Previous Year NEET Question Paper With The Answer Key For The Year 2022

DATE: 12-09-2021 NEET 2021 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 1
NEET 2021 (12-09-2021) QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
SECTION–A (PHYSICS)
(1) ,  -, + (2) ,  +, –
1. An infinitely long straight conductor (3) +, , – (4) –, , +
carries a current of 5 A as shown. An
ANSWER 3
electron is moving with a speed of 105
m/s parallel to the conductor. The
perpendicular distance between the 4. The escape velocity from the Earth's
electron and the conductor is 20 cm at surface is v. The escape velocity from
an instant. Calculate the magnitude of the surface of another planet having a
the force experienced by the electron radius, four times that of Earth and
at that instant. same mass density is :
(1)  (2) 2
(3) 3  (4) 4 
ANSWER 4
5. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide

is 100 hours. The fraction of original
activity that will remain after 150
(1) 4 x 10-20 N (2) 8 x 10-20 N hours would be :
(3) 4 x 10-20 N (4) 8 x 10-20 N 1
ANSWER 4 (1) 1/2 (2) 2 2
2
2. A body is executing simple harmonic
motion with frequency 'n', the (3) 2/3 (4) 3 2
frequency of its potential energy is : ANSWER 2
(1) n (2) 2n
(3) 3n (4) 4n 6. A convex lens A' of focal length 20
ANSWER 2 cm and a concave lens 'B' of focal
length 5 cm are kept along the same
3. A radioactive nucleus ZX undergoes axis with a distance 'd' between them.
spontaneous decay in the sequence If a parallel beam of light falling on
A' leaves 'B' as a parallel beam, then
the distance 'd' in cm will be :
(1) 25 (2) 15
where Z is the atomic number of (3) 50 (4) 30
element X. The possible decay ANSWER 2
particles in the sequence are :
7. A capacitor of capacitance 'C, is EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then
connected across an ac source of at what length of the wire, the balance
voltage V, given by V=V0sint point occurs ?
The displacement current between the (1) 60 cm q (2) 21.6 cm
plates of the capacitor, would then be (3) 64 cm (4) 62 cm
given by: ANSWER 1
(1) I d  V0C cos t
V0 11. For a plane electromagnetic wave
Id  cos t
(2) C propagating in x-direction, which one
of the following combination gives
V
I d  0 sin t the correct possible directions for
(3) C electric field (E) and magnetic field
(4) I d  V0C sin t (B) respectively ?
ANSWER 1 (1)
8. A small block slides down on a smooth (2)

inclined plane, starting from rest at time
t = 0. Let Sn be the distance travelled by (3)
the block in the interval
(4)
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then the ratio Sn /
Sn+1 is : ANSWER 2
2n  1 2n  1
12. Polar molecules are the molecules:
(1) 2 n (2) 2 n  1
(1) having zero dipole moment.
2n  1 2n (2) acquire a dipole moment only in
(3) 2 n  1 (4) 2 n  1 the presence of electric field due to
ANSWER 2 displacement of charges.
(3) acquire a dipole moment only
9. A particle is released from height S when magnetic field is absent.
from the surface of the Earth. At a (4) having a permanent electric dipole
certain height its kinetic energy is moment
three times its potential energy. The ANSWER 4
height from the surface of earth and
the speed of the particle at that instant 13. The velocity of a small ball of mass M
are respectively: and density d, when dropped in a
S 3 gS S 3 gS container filled with glycerine becomes
' ' constant after some time. If the density
(1) 4 2 (2) 4 2
of glycerine is d/2, then the viscous
S 3 gS S 3 gS force acting on 2 the ball will be
' '
(3) 2 2 (4) 4 2 (1) Mg/2
(2) Mg
ANSWER 4
(3) 3/2 Mg
(4) 2 Mg
10. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of
ANSWER 1
EMF 1.5V gives balance point at 36
cm length of wire. If another cell of
14. Match Column -1 and Column - II 17. The electron concentration in an n-

and choose the correct match from the type semiconductor is the same as
given choices. hole concentration in a p-type
semiconductor. An external field
Column -1 Column – II (electric) is applied across each of
A Root mean P 1 2 them. Compare the currents in them.
square speed of nm (1) current in n-type = current in
3
gas molecules p-type.
B Pressure Q 3RT (2) current in p-type > current in
exerted by n-type.
M
ideal gas (3) current in n-type > current in p-
C Average kinetic R 5/2 RT type.
energy of a (4) No current will flow in p -type,
molecule current will only flow in n-type.
D Total internal S 3/2 kBT ANSWER 3
energy of 1
mole of a 18. A nucleus with mass number 240
diatomic gas breaks into two fragments each of
mass number 120, the binding energy
(1) (A)-(R),(B)-(P),(C)-(S),(D)-(Q) per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is
(2) (A)-(Q),(B)-(R),(C)-(S),(D)-(P) 7.6 MeV while that of fragments is
(3) (A)-(Q),(B)-(P),(C)-(S),(D)-(R) 8.5 MeV. The t0tal gain in the
(4) (A)-(R),(B)-(Q),(C)-(P),(D)-(S) Binding Energy in the process is:
ANSWER 3 (1) 0.9 MeV (2) 9.4 MeV
(3) 804 MeV (4) 216 MeV
15. Water falls from a height of 60 m at ANSWER 4
the rate of 15 kg/s to operate a
turbine. The losses due to frictional 19. A thick current carrying cable of
force are 10% of the input energy. radius 'R' carries current T uniformly
How much power is generated by the distributed across its cross-section.
turbine ? (g=10m/s2) The variation of magnetic field B(r)
(1) 10.2 kW (2) 8.1 kW due to the cable with the distance ‘r’
(3) 12.3 kW (4) 7.0 kW from the axis of the cable is
ANSWER 2 represented by:
16. A lens of large focal length and large

aperture is best suited as an objective
of an astronomical telescope since:
(1) a large aperture contributes to the (1) (2)
quality and visibility of the images.
(2) a large area of the objective
ensures better light gathering power.
(3) a large aperture provides a better
resolution. (3) (4)
(4) all of the above. ANSWER 3
ANSWER 4
20. Two charged spherical conductors of (1) (A)-(R),(B)-(S),(C)-(P),(D)-(Q)

radius R1 and R2 are connected by a (2) (A)-(R),(B)-(S),(C)-(Q),(D)-(P)
wire. Then the ratio of surface charge (3) (A)-(R),(B)-(P),(C)-(S),(D)-(Q)
densities of the spheres (1/2) is: (4) (A)-(R),(B)-(Q),(C)-(S),(D)-(P)
R1 R2 ANSWER 1
(1) R2 (2) R1
24. A dipole is placed in an electric field
 R1  R12 as shown. In which direction will it
 
