Ib Acio Decdoing With Cover Page 1

IB ACIO Recruitment 2023: Overview
Intelligence Bureau has released 995 vacancies for the post of ACIO recently. For the convenience of aspirants, we
have provided a table below that compiles all the crucial details related to IB ACIO Recruitment 2023.
IB ACIO Recruitment 2023: Overview
Recruitment Organization Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Post Name Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (ACIO) Grade-II Executive
Advt No. IB ACIO Grade-II/ Executive Examination 2023
Vacancies 995
Job Location All India
Last Date to Apply 15 December 2023
Mode of Apply Online
Age Limit: 18 to 27 Years
Eligibility
Education Qualification: Graduation
IB ACIO Salary 2023 Rs. 44,900/- to 1,42,400/
Official Website mha.gov.in
IB ACIO Vacancy Trend

Year No. of Vacancies
2023 995
2020 2000
2017 1300
2014 750
IB ACIO Cut Off Trend

IB ACIO 2017 Tier 1 Cut Off
Category IB ACIO Cut Off Marks (Out of 100)
UR 65
OBC 60
SC 50
ST 50
IB ACIO 2017 Tier 2 Cut Off

UR 30
OBC 25
SC 20
ST 20
1 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

IB ACIO 2015 Tier 1 Cut off
UR 75
OBC 70
SC 65
ST 65
IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Application Fee

The category-wise application and the processing fee to apply online for IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 are given
below in this table. The candidates can make the payment through online mode via Debit Card, Credit Card, UPI etc.
Category Recruitment Processing Fee Application Fee Total Fees
All Candidates Rs. 450/- Nil Rs. 450/-
General, EWS, OBC (Male Candidates) Rs. 450/- Rs. 100/- Rs. 550/-
IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Eligibility Criteria

The eligibility criteria to apply for the post of 995 vacancies for the post of Assistant Central Intelligence Officer
(ACIO) Grade-II Executive is tabulated below. Failing to satisfy the eligibility criteria will lead to the disqualification
of the application form at any stage of the recruitment process.
IB ACIO Age Limit

The minimum age of the candidates who wish to apply for the IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 must be 18 years.
However, the age relaxations to the upper age limits are provided to the applicants as per the laws of the
government. Read the table below to check the details.
Category Age Relaxation
SC/ST 05 Years
OBC 03 Years
IB ACIO Educational Qualification

• The candidates who wish to apply for the Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (ACIO) Grade-II Executive is
graduated degree or its equivalent from a recognized university. Additionally, as mentioned in the notification
PDF, knowing computers is listed as a desirable qualification for this IB ACIO recruitment. This means that
possessing computer knowledge is not mandatory but it could prove to be advantageous for applicants.
• If candidates haven't received their degree yet but are called for an interview, they need to show proof that
they have the necessary qualifications before the closing date.
IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Selection Process

The selection procedure for the post under IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 comprises three stages i.e. two stages of
written examination followed by a face-to-face interview with the higher authorities.
Stage 1: Tier I Examination
Stage 2: Tier II Examination
Stage 3: Interview
Exam Tier Type Marks
Tier I Objective Type MCQs 100
Tier II Descriptive Type Paper 50
Tier III Interview 100

Intelligence Bureau ACIO Recruitment Exam Pattern
The Intelligence Bureau ACIO exam pattern for Tier 1 and Tier 2 examinations is as follows:
• Tier 1: Objective type questions
• Tier 2: Descriptive-type questions
• There will be a negative marking of 1/4th mark in the Tier 1 exam.
• There will be no negative marking in the Tier 2 exam.
• Each question is worth 01 mark
IB ACIO Tier-1 Exam Pattern 2023

Tier 1 of the IB ACIO Exam comprises five sections namely Current Affairs, General Studies, Numerical Aptitude,
Reasoning and Logical Aptitude, and English Language. Each section carries equal weightage, and candidates are
provided with a time duration of 1 hour to complete the examination.
Subjects No. of Questions Marks Time
Current Affairs 20 20
General Studies 20 20
Numerical Aptitude 20 20
1 hour
Reasoning and Logical Aptitude 20 20
English Language 20 20
Total 100 100
IB ACIO Tier-2 Exam Pattern 2023

Candidates who qualify for the first stage will then appear for the Tier 2 exams. The exam pattern of this stage
involves two sections Essay Writing and English Comprehension & Précis Writing.
Subjects Marks Time
Essay Writing 30
1 hour
English Comprehension & Précis Writing 20
Total 50
IB ACIO Topic Wise Analysis:-

Here we are providing topic wise analysis of IB ACIO exam which was held in 2021.
IB ACIO Quant Analysis:-

Topic Name No. of Questions
Average 1
TSD & Train based 2
(LCM & HCF) 2
pie chart D.I 2
Baar graph D.I 0
Line graph 1
Tabular graph 1
Pie chart D.I 0
Percentage 2

Ratio & Proportional 2
Time work/ Time Work & Waves 1
Mensuration 2
Number system 1
S.I & C.I 1
Simplifications ( Approx.) 2
Total 20 Q
IB ACIO Reasoning & Logical Aptitude Analysis:-

Distance & Direction (Simple & Coded) 2
Syllogism 1
Seating arrangements 3
Figure series based Ques. 2
Puzzles ( All types) 3
Venn diagram 1
Coded & Simple blood relations 1
Missing series (Number & Aplhabet) 1
Ranking puzzle 0
Analogy 2
Dictonary 1
Mathemetical equation based 1
Mirror image 1
Data sufficiecy 0
Coding decoding 1
20 Q
IB ACIO English Analysis:-

Jumbled sentences 3
Fillers 4
Antonyms 2
Synonyms 2
Idioms 1
One word subsitution 2
Grammatical error in a sentence 3
Sentence improvement 3
20 Q

IB ACIO General Studies Analysis:-
Economics 5
History 5
Polity 3
Geography 3
Ques related to Intelligence bureau 2
Static GK 2
20 Q
IB ACIO Current Affairs Analysis:-

Sports & Imtertainment 3
Govt. Rule & Schemes 3
Person in news 3
Awards & Achivement national & international 4
Book & Authers 2
Appointments national & international 2
Important dates 3
20 Q
IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Syllabus

Candidates who are preparing for the posts of Assistant Central Intelligence Officer, Grade II/Executive under the
IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 can get detailed information about the IB ACIO Syllabus 2023 from the table below.
Candidates can go through the IB ACIO Exam Syllabus 2023 table given below. This table provides you the IB ACIO
subject-wise Syllabus 2023.
Subjects Syllabus
• National News
• International News
• New Schemes
Current Affairs • Eminent Personalities
• Financial Schemes
• Nobel Prize Winners
• Awards
• Polity and Indian Constitution
• Indian history
• Science and Technology
• Geography
General Studies • Physics
• Biology
• Chemistry
• Economics and Finance
• Computer Science.

Subjects Syllabus
• Ratios
• Missing Numbers
• Age
• Time and Work
• Volume
• LCM and HCF
• Percentage
• Factoring
Numerical Aptitude
• Profit and Loss
• Simple and Compound Interest
• Time and Distance
• Average
• Fractions
• Mensuration
• Prices and Expenditure Problems
• Series Completion
• Seating Arrangement
• Puzzles
• Syllogism
• Blood Relations
• Input-Output
• Order and Ranking
• Calendars and Clocks
• Inequalities
• Alphanumeric Series
• Data Sufficiency
• Coding-Decoding
Reasoning/Logical Aptitude • Distance and Direction
• Verbal and Non Verbal Reasoning
• Cause and Effect
• Odd One Out
• Charts
• Cause and Effect
• Character Puzzles
• Classifications
• Logical Sequence of Words
• Completion of Patterns
• Decision Making
• Image Analysis

Subjects Syllabus
• Idioms and Phrases
• Verbs
• Fill in the blanks
• Spellings
• Grammar
• Adjectives
• Fill in the blanks
• Spellings
• Grammar
• Synonyms/Antonyms
English
• Verbal Comprehension Passage
• Spot the error
• Verbs
• Sentence Structure
• Vocabulary
• Detecting misspelled words
• Clauses
• Passage
• Improvement
• One-word substitution
IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Salary

The salary of candidates appointed under the IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 will get a respectable salary ranging from
Rs. 44,900/- to 1,42,400/-. The salary of the candidates will also be accompanied by various benefits and
allowances including TA, DA, HRA etc.
(i) Special Security Allowance @ 20% of basic pay in addition to other Govt. allowances.
(ii) Cash compensation instead of duty performed on holidays subject to a ceiling of 30 days
Post Name Pay Level Salary Range

Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (ACIO) Grade-II Executive Level 7 Rs. 44,900/- to 1,42,400/

ACIO Grade II Executive 18th Feb 2021
Participant ID
Participant Name
Test Center Name ION Digital Zone IDZ Thrissur
Test Date 18/02/2021
Test Time : 9:00 AM - 10:00 AM
Subject ACIO Grade II (Executive)
Section : General awareness Current Affairs
Q.1 Which of the following states has announced the commissioning of its own internet
service under the project named K-FON?
Ans 1. Goa
2. Kerala
3. Gujarat
4. Karnataka
Question ID : 59445929006
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.2 Consider the statement related with Campaign ‘SAKSHAM’.
1. To create awareness among the consumers of fossil fuels.

