Govt.

(b) Reduction to the lower stage in the time scale of pay
(c) Withholding of increment
(d) Reduction to the lower time scale of pay/grade/post
Ans. (a)
Qn.96 Which one of the penalties cannot be imposed on a retired Railway service?
(a) Cut in pension

(b) Cut in DCRG
(c) Cut in pension/DCRG
(d) Cut in retirement complementary passes
Ans (d)
Qn.97 A suspended Rly Employee issued a major penalty C/sheet but finally imposed a minor
penalty. The treatment of suspension period.
(a) Non duty

(b) Duty
(c) Dies non
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b) Rly.Bd.Ref.E(D&A) 86 RG 6-19 dt. 21.3.86.
Q.98. Before forwarding the mercy appeal to Rly.Board the mercy appeal may be
examined by the
(a) Controlling officer

(b) Disciplinary authority
(c) Prescribed authority
(d) Revising authority
Ans. (C) Rly.Bd‟s ref. E(D&A)99 RG 6-25 dt. 11.10.99.
89
Q.99. Which is not applicable to treatment of the suspension period?
(a) Duty
(b) Suspension
(c) Leave due
(d) Dis-non
Ans. (d)
Q.100 After retirement a charge sheet can be issued only by the
(a) GM
(d) Chief Personnel Officer Justice of Supreme Court
Ans. (c) Ref. Rule 9 of R.S.(Pension) Rules 1993
Qn.101 Rely to the charge memorandum by the C.O
(a) 15 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 20 days
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Qn.102 When inquiry is not necessary?
(a) Charges admitted by CO

(b) Charges not admitted by CO
(c) Charges prepared by DA.
(d) None of these.
Ans. (a) Ref. E(D&A)57 RG 6-6 dt. 26.4.57.
Qn. 103 Arising out of investigation by the CBI, the charge sheet may be
dropped by the Disciplinary Authority, the matter should be consulted with
(a) GM
(b) Railway Board
(c) CBI
(d) Supreme Court
Ans. (c) E(D&A) 81 RG 6-28 dt. 27.6.81.
Qn.104 Appointment of presenting officer is mandatory

(a) In all cases
(b) CBI vigilance investigation
(c) Canteen
(d) None
Ans. (b) Ref. E(D&A) 78 RG 6-3 DT. 20/22/1/79.
Qn. 105. Allegation against inquiry officer as bias, the case should be put up for suitable orders
to.
(a) Disciplinary authority
(b) Appellate authority
(c) Revising authority
(d) None
90
Ans. (c) Ref. E(D&A) 70 RG-6-14 (i) dt. 19.6.74.
Qn.106 Daily order sheet maintain by

(a) Disciplinary authority
(b) Inquiry officer
(c) Charged officer
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Qn.107. Which penalty does not effect for promotion?

(a) Stoppage of pass/PTO‟s
(b) Reduction in post
(c) Dismissed from service
(d) None
Ans. (a)
Qn.108. Exparte inquiry may be held when
(a) CO does not appear
(b) I.O does not appear
(c) Defence counsel does not appear
(d) None
Ans. (a)
Qn. 109. When did De-novo proceedings may be ordered by the competent authority?
(a) Irregularity or proceedings
(b) Correctly proceedings
(c) CO does not appear
(d) None
Ans. (a)
Qn.110 In case of Noc-CVC vigilance case, before imposition of penalty the matter
should be consult with
(a) GM
(b) Vo (T)
(c) CPO
(d) CAT
Ans. (b) Ref.E(D&A) 2000 RG 6-30 dt. 16.5.01.
Qn.111 Inquiry is not necessary when an employee

Intoxication of Alcohol
(a) Conviction of criminal charge
(b) Misuse of Rly.property
(c) Misbehavior with supervisor
Ans. (b) Ref.Rule 14(i) of RS(D&A) Rules, 1968.
Qn.112. Under which Rule that Disciplinary authority does not issue a formal charge
sheet for imposition of penalty.
(a) Rule 13
(b) Rule 25
(c) Rule 14(ii)
(d) Rule 22
Ans. (c)
Qn.113. For retd. Gr‟A‟ officer of SA grade is to be communicated Govt‟s displeasure by
(a) President of India
91
(b) Rly.Board
(c) Supreme Court
(d) None
Ans. (b)
Qn.114 A Rly. Servant punished with stoppage of increment for 2years in scale rs.4500-
125-7000 on pay Rsd.4625/- p.m. with cumulative effect. Date of increment 1.8.05. After
expiry of punishment his pay will be fixed.
(a) Rs.4875
(b) Rs.4750
(c) Rs.4775
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b)
Qn.115. Reduction of pay by two stages to the lower stages of Rs.5850/- in the scale 5500-
175-9000 for period 2 year without cumulative effect. Date of effect penalty 1.3.2000 and
date of increment 1.6.2000. After expiry of punishment his pay will fixed on 1.6.2002.
(a) 6550
(b) 6725
(c) 6900
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b)
Qn. 116 Minimum period of with holding of increment

