Course: SR STAR SUPER CHAINA UNIT TEST-01 Ex. Date: 14.11.

2023
Time: 3 Hrs 20 Min NEET Max. Marks: 720

PHYSICS
SECTION-A

1. A vehicle moves on banked curved road. Centripetal force for the vehicle is provided by. (If N is
normal reaction and  the angle of banking ).
1) N 2) N sin  3) N cos  4) N sec 
2. A lift is moving downwards, a body of mass 2 kg kept on floor is pulled horizontally and is in
1
motion. If coefficient of friction between body and floor is , find the friction acting on body when
2
2
lift is moving down with acceleration 5 ms in downward direction
1) 5N 2) 10N 3) 15N 4) 20N
3. The rear side of a truck is open and box of 40 kg mass is placed 5m away from the open end as
shown in figure. The coefficient of friction between the box the surface below it is 0.15. On a
straight road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2 ms2 . At what distance from the starting
point does the box fall from the truck? (Ignore the size of the box)

1) 20 m 2) 10 m 3) 20 m 4) 5 m
4. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very slowly. The coefficient of the friction between
insect and the surface is 1/3. If the line joining the centre of the hemispherical surface to the insect
makes an angle  with the vertical, find the maximum possible value 

1) tan 1  3 2) sec1  3 3) cot 1  3 4) cos1  3

5. In a rocket of mass 1000 kg fuel is consumed at a rate of 40 kg/s. The velocity of the gases ejected
from the rocket is 5 104 m / s . The thrust on the rocket is
1) 2 103 N 2) 5 104 N 3) 2 106 N 4) 2 109 N
6. A particle moves in the xy-plane under the action of a force F such that the components of its linear
momentum p at any time t are px  2 cos t , p y  2 sin t . The angle between F and p at time t is
1) 900 2) 0 0 3) 1800 4) 300
7. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string A. Another string C is connected to its lower end (see
figure). If a sudden jerk is given to C, then

1) The point AB of the string will break

2) The portion BC of the string will break
3) None of the strings will break
4) The mass will start rotating
8. A cork is submerged in water by a spring attached to the bottom of a pail. When the pail is kept in a
elevator moving with an acceleration downwards, the spring length
1) Increase 2) Decreases
3) Remains unchanged 4) Data insufficient
9. A balloon starts from rest from the ground and moves with uniform acceleration g/8. When it reaches
a height h a ball is dropped from it. Find the time taken by the ball to reach the ground.

h h 2h 1 h
1) 2 2) 3) 4)
g g g 2 g
10. A ball is thrown upward with an initial velocity of 100 ms1 . After how much time will it return?
Draw velocity – time graph for the ball and find from the group (i) the maximum height attained by
the ball and(ii) height of the ball after 15 s. Take g = 10 ms1
1) 450m, 375 m 2) 500m, 375 m 3) 400m, 375m 4) 300m, 375m

11. What are the maximum number of rectangular components of a vector can be split in space and in
plane respectively
1) 3, 2 2) 3, 3 3) 2, 2 4) , 
         
12. If A, B, C are three vectors the angle between A, B is  , B and C is  and C and A is  , and k is
constant then match the following
List I List II
a) A 1) k sin 
b) B 2) k sin 
c) C 3) k sin 
1) a-1, b-2, c-3 2) a-1, b-3, c-2 3) a-3, b-2, c-1 4) a-2, b-3, c-1
13. Assertion (A): Two particle of different masses, projected with same velocity, the maximum height
attained by same both the particle vertically will be same.
Reason (R): The maximum height of projectile is independent of particle mass.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) Both (A) and (R) are false
14. Two ends of a conducting rod of varying cross-section are maintained at 2000 C and 00 C
respectively. In steady state

1) Temperature differences across AB and CD are equal

2) Temperature difference across AB is greater than that across CD
3) Temperature difference across AB is less than across CD
4) Temperature difference may be equal or different depending upon thermal conductivity of the rod
15. A solid sphere and a half of same radius and material are is at a temperature T.K. The fraction of
energy emitted per second by the half sphere to that complete sphere is
1 1 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 4 16
16. A sphere and a cube of same material and same volume are heated up to same temperature and
allowed to cool in the same surroundings. The ratio of the amounts of radiations emitted in equal
time intervals will be
1/3 2/3
4   1  4 
1) 1 : 1 2) :1 3)   :1 4)   :1
3 6 2 3 
17. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that
Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes
will be
4 7 3
1) T 2) T 3) T 4) T
3 4 2
18. If the absolute temperature of a black body is doubled the percentage increase in the rate of loss of
heat by radiation is
1) 15% 2) 16% 3) 1600% 4) 1500%
19. The graph, shown in the adjacent diagram, represent the variation of temperature (T) of two bodies, x
and y having same surface area, with time (t) due to the emission of radiation. Find the correct
relation between the emissivity(e) and absorptivity (a) of two bodies

1) ex  e y and ax  a y 2) ex  e y and ax  a y
3) ex  e y and ax  a y 4) ex  e y and ax  a y
20. In kinetic theory of gases, it is assumed that molecules
1) Have same mass but can have different volume
2) Have same volume but masses can be different
3) Have both mass and volume different
4) Have same mass but negligible volume
21. Mean free path of gas molecule at constant temperature is inversely proportional to?
1) P 2) V 3) m 4) n (number density)
22. The average degrees of freedom per molecule for a gas is 6. The gas performs 25J of work when it
expands at constant pressure. The heat absorbed by gas is
1) 75 J 2) 100 J 3) 150 J 4) 125 J
23. Four molecules have speeds 3km/s, 3km/s, 4km/s and 5km/s. The rms speeds of these molecules in
km/s is
27
1) 2) 27 3) 2 27 4) 54
2
24. The breaking stress for a substance is 106 N / m2 what length of the wire of this substance should be
suspended vertically, so that the wire breaks under its own weight (Given: Density of material of the
wire = 4  103 kg / m3 and g  10ms 2 )
1) 10 m 2) 15 m 3) 25 m 4) 34 m3
25. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two material A and B are as shown in figure. If YA and YB
are the Young’s moduli of the materials, then

