CHAPTER 1

1. In Mintzberg’s view, the roles of figurehead, leader, and liaison are all interpersonal roles. T

2. Disturbance handler is one of Mintzberg’s interpersonal roles. F

3. A typical first-level manager spends more of his or her time leading than planning. T

4. All managers devote at least some of their time to planning. T

5. A manager in a large business generally will spend more of her time as a spokesperson
and entrepreneur than her counterpart in a small business. F

6. Today, the basic management functions are considered to be ________. planning,

organizing, leading, and controlling

7. The controlling management function is largely a matter of ________. monitoring to see

that tasks are accomplished.

8. Organizing includes ________. determining who does what tasks

9. Resolving a conflict would be considered to fall under which managerial function? leading

10. Giving a speech at an organization banquet would fall into which Mintberg category?
interpersonal

11. A pharmaceutical company manager attending a meeting of academic scientists would be

functioning in which role? liaison

12. All of the following are examples of informational roles according to Mintberg EXCEPT
________. entrepreneur

13. Unlike the manager of a small business, the most important concerns of a manager in a
large organization are focused ________. internally, particularly on the allocation of
resources

14. Which of the following would networking be most likely to help a manager accomplish?
building a power base

15. Companies that are well managed can prosper during difficult economic times by
depending on ________. a loyal customer base

16. Which of the following is a factor in today’s tough economic climate that managers do
NOT need to deal with? Employees who are not eager to work
17. Brenda Kraft has proven herself to be an able manager. Her section has a high project
completion rate with the highest-quality product and the lowest defects in her division. In
addition, she accomplishes this with fewer full-time people than other managers. Co-workers
say that the secret of her success is in her ability to delegate responsibility and her
understanding of the basic “management processes.”

Brenda’s high project completion rate indicates that she is ________. an effective manager

18. Brenda Kraft has proven herself to be an able manager. Her section has a high project
completion rate with the highest-quality product and the lowest defects in her division. In
addition, she accomplishes this with fewer full-time people than other managers. Co-workers
say that the secret of her success is in her ability to delegate responsibility and her
understanding of the basic “management processes.”

If Brenda accomplished her projects on time with high-quality results, but she took more time
than other managerss in the process, you could say that as a manager she was ________.
effective, but not efficient

19. As a production supervisor, Joe determines the number of output units his department will
produce each week. On Monday, he informs his team that the schedule is going to be difficult
this week due to the increased number of output units. He goes on to tell them that he is
confident that they can fulfill the schedule because they are tough, and talented, and “when
the going gets tough, they are the ones who get going.” Each day during the week, Joe
checks the amount of output that the employees have completed and the number of units that
have been rejected.

When Joe decides the number of output units his team will be able to produce this week,
which of the management processes is he performing? planning

CHAPTER 1 (cont.)

1. The four contemporary management processes are planning, organizing, leading, and
commanding. F

2. Determining who reports to whom is part of the controlling function of management. F

3. Providing motivation is part of the controlling function of management. F

4. Defining goals is a key part of the organizing function of management. F

5. Deciding who will be assigned to which job is a part of the leading function of management.
T
 CHAPTER 1 (cont.)

1. An organization is ________. a group of individuals focused on profit-making for their

shareholders

2. All organizations have ________ which define(s) the organization's purpose and reason for
existing. goals

3. Which of the following is a key difference between managerial and nonmanagerial

employees? nonmanagerial employees do not oversee the work of others

4. The primary job of a manager is to ________. direct and oversee the work of others

5. One of the common characteristics of all organizations is ________ that define(s) rules,
regulations, and values of the organization. a systematic structure

6. The work of a manager ________. may involve performing tasks that are not related to
overseeing others

7. Supervisor is another name for which of the following? first-line manager

8. Which of the following types of managers is responsible for making organization-wide

decisions and establishing the plans and goals that affect the entire organization? top
manager

8. Which is an important job responsibility for a middle manager? translating goals defined
by top managers into action

9. All levels of management between the supervisory level and the top level of the
organization are termed ________. middle managers

10. Which of the following levels of management is associated with positions such as
executive vice president, chief operating officer, chief executive officer, and chairperson of the
board? top managers