(a) 3 months
(b) One year
(c) Six months
(d) 2 months
Ans. (d) 282/89
Qn.117 . A retd. Employee may be granted pension before finalisation of the D&A case.
(a) Full pension
(b) Half pension
(c) Provisional pension
(d) None
Ans. (C)
Qn.118. A Gr „C‟ staff in pay scales of up to and including Rs.(5000-8000) placed under
suspension? Who is the actual competent authority in his grade.
(a) Assistant officer
(b) JA Grade officer
(c) Assistant officer(Jr.Scale and and Group „B‟ holding independent
charge) and Sr.Scale officer
(d) None
Ans. (b) Ref. DOP, Rly.Board‟s letter No. E(D&A) 2002-RG 6-1 dt. 10.3.03.
Qn.119.. Who is the competent authority to issue a „Govt. displeasure notice for retd.
Employee upto and including selection Grade of JA grade in respect of D&A proceedings
had already been initiated before retirement but such proceedings are to be dropped?
(a) JA Grade officer
(b) Rly.Board
(d) GM
92
Ans. (d) Ref. Rl;y.Board No. E(D&A) 2001 RG 6-3 dt. 20.10.02.
Qn. 120. In any case, ADRM is the disciplinary authority who will be acting as Appellate
authority?
(a) DRM
(b) PHOD
(c) GM
(d) Rly.Board
Ans. (b) Ref. Schedule II of DOP.
Qn.121. In any case PHOD as Revising authority enhanced the penalty then CO
(a) May prefer further appeal

(b) May not prefer further appeal
(c) May prefer an appeal to Rly.Board.
(d) None of these.
Ans. (a) Ref. Rly.Bd. No. E(D&A)94/RG 6-11 dt. 31.8.94.
Qn.122 Re-appointment under Rule 402-RI. A railway employee may be given full
benefit of past service.
(a) Full benefit of past service

(b) Forfeiture of past service
(c) Half benefit of the past service.
(d) None of these.
Ans. (b)
Qn.123 Imposition of enhanced punishment by the competent authority within
(a) 12 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 3 months
Ans. (b)
Qn.124. Reduce penalty or upheld the penalty imposed by the a competent authority within
(a) 1 year
(b) 2years
(c) 6 months
(d) None
Ans. (a)
Qn.125.Show cause notice is necessary when the
(a) Upheld the punishment

(b) Reduce the punishment
(c) Propose to enhance punishment
(d) None
Ans. (C)
Qn. 126. In any case an employee preferred a revision petition, in the meantime he has died,
his petition may be considered by the
(a) GM
93
(b) Rly.Board
(d) Revising authority
Ans. (d) Ref. E(D&A)85 RG 6-46 dt. 11.11.85.
127. In very special circumstances, which authority can revert an officiating employee in
relaxation of the time of 18months.
(a) PHOD
(b) DRM
(c) GM
(d) Rly.Board
Ans. GM Ref. E(D&A) 85 RG 6-9 dt. 20.4.85.
128. Which one of the following penalties are recognised?
(a) Warning
(b) Censure
(c) Counseling
(d) Govt. displeasure.
Ans. (b)
94
LEAVE RULES
LEVEL-I
1. How many days of LAP in a calendar year, a permanent/ Temporary Railway servant
shall be entitled to get?
a) 20 days
b) 15 days
c) 30 days
d) 45 days
Ans:- (c) 30 days in a calendar year; (Para-523 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)
2. How many days of LAP in a year, can be credited to an employee?.
a) 30 days
b) 10 days
c) 20 days
d) 12 days
Ans:- (c ) 20 days in a year; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol.-I,1995 edition)
3. A female Railway employee shall be entitled to maternity leave for
a) 135 days
b) 120 days
c) 90 days
d) 130 days
Ans:- (a) 135 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & Para-551 of IREC-Vol.I,1995 edition)
4. For miscarriage, including abortion, what period of Maternity leave may be granted?.
a) 6 weeks
b) 45 days
c) 7 weeks
d) 43 days.
Ans:- (b) 45 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 72/97 )
5. Paternity leave is admissible with less than two surviving children for a period of
a) 10 days
b) 20 days
c) 15 days
d) 25 days
Ans:- (c ) 15 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 162/97 & 154/97)
6. Maximum days of leave on average pay that can be accumulated is
a) 120
b) 180
c) 190
d) 300 days
Ans:- (d) 300 days; (Estt. Srl. No. 172/97 )
7. LAP shall be credited to a Railway servant at the rate of