1) YB  2YA 2) YA  YB 3) YB  3YA 4) YA  3YB

26. A steel ring of radius r and cross-sectional area A is fitted on to a wooden disc of R (R > r). If
Young’s modulus be R, then the force with which the steel ring is expanded is
R  Rr  E  Rr  Er
1) AE 2) AE   3)   4)
r  r  A r  AR
27. Centripetal acceleration is
1) a constant vector 2) a constant scalar
3) a magnitude changing vector 4) not a constant vector
28. If temperature of an elastic material increases, Young’s modulus of material
1) Increases 2) Decreases 3) Unchanged 4) cannot be predicted
29. A dripping tap is shown below

When third drop is about to fall, first drop reaches floor at 9.8 m below. Height of second drop at this
instant (from ground) will be ______ m.
1) 7.35 m 2) 8.5 m 3) 4.9 m 4) 2.45 m
30. A man walks with a speed of 4kmph towards East suddenly turns towards North and walks with a
speed of 3kmph . The change in velocity of the man is
1) 5kmph North-East 2) 5kmph North-West 3) 7kmph North 4) 7kmph North-East
31. A bird is sitting in a wire cage hanging from the spring balance. Let the reading of the spring balance
be W1 . If the bird flies about inside the age, the reading of the spring balance is W2 . Which of the
following is true
1) W1  W2 2) W1  W2
3) W1  W2 4) Nothing definite can be predicted
32. How much heat energy should be added to the gaseous mixture consisting of 1g of hydrogen and 1 g
of helium to raise its temperature from 00 C to 1000 C at constant volume?
1) 325 cal 2) 450 cal 3) 612 cal 4) 800 cal
33. Two sample A and B of a gas initially at the same pressure and temperature are compressed from
volume V to V/2 (A isothermally and B adiabatically). The final pressure of A is
1) Greater than the final pressure of B 2) Equal to the final pressure of B
3) Less than the final pressure of B 4) Twice the final pressure of B
34. In uniform circular motion of a particle, angular velocity is 10rev/min. Then the time period is
2 
1) 6s 2) s 3) s 4) 3s
6 6
35. Two ships are 10 km apart on a line from south to north. The one farther north is moving towards
west at 40kmph and the other is moving towards north at 40 kmph. Then distance of their closest
approach is
10
1) 10 km 2) 10 2 km 3) km 4) 20 km
2
SECTION – B
36. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support, when loaded with a weight in air, it
expands by La and when the weight is immersed completely in water, the extension reduced to Lw .
Then relative density of the material of weight is
La L La Lw
1) 2) w 3) 4)
La  Lw La Lw La  Lw
37. Variation of internal energy with density of one mole of monatomic gas is depicted in the adjoining
figure, corresponding variation of pressure with volume can be depicted as (Assuming the curve is
rectangular hyperbola)

1) 2)

3) 4)

38. Figure shows a rod of length l resting on a wall and the floor. Its lower end A is pulled towards left
with a constant velocity v . Find the velocity of the other end B downward when the rod makes an
angle  with the horizontal

1) v cot  2) v tan  3) v cos  4) v sin 

39. Assertion (A): A steel wire of natural length ‘  ’ breaks, when elongated by length ‘x’. If original
length is halved and elongated by x/2 it breaks.
Reason (R): Breaking force is directly proportional to the length of the wire.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 4) Both (A) and (R) are false
40. The displacement of a particle starts from rest is proportional to the square of time, then the particle
travels with
1) uniform acceleration 2) uniform velocity
3) increasing acceleration 4) decreasing velocity
41. During an experiment an ideal gas is found to obey an additional law VP 2 =constant. The gas is
initially at a temperature ‘T’ and volume ‘V’. When it expands to a volume 2V, then the temperature
becomes
T
1) T 2) 2T 3) 2T 4)
2
42. On a hypothetical scale A the ice point is 42 0 and the steam points is 1820 for another scale B, the ice
point is 100 and steam point is 900 . If B reads 600 . The reading of A is
1) 1600 2) 1400 3) 1200 4) 1100
43. Statement I: A thick and thin metallic rods of same material heated through same rise of
temperature then thermal stress is same.
Statement II: Thermal stress is independent of area of cross section.
1) Statement I is true and statement II is true
2) Statement I is true and statement II is false
3) Statement I is false and statement II is true
4) Statement I is false and statement II is false
44. The liquid whose coefficient of real expansion is equal to 1.5 times the coefficient of areal expansion
of container and heated then the level of the liquid taken in the container
1) Rises 2) falls 3) remains same 4) first rises and then falls
45. Two metal strips that constitute a bimetallic strip must necessarily differ in their
1) Length 2) mass
3) Coefficient of linear expansion 4) resistivity
46. A shell is fired from a fixed artillery gun with an initial speed u, such that it hits the target on the
ground at a distance R from it. If t1 and t2 are the values of the time taken by it to hit the target in two
possible ways, the product of t1 t2 is
R R R 2R
1) 2) 3) 4)
4g g 2g g
47. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T1 , is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless
piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature. T2 by releasing the piston
suddenly. If L1 and L2 are the lengths of the gas column before and after expansion respectively, then
T1 / T2 is given by
2/3 2/3
L  L L L 
1)  1  2) 1 3) 2 4)  2 
 L2  L2 L1  L1 
48. Two particles A and B move with constant velocities v1 and v2 . At the initial moment, their position
vectors are r1 and r2 , respectively. The condition for particles A and B for their collision is
r1  r2 v v
1)  1 2 2) r1  v1  r2  v2
| r1  r2 | | v2  v1 |
3) r1  v1  r2  v2 4) r1  v1  r2  v2
49. A person travelling on a straight line moves with a uniform velocity v1 for a distance x and with a
uniform velocity v2 for the next equal distance. The average velocity v is given by
v1  v2 2 1 1 1 1 1
1) v  2) v  v1v2 3)   4)  
2 v v1 v2 v v1 v2
50. The breaking stress of an elastic wire depends on
1) Material of the wire 2) Length of the wire
3) Radius of cross section of the wire 4) Tension in the wire

CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
51. The correctly reported answer of the addition of 29.4406, 3.2 and 2.25 will have significant figures
1) three 2) four 3) two 4) five
52. SO2 gas was prepared by
(i) burning sulphur in oxygen,
(ii) reacting sodium sulphite with dilute H2SO4 and
(iii) heating copper with conc. H2SO4.
It was found that in each case sulphur and oxygen combined in the ratio of 1:1.
The data illustrate the law of
1) Conservation of mass 2) Multiple proportions
3) Constant proportions 4) Reciprocal proportion
53. Which of the following has the smallest number of molecules?
1) 0.1 mole of CO2 gas 2) 11.2 litres of CO2 gas
3) 22 g of CO2 gas 4) 22.4 × 103 ml of CO2 gas
54. For the reaction A + 2B  C, 5 moles of A and 8 moles of B will produce
1) 5 moles of C 2) 4 moles of C 3) 8 moles of C 4) 13 moles of C
55. Among the following the correct statement(s) is/are
(I) Increase in the frequency of the incident radiation increases the kinetic energy of photoelectrons.
(II) Threshold wavelength depends upon work function.
(III) The electrons are ejected from the metal surface as soon as the beam of light with threshold
frequency strikes the surface.
(IV) To cross the threshold energy intensity of the light must be increased.
1) I, II and III only 2) II, III and IV only
3) I, III and IV only 4) I, II, III and IV only
56. The first emission line of hydrogen atomic spectrum in the Balmer series appears at (R = Rydberg
constant)
5R 1 3 R 1 7 R 1 9R
1) cm 2) cm 3) cm 4) cm 1
36 4 144 400
57. Which of the following concerning Bohr’s model is not true?
1) It predicts that probability of an electron near nucleus is more.
2) Angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is given by nh / 2 .
n2
3) The radius of an orbit is proportional to
Z
4) When an electron jump from N to K shell, energy is released.
58. Which of the following is wrong?
1) The correct orbital designation for the electrons with quantum number n = 4, l = 3, m = 2 and s =
+1/2 is 4f.
2) Correct set of four quantum numbers of valence (outermost) electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is 5, 0,
0, +1/2.
3) The four quantum numbers of the fourth electron in beryllium are n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = −1/2.
4) The correct set of four quantum numbers of a 4d electron is 4, 3, 2, +1/2 .
59. The electron density of 3dxy orbital in y-z plane is
1) 50% 2) 95% 3) 33.33% 4) zero
60. The total number of electrons that can be accommodated in all the orbitals having principal quantum
number 2 and azimuthal quantum number 1 is
1) 2 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
61. The electron identified by quantum numbers n and l
(i) n = 4, l = 1 (ii) n = 4, l = 0
(iii) n = 3, l = 0 (iv) n = 3, l = 1
can be placed in the order of increasing energy from the lowest to highest
1) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) 2) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (ii)
3) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) 4) (iii) < (iv) < (ii) < (i)
62. Which of the following is an intensive property?
1) volume 2) mass 3) density 4) energy
63. Under which of the following conditions heat is a state function
1) adiabatic process 2) isothermal process
3) constant pressure 4) none of these
64. A system has internal energy U. 500 joules of heat is taken out of it and 650 joules of work is done
on it. The final internal energy of the system is
1) U + 1150 2) U – 150 3) U – 1150 4) U + 150
65. Equation U  q  w , can be expressed for isothermal irreversible and reversible changes as follows:
I. For isothermal irreversible change
q = – w = Pex (Vf – Vi )
II. For isothermal reversible change
V
q  w  nRT ln i
Vf
III. For adiabatic change, q = 0, U  Wad
Which of the following statements are correct?
1) I, II only 2) I, II, III 3) I, III only 4) II, III only
66. In which of the following reaction there is change in the oxidation state of chromium?
1) 2K 2CrO4  H 2 SO4  K 2 Cr2O7  K 2 SO4  H 2O
2) K 2CrO4  H 2 SO4  H 2 O2  K 2 SO4  CrO5  3H 2O
3) K 2Cr2O7  6 H 2 SO4  4 NaCl  2 KHSO4  4 NaHSO4  2CrO2Cl2  3H 2O
Alkali
4) Cr (OH )3  H 2O2   CrO42  H 2O
67. In the balanced equation 5 H 2 O2  xClO2  2OH   xCl   yO2  6 H 2O , the reaction is balanced if
1) x = 5, y = 2 2) x = 2, y = 5 3) x = 4, y = 10 4) x = 5, y = 5
68. The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2 and H2S respectively are
1) 0, +1, -2 2) +2, +1, -2 3) 0, +1, +2 4) -2, +1, -2
  
69. Assertion (A): (CH 3 ) 3 C is more stable than C H 3CH 2
 
Reason (R): Hyper conjugation interaction in (CH 3 ) 3 C is greater than in C H 3CH 2
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false.
4) A is false but R is true.
70. The IUPAC name of the compound having the structure

