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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO


T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS24-PT20 Test Booklet Series
Test Code: 111132

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1

Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 1 Hour

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
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the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer
Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in
English. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the
Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.1) With reference to the population of a Q.4) With reference to the Census 2011,
particular region, consider the following consider the following statements:
statements: 1. A person who works for at least six months
1. Physiological density of population is in a year is considered as a main worker.
determined by dividing the total population 2. A person who works for less than six months
of a region by its total land area. in a year is referred to as a marginal worker.
2. Agricultural density of population is 3. As per the 2011 Census data, the proportion
calculated by dividing the total agricultural of workers in India constitutes more than
population in a particular region by its total half of the total population of India.
population. How many of the statements given above are
3. Agricultural population of a particular correct?
region includes the agricultural labourers, a) Only one
farmers and their family members. b) Only two
How many of the statements given above are c) All three
correct? d) None
a) Only one
b) Only two Q.5) Which of the following statements is/are
c) All three correct in the context of different languages
d) None spoken in India?
1. Indo-European family of language has the
Q.2) With reference to the various phases of highest number of speakers in India.
population growth of India in the last century, 2. In India, Speakers of Sino-Tibetan languages
consider the following statements: is more than speaker of Dravidian family of
1. The first phase (1901-1921) is referred to as languages.
the stagnant phase of population growth. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. The second phase (1921-1951) witnessed the below:
negative growth of India's population. a) 1 only
3. The third phase (1951-1981) registered a b) 2 only
rapid fall in fertility rate and a high mortality c) Both 1 and 2
rate. d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. The fourth phase (1981-present) of India's
population growth is considered as the Q.6) Consider the following statement
population explosion phase. regarding different stages in Demographic
How many of the statements given above are Transition Theory:
correct? 1. The first stage has high fertility and high
a) Only one mortality.
b) Only two 2. Fertility remains high throughout the
c) Only three second stage.
d) All four 3. In the last stage, both fertility and mortality
decline considerably.
Q.3) As per the National Youth Policy of 2014, How many of the statements given above are
the 'Youth of India' is referred to as: correct?
a) Person in the age group of 18-25 years. a) Only one
b) Person in the age group of 15-29 years. b) Only two
c) Person in the age group of 21-25 years. c) All three
d) Person in the age group of 18-23 years. d) None

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.7) Consider the following statements with 1. Lifetime migrants are those who migrate
respect to the Fertilizer industry in India: frequently but temporarily, mainly for
1. Natural gas availability plays a key role in economic reasons.
deciding the location of nitrogen-based 2. Migrants by last residence are essentially
fertilizer industry. those who migrated to another place with
2. Rock Phosphate, a key component of no intention of returning to their place of
fertilizer industry, is largely imported. origin.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
a) 1 only a) 1 only
b) 2 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) With reference to migration, consider the Q.11) With reference to the present status of
following Urbanisation in India, consider the following
1. Unemployment statements:
2. Pleasant Climate 1. In India, the number of people living in
3. Socio-economic backwardness urban areas has been increasing steadily
4. Security of life and property since 1991.
5. Political turmoil 2. The level of urbanisation in India is the
How many of the above are the Push factors of highest among the BRICS countries.
Migration? 3. According to the Census of 2011,
a) Only two Maharashtra is the most urbanised state in
b) Only three India.
c) Only four How many of the statements given above are
d) All five correct?
a) Only one
Q.9) With reference to the Indians who are b) Only two
living abroad, consider the following c) All three
statements: d) None
1. In recent times, number of Indians
renouncing their citizenship is on the Q.12) In the context of India, which of the
decline. following correctly describes the meaning of
2. In 2021, the highest number of Indians ‘Census Town’?
renounced their citizenship for Canada. a) A town that has a municipal corporation and
3. The highest Indian diaspora lives in UAE is administered independently.
followed by USA. b) A town that has been recognised by the
How many of the statements given above are government as a separate administrative
correct? unit.
a) Only one c) A town that has been categorised based on
b) Only two the size and density of population and the
c) All three source of employment of its people.
d) None d) A town that has been established by a law of
the Parliament.
Q.10) With reference to the types of migrations,
consider the following statements:

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.13) With reference to the demand of water for How many of the statements given above are
irrigation purposes in India, consider the correct?
following statements: a) Only one
1. Agriculture sector alone accounts for more b) Only two
than 90% of the total groundwater c) Only three
utilization. d) All four
2. Canal irrigation accounts for the largest
share of irrigation mode in India. Q.16) In the context of traditional water
3. The Green Revolution significantly reduced harvesting systems in India, which one of the
the demand for irrigation due to the large- following is correct regarding ‘Eris’?
scale introduction of drought-resistant crop a) They are gravity-driven irrigation channels
varieties. that diverts water from higher elevation to
How many of the statements given above are low lying agricultural fields.
correct? b) They are underground channels that
a) Only one transport water from mountain springs.
b) Only two c) They are reservoirs designed to capture and
c) All three store rainwater during the monsoon season.
d) None d) They are rooftop water storage tank meant
to store water during summer season.
Q.14) With reference to the traditional water
conservation structures used in different parts Q.17) Consider the following minerals:
of India, consider the following statements: 1. Iron
1. Johad is a rainwater harvesting technique 2. Manganese
commonly found in the arid regions of 3. Chromite
Rajasthan. 4. Copper
2. Khund is a type of water storage structure 5. Lead
commonly used in the coastal regions of How many of the above fall in the category of
Kerala. ferrous minerals?
3. Tanka is a surface water storage system a) Only two
prevalent in the hilly areas of Himachal b) Only three
Pradesh. c) Only four
How many of the statements given above are d) All five
correct?
a) Only one Q.18) With reference to the location of various
b) Only two iron mines in India, consider the following
c) All three pairs:
d) None Iron ore Mines Located in
1. Rourkela Mine Odisha
Q.15) With reference to the benefits of 2. Noamundi Mine Chhattisgarh
rainwater harvesting, consider the following 3. Bailadila Mine Jharkhand
statements: 4. Kudremukh Karnataka
1. It helps reduce soil erosion by preventing Mine
the surface runoff of rainwater. How many of the pairs given above are
2. Its implementation contributes to a correctly matched?
decrease in the occurrence of saltwater a) Only one
intrusion into the Coastal areas. b) Only two
3. It lessens the power demand and c) Only three
contributes to climate change mitigation d) All four
efforts.
4. It essentially ensures sufficient water supply
for large-scale industrial use.

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.19) With reference to Bauxite Ore, consider Which one of the following is correct in respect
the following statements: of the above statements?
1. It is the primary ore from which aluminium a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
is extracted. correct and Statement-II is the correct
2. It is formed mainly as a result of explanation for Statement-l.
solidification of magma emanating from b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
volcanoes on reaching the earth surface. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
3. The presence of iron impurities in bauxite explanation for Statement-I.
can be the reason for its appearance in c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is
various colours. incorrect.
How many of the statements above are d) Statement-l is incorrect Statement-II is
correct? correct.
a) Only one
b) Only two Q.23) With reference to the different types of
c) All three coal and its predominant location in India,
d) None consider the following pairs:
Types of Coal Found in
Q.20) Which one of the following minerals is 1. Anthracite Jammu and Kashmir
known as the ‘Brown Diamond’? 2. Bituminous Jharkhand
a) Iron 3. Lignite Kerala
b) Lignite 4. Peat Rajasthan
c) Manganese How many of the pairs given above are
d) Mica correctly matched?
a) Only one
Q.21) With reference to Mica, consider the b) Only two
following statements: c) Only three
Statement-I: Mica is mainly used in the d) All four
electrical and electronic industries.
Statement-II: Mica conducts electricity Q.24) With reference to various types of
effectively when it is layered into flexible thin petroleum refineries in India, consider the
sheets. following statements:
Which one of the following is correct in respect 1. Simple refineries are often located close to
of the above statements? the oil fields.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Complex refineries that produce fuels and
correct and Statement-II is the correct petrochemicals are often located close to
explanation for Statement-l. markets.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. While Barauni refinery is located close to the
correct and Statement-II is not the correct oil field, Digboi refinery is located close to
explanation for Statement-I. the market.
c) Statement-l is correct but Statement-II is How many of the statements given above are
incorrect. correct?
d) Statement-l is incorrect Statement-II is a) Only one
correct. b) Only two
c) All three
Q.22) With reference to Stainless steel, d) None
consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Stainless steel does not expand
significantly when exposed to heat.
Statement-II: Stainless steel contains a
significant amount of Chromium.