 R2 
2
move ?
(3) (4) R2
ANSWER 2
21. If E and G respectively denote energy

and gravitational constant, then E/G
has the dimensions of :
(1) [M2][L-1] [T0]
(2) [M] [L-1] [T-1]
(3) [M] [L0] [T0] (1) towards the left as its potential
(4) [M2] [L-2] [T-1] energy will increase.
ANSWER 1 (2) towards the right as its potential
energy will decrease.
(3) towards the left as its potential
22. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a
energy will decrease.
force 10 N. The 'time period of the
(4) towards the right as its potential
oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is
energy will increase.
suspended by it is:
(1) 0.0628 s (2) 6.28 s ANSWER 2
(3) 3.14 s (4) 0.628 s
ANSWER 4 25. Consider the following statements (A)
and (B) and identify the correct
answer.
23. Column -1 gives certain physical
(A) A zener diode is connected in
terms associated with flow of current
reverse hias, when used as a voltage
through a metallic conductor. Column
regulator.
- II gives some mathematical relations
(B) The potential barrier of p-n
involving electrical quantities. Match
junction lies between 0.1 V to 0.3 V.
Column - I and Column - II with
(1) (A) and (B) both are correct.
appropriate relations.
(2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
(3) (A) is correct and (B) is
Column -1 Column –
incorrect.
II
(4) (A) is incorrect but (B) is
A Drift Velocity P m/ne 
2
correct.
B Electrical Q ned
ANSWER 3
Resistivity
C Relaxation R eE/m 
Period
D Current Density S E/J
26. A screw gauge gives the following 29. An electromagnetic wave of

readings when used to measure the wavelength '\' is incident on a
diameter of a wire photosensitive surface of negligible
Main scale reading : 0 mm work function. If 'm' mass is of
Circular scale reading: 52 divisions photoelectron emitted from the
Given that 1 mm on main scale surface has de-Broglie wavelength d,
corresponds to 100 divisions on the then:
circular scale. The diameter of the  2m  2  2mc  2
wire from the above data is :    d d   
(1)  hc  (2)  h 
(1) 0.52 cm (2) 0.026 cm
(3) 0.26 cm (4) 0.052 cm  2mc  2  2h  2
   d    d
ANSWER 4 (3)  h  (4)  mc 
ANSWER 3
27. An inductor of inductance L, a
capacitor of capacitance C and a
resistor of resistance 'R' are connected 30. Find the value of the angle of
in series to an ac source of potential emergence from the / prism.
difference 'V volts as shown in figure. Refractive index of the glass is 3
Potential difference across L, C and R
is 40 V, 10 V and 40 V, respectively.
The amplitude of current flowing
through LCR series circuit is 102 A.
The impedance of the circuit is :
(1) 600 (2) 300

(1) 4 2 (2) 5/ 2 (3) 450 (4) 900
(3) 4 (4) 5 ANSWER 1
ANSWER 4 31. The equivalent capacitance of the
combination shown in the figure is :
28. A parallel plate capacitor has a
uniform electric field ' E ' in the space
between the plates. If the distance
between the plates is 'd' and the area
of each plate is 'A', the energy stored
in the capacitor is: (0 = permittivity
of free space)
1 (1) 3 C (2) 2 C
0E2
(2)  0 EAd
(3) C/2 (4) 3C/2
(1) 2
ANSWER 2
1 E 2 Ad
 0 E 2 Ad
(3) 2 (4) 0
ANSWER 3
32. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time SECTION–B (PHYSICS)

[T] are hosen as the fundamental
physical quantities. Find the
36. Three resistors having resistances r1 r2
dimensions of energy.
and r3 are connected as shown in the
(1) [F] [A] [T]
given circuit. The ratio i3/i1 of
(2) [F] [A] [T2]
currents in terms of resistances used 1
(3) [F] [A] [T-1]
in the circuit is :
(4) [F] [A–11][T]
ANSWER 2
33. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to

80°C in t minutes, when the room
temperature is 20°C. The time taken
by a similar cup of coffee to cool r1 r2
from 80°C to 60°C at a room (1) r2  r3 (2) r2  r3
temperature same at 20°C is :
r1 r2
(1) 13/10 t
(2) 13/5 t (3) r1  r2 (4) r1  r3
(3) 10/13 t ANSWER 2
(4) 5/13 t
ANSWER 2 37. A point object is placed at a distance
of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal
34. The effective resistance of a parallel length 30 cm. If a plane mirror were
connection that consists of four wires put perpendicular to the principal axis
of equal length, equal area of cross- of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm
section and same material is 0.25 ft. from it, the final image would be
What will be the effective resistance formed at a distance of:
if they are connected in series ?
(1) 0.25 
(2) 0.5 
(3) 1 
(4) 4 
ANSWER 4
(1) 20 cm from the lens, it would

35. The number of photons per second on be a real image.
an average emitted by the source of (2) 30 cm from the lens, it would
monochromatic light of wavelength be a real image.
600 nm, when it delivers the power of (3) 30 cm from, the plane mirror,
3.3x10 –3 watt will be (h=6:6x10–34 Js) it would be a virtual image.
(1) 1018 (4) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it
(2) 1017 would be a virtual image.
(3) 1016
ANSWER 4
(4) 1015
ANSWER 3
38. For the given circuit, the input digital The magnetic dipole moments of the
signals are applied at the terminals A, coil in each case respectively are:
B and C. What would be the output at
(1) 3 la2 and 3 la2
the terminal y ?
(2) 3Ia2 and Ia2
(3) 3 la2 and 4 la2
(4) 4 la2 and 3 la2
ANSWER 1
41. In the product
What will be the complete expression

for B ?
  
(1) 8 i  8 j  6 k
  
(2) 6 i  6 j  8 k
     
(1)
(3) 8 i  8 j  6 k (4) 6 i  6 j  8 k
(2) ANSWER 2
(3)
42. A particle moving in a circle of radius
(4) R with a uniform speed takes a time T
ANSWER 3 to complete one revolution.
If this particle were projected with the
same speed at an angle '' to the
39. A step down transformer connected to
horizontal, the maximum height
an ac mains supply of 220 V is made
attained by it equals 4R. The angle of
to operate at 11V, 44 W lamp.
projection, 0, is then given by :
Ignoring power losses in the 1
transformer, what is the current in the  gT 2  2
  cos  2 
1
primary circuit ? (1)  R 

(1) 0.2 A (2) 0.4 A 1
  2R  2
(3) 2 A (4) 4 A   cos  2 
1
ANSWER 1 (2)  gT 
1
  2R  2
40. A uniform conducting wire of length   sin  2 