1) 1-chloro-4-methyl-hexanal-2 2) 1-chloro-4-ethyl-2-pentanol
3) 1-chloro-4-methyl-2-hexanol 4) 1-chloro-2-hydroxy-4-methyl hexane
71. The IUPAC name of
CH 2  CH  CH 2COOH
| |
HOOC COOH
is
1) propane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid 2) 3-carboxy-pentane-1,3-dioic acid
3) Hexane trioic acid 4) pentane -1,2,3-trioic acid
72. IUPAC name of the given compound is

1) 4-bromo-2-chloro-6-methyl cyclohexanol
2) 5-bromo-3-chloro-1-methyl cyclohexanol
3) 1-bromo-5-chloro-3-methyl-3-cyclohexanol
4) 5-bromo-1-chloro-3-methyl-3-cyclohexanol
73. Relative stabilities of the following carbocation will be in order

1) I < II < III < IV 2) IV < III < II < I 3) IV < II < III < I 4) II < IV < III < I
74. Out of the following the one containing only nucleophiles is
–
1) AlCl3, BF3, NH3 2) NH3, CN , CH3OH

–
3) AlCl3, NH 2 , H2O 4) RNH2, C H 3 , H
75. Inductive effect involves
1) Delocalization of  electrons 2) displacement of  electrons
3) Delocalization of  electrons 4) displacement of  electrons
76. In which of the following resonance will be possible?
1) CH2=CH–CH2–CHO 2) CH2=CH–CH=O
3) CH3COCH3 4) CH2=CH–CH2–CH=CH2
77. Which of the following represents the correct order of the acidity in the given compound?
1) BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > CH3COOH
2) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > CH3COOH
3) CH3COOH > BrCH2 COOH > ClCH2COOH > FCH2COOH
4) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
78. Which of the following is most basic?

1) 2) 3) 4)

79. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using code given below the lists.
List – I List – II
(A) CH 3CH 2 COOC2 H 5 and (i) Functional group isomer
CH 3COOCH 2 CH 2CH 3
(B) CH 3COOH and HCOOCH 3 (ii) Metamer

(C) (iii) Chain isomer

(D) Butane and Isobutane (iv) Tautomer

1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
80. The number of possible alcohols (only structural isomers) for C4H10O is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 5
81. Acetone and propen-2-ol are
1) Position isomers 2) keto-enol tautomers
3) Geometrical isomers 4) chain isomers
82. Geometrical isomerism is shown by
1) CH2=C (Br) I 2) CH3 CH=C (Br) I 3) (CH3)2C=C (Br) I 4) CH3CH=CCl2
83. d-Tartaric acid and l-tartaric acid are
1) Structural isomers 2) Diastereoisomers 3) Tautomers 4) Enantiomers
84. Which of the following is expected to be aromatic?

1) 2) 3) 4)

85. Alcohols on heating with con. H2SO4 form alkenes with elimination of one water molecule. This
reaction is also known as
1)  -elimination reaction 2) basic dehydration of alcohols
3) Acidic dehydration of alcohols 4) both (1) and (3)
 SECTION - B
86. A compound contains 69.5% oxygen and 30.5% nitrogen and its molecular weight is 92. The
formula of the compound is
1) N2O 2) N2O3 3) N2O4 4) N2O5
87. 100 ml of 0.2M K2SO4 is diluted with 100 ml of water. The concentration of K+ ion in the solution
1) 0.4M 2) 0.1M 3) 0.2M 4) 0.8M
88. Assertion (A): The angular momentum of an electron in an atom is quantised.
Reason (R): In an atom only those orbits are permitted in which angular momentum of the electron is
h
the whole number multiple of

1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false.
4) A is false but R is true.
89. Match the following
List-I List-II
(A) Number of electrons present in an orbit (i) 2
(B) Number of orbitals in an orbit (ii) n
(C) Number of electrons in an orbital (iii) n2
(D) Number of subshells in an orbit (iv) 2n2
1) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii 4) A-ii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
90. Electronic energy is a negative energy because
1) Electron carries negative charge.
2) Energy is zero at the nucleus and decreases as the distance from the nucleus increases.
3) Energy is zero at infinite distance from the nucleus and decreases as the electron comes closer to
the nucleus.
4) There are inter electronic repulsions.
91. An ideal gas expands in volume from 1 × 10–3 m3 to 1 × 10–2 m3 at 300 K against a constant pressure
of 1 × 105 Nm–2. The work done is
1) –900 J 2) –900 kJ 3) 270 kJ 4) 900 kJ
92. One mole of naphthalene (C10H8 ) was burnt in oxygen at constant volume. The heat evolved was
1228.2 k.cal. The heat of reaction at constant pressure and 300 K is (R = 2 × 10–3 k.cal)
1) 1122.38 k.cal 2) –1229.4 k.cal 3) 1228.2 k.cal 4) 1234 k.cal
93. In the reaction,
P  Cr2O72   H   PO43  Cr 3  H 2O
If 0.2 moles of Cr2O72 are taken then moles of ‘P’ reacted is
1) 0.34 2) 0.14 3) 0.24 4) 0.04
94. Names of some compounds are given, which one is not in IUPAC system

1) 2)

3) 4)
 
95. Statement I: : C H 3 contains a –ve charge with an eight-electron system.
Statement II: It acts as nucleophile.
1) Both statement I & statement II are true
2) Statement I is true, statement II is false
3) Both statement I & statement II are false
4) Statement I is false, statement II is true
96. The correct stability order of the following species is

1) II > IV > I > III 2) I > II > III > IV 3) II > I > IV > III 4) I > III > II > IV
97. Assertion (A) : CH3COOH is more acidic than phenol.
Reason (R): The carboxylate ion is more stable than phenoxide ion since, carboxylate ion has an
equally contributed resonating structure but phenoxide ion has not.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true but R is false.
4) A is false but R is true.
98. o-Hydroxy toluene and benzyl alcohol are
1) position isomers 2) functional isomers
3) chain isomers 4) None
99. Which of the following compounds is not aromatic?

