1. In which types of vibration f(t) = C = 0 in equation of SODF system?

(a) Free Damped Vibration

(b) Force Damped Vibration
(c) Free Undamped Vibration
(d) Force Undamped Vibration
Answer:
Option (c)
2. In which types of vibration f(t) = 0 in equation of SODF system?

(a) Free Damped Vibration

(b) Force Damped Vibration
(c) Free Undamped Vibration
(d) Force Undamped Vibration
Answer:
Option (a)
3. Which is the equation of damping force?

(a) mx
(b) kx
(c) cx
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
Option (c)
4. Which is the equation of inertia force?

(a) mx
(b) kx
(c) cx
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
Option (a)
5. Which is the equation of spring force?

(a) mx
(b) kx
(c) cx
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
Option (b)
6. A vibrating system consist of a mass 5 kg spring stiffness 120 N/m and a damper. What will be dampin

(a) 45
(b) 49
(c) 55
(d) 60
Answer:
Option (b)
7. Which is the equation of Force undamped vibration of SDOF system?

(a) m𝒙 + kx = F(t)
(b) m𝒙 + kx = 0
(c) m𝒙 + cx = F(t)
(d) m𝒙 + kx + cx = F(t)
Answer:
Option (a)
8. Which is the equation of Force damped vibration of SDOF system?

(a) m𝑥 + c𝑥 + kx = 0
(b) m𝑥 + kx = F(t)
(c) m𝑥 + c𝑥 = F(t)
(d) m𝑥 + c𝑥 + kx = F(t)
Answer:
Option (d)
9. Which is the equation of free damped vibration of SDOF system?

(a) m𝒙 + c𝒙 + kx = 0
(b) m𝒙 + kx = 0
(c) m𝒙 + c𝒙 = 0
(d) m𝒙 + c𝒙 + kx = F(t)
Answer:
Option (a)
10. Which is the equation of free undamped vibration of SDOF system?

(a) m𝑥 + k𝑥 + cx = 0
(b) m𝑥 + k𝑥 = 0
(c) m𝑥 + cx = 0
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
Option (b)
11. Which is most importance element of SDOF system to determine dynamic behaviour of system?

(a) Inertia force

(b) Spring Force
(c) Damping Force
(d) All of the Above
Answer:
Option (d)
12. A harmonic motion has frequency of 12 cycle/sec. What will be the angular frequency?

(a) 76.5 rad/s

(b) 80 rad/s
(c) 75.4 rad/s
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
13. Frequency of external force is match with one the natural frequency of vibrating system. This phenome

(a) Critical Damping

(b) Resonance
(c) Amplitude
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
14. The fundamental mode of vibrating of a structure is the mode having the ________________ Natural F

(a) Highest
(b) Average
(c) Lowest
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
15. Maximum displacement or deformation of a vibrating system from its mean position is called as

(a) Natural Frequency

(b) Resonance
(c) Amplitude
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
16. Numbers of cycle per unit time is known as

(a) Time Period

(b) Natural Frequency
(c) Angular Frequency
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
Option (b)
17. Time required to complete one cycle of free vibration is known as

(a) Natural Time Period

(b) Frequency
(c) Angular Frequency
(d) Angular Frequency
Answer:
Option (a)
18. Force required to produce unit deformation is known as

(a) Flexibility
(b) Strength
(c) Stiffness
(d) Ductility
Answer:
Option (c)
19. Structural response of dynamic loading is expressed in terms of _________

(a) Deflection
(b) Rotation
(c) Drift
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
20. The load whose magnitude, direction and position vary with respect to time known as

(a) Static load

(b) Dynamic load
(c) Axial load
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
21. A body of mass 20 kg is suspended from a spring which deflects 20mm under this load. Calculate the f

(a) 3.5
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
Option (a)
22. In which of the cases the factor c = 0?

