Which of the following statements is (are) correct with regard to computer flight plans?

1) The computer takes account of bad weather on the route and adds extra fuel.

2) The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and
approach and landing at the destination alternate.

A) Both statements

B) Neither statement

C) Statement 2 only

D) Statement 1 only

Reference computer flight plans.

Are they able to account for bad weather in calculating fuel required?

A) can automatically allow for poorly maintained engines

B) no
C) can automatically allow extra consumption for anti-icing use
D) can automatically divert route around forecast thunderstorms

Which statements are correct about computer flight plans?

1)They can file the flight plan for you

2)In the event of an in-flight re-routing computer automatically generates a new flight plan

A) Neither

B) Both

C) 2 only

D) 1 only

1
The direction of the Earths rotation on its axis is such that:

Observed from the point above the North Pole, the rotation is
counter-clockwise.

An observer on the surface of the earth always will face West when
observing sunrise.
Any point on the surface of the Earth will move eastward.

Any point on the surface of the Earth will move westward.

Sun rise at 50° N 072° E is at 0254 on 25th January. What time will
the sun rise at 50° N 007° E on that day?

0514 UTC

0714 UTC

0254 UTC

2154 UTC

The compression factor of the earth:

is so small that it may be ignored when making ordinary maps and charts.

all 3 answers are correct.

is about 1:300.

makes the difference between the polar diameter and the equatorial
diameter about 22 NM.

The angle between the true great-circle track and the true rhumbline
track joining the following points: A (60° S 165° W) B (60° S
177° E), at the place of departure A, is:

5.2°
9°
15. 2
7.8 °

A correct definition of longitude is:

The angle between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the place.

The arc at equator between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the
place, measured degrees, minutes and seconds, named East or West.
The East-West distance between Greenwich and the place.

The difference between the Greenwich meridian and the meridian of the
place, measured at the of the earth. A Parallel of Latitude is a:

Meridian of
tangency.

Rhumb line.

Small circle.

Great circle.

The term Ellipsoid may be used to describe:

the shape of the ecliptic.

the movement of the earth around the

sun.

the shape of the earth.

a great circle on the celestial sphere.

