PassGamsat Science Course Handout Questions

PassGAMSAT’s Live
Science Course
For Science Mentoring Members
15-16 January 2011

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PassGAMSAT’s Live Science Course
Physical chemistry ................................................................................................3

Basic atomic structure and periodicity...............................................................3
Thermochemistry................................................................................................4
Gas properties and phases...............................................................................10
Acids and bases, disassociation constant.........................................................12
Redox reactions................................................................................................14
Stereoisomers...................................................................................................17
Organic chemistry................................................................................................21
Nomenclature ..................................................................................................21
Biological molecules.........................................................................................24
Organic Reactions and equilibrium...................................................................27
.........................................................................................................................30
Physics.................................................................................................................30
Acceleration......................................................................................................30
Kinetics and energy..........................................................................................36
Gases, liquids and solids ..................................................................................38
Electric current.................................................................................................39
Magnetism and vectors....................................................................................41
Biology ................................................................................................................45
Enzymes...........................................................................................................45
Immune system................................................................................................58
Homeostasis.....................................................................................................59
Meitosis and meiosis.........................................................................................61
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Physical chemistry
Basic atomic structure and periodicity

Solvents can lower the freezing temperature of a solution. This is utilised in
animals that live in environments where temperatures are below freezing. In
such cases the change in temperature below freezing (∆Tf) is directly
proportional to the molar concentration. It thus depends only on the
concentration of particles and not their chemical identity. This can be expressed
∆Tf = Kfm ∆Tf = the change in freezing point,
Kf = the molal freezing point depression

constant
= 1.86oc per mol per kg for water
m = moles per kg of solvent
1) 50g of a non-electrolyte solute is added to 1000g of water. The

new solution now has a freezing point that is 0.5oc below that of
pure water. What is the molecular weight of the compound?
a. 175
b. 176
c. 185
d. 186
KEY CONCEPT:
A Mole is just an easy way to talk about large numbers. It is used like the word a
‘dozen’:
1 mole = 6.022 x 1023molecules
1 dozen = 12 muffins
This question is much easier than it seems.
**First fill what you know**
∆Tf = Kfm
0.5=1.86 x m
m = 0.5/1.86 = 0.2688
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50g = 0.2688 moles 
50/0.2688 = 0.2688/0.2688
186.01g = 1 mole
2) Which of the following is true?
a. 1 mole MgCl2 will make the same ∆Tf as 1 mole of NaCl
b. 2 mole NaCl will make the same ∆Tf as 1 mole of NaCl
c. 1 mole of AlCl3 will make the same ∆Tf as 2 mole of NaCl
d. 2 mole NaCl will make the same ∆Tf as 1 mole of MgCl2
Key Concept
Notice the text made particular mention that the number of particles mattered,
not the type.
Of the options there are the same number of particles only in AlCl3 (4) and 2
moles of NaCl (2 x 2)
Answer = c)
Thermochemistry
Some reactions require an input of energy to take place, others occur

spontaneously and release energy. If the energy is in the form of heat these
reactions are called endothermic and exothermic respectively. The following
graph represents the energy needed to drive two reactions.
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The Arrhenius equation can be used to measure the rate constants k1 and
k2 at two different temperatures T1 and T2.
2.303log10 k2 = Ea T2 – T1 R = The gas constant 8.31 J mol-1KK

k1 R T1T2
1. On the above figure, if the reactants and products are

identical for both reactions, which line represents the
reaction that is facilitated by a catalyst?
a. The solid line
b. The dashed line
c. Both lines
d. Neither lines
Key Concept
A catalyst is a substance that lowers the activation energy

(G0) that is needed to drive a reaction.
You should be able to recognise immediately that the reaction represented by

the dashed line needs less energy to proceed and this can only be achieved by a
catalyst, so the answer is b)
2. The activation energy of the reaction represented by the
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solid line is represented in the figure by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
Key Concept
Activation energy is the energy needed to be put into the reaction, ie the amount
of energy (G) of the upwards part of the graph.
By the definition of activation energy, the answer is c)
3. If the rate of reaction is 100 times faster when performed at

40° than at 30°, what is the approximate activation energy
of the solid line reaction?
a. 30 000 J
b. 4 000 J
c. 400 kJ
d. 30 kJ
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Key Concept
For equaions in chemistry and physics, always convert Celsius to Kelvin: just add
273.15
0°c = 273.15K
10°c = 283.15K
Key Concept
log10(1) = 0
If xa = y
log10(10) = 1
Then logx(y) = a
log10(100) = 2
log10(1000) = 3
log10(10 000) = 4
Key Concept
1 kJ = 1000 J
**First fill in what you know**
2.303log10 k2 = Ea T2 – T1 R = The gas constant 8.31 J mol-1KK

k1 R T1T2
R = 8.31
k2/k1 = 100 [ because the 2nd reaction is 100 times faster]
T2 = 40°c = 313.15K
T1 = 30 = 303.15K
2.303log10(100) = Ea 313.15 - 303.15

8.31 313.15 x 305.15
2.303 x 2 = Ea x 10 _
8.31 94 931
Ea = 2.303 xx 1200 x 8.31 ÷ 10 = 363,358 J = 363kJ
= approx 400kJ = c)
4. In the diagram above, if energy was in the form of heat,
would the reaction indicated by the solid line be
endothermic or exothermic and why?
a. Endothermic because E3 – E1 is positive
b. Endothermic because E3 – E4 is negative
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c. Exothermic because E1 – E4 is negative
d. Exothermic because E4 – E3 is negative
Key Concept:
Energy released or gained can be determined by looking at:
the final free energy – initial free energy
In our example Initial free energy = E3
and final free energy = E4
Thus energy change or ∆G = E4 – E3
Looking from the graph, E4 is smaller than E3 so ∆G is negative and energy has
been released.
This means that it is exothermic.
5. In one particular reaction, the reaction rate increases by a

factor of 10 when the temperature increases by 4°C. For the
same reaction, the reaction rate can be increased by a
factor of 100 if the temperature is increased by how much?
a. 8°C
b. 16°C
c. 100°C
d. 400°C
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Key Concept
This is a skip-until-the-end-of-the-exam-question. Only the top 1% of entrants will

be able to answer this.
Key Concept
You will need to know how to solve simultaneous equasions – look back at your
maths textbook.
Step 1: isolate the variable that you want to get rid of

x+y=3 and 2x + y =
Step 2: Substitute the value of the 2nd equation into 15st What is x?
Step 3: Solve for x 2x+y = 5 becomes y = 5-2x
Substitute into 1st equation
x + (5-2x) = 3
-x = -2
Only the top 1% of entrants will be able to answer this and I would like you to be
in that top percentile. Watch carefully.
2.303log10 k2 = Ea T2 – T1
k1 R T1T2
The two reactions in this question have the same reactants and products so Ea
will be constant.
R is constant and 2.303 is constant so to make things easier and prettier lets let
C= Ee _
2.303R
Then the equation becomes :
log10 k2 = C T2 – T1
k1 T1T2
For equation (1):

log10 (10) = C __ 4__
T1T2
1 x T1T2 = 4C
T1T2 = 4C
For equation (2)

log10 (100) = C T2 – T1
T1T2
2 x T1T2 = C (T2 – T1)
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Now for the tricky part… because the two equations are related we can
Gas properties and phases

According to Avogadro’s Principle, equal volumes of different gases at the same
temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules. Thus the
volume (V) of a sample of gas is proportional to the moles of gas (n) in the
sample.
V/n = C1 where C1 is a constant
Boyle's Law states that the product of the pressure and volume for a gas is a
constant for a fixed amount of gas at a fixed temperature. Therefore:
P V = C2 where C2 is a constant
1) 5 moles of carbon dioxide gas has a volume of 120L at 25o and 1atm
pressure.
If 15 moles of carbon dioxide is added at the same temperature and
pressure, what volume will the gas now occupy?
a. 360 L
b. 40 L
c. 120 L
d. 240 L
Key Concept
Just use your algebra
** First fill in what you know**
n=5
V = 120L
V/n = C1
120/5 = C1 = 24
Now when n = 15
V/n = C1
V/15 = 24
V = 360  a)
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2) At 10oC and 1atm pressure, 2 mol of hydrogen gas has a volume of 24.5L.
If the volume is reduced to 11.2L due to some hydrogen escaping from the
system. What is quantity of gas remaining if the same temperature and
pressure is maintained?
a) 1.082 mol
b) 4.375 mol
c) 0.914 mol
d) 2.1875 mol
V/n = C1
24.5/2 = C1 = 12.25
Now for V = 11.2
11.2/n = 12.25
n = 0.9143  c)
3) A sample of gas in a 250 cm3 container exerts a pressure of 90 kPa.

