PHYSICS

WORKBOOK
NAME: _____________________________________________________________

CLASS-XII
Physics/XII Page 1
Physics/XII Page 2
 CONTENTS
S. NO TOPIC Page No

1 Electric charges and fields 5-22

2 Electric potential and capacitance 23-35

3 Electricity 36-47

4 Magnetic effect of current 48-57

5 Magnetic material and Magnetism 58-64

6 Electromagnetic induction 65-71

7 Alternating current 72-78

8 Electromagnetic waves 79-87

9 Ray optics 88-94

10 Wave optics 95-110

11 Dual nature of matter and radiation 111-121

12 Atom 122-128

13 Nuclei 129-135

14 Semiconductor devices 136-145

15 Important Questions 146-151

18 Practice Papers 152-172

Physics/XII Page 3
Physics/XII Page 4
 CHAPTER-1
Electrostatic Force and Field
1 mark questions:
1. Why do the electrostatic field lines not form closed loop?
2. Why do the electric field lines never cross?
3. Why must electrostatic field at the surface of a charge every point? Give reason.
4. Two point charges q1 and q2 are placed at a distance d apart as shown in the figure.
The electric field intensity is zero at the point P on the line joining them as shown.
Write two conclusions that you can draw from this.

5. Define dipole moment of an electric dipole. Is it a scalar quantity or a vector quantity?

6. Draw a plot showing the variation of electric field (E) with distance r due to a point
charge Q.
7. A proton is placed in a uniform electric field directed along the position X-axis. In
which direction will it tend to move?
8. In which orientation, a dipole placed in a uniform electric field is in-
(i) stable (ii) unstable equilibrium?
9. Two point charges having equal charges separated by lm distance experience a force
of 8 N. What will be the force experienced by them if they are held in water at the
same distance? (Given, Kwater = 80).
10. A metallic sphere is placed in a uniform electric field as shown in the figure. Which
path is followed by electric field lines and why?

11. Point out right or wrong for the following statement. The mutual forces between two
charges do not get affected by the presence of other charges.
12. A dipole of dipole moment p is present in a uniform electric field E .Write the value
of the angle between p and E for which the torque experienced by the dipole, is
minimum.
13. Two small identical dipoles AB and CD, each of dipole moment p are kept at an angle

of 120° as shown in the figure. What is the resultant dipole moment of this
combination? If this system is subjected to electric field (E) directed along
+ X-direction, what will be the magnitude and direction of the torque acting on this?
14. Consider two hollow concentric spheres S1 and S2 enclosing charges 2Q and 4Q
respectively,
(i) Find out the ratio of the electric flux through them,
(ii) How will the electric flux through the spheres S 1 change if a medium of dielectric
constant er is introduced in the space inside S1 in place of air? Deduce the necessary
expression.

Physics/XII Page 5
 15. Two charges of magnitudes –2Q and + Q are located at points (a, 0) and (4a, 0),
respectively. What is the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius
3a with its centre at the origin?
16. A charge q is placed at the center of a cube of side L. What is the electric flux passing
through each face of the cube?
17. Figure shows three point charges, + 2q, – q and + 3q. Two charges + 2q and – q are
enclosed within a surface S. What is the electric flux due to this configuration through
the surface S?

18. If the radius of the Gaussian surface enclosing a charge is halved, how does the
electric flux through the Gaussian surface change?

2 Marks Questions
19. An electric dipole of length 4 cm when placed with its axis making an angle of 60°
with a uniform electric field, experiences a torque of 4√3 Nm. Calculate the potential
energy of the dipole if it has charge ± 8 nC.
20. Two point charges q and – 2q are kept d distance apart, find the location of the point
relative to charge to q at which potential due to this system is zero.
21. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field E with its dipole moment p
parallel to the field. Find:
(i)the work done in turning the dipole till its dipole moment points in the direction
opposite to E.
(ii)the orientation of the dipole for which the torque acting on it becomes maximum.
22. A small metal sphere carrying a charge +Q is located at the centre of a spherical
cavity in a large uncharged metallic spherical shell. Write the charges on the inner and
outer surfaces of the shell. Write the expression for the electric field at the point P 1.

23. (i) Point charge (+Q) is kept in the vicinity of and uncharged conducting plate. Sketch
electric field lines between the charge and the plate.
(ii)Two infinitely large plane thin parallel sheets having surface charge densities σ1
and σ2 (σ1>σ2) are shown in the figures. Write the magnitude and directions of net
fields on the marked II and III.

Physics/XII Page 6
 24. Calculate the amount of work done in turning an electric dipole of dipole moment
3х10-8 Cm from its position of unstable equilibrium to the position of stable
equilibrium in a uniform electric field of intensity 103 N/C.
25. Pot a graph showing the variation of coulomb force F verses 1/r 2 , where r is the
distance between the two charges of each pair of charges (1µC, 2µC) and (1µC, -
3µC).Interpret the graphs obtained.
26. Two identical metallic spherical shells A and B having charges + 4Q and -10Q are
kept a certain distance apart. A third identical uncharged sphere C is first placed in
contact with sphere A and then with sphere B, then spheres A and B are brought in
contact and then separated. Find the charge on the spheres A and B.
27. A dipole with a dipole moment of magnitude p is in stable equilibrium in an
electrostatic field of magnitude E. Find the work done in rotating this dipole to its
position of unstable equilibrium.
28. A dipole is present in an electrostatic field of magnitude 10 6N/C. If the work done in
rotating it from its position of stable equilibrium to its position of unstable
equilibrium is 2×10-23J, then find the magnitude of the dipole moment of this dipole.
29. Deduce the expression for the electric field E due to a system of two charges q1 and
q2 with position vectors r1 and r2 at a point r with respect to common origin.
30. The sum of two point charges is 7 microC. They repel each other with a force of 1 N
when kept 30 cm apart in free space. Calculate the value of each charge.
31. Figure shows two large metal plates and P2 tightly held against each other and placed
between two equal and unlike point charges perpendicular to the line joining them.
(i)What will happen to the plates when they are released?
(ii)Draw the pattern of the electric field lines for the system.

32. Two charges + Q and -Q are kept at points (-x2,0) and (x1, 0) respectively, in the XY-
plane. Find the magnitude and direction of the net electric field at the origin (0,0).
33. Two point charges 4Q and Q are separated by 1 m in air. At what point on the line
joining of charges, is the electric field intensity zero?
34. Given a uniform electric held E =5 x 103 i N/C, find the flux of this held through a
square of 10 cm on a side whose plane is parallel to the YZ-plane. What would be the
flux through the same square if the plane makes an angle of 30° with the X-axis?
35. A sphere S1 of radius q enclosed a net charge Q. If there is another concentric sphere
S2 of radius r2(r2 > q) enclosing charge 2Q, find the ratio of the electric flux through
S1 and S2. How will the electric flux through sphere S1 change if a medium of
dielectric constant K is introduced in the space inside S 2 in place of air?

36. A spherical conducting shell of inner radius R1 and outer radius R2 has a charge Q. A
charge q is placed at the center of the shell.
(i)What is the surface charge density on the (a) inner surface, (b) outer surface of the
shell?
(ii)Write the expression for the electric field at a point to x>R 2 from the centre of the
shell.
Physics/XII Page 7
 37. Define electric flux. Write its SI unit. A charge q is enclosed by a spherical surface of
radius.
38. Draw the shapes of the suitable Gaussian surfaces while applying Gauss’ law to
calculate the electric field due to
(i)a uniformly charged long straight wire.
(ii)a uniformly charged infinite plane sheet.

3 Marks Questions

39. Two point charges + q and -2q are placed at the vertices B and C of an equilateral
triangle ABC of side a as given in the figure. Obtain the expression for (i) the
magnitude and (ii) the direction of the resultant electric field at the vertex A due to
these two charges.

40. Define the term electric dipole moment. Is it a scalar or vector? Deduce an expression
for the electric field at a point on the equatorial plane of an electric dipole of length
2a.
41. Sketch the pattern of electric field lines due to
(i) a conducting sphere having negative charge on it.
(ii) an electric dipole.
42. A positive point charge (+ q) is kept in the vicinity of an uncharged conduction plate.
Sketch electric field lines originated from the point on to the surface of the plate.
43. A hollow cylindrical box of length 1 m and area of cross-section 25 cm2 is placed in a
three-dimensional coordinate system along x-axis . The electric field in the region is
given by E= 50x i , where E is in NC -1 and x is in m. find net flux through the
cylinder and charge enclosed by the cylinder.

5 Marks Questions:
44. Deduce the expression for the torque acting on a dipole of dipole moment p in the
presence of a uniform electric field E.
45. An electric dipole moment p is held in a uniform electric field E.
(i)Prove that no translation force acts on the dipole.
(ii)Hence, prove that the torque acting on the dipole is given by pE sin 0 indicating
the direction along which it acts.
46. (i) Define electric flux. Write its SI unit.
(ii) A small metal sphere carrying charge + Q is located at the centre of a spherical
cavity inside a large uncharged metallic spherical shell as shown in the figure.Use
Gauss’ law to find the expressions for the electric field at points P l and P2.

