1410712021 @ Aakash RM-G1 CODE-A1 Medicall1IT-JEE| Foundations Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph. 011-47623456 IM : 720 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES (for NEET-2022) Test -1 Topics covered Physics: Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion in a Straight Line Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Botany: Cell: The Unit of Life Zoology: Structural Organisation in Animals~Animal Tissues Instructions (Use blueblack ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. (i) (ii) (iv) “ w Dark only one circle for each entry. Dark the circle in the space provided only. material on Answer sheet. Mark should be dark and should completely fll the circle. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and donot use white-fluid or any other rubbing Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score. Choose the correct answer : 1 Classical physics deals with (1) Microscopic phenomenon (2) Macroscopic phenomenon (3) Mesoscopic phenomenon (4) Both (1) and (3) The scientific principle involved in TV broadcast is (1) Ampification by population inversion (2) Superconduetivity (3) Fluid dynamics (4) Principle of communication system using EM Which of the following is correct representation of Sl unit of force? (J (2) Newton-meter @)N (4) kg meter/second? The radius of a circle is 0.020 m. The number of significant figures is a1 (2 (3) 3 (4 The value of (10004)"* according to binomial approximation is (1) 10.001 (2) 10.04 (3) 10.004 (4) 10.01 If A = (10.0 + 0.1) and B = (6.0 + 0.1), then 24 — Bis equal to (1) (15.0£0.3) (2) (16.0£0.1) (3) (10.0 0.3) (4) (20.0+0.3) In the moming, temperature of a room is measured as (31 + 1)°C and in noon it is measured as (44 + 2)°C. The rise in temperature will be (1) (138 10 (2) (13 42yC (3) (13 43yC (4) (13 24yC Zero error in an instrument is a (1) Random error (2) Systematic error (3) Least count error (4) Personal error (1)Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A1) 9 10. " 12. 13. 14. 16. 16. ‘The pair of quantities having same dimensions are (1) Displacement, Focal length (2) Tension, Surface tension (3) Power, Time (4) Force, Impulse A physical quantity z is given by the relation 2 = Asin(kx - of). fx and t denotes displacement and time ospecvly, than dimension of | | is (1) (LT) (2) (LT (3) LT] (4) LT] Slope of position-time (x-t) graph represents (1) Average acceleration (2) Velocity (3) Areal velocity, (4) Instantaneous acceleration A particle moves 10 m in the east direction and then § m in west direction. The magnitude of displacement covered by the particle is (1) 5m (2) 10m (3) 15m (4) 75m Two cars are moving in a straight line in same direction with same speed of 70 kno hi, The relative velocity of one car with respect to another is (1) 70 km h-* (2) 140 km tt (3) 35 kmh! (4) Zero A body in one dimensional motion has zero speed at an instant. At that instant, body must have (1) Zero velocity (2) Non-zero velocity (3) Zero acceleration (4) Non-zero acceleration The velocity of a body depends on the time acroing tenon v= £440. The boy i undergoing with (1) Uniform non-zero acceleration (2) Zero acceleration (3) Uniform retardation (4) Non-uniform acceleration The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration 2 m s~ in ‘5 second is, (1) 4m (3) 5m (2) 9m (4) 25m 17 18. 19. 20. 24 2. 23, 24. 25. Regular Medical-2022 ‘The displacement-time graph of a moving particle is shown in the figure. The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at point 5 5 a time (yA ae @)8 (4) 0 The range of gravitational forces is (1) 10-75 m (2) 10° m (3) 10% m (4) Infinite Choose the correct pair of name of scientist and. their discovery among the following, (1) H.Hetz = Telephone (2) Graham Bell — Electric transformer (3) CV. Raman — Scattering of light (4) Kepler — Barometer **is equalte 4) tad (2) 60’ (1) sora @ (3) rag (4) Both (1) and (2) Choose the incorrect statement (1) 1am = 102m (2) 1pm= 10-2 m (3) 1mg=10%kg (4) Both (1) and (2) ‘The quantity having both unit and dimensions, is (1) Velocity (2) Plane angle (3) Strain (4) Specific gravity Which of the following measurements is most precise? (1) 0.002 m (2) 0.02 m (3) 02m (4) 0.0002 m The length of a rod is measured as 110.32 cm ‘The value upto 3 significant figures is (1) 114.em (2) 1.10 10% em (3) 110.3. om (4) 1.11 102 cm Dimensional formula of power is given by (1) (MLT=] (2) (MLT~4 (3) [ML?T) (4) [ML=T*) (2)Regular Medical-2022 26. 