DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 1

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NEET 2020 (13-09-2020) QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

1. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening 4. Match the following concerning essential
of DNA helix during transcription elements and their functions in plants
(1) DNA polymerase (1) Iron (i) Photolysis of
(2) RNA polymerase water
(3) DNA ligase (2) Zinc (ii) Pollen
(4) DNA helicase germination
(3) Boron (iii) Required for
ANSWER 2 chlorophyll
biosynthesis
2. Which of the following would help in (4) Manga (iv) IAA biosynthesis
prevention of diuresis? nese
(1) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
vasoconstriction Select the correct option
(1) a - iii; b - iv; c-ii; d-i
(2) Decrease in secretion of renin by JG (2) a - iv; b - i; c-ii; d-iii
cells (3) a - ii; b - i; c-iv; d-iii
(3) More water reabsorption due to (4) a - iv; b - iii; c-ii; d-i
underseretion of ADH ANSWER 1
(4) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from
renal tubules due to aldosterone
5. Which of the following pairs is of
ANSWER 4 unicellular algae?
(1) Anabaena and Volvox
3. Meiotic division of the secondary oocyte (2) Chlorella and Spirulina
is completed (3) Laminaria and Sargassum
(4) Gelidium and Gracilaria
(1) After zygote formation
ANSWER 2
(2) At the time of fusion of a sperm with
an ovum
(3) Prior to ovulation 6. The oxygenation activity of RuBisCo
enzyme in photorespiration leads to the
(4) At the time of copulation formation of
ANSWER 2 (1) 1 molecule of 6-C compound
(2) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1
molecule of 2-Ccompound
(3) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
(4) 1 molecule of 3-C compound
ANSWER 4
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7. Match the following columns and selext 10. Which of the following statements about
the correct option inclusion bodies is incorrect?
Column-I Column-II (1) They lie free in the cytoplasm
(1) Eosinophils (i) Immuneresponse (2) These represent reserve material in
cytoplasm
(2) Baseophils (ii) Phagocytosis
(3) They are not bound by any membrane
(3) Neutrophils (iii) Release
(4) These are involved in ingestion of
histaminase,
food particles
destructive
enzymes ANSWER 4
(4) Lymphocytes (iv) Release granules
containing 11. Strobili or cones are found in
histamine (1) Marchantia (2) Equisetum
(3) Salvinia (4) Pteris
Select the correct option
(1) a - i; b - ii; c-iv; d-iiii ANSWER 2
(2) a - ii; b - i; c-iii; d-iv
(3) a - iii; b - iv; c-ii; d-i 12. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for
(4) a - iv; b - i; c-ii; d-iii control of
ANSWER 3 (1) Release of Green House gases
(2) Disposal of e-wastes
8. Match the following columns and select (3) Transport of Genetically modified
the correct option. organisms from one country to another
(4) Emission of ozone depleting
Column - I Column - II substances
(1) Placenta (i) Androgens ANSWER 4
(2) Zons pellucida (ii) Human
Chorionic 13. Which of the following statements is
Gonadotrop correct?
in (hCG) (1) Adenine pairs with thymine through
(3) Bulbo-urethral (iii) Layer of the three H-bonds
glands ovum (2) Adenine does not pair with thymine
(4) Leydig cells (iv) Lubrication (3) Adenine pairs with thymine through
of the Penis two H-bonds
Select the correct option (4) Adenine pairs with thymine through
(1) a - iii; b - ii; c-iv; d-i one H-bond
(2) a - ii; b - iii; c-iv; d-i ANSWER 3
(3) a - iv; b - iii; c-i; d-ii
(4) a - i; b - iv; c-ii; d-iii 14. The body of the ovule is fused within the
ANSWER 2 funicle at
(1) Nucellus (2) Chalaza
9. The plant parts which consist of two (3) Hilum (4) Micropyle
generations one within the other ANSWER 3
(1) Pollen grains inside the anther
(2) Germinated pollen grain with two 15. The sequence that controls the copy
male gametes number of the linked DNA in the vector,
(3) Seed inside the fruit is termed
(4) Embryo sac inside the ovule (1) Palindromic sequence
(1) (3) and (4) (2) (1) and (4) (2) Recognition site
(3) (1) only (4) (1), (2) and (3) (3) Selectable marker (4) Ori site
ANSWER 2 ANSWER 4
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 3

16. Identify the wrong statement with regard
to Restriction Enzymes
(1) They are useful in genetic
engineering
(2) Sticky ends can be joined by using
DNA ligases
(3) Each restriction enzyme functions by
inspecting the length of a DNA sequence
(4) They cut the strand of DNA at
palindromic sites
ANSWER 2 ANSWER
22. Identify the wrong statement with
reference to transport of oxygen.
(1) Higher H+ conc. in alveoli favours the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(2) Low pCO2 in alveoli favours the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin.
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin
is mainly related to partial pressure O2.
(4) Partial pressure of CO2 can interfere
with O2 binding with haemoglobin.
1

17. The product(s) of reaction catalyzed by 23. In gel elecrtophoresis, separated DNA
nitrogenase in root nodules of fragments can be visualized with the help
leguminous plants is/are : of :
(1) Ammonia and oxygen (1) Acetocarmine in UV radiation
(2) Ammonia and. hydrogen (2) Ethidium bromide in infrared
(3) Ammonia alone radiation
(4) Nitrate alone (3) Acetocarmine in bright blue light
ANSWER 2 (4) Ethidium bromide in UV radiation
ANSWER 4
18. In light reaction, plastoquinone
facihtates the transfer of electrons from:
24. The enzyme enterokinase helps in
(1) PS-I to NADP+
conversion of :
(2) PS-I to ATP synthase
(1) caseinogen into casein
(3) PS-II to Cytb6f complex
(2) pepsinogen into pepsin
(4) Cytb6fcomplextoPS-I
(3) protein into polypeptides
ANSWER 3 (4) trypsinogen into trypsin
ANSWER 4
19. Which of the following hormone levels
will cause release of ovum (ovulation)
from the graffian follicle? 25. Experimental verification of the
(1) Low concentration of LH chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(2) Low concentration of FSH done by:
(3) High concentration of Estrogen (1) Boveri (2) Morgan
(4) High concentration of Progesterone (3) Mendel (4) Sutton
ANSWER 3 ANSWER 2