(iii)Draw the pattern of electric field lines in this arrangement.

47. (i) State Gauss’ law. Use it to deduce the expression for the electric field due to a
uniformly charged thin spherical shell at points inside the shell and outside the shell.
(ii) Two identical metallic spheres A and B having charges +4q and – 10q are kept a
Physics/XII Page 8
 certain distance apart. A third identical uncharged sphere C is first placed in contact
with sphere A and then with sphere B. Then, spheres A and Bare brought in contact
and then separated. Find the charges on the spheres A and B.
48. Define electric flux. Write its SI unit, (ii) The electric field components due to a
charge inside the cube of side 0.1 m are shown below.

Where, α= 500 N/Cm and EY=0 , EZ=0. Calculate (a) the flux through the cube (b)
the charge inside the cube.
49. (i)Using Gauss’ law , derive an expression for electric field intensity charged thin
spherical shell of radius R and density σ C/m2. Draw the field lines when the
charge density of the sphere is (a) positive (b) negative.(ii) A uniformly charged
conducting sphere of 2.5 m in diameter has surface charge density of 100µC/m2.
Calculate(a)charge on the sphere and (b) total electric flux through the sphere.

Electric Charges & Fields (MCQ)

Q.1. Charge is the property associated with matter due to which it produces and
experiences
(a) electric effects only (b) magnetic effects only
(c) both electric and magnetic effects (d) None of these
Q.2. Charge is
(a) transferable (b) associated with mass
(c) conserved (d) All of these
Q.3. A body is positively charged, it implies that
(a) there is only positive charge in the body.
(b) there is positive as well as negative charge in the body but the positive charge is
more than negative charge
(c) there is equal positive and negative charge in the body but the positive charge lies
in the outer regions
(d) negative charge is displaced from its position
Q.4. On rubbing, when one body gets positively charged and other negatively
charged, the electrons transferred from positively charged body to negatively
charged body are
(a) valence electrons only (b) electrons of inner shells
(c) both valence electrons and electrons of inner shell
(d) yet to be established
Q.5. Which of the following is the best insulator?
(a) Carbon (b) Paper
(c) Graphite (d) Ebonite
Q.6. If a body is negatively charged, then it has
(a) excess of electrons (b) excess of protons
(c) deficiency of electrons (d) deficiency of neutrons
Q.7. When a body is charged by induction, then the body
(a) becomes neutral (b) does not lose any charge
(c) loses whole of the charge on it (d) loses part of the charge on it
Q.8. On charging by conduction, mass of a body may
(a) increase (b) decreases
(c) increase or decrease (d) None of these
Physics/XII Page 9
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 Q.9. Quantization of charge implies
(a) charge cannot be destroyed (b) charge exists on particles
(c) there is a minimum permissible charge on a particle
(d) charge, which is a fraction of a coulomb is not possible.
Q.10. If an object possesses an electric charge, it is said to be
electrified or … A … When it has no charge, it is said to
be … B … Here, A and B refer to
(a) charged, neutral (b) neutral, charged
(c) discharged, charged (d) active, reactive
Q.11. A positively charged rod is brought near an unchargedconductor. If the
rod is then suddenly withdrawn, the charge
left on the conductor will be
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) cannot say
Q.12. Two spheres A and B of exactly same mass are given equal
positive and negative charges respectively. Their masses
after charging
(a) remains unaffected (b) mass of A > mass of B
(c) mass of A < mass of B (d) Nothing can be said
Q.13. When a comb rubbed with dry hair attracts pieces of paper.
This is because the
(a) comb polarizes the piece of paper
(b) comb induces a net dipole moment opposite to the direction of field
(c) electric field due to the comb is uniform
(d) comb induces a net dipole moment perpendicular to the direction of field
Q.14. When some charge is transferred to …A… it readily gets distributed over
the entire surface of … A… If some charge is put on … B…, it stays at the same
place. Here, A and B refer to
(a) insulator, conductor (b) conductor, insulator
(c) insulator, insulator (d) conductor, conductor
Q.15. Quantization of charge was experimentally demonstrated by
(a) Einstein’s photoelectric effect (b) Frank-Hertz experiment
(c) Davisson and Germer experiment (d) Millikan’s oil drop experiment
Q.16. In annihilation process, in which an electron and a positron transform into
two gamma rays, which property of electric charge is displayed?
(a) Additivity of charge (b) Quantisation of charge
(c) Conservation of charge (d) Attraction and repulsion
Q.17. The law, governing the force between electric charges is known as
(a) Ampere’s law (b) Ohm’s law
(c) Faraday’s law (d) Coulomb’s law
Q.18. The value of electric permittivity of free space is
(a) 9 × 109 NC2/m2 (b) 8.85 × 10–12 Nm2/C2 sec
–12 2 2
(c)8.85 × 10 C /Nm (d) 9 × 109 C2/Nm2
Q.19. Coulomb’s law is true for
(a) atomic distances (= 10–11 m) (b) nuclear distances (= 10–15 m)
(c) charged as well as uncharged particles (d) all the distances
Q.20. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?
(a) Its radius decreases (b) Its radius increases
(c) The bubble collapses (d) None of these

Physics/XII Page 10
 Q.21. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it
(a) gains electrons from silk. (b) gives electrons to silk.
(c) gains protons from silk. (d) gives protons to silk.
Q.22. In general, metallic ropes are suspended on the carriers taking
inflammable materials. The reason is
(a) to control the speed of the carrier.
(b) to keep the centre of gravity of the carrier nearer to the earth.
(c) to keep the body of the carrier in contact with the earth.
(d) none of these.
Q.23. Two charges q1 and q2 are placed in vacuum at a distance d and the force
acting between them is F. If a medium of dielectric constant 4 is introduced
around them, the force now will be
(a) F (b) F/2
(c) F/4 (d) 4F
14
Q.24. When 10 electrons are removed from a neutral metal sphere, the charge
on the sphere becomes ______ .
Q.25. Two similar spheres having +Q and -Q charges are kept at a certain
distance. F force acts between the two. If at the middle of two spheres, another
similar sphere having +Q charge is kept, then it experiences a force in magnitude
and direction as
(a) zero having no direction. (b) 8F towards +Q charge.
(c) 8F towards -Q charge. (d) 4F towards +Q charge.
Q.26. A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q – q. If the coulomb
repulsion between them when they are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of
Q/q should be
(a) 2:1 (b) 1/2
(c) 4:1 (d) 1/4
Q.27. Four equal charges q are placed at the four comers A, B, C, D of a square
of length a. The magnitude of the force on the charge at B will be

Q.28. Dielectric constant for metal ______ .

Q.29. Two charges of equal magnitudes kept at a distance r exert a force F on
each other. If the charges are halved and distance between them is doubled, then

Physics/XII Page 11
 the new force acting on each charge is

Q.30. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density
is
(a) zero.
(b) constant, less than zero.
(c) directly proportional to the distance from the centre.
(d) none of the these
Q.31. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E
parallel to the cylinder axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given
by

Q.32. Electric field at a point varies as r° for

(a) an electric dipole (b) a point charge
(c) a plane infinite sheet of charge (d) a line charge of infinite length
Q.33. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of a cube of side a. The electric
flux on one of its faces will be

Q.34. Total electric flux coming out of a unit positive charge kept in air is

Q.35. The electric field intensity due to an infinite cylinder of radius R and
having charge q per unit length at a distance air r (r > R) from its axis is
(a) directly proportional to r². (b) directly proportional to r3.
(c) inversely proportional to r. (d) inversely proportional to r².
Q.36. A point charge q is placed at a distance a/2 directly above the centre of a
square of side a. The electric flux through the square is

Q.37. Which of the following graphs shows the

variation of electric field E due to a hollow
spherical conductor of radius R as a function of
distance from the centre of the sphere?

Physics/XII Page 12
 Q.38. The magnitude of electric field intensity E is such that, an electron placed
in it would experience an electrical force equal to its weight is given by
(a) mge (b) mg/e
(c) e/mg (d) e²g/m²
Q.39. In Fig. (i) two positive charges q2 and q3 fixed along the y-axis, exert a net
electric force in the +x direction on a charge q 1 fixed along the x-axis. If a
positive charge Q is added at (x, 0) in figure (ii), the force on q 1 is

(a) shall increase along the positive x-axis.