11. Another term for efficiency is ________. doing things right

12. Which of the following might be an example of increased efficiency in manufacturing?

cutting the amount of labor required to make the product

13. Another term for effectiveness is ________. doing the right things

14. Effectiveness is synonymous with ________. goal attainment

15. Efficiency refers to ________. the relationship between inputs and outputs

16. Good management strives for ________. high efficiency and high effectiveness

17. A candy manufacturer would increase both efficiency and effectiveness by making
________. better candy at a lower cost

18. A candy manufacturer that made candy at a lower cost without improving the quality of the
candy could be said to ________. increase efficiency without increasing effectiveness

19. Which of the following identifies a manager who does NOT typically supervise other
managers? shift manager
 CHAPTER 4
1. The second step in the decision-making process is identifying a problem. F

2. A decision criterion defines factors that are relevant in a decision. T

3. Managers identify a problem by comparing the current state of affairs to some standard. T

4. All criteria are equally important in the decision-making process. F

5. The final step of the decision-making process is to implement the alternative that has been
selected. F

6. One assumption of bounded rationality is that managers can analyze all relevant
information about all alternatives for a situation. F

7. A synonym for the word satisfice is maximize. F

8. Intuitive decision making is systematic, logical, and orderly. T

9. Programmed decisions tend to be routine. T

10. Group decisions tend to provide more complete information than individual decisions. F

11. An advantage of group decisions is that they increase the perception of the legitimacy of
the solution. T

12. Groups tend to be more efficient and less effective than individual decision making. T

13. A country with high uncertainty avoidance and high power distance is more likely to
engage in groupthink than a country with low uncertainty avoidance and low power distance.T

14. Which of the following defines a problem in the decision-making process? a discrepancy
between what exists and what the decision maker desires to exist

15. The decision-making process consists of a series of eight steps that identify a problem
and work toward ultimately ________. solving the problem

16. A manager can faithfully execute the decision-making process, but still end up with
nothing of value if ________. he fails to identify the correct problem

17. A manager is considering purchasing new computers for her department. The manager
spends time assessing the computers her department now has. Which stage of the decision-
making process is she going through? identification of a problem
18. A manager is determining what kind of new computers she should purchase for her
department. She has made a list of five different computer models for consideration. Which
stage of the decision-making process is this? development of alternatives

19. After purchasing new computers for her department, a manager is now comparing the
performance of the new computers to the computers they replaced. Which stage of the
decision-making process is she carrying out? evaluation of decision effectiveness

20. In allocating weights to the decision criteria, which of the following is most helpful to
remember? assign the most important criterion a score, and then assign weights
against that standard

21. The three main models that managers use to make decisions are ________. rational,
bounded rational, and intuitive

22. It is assumed that in most cases, the decisions of all managers are limited by ________.
not being able to analyze all information for all alternatives

23. Which term best characterizes a decision that has bounded rationality? good enough

24. Which of the following is the best definition for the word satisfice? accepts a less than
perfect solution

25. A person who satisfices fails to ________. maximize his or her decision

26. Escalation of commitment can occur when people don't ________. want to admit that an
earlier decision was flawed

27. Which of the following is NOT a way in which intuition guides people who are making
decisions? intution provides a formal analysis method

28. Emotions and feelings ________ decision making. can improve

29. Structured problems are ________. clear and straightforward

30. Unstructured problems are ________. situations in which all options are not known

31. Which of the following is an example of a structured problem? deciding shipping

options for a vacuum cleaner

32. Structured problems typically have ________ while unstructured problems typically have
________. only one solution; many solutions

33. Programmed decisions work well for solving ________. structured problem
34. Which of the following is NOT a type of programmed decision? brainstorm

35. Top managers in an organization tend to ________. make nonprogrammed decisions

36. A top manager is most likely to solve problems under which condition? uncertainty

37. The eight steps of decision making ________. can be employed by individuals and
groups

38. One advantage of group decision making is that it usually provides ________ than
individual decision making. more information

39. Which of the following is a drawback to seeking diverse views in decision making? more
time consuming

40. Groups decisions are usually ________ individual decisions. less efficient than

41. Which of the following is the most effective number of people to have in a group? 5-7

42. Which of the following is used to exclusively generate creative ideas in a group setting?
brainstorming

43. Which of the following group techniques allows group members to meet together, but at
the same time facilitates independent decision making? nominal group technique

44. Lucia needed help. Her insurance company's rapid growth was necessitating making
some IT changes, but what changes? Should they modify the servers that they currently
used, or purchase an entirely new system? Sondra was confused and needed help in making
the correct decision.