1) 2) 3) 4)
100. Match the organic compounds given in Column I with their names given in Column II and choose
the correct option using the codes given below.
Column I Column II
(Compounds) (Common/Trivial names)
A. H 3CCH 2 CH 2OH 1. Acetophenone
B. CH 3COOH 2. Acetic acid
C. C6 H 5OCH 3 3. n  propyl alcohol
D. C6 H 5COCH 3 4. Anisole
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 2) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
3) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 4) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
 BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Match the following type of aestivations with their corresponding examples
Aestivation Example
A. Imbricate i. China rose
B. Valvate ii. Bean
C. Twisted iii. Cassia
D. Vexillary iv. Calotropis
1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 2) A-ii, B-iii, C-iii, D-iv
3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii 4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
102. Statement A: In parietal placentation the ovary is one-chambered but it becomes two-chambered due
to the formation of false septum.
Statement B: In lily, stamen is epiphyllous in nature.
1) Only statement A is incorrect 2) Only statement B is incorrect
3) Both statements are correct 4) Both statements are incorrect
103. Which of the following plants exhibit a stem modification in which stem is modified into cylindrical
structure to perform photosynthesis?
1) Euphorbia 2) Bouganvillea 3) Jasmine 4) Pistia
104. Lillaceae shares common (A) floral symmetry with Solanaceae but differs in having the presence
of (B)
Select the correct option to fill (A) and (B)
1) Zygomorphic, axile placentation 2) Asymmetric, valvate aestivation
3) Actinomorphic, perianth 4) Zygomorphic, cymose inflorescence
105. (A) root of turnip and (B) root of sweet potato helps in storage of food.
Select the correct option to fill (A) and (B)
1) A – Adventitious, B - Tap 2) A – Fibrous, B – Adventitious
3) A – Tap, B – Adventitious 4) A – Adventitious, B – Fibrous
106. Tendril of watermelon differs from tendril of pea as the former is the modification of
1) Leaf 2) Stem 3) Petiole 4) Stipule
107. Which of the following pairs represents non-endospermic seed, a dicot and a monocot seed
respectively?
1) Pea and castor 2) Gram and maize
3) Gram and barley 4) Bean and orchid
108. Medicinal plant like Atropa and Ashwagnadha belong to
1) Liliaceae 2) Fabaceae 3) Solanaceae 4) Brassicaceae
109. Shield shaped cotyledon in monocot seed is called
1) Aleurone layer 2) Coleoptile 3) Coleorhiza 4) Scutellum
110. Select the correct pair of plants representing perigynous and epigynous flower, respectively
1) Brinjal and plum 2) Cucumber and rose
3) China rose and mustard 4) Peach and guava
111. Select the correct option w.r.t. algin
1) It is similar in structure with amylopectin
2) It is obtained from red algae
3) It is present in cell wall of Phaeophyceae
4) It has no water holding capacity
112. An example of simple branched filamentous form of brown algae is
1) Kelps 2) Ectocarpus 3) Chara 4) Gellidium
113. In which group will you place a plant which do not produce seeds but female gametophytes are
retained on them for variable periods?
1) Bryophytes 2) Pteridophytes 3) Gymnosperms 4) Angiosperms
114. Gymnosperms produce naked seeds as they lack
1) Ovule 2) Ovary 3) Embryo 4) Gamete
115. Identify the heterosporous genera from the following
1) Lycopodium and Selaginella 2) Equisetum and Lycopodium
3) Selaginella and Salvinia 4) Equisetum and Psilotum
116. Coralloid roots of gymnosperms
1) Are found in Pinus 2) Are found in Cycas
3) Help in fixation of CO2 4) Are in association with fungi
117. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) Pteridophytes (i) heterosporous
(b) Gymnosperms (ii) Gemmae present
(c) Liverworts (iii) Include horsetails and ferns
(d) Mosses (iv) Gametophyte consists of two stages
1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) 2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
3) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) 4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
118. How many of the following is/are correct?
(A) Free living sporophytes are present in gymnosperms and angiosperm.
(B) Sporophyte is dominant in pteridophytes, while gametophyte is the dominant stage in bryophytes.
(C) In mosses after fertilization zygote develops into a gametophyte.
(D) In gymnosperms, the gametophytic generation is highly reduced and is totally dependent on
sporophyte.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
119. The microsporophylls and megasporophyll
1) Are found on separate male and female trees of Pinus
2) Are borne on different trees in Cycas
3) Are found in bryophytes
4) Are reproductive structure in algae
120. How many of the following is/are correct?
(A) Gametophyte is haploid in pteridophytes.
(B) Sporophyte is haploid in bryophytes.
(C) Algae are generally haploid with diploid stage represented by zygote.
(D) Bryophyte produce diploid spores.
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
121. Select the incorrect option for viroids
1) Cause potato spindle tuber disease
2) Discovered in 1971
3) Nucleic acid is protected by capsid
4) Its RNA was of low molecular weight
122. Consider the following characteristics and identify the correct fungi on the basis of them.
A. Branched and septate mycelium.
B. Sexual spores are produced exogenously.
C. Sex organs are absent.
D. Generally asexual spores are absent.
1) Neurospora 2) Ustilago 3) Alternaria 4) Rhizopus
123 Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement A: Bladderwort and Cuscuta are insectivorous plants.
Statement B: Animals store food reserves as glycogen or fats and show holozoic mode of nutrition.
1) Only statement A is incorrect 2) Only statement B is incorrect
3) Both statements A and B are correct 4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
124. Assertion: In Ustilago, dikaryo phase stage is observed.
Reason: In Basidiomycetes, Karyogamy is delayed after plasmogamy.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
3) Assertion is true statement but reason is false
4) Both assertion and reason are false statements
125. Select the correct match
1) Amoeboid protozoans – Some of them are autotrophs
2) Flagellated protozoans – Exemplified by Entamoeba
3) Ciliated protozoans – Have gullet
4) Sporozoans – They are non-infectious
126. The common characteristics shared by member of Ascomycetes and Deuteromycetes is:
1) Asexual reproduction by conidia
2) Absence of sexual stages
3) Vegetative reproductive is absent
4) All the members are parasites
127. Which of the following is not a feature of dinoflagellates?
1) Have soap box like cell wall
2) Presence of chlorophyll a
3) Presence of stiff cellulosic cell plates
4) Few forms are toxic for the marine lifeforms
128. Which among the following is not a universal rule of binomial nomenclature?
1) Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics
2) First word in the biological name represents the genus while the second component denotes specific
epithet
3) Both words in a biological name when handwritten are separately underlined
4) Both words of a biological name, genus and specific epithet start with capital letter
129. All of the following are orders, except
1) Primata 2) Insecta 3) Diptera 4) Poales
130. Select the incorrect match among the following
1) Mangifera - Genus
2) Dicotyledonae - Class
3) Muscidae - Order
4) Poaceae - Family
131. Select the correct order of taxonomic category in ascending order
1) Genus  Species  Family  Order  Class
2) Species  Genus  Order  Family  Class
3) Species  Genus  Family  Order  Class
4) Species  Genus  Class  Order  Family
132. Which characteristic is exclusively present in the human beings?
1) Metabolism 2) Cellular organization
3) Reproduction 4) Self-consciousness
133. In how many of the given fungi, asexual reproduction commonly occurs by endogenously formed non-
motile spores [A] and by exogenously formed non-motile spores [B]?
Neurospora, Mucor, Penicillium, Rhizopus, Aspergillus
1) A-4, B-1 2) A-2, B-3 3) A-3, B-2 4) A-1, B-4
134. Assertion: Archaebacteria can survive in extreme habitats.
Reason: Methanogens are found in hot sulphur springs.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3) ‘A’ is true, ‘R’ is false
4) ‘A’ is false, ‘R’ is true
135. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Penicillium (i) Zygospore
b. Rhizopus (ii) Imperfect fungus
c. Ustilago (iii) Ascospore
d. Colletotrichum (iv) Basidiospore
1) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) 2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) 4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