(b) shall decrease along the positive x-axis.
(c) shall point along the negative x-axis.
(d) shall increase but the direction changes because of the intersection of Q with q2
and q1
Q.40. Which of the following statement is correct? The electric field at a point is
(a) always continuous.
(b) continuous if there is a charge at that point.
(c) discontinuous only if there is a negative charge at that point.
(d) discontinuous if there is a charge at that point.
Q.41. A point charge +q is placed at a distance d from an isolated conducting
plane. The field at a point P on the other side of the plane is
(a) directed perpendicular to the plane and away from the plane.
(b) directed perpendicular to the plane but towards the plane.
(c) directed radially away from the point charge.
(d) directed radially towards the point charge.
Q.42. Gauss’s law will be invalid if
(a) there is magnetic monopole.
(b) the inverse square law is not exactly true.
(c) the velocity of light is not a universal constant.
(d) none of these.
Q.43. SI unit of permittivity of free space is
(a) Farad (b) Weber
2 -1 -2
(c) C N m (d) C2N-1 m-2
Q.44. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two point charges +q
and +q as shown in the figure. The ratio of charges Q and q is

(a) 4 (b) 1/4

(c) -4 (d) -1/4
Q.45. The force per unit charge is known as
(a) electric flux (b) electric field
(c) electric potential (d) electric current

Physics/XII Page 13
 Q.46. Electric field lines provide information about
(a) field strength (b) direction
(c) nature of charge (d) all of these
Q.47. Which of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a
single negative charge?

Q.48. The SI unit of electric flux is

(a) N C-1 m-2 (b) N C m-2
-2 2
(c) N C m (d) N C-1 m2
Q.49. The unit of electric dipole moment is
(a) newton (b) coulomb
(c) farad (d) debye
Q.50. Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the
total charge is zero. At points outside the region
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.
(c) the dominant electric field is inversely proportional to r3, for large r (distance from
origin).
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the
region will not be zero.
Q.51. The surface considered for Gauss’s law is called
(a) Closed surface (b) Spherical surface
(c) Gaussian surface (d) Plane surface
Q.52. The total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge
q is placed at corner A of the cube is

Q.53. Which of the following statements is not true about Gauss’s law?
(a) Gauss’s law is true for any closed surface.
(b) The term q on the right side of Gauss’s law includes the sum of all charges
enclosed by the surface.
(c) Gauss’s law is not much useful in calculating electrostatic field when the system
has some symmetry.
(d) Gauss’s law is based on the inverse square dependence on distance contained in
the coulomb’s law
Physics/XII Page 14
 Q.54. Four charges are arranged at the comers of a square ABCD, as shown. The
force on the charge kept at the center O is

(a) zero (b) along the diagonal AC

(c) along the diagonal BD (d) perpendicular to side AB
Q.55. Calculate the flux through the cuboid shown in the figure for E = E0 y j :-

(a) E0abc (b) E0abd

(c) E0abcd (d) Zero
Q.56. An electron is rotating around an infinite positive linear charge in a circle
of radius 0.1 m, if the linear charge density is 1 μC/m, then the velocity of
electron in m/s will be
(a) 0.562 × 107 (b) 0.562 x 106
7
(c) 562 x 10 (d) 0.0562 x 107
Q.57. The force between two small charged spheres having charges of 1 × 10 –7 C
and 2 ×10–7 C placed 20 cm apart in air is
(a) 4.5 × 10–2 N (b) 4.5 × 10–3 N
–2
(c) 5.4 × 10 N (d) 5.4 × 10–3 N
Q.58. Two insulated charged metallic sphere P and Q have their centers
separated by a distance of 60 cm. The radii of P and Q are negligible compared
to the distance of separation. The mutual force of electrostatic repulsion if the
charge on each is 3.2 × 10–7 C is
(a) 5.2 × 10–4 N (b) 2.5 × 10–3 N
(c) 1.5 × 10–3N (d) 3.5 × 10–4 N
Q.59. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an electric field of
intensity 2 × 105 NC–1, It experiences a torque of 4 Nm. Calculate the charge on
the dipole if the dipole length is 2 cm.
(a) 8 Mc (b) 4 mC
(c) 3 Μc (d) 2 mC
–17
Q.60. If the dipole of moment 2.57 × 10 cm is placed into an electric field of
magnitude 3.0 × 104 N/C such that the fields lines are aligned at 30° with the line
joining P to the dipole, what torque acts on the dipole?
(a) 7.7 × 10–13 Nm (b) 3.855 × 10–13 Nm
–15
(c) 3.855 × 10 Nm (d) 7.7 × 10–15 Nm

Physics/XII Page 15
 Chapter 1: Electrostatic Charges and Fields
ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.

Q.1. Assertion: Electron move away from a region of lower potential to a region of
higher potential.
Reason: An electron has a negative charge.
Q.2. Assertion : A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an
electric field.
Reason : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.
Q.3. Assertion : Electric lines of force never cross each other.
Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric field.
Q.4. Assertion : The Coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.
Reason : The Coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.
Q.5. Assertion : In a cavity within a conductor, the electric field is zero.
Reason : Charges in a conductor reside only at its surface.
Q.6. Assertion : When bodies are charged through friction, there is a transfer of
electric charge from one body to another, but no creation or destruction of charge.
Reason : This follows from conservation of electric charges.
Q.7. Assertion : The tyres of aircraft are slightly conducting.
Reason : If a conductor is connected to ground, the extra charge induced on
conductor will flow to ground.
Q.8. Assertion : Some charge is put at the centre of a conducting sphere. It will move
to the surface of the sphere.
Reason : Conducting sphere has no free electrons at the centre.
Q.9. Assertion : Coulomb force and gravitational force follow the same inverse-
square law.
Reason : Both laws are same in all aspects.
Q.10. Assertion : The coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.
Reason : The coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.
Q.11. Assertion : If there exists coulomb attraction between two bodies, both of them
may not be charged.
Reason : In coulomb attraction two bodies are oppositely charged.
Q.12. Assertion : A deuteron and an alpha-particle are placed in an electric field. If
F1 and F2 be the forces acting on them and a1 and a2 be their accelerations
respectively then, a1 = a2.
Reason : Forces will be same in electric field.
Q.13. Assertion : The property that the force with which two charges attract or repel
each other are not affected by the presence of a third charge.
Reason : Force on any charge due to a number of other charge is the vector sum of all
the forces on that charge due to other charges, taken one at a time.

Physics/XII Page 16
 Q.14. Assertion : A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an
electric field.
Reason : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.
Q.15. Assertion : A point charge is brought in an electric field, the field at a nearby
point will increase or decrease, depending on the nature of charge.
Reason : The electric field is independent of the nature of charge.
Q.16. Assertion : Consider two identical charges placed distance 2d apart, along x-
axis.

The equilibrium of a positive test charge placed at the point O midway between them
is stable for displacements along the x-axis.
Reason: Force on test charge is zero.
Q.17. Assertion : When a conductor is placed in an external electrostatic field, the net
electric field inside the conductor becomes zero after a small instant of time.
Reason : It is not possible to set up an electric field inside a conductor.
Q.18. Assertion: A uniformly charged disc has a pin hole at its centre. The electric
field at the center of the disc is zero.
Reason : Disc can be supposed to be made up of many rings. Also electric field at the
centre of uniformly charged ring is zero.
Q.19. Assertion : Electric lines of field cross each other.
Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric field.
Q.20. Assertion : On bringing a positively charged rod near the uncharged conductor,
the conductor gets attracted towards the rod.
Reason : The electric field lines of the charged rod are perpendicular to the surface of
conductor.
Q.21. Assertion : Four point charges q1, q2, q3 and q4 are as shown in figure. The
flux over the shown Gaussian surface depends only on charges q1 and q2.

Reason : Electric field at all points on Gaussian surface depends only on charges q1
and q2.
Q.22. Assertion : On disturbing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in an electric
field, it returns back to its stable equilibrium orientation.
Reason : A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being disturbed from its stable
equilibrium.