Lucia has decided to collect information about the features the company needs for its system.
Which stage of the decision-making process is she carrying out? identify decision criteria

45. Lucia needed help. Her insurance company's rapid growth was necessitating making
some IT changes, but what changes? Should they modify the servers that they currently
used, or purchase an entirely new system? Sondra was confused and needed help in making
the correct decision.
Lucia has determined that the speed of the system she settles on is twice as important as the
capacity of the system. Which stage of the decision-making process is she carrying out?
implementing the alternative
 CHAPTER 5
1. Planning provides direction to managers and nonmanagers alike. T

2. A key function of planning is to create goals. T

3. The four reasons that organizations plan is to provide direction, set standards, minimize
waste, and reduce uncertainty and the impact of change. T

4. Planning rarely improves teamwork and cooperation among employees. F

5. An organization that fails to plan will find it hard to assess progress. T

6. Strategic management is the act of figuring out how an organization will compete in the
marketplace and attract loyal customers. T

7. The first step in the strategic management process is analyzing the external environment. F

8. A mission statement for a kayak manufacturer might be: To make the highest-quality
kayaks and sell them at a competitive price. T

9. An external analysis will identify the threats to a company's well-being, but not opportunities
for success. F

10. Core competencies include an organization's major capabilities and its resources. F

11. Capabilities are "what" an organization has; resources are "how" it uses what it has. F

12. SWOT analysis includes the identification of an organization's strengths, weaknesses,

opportunities, and threats. T

13. The final three steps in the strategic management process involve the creation and
implementation of strategies for realizing organizational goals. T

14. Which of the following is NOT a function of planning? setting disputes between
employees

15. Planning is concerned with ________. both ends and means

16. Which of the following is NOT a reason for managers to plan? to establish
responsibility for mistakes

17. Planning gives organizations direction that primarily helps them ________. improve
teamwork and coordinate activities
18. Planning gives organizations a way to deal with change that ________. reduces
uncertainty

19. Organizations that don't formally plan may be more likely to have ________. multiple
departments performing the same task

20. One effect of planning on managers is that it forces them to ________. anticipate and
consider the effect of change

21. Managers who fail to plan may ________. be adversely affected by change

22. The first step in the six-step strategic management process is to ________. identify the
organization’s mission

23. The first three steps of the strategic management process involve ________ strategies.
planning

24. A mission statement does NOT include which of the following? strategy for success

25. An external analysis, the second step of the strategic management process, helps identify
________. a company’s opportunities and threats

26. An internal analysis, the third step of the strategic management process, helps identify
________. resources and capabilities

27. Which term refers to an organization's capital, workers, and patents? resources

28. An organization's resources identify ________. what the organization has

29. An organization's capabilities identify ________. what the organization can do

30. SWOT analysis combines ________. external and internal analyses

CHAPTER 5 (cont.)

1. Goals are documents that outline how plans are to be carried out. T

2. Traditional goal setting requires top managers to set goals that are carried out by the
organizational levels below. T

3. The key to MBO, or management by objectives, is that managers and subordinates

mutually agree on goals. T

4. Goals typically should be reserved for managers only. Goals should not be shared with
subordinates. F
5. Long-term plans used to refer to plans that covered a period of over three years, but now it
refers to any time period over one year. F

6. A six-month plan qualifies as a short-term plan. T

7. Directional plans leave no room for interpretation. F

8. In general, upper-level managers focus on tactical or operational planning. F

9. Buying a competitor's product for evaluation is a form of environmental scanning. T

10. Which of the following is NOT a function of planning? setting disputes between
employees

11. Planning is concerned with ________. both ends and means

12. Which of the following best defines plans? documents that describe how goals will be
met

13. Which of the following best defines goals? desired outcomes for the future

14. In most cases, strategic goals include ________. all objectives that are not financial

15.________ are important because they provide the standards against which all
organizational accomplishments are measured. goals