(a) When there is damping

(b) No damping
(c) Resonance
(d) c is never 0
Answer:
Option (b)
23. Magnification factor is the ratio of the maximum displacement due to forced vibrations to the deflectio

(a) Static force

(b) Dynamic force
(c) Torsion
(d) Compression
Answer:
Option (a)
24. Calculate critical damping coefficient in N/m/s from the following data:

mass = 100 Kg

ω = 10 rad/s

(a) 5,132
(b) 6,283
(c) 7,132
(d) 8,132
Answer:
Option (a)
25. Calculate critical damping coefficient in N·s/m from the following data.

mass = 200 Kg
 ω = 20 rad/s

(a) 25,132
(b) 26,132
(c) 27,132
(d) Not possible
Answer:
Option (a)
26. The ratio of the actual damping coefficient (c) to the critical damping coefficient (cc) is known as ____

(a) Damping factor

(b) Damping coefficient
(c) Resistive factor
(d) Resistive coefficient
Answer:
Option (a)
27. What is meant by critical damping coefficient?

(a) Frequency of damped free vibrations is less than zero.

(b) The motion is a periodic in nature.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
28. In damped free vibrations, which parameters indicate vibrations?

(a) Natural frequency

(b) Rate of decay of amplitude
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
29. Calculate logarithmic decrement if damping factor is 0.33.

(a) 1.36
(b) 3.23
(c) 5.16
(d) 2.19
Answer:
Option (d)
30. Calculate natural frequency of damped vibration, if damping factor is 0.52 and natural frequency of the

(a) 25.62 rad/sec

(b) 20.78 rad/sec
(c) 14.4 rad/sec
(d) 15.33 rad/sec
Answer:
Option (a)
31. Determine natural frequency of a system, which has equivalent spring stiffness of 30000 N/m and mass

(a) 12.32 Hz
(b) 4.10 Hz
(c) 6.16 Hz
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
32. Which among the following is the fundamental equation of S.H.M.?

(a) x + (k / m) x =0
(b) x + ω2x = 0
(c) x + (k / m)2 x =0
(d) x2 + ωx2 = 0
Answer:
Option (b)
33. In which type of vibrations, amplitude of vibration goes on decreasing every cycle?

(a) Damped vibrations

(b) Undamped vibrations
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
34. What are deterministic vibrations?

(a) Vibrations caused due to known exciting force.

(b) Vibrations caused due to unknown exciting force.
(c) Vibrations which are aperiodic in nature.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
Option (a)
35. Which of the following relations is true when springs are connected parallelly? where K = spring stiffn

(a) Ke = K1 + K2
(b) 1Ke = 1K1 + 1K2
(c) Ke = 1K1 + 1K2
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
36. Two springs have spring stiffness of 1000 N/m and 2000 N/m respectively. If they are connected in par

(a) 3000 N/m

(b) 1166 N/m
(c) 857.63 N/m
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
37. The ratio of the maximum displacement of the forced vibration to the deflection due to the static force,

(a) damping factor

(b) damping coefficient
(c) logarithmic decrement
(d) magnification factor
Answer:
Option (d)
38. In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the successive values of the amplitude on the same

(a) x1x2
(b) lnx1x2
(c) logex1x2
(d) logx1x2
Answer:
Option (b)
39. When there is a constant amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said to have

(a) free vibration

(b) forced vibration
(c) undamped vibration
(d) none of the mentioned
Answer:
Option (c)
40. When there is a reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration, then the body is said to have

(a) free vibration

(b) forced vibration
(c) damped vibration
(d) none of the mentioned
Answer:
Option (c)
41. Axial force in column is directly proportional to distance of column from the centroid is assumed in wh

(a) Moment Distribution Method

(b) Stiffness Matrix Method
(c) Cantilever Method
(d) All of the Above
Answer:
Option (c)
42. In portal method, it is assumed that shear in interior column is ___________ times shear in interior colu

(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
Option (c)
43. In portal method, it is assumed that shear in exterior column is __________ than interior column.

(a) 1/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
Option (a)
44. In portal method, bending moment is assumed to be zero at ____________ point in column.

(a) Support
(b) 1/3 or 2/3 of Height
(c) Mid Height
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
45. In portal method, bending moment is assumed to be zero at ________ point in beam.

(a) Support
(b) Mid Span
(c) 1/3 or 2/3 of Span
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
Option (b)
46. In portal method of approximate analysis of frame, Hinges are developed at ______________ in colum

(a) Center
(b) Upper Junction
(c) Lower Junction
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
Option (a)
47. Which is the reason for twisting of building?

(a) Uneven distribution of Mass

(b) Asymmetric plan of building
(c) Asymmetric arrangement of EQ resisting Element
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
48. In _______________ system building will not twist due to seismic loading.