Physics/XII Page 17
 Q.23. Assertion : On going away from a point charge or a small electric dipole,
electric field decreases at the same rate in both the cases.
Reason : Electric field is inversely proportional to square of distance from the charge
or an electric dipole.
Q.24. Assertion : The electric flux of the electric field ∮E.dA is zero. The electric
field is zero everywhere on the surface.
Reason : The charge inside the surface is zero.
Q.25. Assertion : On moving a distance two times the initial distance away from an
infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire the electric field reduces to one third
of the initial value.
Reason : The electric field is inversely proportional to the distance from an infinitely
long straight uniformly charged wire.
Q.26. Assertion (A): No two electric lines of force can intersect each other.
Reason (R) : Tangent at any point of electric line of force gives the direction of
electric field.
Q.27. Assertion (A): Electric force acting on a proton and an electron, moving in a
uniform electric field is same, whereas acceleration of electron is 1836 times that of a
proton.
Reason (R): Electron is lighter than proton.
Q.28. Assertion (A): As force is a vector quantity, hence electric field intensity is
also a vector quantity
Reason (R): The unit of electric field intensity is newton per coulomb.
Q.29. Assertion (A) : Sharper is the curvature of spot on a charged body lesser will
be the surface charge density at that point
Reason (R): Electric field is non-zero inside a charged conductor.
Q.30. Assertion (A): The surface densities of two spherical conductors of different
radii are equal. Then the
electric field intensities near their surface are also equal.
Reason (R) : Surface density is equal to charge per unit area.
Q.31. Assertion (A): Three equal charges are situated on a circle of radius r such that
they form on equilateral
triangle, then the electric field intensity at the center is zero.
Reason (R): The force on unit positive charge at the center, due to the three equal
charges is represented
by the three sides of a triangle taken in the same order. Therefore, electric field
intensity at centre is zero.
Q.32. Assertion (A): The electric lines of forces diverge from a positive charge and
converge at a negative charge.
Reason (A): A charged particle free to move in an electric field always moves along
an electric line of force.
Q.33. Assertion (A): Charging is due to transfer of electrons.
Reason (R): Mass of a body decreases slightly when it is negatively charged.
Q.34. Assertion (A): Range of Coulomb force is infinite.
Reason (R): Coulomb force acts between two charged particles.
Q.35. Assertion (A): A small metal ball is suspended in a uniform electric field with
an insulated thread. If high energy X-ray beam falls on the ball, the ball will be
deflected in the electric field.
Reason (R): X-rays emits photoelectron and metal becomes negatively charged.
Q.36. Assertion (A): If a point charge be rotated in a circle around a charge, the work
done will be zero.
Reason (R): Work done is equal to dot product of force and distance

Physics/XII Page 18
 CHAPTER: ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
Case Study Questions:
Q1. Electric field strength is proportional to the density of lines of force i.e., electric
field strength at a point is proportional to the number of lines of force cutting a unit
area element placed normal to the field at that point. As illustrated in given figure, the
electric field at P is stronger than at Q.

(i) Electric lines of force about a positive point charge are

(a) radially outwards
(b) circular clockwise
(c) radially inwards
(d) parallel straight lines
(ii) Which of the following is false for electric lines of force?
(a) They always start from positive charge and terminate on negative charges.
(b) They are always perpendicular to the surface of a charged conductor.
(c) They always form closed loops.
(d) They are parallel and equally spaced in a region of uniform electric field.
(iii) Which one of the following patterns of electric line of force is not possible in
field due to stationary charges?

(iv) Electric field lines are curved

(a) in the field of a single positive or negative charge
(b) in the field of two equal and opposite charges.
(c) in the field of two like charges.
(d) both (b) and (c)
(v) The figure below shows the electric field lines due to two positive charges.
The magnitudes EA, EB and EC of the electric fields at point A, B and C
respectively are related as

(a) EA>EB>EC (c) EA=EB>EC

(b) EB>EA>EC (d) EA>EB=EC

Q2. Smallest charge that can exist in nature is the charge of an electron. During
friction it is only the transfer of electron which makes the body charged. Hence net
charge on anybody is an integral multiple of charge of an electron (1.6 x 10-19 C) i.e.,
q=±ne where r= 1, 2, 3, 4 ….Hence nobody can have a charge represented as 1.8e,

Physics/XII Page 19
 2.7e, 2e/5, etc. Recently, it has been discovered that elementary particles such as
protons or neutrons are elemental units called quarks.
(i) Which of the following properties is not satisfied by an electric charge?
(a) Total charge conservation. (c) Two types of charge.
(b) Quantization of charge. (d) Circular line of force.
(ii) Which one of the following charges is possible?
(a) 5.8 x 10-18 C (c) 4.5 x 10-19 C
-18
(b) 3.2 x 10 C (d) 8.6 x 10-19 C
(iii) If a charge on a body is 1 nC, then how many electrons are present on the
body?
(a) 6.25 x 1027 (c) 6.25 X 1028
(b) 1.6 x 1019 (d) 6.25 X 109
9
(iv) If a body gives out 10 electrons every second, how much time is required to
get a total charge of 1 from it?
(a) 190.19 years (c) 198.19 years
(b) 150.12 years (d) 188.21 years
(v) A polythene piece rubbed with wool is found to have a negative charge of 3.2
x 10-7C. Calculate the number of electrons transferred.
(a) 2 x 1012 (c) 2 x 1014
12
(b) 3 x 10 (d) 3 x 1014

Q3. When electric dipole is placed in uniform electric field, its two charges
experience equal and opposite forces, which cancel each other and hence net force on
electric dipole in uniform electric field is zero. However these forces are not collinear,
so they give rise to some torque on the dipole. Since net force on electric dipole in
uniform electric field is zero, so no work is done in moving the electric dipole in
uniform electric field. However some work is done in rotating the dipole against the
torque acting on it.

(i) The dipole moment of a dipole in a uniform external field Ē is B. Then the
torque τ acting on the dipole is
(a) τ=p x E (c) τ = 2(p + Ē)
(b) τ = P. Ē (d) τ = (P + E)
(ii) An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges, each of magnitude 1.0 μC
separated by a distance of 2.0 cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of
105 NC-1. The maximum torque on the dipole is
(a) 0.2 x 10-3 Nm (c) 2 x 10-3 Nm
-3
(b) 1x 10 Nm (d) 4x 10-3 Nm
(iii) Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field is minimum when θ is equal to
(a) 0° (c) 180°
(b) 90° (d) Both (a) and (c)
(iv) When an electric dipole is held at an angle in a uniform electric field, the net
force F and torque τ on the dipole are
(a) F= 0, τ = 0 (c) F=0, τ ≠ 0
(b) F≠0, τ≠0 (d) F≠0, τ=0

Physics/XII Page 20
 (v) An electric dipole of moment p is placed in an electric field of intensity E. The
dipole acquires a position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the
direction of the field. Assuming that potential energy of the dipole to be zero
when 0 = 90°, the torque and the potential energy of the dipole will respectively
be
(a) pEsinθ, -pEcosθ (c) pEsinθ, 2pEcosθ
(b) pEsinθ, -2pEcosθ (d) pEcosθ, – pEsinθ
Q4. Read the following source and answer the following questions:
Electric charge is the physical property of matter that causes it to experience a force
when placed in an electromagnetic field. There are two types of charges positive and
negative charges. Also, like charges repel each other whereas unlike charges attract
each other.

1. Charge on a body which carries 200 excess electrons is:

(i) -3.2 ×× 10-18 C (iii)-3.2 ×× 10-17 C
18
(ii) 3.2 ×× 10 C (iv) 3.2 ×× 10 -17 C
2. Charge on a body which carries 10 excess electrons is:
(i) -1.6 ×× 10-18 C (iii)2.6 ×× 10-18 C
(ii) 1.6 ×× 10 -18 C (iv) 1.6 ×× 10-21 C
3. Mass of electron is:
(i) 9.1 ×× 10-31 kg (iii)1.6 ×× 10-19 kg
(ii) 9.1 ×× 10-31 g (iv) 1.6 ×× 10-19 g
4. A body is positively charged, it implies that:
(i) there is only a positive charge in the body
(ii) there is positive as well as negative charge in the body but the positive charge
is more than negative charge
(iii)there is equally positive and negative charge in the body but the positive
charge lies in the outer regions
(iv) the negative charge is displaced from its position

5. On rubbing, when one body gets positively charged and other negatively
charged, the electrons transferred from positively charged body to negatively
charged body are:
(i) valence electrons only
(ii) electrons of inner shells
(iii)both valence electrons and electrons of the inner shell.
(iv) none of the above

Q5. Faraday cage

A Faraday cage or Faraday shield is an enclosure made of a conducting material.
The fields within a conductor cancel out with any external fields, so the electric
field within the enclosure is zero. These Faraday cages act as big hollow

Physics/XII Page 21
 conductors you can put things in to shield them from electrical fields. Any
electrical shocks the cage receives, pass harmlessly around the outside of the cage.