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.25) With reference to the present level of 2. In India, thorium distribution is solely
technology, consider the following statements restricted to Kerala.
regarding the application of Natural Gas: 3. Thorium and its decay products can be used
1. It is a key raw material in the production of to treat cancer.
ammonia-based fertilisers. How many of the statements given above are
2. It totally eliminates the emission of Carbon correct?
Monoxide (CO), when used as a fuel in the a) Only one
form of compressed natural gas (CNG). b) Only two
3. It can be used in the production of Cement. c) All three
4. It can be used in the production of d) None
Hydrogen.
How many of the statements given above are Q.29) With reference to the major ports in
correct? India, consider the following:
a) Only one 1. Paradip port
b) Only two 2. Mormugao port
c) Only three 3. Visakhapatnam port
d) All four 4. Kandla port
Arrange the above ports in North to South
Q.26) With reference to location of various direction and select the correct answer using
Nuclear Power Plants in India, consider the the code given below:
following pairs: a) 1-4-2-3
Nuclear Power Plants Located in b) 4-2-1-3
1. Narora Uttar Pradesh c) 4-1-3-2
2. Kaiga Karnataka d) 4-1-2-3
3. Kakarapara Rajasthan
4. Kudankulam Tamil Nadu Q.30) In India, which of the following ports is
How many of the pairs given above are often referred to as the "Queen of the Arabian
correctly matched? Sea"?
a) Only one a) Cochin Port
b) Only two b) Mumbai Port
c) Only three c) Mormugao Port
d) All four d) New Mangalore Port

Q.27) Which one of the following is correct in Q.31) Consider the names of the shifting
respect of Geothermal energy production? cultivation and the regions in which they are
It is a process of being practiced:
a) harnessing the high temperature of magma List I (Shifting List II(Regions)
directly to produce electricity. cultivation)
b) harnessing the Earth's gravitational pull-on 1. Dipa Bastar District
hot gases present in the underground (Chhattisgarh)
reservoirs of earth. 2. Kumari Western Ghats
c) harnessing the temperature difference 3. Valre Jharkhand
between the Earth's surface and its How many of the pairs given above are correct?
underground reservoirs. a) Only one
d) harnessing the kinetic energy of Ocean b) Only two
waves and tides. c) All three
d) None
Q.28) With reference to Thorium, consider the
following statements:
1. Ores of Thorium are found only in Coastal
areas.

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.32) Indian Railways has been divided into 5. Natural Gas.


seventeen zones for administrative purposes. Select the correct answer using the code given
In this context, consider the following pairs: below:
Railway Zones Headquarters a) 1, 3, and 4 only
1. Central Bhopal b) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
2. North- Eastern Guwahati c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Southern Chennai d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
4. Eastern Kolkata
How many of the pairs given above are Q.36) In India, the steel production industry
correctly matched? requires the import of
a) Only one a) Saltpetre
b) Only two b) Rock phosphate
c) Only three c) Coking coal
d) All four d) All of the above

Q.33) With reference to different types of ports, Q.37) With reference to various types of Mining
consider the following statements: and their features, consider the following pairs:
1. Ports of call are deep water ports built away Types of Mining feature/description
from the parent ports to receive those ships 1. Open surface Overhead costs such as
which are unable to approach them due to mining safety precautions and
their large size. equipment are relatively
2. Packet stations are those stations that are low
exclusively concerned with the 2. Underground Higher incidents of fatal
transportation of passengers and mail across mining accidents
water bodies covering short distances. 3. Rat hole mining Deep vertical shafts with
3. Entrepot Ports serves as intermediaries for narrow horizontal
re-exporting of goods to other destinations. tunnels
How many of the statements given above are How many of the pairs given above are
correct? correctly matched?
a) Only one a) Only one
b) Only two b) Only two
c) All three c) All three
d) None d) None

Q.34) Which one of the following correctly Q.38) With reference to the road network in
describes the meaning of the term ‘Footloose India, consider the following statements:
industries’? 1. The share of state highways in the total road
a) industries that produce light weight raw network is higher than the share of national
materials for other industries. highways.
b) industries that convert heavy raw materials 2. Rural roads in India constitute more than
into relatively lighter products. two third of the total road network in India.
c) industries that are highly mobile and can 3. Road sector’s contribution to GVA is more
easily relocate their operations. than the contribution of railways,
d) industries that are located in places where waterways and airways together.
access to ports is easier. 4. NH 44 is the longest national highway of
India.
Q.35) Which of the following are the Non- How many of the statements given above are
Conventional Energy sources? correct?
1. Biomass. a) Only one
2. Fuel cells. b) Only two
3. Geothermal Energy. c) Only three
4. Wind Energy. d) All four