SECTION – B
136. The chief producers of oceans
1) Have silica deposited cell wall 2) Are absent in fresh water bodies
3) Have two flagella in vegetative stage 4) Are prokaryotic
137. Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option.
Statement A: The number of similar characteristics goes on increasing from species to kingdom.
Statement B: Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa
at same level.
1) Only statement A is correct
2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statement A and B are correct
4) Both statement A and B are incorrect
138. The process of recognising the characterising feature of an organism is known as
1) Characterisation 2) Identification 3) Nomenclature 4) Classification
139. Choose the odd one for Nostoc
1) Heterocyst 2) Mucilagenous sheath
3) Flagella 4) Cell wall
140. Which of the following organisms are not placed in kingdom Plantae of two kingdom classification
system proposed by Linnaeus?
1) Bacteria 2) Algae 3) Protozoans 4) Fungi
141. Agaricus
1) Lack dikaryophase 2) Has coenocytic hyphae
3) Produces sexual spores exogenously 4) Lacks sexual reproduction
142. Green algae have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of A and an outer layer of B . A and
B respectively are
1) Cellulose, Pectose 2) Pectose, Cellulose
3) Cellulose, Cellulose 4) Pectose, Pectose
143. Match the following columns and select the correct option
Column I Column II
(a) Cycas (i) Lycopsida
(b) Selaginella (ii) Gymnosperm with branched stem
(c) Pinus (iii) Diplontic life cycle
(d) Eucalyptus (iv) N 2 fixing cyanobacteria in roots
1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) 2) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 4) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
144. Microphylls are found in
1) Dryopteris 2) Selaginella 3) Pteris 4) Adiantum
145. Mango is similar to coconut in
1) Being a composite fruit 2) Having a fleshly edible mesocarp
3) Being parthenocarpic in nature 4) Having stony endocarp
146. is the floral formula of

1) Liliaceae 2) Solanaceae 3) Brassicaceae 4) Fabaceae

147. Swollen leaf base, pulvinus is found in
1) Bean 2) Rice 3) Maize 4) Oat
148. How many of the given plants have axile placentation?
Sunflower, Dianthus, Primrose, China rose, Tomato, Argemone, Pea, Lemon
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five
149. Mark the statements as true (T) and false (F) and select correct option.
A. Algae are primary producers of energy rich compounds.
B. Both brown algae and red algae produce hydrocolloids.
C. Chlorella is filamentous algae used as food supplement by space travellers.
1) A-T, B-T, C-F 2) A-T, B-F, C-F 3) A-F, B-T, C-T 4) A-F, B-F, C-T
150. How many of the following are mainly used as ornamental and medicinal plant, respectively?
Aloe, Belladonna, Lupin, Sweet pea, Petunia, Muliathi, Gloriosa
1) Four; Three 2) Two; Five 3) One; Six 4) Six; One
ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A
151. Radial symmetry with tissue level of organization is the characteristic feature of organisms that
belong to the phylum exhibiting
1) Dorsoventrally flattened body
2) Well developed muscular pharynx
3) Eight external rows of ciliated comb plates
4) Open circulatory system
152. Match the column I with column II and select the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Aurelia (i) Presence of calcareous shell
b. Ancylostoma (ii) Umbrella shaped, free living
c. Pleurobrachia (iii) Pseudocoelomate
d. Pinctada (iv) Exhibit sexual reproduction only
Select the correct option
1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) 2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
3) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) 4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
153. How many of the following given below in the box are monoecious animals?
Pheretima, Nereis, Anopheles, Taenia, Wuchereria, Hirudinaria
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) One
154. Which of the given orangs is/are used for respiration in arthropods?
a. Gills b. Book lungs c. Tracheal system
Select the correct option
1) a and b only 2) b and c only 3) a and c only 4) a, b and c
155. Identify the animal given below and select the option correctly representing its division