a) 2 ½ days per month
b) 3 days per month
95
c) 2 days per month
d) 1 ½ days per month
Ans:- (a) 2 ½ days per month; (Para-524 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)
8. How many days of LAP per year can be credited to a school staff ?
a) 10 days
b) 5 days
c) 7days
d) 8 days
Ans:- (a) 10 days; (Para-525 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)
9. How many days of LHAP can be accumulated to an employeet in his service life?
a) 300 days
b) 450 days
c) 600 days
d) Un limited
Ans:- (d) Unlimited; (Para-526 of IREC,Vol-I,1995 edition)
10. A male railway servant may be granted Paternity leave having surviving children
a) Less than two

b) One
c) Four
d) Three
Ans:- (a) Less than two surviving children; (Para-551(A) R-I)
11. Up to what limit, maternity leave may be combined with any kind of leave?
a) One year
b) Two years
c) Unlimited
d) Six months
Ans:- (a) One year; (Para-551, R-I)
12. A Trade Apprentices may be granted leave on full stipend for a period not exceeding----
------- days per year.
a) 15 days
b) 13 days
c) 10 days
d) 12 days
Ans:- (d) 12 days; (Para-534, R-I)
13. Apprentice Mechanics in Railways Workshops may be granted leave on full stipend for
period not exceeding…...
a) 16 days
b) 20 days
c) 25 days
d) 30 days
Ans:- (a) 16 days; (Para-533, R-I)
96
14. Gazetted officers may be granted LAP for the period exceeding 180 days but not
exceeding ………, if leave granted out side India.
a) 200 days
b) 240 days
c) 230 days
d) 250 days
Ans:- (b) 240 days; (RBE No. 42/92)
15. Study leave shall count for :-
a) Reckoning seniority
b) Reckoning increment
c) Earning LAP
d) Earning LHAP.
Ans:- (c ) Earning LAP (R-I, 556)
97
LEAVE RULES
LEVEL-II
16. Which of the following category is entitled for hospital leave?
a) Group „A‟
b) Group „B‟
c) Group „C‟
d) Group „D‟
Ans:- (d) Group „D‟ only. (Para-554 of IREC, Vol.-I)
17. When no leave is admissible under any other rule, the leave granted is known as
a) LAP
b) LHAP
c) SPL Leave
d) Extra ordinary leave.
Ans:- (d ) Extra ordinary leave (Para 530, R-I)
18. Maximum encashment of leave on average pay is…….
a) 200 days
b) 180 days
c) 360 days
d) 300 days
Ans:- (d) 300 days; (E. S. No. 172/97)
19. Who is the authority to sanction Special Disability Leave?.
a) Senior Scale Officer

b) J A Grade Officer
c) DRM
d) ADRM
Answer:- (d) ADRM (Rule 552, 553, R-I).
20. Leave of any kind can be combined with vacation in the case of
a) Officers
b) Office Staff
c) Running Staff
d) Rly. School Teacher
Answer:- (d) Rly. School Teacher (Para 525, R-I).
21. What is the maximum period of leave on Average pay at time that a Railway servant may
be granted?
a) 120 days
b) 160 days
c) 180 days
d) 300 days
Ans:- (c) 180 days; (Para 523, R-I)
22. What is the maximum limit of Leave not due that may be granted to a permanent Rly.
Servant during his entire service period?
a) 360 days
b) 380 days
98
c) Unlimited
d) 300 days
Ans:- (a) 360 days; (E. S. No. 31/89 & Para 528,R-I, 1995 edition)
23. Within which period, Paternity Leave can be granted?
a) Six months
b) Three months
c) Four months
d) 15days
Ans:- (a) 6 months; (E. S. No. 05/2000)
24. Special Disability Leave on average pay granted for accident on duty shall not exceed………
a) 120 days
b) 125 days
c) 360 days
d) 280 days
Ans:- (d) 280 days; (Para 553 (iii), R-I)
25. Paternity leave is also admissible to
a) Casual Labour
b) Casual labour with temporary status
c) After completion of 180 days of service
d) After regular absorption
Ans:- (b) Casual labour with temporary status; (E. S. No. 143/99)
26. Staff of which Railway are entitled to avail extra Casual leave?
a) SER
b) ECOR
c) NFR
d) ECR
Ans:- (c) NFR;
27. Whom does the Compensatory Casual leave is admissible?
a) Supervisory staff
b) Group „D‟ staff
c) Group „C‟ & Group „D‟ staff but not supervisor
d) Stenographer & Confidential Assistant
Ans:- (c) Group „C‟ & Group „D‟ staff but not supervisor; (E. S. No. 27/61)
28. Quarantine Leave
a) Withdrawn
b) Admissible in critical diseases
c) For Eye disease
d) Wife‟s Sickness
Ans:- (a) Withdrawn; (Para, 555, R-I)
99
LEAVE RULES
LEVEL-III
29. Commuted leave is admissible on
a) Medical Certificate
b) Request of an employee
c) Discretion of competent authority
d) None
Ans:- (a) On Medical Certificate; (Para, 527, R-I)
30. If a Railway employee applies for a kind of leave say LAP, in advance, the competent
authority may……..
a) Sanction as CL
b) sanction as LWP
c) refuse to sanction it
d) convert it as commuted leave
Ans:- (c) Refuse to sanction it; (Para, 503, R-I)
31. A Railway shall be granted leave of any kind for a continuous period of not exceeding……
a) 3 Years
b) 4 years
c) 5 years
d) 6 years
Ans:- (c) 5 years; (Para, 510, R-I)
32. Which of the following leave can be combined with vaction in case of a school teacher?
a) Only LAP
b) Only LHAP
c) Any kind of leave
d) Special disability leave
Ans:- (c) Any kind of leave; (Para, 525 (d) , R-I)
33. How many occasions does a workshop staff be granted half a day‟s LAP?
a) 6 occasions
b) 10 occasions
c) 6 occasions
d) 12 occasions
Answer :- (a ) 6 occasions ( Para539/2, R-I)
34. Hospital leave granted to a non-Gazetted Rly. Servant should not exceed a total of
……..when combined with other leave
a) 24 months
b) 26 months
c) 28 months
d) 18 months
Answer :- (c ) 28 months (554/4, R-I
35. What is the maximum limitation of Leave Not Due granted on medical certificate during
the entire period of service?
a) 360 days
b) 365 days
100
c) 370 days
d) 390 days
Ans:- (a) 360 days; (E.S.No.30/89)
36. Maximum of study leave that can be granted to an employee during his entire service
period is ……..
a) 36 months
b) 28 months
c) 24 months
d) 30 months
Answer :- (a ) 36 months (170/98 )
37. In case of „Cut in pension‟, for compulsory retirement as a measure of punishment,