At what latitude does the maximum difference between geodetic

and geocentric latitude occur?
A)
90
deg.
B 45
3
) deg.
C)
0
deg.
D)
60
deg.
When the suns declination is northerly:
A)
it is winter on the northern hemisphere.
B)
the sunrise occurs earlier at southern latitudes than the northern
latitudes.
C)
the daylight period is shorter in the southern hemisphere than the
northern.
D)
midnight sun may be observed at the south pole.
The equator is located:
A)
on the surface of the earth, being a circle whose plane is perpendicular to
the axis of the earth cutting through the centre of the earth.
B)
on the surface of the earth and at right angles to the axis of rotation.
C)
on the surface as a small circle, horizontal to the axis of rotation.
D)
on the surface parallel to the magnetic equator.
Generally what line lies closer to the pole?
A)
Great line.
B)
Rhumb line.
C)
Equator.
D)
The rhumb line or great circle depending on the chart
used.
The circumference of the Earth is approximately:
A)
10800
nm.
4
B)
5400
nm.
C)
21600
nm.
D)
43200
nm.
The great circle track X - Y measured at x is 319° , and Y 325°
Consider the following statements:
A)
Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is
322° .
B)
Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is
331° .
C)
Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 313°
.
D)
Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322°
.
If the Mean Sun moves 121° 30 along the Equator, that equals:
A)
8 hours 06
minutes.
B)
20 hours 10
minutes.
C)
9 hours 15
minutes.
D)
6 hours 20
minutes.
The LMT and date at a longitude of 00100W is 1330 on the 6
January, what is the LMT and date at a longitude of 15900E:
A)
0010 5
January
5
B)
0006 7
January
C)
0046 7
January
D)
0010 7
January
What is the definition of EAT?
A)
Estimated initial approach fix time.
B)
Estimated final approach fix time.
C)
Estimated time overhead the destination
airfield.
D)
Estimated on-blocks arrival time.
Apparent Time is:
A)
Based on the time of transit of the apparent Sun.
B)
The time that is apparent to everybody; in other words the official time.
C)
The correct time, as it appears on our watches and clocks.
D)
The average time, calculated from the movements of the Sun and the
stars.
The duration of twilight:
A)
Is longer in the morning than in the evening, because of the refraction in the
atmosphere.
B)
Is generally longer in positions at high latitudes that in positions at lower
latitudes.
C)
Will in the period around the Equinoxes increase as you approach the
equator from North or
South.
D)
Is independent of the suns declination, and only depends on the observers
latitude and
longitude.
The forces acting upon the compass needle in a stand-by compass
in an aircraft, are:
6
A)
the total magnetic field in the compass location.
B)
the Earths magnetic field, the aircraft magnetic field and the effects of
attitude and aircraft.
C)
the Earths magnetic field, the Coriolis effect and aircraft magnetism.
D)
mechanic forces only.
What is variation at the magnetic equator?
A)
Less than 90° .
B)
Between 45° and
90° .
C)
Zero.
D)
180° E/W.
Required track 300° T, drift 8° right, variation 10° W, deviation -4°
. What is the required compass heading?
A)
30
6°
B)
31
0°
C)
31
4°
D)
29
8°
The type of compass least likely to suffer from parallax is:
A)
direct reading
compass.
B)
directional indicator.
C)
remote reading
compass.
7
D)
a standby compass.
A Nautical mile is defined as:
A)
The length of a 1 minute arc, measured anywhere on the surface of the
Earth.
B)
The average length of a 1' arc of longitude and a 1' arc of latitude.
C)
1855 metres.
D)
The average length of a 1 minute arc of a meridian.
In international aviation the following units are used for horizontal
distance:
A)
Kilometres, Feet and Nautical miles.
B)
Metres, Kilometres and Nautical miles.
C)
Kilometres, Statute miles and Nautical
miles.
D)
Metres, Statute miles and Nautical miles.
An agonic line joins places of:
A)
equal horizontal force
H.
B)
zero magnetic
variation.
C)
equal magnetic
deviation.
D)
equal magnetic
variation.
The horizontal component of the earths magnetic field:
A)
is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50° N and 50°
S.
B weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic
8
) pole.
C)
weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles.
D)
is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than
60° .
The directive force is:
A)
Z
B)
L
C)
V
D)
H
A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that:
A)
Compass North is West of Magnetic
North.
B)
Compass North is East of Magnetic
North.
C)
True North is West of Magnetic North.
D)
True North is East of Magnetic North.
An aircraft accelerates on a westerly heading in the northern
hemisphere. The needle of the direct reading compass will:
A)
not be deflected.
B)
turn clockwise or anticlockwise depending on the rate of
acceleration.
C)
turn anticlockwise.
D)
turn clockwise.
Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote reading
compass as compared with a standby compass?
9
A)
It is lighter than a direct reading compass because it employs, apart from
the detector unit, existing
aircraft equipment.
B)
It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it, increasing compass
sensitivity.
C)
It eliminates the effect of turning and acceleration errors by pendulously
suspending the detector D)