27. 28. 29, 30. at 22. 33, 34, Choose the correct pair of physical quantity and their unit (1) Electric current = - A (2) Solid angie - Rad (3) Strain - Pa (4) Relative density — kg/m? The number of significant zeros present in the measured value 0.0040200 is (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 and Vac the percentage errors in the measurements of A, Band C are 1%, 2% and 4% respectively. The maximum percentage error in the calculation of pis (1) 4% 2) 6% (3) 8% (4) 10% In the addition of three masses 1.4 g, 4.24 g and 7.432 g has x significant figures. The value of x is A physical quantity p is given as p= a2 (23 (3) 4 (4) 5 Which of the following is a dimensionless constant? (1) Gravitational constant (2) Boltzmann's constant (3) Magnification of mirror (4) Stefan's constant 100 J of energy is equivalent ta|K ergs (in CGS system). The value of Kis ow (2) 108 (2) 10° 4) 10° If force (F), velocity (u) and time (1) are taken as fundamental quantities, then ‘dimension of length is (1) Fut] Q) ut) (@) Fut] (4) Fut) A car is moving with speed 100 km hr! speed (in ms~') is equal to (1) 100 (2) 27.78 (3) 25.4 (4) 50.78 The differentiation ofa function y = x° w.rt. xis (1) 28 (2) a8 (3) 3x (4) 6x The 36. 36. 37. 38, Fortnightly Test (RMG1_Code-A1) ‘Two persons P; and P are walking with speeds viand ve respectively along east (+ve x) direction, If v1< vathen, which of the following position-time graph Is correctly showing velocities of P: and Pa P, x x 4 2) P, “ nr) _ >t >t ot (a) P, P >t >t A person travels along a straight rod for tret £ tne wan spe0s van tor nost $e wih seed Teste spd vig by vl 3 () v2 ive ‘A body is moving with variable acceleration (a) along a straight line, The average acceleration of the body in time interval t= 0 to 2) ty ty o> (2) Fat (4) Zero ‘The displacement-time (x-t) graph of two moving objects A and B are shown in the figure. Choose the incorrect statement. x A B t (1) Ais moving with constant velocity (2) Bis moving with increasing speed (3) The acceleration of B may be constant (4) Ais moving with non-zero constant acceleration (3)Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2022 39. 40. 44 42. 46. 47. 48. ‘An object thrown vertically up from the ground passes the height 10 m twice in the time interval of 10's. The time of fight is (g = 10 mis") (1) 63s 2) wW3s (3) ABs (4) Bs The motion of a particle along a straight line is described by equation x = 2+ 121, where x is in metre and ts in second, The retardation of the particle when its velocity becomes zero is (1) 2mis? (2) 12 mis? (2) -2 mis? (4) 12 mis? Motion of a particle is given by the equation = (28 + 38 + 4t+ 2) m, where sis displacement in metre and f is time in second. The value of acceleration of particle at time t= 1 sis (1) 12 mis? (2) 18 mis? (3) 8 mist (4) Zero The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is shown in the figure. The distance covered by the particle from time f= Oto f= 4 sis speed (ms) 2 o 3 4 2 4m (4) 3m time(s). (1) 2m (3) 6m 43. Which of the following speed-time (v-t) graph is Physically not possible? vy v “ Iq @ O L_-_s, t a)” (4) Allof these L____,, 44, The position-ime graph for a particle moving along a straight line is shown in the figure. The total distance travelled by itn time t= Oo t= 6 s is x(mm) 20° 0-2 4 6 (1) Zero, (2) 20m (3) 40m (4) 80m 45. A ball-is dropped from the top of a building of height 100 m at time ¢=-0. At the same instant, another ball is thrown’ upwards with speed of ‘50 mis from the bottom of the building, The time ‘at which balls will meet is (1) 2s @).3s @) 4s (4) 258 For reaction, A + 2B > C, 5 moles of A and 12 moles of B will produce maximum orc. (1) 5 mole (2) 6 mole (3) 10 mole (4) 12 mole Number