leave encashment is admissible for…
a) 360 days
b) 150 days
c) un utilized days
d) not eligilble
Ans:- (d) not eligilble; (E.S.No.334/87)
38. Which of the following leave may be granted to a Rly. Servant, Volunteered to donate blood
in Govt./Rly. Hospitals for railway employees.
a) Special Casual leave

b) casual leave
c) LAP
d) LHAP
Ans:- Special Casual leave.
39. If a railway servant resigns from service during study leave, and it is converted into regular
leave as LAP/LHAP leaving balance, such a balance shall be treated as….
A) unauthorized absence
b) Extra ordinary leave
c) Study leave
d) Leave not due
Answer:- (b) Extra ordinary leave (R-I, Appv./ul/2/w)
40. Who is the Authority to grant study leave abroad?

A) Rly. Board
b) GM
c) DRM
d) CPO
Answer:- (a) Rly. Board (E.S.No.77/02)
41. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave within India?
A) Rly. Board
b) GM
c) DRM/CWM
d) CPO
Answer:- (b) Rly. Board (E.S.No.77/02)
42. Who is the Competent Authority to grant study leave for Group „C‟ & „D‟ categories
within India?
a) Rly. Board
b) GM
101
c) DRM/CWM
d) CPO
Answer:- (c ) DRM/CWM (E.S.No.77/02)
43. What is the Maximum joining time admissible to a Railway Servant?
a) 10 days
b) 12 days
c) 15 days
d) 16 days
Answer:- 15 days in case of air travel is involved (Para- 1108, R-I, 1995)
44. Which of the following employee does Special Casual leave is admissible under family
welfare scheme?
a) Male employee
b) Female employee
c) Both male & female employee
d) None
Answer:- (c ) Both male & female employee (E.S.No.100/ 84)
45. Under small family norms a railway employee is entitled to get Special Casual leave up
to…….
a) 14 days
b) 16 days
c) 20 days
d) 25 days
Answer:- 14 days (E.S.No.100/ 84)
46. Special Casual Leave is admissible foe employees who reside at a place where the date
of polling is different from that of place….
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 3 days
d) 4 days
Answer:- 1 day (E.S.No.122/ 87)
47. Who is the authority to grant Special Casual Leave for Bundh,Curfew or other disturbances?
a) PHOD
b) HOD
c) DRM
d) ADRM
Answer:- (b) HOD (DRM/CWM) (E.S.No.4/ 85)
48. What is the maximum Casual leave admissible in a calendar year for scouting/
Sports activities?
a) 30 days
b) 45 days
c) 15 days
d) 25 days
102
Answer:- 120 days (E.S.No.33/ 05)
49. Special Casual Leave is granted to cover the period of absence of Rly. Servants
attending JCM…
a) Not more than 5 days in a year

b) Not more than 10 days in a year
c) 6 days in a year
d) 10 days in a year
Answer:- (a) Not more than 5 days in a year 14 days (E(L0 66 NM-1/21 dt 25-1-67)
50. If the transfer involves change of station, and the distance between the old and new station
is less than 1000 k.ms, how many days of joining time is admissible?
a) Not more than 5 days

b) 10 days
c) 12 days
d) 15 days
Answer:- (b) 10 days (Rly. Bd‟s No. E(G)79/JT1/1 dt. 21.02.1980)
103
PASS RULES
Q 1. What is Pass?
(a) Pass is a Privilege.