20. The first phase of translation is : 26. According to Robert May, the global
(1) AminoacylationoftRNA species diversity is about:
(2) Recognition of an anti-codon (1) 50 million (2) 7 million
(3) Binding of mRNA to ribosome (3) 1.5 million (4) 20 million
(4) Recognition of DNA molecule ANSWER 2
ANSWER 1

21. The roots that orginate from the base of

the stem are :
(1) Prop roots (2) lateral roots
(3) fibrous roots (4) primary roots
ANSWER 3
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 4

27. Match the organism with its use in (2) Large conspicuous parenchymatous
biotechnology ground tissue.
(3) Vascular bundles conjoint and closed.
(1) Bacillus (i) Cloning (4) Phloem parenchyma absent
thuringiensis vector Identify the category of plant and its part:
(2) Thermus (ii) Constructio (1)Dicotyledonous stem
aquatics n of first (2) Dicotyledonous root
rDNA (3) Monocotyledonous stem
molecule (4) Monocotyledonous root
(3) Agrobacteriu (iii DNA ANSWER 3
m ) polymerase
tumefaciens
31. From his experiments, S.L. Miller
(4) Salmonella (iv) Cry proteins
produced amino acids by mixing the
typhimurium
following in a closed flask:
(1) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at
Select the correct option from the
following: 600C
(2) CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at
(1) (2) (3) (4)
600C
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
800C
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(4) CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
800C
ANSWER 3
ANSWER 4

32. Identify the basic amino acid from the

28. Identify the correct statement with regard
following.
to G1 phase (Gap 1) of interphase.
(1) Lysine (2) Valine
(1) Cell is metabolically active, grows
(3) Tyrosine (4) Glutamic Acid
but does not replicate its DNA.
(2) Nuclear Division takes place. ANSWER 1
(3) DNA synthesis or replication takes
place. 33. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is
(4) Reorganisation of all cell components due to:
takes place. (1) High reflection of light from snow
ANSWER 1 (2) Damage to retina caused by infra-red
rays
(3) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
29. Which of the following is correct about
temperature
viroids?
(4) Inflammation of cornea due to high
(1) They have DNA with protein coat.
dose of UV-B radiation
(2) They have free DNA without protein
coat. ANSWER 4
(3) They have RNA with protein coat.
(4) They have free RNA without protein 34. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle
coat. and enter vegetative inactive stage. This
ANSWER 4 is called quiescent stage (G0). This
process occurs at the end of :
(1) S phase (2) G2 phase
30. The transverse section of a plant shows
(3) M phase (4) G1 phase
following anatomical features.
(1) Large number scattered vascular ANSWER 4
bundles surrounded by bundle sheath.
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 5