2. The campaign will include ctivities such as cyclothon, farmer workshops, seminars,
painting competition for awareness.
Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below.

Ans 1. Both 1 and 2
2. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Only 2
4. Only 1
Status : Not Answered
Chosen Option : --
Q.3 Consider the statement in regard of Nikhil Srivastav.
1. He is the winner of the prestigious 2021 Michael and Sheila Held Prize.
2. He won the prize for classifying and describing the structure of algebraic varieties.

Ans 1. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Both 1 and 2
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
(2)
Q.4 Elon Musk's SpaceX creates new world record by launchingmany satellites on single
rocket. Consider the following statement in this regard.
1. This created a new world record by launching 143 satellites on a single rocket.
2. It includes commercial and government CubeSats, microsats and 10 Starlink
satellites.
Which Statements given above is/are correct?

Ans 1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.5 The FIFA Women’s World Cup 2023™ will be staged in which country?
1. Brazil
2. America and New Zealand Jointly.

Ans 1. Only 1
2. Both 1 and 2
3. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Only 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.6 Which of the following statement is true in regard of “UNESCO-Bangladesh

Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujibur Rahman International Prize for the Creative Economy”
1. It was approved at the 210th session of UNESCO’s Executive Board of UNESCO.

2. An amount of US$100,000 will be given to the recipients of the award.

Ans 1. Both 1 and 2
2. Only 2
3. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Only 1
Chosen Option : --
(3)
Q.7 What is Rakshita?
1. It is an ambulance which has been launched by the Central Reserve Police Force
(CRPF) and Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
2. It is an ambulance to attend urgent evacuation needs of the security force personnel
in event of a medical emergency or battle injury.
3. It is developed by Border Security Forces (BSF) for urgent evacuation in event of a
medical emergency or battle injury.

Ans 1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Only 2 and 3
4. Only 1 and 2
Chosen Option : --
Q.8 "On 27th July 2020, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
introduced PLI or Production Linked Incentive Scheme for pharmaceutical
manufacturing. Which of the following points is/are NOT covered under this scheme?
1. Production Linked Incentives of upto INR 6,940 crores have been approved
2. A financial incentive will be given to eligible manufacturers of identified 41 eligible

products which covers 53 APIs, for 6 years, committed investment and sales made by
selected applicant for the eligible products.
3. The Net Worth of the Applicant (including that of Group Companies), as on the date
of application, shall not be less than 30% of the total committed investment.
4. The scheme shall be operational during the period FY 2020-2021 to 2024-2025
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 4 only
Ans 1. C
2. D
3. A
4. B
Chosen Option : --
(4)
Q.9
Ans 1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
Chosen Option : --
Q.10 Which of the following company has announced that it has agreed to acquire majority
stake in GVK Airport Developers Ltd that runs the Mumbai International airport?
Ans 1. PepsiCo India Holdings Private Limited
2. Reliance Industries Limited
3. GMR Infrastructure Limited
4. Adani Airport Holdings Ltd.
Chosen Option : --
Q.11 Which country has decided to construct monument for the Indian Soldiers killed by
Pakistan in the 1971 Liberation War?
Ans 1. Nepal
2. Bangladesh
3. Sri Lanka
4. Afghanistan
Chosen Option : --
(5)
Q.12 Who has released the book, “India 2020 yearbook”?
Ans 1. Prakash Javadekar
2. Amit Shah
3. Narendra Modi
4. Shashi Tharoor
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.13 From which countries does IC-IMPACTS Research Centre of Excellence belong?
Ans 1. India and Russia
2. India and Canada
3. India and Japan
4. India and France
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.14 In August 2020, the Africa Regional Certification Commission certified the WHO
African Region as free from _______ after four years without a case?
Ans 1. Chicken pox
2. Rubella
3. Wild polio
4. Tetanus
Chosen Option : --
Q.15 India has tied up for 8 million pounds medicinal research in July 2020 with UK. What is
the ratio of the contribution of UK and India?
Ans 1. 1 : 3
2. 1 : 1
3. 1 : 2
4. 2 : 1
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
(6)
Q.16 The Union Cabinet approved the adoption of the Jammu and Kashmir Panchayati Raj
Act, 1989.
1. The move will help establish all the four tiers of grassroots-level democracy in
Jammu and Kashmir.
2. This will help the people of Jammu and Kashmir elect their representatives at the
village, block and district levels.

Ans 1. Only 1
2. Both 1 and 2
3. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Only 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17 In 2020, there are 5 cyclones formed in the north Indian ocean. Which of the following
severe cyclonic storms formed over Arabian seas and headed towards the Somalia
coast?
1. Gati
2. Amphan
3. Nisarga
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) both 2 and 3
Ans 1. D
2. B
3. A
4. C
Chosen Option : --
Q.18 For which country’s Navy China has launched first of the four Advanced Warships in
August 2020?
Ans 1. Sri Lanka
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Kenya
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
(7)
Q.19 Who has been appointed as the governor of Meghalaya in August 2020?
Ans 1. R.N. Ravi
2. Acharya Devvrat
3. S. Narayan Arya
4. Satya Pal Malik
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.20 IAS officer Vini Mahajan became the first Woman Chief Secretary of which state in
June 2020?
Ans 1. Haryana
2. UP
3. Punjab
4. Rajasthan
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Section : General studies
Q.1
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
(8)
Q.2 Which of the following pair of monument – state is correct?
I. Sheikh Chilli’s Tomb – Haryana

II. Chitradurga Fort – Karnataka
Ans 1. Only II
2. Only I
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.3
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.4 In which Indian state is the Barabati Fort located?

Ans 1. Kerala
2. West Bengal
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
Chosen Option : --
Q.5 When was the Lucknow Pact Signed by the Muslim League and the Indian National
Congress?
Ans 1. 1919
2. 1905
3. 1925
4. 1916
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
(9)
Q.6 The book ‘An Extraordinary life’ is based on whose biography?
Ans 1. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
2. Sushma Swaraj
3. Manohar Parrikar
4. Arun Jaitley
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.7
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
(10)
Q.9 Spirogyra is an example of which of the following algae?
Ans 1. Red algae
2. Brown algae
3. White algae
4. Green algae
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.10
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.11 ___________ is composed of unspecialized living cells with relatively thin cell walls,
intercellular space, present in soft part of the plants.
Ans 1. Sclerenchyma
2. Parenchyma
3. Complex permanent tissue
4. Collenchyma
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
Q.12 Who among the following Indian personalities is also known as 'Young Turk'?
Ans 1. Chandra Shekhar
2. Lala Lajpat Rai
3. Bhagat Singh
4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Not Attempted and
Status :
Marked For Review
Chosen Option : --
(11)
Q.13 Rajinder Goel is related to which sport?
Ans 1. Swimming
2. Gymnastics
3. Table tennis
4. Cricket
Chosen Option : --
Q.14
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.15 Over how many Indian states does the Deccan Plateau extend?
Ans 1. 5
2. 8
3. 6
4. 3
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
(12)
Q.16
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.17
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.18
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
(13)
Q.19 Which of the following bodies had introduced the first official residential housing price
index called RESIDEX?
Ans 1. NITI Aayog
2. SEBI
3. NHB
4. RBI
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.20
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Section : Numerical aptitude
Q.1 Find the volume of a sphere with diameter as 21 cm. (The value of π is 22/7)
Ans 1. 4851 cu cm
2. 4132 cu cm
3. 3361 cu cm
4. 4441 cu cm
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2 Sanjay and Amit can do a piece of work in 8 days. Amit alone can do it in 12 days. In
how many days will Sanjay do it alone?
Ans 1. 20 days
2. 24 days
3. 16 days
4. 12 days
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
(14)
Q.3 Find the total surface area of cube whose volume is 64 m3.
Ans 1. 64 m2
2. 96 m2
3. 36 m2
4. 25 m2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.4 The graph shows number of visitors (ladies and gents) in four different museums
namely 1, 2, 3 and 4. Which museum had the maximum number of visitors?
Ans 1. 1
2. 3
3. 4
4. 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.5
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
(15)
Q.6 Find the rate of interest if amount after 2 years on simple interest on a capital of Rs
1000 is Rs 1200.
Ans 1. 5 percent
2. 20 percent
3. 10 percent
4. 15 percent
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.7 LCM and HCF of two numbers are respectively 3 and 18. If one of them is 9, find the
other number.
Ans 1. 6
2. 9
3. 8
4. 3
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.8 The average of 5 consecutive numbers is 21. The highest number will be?
Ans 1. 21
2. 23
3. 22
4. 19
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
(16)
Q.10 The table shows expenditure and income of a firm in various months. In which month
was ratio of savings to income maximum.
Ans 1. April
2. Feb
3. Jan
4. May
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.11
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.12 The marks of 5 students are 25, 35, 45, 50, 15. Calculate the average marks.
Ans 1. 30
2. 34
3. 35
4. 32
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
(17)
Q.13 Arun & Bijay can make paintings in 3 days, Bijay & Chandan can make those paintings
in 5 days. If Arun, Bijay & Chandan together can finish the work in 2 days, then Arun &
Chandan together will do it in ________ days.
Ans 1. 4/3 days
2. 8/7 days
3. 15/7 days
4. 5 days
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14 The ratio of the length of the parallel sides of a trapezium is 3 : 2. The shortest
distance between them is 15 cm. If the area of the trapezium is 1350 sq. cm, then find
the difference of the lengths of the parallel sides.
Ans 1. 95 cm
2. 21 cm
3. 36 cm
4. 65 cm
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.15 In 87659_21 what is the least number that can be filled in blank to make the number
divisible by 11.
Ans 1. 7
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.16 A boat goes 20 km downstream in 30 mins. The speed of the stream is 10 km/h. Find
the speed of the boat.
Ans 1. 45 km/h
2. 20 km/h
3. 60 km/h
4. 30 km/h
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
(18)
Q.17 Find a single discount equivalent to two successive discounts of 15 percent and 5
percent.
Ans 1. 19.25
2. 20.20
3. 10.5
4. 18.75
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.18 25 percent of a number when subtracted from 100, gives the number itself. Find the
number?
Ans 1. 80
2. 75
3. 32
4. 100
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.19 The ratio of two numbers is 3 : 5 and their LCM is 42 greater than their HCF. What is
the value of the larger number?
Ans 1. 18
2. 12
3. 15
4. 9
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
(19)
Q.20
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude
Q.1 In a certain code language, BABE is coded as YZYV then what is the code for ACID?
Ans 1. ZXNR
2. YVOS
3. ZXRW
4. ZXWR
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
(20)
Q.2 Identify the missing figure from the answer figures to complete the matrix given below.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.3 Find the missing term in the following series.
AD25, CE64, EF121, GG196, ______