(a) Torsionally Coupled System

(b) Torsionally Un-Coupled System
(c) Torsionally Braced System
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
49. In _______________ system building will twist due to seismic loading.

(a) Torsionally Coupled System

(b) Torsionally Un-Coupled System
(c) Torsionally Braced System
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
50. When center of rigidity is subjected to lateral loading, the floor diaphragm will experience only ______

(a) Translation Rotation

(b) Translation Displacement
(c) Twisting of Building
(d) None
Answer:
Option (b)
51. In Torsionally coupled system building will twist about _____________ during earthquake.

(a) Centre of Mass

(b) Centre of stiffness
(c) At Center of building
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
52. If restoring force of lateral load does not passes through center of mass than the building is known as _

(a) Torsionally Coupled building

(b) Torsionally Un-Coupled building
(c) Torsionally Braced building
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
Option (a)
53. If restoring force of lateral load passes through center of mass than the building is known as _________

(a) Torsionally Coupled building

(b) Torsionally Un-Coupled building
(c) Torsionally Braced building
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
Option (b)
54. In which type of structural system center of mass and center of stiffness is not coincide with each other

(a) Torsionally Coupled System

(b) Torsionally Un-Coupled System
(c) Torsionally Braced System
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
55. In which type of structural system center of mass and center of stiffness is coincide with each other?

(a) Torsionally Coupled System

(b) Torsionally Un-Coupled System
(c) Torsionally Braced System
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
56. The point of a system where an applied force causes the system to move without rotation is termed as

(a) Friction
(b) Center of Gravity
(c) Center of Mass
(d) Intersection point
Answer:
Option (c)
57. Point where force causes system to move without rotation is ______________.

(a) Center of mass

(b) Midpoint of body
(c) Edge of the body
(d) None of the above.
Show Answer
58. Calculation of center of mass and center of stiffness are required to find the effect of ________ in build

(a) Shear
(b) Torsion
(c) Bending
(d) Deflection
Answer:
Option (b)
59. Center of mass and center of stiffness required for ___________ dimensional analysis of structure.

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None
Answer:
Option (c)
60. Which is the earthquake resisting elements of building directly affect to center of stiffness?

(a) Column
(b) Shear Wall
(c) Couple Shear Wall
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
61. Restoring force of lateral force passes through ______________.

(a) Centre of Mass

(b) Centre of stiffness
(c) Centre of Strength
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
62. _____ is the required force on system to produce unit displacement.

(a) Strength
(b) Stiffness
(c) Flexibility
(d) Rigidity
Answer:
Option (b)
63. _____ is the point through which the resultant of the restoring forces of system acts.

(a) Centre of Mass

(b) Centre of stiffness
(c) Centre of Strength
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (b)
64. Center of Stiffness is also known as _________________.

(a) Centre of Strength

(b) Centre of Flexibility
(c) Centre of Rigidity
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
65. Resultant of earthquake force passes through the _____________ of the floor.

(a) Centre of Mass

(b) Centre of stiffness
(c) Centre of Strength
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
66. Earthquake induces lateral force on the floor is proportion to _________________.

(a) Stiffness
(b) Strength
(c) Mass
(d) Flexibility
Answer:
Option (c)
67. _________________ is the point in building through which resultant of inertia force is consider to act d

(a) Centre of Mass

(b) Centre of stiffness
(c) Centre of Strength
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
68. __________________ is the point through which resultant of masses of system acts.

(a) Centre of Mass

(b) Centre of stiffness
(c) Centre of Strength
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
69. For simple rigid objects with uniform density, the center of mass is located at the ______________.

(a) Centre
(b) At boundary
(c) On any one axis
(d) None
Answer:
Option (a)
70. The load which is applied parallel to ground on a building is known as _________________.

(a) Longitudinal Load

(b) Lateral Load
(c) Vertical Load
(d) None.
Answer:
Option (b)
71. __________________ diaphragm distributes the horizontal forces to the vertical resisting elements in d

(a) Rigid
(b) Semi-Rigid
(c) Flexible
(d) None
Answer:
Option (a)
72. A diaphragm is considered ________________ when the midpoint displacement more than displaceme

(a) Rigid
(b) Semi-Rigid
(c) Flexible
(d) None
Answer:
Option (c)
73. What is the main function of the diaphragm in a building during an earthquake?