It is more reliable because it is operated electrically and power is always
available from sources the aircraft.
A Landing Compass:
A)
Is used to establish aircraft magnetic heading during a compass swing.
B)
Is the compass used as reference during landing.
C)
Is painted on the ground at airfields to indicate the direction of the cardinal
magnetic headings observers on the ground or in the air.
D)
Is a compass on which the runway direction for landing may be set. The
variation information on the map as isogonals
What is the most common use for an oblique Mercator chart?
A)
Maps of equatorial areas only.
B)
Selected great circle routes.
C)
Polar routes.
D)
Topographical maps of the British
Isles.
On a direct Mercator projection, the. distance measured between
two meridians spaced 5° apart at latitude 60° N is 8 cm. The scale
of this chart at latitude 60° N is approximately:
A)
1 : 7 000
000
B)
1 : 4 750
000
C)
1 : 6 000
000
10
D)
1 : 3 500
000
The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the
convergence angle between longitudes 010° E and 030° W is 30° ,
is:
A)
0.5
0.
B)
0.7
5.
C)
0.4
0.
D)
0.6
4.
An aircraft flies 448 nm along a parallel of latitude and the longitude
changes by 8° 21. What is the latitude:
A)
16° 36
N/S
B)
63° 24
N/S
C)
26° 36
N/S
D)
46° 36
N/S
Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are:
A)
arcs of concentric circles equally
spaced.
B)
parallel straight lines unequally
spaced.
C)
straight lines converging above the
pole.
11
D)
parallel straight lines equally spaced.
A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and represents
150 NM. The chart scale is:
A)
1 : 1 000
000.
B)
1 : 3 000
000.
C)
1 : 6 000
000.
D)
1 : 5 000
000.
An aircraft has a TAS of 300 knots and is over a stretch of water
between 2 airfields 500 nm apart. If the wind component is 60
knots head, what is the distance from the first airfield to the critical
point?
A)
250
nm.
B)
300
nm.
C)
200
nm.
D)
280
nm.
What do you call a system of gyros and accelerometers which is
fixed to the aircraft?
A)
Fixed.
B)
Strapdown.
C)
Laser.
D)
Gyro-stabilised
platform.
12
Laser lock is overcome in an IRS system by using a piezo-electric
motor which utilises the principle of:
A)
SAGNA
C.
B)
vibratio
n.
C)
dither.
D)
shake.
The resultant of the first integration of the output from the
east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in
NAV MODE is:
A)
velocity along the local parallel of
latitude.
B)
change of longitude.
C)
departure.
D)
vehicle longitude.
Cruising at FL390, M.84 is found to give a TAS of 499kt. The ISA
deviation at this level will be:
A)
+1
9.
B)
+1
7.
C)
-
17
.
D)
-
19
.
VNO is the maximum speed:
A with flaps extended in landing position.
13
)
B)
at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
C)
not to be exceeded except in still air and with
caution.
D)
which must never be exceeded.
When an altimeter is used for SSR it is always referenced to:
A)
QFE
B)
QNH
C)
The pressure setting in
use
D)
1013.25 hPa
If the pitot line to an ASI becomes totally blocked during a climb,
the ASI reading will:
A)
progressively
increase.
B)
progressively
decrease.
C)
remain unchanged.
D)
drop to zero.
VLE is the maximum:
A)
speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full
safety.
B)
speed authorized in flight.
C)
flight speed with landing gear down.
D)
speed with flaps extended in a given position.
The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are:
14
A)
VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper
limit
B)
VS1 for the lower limit and VFE for the upper
limit
C)
VS1 for the lower limit and VLE for the upper
limit
D)
VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper
limit
The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of
100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3° indicates:
A)
-300
ft/min
B)
-500
ft/min
C)
-50
ft/min
D)
-150
ft/min
Compressibility Error requires a .... (i) correction because it is ....
(ii) of ....(iii) pressure. It gives .... (iv):
A)
(i) negative (ii) an increase (iii) dynamic (iv)
EAS
B)
(I) negative (ii) a decrease (iii) static (iv) EAS
C)
(i) positive (ii) an increase (iii) dynamic (iv)
TAS
D)
(i) positive (ii) a decrease (iii) static (iv) TAS
The case of an air driven turn and balance indicator is leaking. A
rate 1 turn of 360° will take:
A)
Two minutes exactly
B More than two
15
) minutes
C)
None of the above
D)
Less than two
minutes
What is known as the " Schuler Period" has a length of:
A)
84.4 hours.
B)
84.4
minutes.
C)
84.4
seconds.
D)
84.4 Hertz.
Alignment of a RLG INS takes:
A)
84.4 minutes
B)
10 – 15 minutes
C)
15 – 20 minutes
D)
Less than 10
minutes
A turn and balance indicator uses a:
A)
Earth
gyro
B)
Tied gyro
C)
Space
gyro
D)
Rate
gyro
Where is the earth rate wander, and the transport wander of a gyro
equal to zero?
16
A)
Equator.
B)
North
Pole.
C)
45 S.
D)
45 N.
Rigidity in a gyroscope is:
A)
a way to express the stability of the inner and outer gimbal rings.
B)
the reaction 90° in the direction of rotation when applying force to the
spinning wheel.
C)
the tendency it has to remain in its plane of rotation and resist attempts to
alter its
position.
D)
to what extremes the flight attitudes might be before the gyro topples.
The rotor spinning axis of the electrically driven artificial horizon is
erected and maintained vertical by:
A)
the pendulosity of the rotor
assembly
B)
commutator switches
C)