35. Which of the following regions of the 41. In which of the following techniques, the
globe exhibits highest species diversity? embryos are transferred to assist those
(1) Himalayas females who cannot conceive?
(2) Amazon forests (1) ICSI and ZIFT (2) GIFT and ICSI
(3) Western Ghats of India (3) ZIFT and IUT (4) GIFT and ZIFT
(4) Madagascar ANSWER 3
ANSWER 2
42. In relation to gross primary productivity
36. Identify the incorrect statement and Net primary productivity of an
(1) Sapwood is the innermost secondary ecosystem, which one of the following
xylem and is lighter in colour. statements is correct?
(2) Due to deposition of tannins, reins, (1) Gross primary productivity and Net
oils etc., heart wood is dark in colour. primary productivity are one and same
(3) Heart wood does not conduct water (2) There is no relationship between
but gives mechanical support. Gross primary productivity and Net
(4) Sapwood is involved in conduction of primary productivity
water and minerals from root of leaf. (3) Gross primary productivity is always
ANSWER 1 less than net primary productivity
(4) Gross primary productivity is always
more than net primary productivity
37. Floridean starch has structure similar to :
(1) Mannitol and algin ANSWER 4
(2) Laminarin and cellulose
(3) Starch and cellulose 43. Name the plant growth regulator which
(4) Amylopectin and glycogen upon spraying on sugarcane crop,
increases the length of steam, thus
ANSWER 4 increasing the yield of sugarcane crop.
(1) Ethylene
38. Which of the following is not an attribute (2) Abscisic acid
of a population? (3) Cytokinin
(1) Morality (2) Species interaction (4) Gibberellin
(3) Sex ratio (4) Natality ANSWER 4
ANSWER 2
44. Secondary metabolites such as
39. The number of substrate level nicotine, strychnine and caffeine are
phosphorylations in one turn of citric produced by plants for their:
acid cycle is: (1) Defence action
(1) Two (2) Three (2) Effect on reproduction
(3) Zero (4) One (3) Nutritive value
(4) Growth response
ANSWER 4
ANSWER 1
40. Identify the correct statement with
reference to human digestive system.
(1) Ileum is highly coiled part. 45. Select the correct match
(2) Vermiform appendix arises from (1) Sickle cell anaemia - Autosomal
duodenum recessive trait, chromosome-II
(3) Ileum opens into small intestine (2) Thalassemia - X linked
(4) Serosa is the innermost layer of the (3) Haemophilia - Y linked
alimentary canal. (4) Phenylketonuria - Autosomal
dominant trait
ANSWER 1
ANSWER 1
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46. Select the correct statement 50. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are
(1) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and modified from:
adipocytes. (1) Chondrocytes
(2) Insulin is associated with (2) Compounds epithelial cells
hyperglycaemia. (3) Squamous epithelial cells
(3) Glucocorticoids stimulate (4) Columnar epithelial cells
gluconeogenesis. ANSWER 4
(4) Glucagon is associated with
hypoglycemia
51. Bt cotton variety that was developed by
ANSWER 3 the introduction of toxin gene of Bacillus
thuringiensis (Bt) is resistant to:
47. Which of the following refer it correct (1) Plant nematodes
example(s) of organisms which have (2) Insect predators
evolved due to changes in environment (3) Insect pests
brought about by anthropogenic action (4) Fungal diseases
(1) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos ANSWER 3
islands
(2) Herbicide resistant weeds
52. Which of the following statements are
(3) Drug resistant eukaryotes
true for the phylum-Chordata?
(4) Man-created breeds of domesticated
(1) In Urochordata notochord extends
animals like dogs
from head to tail it is present throughout
(1) (2)(3) and (4)
their life
(2) only (4)
(2) In Vertebrata notochord is present
(3) only (1)
during the embryonic period only
(4) (1) and (3)
(3) Central nervous system is dorsal and
ANSWER 1 hollow.
(4) Chordata is divided into3 subphyla:
48. Choose the correct pair from the Hemichordata, Tunicata and
following: Cephalachoradata
(1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands (1) (1) and (2) (2) (2) and (3)
of DNA (3) (4) and (3) (4) (3) and (1)
(2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific ANSWER 2
position within DNA
(3) Ligases - join the two DNA
53. Which of the following is put into
molecules
Anaerobic sludge digester for further
(4) Polymerases - Break the DNA into
sewage treatment?
fragments
(1) Effluents of primary treatment
ANSWER 3 (2) Activated sludge
(3) Primary sludge
49. Embryological support for evolution was (4) Floating debris
disapproved by : ANSWER 2
(1) Charles Darwin
54. Identify the substance having glycosidic
(2) Oparin
bond and peptide bond, respectively in
(3) Karl Ernst von Baer
their `structure
(4) Alfred Wallace
(1) Cellulose, lecithin
ANSWER 3 (2) Inulin,insulin
(3) Chitin,Cholesterol
(4) Glycerol,trypsin
ANSWER 2
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55. Match the following diseases with the (1) a),(2) and (4) (2) only (4)
causative organism and select correct (3) (1) and (4) (4) (3) and (4)
option ANSWER 3
Column-I Column-II
(1) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria 59. Match the following columns and select
(2) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium the correct option.
(3) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella Column-I Column-II
(4) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus (1) Gregarious,polphagous pest
(1) (2) (3) (4) (i) Asterias
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (2) Adult with radial symmetry and
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) larva with bilateral symmetry
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (ii) Scorpion
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) Book lungs
ANSWER 4 (iii) Ctenoplana
(4) Bioluminescence
56. Match the following columns and select (iv) Locusta
the correct option (1) (2) (3) (4)
Column –I Column- II (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Clostridium butylicum (2) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(i) Cyclosporin –A (3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(2) Trichoderma polysporum (4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(ii) Butyric Acid ANSWER 4
(3) Monascus Purpureus
(iii) Citric Acid 60. Which is the important site of formation
(4) ASpergillus niger of glycoproteins and glycolipids in
(iv) Blood eukaryotic cells?
cholesterol lowering agent (1) Golgi bodies
(1) (2) (3) (4) (2) Polysomes
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) Peroxisomes
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) ANSWER 1
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
61. The specific palindromic sequence which
ANSWER 4
is recognized by EcoRI is:

57. By which method was a new breed

‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by using
Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams?
(1) Cross breeding
(2) Inbreeding
(3) Out crossing
(4) Mutational breeding
ANSWER 1

58. Select the correct events that occur ANSWER 3

during inspiration
(a) Contraction of diaphragm 62. Dissolution of the synaptonemal
(b) Contraction of external inter-costal complex occurs during:
muscles (1) Diplotene (2) Leptotene
(c) Pulmonary volume decreases (3) Pachytene (4) Zygotene
(d) Intra pulmonary pressure increases ANSWER 1
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 8

63. Match the trophic levels with their 66. Match the following columns and select
correct species examples in grassland the correct option.
ecosystem. Column I Column II
(1) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow (1) 6-15 pairs (i) Trygon
(2) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture of gill slits
(2) Heterocercal (ii) Cyclostomes
(3) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit caudal fin
(3) Air Bladder (iii) Chondrichthyes
(4) Third trophic level (iv) Grass (4) Pioson sting (iv) Osteichthyes
Select the correct option
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3)
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) ANSWER 3
(iv)
ANSWER 3
67. The process of growth is maximum
during:
64. How many true breeding pea plant
(1) Senescence (2) Dormancy
varieties did Mendel select as pairs, (3) Log phase (4) Lag phase
which were similar except in one
character with contrasting traits ? ANSWER 3
(1) 14 (2) 8
(3) 4 (4) 2 68. Identify the wrong statement with
reference to immunity.
ANSWER 1
(1) Active immunity is quick and gives
full response.
65. Match the following columns and select (2) Foetus receives some antibodies from
the correct option mother, it is an example for passive
immunity. ,
Column I Column II
(3) When exposed to antigen (living or
(1) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy
dead) antibodies are produced in the
(2) Adenosine (ii) Cellular host's body. It is called "Active
deminase defence immunity','.
deficiency (4) When ready-made antibodies are
(3) RNAi (iii) Detection of directly given, it is called "Passive
HIV infection immunity".
(4) PCR (iv) Bacillus
thuringiensis ANSWER 1