(a) Transfer Self Weight of Building to soil

(b) Transfer Live load from Terrace to Ground
(c) Transfer Lateral Load into Vertical Element
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
Option (c)
74. Which is the structural element used as a diaphragm in a building?

(a) Shear Wall

(b) Column
(c) Slab-Beam
(d) None
Answer:
Option (c)
75. Which is the structural element used as a diaphragm in a building?

(a) Shear Wall

(b) Column
(c) Slab-Beam
(d) None
Answer:
Option (c)
76. ________ is an essential attribute of an earthquake-resistant design of a structure that serves as a shock

(a) Elasticity
(b) Ductility
(c) Plasticity
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
Option (b)
77. A center of the beam, the spacing of stirrups not more than _______.

(a) d
(b) 2d
(c) d/2
(d) 3d
Answer:
Option (c)
78. At the near face of a column in a beam, the spacing of stirrups not more than ______ and ________ tim

(a) d/4, 8
(b) d/4, 6
(c) d/2, 8
(d) d/2, 6
Answer:
Option (a)
79. In stirrups both ends bent into ________ hook as per IS.

(a) 45°
(b) 75°
(c) 90°
(d) 135°
Answer:
Option (d)
80. The minimum diameter of stirrups bar is provided in the beam.

(a) 6 mm
(b) 8 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 12 mm
Answer:
Option (a)
81. The minimum diameter of the stirrups bar is provided in the beam more than 5m long.

(a) 6 mm
(b) 8 mm
(c) 10 mm
(d) 12 mm
Answer:
Option (b)
82. Stirrups in RC beam provided to resist ______________

(a) Vertical Shear

(b) Protect Concrete from Bulging
(c) Prevent Buckling of Longitudinal Bar
(d) All of Above
Answer:
Option (d)
83. ________ Minimum numbers of bars are provided throughout in beam top and bottom as per Indian sta

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
Option (a)
84. For Ductile Detailing required in structure is located in seismic zone III and is more than ________ Sto

(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
Option (c)
85. _____________ Failure is occurred in the beam due to less steel provided on tension face.

(a) Ductile
(b) Brittle
(c) Compression
(d) Shear
Answer:
Option (a)
86. In Which earthquake zone Ductile Detailing required?

(a) IV
(b) V
(c) III with Importance factor 1.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
87. Which seismic code states the Indian standard guidelines for ductile detailing of RC structure subjected

(a) IS : 13920-1993
(b) IS : 13925-1993
(c) IS : 13910-1993
(d) IS : 13930-1993
Answer:
Option (a)
88. Which seismic code states the Indian standard guidelines for ductile detailing of RC structure subjected

(a) IS : 13920-1993
(b) IS : 13920-1995
(c) IS : 13920-1998
(d) IS : 13920-1999
Answer:
Option (a)
89. Which is a good example of how the ground acts during liquefaction?

(a) The ground acts like pure water.

(b) The ground acts like sand.
(c) The ground acts like molasses or honey.
(d) The ground acts like quicksand.
Answer:
Option (a)
90. During an earthquake, soil and water can combine to form a semi-solid material in a process called ___

(a) Liquification
(b) Liquefying
(c) Liquefaction
(d) Quick sanding
Answer:
Option (c)

FROM GTUMCQ

1. In a fully mechanised composting plant, involves

(a) mechanized receipt

(b) mechanized segregation
(c) mechanized pulverising of refuse
(d) all of these.
Answer:
Option (d)
2. Consider the following statements :
In solid waste management:-

1. density separation of solid wastes can be accomplished by air classifiers.

2. iron recovery from solid wastes can be done by magnetic separators.
3. aluminium separation from solid wastes can be accomplished by eddy current separators. Which of t

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:
 Option (a)
3. Which of the following solid wastes describes the term ‘Municipal Solid Waste’?

(a) Toxic
(b) Hazardous
(c) Non-toxic
(d) Non-hazardous
Answer:
Option (d)
4. Why is it difficult to recycle plastics?

(a) It is very hard

(b) It comes in different sizes
(c) It is adhesive
(d) It contains different types of polymer resins
Answer:
Option (d)
5. Which of the following is done on an individual level?

(a) Burning
(b) Disposal
(c) Recycling
(d) Source reduction
Answer:
Option (d)
6. Why is recycled paper banned for use in food containers?