What would be the volume of this gas at 125 kPa of pressure? (Assume
that the temperature remains constant.)
a) 45 cm3
b) 160 cm3
c) 348 cm3
d) 180 cm3
PV=C2
250 x 90 = C2 = 22 500
For P = 125
125 x V = 22 500
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V = 180
Acids and bases, disassociation constant

The bicarbonate ion is important in the body as a biological buffer. Carbonic acid
disassociates in water and forms an equilibrium according to the following
equation:
H2CO3 +H2O ↔ HCO3− + H3O+
pKA values for various bicarbonate compounds are given below
Compoun pKA
d
NaHCO3 10.3
KHCO3 8.2
H2CO3 6.352
HCO3- 10.329
1) Which of the above compounds is the strongest acid?
a. NaHCO3
b. KHCO3
c. H2CO3
d. HCO3-
ANSWER: c) H2CO3
Key Concept:
pKa describes the fraction of molecules that will disassociate (or dissolve) when
any amount of the same substance is put in solution.
pH describes the number of H+ ions present in a solution at any time and can
vary depending on how much of a substance is dissolved.
Ka = [A-][H3O+]
[HA]
Ka is a measure of (weak) acid strength as expressed by the concentration of ionized

molecules divided by the concentration of unionized molecules.
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Key Concept:
pKa and pH are in –log scales. This means that :
smaller pKa = larger Ka = more H+ = more acidic
smaller pH = higher [H+] = more H+ = more acidic
The value of Ka can vary by 7 factors of 10 (ie between 1 and 10 million) so to make things
easier we use a log scale with a base 10 to describe the number.
Ie. HCl has a pKa of -6.2
pKa = -log Ka
Ka= 10-pKa
Ka= 106.2 = 1 584 893.19 = [Cl-][H3O+] = 1259 x 1259

[HCl] 1
1) Which of the above compounds is the strongest base?
a. NaHCO3
b. KHCO3
c. H2CO3
d. HCO3-
ANSWER: D. HCO3-
Key Concept:
The strongest base is the conjugate of the weakest acid
HA ↔ A− + H+
[weak] Acid ↔ [strong] conjugate base + hydrogen ion
CH3COOH ↔ CH3COO- + H+
“
HCl is considered a strong acid because it has a strong tendency to ionize resulting in a large
[H3O+] and the reverse reaction occurs only to a small amount. This further indicates that Cl-
is very weak as a conjugate base and not likely to accept a proton. What this means is that Cl-
is ‘stable’ just the way it is. This is an attribute of many strong acids – the conjugate base is
stable while bearing a negative charge. This means the conjugate base happily accepts the
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extra electron.
Phenol is a good example of a weak acid. In comparison to HCl, phenol has a weaker
tendency to ionize and the conjugate base, phenoxide ion, is moderately strong. As a result,
the equilibrium shifts further to the left and the acid (protonated) form of phenol
predominates.”
2) Increasing s character of the hybrid orbitals of the carbon series

sp3sp2sp mean increasing electronegativity and increasing pKa
of attached carboxylic acid groups.
Given this, which of the following is the most acidic compound?
a) CH3CH2COOH
b) CH2=CHCOOH
c) CH ≡CCOOH
d) CH2CH3CH3COOH
ANSWER: C)
Key Concept:
Double and triple bonds have lots of electrons without protons.
Lots of electrons make a molecule very electronegative.
Electronegativity repels posively charged protons so makes a molecule more

likely to disassociate and therefore more acidic.
Redox reactions
Redox reactions occur when an atom gives an electron to another. If the two
atoms are separated by a conducting material, the electrons will travel from the
oxidised atom to the reduced atom and generate electricity. One example of
such a reaction follows:
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O
Carbon atoms can have various oxidation numbers depending on what is bonded
to them. Eg: ON =
–4: CH4
–3: C2H6
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–2: CH3Cl
–(6/5): C5H5−
–1: C2H2
1. In the above reaction, which element is being reduced?
a. Carbon
b. Hydrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon dioxide
Key Concept:
Redox reactions can be understood by determining the oxidation numbers.
Reduction is gain in electrons and a more negative oxidation number.
Oxidation is a loss of electrons and a more positive oxidation number.
Oxidation numbers (ON) can be determined by following a few simple rules:
i) Any atom in elemental form has an oxidation number = 0 (eg O2)
ii) Simple ions have an oxidation state equal to their net charge (eg Cl-)
iii) Hydrogen = 1 , Oxygen = -2 in most compounds. [hydrogen =-1 in hydrides

of active metals (eg. LiH) and oxygen=-1 in peroxides (eg H2O2)
iv) The sum of all oxidation states in a neutral molecule = 0 (eg SO2)
v) Carbon can have many oxidation states depending on what is bonded to it. Eg:
–4: CH4
–3: C2H6
–2: CH3Cl
–(6/5): C5H5−
–1: C2H2
C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + H2O → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O
In the above reaction Oxygen goes from its elemental state (ON = 0) to bound
form (ON=-2).
It’s oxidation number becomes more negative, it is thus gaining negatively
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charged electrons and is being Reduced.
Meanwhile the oxygen loses electrons and is Oxidised.
24 e -
+ 6 O2 + 24 H+ → 12 H2O
6C → 6C+4 + 24e-
Exercise: Determine the oxidation numbers in the following reactions. Which

element is being reduced and which is being oxidized?
I. H2 + F2 → 2 HF
II. Au3+(aq) + I−(aq) --> Au(s) + I2(s)
III. 4Fe + 3O2  2Fe2O3 [rust]
I. H2 → 2 H+ + 2 e− [oxidation]
F2 + 2 e− → 2 F− [reduction]
II. I-(aq) --> I2(s) + e- [oxidation]
Au3+(aq) + 3e− --> Au(s) [reduction]
III. Fe  Fe-3 + 3e- [oxidation]
O2 + 3e-  O-2
2. The following Galvanic cell is set up based on

the reaction:
Cu2+ + Zn ↔ Cu + Zn2+
In this cell which substance is being oxidised?
a. Cu2+
b. Zn
c. Cu
d. Zn2+
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Key Concept:
Redox reactions can be understood by determining the oxidation numbers.
Reduction is gain in electrons and a more negative oxidation number.
Oxidation is a loss of electrons and a more positive oxidation number.
Quickly, Zn is elemental so has oxidation number = 0
Goes to Zn2+ with oxidation number = +2
More positive ON  loss of electrons  oxidation
Answer is Zn2+, d)
3. In which direction are the electrons travelling?
a. Along the salt bridge towards the copper
b. Along the salt bridge towards the zinc
c. Along the wire towards the copper
d. Along the wire towards the zinc
Key Concept
An Ox, Red Cat
Anode = Oxidation
Cathode = Reduction
Reduction is gain of electrons so the electrons will always be travelling towards