of oxygen atoms present in 22 g CO2 is (1) 2Naatoms (2) 0.5 Na atoms (3) Naatoms (4) 1.5 Na atoms ‘The molarity of 24.5% (wiw) H2SO. solution having density 1.2 giml is (1) 1M 2) aM (3) 1.2M (4) 24M 49, 6,022 x 10% molecules of urea are present in 1000 g water. The molality of urea solution is (1) 01m (2) 0.01 m (3) 10m (4) 1m 50. The equivalent weight of HsPOs (Molar mass = Mg mor’) in the given reaction, HaPOs + 2NaOH ~> NasHPO« + 2H:0 M a) M ar M Oz (4) 2M 51. The mass percentage of oxygen in CaCOs is (1) 40% (2) 12% (3) 16% (4) 48% (4)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test (RMG1_Code-A1) 52. 53. 5A, 56, 56. 87. 58. 59. 60. 61. ‘The molarity of 2 N HeSOx solution is a) 1M 2) 2M (3) 05M (4) 15M For complete oxidation of 2 litre of NO(g) to NOa(g) at STP, the volume of Ox(g) required at STP is (1) OSL 2b (3) 1L (4) 1.5L Number of P atoms present in 0.5 g molecules of Pais (1) Na (2) 2N (3) 0.5.Na (4) 15.Na The largest number of molecules are present in (1) 4gHe (2) 28.gNe (3) 0.5 mole O» (4) 119 C02 ‘A metal oxide contains 16% oxygen. The equivalent weight of the metal is (1) 849 (2) 219 (3) 63g (4) 42g How many significant figures are in 1.110% 10° a4 2 @) 3 (4 The incorrect statement according to Dalton’s atomic theory is (1) Atoms of different elements may combine, with each other in a fixed simple whole number ratio to form compounds (2) Atoms of different elements differin mass (3) Atoms of a given element are identical in all respect (4) Atoms can be created in a chemical reaction Which of the following combinations «dees not illustrate the law of multiple proportions? (1) H20, H202 (2) $02, SOs (3) CS2, COz (4) NeOs, NOz ‘The mass of one molecule of Hz0 is (1) 18 Nag 2 (3) 189 4) The empirical formula containing 80% carbon is, (1) CHe (2) CHs (8) CHe (4) CH of a hydrocarbon 62, 63, 64, 65, 66, 67. 68. 69. 3.65 g HCI and 4 g NaOH are mixed together to Prepare 2 litre aqueous solution. The resulting solution will be (1) Alkaline (2) Neutral (3) Strongly acidic (4) Weakly acidic Which of the following is not an SI unit? (1) gram 2) mote (3) second (4) metre For which reaction, Gay Lussac’s law is not valid? (1) 2802(g) + O2(g) > 280x(9) (2) Cacoxs) + ads) + COx(9) (3) 2NHa(g) —> No(a) + 3H2(9) (4) 2Ha(g) + O2(g) > 2H20(g) Which among the folowing is independent of temperature? (1) Motality (2) Molarity (3) Normatity (4) (wiv) % ‘The mole fraction of solute in aqueous solution of NaOH having molality one is (1) 0.042 (2) 0.095 () 0.018 (4), 0.032 ‘An’ element X has the following isotopic ‘composition. X2 : 90% and X% : 10%, The weighted average atomic mass of the naturally ‘occuring element X is closest to (1) 201.5 amu (2) 200.8 amu (3) 200.5 amu (4) 200.2 amu The volume occupied by one mole of water is (density = 1 giml) 1 gem (2) 18m ®) x mil (4) 9m ‘The volume of 0.2 M NaOH required to prepare 0.1 M, 1000 mi NaOH solution is (1) 250 mi (2) 500 mi (3) 1000 mi (4) 750 mi (5)Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A1) 70. 7” 72. 73, 74, 75. 76. 77. 78. ‘The number of electrons present in 1.2. g O- is (1) Na (2) 0.75 Na (3) 10 Nx (4) 0.1. Na The volume of Ox(g) required to completely bum 16 g CHs at STP is (1) 22.41 (2) 448 (3) 11.2 (4) 5.6L ‘The molarity of pure water is (density = tg/m?) (1) 55.55M (2) 45.45 (3) 30.55 M (4) 18M ‘A solution is prepared by adding 90 g glucose in 180 g water. The mole fraction of glucose in the solution is 1 1 oo Q) ag 1 1 @) 45 WF Number of Be atoms in 36 u of Bo? is 1) 9 (2) 12 (3) 36 (4) 4 In different samples of COz, mass ratio of catbon to oxygen is found to be 3 : 8. This observation obeys (1) Law of conservation of mass (2) Law of muttiple proportion (3) Gay Lussac's law of gaseous volumes (4) Law of definite proportion In which of the following, formula mass is) preferred over molecular mass? (1) KCl (2) Cale (3) No (4) Heo Select the correct statement(s) among the following, (1) If mass percentage of various elements Present in a compound is known then the empirical formula of compound can be determined (2) The reactant which gets completely consumed first in the reaction is called limiting reagent 1 3) One amu is 4th of the mass of one C-12 ®) a atom (4) Allof these IF 30 g of NOx (g) occupies 22.4 L at STP then the value of xis a2 (3) 05 (2) 1 (4) 25 79. 