1
(3)  gT 
12a and resistance 'R' is wound up as 1
a current carrying coil in the shape of,  2 gT 2  2
  sin  2 
1
 R 
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.
(ii) a square of side 'a'. (4)
ANSWER 4
43. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H 46. Twenty seven drops of same size are
inductor, 80 F capacitor and 40 charged at 220 V each. They combine
resistor is connected to 230 V variable to form a bigger drop. Calculate the
frequency ac source. The angular potential of the bigger drop.
frequencies of the source at which (1) 660 V (2) 1320 V
power transferred to the circuit is half (3) 1520 V (4) 1980 V
the power at the resonant angular ANSWER 4
frequency are likely to be :
(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s 47. A car starts from rest and accelerates
(2) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s at 5 m/s2. At t = 4 s, a ball is dropped
(3) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s out of a window by a person sitting in
(4) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s the car. What is the velocity and
ANSWER 3 acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s ?
(Take g= 10 m/s2)
44. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and (1) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2
radius 'R' an arc corresponding to a (2) 20 m/s, 0
90° sector is removed. The moment of (3) 20 2 m/s, 0
inertia of the remaining part of the
ring about an axis passing through the (4) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2
centre of the ring and perpendicular to ANSWER 4
the plane of the ring is 'K' times
'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is : 48. A particle of mass 'm' is projected
(1) 3/4 (2) 7/8 with a velocity  = kV (k < 1) from
(3) 1/4 (4) 1/8 the surface of the earth. (Ve = escape
ANSWER 1 velocity)
The maximum height above the
45. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and surface reached by the particle is :
2 2
mass 500 g is balanced on a wedge  k   k 
R  R 
placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg
(1)  1  k  (2)  1  k 
is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
and another unknown mass 'm' is R 2k Rk 2
(3) 1  k (4) 1  k
2
suspended from the rod at 160 cm
mark as shown in the figure. Find the ANSWER 4
value of 'm' such that the rod is in
equilibrium, (g = 10 m/s2) 49. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped
from a height 10 m, strikes the ground
and rebounds to the same height. The
magnitude of impulse imparted to the
ball is (g = 10 m/s2) nearly :
(1) 0 kg m/s
(2) 4.2 kg m/s
(3) 2.1 kg m/s
(4) 1.4 kg m/s
(1) 1/2 kg (2) 1/3 kg
ANSWER 2
(3) 1/6 kg (4) 1/12 kg
ANSWER 4
50. Two conducting circular loops of radii (3)

Rl and R2 are placed in the same plane
with their centres coinciding. If R1 >>
R2, the mutual inductance M between
them will be directly proportional to:
R1 R2
(1) (2)
R2 R1
R12 R22
(3) (4)
R2 R1 (4)
ANSWER 4
SECTION-A (CHEMISTRY) ANSWER 2
51. Right option for the number of 54. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of
tetrahedral and octahedral voids in hydrogen, emits which of the
hexagonal primitive unit cell are : following particles ?
(1) 8, 4 (2) 6, 12 (1) Beta (–)
(3) 2, 1 (4) 12, 6 (2) Alpha()
ANSWER 4 (3) Gamma ()
(4) Neutron (n)
52. Ze (Z = 40) and Hf(Z = 72) have ANSWER 1
similar atomic and ionic radii because
of : 55. The RBC deficiency is deficiency
(1) belonging to same group disease of:
(2) diagonal relationship (1) Vitamin B12
(3) lanthanoid contraction (2) Vitamin B6
(4) having similar chemical properties (3) Vitamin B1
ANSWER 3 (4) Vitamin B2
ANSWER 1
53. For a reaction AB, enthalpy of
reaction is –4.2 kJ mol-1 and enthalpy 56. The molar conductance of NaCl, HC1
of activation is 9.6 kJ mol-1. The and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are
correct potential energy profile for the 126.45,426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 mol-1
reaction is shown in option. respectively. The molar conductance of
CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Choose the right option for your answer.
(1) 201.28 S cm2 mol-1
(1) (2) 390.71 S cm2 mol-1
(3) 698.28 S cm2 mol-1
(4)540.48 S cm2 mol-1
ANSWER 2
(2)
57. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl- of water (P3). The right option for the
dec-4-ene is decreasing order of osmotic pressure
of these solutions is:
(1) (1) P2>P1> P3 (2) P1>P2>P3
(3) P2 > P3 > P1 (4) P3 > P1 > P2
ANSWER 1
(2) 61. The major product of the following

chemical reaction is :
(3)
(1)
(4)
(2)
ANSWER 1
(3)
58. The maximum temperature that can
be achieve, last furnace is:
(1) uptol200K (2) upto2200K
(4)
(3) upto 1900 K (4) upto 5000 K
ANSWER 2
ANSWER 1
59. Identify the compound that will react

62. Given below are two statements:
with Hinsberg’s reagent to give a solid
Statement I:
which dissolves in alkali.
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the
class of narcotic analgesics.
(1)
Statement II:
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic
(2) analgesics.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the
(3)
options given below.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
(4)
are true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II
ANSWER 3 are false.
(3) Statement I is correct but
60. The following solutions were prepared Statement II is false.
by dissolving 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) (4) Statement I is incorrect but
in 250 ml of water (P1)10 g of urea Statement II is true.
(CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and ANSWER 2
10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml
63. The correct sequence of bond Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This

enthalpy of ‘C – X’ bond is : product formation is based on ?
(1) CH3  F  CH3  Cl  CH3  Br  CH 3  I (1) Saytzeffs Rule (2) Hund's Rule
(2) CH3  F  CH3  Cl  CH3  Br  CH 3  I (3) HofmannRule (4) Huckel's Rule
(3) CH3  F  CH3  Cl  CH3  Br  CH 3  I ANSWER 1
(4) CH3  Cl  CH3  F  CH3  Br  CH 3  I
69. What is the IUPAC name of the
ANSWER 2 organic compound formed in the
following chemical reaction ?
64. BF3 is planar and electron deficient
compound. Hybridization and number
of electrons around the central atom,
respectively are :
(1) sp3 and 4 (2) sp3 and 6 (1) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(3) sp2 and 6 (4) sp2 and 8 (2) pentan-2-ol
ANSWER 3 (3) pentan-3-ol
(4) 2-methylbutan-2-ol
65. Which one among the following is the ANSWER 4
correct option for right relationship
between Cp and Cv for one mole of 70. Noble gases are named because of
ideal gas? their interness towards reactivity.
(1) CP + Cv = R (2) CP – Cv = R Identify an incorrect statement about
(3) Cp = RCV (4) CV = RCP them
ANSWER 2 (1) Noble gases are sparingly soluble
in water
66. Among the following alkaline earth (2) Noble gases have very high
metal halides, one which is covalent melting and boiling points
and soluble in organic solvents is: (3) Noble gases have weak dispersion
(1) Calcium chloride forces
(2) Strontium chloride (4) Noble gases have large positive
(3) Magnesium chloride values of electron gain enthalpy
(4) Beryllium chloride ANSWER 2
ANSWER 4
71. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of
67. An organic compound contains 78% (by acetic acid are 3.27 and 4.77
wt.) carbon and remaining percentage respectively at T (K). The correct
of hydrogen. The right option for the option for the pH of
empirical formula of this compound is: dimethylammonium acetate solution
[Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] is:
(1) CH (2) CH2 (1) 8.50
(3) CH3 (4) CH4 (2) 5.50
ANSWER 3 (3) 7.75
(4) 6.25
68. The major product formed in ANSWER 3
dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-
72. The right option for the statement