16. In traditional goal setting, these individuals set goals. top managers

17. In traditional goal setting, as they work their way from top management to employees,
goals are likely to ________. become less clear

18. In management by objectives (MBO), goals ________. are jointly determined by

employees and managers

19. MBO programs are usually successful largely because they ________. give employees a
sense of ownership of goals

20. The breadth of a plan refers to ________ concerns. strategic versus tactical

21. The specificity of a plan refers to ________ concerns. specific versus directional

22. Strategic plans address ________. overall organization goals

23. Tactical plans are operational plans that identify ________. how overall goals are to be
achieved

24. Which of the following defines the time frame of a long-term plan? over three years
25. Directional plans ________. are flexible general guidelines

26. Top managers, for the most part, focus on this type of planning. strategic

27. The more uncertain a situation is, the more ________ plans must be. flexible

28. Which of the following is NOT something that a company would be likely to do as a part of
a competitive intelligence program? buy stock in a competitor’s company

29. Imagine that you are the president of ALUMINA, a successful chain of 10 take-away
coffee shops. The success you have experienced in the last 4 years has you thinking of what
to do with the business next. Should you expand the business at the current rate? Open new
and different stores? What?
Until now, your success has been based on selling high-quality products at a reasonable price
that others can't match. Your business is pursuing which of strategies of Porter? cost
leadership strategy

30. For a limited time, ALUMINA is thinking of coming out with a new food chain that caters
super-hot food for customers. Serving to the small segment (niche) of the market that likes
really super-hot food is an example of a ________. focus strategy
 CHAPTER 6
1. There are four basic elements in organizational structure. F

2. Departmentalization is a how jobs are grouped. T

3. Staff authority is the ability to direct the work of any employee who does not have a higher
rank in the organization. F

4. Grouping jobs on the basis of major product areas is termed customer departmentalization.
F

5. Line authority can be exerted only after a manager checks with his or her superior. F

6. Power is a right that a manager has when he or she has a higher rank in an organization. F

7. When decisions tend to be made at lower levels in an organization, the organization is said
to be centralized. F

8. Organizational design requires a manager to ________. change or develop the structure

of an organization

9. All of the following are part of the process of organizational design EXCEPT ________.
determine goals for the organization

10. Which of the following is synonymous with work specialization? division of labor

11. Which statement accurately defines work specialization? individual employees

specialize in doing part of an activity rather than the entire activity

12.________ departmentalization is based on territory or the physical location of employees

or customers. geographic

13. A soap company that features a bath soap department, a laundry detergent department,
and a dish soap department is using which of the following? product departmentalization

14. What kind of departmentalization would be in place in a government agency in which

there are separate departments that provide services for employers, employed workers,
unemployed workers, and the disabled? customer

15. The chain of command answers this question. who reports to whom?

16. Staff managers have authority over ________. special support employees only

17. Line authority gives a manager the ability to direct the work of ________. any
subordinate
18.________ prevents a single employee from getting conflicting orders from two different
superiors. unity of command

19. ________ is the obligation or expectation to perform a duty. responsibility

20. The personal secretary of a top manager may have ________. power but not authority

21.________ is the power that arises when a person is close to another person who has great
power and authority. referent power

22. Modern managers find that they can ________ if their employees are experienced, well-
trained, and motivated. decrease their span of control

23. A traditional "top down" organization is ________ organization. a largely centralized

24.________ reflects the degree to which decision making is distributed through out the
hierarchy rather than concentrated at the top. decentralization

25. Mike the Shedd (Scenario)

Mike Shedd graduated from university and was hired by a company that manufactured parts
for the automotive industry. In the organization, its employees on the assembly line seemed
not interested in work, they got bored, and their motivation was low. Mike's employer decided
to try to reorganize the organization in order to increase productivity. During his career, Mike
will see his job change from an engineer to a more complex job assignment.
The jobs of assembly-line employees are to be changed to allow more tasks to be done by
individual workers. This is a reduction in ________. work specialization

CHAPTER 6 (CONT.)