80, 81 82, 83, 84, 85, 86. 87, 88, Regular Medical-2022 Mole of O2 required to produce 160 g SOs from SOris (1) 0s 1 (@) 25 (42 Equal masses of O2(g) and Ho(g) are taken in a closed container at NTP. The ratio of the moles of gases O2 : He willbe (1) 1:8 (2) 1:4 (3) 1:16 (4) 4:10 Incorrect statement among the following is (1) Isotopes of an element have equal relative abundances. (2) Many naturally occurring elements exist as more than one isotopes (@) Atomic mass of an element is average atomic mass ofits different isotopes (4) The percentage composition of elements in a ‘compound is independent of its source Mass of one amu in kg is (1) 1.66 « 10-27 (2) 6.022 « 107 (3) 6.022 10% (4) 1.66 « 10% The ratio of molecular formula mass to empirical formula mass of acetic acid is aie (2:1 (3) 2:3 (4) 3:2 Mass\of 25% (wiw) HCI solution req) decompose 50 g CaCOs is (1) 365% 29 (2) 36.59 (G) 365%059 (4) 36.5% 4g Moles of oxygen atoms present in 0.1 mole of FeSOx (NHé):SO«.6H20 is (1) 08 2) 09 (3) 14 (4) 17 Which of the following molecules contains maximum percentage of carbon by mass? (1) Ces (2) Cale (3) Cotte (4) Cotte What is the equivalent weight of metal hydride if ‘equivalent weight of metal is 102 (1) 10 (2) 20 @) 17 an 3.01 x 102 molecules of glucose are present in 500 mi of solution. The molarity ofthe solution is (1) 05M (1M (@) 2M (@) 15M 1d to (6)Regular Medical-2022 89. ot. 92. 93, 94, 95. What is the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate sample whose 8.4 g sample on decomposition gives 2.2 g CO2? (1) 25% (2) 100% (3) 50% (4) 75% Fortnightly Test (RMG1_Code-A1) 90. When 100 ml of 17% (w/v) solution of AgNOs is mixed with 100 mi of 5.85% (wiv) NaCl solution, the mass of precipitate formed will be (Atomic mass of Ag= 108, N= 14, Na = 23, Cl= 35.5) (1) 14.35 (2) 27.59 (3) 8.35 9 (4) 11.35 g Many membrane bounded minute vesicles called microbodies that contain various enzymes are present in both (1) Bacteria and plant cells (2) Animal and plant cells (3) Bacteria and animal cells, (4) PPLO and cyanobacteria Identify the SAT chromosome —_and submetacentric chromosome respectively from the following? “ © © © (1) (A) and (8) (2) (®) ana (c) (3) (A) and (D) (4) (C) and (D) Chromatin material is made up of (1) RNA and basic histones protein only (2) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins (3) DNA, RNA and histones only (4) DNA and histones only Which of the following is the exact site of ribosomal RNA synthesis? (1) Nucleolus (2) Nucleoplasm (3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleus How many centrioles are present in a centrosome? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 96, The centtiole-lke structure from which cilia and flagella emerge in eukaryotes is called (1) Basal body (2) Hook (3) Axoneme (4) Spindle fibres 97. The structure which work like oars causing movement of either cell or surrounding fluid is (1) Flagella 2) Cilia (3) Central hub (4) Massule 98, Choose the incorrect’ statement wart, to eukaryotic flagella (1) Hair-like outgrowths of cell membrane (2) Elongated structure and responsible for cell movement (3) itis structurally same as prokaryotic flagella (4) Possess a number of microtubules running parallel to the long axis, 99. Allving cell was first seen by (1) Robert Brown (2) Anton van Leeuwenhoek (3) Schleiden (4) Schwann 100. Which of the following non-membrane bound structure is found in prokaryotic cells? (1) Centriole (2) Lysosome (3) Ribosome (@ ER 401. Match the following and choose the correct option, a. Smallest cell ()) Ostrich’s egg b. Longest isolated cell (i) Mycoplasma cc. Largest cell (ii) Nerve cet (1) agi), BG), &() (2) afi), bi), e() (3) a(i, bq), c(i) (4) (i), bt), eC) 7)Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2022 102 103. 104. 105. 106. 107. 