mercury switches
D)
the fast erection device
The main cause of error in a DRMC is:
A)
parallax in the rose.
B)
crosswinds - particularly on east/west
headings.
C)
magnetic deviation.
D)
turning.
17
An aircraft is passing 6,500 ft in a descent when the static line
becomes blocked. The altimeter then reads:
A)
more than 6,500
ft
B)
less than 6,500
ft
C)
zero
D)
6,500 ft
The advantages provided by an air data computer to indicate the
altitude are:
1 Position/pressure error correction
2 Hysteresis error correction
3 Remote data transmission capability
4 Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in the event of
a failure
The combination of correct statements is:
A)
2,3,4
B)
1,3,4
C)
1,2,3
,4
D)
1,2,3
A servo altimeter has a quoted accuracy of 1 mb at mean sea level.
The accuracy in the standard atmosphere is:
A)
± 50 ft at 20 000 ft and ± 90 ft at the
tropopause
B)
± 30 ft at 20 000 ft and ± 100 ft at 20 000 ft
C)
± 27 ft at MSL and ± 50 ft at 10 000 ft
D)
± 50 ft at 10 000 ft and ± 100 ft at 40 000 ft
The position of the centre of gravity can always be determined by:
A dividing the total moment by the total mass
18
)
B)
subtracting the total mass from the total
moment
C)
dividing the total mass by the total moment
D)
subtracting the total moment from the total
mass
If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward during flight
the elevator control will:
A)
become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to manoeuvre in
pitch
B)
become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to manoeuvre in pitch
C)
become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to manoeuvre in pitch
D)
become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to manoeuvre in
pitch
Which of the following is most likely to affect the range of centre of
gravity positions on an aeroplane?
A)
The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed
B)
The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency
C)
Elevator and tail plane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in all flight
conditions
D)
Location of the undercarriage
The Traffic Load of an aeroplane is:
A)
Useful Load minus Operating
Mass
B)
TOM minus Operating Mass
C)
LM plus Trip Fuel
D)
TOM minus Useful Load
19
The term 'BAGGAGE' means:
A)
personal belongings
B)
Excess freight
C)
any freight or cargo not carried on the
person
D)
Any non-human, non-animal cargo
Determine the maximum take-off mass given:
MSTOM 43,000 kg
MSLM 35,000kg
PLLM 33,000kg
MZFM 31,000 kg
DOM 19,000 kg
Total Fuel capacity 12,500 kg
Trip Fuel 9,000 kg
Contingency fuel 1000 kg
Alternate fuel 500 kg
Final reserve fuel 400 kg
Traffic load 9000 kg
A)
42,000
kg
B)
40,000
kg
C)
43,000
kg
D)
41,000
kg
The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total fuel on board
is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel and 1000 kg of
unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 kg. The zero fuel mass is:
A)
78000
kg
B)
93000
kg
20
C)
79000
kg
D)
65200
kg
Given are:
Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg
Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg
Taxi fuel: 800 kg
Trip fuel: 18 000 kg
Contingency fuel: 900 kg
Alternate fuel: 700 kg
Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:
A)
70 400
kg
B)
69 600
kg
C)
72 000
kg
D)
74 000
kg
The scheduled landing distance required is the distance:
A)
From the point at which the aircraft is 50 metres above the runway to the
point at which the aircraft
has come to a complete stop
B)
From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has decelerated to a
speed of 20kts
C)
From touchdown to the point at which the aircraft has come to a complete
stop
D)
From a screen of a designated height to the point at which the aircraft has
come to a complete The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of:
21
A)
Rate of climb to true airspeed
B)
True airspeed to rate of climb
C)
The increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed as a
percentage
D)
The increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed as a
percentage
An upward runway slope:
A)
increases the take-off distance required
B)
decreases the take-off distance required
C)
decreases the accelerated-stop-distance
available
D)
increases the accelerated-stop-distance
available
The specific range (SR) is :
A)
the distance that the aircraft would fly per kilogram of fuel
B)
the distance that the aircraft would fly without using the reserve
fuel
C)
the distance that the aircraft would fly with full fuel
D)
the distance that the aircraft could fly with the capacity payload
Climbing to cruise altitude with a headwind will:
A)
decreased time to climb
B)
increased ground distance covered to
climb
C)
decrease ground distance covered to
climb
D)
increase time to climb
22
The lift required for climbing flight is:
A)
Equal to mass x sin (angle of climb)
B)
Greater than that required in level
flight
C)
Equal to drag x cos (angle of climb)
D)
Lower than that required in level
flight
An aerodrome has a pressure of 1013 mb and a temperature of 25°
C, the pressure altitude (i) and the density altitude (ii) would be:
A)
(i) above sea level (ii) below sea
level
B)
(i) Sea level (ii) Sea level
C)
(i) sea level (ii) above sea level
D)
(i) below sea level (ii) above sea
level
The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than:
A)
1.3V1
B)
1.2Vs
C)
1.2VMC
G
D)
1.05VL
OF