(b) To travel in Railway
(c) An authority given by Railway to a Railway employee or to a Person authorizing him to
travel in a train gratuitously.
(d) None of these.
Answer: (c)
Q 2. Family means.
(a) Wife, Husband, Son/Step sons under the age of 21 years and wholly dependent, son of
the age of 21 years & above, if bonafide student of any recognized educational
institution or invalid (Railway Doctor‟s certified invalid son daughter of any age),
unmarried daughter of any age whether earning or not, dependent widow daughter,
dependent legally divorced daughter, unmarried or widowed sisters or step sisters or
legally divorced sisters, if father is not alive.
(b) Wife, Husband, son/Step son/Son-in-law/mother-in-law/daughter of any age.

(c) Husband, Wife/Widow mother/son/Step son of any age/Daughter of any age.
(d) Husband/Wife/Sons/Daughters of any age/Mother-in-law, if father is not alive.
Answer: (a)
Q 3. How many sets of P.T.O. issued to the Railway employees?
(a) 6 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.
(b) 4 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.
(c) 3 sets both for Gazetted and Non-Gazetted every year from the date of appointment.
(d) 6 sets for Gazetted and 4 sets for Non-Gazetted.
Answer: (b) (Rule-6) Railway Board‟s Manual.
Q 4. How many sets of School Pass issued to Railway employee?
(a) 6 sets per year.

(b) 4 sets per year.
(c) 3 sets per year.
(d) 5 sets per year.
Answer: 3 sets per year
Q 5. Maximum validity for a Privilege Pass?
(a) 3 months (Half-set)

(b) 4 months (Full-set)
(c) 2 months (Half-set)
(d) 5 months (Full-set)
(Answer : (b)
Q 6. Attendants of Pass Holder is:-
(a) Part time servant.

(b) Servant
(c) Full time paid servant.
(d) Any person.
Answer : (c)
104
Q 7. Pass to widows/widower of Railway employee was implemented w.e.f.
(a) 12.03.1987
(b) 12.03.1990
(c) 12.03.1989
(d) 12.03.1988
Answer: (a) Rule 9
Q 8. Maximum birth given for Reservation to Railway Officer on duty?
(a) 6 births
(b) 4 births
(c) 3 births
(d) 2 births
Answer: (b)
Q 9. Eligibility for 1st Class Pass for Non-Gazetted staff.
Who are appointed before 01.08.1969
(a) Basic Pay – 5375 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)

(b) Basic Pay – 4900 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)
(c) Basic Pay – 5100 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)
(d) Basic Pay – 4900 in scale Rs. 4000-6000/- (5th PC)
Answer: (b)
Q 10. When Higher Class Pass issued
(a) On medical ground.

(b) On Scouts & Guide
(c) None of these
(d) Cultural functions
Answer: (a)
Q 11. Penalties for not filling the date of commencement of journey (Privilege/Duty)
2nd Class Pass holder –

(a) Rs. 5/-
(b) Rs. 10/-
(c) Rs. 15/
(d) Rs. 20/-
Answer: (b)
1st Class Pass holder -

(a) Rs. 15/-
(b) Rs. 25/-
(c) Rs. 35/-
(d) Rs. 50/-
105
Answer: (b)
Q 12. Loss of a Retired Complimentary Pass?
2nd Class Pass holder
(a) Rs. 10/-

(b) Rs. 20/-
(c) Rs. 30/
(d) Rs. 40/-
Answer: (a)
Q 13. Penalties for loss of a School Card Pass/Residential Card Pass.
2nd Class Pass holder
(a) Rs. 10.50/-

(b) Rs. 12.50/-
(c) Rs. 13.50/-
(d) Rs. 14.50/-
Answer: (b)
1st & 1st „A‟ Pass holder
(a) Rs. 35/-

(b) Rs. 40/-
(c) Rs. 45/-
(d) Rs. 50/-
Answer: (a)
Q 14. Penalties for loss of a Gold Pass.
(a) Rs. 3009/-

(b) Rs. 3309/-
(c) Rs. 3109/-
(d) Rs. 3209/-
Answer: (b)
Q 15. Penalties for loss of a Silver Pass.
(a) Rs. 1890/-

(b) Rs. 2610/-
(c) Rs. 1799/-
(d) Rs. 1690/-
Answer: (b)
Q 16. Penalties for loss of a Bronze Pass.
(a) Rs. 2527/-

(b) Rs. 1829/-
(c) Rs. 1629/-
106
(d) Rs. 1529/-
Answer: (a)
Q 17. Privilege issued Pass/P.T.Os. are admissible when a staff is on
(a) Any kind of leave.