"Tyndall effect is exhibited by", is :
(1) NaCl solution
(2) . Glucose solution (1)
(3) Starch solution
(4) Urea solution
ANSWER 3
73. Statement I:
Acid strength increases in the order (2)
given as HF< < HCl<< HBr << HI.
Statement II:
As the size of the elements F, CI, Br, I
increases down the group, the bond
strength of HF, HC1, HBr and HI
decreases and so the acid strength
increases. (3)
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the
options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement
II are true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement (4)
II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true ANSWER 4
ANSWER 1
76. The structures of beryllium chloride
74. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) in sohd state and vapour phase, are :
ion is: (1) Chain and dimer, respectively
(1) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" (2) Linear in both
and two "N" donor atoms (3) Dimer and Linear, respectively
(2) Unidentate ligand (4) chain in both
(3) Bidentate ligand with two "N" ANSWER 1
donor atoms
(4) Tridentate ligand with three "N" 77. Which one of the following methods
donor atoms can be used to obtain highly pure
ANSWER 1 metal which is liquid at room
temperature ?
75. Choose the correct option for (1) Electrolysis
graphical representation of Boyle's law, (2) Chromatography
which shows a graph of pressure vs. (3) Distillation
volume of a gas at different (4) Zone refining
temperatures: ANSWER 3
78. The compound which shows 83. The incorrect statement among the
metamerism is: following is :
(1) C5H12 (2) C3H8O (1) Actinoid contraction is greater for
(3) C3H6O (4) C4 H10O element to element than Lanthanoid
ANSWER 4 contraction
(2) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions
79. The correct option for the number of are colorless in the solid state
body centred unit cells in all 14 types (3) Lanthanoids are good conductors of
of Bravais lattice unit cells is : heat and electricity.
(1) 7 (2) 5 (4) Actinoids are highly reactive
(3) 2 (4) 3 metals, especially when finely divided
ANSWER 4
ANSWER 2
80. Which one of the following polymers

is prepared by addition 84. Dihedral angle of least stable
polymerisation ? conformer of ethane is :
(1) Teflon (2) Nylon-66 (1) 120°
(3) Novolac (4) Dacron (2) 180°
(3) 60°
ANSWER 1
(4) 0°
ANSWER 4
81. A particular station of All India Radio,
New Delhi, broadcasts on a frequency
of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). The 85. Match the List -I with List –II
wavelength of the electromagnetic List –I List –II
radiation emitted by the transmitter is (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
: [speed of light, c = 3.0  l08ms–1]
(b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
(1) 219.3 m
(2) 219.2 m (c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
(3) 2192 m (d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal
(4) 21.92 cm bipyramidal
ANSWER 1
Choose the correct answer from the
82. Which of the following reactions is the
metal displacement reaction ? Choose the (1) (a)-(iv),(b)-(iii),(c)-(i),(d)-(ii)
right option. (2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)
(4) (a).(iv),(b)-(iii),(c)-(ii),(d)-(i)
ANSWER 1
ANSWER 2
SECTION–B (CHEMISTRY)
(d NO2 ( g ) 
hv (iv Troposp
NaOH ,  ? ) heric
)
CH 3CH 2COO  Na    NO ( g )  O ( g )
86. Heat . pollutio
CH 3CH 3  Na2CO3 n
Consider the above reaction and Choose the correct answer from the
identify the missing reagent/chemical. options given below.
(1) B2 H 6 (1) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii))(c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) Red Phosphorus (2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) CaO (4) DIBAL-H (3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
ANSWER 3 (4) (a)-(iii),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
ANSWER 3
87. The intermediate compound 'X' in the
following chemical reaction is: 89. Match List –I with List –II
List –I List –II

(a) (i) HellVolhard-
Zelinsky
reaction
(1) (b) (ii) Gattermann-

Koch
reaction
(2) (c) (iii) Haloform
reaction
(d) (iv) Esterification
(3)
(4) options given below.
(1) (a)-(iv),(b)-(i),(c)-(ii),(iii)
(2) (a)-(iii),(b)-(ii),(c)-(i),(d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(i),(b)-(iv),(c)-(iii),(d)-(ii)
ANSWER 1
(4) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
ANSWER 4
88. Match List –I with List –II
List –I List –II 90. Match List-I with List –II

(a) 2SO2 ( g )  O2 ( g ) (i) Acid rain List –I List –II
 2SO3 ( g ) (a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) OBM
(b HOCl ( g ) 
hv (ii) Smog
)
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM
OH Cl
(c) CaCO3  H 2 SO4  (iii Ozone (d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM
CaSO4  H 2O  CO2 deplectio
)
n
Choose the correct answer from the 93. From the following pairs of ions
options given below. which one is not an iso-electronic
(1) (a) (iv),(b)-(ii),(c) (i),(d)-(iii) pair?
(2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iv),(c)-(iii),(d)-(i) (1) O2–, F– (2) Na+,Mg2+
(3) (a)-(i),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d).(ii) (3) Mn2+, Fe3+ (4) Fe2+, Mn2+
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) ANSWER 4
ANSWER 4
94. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M
91. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence acetic acid is 20 S cm2 mol-1. What is
of chemical reaction is: the dissociation constant of acetic acid
Choose the correct option.
(1) H2O
(2) CH3CH2OH (1) 1.75  104 mol L1
(3) HI
(2) 2.50 104 mol L1
(4) CuCN/KCN
ANSWER 2 (3) 1.75 105 mol L1
(4) 2.50 105 mol L1
92. The product formed in the following ANSWER 3
chemical-" reaction is:
95. Choose the correct option for the total
pressure (in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g
02 and 2 g H2 confined in a total
volume of one litre at 0°C is
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol-1K-1,T =
(1) 273 K]
(1) 2.518 (2) 2.602
(3) 25.18 (4) 26.02
ANSWER 3
(2)
96. The correct option for the value of

vapour pressure of a solution at
45°C with benzene to octane in
(3) molar ratio 3 : 2 is :
[At 45°C vapour pressure of
benzene is 280 mm Hg and that of
octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume
Ideal gas]
(4) (1) 160 mm of Hg
(2) 168 mm of Hg
(3) 336 mm of Hg
ANSWER 4
(4) 350 mm of Hg
ANSWER 3
97. For irreversible expansion of an SECTION-A (BIOLOGY: BOTANY)