69. Match the following columns and select

(1) (2) (3) (4) the correct option
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Column I Column II
(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) Floating (i) Located
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) Ribs between second
ANSWER 3 and seventh ribs
(2) Acromion (ii) Head of the
Humerus
(3) Scapula (iii) Clavicle
(4) Glenoid (iv) Do not connect
cavity with the sternum
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(1) (2) (3) (4) 75. Which of the following statements is not
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) correct?
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) The functional insulin has A and B
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) chains linked together by hydrogen
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) bonds.
ANSWER 2 (2) Genetically engineered insulin is
produced in E-Coli.
(3) In man insulin is synthesised as a
70. If the distance between two consecutive
proinsulin.
base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total
(4) The proinsulin has an extra peptide
number of base pairs of a DNA double
called C-peptide.
helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 x
109 bp, then the length of the DNA is ANSWER 1
approximately:
(1) 2.2 meters (2) 2.7 meters 76. In water hyacinth and water lily,
(3) 2.0 meters (4) 2.5 meters pollination takes place by:
ANSWER 1 (1) wind and water
(2) insects and water
(3) insects or wind
71. Presence of which of the following
(4) water currents only
conditions in urine are indicative of
Diabetes Mellitus ? ANSWER 3
(1) Ketonuria and-Glycosuria
(2) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia 77. Cuboidal epithelium with brush border of
(3) Uremia and Ketonuria microvilli is found in:
(4) Uremia and Renal Calculi (1) proximal convoluted tubule of
ANSWER 1 nephron
(2) eustachian tube
(3) lining of intestine
72. Bilaterally symmetrical and acoelomate
(4) ducts of salivary glands
animals are exemplified by:
(1) Aschelminthes ANSWER 1
(2) Annelida
(3) Ctenophora 78. Match the following columns and select
(4) Platyhelminthes the correct option
ANSWER 4
Column I Column II
(1) Pituitary (i) Grave’s disease
73. Ray florets have : gland
(1) Hypogynous ovary (2) Thyroid (ii) Diabetes
(2) Half inferior ovary gland mellitus
(3) Inferior ovary (3) Adrenal (iii) Diabetes
(4) Superior ovary gland insipidus
ANSWER 3 (4) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s
disease
74. The infectious stage of Plasmodium that
(1) (2) (3) (4)
enters the human body is:
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(1) Female gametocytes
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Male gametocytes
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Trophozoites
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) Sporozoites
ANSWER 1
ANSWER 4
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79. When one of the following is the most (1) (2) (3) (4)
abundant protein in the animals? (1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(1) Lectin (2) Insulin (2) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Haemoglobin (4) Collagen (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
ANSWER 4 (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
ANSWER 4
80. If the head of cockroach is removed, it
may live for few days because: 84. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
(1) the head holds a small proportion represents:
of a nervous system while the rest is (1) Depolarisation of ventricles
situated along the ventral part of its (2) Repolarisation of ventricles
body, (3) Repolarisation of auricles
(2) the head holds a l/3rd of a nervous (4) Depolarisation of auricles
system while the rest is situated along ANSWER 1
the dorsal part of its body.
(3) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of
85. Select the option including all sexually
the cockroach are situated in ventral
transmitted diseases.
part of abdomen.
(1)AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
(4) the cockroach does not have nervous
(2) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
system.
(3) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
ANSWER 1 (4) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
ANSWER 3
81. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are
examples of:
86. Identify the wrong statement with
(1) Industrial melanism
reference to the gene T that controls
(2) Natural selection
ABO blood groups.
(3) Adaptive radiation
(1) When IA and IB are present together,
(4) Convergent evolution
they express same type of sugar.
ANSWER 4 (2) Allele ‘I’ does not produce any sugar.
(3) The gene (I) has three alleles.
82. The process responsible for facilitating (4) a person will have only two of three
loss of water in liquid form from the alleles.
tip of grass blades at night and in early ANSWER 1
morning is :
(1) Imbibition
87. Which of the following is not an
(2) Plasmolysifl
inhibitory substance governing seed
(3) Transpiration
dormancy ?
(4) Root pressure
(1) Phenolic acid
ANSWER 4 (2) Para-ascorbic acid
(3) Gibberellic acid
83. Match the following with respect to (4) Abscisic acid
meiosis: ANSWER 3
(a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization
(b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata
(c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over
(d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis
Select the correct option from the
following:
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88. Match the following columns and select 91. Which of the following oxoacid of
the correct option. sulphur has – O – O – linkage?
(1) H2S2O8 peroxodisulphuric acid
Column I Column II (2) H2S2O7, pyrosulphuric acid
(1) Organ of (i) Connects (3) H2SO3, sulphurous acid
Corti middle ear (4) H2SO4 sulphuric acid
and pharynx ANSWER 1
(2) Cochlea (ii) Coiled part
of the 92. An increase in the concentration of the
labyrinth reactants of a reaction leads to change in:
(3) Eustachian (iii) Attached to (1) threshold energy
tube the oval (2) collision frequency
window (3) activation energy
(4) Stapes (iv) Located on (4) heat of reaction
the basilar
ANSWER 2
membrane

(1) (2) (3) (4) 93. Identify the incorrect match

(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (1) Unnilunium (i) Mendelevium
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (2) Unniltrium (ii) Lawrencium
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) Unnilhexium (iii) Seaborgium
ANSWER 1
(4) Unununnium (iv) Darmstadtium
89. The ovary is half inferior in:
(1) (3), (iii) (2) (4), (iv)
(1) Sunflower (2) Plum
(3) (1), (i) (4) (2), (ii)
(3) Brinjal (4) Mustard
ANSWER 2
ANSWER 2
94. A mixture of N2 and Ar gases in a
90. Match the following
cylinder contains 7 g of N2 and 8 g of Ar.
(1) Inhibitor of (i) Ricin If the total pressure of the mixture of the
catalytic activity gases in the cylinder is 27 bar, the partial
(2) Process peptide (ii) Malonate pressure of N2 is :
bonds [Use atomic masses (in g mol–1): N = 14,
(3) Cell wall (iii) Chitin Ar = 40]
material in fungi (1) 15 bar (2) 18 bar
(4) Secondary (iv) Collagen (3) 9 bar (4) 12 bar
metabolite ANSWER 1