1) Amphibia 2) Gnathostomata 3) Tetrapoda 4) Agnatha

156. Hippocampus differs from Pristis in
1) Presence of one auricle and one ventricle in heart
2) Separation of sexes
3) Position of mouth
4) Lacking the ability to regulate their body temperature
157. Which of the following features is common in all reptiles?
1) Three-chambered heart 2) Shed their scales as skin cast
3) Two pairs of limbs 4) Poikilothermic animals
158. Select the correct match
Common name Scientific name Taxon
1) Lamprey Myxine Cyclostomata
2) Fighting fish Betta Chondrichthyes
3) Blue whale Balaenoptera Mammalia
4) Penguin Neophron Aves
159. Read the given statements
a. Notochord is ventral to nerve cord in chordates.
b. Platypus is similar to sting ray in exhibiting viviparity.
c. The body of hagfish is devoid of scales and fins.
d. Protochordates are exclusively marine as echinoderms.
How many of the above given statements are correct?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) One
160. Statement A: Whale and shark are similar to dolphin in being viviparous.
Statement B: Due to the absence of operculum, cartilaginous fishes have to swim constantly to avoid
sinking.
1) Both the statements are correct
2) Both the statements are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct
4) Only statement B is correct
161. Observe the given diagram carefully.

Choose the incorrect statement regarding the tissue shown.

1) It lines the body cavities and possess cilia in the kidney tubules
2) Their nuclei are located at the base
3) Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction
4) It consists of a single layer of cells resting on a non-cellular basement membrane
162. Read the following statements.
A. Diverse type of connective tissue binds together, support, strengthen and insulate other tissues.
B. Soft connective tissue includes bone and cartilage
C. Blood is a fluid connective tissue which helps in transport
D. Connective tissue has very less intercellular material
1) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-T 2) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
3) A-F, B-F, C-F, D-T 4) A-T, B-T, C-F, D-F
163. In which of the following connective tissue the fibres of structural proteins are absent?
1) Bone 2) Cartilage
3) Areolar connective tissue 4) Blood
164. Which of the following type of muscles has the nerve supply from the central nervous system and is
voluntary?
1) Smooth muscle 2) Non-striated muscle
3) Cardiac muscle 4) Skeletal muscle
165. In which of the following parts Nissl granule is present in a neuron?
1) Axon only 2) Cyton, axon and axon terminals
3) Cyton and dendrites 4) Cyton only
166. In cockroach exchange of gases take place at
1) Trachea 2) Spiracles 3) Tracheoles 4) Tracheal tubes
167. How many of the given structures in the box are present in the head region of cockroach?
Ocellus, Pronotum, Hypopharynx, Proventriculus, Salivary glands, Antennae, Tegmina
1) 6 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
168. Match column I with column II and select the correct option w.r.t. cockroaches.
Column I Column II
a. Testes (i) 4th – 6th abdominal segments in male
b. Mushroom gland (ii) 2nd – 6th abdominal segments in female
c. Ovaries (iii) 6th – 7th abdominal segment in male
d. Spermatheca (iv) 6th segment in male
(v) 6th segment in female
1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(v) 2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
3) a(iii), b(ii), c(v), d(i) 4) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i)
169. Anterior part of female genital pouch of cockroach has openings for all, except
1) Spermatheca 2) Common oviduct 3) Ovarioles 4) Collaterial gland
170. Frogs differ from humans in possessing
1) Paired optic lobes 2) Nucleated erythrocytes
3) Lymph that lacks RBCs 4) Hepatic portal system
171. In female cockroach, genital chamber along with vestibulum, forms
1) Phallomere 2) Gonapophyses 3) Brood pouch 4) Titilator
172. The part of the alimentary canal which has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner
cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate in cockroach is
1) Mesenteron 2) Proventriculus 3) Hind gut 4) Crop
173. Read the following statements w.r.t. frogs
(i) They are poikilotherms
(ii) They perform mimicry to hide from their enemies
(iii) They undergo hibernation but no aestivation
(iv) The frog never drinks water but absorb it through the skin
(v) The skin usually remains dry
How many of the above statements are correct?
1) Four 2) Three 3) Two 4) Five
174. Choose the correct statement for the digestive system of frog:
1) Oesophagus is very long
2) Food is captured by the bilobed tongue
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) Intestine is divisible into two parts only, i.e., duodenum and rectum
175. Which of the following is correct for CNS of frogs?
1) Medulla oblongata passes out through the foramen magnum and continues as spinal cord
2) Mid brain possesses one optic lobe
3) Brain contains 10 cranial nerves
4) All are correct
176. Choose the correct statement for female reproductive system of frogs:
1) Ovaries have no functional or internal connections with the kidneys
2) A mature female can lay 2500-3000 ova at a time
3) The posterior ends of oviduct are broad called ovisacs which open dorsally into cloaca
4) More than one option is correct
177. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. mechanism of breathing
1) The movement of air into and out of the lungs is carried out by creating pressure gradient between
the lungs and the atmosphere
2) During inspiration, the intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure
3) Contraction of diaphragm and internal inter-costal muscles lead to inspiration
4) Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic chamber in antero-posterior axis
178. Match the following columns w.r.t. hear valves and their location
Column I Column II
a. Tricuspid valve (i) Aorta and pulmonary trunk
b. Mitral valve (ii) Between left atrium and left ventricle
c. Semilunar valves (iii) Between right atrium and right ventricle
Choose the correct option
1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) 2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii) 3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i) 4) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
179. Match column I and column II and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
a. Neutrophils (i) 2-3 % of total WBCs
b. Basophils (ii) 6-8% of total WBCs
c. Monocytes (iii) 20-25% of total WBCs
d. Eosinophils (iv) 60-65% of total WBCs
(v) 0.5-1% of total WBCs
1) a(iii), b(v), c(ii), d(i) 2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(v)
3) a(iv), b(ii), c(v), d(iii) 4) a(iv), b(v), c(ii), d(i)
180. Function not performed by conducting part of respiratory tract is
1) Humidification of inhaled air
2) Trapping of foreign particles
3) Diffusion of O2 and CO 2 between blood and atmospheric air
4) Bringing the inhaled air to body temperature
181. An approximate amount of air left in the lungs after maximal forced expiration in a normal human is
1) Zero L 2) 3.1 L 3) 4.2 L 4) 1.1 L
182. For the sigmoid curve shown below, an increase in all of the following factors will cause its shift to
the right except