the cathode.
This is another simple question – electrons travel in the conducting wire to light
up the light.
The travel towards the Copper cathode so answer is c)
Stereoisomers
A meso compound or meso isomer is a non-optically active member of a set of
stereoisomers. A meso compound contains at least two stereogenic centers, yet
the molecule itself is not chiral. This is because meso compounds contain an
internal plane of symmetry; the molecule can be split by an imaginary mirror so
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that all atoms on one side of the mirror are the exact reflection of the atoms on
the other side. Meso-isomers have two planes of symmetry; the usual mirror
plane of reflection and a second plane perpendicular to it through the molecule
(in the ``middle'' of the molecule). The asymmetric centers are distributed
around this second place so that they are mirror inverses of each other. Hence
optical rotations from the two ``halves'' of the molecule cancel out. An example
is shown below
1. Meso compounds are a type of
a. Enantiomers
b. Stereoisomers
c. Structural isomers
d. Chiral molecules
Key Concept
A chiral molecule lacks an internal plane of symmetry and has a non-

superimposable mirror image.
Stereoisomers are molecules that are made up of the same atoms but have
different special configurations. Double bonds commonly cause this. If
interesting groups are on opposite sides they are labelled “Trans-“ if the are on
the same side they are labelled “Cis-“
Eg. Trans-2-butene and Cis-2-butene
Diastereoisomers are stereoisomers that are not mirror images of eachother.

The occur when two or more stereoisomers have different configurations at one
or more stereocenters.
Enantiomers are chiral stereoisomers that are mirror images of each other but
are not superimposable.
Enantiomers are designated R- or S-, from Latin rectus meaning right and
sinister meaning left.
From the text, meso compounds are stereoisomers that are not mirror images
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of eachother so not enantiomers or chirals. Thus the best description is

stereoisomer.
2. Which of the following is an example of a meso compound

a. COOH
HO H
H OH
COOH
Cl
b. Cl H
H Cl
OH
COOH
c. H OH
H OH
COOH
d. All of the above
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Key Concept
For many of these questions all you need to use is spacial reasoning. Practice
spacial logic questions are the best way to improve your skill in this area.
To find the correct answer to this you should put a mirror in the middle of each
molecule to check if there
3. Which of the following statements, according to the paragraph above is

true:
a. the meso isomer is a diastereoisomer of the two enantiomers
b. the two planes of symmetry in a meso compound are perpendicular
to each other
c. a meso compound contains a minimum of two chiral atoms
d. all of the above
Key Concept
The science section tests coprehension as much as any other part of the
GAMSAT
Answer: They are all correct
4. Which formation is the following chiral molecule in?

a. R
b. L
c. S
d. Q
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Key Concept
To determine the chirality:
i) The substituent atom with the highest atomic number gets the highest rank.
ii) The atom (or group) with the lowest rank gets sent to the back (usually H)
iii) Arrows are drawn from the highest to the lowest.
iv) If those arrows point in a clockwise RIGHT direction, the molecule is R-. If
counterclockwise, it's S-.
Follow the steps and you will find:
The answer is a) R
Organic chemistry
Nomenclature
Name the following hydrocarbons:
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Key Concept
Naming is much easier than it looks, just follow a few simple rules:
i) First count the number of carbons in the longest chain:
meth- eth- pro- but- pent- hex- hept- oct-
ii) Notice any interesting parts and start numbering from the end closest to an
interesting part.
Eg.
iii) Name the interesting parts in alphabetical order. If there are multiple
instances of the same interesting group then list they positions then use the
prefixes: di- tri- tetra-
Eg. 2,2-dimethylbutane
iv) Double and triple bonds are noted with the suffix –ene and –yne. Treat them
like an other interesting part
This is easier than it looks, just follow the rules
1) 3 carbons = “Prop-“ , all single bonds = “-ane”  Propane
2) Be careful to use the longest carbon chain, drawings can be deceptive
4 carbons = “But-“, all single bonds = “-ane”  Butane
3) 4 carbons = “But-“, One double bond after 1st carbon = “1- _-ene”  1-
Butene
4) This one is tricky because if you look at it there is no need to number the
interesting group, if it were anywhere else the chain would go from being a Prop-
to a But-
3 carbons = “Prop-“, all single bonds = “-ane”, 1 methyl group = “Methyl-“

 methylpropane
5) Start numbering from the closest interesting part to the end, in this case the
left side. Note that alkyl groups are named before double or triple bonds
4 carbons = “But-“, one triple bond at 1st carbon= “-yne”, 1 methyl group at 3rd
carbon= “Methyl-“
 3-methyl,1-Butyne
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6) 5 carbons = “Pent-“, one double bond = “-ene”  2-Pentene
7) Don’t forget to list groups in alphabetical order
Key Concept – 5 simple “interesting parts” that you should know
Biological molecules
Fatty acids are long hydrocarbon chains with a carboxyl group on one end.
Linolenic acid is an example of an unsaturated fatty acid and is pictured below.
Fatty acids that are branched and or bent, cannot pack tightly together and are
usually liquid at room temperature. Below is a table of some common Fatty acids
and their chemical formula.
Lauric acid C11H23COOH
Palmitic acd C15H21COOH
Linolenic acid C17H29COOH
Oleic acid C17H31COOH
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Arachidonic acid C19H31COOH
1) Which of the above fatty acids is likely to be solid at room

temperature?
a. Lauric acid
b. Palmitic acid
c. Linolenic acid
d. Oleic acid
Key Concept
Unsaturated means that all bonds are single and it is difficult to make chemical
changes
Saturated Fats have double bonds that are susceptible to hydration reactions
where an alkyl group is added across the double bind and a water molecule is
the byproduct
Key Concept
A formula can be used to determine the number of double bonds from the
number of hydrogen atoms so that you do not have to draw each molecule. If
there are only single bonds, each carbon will have 2 hydrogens attached, and
there will be one extra hydrogen on the first carbon and a carboxyl group on the
last carbon. Thus for saturated fatty acids :
Number of Hydrogens = (2 x C)+1
where C = the number of Carbon atoms not including in the carboxyl

group.
Eg. For the following butanoic acid, number of Hs= 2 x 3 + 1 = 7
Answer: using the above formula, go through each of the options,
work out double the carbon number plus one and this should be equal to the
number of Hydrogens.
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This works out only for a) Lauric acid.
2) How many double bonds are there in Oleic acid?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Every time a double bond is added to an alkane, two hydrogens are removed.
Thus if you determine how many hydrogens the saturated hydrocarbon should
have you can determine how many are missing and therefore the number of
double bonds.
Oleic acid C17H31COOH
3) Plant fatty acids are commonly unsaturated and are liquid at room
temperature. To make margarines the plant fatty acids are chemically
altered in the laboratory to increase their melting points. This is performed
by:
a. Increasing the number of side chains
b. Decreasing the number of side chains
c. Increasing the number of double bonds
d. Decreasing the number of double bonds
Key concept
Although questions often appear to need a background understanding, many are

just checking your comprehension.
The fatty acids need to be saturated to be solid at room temperature, this is

performed by decresing the number of double bonds, d).
Isomerism
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Organic Reactions and equilibrium