1. Which of the following material can be used to make a Faraday cage?

a)Plastic c) Copper
b)Glass d)Wood
2. Example of a real-world Faraday cage is
a) car c) lightning rod
b) plastic box d) metal rod
3. What is the electrical force inside a Faraday cage when it is struck by
lightning?
a) The same as the lightning c) Zero
b) Half that of the lightning d) A quarter of the lightning
4. An isolated point charge +q is placed inside the Faraday cage. Its surface must
have charge equal to
a) Zero c) –q
b) +q d) +2q
5. A point charge of 2C is placed at centre of Faraday cage in the shape of cube
with surface of 9 cm edge. The number of electric field lines passing through the
cube normally will be
a) 1.9105 Nm2 /C entering the surface
b) 1.9105 Nm2 /C leaving the surface
c) 2.0105 Nm2 /C leaving the surface
d) 2.0105 Nm2 /C entering the surface

Physics/XII Page 22
 CHAPTER-2
Electrostatic potential and capacitance
1 mark questions
1. The figure shows the field lines of a
positive charge. Is the work done by
the field is moving a small positive
charge from Q to P positive or negative?
2. For any charge configuration equipotential surface through a point is a normal to the
electric field. Justify.
3. Two charges of 2µC and -2µC are placed at point A and B 5cm apart. Depict an
equipotential surface of the system.
4. Why electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor and
has the same value as on its surface?
5. Why is the potential inside a hollow spherical charged conductor is constant and has
the same value as on its surface?
6. Why there is no work done in moving a charge from one point to another on an
equipotential surface?
7. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that potential on its surface is
10 V. What is the potential at the centre of the sphere?
8. Can two equipotential surface intersect each other? Justify your answer.
9. A point charge Q is placed at point O as shown in the figure. Is the potential
difference (VA – VB) positive, negative or zero if Q is (i)positive (ii) negative

10. Draw equipotential surfaces due to a single point charge.

11. Name the physical quantity whose SI unit is J/C. Is it a scalar or a vector quantity?
12. What is the work done in moving a test charge q through a distance of 1 cm along the
equatorial axis of an electric dipole?
13. Define the term potential energy for charge q at a distance r in an external field.
14. The potential due to a dipole at any point on its axial line is zero.
15. What is the electric potential due to an electric dipole at an equatorial point?
16. A 500µC charge is at the centre of a square of side 10cm. Find the work done in
moving a charge of 10 µC between two diagonally opposite points on the square.
17. The given graph shows the variation of charge q versus potential difference V for two
capacitors Cl and C2. Both the capacitors” have same plate separation but plate area of
C2 is greater than that C1 .Which line (A or B) corresponds to and why?

18. A capacitor has been charged by a DC source. What are the magnitude of conduction
and displacement current when it is fully charged? Distinguish between a dielectric
and a conductor. Define the dielectric constant of a medium. What is its unit?

Physics/XII Page 23
 19. A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor.
What is its effect on the capacitance of the capacitor?
20. In the figure given below X, Y represent parallel plate capacitors having the same
area of plates and the same distance of separation between them. What is the relation
between the energies stored in the capacitors?

21. The following graph shows the variation of charge Q with voltage V for two
capacitors K and L In which capacitor is more electrostatic energy stored?

22. Define dielectric strength of a dielectric.

2 Marks Questions

23. Two point charges q1 and q2 are located at r1 and r2, respectively in an external
electric field E. Obtain the expression for the total work done in assembling this
configuration.
24. A test charge q is moved without acceleration from A to C along the path from A to B
and then from B to C in electric field E as shown in the figure.
(i)Calculate the potential difference between A and C.
(ii)At which point (of the two) is the electric potential more and why?

25. Graph the electric potential (V) with distance r due to a point charge Q.
26. Two uniformly large parallel thin plates having charge densities +σ and –σ are kept in
the XZ – plane at a distance d apart. Sketch an equipotential surface due to electric
field between the plates. If a particle of mass m and charge –q remains stationary
between the plates. What is the magnitude and direction of this field?
27. A dipole with its charge -q and +q located at the points (0, – b,0) and (0,+b,0) is
present in a uniform electric field E. The equipotential surfaces of this field are planes
parallel to the Y Z-plane.
(i)What is the direction of the electric field E?
(ii)How much torque would the dipole experience in this field?
28. Two point charges 3µC and -3µC are placed at points A and B, 5 cm apart.
(a) Draw the equipotential surfaces of the system
(b) Why do equipotential surfaces get close to each other near the point charge?
29. Find out the expression for the potential energy of a system of three charges q1, q2 and
q3 located at r1, r2 and r3 with respect to the common origin O.

Physics/XII Page 24
 30. Draw three equipotential surfaces corresponding to a field that uniformly increases in
magnitude but remains constant along Z-direction. How are these surfaces different
from that of a constant electric field along Z-direction?
31. (i)Can two equipotential surfaces intersect each other? Give reasons,
(ii)Two charges – q and + q are located at points A (0, 0, – a) and B{0, 0, +a)
respectively. How much work is done in moving a test charge from point P{7, 0, 0)
to Q(- 3, 0, 0)?
32. (i)Write two characteristics of equipotential surfaces.
(ii) Draw the equipotential surfaces due to an electric dipole.
33. Two point charges, q1 =10xl0-8 C and q2 =-2×10-8C are separated by a distance of 60
cm in air.
(i)What a distance from the 1st charge q1 would the electric potential be zero?
(ii)Also, calculate the electrostatic potential energy of the system.
34. Two point charges 4Q, Q are separated by lm in air. At what point on the line joining
the charges, is the electric field intensity zero? Also calculate the electrostatic
potential energy of the system of charges taking the value of charge, Q = 2 X 10-7 C.
35. Define the dipole moment of an electric dipole. How does the electric potential due to
a dipole vary on the dipole axis as a function of r distance of the point from the mid-
point of the dipole at large distances?
36. Derive an expression for the electric potential at any point along the axial line of an
electric dipole.
37. Two charges of 5 nC and – 2 nC are placed at points (5 cm, 0, 0) and (23 cm, 0, 0) in
the region of space, where there is no other external field. Calculate the electrostatic
potential energy of this charge system.
38. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C is charged to a potential V. It is then
connected to another uncharged capacitor having the same capacitance. Find out the
ratio of the energy stored in the combined system to that stored initially in the single
capacitor.
39. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitances C1 and C2 such that C1 =2C2 are
connected across a battery of V volt as shown in the figure Initially, the key (k) is kept
closed to fully charge the capacitors.The key is now thrown open and a dielectric slab
of dielectric constant K is inserted in the two capacitors to completely fill the gap
between the plates. Find the ratio of
(i) the net capacitance and
(ii) the energies stored in the combination before and after the introduction of the
dielectric slab.

40. Find the charge on the capacitor as Shown in the circuit.

Physics/XII Page 25
 41. Determine the potential difference across the plates of the capacitor C1 of the network

shown in the figure, (assume, E2 >E1 )

42. Net capacitance of three identical capacitors in series is 1µF. what will be there net
capacitance if connected in parallel? Find the ratio of energy stored in the
configurations if they are both connected to the same source?
43. Two identical parallel plate (air) capacitors C1 and C2 have capacitance C each. The
space between their plates is now filled with dielectrics as shown in the figure. If the
two capacitors still have equal capacitance, they obtain the relation between dielectric

constants K, K1 andK2.
44. You are given an air filled parallel plate capacitor C1. The space between its plates is
now filled with slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 as shown in figure. Find the
capacitance of the capacitor C2 if area of the plates is A and distance between the
plates is d.

.
45. Figure shows a sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness placed between the
plates of a capacitor. How will its capacitance be affected if
(i)the foil is electrically insulated?
(ii)the foil is connected to the upper plate with a conducting wire?

46. (i)Obtain the expression for the energy stored per unit volume in a charged parallel
plate capacitor.
(ii) The electric field inside a parallel plate capacitor is E. Find the amount of work
done in moving a charge q over a closed rectangular loop abcda.

3 Marks Questions

47. A wire AB is carrying a steady current of 12A and is lying on the table. Another wire
CD carrying 5 A is held directly above AB at a height of 1mm. Find the mass per unit
length of the wire CD, so that it remains suspended at its position when left free. Give
the direction of the current flowing in CD with respect to that in ( the value of g =10
ms-2]

Physics/XII Page 26
 48. (i) Depict the equipotential surfaces for a system of two identical positive point
charges placed a distance d apart.
(ii) Deduce the expression for the potential energy of a system of two point charges
q1 and q2 brought from infinity to the points with positions and r 2 respectively, in
presence of external electric field E.
49. Calculate the work done to associate the system of three charges q, -4q and 2q placed
on the vertices of equilateral triangle of side 10cm. here q = 1.6 х 10-10 C.
50. (i) Two points charges q1 and q2 initially at infinity, are brought one by one to points
P1 and P2 specified by position vectors r1 and r2 relative to same origin. What is the
potential energy of this charge configuration? Define an equipotential surface.
(ii) Draw schematically the equipotential surface corresponding to a field that
uniformly increases in magnitude but remains constant in direction.
51. (i) Derive the expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor having plate
area A and plate separation d.
(ii) Two charged spherical conductors of radii r1 and r2 when connected by a
conducting plate respectively. Find the ratio of their surface charge densities in terms
of their radii.
OR
A capacitor of 200 pF is charged by a 300 V battery. The battery is then disconnected
and the charged capacitor is connected to another uncharged capacitor of 100 pF.
Calculate the difference between the final energy stored in the combined system and
the initial energy stored in the single capacitor.
52. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After sometime, the battery is
disconnected and a dielectric slab with its thickness equal to the plate separation is
inserted between the plates. How will
(i)the capacitances of the capacitor,
(ii)potential difference between the plates and
(iii)the energy stored in the capacitors be affected? Justify your answer in each case.
53. A parallel plate capacitor, each with plate area A and separation d is charged to a
potential difference V. The battery used to charge it remains connected. A dielectric
slab of thickness d and dielectric constant K is now placed between the plates. What
change if any will take place in
(i)charge on plates?
(ii)electric field intensity between the plates?
(iii)capacitance of the capacitor? Justify your answer in each case.
54. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential difference V by a DC source. The
capacitor is then disconnected from the source. If the distance between the plates is
doubled, state with reason, how the following will change?
(i)Electric field between the plates
(ii)Capacitance
(iii)Energy stored in the capacitor
55. Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and
the series combination of two identical capacitors so that the energy stored in the two
cases becomes the same.
56. (i) How is the electric field due to a charged parallel plate capacitor affected when a
dielectric slab is inserted between the plates fully occupying the intervening region?
(ii) A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor but has thickness 1/2 d,where d is the separation between the
plates. Find the expression for the capacitance when the slab is inserted between the
plates.
57. (i) Plot a graph comparing the variation of potential V and electric field E due to a
point charge Q as a function of distance R from the point charge.
Physics/XII Page 27
 (ii) Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel
and the series combination of two capacitors, Cl and C2 with their capacitances in the
ratio 1 : 2, so that the energy stored in the two cases becomes the same.
58. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After sometime, the battery is
disconnected and a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is inserted between the
plates. How would
(i)the electric field between the plates
(ii)the energy stored in the capacitor be affected? Justify your answer.
59. A system of capacitors connected as shown in the figure has a total energy of 160 mJ
stored in it. Obtain the value of the equivalent capacitance of this system and the