Choose the correct option from the

95. Reaction between benzaldehyde and
following:
acetophenone in presence of dilute
(1) (2) (3) (4)
NaOH is known as:
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(1) Cross Cannizzaro's reaction
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) Cross Aldol condensation
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(3) Aldol condensation
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) Cannizzaro's reaction
ANSWER 3
ANSWER 2
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 12

96. Which one of the followings has 100. Which of the following is a basic amino
maximum number of atoms? acid?
(1) 1 g of 02(g) [Atomic mass of O = 16] (1) Tyrosine (2) Lysine
(2) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7] (3) Serine (4) Alanine
(3) 1 g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108] ANSWER 2
(4) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
101. Which of the following is a natural
ANSWER 2 polymer ?
(1) polybutadiene
97. Anisole on cleavage with HI gives: (2) poly (Butadiene-acrylonitrile)
(3) cis-l,4-polyisoprene
(4) poly (Butadiene-styrene)
ANSWER 3
(1) (2) 102. Match the following and identify the
correct option.
(1) CO(g) + (i) Mg(HCO3)2 +
H2(g) Ca(HCO3)2
(2) Temporary (ii) An electron
(3) (4) hardness of deficient
ANSWER 3 water hydride
(3) B2H6 (iii) Synthesis gas
98. Which of the following amine will give (4) H2O2 (iv) Non-planar
the carbylamine test ? structure
(1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(1) (2)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
ANSWER 3

103. An alkene on ozonolysis gives methanal

(3) (4) as one of the product. Its structure is :
ANSWER 3

99. Identify the incorrect statement.

(1) Interstitial compounds are those that
(1) (2)
are formed when small atoms like H, C
or N are trapped inside the crystal lattices
of metals.
(2) The oxidation states of chromium in
CrO2–4 and Cr202_ are not the same. (3) (4)
(3) Cr2+(d4) is a stronger reducing agent ANSWER 1
than Fe2+(d6) in water. 104. The rate constant for a first order reaction
(4) The transition metals and their is 4.606 × 10 -3 s-1 The time required to
compounds are known for their catalytic reduce 2.0 g of the reactant to 0.2 g is :
activity due to their ability to adopt (1) 500 s (2) 1000 s
multiple oxidation states and to form (3) 100 s (4) 200 s
complexes. ANSWER 1
ANSWER 2
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 13

105. On electrolysis of dil.sulphuric acid 110. Identify compound X in the following

using Platinum (Pt) electrode, the sequence of reactions :
product obtained at anode will be:
(1) H2S gas (2) SO2 gas
(3) Hydrogen gas (4) Oxygen gas
ANSWER 4

106. An element has a body centered cubic

(bcc) structure with a cell edge of 288
pm. The atomic radius is:
4 4
 288 pm  288 pm
(1) 3 (2) 2
3 2
 288 pm  288 pm
(3) 4 (4) 4
(1) (2)
ANSWER 3

107. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives :

(1) -D-glucose + -D-Fructose
(2) -D-Fructose + -D-Fructose
(3) -D-Glucose + -D-Fructose
(4) -D-Glucose + -D-Glucose (3) (4)
ANSWER 1 ANSWER 1

108. Which of the following is not correct 111. The freezing point depression constant
about carbon monoxide? (Kj) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The
(1) the carboxyhaemoglobin freezing point depression for the solution
(haemoglobin bound to CO) is less stable of molality 0.078 m containing a non-
than oxyhaemoblobin electrolyte solute in benzene is (rounded
(2) it is produced due to incomplete off up to two decimal places):
combustion (1) 0.40 K (2) 0.60 K
(3) it frms carboxyhaemoglobin (3) 0.20 K (4) 0.80 K
(4) it reduces oxygen carrying ability of ANSWER 1
blood.
ANSWER 1 112. Which of the following is a cationic
detergent?
109. The mixture which shows positive (1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
deviation from Rault’s law is (2) Sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate
(1) Acetone + Chloroform (3) Sodium lauryl sulphate
(2) Chloroethane + Bromoethane (4) Sodium stearate
(3) Ethanol + Acetone ANSWER 1
(4) Benzene + Toluene
ANSWER 3
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 14

113. Paper chromatography is an example of: 118. Match the following

(1) Thin layer chromatography Oxide Nature
(2) Column chromatography (1) CO (i) Basic
(3) Adsorption chromatography (2) BaO (ii) Neutral
(4) Partition chromatography (3) Al2O3 (iii) Acidic
ANSWER 4 (4) Cl2O7 (iv) Amphoteric
(1) (2) (3) (4)
114. Identify the correct statement from the (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
following: (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(1) Vapour phase refining is carried out (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
for Nickel by Van Arkel method. ' (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) Pig iron can be moulded into a ANSWER 4
variety of shapes.
(3) Wrought iron is impure iron with
4% carbon. 119. Identify a molecule which does not exist.
(4) Blister copper has blistered (1) C2 (2) O2
appearance due to evolution of C02- (3) He2 (4) Li2
ANSWER 2 ANSWER 3