Ans 1. IJ441
2. II324
3. IH256
4. IH289
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
(21)
Q.4 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some
conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. No R is V.
II. No L is M.
III. No R is L.
Conclusions:
I. Some V are not M.
II. No M is L.
III. Some L are not R.
Ans 1. All conclusion follows
2. Both conclusion I and III follows
3. Both conclusion II and III follows
4. Both conclusion I and II follows
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.5 Find the missing term in the following number series.
45, 65, 165, 345, ____

Ans 1. 625
2. 565
3. 605
4. 585
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6 Among 500 villagers, 40% are doing businesses and 80% are doing jobs. If all of them
are either doing business or jobs, then the number of villagers who are doing only job
are how much more than that who are doing only business?
Ans 1. 400
2. 100
3. 200
4. 300
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
(22)
Q.7 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given
ones that will complete the series.
DF, GJ, KM, NQ, RT, ?

Ans 1. XY
2. EI
3. UX
4. UV
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8 Find the missing term in the following letter series.
ACE, JLN, RTV, ____

Ans 1. ZBD
2. YAC
3. ACE
4. XZB
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9 In the given Venn diagram, “Group R” represents those who have visited “Russia”,
“Group C” represents those who have visited “China” and “Group G” represents
those who have visited “Japan”. The number given in the diagram represent the
number of persons in that particular category. If out of the total number of persons
who have visited at least two countries, 60% are females then how many of them are
males?
Ans 1. 32
2. 24
3. 28
4. 42
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
(23)
Q.10 In the question two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. You
have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from
commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any,
follows from the given statements.
Statement 1 : All roses are Pink.

Statement 2 : Some Pinks are Lotus.
Conclusion I : All Lotus are Roses.

Conclusion II : Some Pinks are Roses.
Ans 1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Neither I nor II follows
3. Both I and II follows
4. Only conclusion I follows
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second
number is related to the first number.
7 : 393 :: 9 : ?
Ans 1. 729
2. 810
3. 812
4. 811
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.12 Find the missing number in the matrix given below:
Ans 1. 100
2. 64
3. 81
4. 121
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
(24)
Q.13 In the question given below, three statements are given, followed by two conclusions I
and II. You have to consider the statement/statements to be true even if it seems to be
at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given
conclusions, if any, follows from the given statements.
Statements:
Some mobiles are laptops.
All laptops are cameras.
No camera is desktop.
Conclusion:
I. All desktop being mobile is a possibility.
II. All mobile being cameras is a possibility.
Ans 1. Only II follows
2. Both I and II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Only I follows
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.14 6 boys are sitting on 6 different chairs numbered 1 to 6. A is sitting neither on chair 2
nor on chair 5. F is sitting either on chair 4 or on chair 6. E is sitting on the chair 1 and
D is sitting on the chair 3. If B is sitting either on chair 2 or chair 4 then on which chair
is C sitting?
Ans 1. 4
2. 6
3. 2
4. 5
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
(25)
Q.15
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16 There is a family of six members. There are two married couples. X is a daughter of F,
who has two children. F is the mother of Y. Y is the husband of A. Z is nephew of X. B
is the husband of X. B has no siblings. How is B related to F?
Ans 1. Daughter - in – Law
2. Son - in – Law
3. Sister - in Law
4. Mother - in – Law
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
(26)
Q.17 Select the option that is related to the third term on the same basis as the second term
is related to the first term.
Warrior : Sword :: Author : ?

Ans 1. Page
2. Ink
3. Book
4. Pen
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.18 Pointing to a child in the photograph, a gentleman said “His father’s father is my
brother.” How is this gentleman related to the child?
Ans 1. Grand – father
2. Uncle
3. Can’t be determined
4. Grand – uncle
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.19
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.20 25 customers are standing in a row outside a supermarket. Rahul, a customer

standing in the row, was shifted by 5 places towards the left end and 6 new customers
joined from the left end, then he became 11th from the left end. What was his earlier
position from the right end?
Ans 1. 17th
2. 14th
3. 16th
4. 15th
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Section : English
(27)
Q.1 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
"Go down like a lead balloon"

Ans 1. To be ready
2. To get away from, to escape
3. To be received badly by an audience
4. To gamble everything you have
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.2 The sentence below has been divided into three parts. Select the part of the sentence
that has an error. If the sentence has no error, select the option 'No Error'.
Ans 1. necessary measures to contain the spread of the virus.
2. in there opinion in the matters of taking
3. The assembly was clearly divided
4. No error
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.3 Some parts of a sentence have been jumbled up, and labelled P, Q, R and S. Select the
option that gives the correct sequence in which these parts can be rearranged to form
a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
For it was but a pool
P. of hopes and nothing more,
Q. his words did not
R. action and efforts
S. coincide with his
which were needed.

Ans 1. PQSR
2. RPQS
3. SQPR
4. PSQR
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
(28)
Q.4 Out of all the alternatives given, select the word which closely fits the given
idiom/phrase.
Don't count your chickens before they hatch

Ans 1. Good things come after bad things.
2. To describe exactly what is causing a situation or problem.
3. Do something without having planned beforehand.
4. Don't count on something good happening until it's happened.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Ans 1. In what turned out to be thrilling
2. out on top and won the game.
3. No error
4. finish, the home team finally came
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word
with the correct spelling.
Ans 1. Didactic
2. Didaict
3. Diadictic
4. Didiactic
Chosen Option : --
(29)
The Government reforms imposed by
P. series of major social, political, legal and
Q. the Great Reforms by historians, were a
R. governmental reforms in the
S. Tsar Alexander II of Russia, often called
Russian Empire carried out in the 1860s.

Ans 1. RSQP
2. SRQP
3. SQPR
4. PSQR
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8 Identify the segment in the sentence which contains a grammatical error.
I knew that Aparna was speaking the truth and decided to stand besides her during the
trial.
Ans 1. was speaking
2. I knew
3. decided to
4. stand besides her
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.9 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the word given below.
Ameliorate
Ans 1. Retrieve
2. Worsen
3. Relieve
4. Startle
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
(30)
Q.10 Select the word segment that substitutes (replaces) the bracketed word segment
correctly and completes the sentence meaningfully. Select the option 'no correction
required' if the sentence is correct as given.
This newly arisen (evidence could have proved) to be the final nail in the coffin for the
accused.
Ans 1. evidence could have been proved
2. evidence has proof
3. No correction required
4. evidence could prove
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.11 Given below are four sentences which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives their
correct order.
A. The truth of the matter is that everyone is so unique that all comparison is utterly
wrong - so it is best to be your own self.
B. It’s not your fault because you have been brought up and educated in such a way
that you are constantly comparing yourself with others.
C. For example, someone or other is taller than you, more beautiful, more intelligent or
more virtuous and you are always in a state of inferiority and suffering.
D. These days many of you suffer from an inferiority complex in some way or other, for
the simple reason that you go on comparing.
Ans 1. DABC
2. DBCA
3. ABDC
4. ADBC
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.12 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
The museum is showcasing _________________ exhibit of the writer's early works.