Esterification occurs when a carboxylic acid group reacts with an alcohol to form
an ester plus a water molecule. Fischer esterification are unique in that they neet
the presence of an acid catalyst in order to proceed. The formation of ethyl
acetate from acetic acid and ethanol is shown below.
11. Which of the following molecules could combine in an

esterification reaction?
a. CH3CH2CH2CO2H + CH3CH2CH2CH=O
b. HCO2H + CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
c. ClCH2CO2H + CH3CH2CH3
d. CH3CH2CH=O + CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
Key concept
The key group that you will need will by convention be written at the end of the
molecule.
Recognition of the following molecules will be necessary:
R-COOH - Carboxilic acid
R-CH2OH - Alcohol
R-COH - Aldehyde
R-CHNH2 - Amine
R-COCH3 - Ketone
This is quite simple although the molecules question is written in a

slightly unconventional way.
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To make an ester you need a R-COOH and a R-CH2OH.
Thus b) is the answer.
12. What will be the product of the following reaction?
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOH + CH3CH2OH
a. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COCH3
b. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOCH3
c. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COCH2CH3
d. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOCH2CH3
Key concept
In all reactions the number of atoms must be conserved.
In almost all carbon chemistry reactions a small non-carbon atom will be

eliminated so:
The number of carbon atoms in reactants must equal the number in

products.
The First step in this type of question is to count the number of carbon atoms,
there must be the same number in the products as in the reactants.
In the Reactants there are 6 + 2 carbon atoms = 8
In the example given the resulting ester has a carbon with 2 oxygens bonded to
it and one oxygen is eliminated as a water molecule
Thus the join should be R-COO-R
The only answer could then be d) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2COOCH2CH3
An attempt to form ethyl acetate was made at 65oC. Initial concentrations of

reactants and final concentrations of products are noted below
Reactant [CH3COOH] 14.56 mol/L

s
[CH3CH2 OH] 14.56 mol/L
Products [CH3COOCH2 21.00 mol/L

CH3]
[H2O] 55.60 mol/L
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13. What is the best estimation for the equilibrium constant KC for this reaction?
a. 4.5
b. 5.0
c. 5.5
d. 6.0
Key concept
The equilibrium constant describes the proportions of products to reactants that

will exist for a particular reaction at any given concentration. It is an indication of
the extent to which a reaction will proceed.
It is determined by :
For the equation A+BS+T
This is an equation you should know, it is pretty simple.
Just plug in the numbers and you will find:
14. At room temperature the equilibrium favours the reactants and has a KC of
approximately 2. How could this be overcome?
e. Add more H2O
f. Remove H2O
g. Decrease the temperature
h. Add less acetic acid
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Key concept
This tests your understanding of equilibriums and how they can be driven in
different directions. You should know the following principals:
i) A reaction can be driven to favour products if more reactants are added or if

products are removed (and vice versa)
ii) Adding heat will favour the products for endothermic reactions and the
reactants for exothermic reaxtions(and vice versa)
If the Equilibrium constant is 5.5 at a higher temperature and 2 at a lower

temperature, the reaction must by Endothermic .
Thus reducing the temperature will favour the reactants.
From the above information the only method that will drive the equilibrium to
favour the products will be to remove one of the products H2O , so the answer is
b)
Physics
Acceleration
Tomasz is running late for his bus so runs to the busstop. Following is a graph of
his speed in the 10 seconds it takes him to reach the stop.
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When acceleration is constant the following equations can be used:
d = ut + at2 d = distance from origin

2 u = initial velocity
a = average acceleration
v = u + at t = time
v2 = u2 + ad
1. Approximately how far away is the bus stop from Tomasz’s house?
a. 50 m
b. 75 m
c. 95 m
d. 115 m
Key Concept
In velocity/time graphs the total distance travelled equals the area under the
curve.
This question is more simple than it looks, you do not have to use
complicated equasions, or even understand why the rule works, just
know it because it is a very basic rule of physics.
So
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Area = (12 x 4 x ½) + (4 x 12) + (2 x 10) + (3 x 2 x ½) = 95
2. What was the average acceleration after 4 seconds?
a. 1 ms-2
b. 2 ms-2
c. 3 ms-2
d. 4 ms-2
Key Concept
First look at the key for the equasions given, which value is the question asking
for?
Then look at the equations , there should be one where you can fill in every
value except the one you need
In this case we need a
We know or can determine from the graph:
initial velocity (u) = 0 m/s
distance from origin (d) = 12 x 4 x ½ = 24m
end velocity (v) = 12 m/s
time taken (t) = 4s
Then we should use: v = u + at
12 = 0 + 4a
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a = 12/4 = 3
3. Which of the following graphs best represents the distance travelled over
time?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Key Concept
For the distance vs time graph, the slope = distance
time
And the velocity vs time graph is simply a graph of the slope or how
steep the line is.
The original velocity graph reflects the changing slope of the distance graph.
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Thus:
0-4 s  slope is positive and increasing 
4-8s  slope is positive and consistent 
8-10s  slope is positive and decreasing 
Thus the answer)
4. How could the distance of Thom from home after 4 seconds be

represented in a formula?
a. √(4a)
b. 8a
c. 16a2
d. 4a
Key Concept
First look at the key for the equasions given, which value is the question asking
for?
Then look at the equations , there should be one where you can fill in every
value except the one you need
Momentum
A sports scientist was interested in the relationship between speed and
leg length. He used two formulae in his study:
s = stride length (cm)
Relative stride length = s l = height
Froude number = vof
2 hip from ground
L gl (cm)
g = gravity constant
(1000cm/s/s)
v = velocity in m/s
An experiment was performed on several atheletes and the results
plotted in the the table below.
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1) If the Height of an athlete’s hip was 110cm and the Froude number
was 1, what is his actual stride length?
a. 80cm
b. 90cm
c. 100cm
d. 110cm
e. 120cm
Key Concept
All you need to know for this is algebra and how to read a graph:
Draw a straight line across from the known value to the line of best fit. The
value on the other axis will be your answer.
** first fill in what you know**
From the graph, when the Froude number is 1, the relative stride length is about
1.2
So relative stride length = s = s =1.2
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l 110
s = 120cm
2) From the graph it can be seen that when the Fouche number rises
above 1 the athelete begins to run. For an athelete with leg lenth
115cm, at what speed would a rapid walk turn into a run?
a. 3.4m/s
b. 34cm/s
c. 4.2m/s
d. 42cm/s
**First fill in what you know**
Fouche number = 1 = v2 = v2 _
gl 1000 cm/s/s x 115cm
1000 x 115 = v2
v = 339 cm/s = 3.39m/s
Kinetics and energy

When we raise the temperature of a body, the molecules and atoms move with
greater kinetic energy. Assume that “the temperature” is the manifestation of
only the kinetic energy in atomic and subatomic levels and no mass change
(excess/defect) occurs due to heating. Now a solid material is supplied with heat
at a constant rate. The temperature of the material is changing with the heat
input as shown in the graph. BC and DE are parallel to the Heat-input axis.
1) Analyze the given graph. What can you say for the molecules in BC and DE
?
a. Movement of molecules has increased
b. Movement of molecules has decreased
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c. Neither increase nor decrease in movement
d. Data insufficient
C) In the first part, BC and DE are lines representing constant temperature.