value of Z.
60. The two plates of a parallel plate capacitor are 4 mm apart. A slab of dielectric
constant 3 and thickness 3 mm is introduced between the plates with its faces parallel
to them. The distance between the plates is so adjusted that the capacitance of the
capacitor becomes (2/3 )rd of its original value. What is the new distance between the
plates?

5 Marks Questions

61. (i)Show that in a parallel plate capacitor if the medium between the plates of a
capacitor is filled with an insulating substance of dielectric constant K, its capacitance
increases.
(ii) Deduce the expression for the energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance C with
charge Q.
62. A small sphere of radius a carrying a positive charge q is placed concentrically inside
a larger hollow conducting shell of radius b(b> a). This outer shell has charge Q on it.
Show that if these spheres are connected by a conducting wire, charge will always
flow from the inner sphere to the outer sphere irrespective of the magnitude of the two
charges.

Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance:

MCQ Based questions:
Q1. A positively charged particle is released from rest in an uniform electric field.
The electric potential energy of the charge
(a) remains a constant because the electric field is uniform.
(b) increases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(c) decreases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(d) decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field.
Q2. Figures show some equipotential lines distributed in space. A charged object is
moved from point A to point B.

Physics/XII Page 28
 (a) The work done in Fig. (i) is the greatest.
(b) The work done in Fig. (ii) is least.
(c) The work done is the same in Fig. (i), Fig.(ii) and Fig. (iii).
(d) The work done in Fig. (iii) is greater than Fig. (ii) but equal to that in Fig. (i).
Q3. Equipotential at a great distance from a collection of charges whose total sum is
not zero are approximately
(a) spheres (c) paraboloids
(b) planes (d) ellipsoids
Q4. Two small spheres each carrying a charge q are placed r metre apart. If one of the
spheres is taken around the other one in a circular path of radius r, the work done will
be equal to
(a) force between them × r (b) force between them × 2πr
(c) force between them/2πr (d) zero
Q5. The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres) in space is given by
V = 4x² volt. The electric field at the point (1 m, 0, 2 m) in volt/metre is
(a) 8 along negative x-axis (b) 8 along positive x-axis
(c) 16 along negative x-axis (d) 16 along positive z-axis
Q6. If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another over an equipotential
surface, then
(a) work is done on the charge. (b) work is done by the charge.
(c) work done is constant. (d) no work is done.
Q7. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged so that the potential on its
surface is 10 V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is
(a) 0 V
(b) 10 V
(c) Same as at point 5 cm away from the surface
(d) Same as at point 25 cm away from the surface
Q8. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate
capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is
(a) proportional to the square root of the distance between the plates.
(b) linearly proportional to the distance between the plates.
(c) independent of the distance between the plates.
(d) inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.
Q9. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is removed and another identical
uncharged capacitor is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic energy of resulting
system
(a) increases by a factor of 4. (b) decreases by a factor of 2.
(c) remains the same. (d) increases by a factor of 2.
Q10. A conductor with a positive charge
(a) is always at +ve potential. (b) is always at zero potential.
(c) is always at negative potential. (d) may be at +ve, zero or -ve potential.
Q11. Figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a charged body. If the
electric field at A and B are EA and EB respectively and if the displacement between
A and B is r then

Physics/XII Page 29
 (a) EA > EB (b) EA < EB
(c) EA = EB/r (d) EA = EB /r²
Q12. Which of the following options are correct? If a conductor has a potential V 4- 0
and there are no charges anywhere else outside, then
(a) there must not be charges on the surface or inside itself.
(b) there cannot be any charge in the body of the conductor.
(c) there must be charges only on the surface.
(d) there must be charges inside the surface.
Q13. Which of the following options is correct? In a region of constant potential
(a) the electric field is uniform. (b) the electric field is zero.
(c) there can be charge inside the region.
(d) the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region.
Q14. 64 drops each having the capacity C and potential V are combined to form a big
drop. If the charge on the small drop is q, then the charge on the big drop will be
(a) 2q (b) 4q
(c) 16q (d) 64q
Q15. The radii of two metallic spheres A and B are r 1 and r2 respectively (r1 > r2).
They are connected by a thin wire and the system is given a certain charge. The
charge will be greater
(a) on the surface of the sphere B. (b) on the surface of the sphere A.
(c) equal on both. (d) zero on both.
Q16. A parallel plate condenser is connected with the terminals of a battery. The
distance between the plates is 6mm. If a glass plate (dielectric constant K = 9) of 4.5
mm is introduced between them, then the capacity will become
(a) 2 times. (b) the same.
(c) 3 times. (d) 4 times.
Q17. Three charges Q, +q and +q is placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side l as shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero, then
Q is equal to

(a) –q (b) +q
(c) zero (d) –
Q18. Two metal plates form a parallel plate capacitor. The distance between the
plates is d. A metal sheet of thickness and of the same area is introduced between
the plates.What is the ratio of the capacitance in the two cases?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 5 : 1
Q19. A capacitor of 4 pF is connected as shown in the circuit. The internal resistance
of the battery is 0.5 Q. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates will be ______

Physics/XII Page 30
 (a) 0 (b) 4
(c) 16 μC (d) 8 μC
Q20. A capacitor is charged by using a battery which is then disconnected. A
dielectric slabthen slipped between the plates, which results in
(a) reduction of charge on the plates and increase of potential difference across the
plates.
(b) increase in the potential difference across the plate, reduction in stored energy, but
no change in the charge on the plates.
(c) decrease in the potential difference across the plates, reduction in the stored
energy, but no change in the charge on the plates.
(d) none of these
Q21. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Electrostatic force is a conservative force.
(b) Potential at a point is the work done per unit charge in bringing a charge from any
point to infinity.
(c) Electrostatic force is non-conservative
(d) Potential is the product of charge and work.
Q22. 1 volt is equivalent to
(a) N/s (b) N/C
(c) J/C (d) J/s
Q23. The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinite distance to a
point at distance x from a positive charge Q is W. Then the potential at that point is
(a) WQ/x (b) W
(c) W/x (d) WQ
Q24. Consider a uniform electric field in the z-direction. The potential is a constant
(a) for any x for a given z (b) for any y for a given z
(c) on the x-y plane for a given z (d) all of these
Q25. Equipotential surfaces
(a) are closer in regions of large electric fields compared to regions of lower electric
fields.
(b) will be more crowded near sharp edges of a conductor.
(c) will always be equally spaced.
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct.
Q26. In a region of constant potential
(a) the electric field is uniform. (b) the electric field is zero.
(c) there can be no charge inside the region. (d) both (b) and (c) are correct.
Q27. A test charge is moved from lower potential point to a higher potential point.
The potential energy of test charge will
(a) remain the same (b) increase
(c) decrease (d) become zero
Q28. An electric dipole of moment is placed in a uniform electric field . Then
(i) the torque on the dipole is
(ii) the potential energy of the system is
(iii) the resultant force on the dipole is zero. Choose the correct option.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct (b) (i) and (iii) are correct and (ii) is wrong
(c) only (i) is correct (d) (i) and (ii) are correct and (iii) is wrong
Q29. If a conductor has a potential V ≠ 0 and there are no charges anywhere else
outside, then
(a) there must be charges on the surface or inside itself.
(b) there cannot be any charge in the body of the conductor.
Physics/XII Page 31
 (c) there must be charges only on the surface.
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct.
Q30. Which of the following statements is false for a perfect conductor?
(a) The surface of the conductor is an equipotential surface.
(b) The electric field just outside the surface of a conductor is perpendicular to the
surface.
(c) The charge carried by a conductor is always uniformly distributed over the surface
of the conductor.
(d) None of these.
Q31. Dielectric constant for a metal is
(a) zero (b) infinite
(c) 1 (d) 10
Q32. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the maximum force
of attraction between two charges separated by a distance
(a) increases K times (b) remains unchanged
(c) decreases K times (d) increases K-1 times
Q33. In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacity increases if
(a) area of the plate is decreased. (b) distance between the plates increases.
(c) area of the plate is increased. (d) dielectric constantly decreases.
Q34. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts.
After disconnecting the charging battery, the distance between the plates of the
capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference
between the plates
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) does not change (d) becomes zero
Q35. Two identical capacitors are joined in parallel, charged to a potential V,
separated and then connected in series, the positive plate of one is connected to the
negative of the other. Which of the following is true?
(a) The charges on the free plated connected together are destroyed.
(b) The energy stored in this system increases.
(c) The potential difference between the free plates is 2V.
(d) The potential difference remains constant.
Q36. A capacitor has some dielectric between its plates, and the capacitor is
connected to a dc source. The battery is now disconnected and then the dielectric is
removed, then
(a) capacitance will increase. (b) energy stored will decrease.
(c) electric field will increase. (d) voltage will decrease.
Q37. Two spherical conductors each of capacity C are charged to potential V and -V.
These are then connected by means of a fine wire. The loss of energy is
(a) zero (b) CV2
2
(c) CV (d) 2 CV2
ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTIONS
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct.