Ans 1. a retrospective
2. an extrospective
3. a perspective
4. an erective
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
(31)
Q.13 Select the word which means the same as the group of given words.
A notice or announcement in a public medium promoting a product, service, or event

or publicizing a job vacancy.
Ans 1. Payment
2. Adjustment
3. Advertisement
4. Amazement
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
The man was charged with __________ after murdering the king.
Ans 1. homicide
2. regicide
3. matricide
4. genocide
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
A ________ tree losses its leaves in autumn and grows new ones in spring.
Ans 1. dividuous
2. residuous
3. assiduous
4. deciduous
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.16 Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given
sentence. In case no substitution is needed, select 'No substitution required'.
I would wait for you at the Metro station had I known that you would surely come.
Ans 1. would have waited
2. No substitution required
3. will be waiting
4. shall wait
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
(32)
Q.17 Select the most appropriate 'one word ' for the expression given below.
A powerful whirlpool in the sea or a river.

Ans 1. Cruciform
2. Maelstrom
3. Lodoform
4. Vasiform
Chosen Option : --
(Everyone carefully and methodically were trying to) solve the problem given by the
boot camp instructor.
Ans 1. Everyone were carefully and methodically trying to
2. Everyone had carefully and methodically trying to
4. Everyone was carefully and methodically trying to
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.19 Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Aggressive
Ans 1. Hostile
2. Vaporous
3. Atmospheric
4. Distinct
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
"Might and main"

Ans 1. Approximately, almost, somewhat, to a certain degree
2. Nonsense or meaningless speech
3. With all enthusiasm
4. To keep quiet, To say nothing
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
(33)
24/02/2021

Participant ID
Participant Name
Test Center Name
Q.1 Consider the statement in regard 'KAPILA' Campaign.

1. This is a campaign for Intellectual Property Literacy and Awareness campaign which
was organised on the 89th birth anniversary of former President Late Dr. APJ Abdul
Kalam.
2. This is a campaign for collection, demonstration and documentation of raw drugs
from Southern Plateau region.

2. Only 2
3. Only 1
4. 1 and 2 both
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 Who has been elected as the non-executive chairman of India bulls Housing Finance
in August 2020?
Ans 1. B.P. Kanungo
2. K.K. Venugopal
3. S.S. Mundra
4. M.K. Jain
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.3 How many Chinese apps had been banned by the government of India in June 2020
due to their activities which were prejudicial to sovereignty and integrity of India?
Ans 1. 59
2. 51
3. 53
4. 58
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
24/02/2021
Q.4 Consider the following statement in the context of Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana -
National Rural Livelihoods Mission.
1. It is a centrally sponsored programme that aims at eliminating rural poverty through

promotion of multiple livelihoods for the rural poor households across the country.
2. The Union Cabinet has approved a special package worth Rs. 820 crore for Union
Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh for a period of five years till 2023-24.
Select the correct answer from the options given below.

Ans 1. Only 2
2. 1 and 2 both
3. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Only 1
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.5 SVANidhi Yojana is a scheme which has been launched by Hon'ble Prime minister to.
1. To grant collateral-free loans of up to Rs 10,000 to street vendors across the

country.
2. To provide grant to fulfill the nutritional demands of women and children in the
country.
3. This scheme was launched on June 1, 2020.

Ans 1. None of the above
2. Only 1 and 3
3. Only 2 and 3
4. Only 1 and 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.6 Which app has been launched by Kiren Rijiju in June 2020 to keep Indian athletes
updated about banned substances?
Ans 1. NADA INDIA
2. NADA BHARAT
3. NADA INDIAN
4. INDIAN NADA
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.7 Which institution collaborated with the Bureau of Indian Standards for cooperation in
the areas of standardization and conformity assessment in August 2020?
Ans 1. IIT Bombay
2. IIT Roorkee
3. IIT Madras
4. IIT Kanpur
Chosen Option : --
24/02/2021
Q.8 Consider the statement in context of CMS-01.
1. It is a communication satellite which is launched by PSLV-C50 from the Satish

Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota.
2. It is a project which aims to monitor, track and protect space assets of India.

Ans 1. Only 1
2. 1 and 2 both
3. Only 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9 Bharat Parv is a five-day annual event that celebrates the spirit of India is being
organised virtually from January 26, 2021 till January 31, 2021. Which of the following
statements is/are NOT correct regarding the event?
1. It was started in the year 2016.

2. This year the event was inaugurated by the Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla.
3. The Central theme of this year’s Bharat Parv is 'Mera Desh Badal Raha Hai, Aage
Badh Raha Hai'
4. The event is organized by the Ministry of defence every year

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3 only
Ans 1. A
2. C
3. B
4. D
Chosen Option : --
Q.10 In June 2019, The Indian Air Force has signed a deal with the Israeli government to
buy as many as 100 SPICE bombs worth:
Ans 1. Rs. 100 crore
2. Rs. 400 crore
3. Rs. 300 crore
4. Rs. 200 crore
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.11 Which of the following Union ministry won the SKOCH Gold Award 2020?
Ans 1. Ministry of Women and Child Development
2. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
3. Ministry of Textiles
4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
24/02/2021
Q.12 Consider the statement in regard of Aditya Mehta.

1. Aditya Mehta defeated multiple-time world champion Pankaj Advani 6-2 to win the
National Snooker Championship.
2. Aditya Mehta represented the Petroleum Sports Promotion Board (PSPB).

2. Only 2
3. Only 1
4. 1 and 2 both
Chosen Option : --
Q.13 Consider the following statement in the context of Padma Award 2021.
1. Padma awards are given in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma
Bhushan and Padma Shri.
2. Shri Shinzo Abe from Japan is awarded with Padma Bhushan for his contribution in
the field of Public Affairs.
3. 7 were awarded the Padma Vibhushan, 10 named for the Padma Bhushan and 102
named for Padma Shri.

Ans 1. Only 1 and 2
2. Only 1 and 3
3. Only 2 and 3
4. None of the above
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.14 Consider the statement in regard of Wavel Ramkalawan.
1. He has won Seychelles’ presidential election.

2. He has won the Ramanujan Prize for Mathematicians for the year 2020.

Ans 1. Only 1
2. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Only 2
4. 1 and 2 both
Chosen Option : --
24/02/2021 https://cdn.digialm.com//per/g01/pub/1258/touchstone/AssessmentQPHTMLMode1//1258O2130/1258O2130S1D2237/161380377…
Q.15 What is Sarna Code? Consider the following statement in this regard.
1. The Jharkhand Assembly has unanimously passed a resolution seeking the

inclusion of Sarna as a separate religion in Census, 2021.
2. The opposition parties gave a proposal demanding a discussion on the resolution,
which was rejected by assembly speaker.

Ans 1. 1 and 2 both
2. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
Chosen Option : --
Q.16 On 21st January 2021, Gujarat Chief Minister Vijay Rupani announced the “Horticulture
Development Mission” in the state with an aim:
1. to double the income of the farmers involved in horticulture and medicinal farming
2. to provide waste land of the state government on 45 year lease for forming of
horticulture and medicinal crops
3. to cover 7 districts of the state as the part of first phase
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) Both 1 and 2
Ans 1. D
2. B
3. C
4. A
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.17 Which country has become the first African country to submit the results of Reducing
Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) to UNFCCC?
Ans 1. Burundi
2. Algeria
3. Cameroon
4. Uganda
Chosen Option : --
Q.18 Who has been reappointed as solicitor general of India in July 2020?
Ans 1. N Venkataraman
2. R.S. Suri
3. Tushar Mehta
4. Balbir Singh
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
24/02/2021
Q.19 Prime Minister Narendra Modi was honored with which award in 2019 by Bill and
Melinda Gates Foundation for his leadership and commitment to improve access to
sanitation in India?
Ans 1. Seoul Peace Prize
2. Champions of the Earth Award
3. Philip Kotler Presidential Award
4. Global Goalkeeper Award
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.20 The Rockefeller Foundation announced 10 finalists for the Food System Vision 2050
Prize in August 2020. Among them how many finalists were selected from India?
Ans 1. 4
2. 2
3. 1
4. 3
Chosen Option : --
Q.1
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
24/02/2021
Q.2
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.3
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.4 Which of the following pair is correct?
I. 1905 – Partition of Bengal

II. 1908 – Split in Congress
III. 1919 – Rowlatt Satyagrah
Ans 1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and III
4. I, II and III
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
24/02/2021
Q.5 As per the Union Budget 2020-21, what will be the implementation period of the
National Technical Textiles Mission?
Ans 1. 2021-22 to 2023-24
2. 2020-21 to 2024-25
3. 2020-21 to 2023-24
4. 2021-22 to 2024-25
Chosen Option : --
Q.6 With which of the following musical instruments is Ustad Ali Akbar Khan related to?
Ans 1. Sarod
2. Sitar
3. Tabla
4. Violin
Chosen Option : --
Q.7
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.8 Chenab, the largest tributary of the Indus river, is also known as _________.
Ans 1. Bhagirathi
2. Kosi
3. Chandrabhaga
4. Giri
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
24/02/2021
Q.9
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.10
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.11 With which of the following sports is Nikhat Zareen related to?
Ans 1. Hockey
2. Badminton
3. Boxing
4. Wrestling
Chosen Option : --
Q.12 Phawngpui or the Blue Mountain is the highest peak in the state of ______.
Ans 1. Uttarakhand
2. Kerala
3. Mizoram
4. Sikkim
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
24/02/2021
Q.13 Which among the following soil is commonly used for bricks?
Ans 1. Alluvial
2. Laterite
3. Black
4. Peaty
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.14 िन िल खत िवटािमनों म से िकसकी कमी के कारण पेला ा होता है ?