108. Constituents of cytoskeleton are composed of (1) Cottulose (2) Proteinaceous filaments (3) Chitin (4) Cellulose and hemicellulose Read the following statements and select which are not the postulates of cell theory. (a) Cell differ greatly in size, shape and activities, (b) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells (©) The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities, (d) All cells arise from pre-existing cells. (1) (a) and (4) (2) (b) and (4) (3) (@) and (c) (4) (€) and (¢) ‘The spherical shaped bacterial cell is called (1) Bacitlus (2) Coccus (3) Spiritum (4) Vibrium The genetic material is naked and | not surrounded by a nuclear membrane in (1) PPLO (2) wec (3) Columnar epithelial cot! (4) Mesophyli cell Which of the following statement is correct about Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria? (1) Gram stain is not taken by Gram positive but, taken by Gram negative (2) Gram stain is taken by both Gram positive and Gram negative (3) Gram stain is taken by Gram positive but not taken by Gram negative (4) Gram stain is not taken by both Gram positive and Gram negative When glycocalyx is thick and tough, itis called (1) Capsule (2) Slime layer (3) Coll wall (4) Cell membrane Function which is not associated with mesosome, (1) DNA replication (2) Secretion (3) Respiration (4) Photosynthesis 109. 110. m1 112. 113. 114. Pigment containing membranous extensions are Present into the cytoplasm of (1) Virus (2) Cyanobacteria (3) Fungi (4) Animal cell ‘The function of fimbriae in bacteria is (1) To help in attaching to host tissue or to rocks (2) Motility (3) DNA replication (4) Secretion process A polysome is (1) Several ribosome mRNAs attached to a single (2) Several mRNA, ribosomes altached to a single (3) Association of single mRNA and a single ribosome (4) Association themselves Reserve materials in prokaryotic cells are stored in cytoplasm in the form of inclusion bodies which are. (1) Membrane bound structures (2) Non-membrane bound structures (3) Always associated with plasma membrane of cell of several ribosomes by (4) Rich in starch granules only Choose the eukaryotic cells, incorrect statement rega (a) Presence of extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm (b) Presence of an organised nucleus having a nuclear envelope (©) Cytoskeletal structures are absent (4) Genetic material is organised into circular DNA (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (b) and (¢) only (3) (c) and (d) only (4) All (a), (b), (c) and (2) Phosphoglycerides are the main constituent of (1) Lipid component of cell membrane (2) Protein component of cell membrane (3) Lipid component of cell wall (4) Protein component of cell wall (8)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test (RMG1_Code-A1) 116. 116. 417. 118. 119. 120. ‘The membrane proteins are classified as integral or peripheral. The basis of this classification is (1) Quasi-fluid nature (2) Biochemical investigation (3) Ease of extraction (4) Requirement of energy material for transport of ‘The fluidity of cell membrane is measured by (1) The ability of lateral movement of proteins (2) Cell growth (3) The formation of intercellular junctions (4) Cell division Match the following columns and choose the correct answer, Column! Passive transport (i) Movement of ions against concentration gradient (ii) Movement of water by diffusion through ‘Semipermeable membrane (ii) Simple diffusion along concentration gradient (1) a(ii), BG), c(i) (2) alii), b(), eft) (3) ati), bai), c(i) (4) afi, bli, ov) How many of the following are the functions of cell wall? Column It a b. Active transport Osmosis (a) Gives shape to the cells. (b) Protects from mechanical damage and infection. (c) Regulation of transport of ions and molecules: across it (4) Helps in cell to cell interaction (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four Middle lamella, a layer which holds the neighbouring cells together is mainly made up of (1) Calcium carbonate: (2) Calcium pectate (3) Galactans (4) Mannans The functions are coordinated in organelles (1) Peroxisome and ribosome (2) Mitochondria and ER (3) Chloroplast and ER (4) ER and Golgi body 124 122. 123. 124, 125. 