Physics/XII Page 32
 Q.1. Assertion : If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and
dielectric constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
Reason : Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material.
Q.2. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key.
A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates. The energy
which is stored becomes K times.
Reason : The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant or unchanged.
Q.3. Assertion : The total charge stored in a capacitor is zero.
Reason : The field just outside the capacitor is σ/ε0 . (σ is the charge density).
Q.4. Assertion : The electrostatic force between the plates of a charged isolated
capacitor decreases when dielectric fills whole space between plates.
Reason : The electric field between the plates of a charged isolated capacitance
increases when dielectric fills whole space between plates.
Q.5. Assertion : Two concentric charged shells are given. The potential difference
between the shells depends on charge of inner shell.
Reason : Potential due to charge of outer shell remains same at every point inside the
sphere.

Q.6. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each other.

Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
Q.7. Assertion: The potential difference between any two points in an electric field
depends only on initial and final position.
Reason: Electric field is a conservative field so the work done per unit positive
charge does not depend on path followed.
Q.8. Assertion : Electric field inside a conductor is zero.
Reason: The potential at all the points inside a conductor is same.
Q.9. Assertion : Electric field is discontinuous across the surface of a spherical
charged shell.
Reason : Electric potential is continuous across the surface of a spherical charged
shell.
Q.10. Assertion : Work done in moving a charge between any two points in an
electric field is independent of the path followed by the charge, between these points.
Reason: Electrostatic force is a non-conservative force.
Q.11. Assertion : Two adjacent conductors of unequal dimensions, carrying the same
positive charge have a potential difference between them.
Reason : The potential of a conductor depends upon the charge given to it.
Q.12. Assertion : Electric potential and electric potential energy are different
quantities.
Reason : For a system of positive test charge and point charge electric potential
energy = electric potential.
Q.13. Assertion : For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with net charge is
zero, the electric field at any point on axis of the ring is zero.
Reason : For a non-uniformly charged thin circular ring with net charge zero, the
electric potential at each point on axis of the ring is zero.
Q.14. Assertion : For a charged particle moving from point P to point Q, the net work
done by an electrostatic field on the particle is independent of the path connecting
point P to point Q.

Physics/XII Page 33
 Reason : The net work done by a conservative force on an object moving along a
closed loop is zero.
Q.15. Assertion : Polar molecules have permanent dipole moment.
Reason : In polar molecules, the centres of positive and negative charges coincide
even when there is no external field.
Q.16. Assertion : Dielectric polarization means formation of positive and negative
charges inside the dielectric.
Reason: Free electrons are formed in this process.
Q.17. Assertion : In the absence of an external electric field, the dipole moment per
unit volume of a polar dielectric is zero.
Reason : The dipoles of a polar dielectric are randomly oriented.
Q.18. Assertion : For a point charge, concentric spheres centered at a location of the
charge are equipotential surfaces.
Reason : An equipotential surface is a surface over which potential has zero value.
Q.19. Assertion : Electric energy resides out of the spherical isolated conductor.
Reason : The electric field at any point inside the conductor is zero.
Q.20. Assertion : Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each other.
Reason : Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
Q.21. Assertion: Two equipotential surfaces can be orthogonal.
Reason: Electric field lines are normal to the equipotential surface.
Q.22. Assertion: The equatorial plane of a dipole is an equipotential surface.
Reason: The electric potential at any point on equatorial plane is zero.
Q.23. Assertion: The electric potential at any point on the equatorial plane of a dipole
is zero.
Reason: The work done in bringing a unit positive charge from infinity to a point in
equatorial plane is equal for the two charges of the dipole.
Q.24. Assertion : A parallel plate capacitor is connected across battery through a key.
A dielectric slab of dielectric constant k is introduced between the plates. The energy
stored becomes k times.
Reason : The surface density of charge on the plate remains constant.
Q.25. Assertion : Two metal plates having charges Q, –Q face each other at some
separation and are dipped into an oil tank. If the oil is pumped out, the electric field
between the plates increases.
Reason : Electric field between the plates, Emed = Eair/K
Q.26. Assertion : When a dielectric slab is gradually inserted between the plates of an
isolated parallel-plate capacitor, the energy of the system decreases.
Reason : The force between the plates decreases.
Q.27. Assertion : A dielectric is inserted between the plates of a battery connected
capacitor. The energy of the capacitor increases.
Reason : Energy of the capacitor, U=CV2/2

Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Case Study Question 1
When an insulator is placed in an external field, the dipoles become aligned. Induced
surface charges on the insulator establish a polarization field Ē i in its interior. The net
field Ē in the insulator is the vector sum of Ē, and Ē i as shown in the figure.

Physics/XII Page 34
 On the application of external electric field, the effect of aligning the electric dipoles
in the insulator is called
polarization and the field Ē; is known as the polarization field.
The dipole moment per unit volume of the dielectric is known as polarization (P).
For linear isotropic dielectrics, P =χE, where χ = electrical susceptibility of the
dielectric medium.
(i) Which among the following is an example of polar molecule?
(a) O2 (c) N2
(b) H2 (d) HCI
(ii) When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the maximum
force of attraction between two charges separated by a distance
(a) increases K times (c) decreases K times
(b) remains unchanged (d) increases 2K times.
(iii) Which of the following is a dielectric?
(a) Copper (c) Antimony (Sb)
(b) Glass (d) None of these
(iv) For a polar molecule, which of the following statements is true ?
(a) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons coincide.
(b) The centre of gravity of electrons and protons do not coincide.
(c) The charge distribution is always symmetrical.
(d) The dipole moment is always zero.
(v) When a comb rubbed with dry hair attracts pieces of paper. This is because
the
(a) comb polarizes the piece of paper
(b) comb induces a net dipole moment opposite to the direction of field
(c) electric field due to the comb is uniform
(d) comb induces a net dipole moment perpendicular to the direction of field

Physics/XII Page 35
 CHAPTER-3
Current Electricity
Q1. Why manganin is used for making standard resistor?
Q2. The sequence of bands marked on a carbon resistor are: Red, Red, Red, Silver.
Write the value of resistance with tolerance.
Q3. A wire of resistivity ρ is stretched to three times its initial length, what will be its
new resistivity.
Q4. If p.d.v applied across a conductor is increased to 2v, how will the draft velocity
of the electrons change?
Q5. A 10Ω thick wire is stretched so that its length becomes three times. Assuming
that there is no change in its density on stretching. Calculate the resistance of new
wire.
Q6. Give any two applications super conductors.
Q7. Two wire of equal length one copper and manganin have same resistance , which
wire is thicker?
Q8. A copper wire of resistivity r is stretched to reduce its diameter to half of its
previous value .What will be the new resistances?
OR
A wire of resistance 4R is bend in the form of circle .What is the effective
resistance between the ends of diameter?
Q9. You are given 8 Ω resistor. What length of wire of resistance 120 Ωm-1 should
be
joined in parallel with it to get a value of 6 Ω ?
Q10. Three resistance 3Ω,6Ω and 9Ω are connected to a battery. In which of them
will
the power dissipation be maximum if
a) They all are connected in parallel
b) They all are connected in series Give reason.
Q11. A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1Ω at 27.5˚c and a resistance of 2.7Ω at
100˚c. Determine the temperature coeff. of resistivity of silver.
Q12. The variation of potential difference with length in case of two potentiometres
A and B is given below. Which of the two is more sensitive.