Ans 1. B1
2. B3
3. D
4. A
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.15
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.16
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
24/02/2021
Q.17 In which of the following ways can 1 Volt be expressed?

Ans 1. 1 Joule per Coulomb
2. 1 Coulomb per Joule
3. 1 Joule-Coulomb
4. 1 Joule-Coulomb per second
Chosen Option : --
Q.18 Which among the following books is not written by Arundhati Roy?
Ans 1. The Algebra of Infinite Justice
2. The Ministry of Utmost Happiness
3. Once Upon a Time
4. The God of Small Things
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.19 Amongst the following, which state celebrates Gangaur festival?

Ans 1. Karnataka
2. Rajasthan
3. Goa
4. Arunachal Pradesh
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.20
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
11/31
24/02/2021
Q.1 What is the average of 132, 146, 218, 232, 321 and 223?
Ans 1. 214
2. 212
3. 208
4. 218
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.2 Speed of a car is 45 km/hr. How much distance can it travel in 50 seconds?
Ans 1. 650 metre
2. 575 metre
3. 550 metre
4. 625 metre
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.3 Alloy A contains iron and copper in ration 4 : 5. Alloy B contains iron and copper in
ratio 3 : 4. If 45 kg of alloy A and 63 kg of alloy B are mixed, then what is the final ratio
of copper and iron?
Ans 1. 61 : 47
2. 64 : 47
3. 59 : 45
4. 57 : 41
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
24/02/2021
Q.4 Study the following graph to answer the question.
India’s exports to which of the following regions increased most in terms of

percentage between 2000-01 and 2010 – 2011?
Ans 1. Japan
2. Russia
3. China
4. Europe
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.5 Ratio of milk and water in two mixtures A and B is 3 : 2 and 4 : 3 respectively. If A and
B are mixed in the ratio of 1 : 2, then what is the ratio of milk and water in final
mixture?
Ans 1. 61 : 44
2. 51 : 46
3. 63 : 46
4. 57 : 41
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 एक िकताबों की दु कान म जीव िव ान, रसायन िव ान और भौितकी की पु कों की औसत सं ा 360
है । जीव िव ान की पु क रसायन िव ान और भौितकी की पु कों की औसत सं ा से 180 अिधक
ह। भौितकी की पु कों की सं ा जीव िव ान और रसायन िव ान की पु कों की औसत सं ा से
180 कम है । दु कान म रसायन िव ान की पु कों की सं ा िकतनी है ?
Ans 1. 540
2. 480
3. 420
4. 360
Chosen Option : --
24/02/2021
Q.7 If the volume of a room is 1680 m³ and the area of the floor is 112 m². Find the height of
the room.
Ans 1. 8 m
2. 20 m
3. 15 m
4. 10 m
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.8 The pie-chart given below represents the percentage distribution of the number of
eggs sold by a shopkeeper on different days of a week.
Find the ratio of the number of eggs sold by the shopkeeper on Wednesday to that of
the same on Thursday.
Ans 1. 4:7
2. 4:9
3. 3:5
4. 2:5
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
24/02/2021
Q.9 िविभ वष म एक दु कान म िविभ व ुओ ं की िब ी तािलका म दी गई है ।

िकस वष म ि जों और धुलाई मिचनो की िब ी की कुल सं ा, टीवी की िब ी की कुल सं ा से 100
अिधक हो गई?
Ans 1. 1997
2. 1996
3. 1999
4. 1998
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.10 एक साइिकल का अंिकत मू 1500 पए ह, जो लागत मू से 25 ितशत अिधक है । यिद इसे 10

ितशत की छूट पर बेचा जाता है , तो लाभ ितशत ात कर?
Ans 1. 12.5 ितशत
2. 20 ितशत
3. 15 ितशत
4. 30 ितशत
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11 The ratio of price of a mango and an apple is 3 : 2. If the total price of an apple and a
mango is Rs. 100, then find the price of a mango.
Ans 1. Rs. 40
2. Rs.60
3. Rs. 80
4. Rs. 30
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.12 अंशु को एक काय पूरा करने म बबलू से दोगुना समय लगता है और चंदू से तीन गुना समय लगता है ।
साथ म काम ख करने म 3 िदन लगते ह। अंशु ने काय को पूरा करने के िलए िकतना समय िलया है ?
Ans 1. 24 िदन
2. 12 िदन
3. 3 िदन
4. 18 िदन
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
24/02/2021
Q.13 336, 528 तथा 240 का लघु म समापव ा है ?

Ans 1. 16620
2. 17240
3. 19200
4. 18480
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.14 Find the volume of cone which has base radius as 7 cm and height as 12 cm. (The
value of π is 22/7)
Ans 1. 576 cm3
2. 616 cm3
3. 512 cm3
4. 289 cm3
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.15 A sum of money becomes 6 times at simple interest in 15 years. What is the rate of
interest?
Ans 1. 33.33 percent
2. 16.75 percent
3. 30.5 percent
4. 8.5 percent
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16 A number is increased by 10 percent. Then it is decreased by 20 percent. If the final

value of number is 528, then what is the initial value of number?
Ans 1. 500
2. 650
3. 550
4. 600
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
24/02/2021
Q.17
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.18
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19 Speed of train is 55 km/hr. The length of train is 800 metre. In how much time can it
cross a 1400 metre long platform?
Ans 1. 132 seconds
2. 96 seconds
3. 124 seconds
4. 144 seconds
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.20 Find the compound interest earned on Rs. 60,000 for 2 years at the rate of 5 percent
per annum.
Ans 1. Rs. 6000
2. Rs. 6150
3. Rs. 60,000
4. Rs. 66,150
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2

24/02/2021
Q.1 एक लड़का िबंदु A से चलना शु करता है और पूव की ओर 11 िकमी चलता है और िबंदु B पर कता
है । अब, वह अपने दाईं ओर 45 िड ी मुड़ता है और िबंदु C पर प ं चने के िलए 2 िकमी चलता है । अब,
वह 135 िड ी बाएँ मुड़ता है और 1 िकमी चलता है और एक िबंदु D पर प ँ चता है ।
िबंदु B, िबंदु D के सापे िकस िदशा म है ?
Ans 1. दि ण-पूव
2. उ र-पूव
3. दि ण-पि म
4. उ र-पि म
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.2
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.3 िवनोद, अिभ, रे चल, सैमी और िपंकी एक बच पर बैठे ह। अिभ रे चल के दािहने ओर बैठा है , जो बच के
छोर के चरम िबंदु पर नही ं बैठा है । सैमी, अिभ और िवनोद के बीच म बैठा है । िपंकी बाएं छोर के चरम
िबंदु पर बैठी है । िपंकी के दािहने ओर कौन बैठा है ?
Ans 1. रे चल
2. अिभ
3. िवनोद
4. सैमी
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
24/02/2021
Q.4 From the given figures, find which figure comes in the place of question marks which
are in series?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
24/02/2021
Q.5 Which answer figure will replace the question mark given in the question figure?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 छह A, B, C, D, E और F एक पं म बैठे ह, ज री नही ं िक इसी म म हो।यिद A, B, C

और D म से कोई भी अंितम छोर पर नही ं बैठा है तथा D, E से दो थानों की दू री पर बैठा है । E के
िनकट कौन बैठता है , िदया गया है िक A और B एक साथ बैठते ह।
Ans 1. C
2. B
3. A
4. F
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
24/02/2021
Q.7
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.8 Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between stars,
planets and universe?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
24/02/2021
Q.9
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.10 If ‘A ÷ B’ means ‘B is the brother of A’, ‘A × B’ means ‘B is the daughter of A’, ‘A @ B’

means ‘B is the wife of A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘B is the mother of A’, ‘A + B’ means ‘B is the
son of A’, then which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct?
I. ‘P ÷ Q + R + F @ J’ shows P as the aunt of R.