126. 127. 128. Rough endoplasmic reticulum is frequently ‘observed in the cells actively involved in (1) Protein synthesis and secretion (2) Protein breakdown and absorption (3) Oxidation of carbohydrates (4) DNA duplication ‘Synthesis of steroidal hormones occurs in (1) SER (2) RER (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Mitochondria Chromosome in which centromere is present at the terminal (1) Is called metacentric chromosome (2) ts J-shaped (3) Appears to have only one arm (4) Does not contain DNA at all ‘The cytoskeleton element which helps pseudopodia formation is (1) Microtubules (2) Protoflament, (3) Intermediate filament (4) Microflament Which of the following cell organelles is related to the packaging of material? (1) Nucleus (2) Golgi apparatus (3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast ‘The enzymes of lysosomes are optimally active at (1) Neutral pH (2) Acidic pH (3) Moderate basic pH (4) Highly basic pH Tonoplast is the (1) Single membrane around lysosome in (2) Double membrane complex around lysosome (3) Single membrane around sap-vacuole (4) Double membrane complex around sap- vacuole Choose the mitochondria. (1) Site of anaerobic respiration (2) Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP (3) Are called ‘powerhouse’ of cell (4) Possess single circular DNA molecule in their matrix incorrect statement about (9)Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A1) Regular Medical-2022 129. Match the plastids with their concerning colour and choose the correct option. a. Leucoplasts () Yellow, orange and red coloured (i) Green coloured (ii) Cotourless (1) aiii), b(i), (iii) (2) afili), bi), efii) (8) ali, boi), of) 4), BU), e@) Choose the odd one wrt. double membrane bound structure. b. Chromoplast Chloroplasts 130. (1) Lysosome (2) Leucoplast (3) Nucleus (4) Mitochondria Read the following statements and choose the correct option. (a) Amyloplasts store starch (b) Aleuroplasts store proteins (0) Elaioplasts store both starch and proteins (a) Amyloplasts, elaioplasts and aleuroplasts all are types of plastids having photosynthetic pigments (1) Only (a) and (b) are correct (2) Only (¢)is incorrect (3) Only (4) is incorrect (4) Only (c) and (4) are correct 131 132. The space limited by the inner membrane of chloroplasts called (1) Intermembrane space (2) Stroma (3) Lumen (4) Thylakoid How many microtubules are found transverse section of cia and flagella? Oa (2) 9 (3) 20 (4) 27 Contractile vacuole is important for excretion in (1) Chlamydomonas (2) Amoeba (3) Fungi (4) All plant cells Choose the feature which is common mitochondria, chloroplast and prokaryotic cell (1) Single stranded DNA (2) Presence of 70S ribosomes (3) Absence of enzymes (4) Surrounded by rigid cell wall 133, in the 134. 136. in 136. A group of similar cells, having same origin and performing a specific function forms alan (1) Organ (2) Organ system (3) Body (4) Tissue 187. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement A : The structure of a cell varies according to its function, Statement B : Depending on location, structure and function, the animal tissues have been broadly classified into four general types, (1) Both statements are incorrect (2) Only statement A is correct (3) Only statement B is correct (4) Both statements are correct 4138. Match the following given structures or functions. with their characteristic features and choose the correct option. Column! Column il a, Tight (Cement neighbouring junetions cells together to form sheet b. Adhering (ii) Transmit information junctions through chemicals to another cell ce Gap (ii) Establish a barrier to junctions prevent leakage of fluids or substances across the epithelial cells d. Synaptic (iv) Channels to facilitate junctions. communication between adjacent cells (1) afiv), bi), c(i), dCi) (2) ali, bliv), efi), ai) (3) (iv), bii), c(i, dit) (4) a(t), B(), efi), ai) (10)Regular Medical-2022 139. In humans, which cells are present in the inner surface of fallopian tube, which aids in the transportation of the ovum towards the uterus? (1) Cliated epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium (8) Squamous epithelium (4) Columnar epithelium The epithelium also known epithelium is (1) Simple cuboidal 140. as pavement (2) Simple squamous (3) Simple columnar (4) Simple ciated 4141. Choose the edd one out wrt. ectodermal origin (1) Astrocytes (2) Oligodendrocytes (3) Microglal cells (4) Nerve cells 142. Neuroglial cells or neuroglia make up more than percent the volume of neural tissue in our Body. Choose the option which fils the blank correctly. (1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 40 (4) 50 Cells which chiefly form the blood brain barrier are known as (1) Nerve cells, (2) Microgiial cells (3) Astrocytes (4) Oligodendrocytes Choose the incorrect statement 143. 144. (1) Dendrites cary nerve impulses towards the eyton (2) Axon carries impulses away from the cyton (3) Neuroglial cells are excitable cells which transmit nerve impulses (4) Neuroglial cells are packing cells present in the brain and spinal cord Myelin sheath in CNS is formed by (1) Oligodendrocytes (2) Schwann cells (3) Microgiial cells (4) Nerve cells, 145. Fortnightly Test (RMG1_Code-A1) 146. Select the mismatch. (1) Unipolar — Have multiple neurons dendrons (2) Bipolarneurons — Have one axon and ‘one dendron (3) Muttipolar — Have one long axon neurons and remaining short processes as dendrons (4) Pseudounipolar — A single process arises first from the call body which divides to form dendrite and axon neurons 147, Select the correct statement, (1) Niss's granules are small_and masses of mitochondria and SER (2) Dendrites are long and processes arising from the axon (3) Nerve impulses pass between through the synapse (4) Complete length of axon is covered by myelin sheath in continuous manner in PNS 148, Choose odd one out wrt. non-striated muscle fibres. (1) Myofibris, show alternate light and dark bands (2) They do not get fatigued (3) Fibres are unbranched (4) They are uninucleated in appearance 149, Striated muscles are not located in (1) Limbs (2) Body wall (3) Neck (4) Iris of eye 150, Which epithelium is present in the inner surface of bronchioles? (1) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Ciliated epithelium (3) Squamous epithelium (4) Columnar epithelium 151, Blood is a fluid connective tissue which does not contain (1) Thrombocytes (2) Erythrocytes (3) Leucocytes (4) Osteocytes regular unbranched neurons (11)Fortnightly Test-1 (RMG1_Code-A1) 182. 163. 164. 155. 156. 4187. 188. 159. ‘Choose the odd one out w.r. bones (1) Lacunae and lamellae are absent (2) Matrix is impregnated with salts, chiefly calcium phosphate and carbonate (3) Growth in bone is bidirectional (4) Osteoblasts mature to form osteocytes ‘Compound epithelium is (1) Single layered (2) Multi layered (3) Single layered, only on the surface of skin (4) Multi layered, only in the inner lining of ducts. Hyaline cartilage does not occur in the (1) Nasal septum (2) Larynx (3) Eustachian tube (4) Tracheal rings Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement A : The matrix of cartilage is solid, pliable and resists compression Statement B : Osteocytes lie in lacunae. in ‘groups of two or four. (1) Both statements are correct (2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Statement A Is incorrect but B is correct (4) Statement A is correct but 8 is incorrect Cartilage is not present in the (1) Tip of nose (2) Outer ear joints (3) Between adjacent bones of the vertebral column (4) Diaphysis of long bones of an human adult Nucleus is pushed to the periphery by nutrient storage vacuole in (1) Adipocytes: (2) Fibroblasts (3) Mast cells (4) Macrophages Select the mismatch. (1) Macrophages Ingest cell debris, bacteria and foreign matter Produce antigens Secrete heparin to check bleeding Secrete fibres and (2) Plasma cells (3) Mast colls (4) Fibroblasts, ‘matrix Mast cells do not produce (1) Melatonin (2) Histamine (3) Heparin (4) Serotonin 160. 161 162. 163. 164. 165. 166. 