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.39) With reference to the National Q.42) With reference to the cotton and textile
Waterways of India, consider the following industry in India, consider the following
pairs statements:
National Route 1. As cotton is a weight losing material, the
Waterways cotton industry favours its location near
1. National Dhubri to Sadiya cotton growing areas.
Waterway 1 2. The production of cotton in India has been
2. National Haldia to Allahabad steadily increasing in the last five years.
Waterway 2 3. Government of India has launched PM
3. National Kottapuram to Kollam MITRA scheme for the development of
Waterway 3 integrated textile regions and apparel parks.
4. National Kakinada to Puducherry How many of the statements given above are
Waterway 4 correct?
How many of the above given pairs are a) Only one
correctly matched? b) Only two
a) Only one pair c) All three
b) Only two pairs d) None
c) Only three pairs
d) All the four pairs Q.43) With reference to mining in India,
consider the following mines:
Q.40) According to the 2011 census, the total 1. Malanjkhand Mine
literacy rate in the country is 74.04%. Also, the 2. Banwas Mine
male literacy rate is 82.14% and the female 3. Kendadih Mine
literacy rate is 65.46%. In this context, a literate Which of the following mineral is associated
is one who is aged seven and above and who has with these mines?
the ability to: a) Mica
a) do basic arithmetic calculations. b) Copper
b) either read or write with understanding in c) Lead
any language. d) Aluminium
c) do basic arithmetic calculations and read
any language. Q.44) Consider the following statements with
d) both read and write with understanding in reference to the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
any language. Groups (PVTGs) in India:
1. The classification of certain tribes as PVTGs
Q.41) With reference to the major industrial was first started during the First Five-year
regions in India, consider the following pairs: Plan.
Major Industrial Factors responsible 2. Only those tribes whose population falls
regions of India for its growth below 2500 can be listed as PVTGs.
1. Gurgaon-Delhi- Easy accessibility to 3. The classification of PVTGs as a separate
Meerut Region minerals and power group was first done on the
resources. recommendations of Xaxa committee.
2. Bangalore-Chennai Location near How many of the statements given above are
Industrial Region coalfields. correct?
3. Chotanagpur Region Location near iron a) Only one
ore sources. b) Only two
4. Gujarat Industrial Location near c) All three
Region cotton growing area d) None
How many of the pairs given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

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PTS 2024 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.45) Which one of the following options a rainfed kharif crop which requires
correctly describes the term “Demographic temperature between 21°C to 27°C. It can be
Window of opportunity”? grown under varied climatic and soil
a) It is a method used to calculate population conditions. But the yields are highest in old
changes between two consecutive years in a alluvial soil. Yield is usually high in southern
given area. states and declines towards central parts of the
b) It is a hypothetical demographic situation, country.”
where literacy rate among the country’s The above description is about which of the
population reaches 100 percent. following crops?
c) It is a demographic situation where the a) Pulses
proportion of the working-age population is b) Wheat
relatively high compared to the dependent c) Maize
population. d) Jowar
d) It refers to a period, in a nation’s
demographic evolution, when the Q.49) Consider the following statements
proportion of dependent population is related to Wind Energy:
higher than working age population. 1. Production of wind energy releases less
Carbon dioxide than solar energy.
Q.46) With reference to the Tertiary and the 2. India stands 4th globally in the total Wind
Gondwana coal, consider the following power installed capacity.
statements: 3. In India, Tamil Nadu has the highest
1. The Gondwana coals are found in the installed capacity of wind energy.
sedimentary rocks while the tertiary coals How many of the statements given above are
are found in the igneous rocks. correct?
2. Tertiary coal has higher sulphur content a) Only one
than the Gondwana coal. b) Only two
3. Singrauli coal mines is one of the major c) All three
producers of Tertiary coal in India. d) None
How many of the statements given above are
correct? Q.50) Industries using weight-losing raw
a) Only one materials are usually located near the regions
b) Only two where raw materials are located. In this
c) All three context, which of the following industries are
d) None based on weight losing raw materials?
1. Sugar mills
Q.47) Consider the following statements with 2. Pulp industry
reference to Coffee Cultivation in India: 3. Iron and steel industry
1. Kerala is the largest producer of coffee in 4. Copper smelting industries
India. 5. Cotton industry
2. India produces both Arabica and Robusta Select the correct answer using the code given
varieties of coffee. below:
Which of the above given statements is/are a) 1, 3 and 4 only
correct? b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
a) 1 only c) 2, 4 and 5 only
b) 2 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.48) Read the following paragraph about a


major crop grown in India:
“This crop can be grown under semi-arid
climatic conditions and over inferior soils. It is

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