II. ‘G # F ÷ L + T × R’ shows G as the brother of R.
Ans 1. Only I
2. Neither I nor II
3. Only II
4. Both I and II
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.11 Find the missing term in the following number series :
1, 7, 8, ________, 23, 38, 61

Ans 1. 16
2. 15
3. 12
4. 10
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
24/02/2021
Q.12 िवजय टोनी से पहले, लेिकन िवनय के बाद कायालय प ँ चा। मेघा िवजय से पहले कायालय प ं ची लेिकन
राधा के कायालय प ँ चने के बाद प ँ ची। मेघा के कायालय प ँ चने के तुरंत बाद िवनय कायालय प ँ चा।
अंत म कायालय कौन प ँ चा?
Ans 1. मेघा
2. िवजय
3. िवनय
4. टोनी
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.13 िदए गए िवक ों म से, तीन एक िनि त तरीके से समान ह। हालाँिक, एक िवक अ तीन की तरह
नही ं है । उस िवक का चयन कर जो अ से अलग है ।
Ans 1. घोड़ा : अ बल
2. शेर : गुफा
3. मवेशी : गुफा
4. कु ा : कु ाघर
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14 Arrange the given words in the sequence in which they occur in the dictionary.
1. DAKOTA
2. DAMAGE
3. DARKLE
4. DONKEY
5. DANCER
Ans 1. 1,2,5,3,4
2. 2,1,5,3,4
3. 2,1,3,5,4
4. 1,3,2,5,4
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.15 Which two signs should be interchanged to make the below equation mathematically
correct?
5 + 6-2 × 8÷4= 30
Ans 1. × and -
2. + and ÷
3. ÷ and -
4. × and +
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
24/02/2021
Q.16
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.17 एक लड़के की ओर इशारा करते ए समीर ने कहा, वह मेरे ससुर के बड़े बेटे का बेटा है । समीर उस
लड़के से कैसे संबंिधत है ?
Ans 1. भाई
2. चचेरा भाई/ममेरा भाई/फुफेरा भाई/मौसेरा भाई
3. दादा/नाना
4. चाचा/मामा/ताऊ/फूफा/मौसा/काका
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
24/02/2021
Q.18 If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the mirror
image of the given figure?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.19 If ‘A’ means ‘+’, ‘B’ means ‘×’, ‘C’ means ‘÷’ and ‘D’ means ‘–’, then which of the
following equation(s) is/are correct?
I. 16 C 18 B 36 A 11 D 4 = 39
II. 49 B 76 C 19 A 13 D 47 = 162
Ans 1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Neither I nor II
4. Both I and II
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
24/02/2021
Q.20 A series is given with one term wrong. Select that wrong term from the given
alternatives.
PNM, RQQ, TTU, VWZ, XZC

Ans 1. TTU
2. RQQ
3. VWZ
4. XZC
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Section : English
Ans 1. and the surroundings irreparably.
2. The radiation leak from the nuclear accident
3. at Chernobyl effected the environment
4. No error
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
It is ironical that the students had to be punished because of a report submitted by a

teacher who himself was not above suspicion.
Ans 1. ironicism
2. irony
3. No substitution required
4. ironically
Chosen Option : --
Always on the lookout for opportunities, Arun never shirked away from new
assignments.
Ans 1. Arun never shirked away
2. for opportunities,
3. from new assignments.
4. Always on the lookout
Chosen Option : --
24/02/2021
Q.4 Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom in the given sentence.
Have you seen Claire lately? She's become as thin as a stick in the last six months!
Ans 1. To be suspicious
2. Be extremely weak
3. Extremely skinny
4. Full of enthusiasm
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Start from scratch

Ans 1. To decide quickly without a thought
2. To take advantage of something
3. To be unsuccessful
4. To begin from the very beginning
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.6 Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The owner of the house was _____ at the watchman for letting in a stranger.
Ans 1. indulgent
2. impatient
3. indifferent
4. indignant
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
"Get up on the wrong side of the bed"

Ans 1. Someone who is having a horrible day
2. To move beyond something that is bothering you
3. Working hours from about 12:00 am to 8.00 pm
4. Not having a good night's sleep
Chosen Option : --
24/02/2021
Q.8 Given below are four parts of a sentence which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives
their correct order to make a grammatically correct, meaningful sentence.
A. my attention was drawn towards a huge crowd that was forcing its way
B. and I decided to stop in order to cover the story for my newspaper
C. in the direction of a popular cinema hall
D. as I reached the Metro station
Ans 1. DACB
2. DCAB
3. CADB
4. ABCD
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.9 Out of all the alternatives given, select the word which closely fits the given
idiom/phrase.
The best of both worlds

Ans 1. To enjoy two different opportunities at the same time.
2. Producing similar results.
3. An event that happens infrequently.
4. Understand something complicated.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
"The last straw"

Ans 1. Make all possible efforts
2. The final event in a series of unacceptable actions
3. Unable to understand
4. To politely ask for someone’s full attention
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the word
with the correct spelling.
Ans 1. Fortuitous
2. Fortoitus
3. Fortuitius
4. Fortuious
Chosen Option : --
24/02/2021
Q.12 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
She decided to ______ her right to the ancestral property as she wanted to avoid
conflict.
Ans 1. sign with
2. sign for
3. sign away
4. sign in
Chosen Option : --
It is a general rule of formal E-mails that they eliminate any kind of _______________.
Ans 1. paternalism
2. colloquialism
3. evangelism
4. diabolism
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.14 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the word given below.
Desolate
Ans 1. Empty
2. Distressed
3. Untenanted
4. Populous
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
There always have been a sizeable influx of immigrants from Mexico into America.
Ans 1. No substitution required
2. were always been
3. has always been
4. is always being
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
24/02/2021
Starting with cleaning the kitchen, Reema created a task list of all the odd jobs that
were to do around the house.
Ans 1. Starting with cleaning the kitchen,
2. to do around the house.
3. of all the odd jobs that were
4. Reema created a task list
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.17 Given below are four parts of a sentence which are jumbled. Pick the option that gives
their correct order to make a grammatically correct, meaningful sentence.
A. cultivating positive mental states

B. I think that
C. like kindness and compassion definitely leads to
D. better psychological health and happiness
Ans 1. BDCA
2. ACBD
3. BCAD
4. BACD
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.18 The given sentences have been jumbled up. Arrange these sentences in a meaningful
order.
P. there had already been abundant rainfall in Delhi

Q. it was a tragic end of summer
R. a strong wind began to blow and the rain came causing havoc all around
S. one day, a cyclonic storm hit the region
Ans 1. RPSQ
2. QPSR
3. SRPQ
4. PSRQ
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.19 Select the most appropriate 'one word' for the expressions given below.
The quality or action of being extremely generous.

Ans 1. Nascence
2. Convalescence
3. Munificence
4. Reticence
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
24/02/2021
Q.20 Fill in the blank with the most appropriate option.
Speaking ______ is sometimes considered a virtue especially when the speaker has an
important point to make.
Ans 1. out of date
2. out of turn
3. out of control
4. out of hand
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Participant ID
Participant Name
Test Center Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Sanath Nagar
Q.1 Which of the following statement is correct about New Parliament building?
(A) A heritage panel comprised of 4 members gave its approval to the new Parliament
building.
(B) The project is expected to cost approximately Rs 971 crore.
(C) Building comes under the Central Vista redevelopment project started.
(D) It is being built by Larsen & Toubro.
Ans 1. B and C
2. A and B
3. A and D
4. B and D
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.2 Who among the following is the Chief Scientist in WHO?

Ans 1. Dr. Hanan H. Balkhy
2. Dr Samira Asma
3. Dr Soumya Swaminathan
4. Poonam Khetrapal Singh
Chosen Option : --
Q.3 Which of the following statement is correct about The Amazon, the world’s most
biodiverse rainforest?
(1) The World's second largest rainforest

(2) It covers nearly 20 percent of the South American continent
Ans 1. Both 1 and 2
2. Neither 1 nor 2
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.4 Which one of the following Naval ships were on deployed to the Indian Ocean region
on ‘Mission Sagar'?
Ans 1. INS Vikrant
2. INS Magar
3. INS Jalashwa
4. INS Kesari
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.5 Who among the following has been appointed by UNICEF (United Nations International
Children Education Fund) to advocate for promoting and supporting its work around
ending violence against children?
Ans 1. Ayushman Khurana
2. Ranbeer Kapoor
3. Aparshakti Khurana
4. Vicky Kaushal
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 The National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) and the Goa University
(GU) have successfully synthesized gold nanoparticles (GNPs) using Psychrotolerant
Antarctic:
Ans 1. Fungus
2. Protozoa
3. Virus
4. Bacteria
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.7 Which of the following nation ‘unintentionally’ shot down a Ukrainian Boeing 737-800
passenger aircraft in January 2020?
Ans 1. North Korea
2. USA
3. China
4. Iran
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.8
Ans 1. d
2. a
3. c
4. B
Chosen Option : --
Q.9 Which of the following statements is true about the inauguration of the Statue of
Unity?
(1) On Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s 100th birth anniversary, Prime Minister Narendra
Modi unveiled the Statue of Unity.
(2 Designed by Padma Bhushan recipient sculptor Ram V Sutar.
Ans 1. Both 1 and 2
2. Neither 1 nor 2
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.10
Ans 1. A-2, B-1, C-3
2. A-2, B-3, C-1
3. A-1, B-2, C-3
4. A-3, B-2, C-1
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.11 Which of the following statements is true about Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana
(PMMY)?
(1) Under this scheme a loan up to 15 lakhs to the non-corporate, non-farm