1. A mechanistic organization is bureaucratic and hierarchical. T

2. An organic organization tends to be flexible and have few formal rules. T

3. Innovators need the efficiency, stability, and tight controls of a mechanistic structure rather
than an organic structure. F

4. The stability of a mechanistic structure seems to work best in today's dynamic and
uncertain business environment. F

5. The strength of a simple system is that everything depends on a single person. F

6. A strength of a functional structure is that it avoids duplication. F

7. A weakness of the divisional structure is that duplication tends to occur. T

8. In a team structure, team members are not held responsible for their decisions. F

9. When an employee in a matrix structure finishes a project, she goes back to her functional
department. T

10. When an employee in a project structure finishes a project, he goes back to his original
department. F

11. Today's managers are moving away from formalization and trying to be this. more flexible

12. A(n) ________ organization has a high degree of specialization, formalization, and
centralization. mechanistic

13. Which of the following would likely be found in mechanistic organizations? standardized
jobs

14. A(n) ________ organization is able to change rapidly as needs require. organic

15. Which term best describes an organic organization? flexible

16. Which word best characterizes a mechanistic organization? hierarchical

17. A company that is pursuing a cost leadership strategy would be most likely to have this
kind of structure. mechanistic

18. A company that is trying to be a leader in innovation within its industry would be most
likely to have this kind of structure. organic

19. The greater the environmental uncertainty, the more an organization needs to become
________. organic

20. Traditional organizational designs tend to be more mechanistic and include ________.
simple, functional, and divisional structures

21. What is a strength of a simple structure? accountability is clear

22. This is a key characteristic in an organization with a functional structure.

departmentalization

23. A media company that has separate, autonomous companies for movies, TV, Internet, and
print journalism is most likely a ________ structure. divisional

24. A media company that has separate, autonomous companies for movies, TV, Internet, and
print journalism is most likely a ________ structure. divisional
 CHAPTER 7
1. Human resource management involves training, motivating, and retaining competent
employees. T

2. Human resource management is about hiring and firing only. F

3. Employment planning includes two steps: assessing current human resources needs and
developing a plan to meet those needs. T

4. A job description states the minimum qualifications a person needs to perform a job
successfully. F

5. Increased demand for employees typically is associated with increased demand for the
products or services offered by an organization. T

6. Advertisements have been shown to be the most effective method for identifying the best
applicants for jobs. F

7. Employee referrals are usually reliable. T

8. Firing, layoffs, furloughs, and early retirements are the only three downsizing options. F

9. An accept error involves not hiring an employee who could have performed well in a job. F

10. Behavioral interviews involve placing an applicant in stressful circumstances and seeing
how he or she deals with the situation. T

11. Important goals of job orientation are to reduce anxiety and to familiarize the recruit with
the job and the organization. T

12. Most job training does not take place on the job. F

13. The best way to measure the effectiveness of job training is to find out how stressful the
process was for trainees. F

14. A strength of a written essay as an employee appraisal device is that it allows the writing
skill of the evaluator to be a determining factor in the appraisal of performance. F

15. The most popular and effective employee appraisal device is the graphic rating scale
approach. F

16. The 360-degree appraisal includes an evaluation from the person who is being
evaluated.T
17. Sexual harassment is defined as any unwanted activity of a sexual nature that affects an
individual's employment. T

18. The first three activities of the human resource management (HRM) process are about
________. planning

19. For the most part, ________ are involved in HR decisions within their own department or
unit. all managers are

20. This is the goal of employment planning. selecting competent employees

21. The first step in any employment planning process involves making a ________. human
resource inventory

22. The lengthy process by which a job is examined in detail in order to identify the skills,
knowledge and behaviors necessary to perform the job is known as a ________. job
analysis

23. As one of his first tasks in a new job, Steve's boss asks him to develop a database that
lists the educational level, special capabilities, and specialized skills of all the employees in
his firm. This is known as a ________. human resource inventory

24. A job description is ________. a written document used to describe a job to job
candidates

25. A job specification is ________. a list of job qualifications only

26. HR managers can estimate human resource needs by evaluating which of the following?
demand for the organization's product

27. To find out more about a job with a title of "assistant media buyer," you would find this to
be most helpful. job description