(b) Only extra ordinary leave.
(c) Only study leave.
(d) Only special disability leave.
Answer: (a)
Q 19. Duty Passes are not admissible over Nilgiri Railway during the month (except
Gazetted staff)
(a) January, February, March

(b) April, May, June
(c) July, August, September
(d) October, November, December.
Answer: (b) Rule 5 schedule-I
Q 20. Full form of P.T.O.
(a) Personnel Ticket Order

(b) Permanent Ticket Order
(c) Privilege Ticket Order
(d) Pass & Ticket Order.
Answer: (c) Pass Rule 86 Rule 2 (g)
Q 21. Set means
(a) Set means 3 sets of pass per year.

(b) Set means 6 sets of pass per year.
(c) Set means 3 sets of pass & 6 sets of P.T.O. per year.
(d) Set means One set of pass or P.T.O. for Outward and Return journey.
Answer: (d) Pass Rule 86 Rule 2 (k)
Q 22. Break journey is not permissible in case of
(a) Transfer Pass.

(b) School Pass.
(c) Settlement Pass.
(d) Post Retd. Complimentary Pass.
Answer: (c)
Q 23. On what grounds a 1st class School Pass is issued to a 2nd class pass holders.
(a) Studying in Sindia School/Gwalior

(b) Studying in South Point School/Kolkata
(c) Studying in Ram Krishna Mission School/Belur
(d) Studying in Oak Grove School/Jharipani/Dehradun.
Answer: (d) Rly.Bd.‟s No.E(10) 96PS-5-1/30 dt. 11.8.2003.
Q 24. How many sets of Pass will be deducted for un-authorized occupying Railway
quarter?
107
(a) One set will be deducted for two months.
(b) One set will be deducted for one month.
(c) One set will be deducted for one year.
(d) One set will be deducted for three months.
Answer: (b)
Q 25. How much Service (minimum) is required for Post Retired Complimentary Pass
(a) 20 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 33 years
Answer: (a)
Q 26. What basic Pay is required for traveling in 1st AC on duty for self-only?
(a) All Group „B‟ Officers.

(b) JAG & above grade Officers. Rs. 14300/-
(c) Officers above Rs. 14300/-
(d) SS grade officers. Rs. 14300/-
Answer: (b)
Q 27. How many break journeys are admissible in Privilege Pass?
(a) 6 nos.
(b) 7 nos.
(c) Any number (En-route)
(d) 5 nos.
Answer: (c)
Q 28. On what routes Pass can be issued?
(a) Any route.

(b) Shortest route & longest route but quicker.
(c) Longest route.
(d) Shortest route with 30% of the longest route.
Answer: (b)
Q 29. Irregularity for use of Passes may be condon by
(a) CPO
(b) GM
(c) CME
(d) COM
Answer: (b)
Q 30. How many School Certificates are required for School Card Pass in a year.
(a) One in a year

(b) Four in a year
(c) Two in a year
(d) One in whole service life
Answer: (a)
108
Q 31. Who is the competent authority for delayed issue of settlement pass beyond one
year of retirement of Group C & D employees.
(a) Any officer

(b) Dy.CPO/Pass
(c) GM/AGM or CPO/DRM
(d) Dy. Secretary (Pass)
Answer: (c) Pass Manual Schedule-VII – Rule XVI.
Q 32. Can Post Retired Complimentary Pass be issued to Quasi Railway Institutions?
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) May be issued with the approval of GM.
(d) PHOD‟s approval.
Answer: (a) Schedule VII, Rule XVIII
Q 33. Split Passes are issued to which Railway Servant?
(a) Only Group „A‟ service

(b) All Officers
(c) All Railway Servants (A, B, C & D)
(d) Only GM/AGM.
Answer: (c)
109
STAFF WELFARE & EDUCATIONAL FACILITIES
Q.1. Who is primarily responsible to provide educational facilities to the wards/children of
Railway employees.
a) State Government/Ministry of HRD

b) Railway Ministry
c) Other Agencies
d) All
Ans. a) (Board‟s letter No. E/W 83/SC/2/27 dt. 13.9.88)
Q.2 Educational facilities provided by the Railways are generally confined to –
a) School level
b) College level
c) Technical level
d) Professional level
Ans. a) (Bd‟s letter No.E(W)83/SC 2/27 dt. 13.9.88)
Q.3. Railway Schools functioning in various Railways colonies get recognition by the –
a) Ministry of Railways,
b) Education Board/Deptt. Of Respective State Govt.
c) CBSE
d) CISE
Ans. b)
Q.4. To meet the educational needs of Wards/children of Railway employees, Railway

colonies have following schools other than Railway own –
a) K.Vs,
b) State Govt. Schools
c) Private Schools,
d) All
Ans. d)
Q.5. The admission in Railway School is restricted to
a) Child wards of Railway employees only