(a) Because it creates a lot of spaces

(b) Because it creates contamination
(c) Because paper can be used only one time
(d) Because paper is very thick and can’t cover the food containers
Answer:
Option (b)
7. Which of the following plans is used as a waste management plan?

(a) Plan for reuse

(b) The integrated plan
(c) Plan for recycling
(d) Plan for reducing
Answer:
 Option (b)
8. The organic material of the solid waste will decompose

(a) By the flow of water

(b) By the soil particles
(c) By the action of microorganisms
(d) By oxidation
Answer:
Option (c)
9. Which of the following wastes is called the Municipal Solid Waste (MSW)?

(a) Food wastes

(b) Wood pieces
(c) Plastic cans
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
10. The process of burning municipal solid wastes under suitable temperature and conditions in a sp

(a) Landfill
(b) Incineration
(c) Recycling
(d) Vermicomposting
Answer:
Option (d)
1. The burning of solid waste is not recommended because

(a) It is very costly

(b) It requires a lot of space
(c) It requires modern technologies
(d) It causes several environmental issues
Answer:
Option (d)
12. When the organic matter present in the sanitary landfill decomposes, it generates

(a) Methane
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Hydrogen
(d) All of the above
Answer:
 Option (a)
13. Which of the following is the oldest and the most common method used to dump solid wastes?

(a) River
(b) Ocean
(c) Landfill
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (c)
14. The disposable wastes contain

(a) Solids
(b) Slurries
(c) Liquids
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
15. Find the correct statement

(a) The waste from one process becomes the input for another process
(b) All the processes related to consumption and production produce some kind of waste
(c) There is no real waste in nature
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
16. Which of the following methods is better for the solid waste problem?

(a) Recycling
(b) Landfilling
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
17. Which of the following statements is incorrect for plastic wastes?

(a) It is used to make compost

(b) It lasts for a longer period of time
(c) Toxic fumes are produced when burnt
(d) All of the above
Answer:
 Option (a)
18. Which of the following can be recycled many times?

(a) Wood
(b) Plastic
(c) Aluminium
(d) Organic materials
Answer:
Option (c)
19. Which of the following gas is produced from landfill wastes?

(a) Biogas
(b) Natural gas
(c) Liquified petroleum gas
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (a)
20. Which of the following statements is true about zero waste management?

(a) Separate collection of each kind of waste

(b) Segregation of garbage at the source
(c) Community involvement
(d) All of the above
Answer:
Option (d)
21. How many main components are there in integrated waste management?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Seven
(d) Eleven
Answer:
Option (b)
22. How many major sources of solid waste are there based on their origin?

(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 6
Answer:
 Option (c)
23. Under which rule of Government, guidelines for solid waste management are followed today?

(a) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2000

(b) Municipal Solid Waste Rules, 2016
(c) Solid Waste Rules, 2000
(d) Solid Waste Rules, 2016
Answer:
Option (d)
24. is the separation of biodegradable waste from non biodegradable waste for proper disposal and recycli

(a) Separation
(b) Segregation
(c) Removal
(d) Composting
Answer:
Option (b)
25. What is the amount of waste generated in urban India per day

(a) 155500
(b) 188500
(c) 175800
(d) 168500
Answer:
Option (b)
26. Methane gas is released due to

(a) Proper segregation

(b) Improper segregation
(c) Disposal
(d) Dumping
Answer:
Option (b)
27. is the solid or semi-solid waste incidental to preparing, cooking, and serving food and cleaning of food

(a) Compost
(b) Manure
(c) Rubbish
(d) Garbage
Answer:
 Option (c)
28. How many types of rubbish waste are present

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
Option (b)
29. How many types of garbage wastes are present

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
Option (a)
30. What is the minimum depth of the landfill required

(a) 1.5 m
(b) 1.6 m
(c) 1.7 m
(d) 1.8 m
Answer:
Option (d)
31. What is the area of land required for 4000 people for disposal of waste

(a) 1.25 hectares

(b) 1.5 hectares
(c) 1.75 hectares
(d) 2.0 hectares
Answer:
Option (a)
32. Which of the following is the most commonly used form of excretal disposal

(a) Cartage
(b) Sanplat
(c) VIP latrine
(d) Twin pit latrine
Answer:
 Option (a)
33. What is the maximum number of pits considered in pit latrines

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
Option (b)