Although, heat energy is provided yet there is no change in temperature. This
means that there is no change in kinetic energy, thus no change in movement of
molecules.
2) The temperature and heat input show linear dependence for AB,CD and
EF. Which of the following statement is NOT correct?
a. Translation motion of molecules increases
b. Vibration motion of the molecules increases
c. Potential energy increases
d. All are correct statements
C) Kinetic energy includes both translation as well as vibration motion. So, the
only incorrect option is ‘Increase in potential energy’.
3) A solid cube of side ‘a’ and another 2

solid cube of same material and b
dimension, having spherical cavity of
radius ‘b’, are heated to same
temperature and allowed to cool.
Then, which of the following b
statements hold true?
a
a
a. Initial heat loss rate will be

same for both the cubes.
b. Initial heat loss rate will not

be same for both the cubes.
c. After long time, temperature

of the solid cube will be higher.
d. After long time, temperature of the hollow cube will be higher.
A) So the final area exposed to the surrounding will be the surface area of
complete cube. So, the net heat loss to the surrounding will be same for both
cases.
4) In the above text, we assumed that “the temperature” is the
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manifestation of only the kinetic energy in atomic and subatomic levels

and no mass change (excess/defect) occurs due to heating. In which of the
following phase is the assumption most precise?
a. Solid
b. Liquid
c. Gas
d. Not predicatable
The above comprehension is best suited for ‘Gaseous’ state. The gas molecules
change their temperature and attain a saturation limit. After that, they have
increase in their potential energy
Gases, liquids and solids

- p25
The Fick dye method is a way of measuring the rate of flow of blood through a
blood vessel. This is illustrated in the following diagram:
Blood flow
Point X
Dye is added at a Point Y
constant rate per Sample is removed one
minute minute after adding
A known quantity of dye is injected ata constant rate over one minute at point X.
One minute after injection a sample of blood is taken at point Y. Flow rate can be
detrmined by the following formula:
Flow rate (litre/min) = Quantity of dye

injected at X (gram/min) or F= Q
Concentration of dye at Y (gram/litre) C
1) The unit mg/litre is equivalent to:
A) gram/min x gram/mL
B) litre/min x mg/min
C) litre/min ÷ mg/min
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D) mg/min ÷ litre/min
Key Concept:
Multiplying and dividing fractions

a x c = ac
b d bd
a ÷ c = ad
b d bc
Answer: D)
mg ÷ litre = mg x min = mg/litre
min min min x litre
2) When the Fick method is used to determine blood flow, the chemical
that is introduced is not a dye but a substance that is already present
in the blood. The equation then becomes:
F= Q
∆C
Where ∆C is the change in concentration of the substance between

point X and point Y.
The following figure represents the addition of Carbon dioxide to the

blood as it oxygenates the body.
Electric current
Occasionally, a situation might arise when an ammeter (to
measure current) or voltmeter (to measure voltage) is needed
but the only thing available is a galvanometer. (To be precise, a
moving coil galvanometer (MCG), a galvanometer measures
small deflections in currents). Ideally all a MCG does is measure
very small currents but if required can also be converted to an
ammeter or voltmeter.
To convert it into an ammeter, a resistance R (external

resistance applied to divert current is called a shunt) must be
applied to the galvanometer in parallel as shown in the figure.
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To convert it into a voltmeter, R is applied in series as shown in

the figure.
Everywhere, G is the internal resistance of the galvanometer. In

the questions that follow, the current that provides a full scale
deflection (the maximum that can pass through it) is 10mA.
And the internal resistance of the Galvanometer is 100 Ω. Also,
VR is the voltage across R and VG is the voltage across G.
1) In the ammeter circuit which of the following applies?

a) VR> VG
b) VR< VG
c) VR = VG
d) More information is needed.
c) Observation of the circuit shows that the galvanometer and the shunt are in
parallel
. Thus currents are different but voltages are same.
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2) Say that we want to be able to read currents up to 10.

01mA, what shunt should we use?
a) 0.1Ω
b) 1Ω
c) 10Ω
The galvanometer can only take up to 10 mA (or 0.01A). The rest (10.01-0.01=10)
that is 10A goes into the shunt. The voltages are equal across both,
10 x R = 0.01 x 100
R=0.1
3) Observe the galvanometer-voltmeter circuit given above.

Which of the following applies to it?
a) VR> VG
b) VR< VG
c) VR = VG

The current across R and G is same. However G<R and hence VG < VR.
Magnetism and vectors

The magnetic field lines of the earth resemble that of a (hypothetical) magnetic
dipole located at the centre of the earth. The axis of the dipole does not coincide
with the axis of rotation of the earth but is presently titled by approximately
11.3º with respect to the rotational axis of the earth. The direction in which the
compass needle point is known as Magnetic North, and the angle between
magnetic north and the geographical north direction is called magnetic
declination. Magnetic declination varies both from place to place, and with the
passage of time. Magnetic dip or magnetic inclination is the angle made by a
compass needle with the horizontal at any point on the Earth's surface. Magnetic
dip results from the tendency of a magnet to align itself with lines of force.
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The figure above explains that the total magnetic field of the earth is B.
The plane is a section through the earth.
The total magnetic field at any point P can be resolved into a horizontal
component BH and a vertical component BV. The angle that BH makes with the
magnetic meridian is the angle of dip, (I). In most of the northern hemisphere,
the north pole of the dip needle tilts downwards. Likewise in most of the
southern hemisphere, the south pole of the dip needle tilts upwards.
Representing the vertical component by BV, we have
BV = B sinI
BH = B cosI
which gives,
tan I= BV/BH
1) The angle of dip in United Kingdom compared to Egypt will be:

a) Greater
b) Smaller
c) Angle of dip will remain constant
d) Will depend on the altitude of the location
Key Concept
For this kind of question re-read the text carefully and highlight the relevant
parts
Key parts of the text for this question are:
“Magnetic dip results from the tendency of a magnet to align itself with lines of
force.”
The magnetic lines of force will be almost parallel to the horizon at the equator,
and the angle of dip will keep increasing till the poles where the magnetic lines
are vertical hence θ=90°. Thus, United Kingdom will have greater angle of dip
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than Egypt which is closer to the equator.
2) In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the horizontal

component of the earth’s magnetic field is 0.26G and the dip
angle is 60º. What is the magnetic field of the earth at this
location?
a. 0.52G
b. 1.04G
c. 0.26 tesla
d. 0.3 tesla
BH = 0.26G
l = 60°
we want to find the magnitude of B so use the equation with those three values
BH = Bcosl
0.26 = B cos60 = B x 0.5
B = 0.26/0.5 = 0.52G  a)
3) At a certain location on the earth’s surface, the angle of dip is 90°

downwards. The coordinates of the location are 82.7°N and
114.4°W. What is the location of this place:
a. Geographic north pole
b. Magnetic north pole
c. Magnetic equator
d. Magnetic south pole
Key Concept
Always use your head before an equation
Angle of dip will only be 90° at the north and south poles. 82°N coordinate makes
it in the north and not the south. 114°W is the geographical location of magnetic
north  b)
4) The reason for earth’s magnetic field is:

e. Vast deposits of iron ore inside the earth’s crust
f. A bar magnet inside the earth which produces a magnetic
dipole at the center of the earth
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g. The dynamo effect due to electrical currents produced by

convective motion of metallic fluids in the outer core of the
earth
h. All of the above
Light
Tom has a thin converging lens and wants to make some projections
using images on his phone screen. The lens has a focal distance of
40cm. He holds the phone screen perpendicular to the principal axis of
the lens with the centre on the axis. f = focal length of the lens
He manages to make some real u = distance from object to lens
images on a screen on the wall. Tom v = distance from image to lens
knows two equations that can help M = magnitude of magnification
him with his lens: H = height of object
h = height of image
1 = 1 + 1 and M= h = v
f u v H u
1) When the phone screen is 60cm away from the lens, what will be
the distance of the real image from the lens?
a. 40cm
b. 80cm
c. 120cm
d. 180cm
Key concept
Don’t get overwhelmed by the science, this is simple algebra

1=1 + 1
f u v
1 =1 + 1
40 60 v
1 =1 - 1
v 40 60
2400 = 60v – 40v
2400 = 20v
v = 120
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2) If the screen is 6cm x 10 cm and is placed 60cm from the lens,

what will be the dimensions of the image formed on the screen?
a. 3cm x 5cm
b. 6cm x 10cm
c. 12cm x 20cm
d. 18cm x 30cm
Key Concept
Again this is simple algebra. Often you will find information you need from the
previous question.