1) pCO2 2) Temperature 3) pO2 4) H  ion concentration

183. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
1) Respiratory rhythm centre is present in medulla oblongata
2) The role of oxygen in regulation of respiratory rhythm centre is quite insignificant
3) Pneumotaxic center in medulla can only increase the duration of inspiration
4) Chemosensitive area gets activated due to increase in H  in the CSF
184. Which of the following statements is not true for human heart?
1) Adrenal medullary hormones can increase the cardiac output
2) Neural signal through the sympathetic nerves can initiate the heart beat
3) Parasympathetic neural signals decrease the rate of heart beat and speed of conduction of action
potential and thereby the cardiac output
-1
4) SAN can generate the maximum number of action potentials i.e., 70-75 min
185. In normal ECG, QRS complex represents depolarization of ventricles which initiates the
1) Filling of ventricles 2) Auricular systole
3) Ventricular contraction 4) Ventricular relaxation
 SECTION – B
186. Statement A: Flatworms exhibit the external fertilization with indirect development.
Statement B: Metagenesis and metamerism are characteristics of Obelia and Octopus respectively.
1) Both the statements are correct
2) Both the statements are incorrect
3) Only statement A is correct
4) Only statement B is correct
187. How many of the given animals exhibit external fertilization and indirect development?
Labeo, Scoliodon, Hyla, Corvus, Vipera, Clarias
1) Three 2) Four 3) Two 4) One
188. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. neuroglial cells of the nervous tissue.
1) These are the cells that provide insulation to the nerve cells
2) These are non-excitable cells and provide protection
3) They form the majority of the neural tissue
4) They form the unit of neural system
189. Assertion: The cardiac output of an athlete will be more during exercise compared to that of an
ordinary man.
Reason: Cardiac output is based on the body’s ability to alter the stroke volume as well as the heart
rate.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true bur Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true, Reason is false
4) Assertion is false, Reason is true
190. Which of the following labeling from the figure given below is not a part of diffusion membrane?

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
191. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. cockroach.
1) Ootheca - Fertilized eggs are encased
2) Seminal vesicles - Store sperms
3) Crop - Storage of food
4) Alary muscles - 12 in number
192. Choose the odd one w.r.t. reproductive system of male cockroach.
1) Pseudopeins 2) Collaterial glands
3) Phallic gland 4) Long tubules
193. Choose the correct statement for the blood circulation in frog’s heart
1) The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from pulmonary veins
2) The right atrium receives deoxygenated blood through sinus venosus
3) Sinus venosus receives blood from vena cava
4) More than one option is correct
194. Renal portal vein in frogs:
1) Carry oxygenated blood
2) Carry blood from lower part of the body to kidney
3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
4) May bypass kidney and directly enter heart
195. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in pulmonary artery is
1) More than that in tissues 2) Equal to that in systemic arteries
3) Less than that in alveoli 4) Equal to that in systemic vein
196. Which of the following is the most common feature of occupational respiratory disorders?
1) Collapsing of alveoli 2) Fibrosis of lungs
3) Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing 4) Fibrosis of trachea
197. The condition called erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by
1) Injecting Rh antigen into mother’s blood immediately after delivery of the first child
2) Administering anti-Rh-antibodies to the newborn
3) Administering anti-Rh antibodies to mother’s blood immediately after delivery of Rh positive
child
4) Injecting Rh positive blood group into mother’s blood just after conception
198. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. second heart sound
1) Produced during middle of joint diastole
2) Produced at the beginning of ventricular diastole
3) Produced at the initiation of atrial systole
4) It is called lub and is associated with closure of the AV valves
199. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t animal, type of heart and type of circulation?
Animal Type of heart Type of circulation
(1) Rohu 2 chambered Single circulation
(2) Rana 3 chambered Incomplete double circulation
(3) Lizard 3 chambered Incomplete single circulation
(4) Human 4 chambered Double circulation
1) (1) 2) (2) 3) (3) 4) (4)
200. Find the incorrect match
1) Hypertension – Blockage of coronary artery by fibre and cholesterol deposit
2) Heart attack – Death of heart muscles due to inadequate blood supply
3) Heart failure – Inefficient pumping of blood by heart to meet needs of the body
4) Cardiac arrest – When the heart stops beating

****