ideal gas under isothermal
condition, the correct option is: 101. Mutations in plant cells can be
(1) U = 0, Stotal = 0 induced by:
(2) U0, Stotal  0 (1) Kinetin
(3) U = 0, Stotal 0 (2) Infrared rays
(4) U0, Stotal = 0 (3) Gamma rays
ANSWER 3 (4) Zeatin
ANSWER 3
98. Which of the following molecules
is non-polar in nature ? 102. Match List-I with List-II
(1) POCl3 (2) CH2O List -1 List - II
(3) SbCl5 (4) NO2
(a) Cells with active (i) Vascular
ANSWER 3 cell division tissues
(b) capacity
Tissue having all (ii) Meristematic
99. In which one of the following cells similar in tissue
arrangements the given sequence is structure and
not strictly according to the function
(c) Tissue having (iii) Sclereids
properties indicated against it ? different types of
(d) cells
Dead cells with (iv) Simple tissue
highly thickened
walls and narrow
lumen
Select the correct answer from the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWER 2 (1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
100. The slope of Arrhenius Plot
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
 1
 In k v / s  ANSWER 1
 T  of first order reaction
is — 5 x 103 K. The value of Ea of 103. Which of the following is a correct
the reaction is. Choose the correct sequence of steps in a PCR
option for your answer. (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
[Given R = 8.314 JK-1ol-1] (1) Denaturation, Annealing,
(1) 41.5kJmol-1 Extension
(2) 83.0 kJmol"1 (2) Denaturation, Extension,
(3) 166 kJmol-1 Annealing
(4) -83 kJmor1 (3) Extension, Denaturation,
ANSWER 1 Annealing
(4) Annealing, Denaturation,
Extension
ANSWER 1
104. Match List-I with List-II 106. The term used for transfer of
List -1 List - II pollen grains from anthers of one
(a) Linticels (i) Phellogen plant to stigma of a different plant
which, during pollination, brings
genetically different types of
(b) Cork (ii) Suberin
pollen grains to stigma, is :
cambium deposit
(1) Xenogamy
(2) Geitonogamy
(c) Secondary (iii) Exchange of
(3) Chasmogamy
cortex gases
(4) Cleistogamy
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm
ANSWER 1
107. DNA strands on a gel stained with

Choose the correct answer from the ethidium bromide when viewed
options given below. under UV radiation, appear
as
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Yellow bands
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (2) Bright orange bands
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (3) Dark red bands
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) Bright blue bands
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii ANSWER 2
)
ANSWER 2 108. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement ?
105. Complete the flow chart on central (1) Mature sieve tube elements
dogma. possess a conspicuous
nucleus and usual
cytoplasmic organelles.
(1) (a)-Replication; (2) Microbodies are present both
(b)-Transcription; in plant and animal cells.
(c)-Transduction; (3) The perinuclear space forms
(d)-Protein a barrier between the
(2) (a)-Translation; materials present inside the
(b)-Rephcation; nucleus and that of the
(c)-Transcription; cytoplasm.
(d)-Transduction (4) Nuclear pores act as passages
(3) (a)-Replication; for proteins and RNA
(b)-Transcription; molecules in both directions
(c)-Translation; between nucleus and
(d)-Protein cytoplasm.
(4) (a)-Transduction; ANSWER 1
(b)-Translation;
(c)-RepHcation;
(d)-Protein
ANSWER 3
109. Inspite of interspecific competition 113. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia
in nature, which mechanism the produce two kinds of spores. Such
competing species might have plants are known as :
evolvedfor their survival? (1) Homosorus
(1) Resource partitioning (2) Heterosorus
(2) Competitive release (3) Homosporous
(3) Mutualism (4) Heterosporous
(4) Predation ANSWER 4
ANSWER 1
114. The amount of nutrients, such as
110. Gemmae are present in : carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and
(1) Mosses calcium present in the soil at any
(2) Pteridophytes given time, is referred as :
(3) Some Gymnosperms (1) Climax
(4) Some Liverworts (2) Climax community
(3) Standing state
ANSWER 4
(4) Standing crop
ANSWER 3
111. Match List-I with List-II
List -1 List - II 115. Amensalism can be represented as :
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency (1) Species A (-); Species B (0)
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato (2) Species A ( + ); Species B(+)
(c) Meristem culture (hi) Somaclones (3) y Species A(-); Species B(-)
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free (4) Species A (+); Species B (0)
plants ANSWER 1
Choose the correct answer from the 116. Match List -1 with List - II.
options given below:
(a) (b) (c) (d) List -1 List - II
(1) (iii) iv) (ii) (i) (a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) liquid phase
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (b) Adhesion (ii) Mutual attraction
among water
ANSWER 2 molecules
(c) Surface (iii) Water loss in liquid
tension phase
112. The production of gametes by the
parents, formation of zygotes, the F1 (d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards
and F2 plants, can be understood from polar surfaces
a diagram called:
(1) Bullet square
(2) Punch square
(3) Punnett square (1) a  ii; b  iv ; c  i; d  iii
(4) Net square (2) a  iv; b  iii ; c  ii; d  i
(3) a  iii; b  i ; c  iv; d  ii
ANSWER 3
(4) a  ii; b  i ; c  iv; d  iii
ANSWER 1
117. Which of the following is not an 122. Which of the following statements is
application of PCR (Polymerase not correct?
Chain Reaction)? (1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is
(1) Molecular diagnosis generally inverted
(2) Gene amplification (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is
(3) Purification of isolated protein generally upright
(4) Detection of gene mutation (3) Pyramid of energy is always
ANSWER 3 upright
(4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
ecosystem is upright
118. During the purification process for
recombinant DNA technology, ANSWER 2
addition of chilled ethanol precipitates
out 123. Match List-I with List II
(1) RNA List -1 List-II
(2) DNA
(a) Cristae (i) Primary
(3) Histones
constriction in
(4) Polysaccharides
chromosome sacs
(b) Thylakoids (ii) Disc-shaped
ANSWER 2 in Golgi
apparatus in
(c) Centromere (iii) Infoldings
119. In the equation GPP – R = NPP mitochondria
R represents (d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened
(1) Radiant energy membranous sacs
(2) Retardation factor
Choose the correct in stromafrom
answer of the
(3) Environment factor plastids
options given below
(4) Respiration losses
(1) a  iv; b  iii ; c  ii; d  i
ANSWER 4 (2) a  i; b  iv ; c  iii; d  ii
(3) a  iii; b  iv ; c  i; d  ii
120 The first stable product of CO2 (4) a  ii; b  iii ; c  iv; d  i
fixation in sorghum is
ANSWER 3
(1) Pyruvic acis
(2) Oxamoacetic acid
(3) Succinic acid 124. Which of the following are not
(4) Phosphoglyceric acid secondary metabolites in plants?
(1) Morphine, codeine
ANSWER 2
(2) Amino acids, glucose
(3) Vinblastin, curcumin
121. Which of the following algae produce (4) Rubber, gums
Carrageen?
ANSWER 2
(1) Green algae
(2) Brown algae
(3) Red algae 125. Which of the following algae contains
(4) Blue-green algae mannitol as reserve food material?
(1) Ectocarpus (2) Gracilaria
ANSWER 3
(3) Volvox (4) Ulothrix
ANSWER 1
126. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at 131. Which of the following plants is
maturity is monoecious?
(1) 8-nucleate and 7-celled (1) Carica papaya
(2) 7-nucleate and 8-celled (2) Chara
(3) 7-nucleate and 7-celled (3) Marchantia polymorpha
(4) 8-nucleate and 8-celled (4) Cycas circinalis
ANSWER 1 ANSWER 2
127. Diadelphous stamens are found in 132. When the centromere is situated in the
(1) China rose middle of two equal arms of
(2) Citrus chromosomes, the chromosome is
(3) Pea referred as
(4) China rose and citrus (1) Metacentric
ANSWER 3 (2) Telocentric
(3) Sub-metacentric
(4) Acrocentric
128. When gene targetting involving gene
amplification is attempt in an ANSWER 1
individual’s tissue to treat disease, it
is known as 133. The site of perception of light in
(1) Biopiracy plants during photoperiodism is
(2) Gene therapy (1) Shoot apex
(3) Molecular diagnosis (2) Stem
(4) Safety testing (3) Axillary bud
ANSWER 2 (4) Leaf
ANSWER 4
129. Which of the following stages of
meiosis involves division of 134. The factor that leads to Founder effect
centromere? in a population is
(1) Metaphase I (1) Natural selection
(2) Metaphase II (2) Genetic recombination
(3) Anaphase II (3) Mutation
(4) Telophase II (4) Genetic drift
ANSWER 3 ANSWER 4
130. Plants follow different pathways in 135. The plant hormone used to destroy
response to environment or phase of weeds in a field is
life to form different kinds of (1) IAA
structures. This ability is called (2) NAA
(1) Plants follow different pathways (3) 2, 4-D
in response to environment or phase (4) IBA
of life to form different kinds of ANSWER 3
structures. This ability is called
(1) Elasticity (2) Flexibility
(3) Plasticity (4) Maturity
ANSWER 3
SECTION-B (BIOLOGY: BOTANY) 138. Which of the following statements is