M= h = v
H u
From Q1, v=120 when u=60
120 = h  h = 12
60 6
120 = h  h = 20
60 10
The new dimensions are 12cm x 20 cm
Biology
Enzymes
Lignin is the main component of wood in trees. The lignin molecule
has a complicated mechanical structure which involves several
aromatic rings. A fungi Phanerochaete chrysosporium (commonly
known as White Rot) can sequester these aromatic rings by using
fungal enzymes such as peroxidases and oxidases as well as H2O2
and OH radicals to break the bonds in lignin. After the aromatics
have been released they can be utilized in metabolism as pyruvate,
acetyl CoA and components of the TCA cycle. This is illustrated in the
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diagram below.
A laboratory test was performed using Phanerochaete chrysosporium

mutants. Each mutant strain was incubated on a minimal unsupplemented
medium (MUM) on which non-mutant Phanerochaete chrysosporium is known
to grow. The mutant strains (try-1, try-2 etc.) were each grown on a MUM
combined with one of: β -oxyadipic acid (β -Ox), cis-muconic acid (cis-m),
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protocatechuic acid (pro), Vanillic acid (va) or vanillin (vn). The results of the
experiment are shown below where positive growth is marked with (+) and
no growth (-).
MUM MUM + β - MUM + cis- MUM + MUM + MUM +

Ox m pro va vn
Try-1 - + - - - -
Try-2 - + + - - -
Try-3 - + + + - -
Try-4 - + + + + +
Non + + + + + +
Mutant
1. In the above experiment, the Non mutant strain was used as:
a. A variable
b. A treatment group
c. A positive control
d. A negative control
Key Concept:
A positive control tests that an effect can possibly be obtained. It rules out false
negatives.
ie: “What does an effect look like”
A negative control demonstrates a baseline result that occurs when there is no

effect. It minimises the chance of false positives.
Ie: “What does no effect look like”
2. According to the above information, cis-muconic acid would

most likely build up in the cells of:
a. Try-1
b. Try-2
c. Try-3
d. Try-4
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Key Concept:
Don’t get overwhelmed by large diagrams and paragraphs!

You will not have to understand every step in a reaction
series, most scientists wont immediately understand either.
Your job is to figure out what is important.
Key Concept:
Most genetic mutations will affect the functioning of an

enzyme in the body. An enzyme makes possible one or more
steps in a reaction series, it is like a gate keeper.
If a single enzyme is disabled the reaction series will falter

at that point unless the required product is supplemented.
In this problem, enzymes in a reaction series have been damaged and you
are asked to use your powers of deduction to determine the end result.
Cis-muconic acid will build up when the enzyme that converts it to the next
product will not be functioning. Try-1 will grow if β -Oxadipic acid is added but
not if Cis-muconic acid is acid. Enzyme-4 must be missing so that the cells
could not produce the necessary intermediates for glycolyses unless the gate
way is skipped and β -Oxadipic acid is added.
Thus the answer is a) Try-1
3. The defect in Try-3 is most likely caused by a defect in Enzyme:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Try-3 grows if proteocatchuic acid is added but not if vanillic acid is added.
Thus there must be a fault in the reaction at 2.
4. Which of the following is the most accurate statement? The

diagram:
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a. Is contradictory to the table of evidence
b. Shows one pathway of conversion of lignin to

intermediates in the citric acid cycle
c. Is correct because enzyme 2 could convert two different

substrates to one product
d. Is incorrect because a single enzyme could not catalyse

two different reactions
Key concept:
Many of the options need only common sense to rule out
Key Concept:
You will be asked a number of questions on the nature and functioning of

enzymes. Here are some facts to learn:
I) Enzymes catalyse reactions using a lock and key mechanism. The sites are
specific to the desired substrates.
II) One enzyme can utilise more than one substrate and produce more
than one product.
III) Enzymes may need co-enzymes or cofactors to work. These are molecules
that must also be present if the reaction is to proceed, much like a dead lock on
a door.
IV) Enzymes can be inhibited by a number of mechanisms, the most common is

competitive inhibition where a molecule binds to the active site but does not
participate in the reaction so that the real substrate cannot physically bind.
V) If there is ample substrate but only a small amount of enzyme than the
enzyme is said to be rate limiting. This means that the rate of the entore
reaction series will depend on the concentration of enzyme.
VI) In most cases where there is an abundance of enzyme, the rate of reaction
will depend solely on the concentration of substrate.
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A) is incorrect because diagrams will never contradict the text, scientists just
aren’t tricky like that. B) is incorrect because any lay-man could look at the
diagram and see that there are two arrows leaving Lignin.
C) is correct using your general knowledge of enzymes.
5. Phanerochaete chrysosporium is a fungus and therefore:
a. Has a cell wall
b. Is a prokaryote
c. Always reproduce sexually
d. Always reproduce by budding or binary fission
Key concept:
Any option with “Always” or “Never” will almost never be the correct answer.
Key Concept:
At some point you will be asked about the characteristics that differentiate cells
of fungi, plants, bacteria and animals. Following are some important features:
Fungi
i) Eukaryotes – their cellular machinery is enclosed in membrane-bound

organelles (like animals and plants)
ii) Do not have chloroplasts so do not directly use the sun for energy but need
preformed organic molecules (like animals)
iii) Have cell walls (like bacteria)
iv) Reproduce both sexually and asexually, some using spores (like plants)
v) some can reproduce by budding and binary fission (unique)
Bacteria
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i) Prokaryotes – are pros at carrying their

organelles themselves in their cytoplasm
ii) Have cell walls – the make-up of which

determine if they are Gram positive or Gram
negative. Gram positive bacteria have a thick
peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall and will
retain the Gram stain in a lab.
iii) Reproduce asexually by binary fission.
iv) Are further classified by their form in any of the

shapes in the opposite diagram.
Plants
i) Eukaryotes - their cellular machinery is enclosed in membrane-bound

organelles
ii) Have Cell walls made of cellulose
iii) Have distinctive large fluid filled vacuoles
iv) Have plastids that contain chloroplasts that utilise the sun’s rays for energy
via photosynthesis
v) Reproduce both sexually and asexually
Animals
i) Eukaryotes - their cellular machinery is enclosed in membrane-bound

organelles
ii) Do not have cell walls, only cellular membranes
iii) Reproduce both sexually and asexually
iv) Do not have chloroplasts so do not directly use the sun for energy but need
preformed organic molecules
Osmosis
Cells cannot survive in an isolated state. They need to exchange

substances with the external immediate environment. This includes
taking nutrients in and eliminating wastes and other by-products of
metabolism. As a result of molecular motion, molecules move from
areas where they are concentrated to areas where they are less
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concentrated. Gradual changes in concentrations of molecules over

distance are called concentration gradients. The process of diffusion
depends on the existence of a concentration gradient.
Osmosis is diffusion through a selectively permeable membrane. In

general, water or the solvent molecules diffuse from the region of
low concentration of solute to the region of high concentration of
solute. Osmosis can be opposed by applying a pressure to the high
concentration region. It is a colligative property, that is depends
(directly) only on the number of molecules. (Quantified by a
property called the Vant Hoff factor.) If the external pressure is
higher than the internal pressure in a cell, it is said to be in a
hypertonic solution, the reverse is called a hypotonic solution. If
pressures are equal, the solution is called isotonic.
1) One of the following cells is in a hypotonic solution. Which?
A.
B.
C.
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D. None of these
Key Concept
Water loves ions, it will move between compartments so that it can smother
them completely. More particles bring in more water.
This is the reason that water moves across a semipermeable membrane from the
lowest concentration of solutes to the highest.
2) What is the approximate osmotic pressure for a 1 molar
Sodium Chloride solution at 27 degrees Celsius? (Hint:
Use PV=nRT, the universal gas law)
a. 25 atm
b. 30atm
c. 50 atm
d. 100 atm

PV=nRT,
P = pressure
n = number of moles product = 2
v = volume 1L
R = gas constant = 0.082
T = temperature = 27 + 273 = 300K
P x 1 = 1 x 0.082 x 300
P = 50atm
3) Which of the following medication/diagnosis techniques
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uses Osmosis?
a. Dialysis
b. ECG
c. CAT scan
d. The ELISA test
DNA and RNA