115. What is the change in oxidation number 120. The number of Faradays (F) required to
of carbon in the following reaction ? produce 20 g of calcium from molten
CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g)  CC14(I) + 4HCl(g) CaCl2 (Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol-1)
(1) – 4 to + 4 (2) 0 to – 4 is :
(3) + 4 to +4 (4) 0 to +4 (1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 1 (4) 2
ANSWER 1
ANSWER 3
116. Elimination reaction of 2-Bromo-pentane
to form pent-2-ene is : 121. Urea reacts with water to form A which
(1) -Elimination reaction will decompose to form B. B when
(2) Follows Zaitsev rule passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue
(3) Dehydrohalogenation reaction colour solution C is formed. What is the
(4) Dehydration reaction formula of C from the following ?
(1) (2), (3), (4) (2) (1), (2), (4) (1) Cu(OH)2
(3) (1), (2), (3) (4) (1), (3), (4) (2) CuCO3-Cu(OH)2
(3) CuS04
ANSWER 3 (4) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
ANSWER 4
117. Hydrolysis of sucrose is given by the
following reaction.
122. Reaction between acetone and
Sucrose + H2O Glucose + methylmagnesium chloride followed by
Fructose hydrolysis will give:
If the equilibrium constant (Kc) is 2 x (1) Tert. butyl alcohol
1013 at 300 K, the value of ArGe at the (2) Isobutyl alcohol
same temperature will be: (3) Isopropyl alcohol
(1) 8.314Jmol-1K-1x 300Kxln (3xl013) (4) Sec. butyl alcohol
(2) -8.314Jmol-1K-1x300Kxln(4xl013) ANSWER 1
(3) -8.314Jmol-1K-1x300Kxln(2xl013)
(4) 8.314 J mol" XK-x x 300 K x ln
(2 x 1013)
ANSWER 3
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 15

123. The number of protons, neutrons and 130. Identify the correct statements from the
electrons in 175 Lu , respectively, are : following
71
a. CO2 (g) is used as refrigerant for ice-
(1) 71, 71 and 104 (2) 175,104 and 71
cream and frozen food
(3) 71,104 and 71 (4) 104, 71 and 71
b. The structure of C60 contains twelve
ANSWER 3 six carbon rings and twenty five carbon
rings
124. Which of the following alkane cannot be c. ZSM-5, a type of zeolite, is used to
made in good yield by Wurtz reaction ? convert alcohols into gasoline
(1) n-Heptane (2) n-Butane d. CO is colorless and odourless gas
(3) n-Hexane (4) 2,3-Dimethylbutane (1) b and c only
ANSWER 1 (2) c and d only
(3) (1), (2) and (3) only
125. HC1 was passed through a solution of (4) (1) and (3) only
CaCl2, MgCl2 and NaCl. Which of the ANSWER 2
following compound(s) crystallise(s) ?
(1) OnlyMgCl2
131. The following metal ion activates many
(2) NaCl, MgCl2 and CaCl2
enzymes, participates in the oxidation of
(3) Both MgCl2 and CaCl2
glucose to produce ATP and with Na, is
(4) Only NaCl
responsible for the transmission of nerve
ANSWER 4 signals
(1) Calcium
126. Measuring Zeta potential is useful in (2) Potassium
determining which property of colloidal (3) Iron
solution ? (4) Copper
(1) Stability of the colloidal particles
ANSWER 2
(2) Size of the colloidal particles
(3) Viscosity (4) Solubility
132. Which of the following set of molecules
ANSWER 1
will have zero dipole moment?
(1) Nitrogen trifluoride, beryllium
127. Find out the solubility of Ni(OH)2 in
difluoride water, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
0.1 M NaOH. Given that the ionic
(2) Boron trifluoride, beryllium
product of Ni(OH)2 is 2 × 10–15
difluoride, carbon dioxide, 1,4-
(1) 1 × 10–13 M (2) 1 × 108 M
–13 dichlorobenzene
(3) 2 × 10 M (4) 2 × 10–8 M
(3) Ammonia, beryllium diflouride,
ANSWER 3 water, 1,4-dichlorobenzene
(4) Boron trifluoride, hydrogen fluoride,
128. For the reaction, 2Cl (g)  Cl2 (g), the carbondioxide, 1,3-dichlorobenzene
correct option is
ANSWER 2
(1) rH < 0 and rS < 0
(2) rH < 0 and rS < 0
133. The correct option for free expansion of
(3) rH > 0 and rS > 0
an ideal gas under adiabatic condition is
(4) rH > 0 and rS < 0
(1) q < 0, T = 0 and w = 0
ANSWER 2 (2) q > 0, T > 0 and w > 0
(3) q = 0, T = 0 and w = 0
129. The calculated spin only magnetic
(4) q = 0, T < 0 and w > 0
moment of Cr2+ ion is
(1) 5.92 BM (2) 28.84 BM ANSWER 3
(3) 3.87 BM (4) 4.90 BM
ANSWER 4
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 16

134. Which of the following is the correct order 139. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac
of increasing field strength of ligands to voltage source. When L is removed from
form coordination compounds? the circuit, the phase difference between
2
(1) F– < SCN– < C2O4 < CN– 
current and voltage is . If instead C is
2
3
(2) CN– < C2O4 < SCN– < F– removed from the circuit, the phase
2 
(3) SCN– < F– < C2O4 < CN– difference is again between current and
3
2
(4) SCN– < F– < CN– < C2O4 voltage. The power factor of the circuit is
ANSWER 3 (1) 1.0 (2) –1.0
(3) zero (4) 0.5
135. A tertiary butyl carboacation is more ANSWER 1
stable than a secondary butyl carbocation
because of which of the following? 140. A ball is thrown vertically downward
(1) –R effect of –CH3 groups with a velocity of 20 m/s from the top of
(2) Hyperconjugation a tower. It hits the ground after some
(3) –I effect of –CH3 groups time with a velocity of 80 m/s. The
(4) +R effect of –CH3 groups height of the tower is (g = 10 m/s2)
ANSWER 2 (1) 320 m (2) 300 m
(3) 360 m (4) 340 m
136. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of ANSWER 2
same material are slightly out of tune and
produce beats of frequency 6 Hz. When 141. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the
tension in B is slightly decreased, the separation between coherent sources is
beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If the halved and the distance of the screen
frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original from the coherent sources is doubled,
frequency of B will be then the fringe width becomes
(1) 536 Hz (2) 537 Hz (1) four times
(3) 523 Hz (4) 524 Hz (2) one-fourth
ANSWER 4 (3) double
(4) half
137. The increases in the width of the ANSWER 1
depletion region in a p-n junction diode
is due to
142. Which of the following graph represents
(1) both forward bias and reverse bias
(2) increase in forward current the variation of resistivity () with
(3) forward bias only temperature (T) for copper?
(4) reverse bias only
ANSWER 4