small/micro enterprises can be provided.
(2) These loans are given by Commercial Banks, RRBs, Small Finance Banks, MFIs
and NBFCs.
2. Both 1 and 2
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.12 For which sport did Mariyappan Thangavelu won Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
2020?
Ans 1. Golf
2. Kabbadi
3. Basketball
4. Para Athletics
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.13
Ans 1. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
2. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
3. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
4. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
Chosen Option : --
Q.14 Which company was the lowest bidder for the construction of the new parliament
building in September 2020?
Ans 1. Tata Projects Limited
2. Reliance
3. L&T Ltd
4. Shapoorji Pallonji
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.15 In how many phases, General Election to Lok Sabha-2019 was conducted in India?
Ans 1. Five
2. Seven
3. Nine
4. Three
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16 From where was Mission Shakti, an anti-satellite missile test was conducted ?
Ans 1. Satish Dhawan Space Centre
2. Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam Island launch complex
3. Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
4. Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.17 Which of the following statements about Sushma Swaraj is/are correct?
(1) In 1977, Sushma Swaraj became the youngest cabinet minister, at the age of 25, in
the Janata Party Govt., headed by then Chief minister Devi Lal.
(2) She contested against Sonia Gandhi in 1999.
Ans 1. 2 only
2. Neither 1 nor 2
3. 1 only
4. Both 1 and 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.18 Who won the Bal Sahitya Puruskar 2019 in Hindi language?
Ans 1. Vijay Sharma
2. Kumarpal Desai
3. Devika Cariapa
4. Govind Sharma
Chosen Option : --
Q.19
Ans 1. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
2. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
3. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
4. A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.20 Consider the following statements about 66th National Film Awards, 2019.
(1) Best Actor award was received by Ayushmann Khurrana for Andhadhun, and Vicky
Kaushal for Uri.
(2) Best Male Playback Singer award was received by Armaan Malik for Binte Dil from
Padmaavat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Ans 1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Neither 1 nor 2
4. Both 1 and 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.1 Members of which of the following phyla are commonly known as sea walnuts?
Ans 1. Arthropoda
2. Ctenophora
3. Mollusca
4. Platyhelminthes
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.2
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.3 Access to internet is the fundamental right under which article of the Indian
constitution?
Ans 1. Article 22
2. Article 20
3. Article 21
4. Article 19
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.4 Piyush Goyal is the minister of Railways as well as of which ministry?
Ans 1. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
2. Ministry of Agriculture
3. Ministry of MSME
4. Ministry of Finance
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.5
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.6
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.7 What is the height of elevation of the Peninsular plateau?

Ans 1. 300 m
2. 250-500 m
3. 600-900 m
4. 150 m
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.8
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.9
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.10
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11 Who was the winner of the first Indian Premier League?
Ans 1. Mumbai Indians
2. Rajasthan Royals
3. Kolkata Knight Riders
4. Chennai Superkings
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.12
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.13 Which among the following is the lightest gas?

Ans 1. Neon
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Oxygen
4. Hydrogen
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.14 How many dance forms have been acknowledged by Sangeet Natak Akademi as
classical dance forms of India as on November 2020?
Ans 1. Six
2. Eight
3. Ten
4. Four
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.15
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.16
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.17
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.18 Dr A.P.J. Abdul Kalam has not written which one of the following books?
Ans 1. Response in the Living and the Non-living
2. Target 3 Billion
3. The Luminous Sparks
4. Advantage India: From Challenge to Opportunity
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.19 Which of the following temples is located at Kanchipuram?

Ans 1. Ekambareswarar Temple
2. Sree Padmanabhaswamy Temple
3. Sri Venkateswara Swamy Vaari Temple
4. Arulmigu Ramanathaswamy Temple
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.20 In which of the following states is the site of Bhimbetka situated?

Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Punjab
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Chhattisgarh
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.1 The cost price of an article is Rs. x. It is marked up by 100 percent and it is sold at Rs.
420 after giving 30 percent discount. What is the value of x (in Rs. ) ?
Ans 1. 375
2. 325
3. 300
4. 400
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.2 The pie chart given here shows expenditures incurred by a family on various items
and their savings, which amount to Rs. 8,000 in a month.
Study the chart and answer the question based on the pie chart.
The ratio of the expenditure on food to the savings is:
Ans 1. 4 : 3
2. 3 : 2
3. 2 : 1
4. 3 : 4
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.3 If the radius of a cylinder is tripled and the height is halved, then what is the ratio
between the new volume and the previous volume?
Ans 1. 4 : 5
2. 3 : 2
3. 6 : 2
4. 9 : 2
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.4
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.5
Ans 1. 174 metres
2. 58 metres
3. 116 metres
4. 87 metres
Chosen Option : --
Q.6 Manoj can complete a work in 15 days working 8 hours in a day and Santosh can
complete it in 10 days working 9 hours in a day. If Manoj and Santosh together start
working for 6 hours per day, in how many days will they complete the work?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.7
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.8 The pie chart given below shows the number of cars sold in 6 countries. Number of
cars sold in a particular country are shown as a percentage of total number of cars
sold in these 6 countries.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

I. Difference between the total central angle formed by A and F and total central angle
formed by C and D is 32.4 degrees.
II. If the total number of cars sold in B, C and E is 12650, then the total number of cars
sold in these 6 countries are 23000.
Ans 1. Only II
2. Only I
3. Neither I nor II
4. Both I and II
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.9 Two items were sold at Rs. 9000 each. The first was sold at 50 percent loss and the
second was sold at 50 percent profit. Find the total loss on selling both the items.
Ans 1. Rs. 4500
2. Rs. 2400
3. Rs. 6000
4. Rs. 1800
Chosen Option : --
Q.10
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.11
Ans 1. 1
2. 9
3. 4
4. 2
Chosen Option : --
Q.12 Study the following table carefully and answer the question given below it:
Number of candidates appearing for an interview for a post in various Banks and
percentage of candidates qualifying.
What was the difference between the number of candidates who qualified in banks I
and J together and the number of candidates who did not qualify in the same banks?
Ans 1. 3032
2. 3036
3. 3040
4. 3028
Chosen Option : --
Q.13 60 percent students in a school are boys. 40 percent boys passed in the examination.
If 35 percent of total students passed the examination, then what percent of girls failed
the examination?
Ans 1. 72.5
2. 29
3. 56.5
4. 60
Chosen Option : --
Q.14
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.15 On selling 32 chairs at Rs. 2800, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 4 chairs. The
cost price of a chair is:
Ans 1. Rs. 100
2. Rs. 120
3. Rs. 280
4. Rs. 98
Chosen Option : --
Q.16 Select the odd one from the following options.

Ans 1. 0.2 × 0.5 + 0.3 × 0.5
2. 0.4 × 0.5 × 2.5 × 0.5
3. 1.5 × 0.04 + 0.4 × 0.5
4. 0.2 × 0.7 + 0.2 × 0.55
Chosen Option : --
Q.17 Smaller diagonal of a rhombus is equal to length of its sides. If length of each side is 4
cm, then what is the area (in square cm) of an equilateral triangle with side equal to the
bigger diagonal of the rhombus?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.18 A is 5 percent more than B and B is 10 percent more than C, then by what percentage
is A more than C.
Ans 1. 20 percent
2. 15.5 percent
3. 10 percent
4. 12 percent
Chosen Option : --
Q.19 If (2P + Q): (Q + R) = (Q - P): (Q - R) = 4: 3, then what is the value of P: Q: R?

Ans 1. 5: 7: 8
2. 4: 6: 9
3. 8: 12: 9
4. 4: 3: 5
Chosen Option : --
Q.20 A can complete a work in 5 minutes, B in 6 minutes and C in 8 minutes. The average
number of work completed per hour per worker for all three workers is:
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Chosen Option : --
Q.1 In the following question, select the related number from the given alternatives.
49: 245 : : 37 : 148 : : 47 : ?

Ans 1. 185
2. 132
3. 141
4. 176
Chosen Option : --
Q.2 Treena reached the office before Dev but after Loki. Veer reached the office before
Treena but after Kiran reached the office. Loki reached the office just after Veer
reached the office. Who reached the office last?
Ans 1. Treena
2. Dev
3. Veer
4. Kiran
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.3 Out of the given options, three are similar in a certain manner. However, one option is
NOT like the other three. Select the option which is different from the rest.
Ans 1. Galaxy
2. Constellation
3. Star
4. Solar system
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.4 In the following question below are given some statements followed by some
conclusions based on those statements. Taking the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and
then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.
Statements:
I. Some J are M.
II. Some Q are J.
Conclusions:
I. No M is Q.
II. Some M are J.
Ans 1. Both conclusion I and II follows
2. Neither conclusion follows
3. Only conclusion II follows
4. Only conclusion I follows
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.5 Varun, Anwar, Prachi, Fatima and Disha are sitting on a bench. Varun is sitting to the
left of Anwar, who is not sitting at extreme corners. Fatima is sitting in between Disha
and Varun. Prachi is sitting at extreme right. Who is to the right of Anwar?
Ans 1. Prachi
2. Varun
3. Fatima
4. Disha
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.6 Select the option that is related to the third term on the same basis as the second term
is related to the first term.
SPY: ROX :: KIN: ?