Restriction endonucleases are enzymes isolated from bacteria that recognize
and cleave specific DNA sequences. Restriction endonucleases protect the
bacterial cell from the invading phage DNA while protecting its own specific DNA
sequences through methylation. In genetic engineering, endonucleases are
routinely used for cloning and manipulation of DNA as well as mapping the
locations of restriction sites.
In an experiment, a 50 kb circular plasmid DNA was linearized on digestion with

the restriction enzyme NcoI. It was further digested with three different
restriction endonucleases, either singly or in combination. The restriction
enzymes used for digestion were Eco RI, BamHI and HindIII. The following
fragments were obtained on running the digestion on agarose gel
electrophoresis.
Restriction enzyme Fragment sizes
EcoRI 10 kb, 40 kb
BamHI 3 kb, 47 kb
HindIII 15 kb, 35 kb
EcoRI + BamHI 3 kb, 7 kb, 40 kb
EcoRI + HindIII 10 kb, 15 kb, 25 kb
BamHI + HindIII 3 kb, 15 kb, 32 kb
1. According to the data provided above, the most probable restriction map
for the plasmid is:
NcoI EcoRI BamHI HindIII
NcoI
a) 10 7 15 15
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BamHI HindIII EcoRI BamHI NcoI

b) 3 7 10 15 15
NcoI BamHI EcoRI HindIII NcoI
3 7 25 15
c)
EcoRI HindIII BamHI

NcoI NcoI
d)
10 7 30 3
Key Concept
Biology is not a walk in the park.
You will notice that the sum of fragments cut by each enzye = 50kb
To construct the restriction map, take each enzyme individually at a time;
EcoRI gives a 10 and 40 kb band

BamHI gives a 3 and 47 kb band.
EcoRI + BamHI gives a 3,7 and 40kb
*notice that the EcoRI 10kb fragment has been cut in two by the BamHi 3kb
fragment. Thus Bamhi must be between the beginning and the first slice point.
NcoI BamHI EcoRI NcoI
3 7
EcoRI gives a 10 and 40 kb band

HindIII gives a 15 and 35 kb band
HindIII + EcoRI gives, 10 kb, 15 kb, 25 kb thus
Thus the 40kb band has been cut in two by the 15kb band from the right hand
side
NcoI BamHI EcoRI HindIII NcoI
3 7 25 15
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2. According to the above passage, which statement is true for

restriction endonucleases in a bacterial cell?
a) They degrade the bacterial chromosome into fragments for
proper replication
b) Restriction endonucleases recognize only non-methylated DNA
sequences
c) Restriction endonucleases act on sequences that are unique to
the phage DNA
d) Restriction endonucleases help the bacterial cell modify its
DNA sequence
(b). Restriction endonucleases cannot cleave DNA sequences that are

methylated. As mentioned in the paragraph, this is a protective strategy that
helps in selectively digesting phage DNA that is non methylated.
Inheritance
A certain breed of cats has 3 distinct coat patterns that are determined by
several genes that follow Mendellian patterns of inheritance. One gene controls
the length of the fir. Long hair is dominant, hetrozygotes have short hair and
homozygotes have no hair and do not survive birth.
1) Two short haired cats are bred a number of times. What is the
most likely proportion of offspring?
a. All short hair
b. 3 short : 1 long
c. 2 short : 1 long
d. 1 short : 3 long
Key concept – Mendellian Genetics
For a dominant trait T and recessive trait t,
Homozygote dominant = TT = dominant phenotype
Heterozygote = Tt = dominant or mixed phenotype
Homozygote recessive = tt = recessive phenotype
T t
T T Tt
T
t Tt tt
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e phentype ratio is 1:2
2) Another allele exists for fir colour. White hair colour is dominant
to grey. If a short haired grey coats was repeatedly crossed with a
short haired heterozygous white coat what would be the
percentage of short haired grey coats?
a. 20.0%
b. 25.0%
c. 33.3%
d. 66.6%
Key Concept
Punnet squares with two alleles are very similar to ordinary

punnet squares.
Just remember the law of independent segregation of Genes:
A parent of genotype TtWw can give gametes with: TW, Tw,

tW or tw
TW Tw tW tw
Tw TTWw TTww TtWw Ttww
tw TtWw Ttww ttWw ttww
Which of these would have phenotype long hair grey coats?
Short hair = Tt
Grey coats = ww
TW Tw tW tw
Tw TTWw TTww TtWw Ttww
tw TtWw Ttww ttWw ttww
Remember the tt’s all die
So 2 of 6 possibilities will be long haired grey coats.
= 33.3%
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Immune system
Immunity that exists prior to any exposure to a pathogen is called innate or
natural immunity. This type of immunity includes surface barriers or mucosal
immunity, natural flora, and phagocytes. For example, the skin acts as a surface
barrier to prevent external intrusions. Normal flora refers to the microbes that
naturally colonise the human body and live commensurably with humans.
Phagocytes refer to the white blood cells that engulf and destroy foreign
particles and dead cells in the body.
Another type of immunity in the human body is adaptive or acquired immunity.

Adaptive or acquired immunity is so called because it forms the part of the
immune system that can adapt or change according to the attacking antigen.
This type of immunity is provided by lymphocytes. Lymphocytes are produced in
the bone marrow and circulate in the body through the blood and lymphatic
system.
Lymphocytes are of two types, B cells and T cells. B cells generate antibodies
and are responsible humoral immunity, T cells do not generate antibodies and
are responsible for cell-mediated immunity.
1) Macrophages are leucocytes that attack dead cells and pathogens in the
body. Which of the following immune systems are they a part of?
a. surface barrier
b. natural flora
c. T cell
d. Phagocyte
D. Phagocyte. Phagocytes are the cells in the body that engulf and destroy
foreign particles and dead cells in the body. Macrophages are mature
phagocytes.
2) The mucosa in the stomach generates hydrochloric acid and enzymes that
kill several pathogens. Which type of immunity is this?
a. mucosal immunity
b. humoral immnunity
c. cell-mediated immunity
d. natural flora-based immunity
mucosal immunity. In mucosal immunity, the acids, enzymes, and mucous

generates in the body provide protection against most pathogens
3) Immunoglobulins are antibodies that can deactivate known pathogens by

causing cell lysis. Which type of immunity are they a part of?
a. mucosal immunity
b. humoral immnunity
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c. cell-mediated immunity
d. phagocytes
Homeostasis
Complex multicellular organisms such as humans have mechanisms that keep
the internal environment constant by preventing any changes in the external
environment from affecting the functions of the cellular enzymes. For this, the
cells are surrounded by extracellular fluids that include the fluid around the red
blood cells as well as the fluid around the tissues. These are further separated by
the skin from the external environment.
The constant state of the internal environment is called homeostasis.
In humans, the internal body or core temperature is maintained at around 37°C.