138. The quantities of heat required to raise

the temperature of two solid copper (1) (2)
spheres of radii r1 and r2 (r1 + 1.5 r2)
through 1 K are in the ratio
3 5
(1) (2)
5 3
27 9
(3) (4)
8 4 (3) (4)
ANSWER 3 ANSWER 1
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 17

143. A long solenoid of 50 cm length having 147. For transistor action, which of the
100 turns carries a current of 2.5 A. The following statements is correct ?
magnetic field at the centre of the (1) Both emitter junction as well as the
solenoid is : collector junction are forward biased.
(0 = 4 x 10-7 T mA-1) (2) The base region must be very thin
(1) 6.28 x 10–5 T and lightly doped.
(2) 3.14 x 10–5 T (3) Base, emitter and collector regions
(3) 6.28 x 10–4 T should have same doping concentrations.
(4) 3.14 x 10–4 T (4) Base, emitter and collector regions
ANSWER 3 should have same size.
ANSWER 2
144. Light of frequency 1.5 times the
threshold frequency is incident on a 148. For which one of the following, Bohr
photosensitive material. What will be the model is not valid?
photoelectric current if the frequency is (1) Deuteron atom
halved and intensity is doubled ? (2) Singly ionised neon atom (Ne+)
(1) one-fourth (3) Hydrogen atom
(2) zero (4) Singly ionised helium atom (He+)
(3) doubled ANSWER 2
(4) four times
ANSWER 2 149. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed
in water and water rises in it to a height
145. A screw gauge has least count of 0.01 h. The mass of the water in the capillary
mm and there are 50 divisions in its is 5 g. Another capillary tube of radius 2r
circular scale. is immersed in water. The mass of water
The pitch of the screw gauge is : that will rise in this tube is :
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 1.0 mm (1) 10.0 g (2) 20.0 g
(3) 0.01 mm' (4) 0.25 mm (3) 2.5 g (4) 5.0 g
ANSWER 1 ANSWER 1

146. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are 150. The ratio of contributions made by the
tied to the ends of a massless string. The electric field and magnetic field
string passes over a pulley which is components to the intensity of an
frictionless (see figure). The acceleration electromagnetic wave is : (c = speed of
of the system in terms of acceleration due electromagnetic waves)
to gravity (g) is : (1) 1 : c (2) 1 : c2
(3) c : 1 (4) 1 : 1
ANSWER 4

151. An iron rod of susceptibility 599 is

subjected to a magnetising field of 1200
Am-1. The permeability of the material of
the rod is :
(0 = 4  x 10-7 T m A-1)
(1) 2.4  x 10-5 T mA-1
(1) g/5 (2) g/10 (2) 2.4  x 10-7 T mA-1
(3) g (4) g/2 (3) 2.4  x 10-4 T mA-1
ANSWER 1 (4) 8.0  x 10-5 T mA-1
ANSWER 3
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 18

152. The Brewsters angle ib for an interface 157. A charged particle having drift velocity of
should be: 7.5 x l0–4 m s-1 in an electric field of 3 x
(1) 45°< ib < 90° (2) ib = 90° 10–10 Vm–1, has a mobility in m2 V–1 s–1 of:
(3) 0° < ib < 30° (4) 30° <ib< 45° (1) 2.5 x 10–6 (2) 2.25 x 10 –15
15
ANSWER 1 (3) 2.25 x 10 (4) 2.5 x 10 6
ANSWER 4
153. The phase difference between
displacement and acceleration of a 158. Taking into account of the significant
particle in a simple harmonic motion is: figures, what is the value of 9.99 m -
(1) /2 rad (2) zero 0.0099 m ?
(3)  rad (4) 3/2 rad (1) 9.980 m (2) 9.9 m
ANSWER 3 (3) 9.9801 m (4) 9.98 m
ANSWER 4
154. Two particles of mass 5 kg and 10 kg
respectively are attached to the two ends 159. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a
of a rigid rod of length 1 m with substance is:
negligible mass. (1) 1.5 x l013 J (2) 0.5 x l013 J
The centre of mass of the system from (3) 4.5 x l016 J (4) 4.5 x l013J
the 5 kg particle is nearly at a distance ANSWER 4
of:
(1) 67 cm (2) 80 cm 235
(3) 33 cm (4) 50 cm 160. When a uranium isotope 92 U is
ANSWER 1 bombarded with a neutron, it generates
89
36
Kr , three neutrons and:
101 103
155. A spherical conductor of radius 10 cm (1) 36
Kr (2) Kr36
has a charge of 3.2 x 10 –7 C distributed 144 91
(3) 56
Ba (4) Ba40
uniformly. What is the magnitude of
electric field at a point 15 cm from the ANSWER 3
centre of the sphere ?
 1 2 
161. A short electric dipole has a dipole
  9  10 9
Nm 2
/ C  moment of 16 X 10 –9 C m. The electric
 4 0  potential due to the dipole at a point at a
(1) 1.28 x l06 N/C distance of 0.6 m from the centre of the
(2) 1.28 x l07 N/C dipole, situated on a line making an angle
(3) 1.28 x l04 N/C of 60° with the dipole axis is :
(4) 1.28 x l05 N/C  1 
ANSWER 4   9  109 Nm 2 / C 2 
 4 0 
156. Assume that light of wavelength 600 nm (1) 400 V (2) zero
is coming from a star. The limit of (3) 50 V (4) 200 V
resolution of telescope whose objective ANSWER 4
has a diameter of 2 m is:
(1) 7.32 x 10 –7 rad 162. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at
(2) 6.00 x 10 –7 rad pressure of 249 kPa and temperature
(3) 3.66 x 10 –7 rad 27°C.
(4) 1.83 xl0–7 rad Its density is : (R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1)
ANSWER 3 (1) 0.1 kg/m3 (2) 0.02 kg/m3
3
(3) 0.5 kg/m (4) 0.2 kg/m3
ANSWER 4
DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 19