correct?
136. Match Column - I with Column - II (1) Fusion of two cells is called
Karyogamy
Column - I Column - II (2) Fusion of protoplasms between
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Dentrification two motile on non-motile gametes
(b) Rhizobium (ii)Conversion of is called plasmogamy
ammonia to (3) Organisms that depend on living
nitrite plants are called saprophytes
(c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of (4) Some of the organisms can fix
nitrite to atmospheric nitrogen in specialized
nitrate cells called sheath cells
(d) Nitrobactor (iv) Conversion of
ANSWER 2
atmospheric
nitrogen to
ammonia 139. Identify the correct statement
(1) In capping, methyl guanosine
Choose the correct answer from triphosphate is added to the 3’ end of
options given below hnRNA
(1) a  ii; b  iv ; c  i; d  iii (2) RNA polymerase binds with Rho
(2) a  i; b  ii ; c  iii; d  iv factor to terminate the process of
(3) a  iii; b  i ; c  iv; d  ii transcription in bacteria
(4) a  iv; b  iii ; c  ii; d  i (3) The coding strand in a
ANSWER 1 transcription unit is copied to an
mRNA
137. Select the correct pair (4) Split gene arrangement is
characteristic of prokaryotes
(1) Large colorless Subsidiary cells
ANSWER 2
empty cells in the
epidermis of grass
leaves 140. In the exponential growth equation
(2) In dicot leaves, Conjuctive Nt = Noert, e represents
vascular bundles tissue (1) The base of number logarithms
are surrounded by (2) The base of exponential
large thick-walled logarithms
cells (3) The base of natural logarithms
(3) Cells of medullary Interfascicular (4) The base of geometric logarithms
rays that form part cambium ANSWER 3
of cambial ring
(4) Loose Spongy 141. Which of the following statements is
parenchyma cells parenchyma incorrect?
rupturing the (1) During aerobic respiration, role of
epidermis and oxygen is limited to the terminal
forming a lens stage.
shaped opening in (2) In ETC (Electron Transport
bark Chain), one molecule of NADH + H+
gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, and
ANSWER 3
one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP Choose the correct answer from the
molecules options given below
(3) ATP is synthesized through (1) a  iii; b  ii ; c  i; d  iv
complex V (2) a  iv; b  ii ; c  iii; d  i
(4) Oxidation-reduction reactions (3) a  iv; b  i ; c  ii; d  iii
produce proton gradient in respiration (4) a  ii; b  iv ; c  iii; d  i
ANSWER 2 ANSWER 3
142. What is the role of RNA polymerase 145. Now a days it is possible to detect the
III in the process of transcription in mutated gene causing cancer by
eukaryotes? allowing radioactive probe to
(1) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and hybridise its complimentary DNA in a
5.8S) clone of cells, followed by its
(2) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and detection using autoradiography
snRNA because
(3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA (1) mutated gene partially appears on
(4) Transcribes only snRNAs a photographic film
ANSWER 2 (2) mutated gene completely and
clearly appears on a photographic film
143. In some members of which of the (3) mutated gene does not appear on a
following pairs of families, pollen photographic film as the probe has no
grains retain their viability for months complimentarity with it
after release? (4) mutated gene does not appear on
(1) Poaeae ; Rosaceae photographic film as the probe has
(2) Poaceae ; Leguminose complimentarity with it
(3) Poaceae ; Solanaceae ANSWER 3
(4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
ANSWER 4 146. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction
enzyme site within gene ampR that
144. Match List-I with List - II confers ampicillin resistance. If this
enzyme is used for inserting a gene
List - I List - II for -galactoside production and the
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are recombinant plasmid is inserted in an
synthesized E.coli strain
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase (1) It will not be able to confer
(c) Quiescent (iii) Interval ampicillin resistance to the host cell
stage between (2) The transformed cells will have
mitosis and the ability to resist ampicillin as well
initiation of as produce -galactoside
DNA (3) It will lead to lysis of host cell
replication (4) It will be able to produce a novel
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA protein with dual ability
replication ANSWER 1
147. Match Column-I with Column-II Choose the correct answer from the
options given below
Column I Column II (a) (b) (c) (d)
a i Brassicacea (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
e (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
b ii Liliaceae (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
c iii Fabaceae
ANSWER 1
d iv Solanaceae
150. DNA fingerprinting involves
Select the correct answer from the identifying differences in some
options given below specific regions in DNA sequence,
(a) (b) (c) (d) called as :
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (1) Satellite DNA
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) Repetitive DNA
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (3) Single nucleotide
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (4) Polymorphic DNA
ANSWER 1 ANSWER 2
148. Which of the following statements is