b) As per merit test open to all
c) Outsider to a limited extent on availability of seat.
d) Only a) & c)
Ans. d)
Q.6. Minimum amount is levied on student of Rly. Schools in the form of –
a) Tuition fees
b) Exams. Fees
c) S.D.F
d) Science Fee
Ans. c)
Q.7. Is there any concession in the matter of Admission for SC/ST students.
a) Reservation of 15% seats for SC, 5% for ST
b) Reservation in (I) is inter-changeable
110
c) No refusal in Primary classes
d) All
Ans. d)
Q.8. Railway Schools do not constitute `industry‟; Is there any scope for the teachers to join
a) Existing Trade Union of Railways

b) Forming association of their own
c) Both
d) None
Ans. b)
Q.9. Railway Teachers in their individual capacity can discuss their grievances with the –
a) Personal Deptt. Officers,

b) Education Board/Department, of Concerned State Govt.
c) Affiliated Board/Council
d) None
Ans. a)
Q.10. Where there is inadequate educational facilities available or totally absent in a Railway
colony, Railway have established KVs in Railway Colonies only at –
a) Civil Sector
b) Project Sector,
c) Both,
d) None
Ans. a)
Q.11. Railways provide physical facilities to the KVs on nominal license fees on
a) short term lease

b) long term lease
c) permanent facilities
d) None
Ans. b)
Q.12. Privately managed schools in Railway Colonies may get non-recurring and recurring
assistance in the form of
a) subsidy for expansion of school building

b) furniture and equipment
c) recurring adhoc grant
d) all
Ans. d)
Q.13. The authority empowered to sanction recurring adhoc grant to privately managed
schools on Railways land on fulfillment of certain conditions.
a) Railway Board
b) GM
c) CPO
d) DRM
Ans. b)
111
Q.14. Railway Administration may sanction suitable grant in aid to private managed schools
who are unable to balance their budget on fulfillment of certain conditions
a) Quartyerly
b) Half-yearly
c) On annual basis
d) As and when required
Ans. c)
Q.15. Which of the Rly Schools get a fixed amount for planning and augmenting school Library
a) High/Higher Secondary Schools

b) Middle Schools
c) Primary Schools
d) All types of Schools.
Ans. d)
Q.16. Library of a Higher Secondary School maintained by a suitable teacher in absence of a

librarian may get special pay
a) Rs.250/-
b) Rs.200/-
c) Rs.150/-
d) Rs.100/-
Ans. b)
Q.17. The in-service training programme of teachers conducted by the
a) Zonal Railway
b) Rly. Board
c) NCERT
d) CBSE
Ans. a)
Q.18. Children‟s educational allowance is admissible to a Railway employee from Class-I to XII
per month per child
a) Rs.50/-
b) Rs.100/-
c) Rs.200/-
d) Rs.250/-
Ans. b)
Q.19. Re-imbursement of tuition fee, educational allowance and Hotel subsidy is admissible to
the wards of Rly. employees from classes
A) Nursery to X
B) I–X
C) I to XII
D) I to Degree Course
Ans. c)
Q.20. The re-imbursement of school tuition fee for class I to XII in respect of handicapped
children per month is
a) Rs.100/-
b) Rs.75/-
112
c) Rs.50/-
d) Rs.25/-
Ans. a)
Q.21. Children‟s educational allowance is admissible to a Rly employee when

a) child is compelled to study away
b) Absence of a school of requisite stand
c) Railway servant is posted at NE region
d) Any one of a) b) and c)
Ans. d)
Q.22. A Rly. servant shall not be eligible to draw children educational allowance, re-
imbursement of tuition fee for a child in a class for more than –
a) 1 academic year
b) 2 academic years
c) 3 academic years
d) till completion
Ans. b)
Q.23. Can a Railway servant eligible to get educational allowance and re-imbursement of
tuition fee for the number of children born after 1.4.1987
a) 1 child
b) 2 children
c) 3 children
d) All
Ans. b)
Q.24. There is provision for supply of free uniforms at the cost of Rly.revenue to the children
of Rly. Employees upto the the pay limit of Rs.5000/- p.m.
a) Primary level
b) Middle School level
c) High School level
d) Higher Secondary level
Ans. a)
Q.25. Recruitment of teachers in the Railway Schools is made by the Railway Administration
concerned
The authority lies on
a) Railway Board
b) GM
c) CPO
d) None of these
Ans c)
Q.26. Whether ACP scheme is applicable for Railway school teacher
a) applicable
b) not applicable
c) Governed by the separate scheme
d) none of the above.
Ans. c)
Q.27. Which of the statement is not true in regard to the recruitment of TGTs/PGTs
113
a) no fixed DR quota
b) serving teachers from feeder category promoted
c) shortfall if any made good by DR
d) both b) & c)
Ans. d)
Q. 28. Primary teachers, TGTs & PGTs in basic grade aqre placed in senior grade subject to
found suitable by the DPC on completion of
a) 8 years in basic grade
b) 10 years in basic grade
c) 12 years in basic grade
d) non
Ans : c)
Q. 29. What percentage of teachers enjoying senior grade with higher qualification is eligible
for award of selection grade
a) 8%
b) 10%
c) 12%
d) 20%
Ans. d)
Q.30. Group-B, Headmaster/Headmistress of Secondary School eligible to get the following