163. The average thermal energy for a mono- ANSWER 3

atomic gas is : (kB is Boltzmann constant
and T, absolute temperature) 166. A resistance wire connected in the left
(1) (2) gap of a metre bridge balances a 10 Ω
resistance in the right gap at a point
(3) (4)
which divides the bridge wire in the ratio
ANSWER 4 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire
is 1.5 m, then the length of 1 Ω of the
164. The color code of a resistance is given resistance wire is :
below: (1) 1.5 × 10–1 m (2) 1.5 × 10–2 m
–2
(3) 1.0 × 10 m (4) 1.0 × 10–1 m
ANSWER 4

167. Find the torque about the origin when a

The values of resistance and tolerance,
force of 3 N acts on a particle whose
respectively, are:
(1) 4.7 kΩ, 5% (2) 470 Ω, 5% position vector is 2 m.
(3) 470 kΩ, 5% (4) 47kΩ, 10% (1) – 6 Nm (2) 6 Nm
ANSWER 2 (3) 6 Nm (4) 6 Nm
ANSWER 1
165. For the logic circuit shown, the truth
table is : 168. A wire of length L, area of cross section
A is hanging from a fixed support. The
length of the wire changes to L1 when
mass M is suspended from its free end.
The expression for Young’s modulus is :
(1) MgL MgL
(1) (2)
A B Y AL1 A( L1  L)
0 0 1
0 1 1
MgL1 Mg ( L1  L)
(3) (4)
1 0 1 AL AL
1 1 0 ANSWER 2
(2)
A B Y 169. A 40 µF capacitor is connected to a 200
0 0 1 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The rms value of the
0 1 0 current in the circuit is, nearly:
1 0 0 (1) 2.5 A (2) 25.1A
1 1 0 (3) 1.7 A (4) 2.05 A
(3) ANSWER 1
A B Y
0 0 0
0 1 0 170. A body weighs 72 N on the surface of the
earth. What is the gravitational force on
1 0 0
1 1 1 it, at a height equals to half the radius of
the earth?
(4)
A B Y (1) 30 N (2) 24 N
(3) 48 N (4) 32 N
0 0 0
0 1 1 ANSWER 4
1 0 1
1 1 1


DATE: 13-09-2020 NEET 2020 | QUESTIONS & ANSWERS PAGE: 20

171. An electron is accelerated from rest 176. The capacitance of a parallel plate
through a potential difference of V volt. capacitor with air as medium if 16 µF.
If the de Broglie wavelength of the With the introduction of a dielectric
electron us 1.227 × 10–2 nm, the potential medium, the capacitance becomes 30 µF.
difference is : The permittivity if the medium is :
(1) 103 V (2) 104 V (0 = 8.85 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2)
(3) 10 V (4) 102 V (1) 0.44 ×10–10 C2 N–1 m–2
ANSWER 2 (2) 5.00 C2 N–1 m–2
(3) 0.44 ×10–13 C2 N–1 m–2
(4) 1.77 ×10–12 C2 N–1 m–2
172. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence
I on one surface of a small angle prism ANSWER 1
(with angle of prism A) and emerges
normally from the opposite surface. If the 177. The energy required to break one bond in
refractive index of the material of the DNA is 10–20J. This value in eV is
prism is µ, then the angle of incidence is nearly:
nearly equal to : (1) 0.06 (2) 0.006
(1) µA (2) (3) 6 (4) 0.6
ANSWER 1
(3) (4)

ANSWER 1 178. Dimensions of stress are :

(1) [ML0T–2] (2) [ML–1 T–2]
173. The solids which have the negative (3) [MLT–2] (4) [ML2T–2]
temperature coefficient of resistance are: ANSWER 2
(1) semiconductors only
(2) insulators and semiconductors 179. Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity
(3) metals are connected to each other via a stop
(4) insulators only cock. A contains an ideal gas at standard
ANSWER 2 temperature and pressure. B is
completely evacuated. The entire system
174. In a certain region of space with volume is thermally insulated. The stop cock is
0.2 m3, the electric potential is found to suddenly opened. The process is :
be 5 V throughout. The magnitude of (1) isochoric (2) isobaric
electric field in this region is : (3) isothermal (4) adiabatic
(1) 1 N/C ANSWER 4
(2) 5 N/C
(3) zero 180. The mean free path for a gas, with
(4) 0.5 N/C molecular diameter and number density n
ANSWER 3 can be expressed as :
1 1
(1) (2)
175. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 2n 2 d 2 2n 2 2 d 2
falls on a non-reflecting surface at
normal incidence having surface area 20
1 1
(3) (4)
cm2. The energy received by the surface 2n d 2n d 2
during time span of 1 minute is : ANSWER 4
(1) 24 × 103 J (2) 48 × 103 J
3
(3) 10 × 10 J (4) 12 × 103 J
ANSWER 1