SECTION-A (BIOLOGY: ZOOLOGY)
incorrect?
(1) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are 151. Which of the following statements
synthesized during non-cyclic wrongly represents the nature of
photophosphorylation smooth muscle ?
(2) Stroma lamellae have PS-I only (1) These muscle have no striations
and lack NADP reductase (2) They are involuntary muscles
(3) Grana lamellae have both PS-I and (3) Communication among the
PS-II cells is performed by intercalated
(4) Cyclic photophosphorylation discs
involves both PS-I and PS-II (4) These muscles are present in the
wall of bloodvessels
ANSWER 4
ANSWER 3
149. Match List-I with List-II 152. The organelles that are included in the
endomembrane system are : '-
List-I List-II (1) Endoplasmic reticulum,
(a) Protein (i) C = C double Mitochondria,
:
bonds Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester (2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi
fatty acid bonds complex, Lysosomes and
Vacuoles
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria,
bonds
Ribosomes and Lysosomes
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
(4) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic
reticulum, Mitochondria and
Lysosomes
ANSWER 2
153. With regard to insulin choose correct 156. Match the following:
options. List -1 List - II
(a) C-peptide is not present in (a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster
mature insulin. (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA (c) Ancylosto (iii Living fossil
technology has C-peptide. (d) Pinctada
ma (iv)
) Hookworm
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of
insulin are interconnected by
(a) (b) (c) (d)
disulphide bridges.
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(1) (b) and (d) only (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only ANSWER 3
(4) (a) and (d) only
157. In a cross between a male and female,
ANSWER 3 both heterozygous for sickle cell
anaemia gene, what percentage of the
154. Veneral diseases can spread through: progeny will be diseased?
(a) Using sterile needles (1) 50% (2) 75%
(b) Transfusion of blood from (3) 25% (4) 100%
infected person ANSWER 3
(c) Infected mother to foetus
(d) Kissing 158. Match List -1 with List - II.
(e) Inheritance
Choose the correct answer from the List -1 List - II
options given below. (a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only (b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
(2) (b), (c) and (d) only (c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid
(3) (b) and (c) only (d) butylicum
Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
(4) (a) and (c) only
ANSWER 3 Choose the correct answer from the
(a) (b) (c) (d)
155. Select the favourable conditions (1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
required for the formation of (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
oxyhemoglobin at the alveoli. (3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+ , (4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
lower temperature
(2) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+ , ANSWER 1
higher temperature
159. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
(3) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+ ,
(1) Ileo-caecaljunction
higher temperature
(2) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct
(4) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+ ,
and duodenum
higher temperature
(3) Gastro-oesophagealjunction
ANSWER 1 (4) Junction of jejunum & duodenum
ANSWER 2
160. Which of the following is not an 165. Which one of the following belongs
objective of Biofortification in crops? to the family Muscidae?
(1) Improve protein content (1) Fire fly
(2) Improve resistance to diseases (2) Grasshopper
(3) Improve vitamin content (3) Cockroach
(4) Improve micronutrient and (4) House fly
mineral content ANSWER 4
ANSWER 2
166. Read the following statements.
161. Erythropoietin hormone which (a) Metagenesis is observed in
stimulates R.B.C. formation is Helminths
produced by: (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and
(1) Alpha cells of pancreas coelomate animals
(2) The cells of rostral (c) Round worms have organ-system
adenohypophysis level of body organization
(3) The cells of bone marrow (d) Comb plates present in
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney ctenophores help in digestion
ANSWER 4 (e) Water vascular system is
characteristic of Echinoderms
162. Which one of the following organisms
options given below
bears hollow and pneumatic long
(1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
bones ?
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(1) Neophron
(3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
(2) Hemidactylus
(4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(3) Macropus
(4) Ornithorhynchus ANSWER 4
ANSWER 1
167. For effective treatment of the disease,
early diagnosis and understanding its
163. The centriole undergoes duplication
pathophysiology is very important.
during
Which of the following molecular
(1) S-phase
diagnostic techniques is very useful
(2) Prophase
for early detection?
(3) Metaphase
(a) Western Blotting technique
(4) G2 phase
(b) Southern Blotting technique
ANSWER 1 (c) ELISA technique
(d) Hybridisation technique
164. Dobson units are used to measure ANSWER 3
thickness of
(1) CFCs
168. Receptors of sperm binding in
(2) Stratosphere
mammals are present on
(3) Ozone
(1) Corona radiate
(4) Troposphere
(2) Vitelline membrane
ANSWER 3 (3) Perivitelline space
(4) Zona pellucida
ANSWER 4
169. Chronic auto immune disorder 172. Match List-I with List-II.
affecting neuro muscular junction List -1 List - II
leading to fatigue, weakening and (a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called (b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora
as (c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida
(1) Arthritis (d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera
(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Myasthenia gravis Choose the correct answer from the
(4) Gout options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
ANSWER 3 (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
170. Which one of the following is an (3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
example of Hormone releasing IUD? (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(1) CuT ANSWER 3
(2) LNG 20
(3) Cu7 173. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n)
(4) Multiload 375 in each cell. During interphase of
ANSWER 2 Mitosis if the number of
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what
171. Match List-I with List-II. would be the number of chromosomes
after S phase?
List -1 List - II
(1) 8 (2) 16
(a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm (3) 4 (4) 32
through Cervix ANSWER 1
is blocked
174. During the process of gene
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas amplification using PCR, if very high
deferens temperature is not maintained in the
(c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of beginning, then which of the
sperms within following steps of PCR will be
the Uterus affected first?
(d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of (1) Annealing
fallopian tube (2) Extension
(3) Denaturation
Choose the correct answer from the (4) Ligation
options given below. ANSWER 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) 175. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) molecule, what will be the percentage
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) of Thymic, Guanine and Cytosine in
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) it?
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (1) T : 20 : G : 30 : C : 20
(2) T : 20 : G : 20 : C : 30
(3) T : 30 : G : 20 : C : 20
ANSWER 2 (4) T : 20 : G : 25 : C : 25
ANSWER 3
176. Which enzyme is responsible for the 181. A specific recognition sequence
conversion of inactive fibrinogens to identified by endonucleases to make
fibrins? cuts at specific positions within the
(1) Thrombin DNA is
(2) Renin (1) Degenerate primer sequence
(3) Epinephrine (2) Okazaki sequences
(4) Thrombokinase (3) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
ANSWER 1 (4) Poly (A) tail sequences
ANSWER 3
177. Succus entericus is referred to as
(1) Pancreatic juice 182. Which of the following characteristics
(2) Intestinal juice is incorrect with respect to cockroach?
(3) Gastric juice (1) A ring of gastric caeca is present
(4) Chyme at the junction of midgut and hind gut.
ANSWER 2 (2) Hypopharynx lies within the
cavity enclosed by the mouth parts.
(3) In females, 7th-9th sterna together
178. Identify the incorrect pair
form a genital pouch.
(1) Alkaloids - Codeine
(4) 10th abdominal segment in both
(2) Toxin - Abrin
sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci.
(3) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(4) Drugs - Ricin ANSWER 1
ANSWER 4
183. Which of the following RNAs is not
required for the synthesis of protein ?
179. Which stage of meiotic prophase
(a) mRNA
shows terminalisation of chiasmata as
(b) tRNA
its distinctive feature ?
(c) rRNA
(1) Leptotene
(d) siRNA
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diakinesis ANSWER 4
(4) Pachytene
ANSWER 3 184. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has
"Capability" to catalyse Initiation,
Elongation and Termination in the
180. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are
process of transcription in
called as “Universal recipients”. This
prokaryotes?
is due to
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(1) Absence of antigens A and B on
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymeras
the surface of RBCs
(3) DNALigase
(2) Absence of antigens A and B in
(4) DNase
plasma
(3) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and ANSWER 2
anti-B, on RBCs
(4) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and 185. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of
anti-B, in plasma oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide
ANSWER 4 (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
are:
(1) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40 189. Following are the statements with
(2) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45 reference to ‘lipids’
(3) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40 (a) Lipids having only single bonds
(4) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3 are called unsaturated fatty acids.
ANSWER 1 (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms
186. Which of the following is not a step
including carboxyl carbon.
in Multiple Ovulation Embryo
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon
Transfer Technology (MOET)?
atoms.
(1) Cow is administered hormone
having LH like activity for super
ovulation
(1) (a) and (b) only
(2) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a
(2) (c) and (d) only
time
(3) (b) and (c) only
(3) Cow is fertilized by artificial
(4) (b) and (e) only
insemination
(4) Fertilized eggs are transferred to ANSWER 3
surrogate mothers at 8- 32 cell stage
ANSWER 1 190. Which one of the following
statements about Histones is wrong ?
(1) Histones are organized to form a
187. Which of the following secretes the
unit of 8 molecules.
hormone, relaxin, during the later
(2) The pH of histones is slightly
phase of pregnancy?
acidic.
(1) Graafian follicle
(3) Histones are rich in amino acids
(2) Corpus luteum
- Lysine andArginine.
(3) Foetus
(4) Histones carry positive charge in
(4) Uterus
the side chain.
ANSWER 2
ANSWER 2
188. During muscular contraction which of
191. Match List-I with List-II.
the following events occur?
a. ‘H’ zone disappears
b. ‘A’ band widens List -1 List - II
c. ‘I’ band reduces in width (a) Adaptive (i) Selection of resistant
d. Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing radiation varieties due to
the ADP and Pi excessive use of
e. Z-lines attached to actins are pulled herbicides and pesticides
inwards (b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs in
Choose the correct answer from the evolution Man and Whale
options given below (c) Divergent (iii Wings of Butterfly and
(1) a, c, d, e only evolution Bird'
)
(2) a, b, c, d only
(d) Evolution (iv Darwin Finches
(3) b, c, d, e only
by )
(4) b, d, e, a only
anthropo-
ANSWER 1 genic
action
Choose the correct answer from the 194. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency
options given below., results into:
(1) Dysfunction of Immune system
(a) (b) (c) (d) (2) Parkinson's disease
(1) (iv) (ui) (ii) (i) (3) Digestive-disorder
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) Addison's disease
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) ANSWER 1
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
195. Statement I:
ANSWER 1 The codon 'AUG' codes for
methionine and phenylalanine.
192. Identify the types of cell junctions Statement II:
that help to stop the leakage of the 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code
substances across a tissue and for the amino acid lysine.
facilitation of communication In the light of the above statements,
with neighbouring cells via rapid choose the correct answer from the
transfer of ions and molecules. options given below.
(1) Gap junctions and Adhering (1) Both Statement I and Statement II
junctions, respectively. are true
(2) Tight junctions and Gap (2) Both Statement I and Statement II
junctions, respectively. are false
(3) Adhering junctions and Tight (3) Statement I is correct but
junctions, respectively. Statement II is false
(4) Adhering junctions and Gap (4) Statement I is incorrect but
junctions, respectively. Statement II is true
ANSWER 2 ANSWER 4
196. Assertion (A) : A person goes to high