The core temperature is detected by certain nerve cells in the hypothalamus of
the brain. These cells act as temperature sensors and generate impulses
depending on the internal body temperature. The higher the temperature, the
greater the rate of the impulses. The skin is another temperature sensor that
sends signals to the brain when the external temperature changes.
When the core temperature changes, the brain sends signals to the body to
respond. For example, when the core temperature drops, the brain sends signals
for the muscles to shiver. This generates additional heat and raises the core
temperature.
When the external temperature changes, the brain receives nerve signals so that
we can adjust our behavior to cope with the change. For example, when the
external temperature drops, we respond by turning up the heater in the room.
1. Skin
2. Tissue Cell
3. Red Blood cells
4. Extracellular fluid
1) Which of the components shown in the diagram is a temperature sensor?
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e. 1
f. 2
g. 3
h. 4
2) Which of the components in the diagram assists in homeostatic

mechanisms?
a. 1
b. 1 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 4
Key Concept
A homeostatic mechanism keeps the internal environment constant by

preventing any changes in the external environment from affecting the functions
of the cellular enzymes.
b) Skin and Extracellular fluid. The skin and extracellular fluids form a physical
barrier between the external environment and cellular enzymes.
3) When the atmospheric temperature rises, which of the following is most

likely to happen?
a. The nerve cells in the hypothalamus generates impulses.
b. The brain sends signals so that the hair on the skin stands on its
ends.
c. The skin sends a message to the brain via nerves to activate the
sweat glands.
d. The extracellular fluids in the blood sends signals to the brain.
c) The skin is the external temperature sensor. It detects changes in the

atmospheric temperature and sends signals to the brain to respond.
4) A boy’s core temperature reaches 35°C. Which of the following is most

likely to happen?
a. His skin sends nerve signals to the brain.
b. The nerve cells in his hypothalamus generate impulses at a faster
rate.
c. His brain sends signals to skeletal muscles to start shivering.
d. Nothing happens.
c) When the body temperature fall below 37° the brain sends signals to the
muscles to start shivering to generate kinetic heat.
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Meitosis and meiosis

Lymphocytes are a type of white blood cell or leukocyte that occurs in two forms;
B-lymphocytes, which produce antibodies in the humoral immune response, and
T-lymphocytes, which participates in the cell-mediated immune response.
Lymphocytes extracted from the rat kangaroo, Potorous tridactylus, were grown
in culture for karyotype analysis (study of number of chromosomes at different
stages of cell division). To obtain chromosome spreads, such as that illustrated
below, lymphocytes were incubated in the antimitotic drug colchicine for 30
minutes before fixation and staining. The chromosomes depicted below are
representative of the karyotype found in all of the cells of the culture.
Definition: Kinetochores are the protein structures on chromosomes where

the spindle fibres attach during division to pull the chromosomes apart.
1) Which of the following correctly describes the chromosome number in this

rat kangaroo cell?
a. The haploid chromosome number is 12.
b. The haploid chromosome number is 24.
c. The diploid chromosome number is 12.
d. The diploid chromosome number is 24.
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Key Concept
Understand meitosis and meiosis
(C) The total number of diploid chromosomes in the figure is 12.
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Mitosis Meiosis
• Interval between division • Interval between division

Interphase • Cell enlarges • Cell enlarges
• DNA replicates • DNA replicates
• Chromatin condenses
o becomes visible chromosomes
• Chromatin condenses
o becomes visible chromosomes
o Duplicate sister chromatids are joined
o Duplicate sister chromatids are joined together at the centromere with homologous
together at the centromere chromosomes to form tetrads
Prophase • Centriole* pair divides, move to opposite • Crossing Over occurs &
ends and form spindle

• Centriole* pair divides, move to opposite
• Nuclear envelope# breaks down ends and form spindle
• Nuclear envelope# breaks down
Metaphase • 46 Chromosomes % align at the midline • 23 tetrads@ align at the midline

• Centromeres attach to spindle fibers • Centromeres attach to spindle fibers
• Centromeres split • Centromeres split

o Sister chromatids divide into identical o Homologous chromosomes separate,
chromosomes sister chromatids remain together
Anaphase • Spindle shortens • Spindle shortens
o Pulls chromosomes to opposite ends o Pulls chromosomes to opposite ends
• Cytokinesis: Cytoplasm divides • Cytokinesis: Cytoplasm divides

• Nuclear envelopes form • Nuclear envelopes form
Telophase • Spindle fibers disperse • Spindle fibers disperse
• Chromosomes uncoil and decondense
• Brief
Interphase II • Centrioloes replicate
• Centriole* pair divides, move to opposite

Prophase II ends and form spindle
• Nuclear envelope# breaks down
Metaphase • 23 chromosomes align at the midline

II • Centromeres attach to spindle fibers
• Centromeres split
o sister chromatids separate
Anaphase II • Spindle shortens
o Pulls chromosomes to opposite ends
• Cytokinesis: Cytoplasm divides

• Nuclear envelopes form
Telophase II • Spindle fibers disperse
• Chromosomes uncoil and decondense
2 daughter cells 4 daughter cells

RESULT: diploid chromosomes Haploid chromosomes
2) During anaphase, how many kinetochores would be expected in a normal

rat kangaroo lymphocyte?
a. 12
b. 18
c. 24
d. 36
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3) During S phase, DNA synthesis originates at specific sequences in the

chromosomal DNA. How many sites for initiation of DNA synthesis would
be expected among the chromosomes within the rat kangaroo karyotype
during S phase?
a. Fewer than 12
b. 12
c. Between 12 and 24
d. More than 24
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PassGamsat Science Course Handout Questions

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PassGAMSAT’s Live

15-16 January 2011

Physical chemistry ................................................................................................3

Gas properties and phases...............................................................................10

Acids and bases, disassociation constant.........................................................12

Organic Reactions and equilibrium...................................................................27

Kinetics and energy..........................................................................................36

Gases, liquids and solids ..................................................................................38

Magnetism and vectors....................................................................................41

Meitosis and meiosis.........................................................................................61

Basic atomic structure and periodicity

∆Tf = Kfm ∆Tf = the change in freezing point,

Kf = the molal freezing point depression

= 1.86oc per mol per kg for water

m = moles per kg of solvent

1) 50g of a non-electrolyte solute is added to 1000g of water. The

1 mole = 6.022 x 1023molecules

This question is much easier than it seems.

**First fill what you know**

50g = 0.2688 moles 

2) Which of the following is true?

a. 1 mole MgCl2 will make the same ∆Tf as 1 mole of NaCl

b. 2 mole NaCl will make the same ∆Tf as 1 mole of NaCl

c. 1 mole of AlCl3 will make the same ∆Tf as 2 mole of NaCl

d. 2 mole NaCl will make the same ∆Tf as 1 mole of MgCl2

Some reactions require an input of energy to take place, others occur

2.303log10 k2 = Ea T2 – T1 R = The gas constant 8.31 J mol-1KK

1. On the above figure, if the reactants and products are

a. The solid line

b. The dashed line

A catalyst is a substance that lowers the activation energy

You should be able to recognise immediately that the reaction represented by

2. The activation energy of the reaction represented by the

solid line is represented in the figure by:

By the definition of activation energy, the answer is c)

3. If the rate of reaction is 100 times faster when performed at

**First fill in what you know**

2.303log10 k2 = Ea T2 – T1 R = The gas constant 8.31 J mol-1KK

2.303log10(100) = Ea 313.15 - 303.15

Ea = 2.303 xx 1200 x 8.31 ÷ 10 = 363,358 J = 363kJ

a. Endothermic because E3 – E1 is positive

b. Endothermic because E3 – E4 is negative

c. Exothermic because E1 – E4 is negative

d. Exothermic because E4 – E3 is negative

Energy released or gained can be determined by looking at:

the final free energy – initial free energy

In our example Initial free energy = E3

and final free energy = E4

Thus energy change or ∆G = E4 – E3

This means that it is exothermic.

5. In one particular reaction, the reaction rate increases by a

This is a skip-until-the-end-of-the-exam-question. Only the top 1% of entrants will

Step 1: isolate the variable that you want to get rid of

Step 3: Solve for x 2x+y = 5 becomes y = 5-2x

Substitute into 1st equation

For equation (1):

For equation (2)

2 x T1T2 = C (T2 – T1)

Gas properties and phases

V/n = C1 where C1 is a constant

Just use your algebra

** First fill in what you know**

** First fill in what you know**

First fill what you know

First fill in what you know

First fill in what you know

First fill in what you know

First fill in what you know