grant
a) Senior grade
b) Selection grade
c) Both
d) None
Ans. a)
Q.31. For purpose of grant of selection grade, a TGT should have

a) PG Degree in relevant subject
b) PG Degree in any subject
c) Only Bachelor Degree
d) None
Ans. a)
Q.32. Computer education is provided to the students of Railway Schools at the cost of
a) Railway revenue
b) Self sustenance
c) SDF
d) None
Ans. b)
Q.33. Upper age limit for recruitment of Railway teacher generally applicable
a) Below 28
b) Below 30
c) Below 40
d) Below 45
Ans. c)
Q.34. To manage the functioning of the school GM can engage
114
a) Part-time teacher
b) Substitute teacher
c) A & B both
d) None
Ans. b)
Q.35.School administration of a Higher Secondary School is looked after in absence of a

Headmaster by
a) Asst. Headmaster
b) Vice Principal
c) Senior most PGT
d) Senior most TGT
Ans.c)
Q.36. A teacher of a Rly. School, if avails of full vacation in a year, is entitled to, in respect
of duty performed in that year
a) LAP
b) Proportionate LAP
c) No LAP
d) None
Ans. c)
Q.37. A teacher of Railway School can combine with vacation
a) Only LAP
b) Only LHAP
c) Only CL
d) Any kind of leave
Ans. d)
Q.38. With a view to improve quality of education and achieving excellence a scheme of
annual award for best teacher, student etc, has been introduced from the academic year 1999-
2000 at the
a) Railway Board‟s level

b) Zonal Level
c) Divisional level
d) Both a & B
Ans. d)

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Objective type Question Bank of Personnel dte.

Q3 Which is currently the base year for granting dearness allowance –

Q4 To draw monthly salary, which attendance is taken into account –

Q5 During suspension, dearness allowance is drawn on the basis of –

Q6 Dearness Pay has been introduced in 5th CPC scale w.e.f. –

Q7 What percentage of existing DA rated is converted to Dearness Pay –

a) They are not eligible to get HRA

Q30 What is the rate of HRA in an „X‟ class city –

Q31 What is the rate of HRA in an „Y‟ class city –

a) He/she lives in his/her daughter‟s accommodation allotted by Govt but he

Q38 Which element does not constitute leave salary on retirement

Q39 At what rate can HRA be drawn when an employee is on suspension –

a) At the rate of subsistence allowance

a) 100% of normal TA/DA rate

a) Transfer and Packing Allowance

Q68 What is the rate of Nursing Allowance admissible to a nursing staff –

Q70 What is the rate of Washing Allowance admissible to a nursing staff –

Q72 What is the rate of dual charge allowance –

a) 20% of existing pay, DP, DA

Q76 What is the quantum of non-practicing allowance drawn in favour of Doctors –

a) 25% + DA of Basic Pay

a) Special Holiday Allowance

a) Group C Workshop staff

a) All Group D staff

a) The project should be a large scale project

Q82 Which allowance is sanctioned in favour of a railway employee who is posted in a

a) Special Area Allowance

a) Pay + D.Pay + DA + HRA + CCA

a) Extra Duty Allowance

a) 10% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.500/-

a) 10% of basic pay subject to a maximum of Rs.4000/-

Q89 Which scheme is intended to provide substantial motivation towards achievement of

a) If he has permission to retain the said quarter

a) 50% of HRA admissible in the new station

Q96 What is the full form of PRIME –

a) Pay Related Independent Module

a) Gazetted Officer Allowance

Q98 What is the amount of Charge Allowance –

Q99 What are the other allowances admissible on Charge Allowance –

a) All the other allowances

4) Which of the following is not a penalty under S (D & A) Rules‟ 68?

5) Which of the following deduction is prohibited from subsistence allowance?

a) For a specific period

7) Minimum period of withholding of increment ……

8) A serving Rly. Servant can act as defense council in …..

a) Order for penalty

19) Casual labour can be governed under D&A Rules –

a) After 4 months from engagement date

20) Who is competent to sign the notice of final penalty?

22) Consideration of appeal is governed by ____ of RS(D&A) Rules 1968.

a) A member of RPF as defined in RPF Act, 1957

a) All the privilege passes cannot be availed

(ES: No. 119/83)

28) What for S F-7 is issued?

a) To issue major charge sheet

2. Q. Delegation of Powers for creation of Non-Gazetted Divisional Control posts.

3. Delegation of Powers for creation of Non-Gazetted HQ Control & Workshop‟s

4. Q. What is the surrender value for creation of Division controlled posts?

6. Q. What is the crediting % money value to Board‟s vacancy Bank for

7. Q. What is the method of calculation for surrender and creation of posts?

8. Q. Who is empowered to create operational posts, posts required to meet

11. Q. What is the intake ratio of manpower?