28. Recruitment is the process of ________. locating, identifying, and attracting potential
employees

29. This is a key disadvantage to recruiting through employee referrals. no diversity

increase

30. Which of the following is an advantage of using private employment agencies for
recruiting? careful screening of applicants

31. If employment planning shows a large surplus of employees, management may want to
________. downsize
32. The difference between firing and layoffs is that ________. layoffs are not permanent

33. A reject error occurs when an applicant ________. who is not hired would have
performed well on the job

34. Asking a candidate for an automotive mechanic's position to deconstruct and reconstruct
part of an engine motor would be an example of what kind of selection device? performance-
simulation test

35. In an assessment center, an applicant for an engineering job might ________. be given
an engineering problem to solve

36. All of the following are goals of the orientation process EXCEPT ________. discuss
payments and benefits

37. Organizational orientation informs a new employee about ________. the history and
philosophy of the organization

38. A performance appraisal method that combines two other well-known methods into one
process is called ________. BARS

39. Health insurance is an example of which of the following? employee benefit

40. Frances begins her career working in the human resources department of a major
corporation. She is asked to help ensure that the organization is following the federal
guidelines for employment. (1) Prior to setting up the interviews for the executive position,
Frances spent a great deal of time analyzing the position and determining what skills,
attitudes, and actions it would require. This lengthy review is called a ________. job analysis

41. (2) To respond to a candidate for the executive position who wants to know more about
the job, Frances is likely to send which of the following? job description

42. Keena's company was expanding. After a period of downsizing, the company had decided
to increase organizational profitability by gaining market share, which meant a need for more
people. As assistant manager of human resources, she was in the process of evaluating what
would be the most effective means of gaining new employees who were qualified, were cost
efficient, and could help maintain the company's commitment to a diversified workforce. (1) To
reach the largest possible audience, Keena should consider ________ as a source of
potential candidates. advertisements

43. With regard to cost to HRM, which choice would probably be best for Keena? internal
search
44. Keena's company needs to increase the diversity of its workforce. Which choice might this
requirement rule out? employee referral

CHAPTER 11
1. Motivation is a process that leads to a goal. T

2. The direction of an individual's motivation can be channeled to benefit ________. both

individuals and/or organizations

3. Maslow's theory is a hierarchy because ________. needs are satisfied sequentially

4. Maslow sees food as being on the same level of need as which of the following? sex

5. According to Maslow, a person stranded on a desert island would ________ before she
worried about making weapons. build a house

6. Maslow believes that higher-order needs ________. are satisfied internally

7. The key to motivation, according to Maslow, is to identify ________. a person’s level in

the needs hierarchy

8.________ assumes that employees have little ambition, dislike work, and avoid
responsibility. Theory X

9. Theory Y assumes that people inherently ________. want to control their own destiny

10. Theory X assumes that people work hard ________. only when they are forced

11. Theory X assumes that people work hard ________. only when they are forced

12. A manager with a Theory X view of human nature would ________. be unlikely to allow
workers to work independently

13. Workers with a Theory X point of view would be likely to respond to ________ best. fear
of losing their job

14. Workers with a Theory Y point of view would be likely to ________. love their job more
than the money they make

15. According to Herzberg, which kind of characteristics are most closely associated with job
dissatisfaction? extrinsic things that come from the outside
16. According to Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene theory, ________ are associated with job
satisfaction. motivators

17. According to Herzberg, which of the following is considered a motivator? responsibility

18. According to Herzberg, favorable hygiene factors can cause an employee to feel
________. not dissatisfied

19. According to Herzberg, the opposite of the state of being satisfied is ________. not
satisfied

20. According to Herzberg, when an extremely dissatisfied employee gets an improved salary
and working conditions, he ________. becomes less dissatisfied and his motivation is
unaffected

21. According to Herzberg, what controls satisfaction and motivation? intrinsic factors

22. According to Herzberg, hygiene factors ________. control dissatisfaction but not
satisfaction

23. According to Herzberg, in order to provide employees with job satisfaction, managers
should concentrate on ________. achievement and recognition

24. Which of the following holds that intrinsic factors are related to job satisfaction, and
extrinsic factors are related to job dissatisfaction? Herzberg's motivation-hygiene theory