193. Following are the statements about altitude and experiences 'altitude
prostomium sickness' with symptoms like breathing
of earthworm. difficulty and heart palpitations.
(a) It serves as a covering for Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric
mouth. pressure at high altitude, the body
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil does not get sufficient oxygen.
into which it can crawl. In the light of the above statements,
(c) It is one of the sensory choose the correct answer from the
structures. options given below.
(d) It is the first body segment. (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and
Choose the correct answer from the (R) is the correct explanation of
options given below. (A)
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
(2) (a), (b) and (d) are correct is not the correct explanation of
(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct (A)
(4) (b) and (c) are correct (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
ANSWER 1 (4) (A) is false but (R) is true
ANSWER 1
197. Match List -1 with List – II 199. Which of these is not an important
List-I List-II component of initiation of parturition
in humans ?
(a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(a) Increase in estrogen and
(b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard progesterone ratio
adaptation (b) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish at (c) Release of Oxytocin
adaptation depth (d) Release of Prolactin
(d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal ANSWER 4
adaptation
Choose the correct answer from the 200. Match List-1 with List-II
options given below
List -1 List - II
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) joints
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
(d) Vertebral (iv) Triangular flat
ANSWER 3 column bone
198. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
options given below
(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus
(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton (a) (b) (c) (d)
influen
(1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
zae
(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria (2) (i) (iii) (iv) (i)
bancrofti (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
histolytica ANSWER 4
options given below
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
ANSWER 2


Previous Year NEET Question Paper With The Answer Key For The Year 2022

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Previous Year NEET Question Paper With The Answer Key For The Year 2022

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DATE: 12-09-2021 NEET 2021 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 1

NEET 2021 (12-09-2021) QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

5. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide

8. A small block slides down on a smooth (2)

14. Match Column -1 and Column - II 17. The electron concentration in an n-

16. A lens of large focal length and large

20. Two charged spherical conductors of (1) (A)-(R),(B)-(S),(C)-(P),(D)-(Q)

21. If E and G respectively denote energy

26. A screw gauge gives the following 29. An electromagnetic wave of

(1) 600 (2) 300

32. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time SECTION–B (PHYSICS)

33. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to

(1) 20 cm from the lens, it would

41. In the product

What will be the complete expression

primary circuit ? (1)  R 

40. A uniform conducting wire of length   sin  2 

50. Two conducting circular loops of radii (3)

SECTION-A (CHEMISTRY) ANSWER 2

(2) 61. The major product of the following

59. Identify the compound that will react

63. The correct sequence of bond Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This

72. The right option for the statement

80. Which one of the following polymers

List –I List –II

(1) (b) (ii) Gattermann-

List –I List –II 90. Match List-I with List –II

96. The correct option for the value of

97. For irreversible expansion of an SECTION-A (BIOLOGY: BOTANY)

107. DNA strands on a gel stained with

SECTION-B (BIOLOGY: BOTANY) 138. Which of the following statements is

148. Which of the following statements is

196. Assertion (A) : A person goes to high

198. Match List-I with List-II

DATE: 12-09-2021 NEET 2021 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 31

You might also like