167. Regular Medical-2022 Read the statement and choose the option that correctly fils the blank, In all connective tissues except secrete fibres of structural _prok collagen or elastin. (1) Blood (2) Bone (3) Adipose tissue (4) Cartage Choose the incorrect statement wrt. bone. (1) Non-fexile tissue (2) Made up of nearly 70% inorganic matter and 30% organic matter (3) If bone is put in KOH, it gets decalcified (4) Bone marrow of long bones is the site of production of blood cells Ligaments are structures which connect (1) Skeletal muscles to bones (2) Bone to bones (3) Non-stiated muscles to bones (4) Cardiac: muscles to bones intercalated dises are present in (1) Cardiac muscles (2) Fioroblasts (3) Smooth muscles (4) Macrophages Which epithelium is commonly found in ducts of lands and tubular parts of nephrons in kidneys? (1) Ciliated epithelium (2) Cuboidal epithelium (3) Squamous epithelium (4) Columnar epithelium ‘Tendons and ligaments are a part of (1) Specialized connective tissue (2) Loose connective tissue the cells s called (3) Dense irregular connective tissue (4) Dense regular connective tissue ‘Sprain is caused due to excessive stretching of (1) Tendons (2) Ligaments (3) Muscles: (4) Bones ‘Among following, epithelium that plays limited or no role in filtration, secretion and absorption is (1) Simple squamous epithelium (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium (3) Simple columnar epithelium (4) Compound epithelium (12)Regular Medical-2022 Fortnightly Test (RMG1_Code-A1) 168. 169. 170. m1. 172. 173. Choose the edd one wrt. secretion of exocrine glands, (1) Mucus: (2) Enzymes (3) Ear wax (4) Hormones Choose the incorrect statement. (1) Cells in an epithelial layer are held together by a large amount of intercellular material (2) in nearly all animal tissues, specialized junctions provide both structural and functional link between its individual cells (3) Hormones are secreted into the fluid bathing the gland (4) Endocrine glands do not have ducts Which of the following is not a muticellular gland? (1) Mammary gland (2) Goblet cel ofthe alimentary canal (3) Salivary gland (4) Sweat gland Compound epithelium is not located on the. (1) Moist surface of buccal cavity (2) Inner lining of duct of salivary glands (3) Inner lining of pancreatic duct (4) Walls of blood vessels, Match column I with column II and choose the correct option. Column Column It Ciliated columnar epithelium ‘Simple columnar epithelium ‘Simple cuboidal epithelium Simple squamous () epithelium (1) ai), bt, efi), ativ) (2) ai, BU), ef), 40) (3) ati, Biv), efi), dC) (4) ati), bE, c(i), A) Multicellular organism among following is (1) Hydra (2) Amoeba (3) Paramecium (4) Euglena 174. 176. 176. Ww 178. 179. 180, gaa Which of the following is incorrect about compound epithelium? (1) [tis multilayered (2) It plays an important role in secretion and absorption (3) It provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses (4) Iteover the dry surface ofthe skin The inner surface of the urinary bladder is lined by (1) Transitional epithelium (2) Stratified keratinised epithelium (3) Columnar epithelium (4) Squamous epithelium Read the statement and choose the option that correctly fils the blank. connective tissues, cells also secrete which accumulate between cells ‘and fibres and act as matrix. In (1) Hormones (2) Enzymes (3) Modified polysaccharides (4) Lipids Cartilage forming Gell are called (1) Chondrodlasis (2) Chondrocytes (2) Osteoclasts (4) Osteoblast Read the statement and choose the option that correctly fils the blank, Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced by in adults (1) Ligaments (2) Bones (3) Tendons (4) Fibroblast In which type of epithelial tissue, are the nuclei located closer to the base of cells? (1) Simple columnar epithelium (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium (3) Simple squamous epithelium (4) Compound cuboidal epithelium Which of the following is the site of production of blood cells? (1) Adipose tissue (2) Muscle tissue (3) Spleen (4) Bone marrow in some bones. (13)ALL RIGHTS RESERVED All rights including copyright and translation rights etc. reserved and vests ‘exclusively with AESL. 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