25. Which of the following is true of the three early theories of motivation? only McGregor
focuses on human nature

26. Which three needs are recognized in McClelland's three-needs theory? achievement,
power, affiliation

27. Which of the following suggests that humans have an innate desire for friendly and close
interpersonal relationships? need for affiliation

28. You would expect a successful inventor of a new type of heart valve to have a high
________. nAch

29. Successful managers tend to have this more than any other trait. high nPow

30. Successful managers tend to be better at ________. helping others achieve goals
rather than themselves

31. Which is the best summary of goal-setting theory? specific goals increase performance
32. Setting goals definitely seems to ________. increase performance and motivation

33. In goal-setting theory, which of the following is the best kind of feedback? self-feedback

34. The job characteristics model (JCM) maintains that ________ is critical to motivating
workers. how jobs are designed

35. The JCM contends that ________ are required in meaningful work. skill variety, task
identity, and task significance

36. The JCM contends that these dimensions are required for a high level of motivation
among workers. meaningful work, autonomy, feedback

37. In the JCM, motivation and satisfaction increase when this is true. The employee cares
about the task.

38. A theory that suggests that employees compare their inputs and outputs from a job to the
ratio of relevant others is known as ________. equity theory

39. Equity theory recognizes that individuals are concerned with ________. comparing their
rewards to those of others

40. Equity theory uses the ratio of output you get out of your job to the amount of ________.
input you put into your job

41. Overrewarded inequity exists when one's own outcomes-to-input ratio ________ that of
the referent. is greater than

42. In equity theory, an underrewarded individual is likely to ________. lack motivation

because she does not receive enough reward for what she does

43. The second variable in expectancy theory requires the worker to ask him- or herself: If I
perform at a given level, how likely is it that I will ________? attain the reward or outcome I
am looking for

44. In expectancy theory, a person may have the ability to reach a certain goal, but lack
motivation because ________. the person has no strong desire to reach the goal

45. A key element of expectancy theory might be summarized by saying ________. everyone
is motivated by something different

46. The key to expectancy theory is that an individual's goals ________. match the rewards
provided by the organization
47. If salespeople in John's company meet their sales goals for the month, they are given an
all-expense-paid trip to a Denver Broncos football game. Football is not one of John's favorite
sports, and the Denver Broncos are definitely not John's favorite team. John's performance
might be influenced by the ________ part of Vroom's expectancy theory. attractiveness

48. The integrated model for motivation (Exhibit 10-9, page 277) features the following basic
sequence. effort → performance → rewards → individual goals

49. The JCM is seen in the integrated model of motivation in that jobs that are designed
around the five JCM dimensions ________. increase motivation because the worker
enjoys the work and autonomy it provides

50. Which of the following is thought to best motivate professionals? challenging problems
and important work

CHAPTER 14
1. Control is the process of monitoring and evaluating activities to ensure that they are being
accomplished as planned. T

2. The criterion that determines the effectiveness of a control system is how well it reduces
unnecessary costs. F

3. Control is the only managerial function that allows managers to make sure that
organizational goals are being met T

4. The value of the control function lies in three areas: planning, organizing, and motivating. F

5. An effective control system can help managers delegate authority to employees with
confidence. T

6. The control function is not intended to protect the organization from threats. F

7. Motivation and leadership are two primary parts of the control function. F

8. Controlling provides a critical link back to planning that compares actual outcomes to
planned outcomes. T

9. The control process is a two-step process that measures and compares. F

10. Budgets can be effective tools for both planning and controlling. T
 CHAPTER 14 (CONT.)

1. The control management function ensures that ________ in an organization. goals are
met

2. A major part of the controlling function of management is to ________. correct

performance problems

3. The more a control system helps an organization ________, the more successful it is
judged to be. meet its goals

4. The value of the controlling function is seen in three specific areas: planning, ________.
empowering employees, and protecting the workplace

5. Controlling is the ________ in the management process. final step

6. Controlling compares ________ to see if goals are being achieved. actual performance to
planned performance

7. Effective controlling can help managers who are afraid to delegate authority ________.
empower their employees

8. The controlling function helps managers protect an organization's ________. assets

9. The first step in the control process is to ________. measure actual performance

10. Managers always use these for performance standards during the control process. goals
created during the planning process