Ans 1. LHM
2. JMH
3. JHM
4. LMH
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.7 From the given question, find which figure comes after the four figures which are in
series?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.8 By interchanging the given two signs which of the following equation(s) will be
correct?
+ and ×;
I. 16 × 9 + 2 ÷ 3 – 5 = 17
II. 43 × 11 – 44 ÷ 11 + 11 = 10
Ans 1. Both I and II
2. Neither I nor II
3. Only II
4. Only I
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.9 Complete the following series.
e25, j100, o225_____

Ans 1. t400
2. q400
3. u250
4. m250
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.10
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.11 In the question two statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III.
You have to consider the statements to be true even if it seems to be at variance from
commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions, if any,
follows from the given statements.
Statement 1 : Some doctors are engineers.

Statement 2 : All engineers are lawyers.
Conclusion I : Some lawyers are doctors.

Conclusion II : All lawyers are engineers.
Conclusion III : Some engineers are doctors.
Ans 1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Both Conclusion I and III follows
3. All conclusions I, II and III follows
4. Both Concluison II and III follows
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.12 If a mirror is placed on the line XY, then which of the answer figures is the mirror
image of the given figure?
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.13 Six boys – P, Q, R, S, T and U – are sitting around a circular table, not necessarily in
the same order. P and S are sitting together. Neither Q nor T is sitting adjacent to
either P or S. Who is sitting opposite R?
Ans 1. T
2. P
3. U
4. S
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.14 Select the term that will come next in the following series.
A12B,D15E,G18H,J21K, ?
Ans 1. M24N
2. B23J
3. F27H
4. F12J
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.15
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16 Pointing to a man in a photograph a woman says, “He is the father of my only
daughter-in-law’s father-in- law”. How is the man related to the woman?
Ans 1. Brother
2. Father-in-law
3. Brother-in-law
4. Father
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.17 Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes.
Insects, Tiger, Deer

Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.18
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.19 Select the figure that will come next in the following series.
Ans
1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.20
Ans 1.
2.
3.
4.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Section : English
Q.1 In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative
which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
In a nutshell
Ans 1. In a complex situation
2. In a hurry
3. To write angrily
4. To be very brief
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.2 Select the word that is opposite in meaning (ANTONYM) to the word given below
Impregnable
Ans 1. Unassailable
2. Inviolable
3. Vulnerable
4. Stout
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.3 Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom
High and mighty.

Ans 1. Good news
2. Very quick
3. Arrogant
4. Good Luck
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
The advice that only you
P: so prevalent perhaps because it offers

Q: with the illusion of control in a situation
R: can give yourself closure is
S: the person who has been broken up
where realistically none exists.

Ans 1. RPQS
2. PSRQ
3. RPSQ
4. PSQR
Chosen Option : --
Q.5 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the
correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Adaquate
2. Adequete
3. Adaquete
4. Adequate
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.6 Find the part of the given sentence that has an error in it. If there is no error, choose
‘No error’.
I want all the (1)/ workers to join (2)/ the immediately meeting. (3)/ No error (4)
Ans 1. the immediately meeting.
2. No error
3. workers to join
4. I want all the
Chosen Option : --
The Bill increases the penalty to ____________ between three and six months, or fine
of up to Rs 10,000, or both.
Ans 1. discharge
2. banishment
3. imprisonment
4. liberation
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Everyone waiting for their turn for the interview (were in formals except Tanmay and
me).
Ans 1. was in formals except Tanmay and me.
2. was in formals except Tanmay and I.
3. were in formals except Tanmay and I.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.9 Select the most appropriate 'one word ' for the expressions given below.
Having an ample quantity of something.

Ans 1. Dearth
2. Comfort
3. Abundance
4. Scarcity
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.10 Select the word that is closest in meaning (SYNONYM) to the word given below
Antipathy
Ans 1. Relish
2. Affinity
3. Antagonism
4. Rapport
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.11 The sentence below has four parts (A, B, C, and D). One part has a grammatical error.
Identify the part.
He has been spending (A)/ a lifetime (B)/ imbibing (C)/ his local club’s history. (D)
Ans 1. a lifetime
2. imbibing
3. He has been spending
4. his local club’s history
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.12 Four words are given, out of which only one word is spelt correctly. Choose the
correctly spelt word.
Ans 1. Kaliedoscope
2. Kaleidoscope
3. Kalidiscope
4. Kaleidiscope
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Q.13 Select the word that is closest in meaning (SYNONYM) to the word given below
Obliterate
Ans 1. Hansom
2. Establish
3. Extirpate
4. Epistle
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
Neither did he give his term paper, (or his assignments).

Ans 1. nor his assignments
2. nor did he submit his assignments
4. or did he submit his assignments.
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 2
We can only __________ to a few of the measures which received his efficient support
Ans 1. allude
2. prelude
3. prude
4. exude
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
Q.16 Fill in the blank with appropriate word.
His performance was absolutely _________________ disaster!

Ans 1. an undermined
2. an unmitigated
3. an unjust
4. a mitigated
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1
The soldiers were
P. lines and with little to no artillery; the battle seemed

Q. battle with the enemy
R. engaged in an uphill
S. forces, behind the enemy
lost but the soldiers didn't lose their morale at all.

Ans 1. RPSQ
2. RSPQ
3. RQSP
4. RQPS
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.18 The sentence below has four parts (A, B, C, and D). One part has a grammatical error.
Identify the part.
Insulin secretes (A)/ in response to (B)/ rising levels of glucose (C)/ in the blood. (D)
Ans 1. in the blood
2. in response to
3. Insulin secretes
4. rising levels of glucose
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 4
Q.19 A sentence has been given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Choose
the correct alternative.
The three brothers decided to distribute the chocolates ______ themselves.

Ans 1. across
2. above
3. among
4. between
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 3
Q.20 In the following question, there are six sentences marked S1, S6, P, Q, R, S. The
positions of S1 and S6 are fixed. You are required to choose one of the four
alternatives which would be the most logical sequence of the sentence in the passage.
S1. You live either in a village or a town of India.

P: Many villages and towns form a tehsil or a taluka.
Q: There are also some areas in our country called Union Territories.
R: Many tehsils of talukas form a district and many districts form a State.
S: These, together with all the states of our country make India.
S6. India is our motherland.
Ans 1. PRQS
2. QPRS
3. PQRS
4. RPQS
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : 1

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IB ACIO Recruitment 2023: Overview

IB ACIO Vacancy Trend

IB ACIO Cut Off Trend

IB ACIO 2017 Tier 2 Cut Off

1 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Application Fee

IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Eligibility Criteria

IB ACIO Age Limit

IB ACIO Educational Qualification

IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Selection Process

2 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

IB ACIO Tier-1 Exam Pattern 2023

IB ACIO Tier-2 Exam Pattern 2023

IB ACIO Topic Wise Analysis:-

IB ACIO Quant Analysis:-

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IB ACIO Reasoning & Logical Aptitude Analysis:-

IB ACIO English Analysis:-

4 adda247.com/defence | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

IB ACIO Current Affairs Analysis:-

Topic Name No. of Questions

IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Syllabus

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IB ACIO Recruitment 2023 Salary

Post Name Pay Level Salary Range

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Section : General awareness Current Affairs

Q.2 Consider the statement related with Campaign ‘SAKSHAM’.

1. To create awareness among the consumers of fossil fuels.

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below.

Q.3 Consider the statement in regard of Nikhil Srivastav.

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below.

Which Statements given above is/are correct?

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below.

Q.6 Which of the following statement is true in regard of “UNESCO-Bangladesh

1. It was approved at the 210th session of UNESCO’s Executive Board of UNESCO.

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below.

Select the correct answer by using the code mentioned below.

2. A financial incentive will be given to eligible manufacturers of identified 41 eligible

4. The scheme shall be operational during the period FY 2020-2021 to 2024-2025

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

2. Reliance Industries Limited

3. GMR Infrastructure Limited

4. Adani Airport Holdings Ltd.

2. India and Canada

3. India and Japan

4. India and France

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

4. Satya Pal Malik

Section : General studies

I. Sheikh Chilli’s Tomb – Haryana

Q.4 In which Indian state is the Barabati Fort located?

3. Complex permanent tissue

2. Lala Lajpat Rai

4. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Section : Numerical aptitude

Section : Reasoning Logical aptitude

Q.3 Find the missing term in the following series.

AD25, CE64, EF121, GG196, ______

2. Both conclusion I and III follows

3. Both conclusion II and III follows