11. A manager measuring actual performance is like a teacher ________. grading a test

12. MBWA stands for management by ________. walking around

13. An advantage of management by walking around is ________. personal contact

14. Steve has a taped record of this one-on-one meeting with his boss. an oral report

15. Jessie's whole work section that consists of three work groups was assessed by this
method of performance measurement and informally judged to be "creative, innovative, hard-
working, and fun-loving." MBWA

16. These forms of performance measurement provide the best and most immediate forms of
feedback. MBWA and oral report

17. What managers choose to measure largely determines an organization's ________.

goals
18. The second step in the control process is to ________. compare performance against a
standard

19. To carry out the second step of the control process, managers at an electric shaver
company need to compare the number of actual shavers sold to ________. planning goals
for sales totals

20. In the second step of the control process, actual performance can be considered
acceptable as long as the performance doesn't fall ________. outside of an acceptable
range of variation

21. The third step in the control process is to ________. take action

22. After an extended period of unseasonably warm and sunny weather, revenues are down
sharply during the month of November at an indoor tennis club. The best strategy for the club
manager is to ________. do nothing

23. Due to a recent construction of an upscale housing community near a tennis club,
customer use has skyrocketed during the year and the club is operating at all-time high levels,
far beyond the goals set the previous year. The best strategy for the manager is to ________.
change goals for the following year

24. Immediate corrective action is designed ________. to get performance back on track

25. In many cases, immediate corrective action rather than basic corrective action is taken by
managers because they ________. lack time

26. When might a manager be justified in revising a standard rather than taking corrective
action to remedy a significant performance deviation? when the standard is unrealistic

27. Which kind of control takes place before the actual work is carried out? feedforward

28. A cell phone maker tests its new model with a sample audience when it is fully
operational. What kind of control is this? feedback control

29. Which kind of control takes place while the actual work is carried out? concurrent

30. Direct supervision of employees is a form of ________ control. concurrent

31. A comedy show producer has a read-through of a half-written show in which actors,
writers, producers, and the director are free to make comments and changes as the show
progresses. What kind of control is being used? concurrent control
32. A fast food restaurant is querying prospective customers about the features they would
like to see in a new panini sandwich. What kind of control is being used? feedforward
control

33. Which kind of control takes place after the actual work has been carried out? feedback

34. A basketball coach showing players how to position themselves on the court during
practice is carrying out ________, a form of concurrent control. direct supervision

35. An advantage of feedback control is that it improves ________. motivation

36. When a budget is formulated, it is being used as a(n) ________ tool. planning

MIDTERM QTH (QTH-FRI-PM)

1. Looking for ways to make their organization more flexible and innovative, today's managers
may choose this kind of structure. team

2. Theory Y assumes that people inherently ________. want to control their own destiny

3. The first step in the six-step strategic management process is to ________. identify the
organization's mission

4. The "calm waters" metaphor envisions an organization as ________. a large ship on a

calm sea

5.________ prevents a single employee from getting conflicting orders from two different
superiors. unity of command

6. The key to motivation, according to Maslow, is to identify ________. a person's level in

the needs hierarchy

7.________ reflects the degree to which decision making is distributed through out the
hierarchy rather than concentrated at the top. decentralization

8. The job characteristics model (JCM) maintains that ________ is critical to motivating
workers. setting goals
9. An external analysis, the second step of the strategic management process, helps identify
________. the long-term goals for a company

10. Traditional organizational designs tend to be more mechanistic and include ________.
simple, complex, and divisional structures

11. What is a weakness of a simple structure? reliance on a single person is risky

12. Supervisor is another name for which of the following? top manager

13. Another term for effectiveness is ________. doing the right things

14. According to Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene theory, ________ are associated with job
satisfaction. motivators

15. Which is the best summary of goal-setting theory? Specific goals increase
performance.

16. According to Herzberg, when an extremely dissatisfied employee gets an improved salary
and working conditions, he ________. becomes less dissatisfied and his motivation is
unaffected

17. Which of the following best defines plans? documents that describe how goals will be
met

18. The personal secretary of a top manager may have ________. power but not authority

19. The control management function ensures that ________ in an organization. goals are
met

20. A major part of the controlling function of management is to ________. correct

performance problems