Q13. If the length of the wire conductor is doubled by stretching it , keeping potential
difference constant by what factor the drift speed of the electron changes.
Q14. Two 120V light bulbs, one of 25W and another of 200W are connected in series.
One bulb burnt out almost instantaneously? Which one was burnt and why?
Q15. A cylindrical metallic wire is stretched to increase its length by 5%. Calculate
the percentage change in resistances.
Q16. A wire of resistance 4R is bend in the form of circle .What is the effective
resistance between the ends of diameter?.
Q17. Two wires A and B have same lengths and same material, have their cross
sectional areas 1:4 , what would be the ratio of heat produced in these wires when
the voltage across each is constant.
Q18. Two bulbs whose resistance are in the ratio of 1:2 are connected in parallel to a
Physics/XII Page 36
 source of constant voltage. What will be the ratio of power dissipation in these?
OR
Plot of current I versus time interval is given below. Find the charge that flows

through the wire during this time period

Q19. A student has two wire of iron and copper of equal length and diameter. He first
joins two wires in series and passes electric current through the combination
which increases gradually. After that he joins two wires in parallel and repeats the
process of passing current. Which wire will glow first in each case?
Q20. Total resistance of the circuit is R/3 in which three identical resistors are
connected in parallel. Find the value of each resistance?
Q21. Amount of charge passing through the cross section of a wire is
q(t)=at2+bt+c.Write the dimensional formula for a, b and c. If the values of a, b
and c in SI unit are 6, 4, 2 respectively. Find the value of current at t=6 seconds.
Q22. Prove that current density of a metallic conductor is directly-proportional to the
speed of electrons.
Q23. Name the carriers of electric current in
(i) a bar made of silver
(ii) hydrogen discharge tube
(iii)a germanium semiconductor
(iv) a wire made of alloy nichrome
(v) supper conductor.
(vi) salt water
Q24. A potential difference V is applied across the ends of length I and diameter D.
What is the effect on drift velocity of electrons if
a) V is doubled b) I is doubled c) D is doubled
Q25. Draw a graph showing variation of resistivity with temperature for
a) nichrome b)silicon
Q26. A uniform wire of resistance “R” is shaped into a regular “n” sided polygon,
where “n” is even. Find the equivalent resistance between
(i) opposite corners of the polygon
(ii) adjacent corners of the polygon.
Q27. Under what condition is the heat produced in an electric circuit
(i) directly proportional
(ii) inversely proportional to the resistance of the circuit?
Q28. State the working principle of potentiometer explain with the help of circuit
diagram how the emf of two primary cells are compared by using the potentiometer
Q29. State Kirchhoff’s law an electrical network. Using the Kirchhoff’s laws deduce
the condition for balance in the Wheat-stone bridge.
Q30.State the working principle of potentiometer explain with the help of circuit
diagram how the potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of the
given primary cell.

Physics/XII Page 37
Assignment based on Ohm’s law, emf and internal resistance:
1 Mark Questions:
1. Plot a graph showing variation of current versus voltage for the material GaAs.
2. Show variation of resistivity of copper as a function of temperature in graph.
3. Define the term drift velocity of charge carriers in a conductor and write its
relationship with the current flowing through it.
4. Define the term electrical conductivity of a metallic wire. Write its SI unit.
5. Define the term mobility of charge carriers in a conductor. Write its SI unit.
6. Write a relation between current and drift velocity of electrons in a conductor. Use
this relation to explain how the resistance of a conductor changes with the rise in
temperature.
7. When electrons drift in a metal from lower to higher potential, does it mean that
all the free electrons of the metal are moving in the same direction?
8. Show on a graph, the variation of resistivity with temperature for a typical
semiconductor.
9. Define resistivity of a conductor. Write its SI unit.
10. A wire of resistance 8Ω is bent in the form of a circle. What is the effective
resistance between the ends of a diameter if battery is connected across diameter.
11. Two identical slabs, of a given metal, are joined together, in two different ways, as
shown in figures
(a) and (b). What is the ratio of the resistances of these two combinations?

12. Two conducting wires X and Y of same diameter but different materials are joined
in series across a battery. If the number density of electrons in X is twice than that
in Y, then find the ratio of drift velocity of electrons in the two wires.
13. The three coloured bands, on a carbon resistor are red, green and yellow,
respectively. Write the value of its resistance.
14. Write an expression for the resistivity of a metallic conductor showing its
variation over a limited range of temperatures.
15. Define ionic mobility. Write its SI Unit.
16. A physical quantity, associated with electrical conductivity, has the SI unit Ω-m.
Identify this physical quantity.
2 Marks Questions:
17. Estimate the average drift speed of conduction electrons in an copper wire of cross
sectional area 1.0×10-7 m2 carrying a current of 1.5A. Assume the density of
conduction electrons to be 9×1028 m-3.
18. Draw a plot showing the variation of resistivity of a (i) conductor and (ii)
semiconductor, with the increase in temperature. How does one explain this
behaviour in terms of number density of charge carriers and the relaxation time?
19. Derive an expression for the current density of a conductor in terms of the drift
speed of electrons.
20. Plot a graph showing temperature dependence of resistivity for a typical
semiconductor. How is this behaviour explained?

Physics/XII Page 38
 21. (i) you are required to select a carbon resistor of resistance 47kΩ+10% from a
large collection. What should be the sequence of color bands use to code it?
(ii) write two characteristics of manganin which make it suitable for making
standard resistances.
22. The sequence of coloured bands in two carbon resistors Rt and R2 is
(i)brown, green, blue and
(ii)orange, black, green.
Find the ratio of their resistances.
23. A wire of 15Ω resistance is gradually stretched to double its original length. It is
then cut into two equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel across a
3.0V battery. Find the current drawn from the battery.
24. Derive an expression for drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor in terms of
relaxation time.
25. Two metallic wires of the same material have the same length but cross-sectional
area is in the ratio 1: 2. They are connected
(i)in series and
(ii)in parallel.
Compare the drift velocities of electrons in the two wires in both the cases.
26. Derive an expression for the resistivity of a good conductor, in terms of the
relaxation time of electrons.
3 Marks Questions
27. A 100V battery is connected to the electric network is shown in the figure. If the
power consumed in the 2Ω resistor is 200W, determine the power dissipated in the
5Ω resistor.

28. Calculate the steady current through the 2Ω resistor in the circuit shown in the

figure
29. Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to
the drift speed of electrons.
30. (i) Calculate the equivalent resistance of the given electrical network between
points A and B.
(ii) Also, calculate the current through CD and ACB, if a 10V DC source is
connected between A and B and the value of R is assumed as 2Ω.

Physics/XII Page 39
 Assignment based on potentiometer:
1 Mark Questions
1. State the underlying principle of a potentiometer?
2. Two identical cells, each of emf E, having negligible internal resistance, are
connected in parallel with each other across an external resistance, What is the
current through this resistance?
3. A 10V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected across a 200V battery
and a resistance of 38Ω as shown in the figure. Find the value of the current in
circuit.

4. The emf of a cell is always greater than its terminal voltage. Why? Give reason.
5. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r draws a current Write the relation
between terminal voltage V in terms of E, I and r.
6. A resistance R is connected across a cell of emf E and internal resistance r. Now, a
potentiometer measures the potential difference between the terminals of the cells
as V. Write the expression for r in terms of E, V and R.

7. A (i) series (ii) parallel combination of two given resistors is connected, one-by-
one, across a cell. In which case, will the terminal potential difference across the
cell have a higher value?
8. The plot of the variation of potential difference across a combination of three
identical cells in series versus current is as shown in figure. What is the emf of
each cell?

2 Marks Questions
9. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable resistor
Plot a graph showing variation of terminal voltage V of the cell versus the current
I. Using the plot, show the emf of the cell and its internal resistance can be
determined.
10. A potentiometer wire of length 1m has a resistance of 10Ω. Determine the emf of
the primary cell which gives a balance point at 40cm.
11. Describe briefly with the help of a circuit diagram, how a potentiometer is used to
determine the internal resistance of a cell.

Physics/XII Page 40
 12. Two students X and Y perform an experiment on potentiometer separately using
the circuit given below Keeping other parameters unchanged, how will the
position of the null point be affected if
(i)X increases the value of resistance R in the set up by keeping the key closed and
the key K2 open?
(ii)Y decreases the value of resistance S in the set-up, while the key K2 remains
open and then K1 closed?
Justify your answer.

13. Two cells of emf 2E and E and internal resistances 2r and r respectively, are
connected in parallel. Obtain the expressions for the equivalent emf and the
internal resistance of the combination.
14. Three cells of emf E,2E and 5 E having internal resistances r, 2r and 3r, variable
resistance R as shown in the figure. Find the expression for the current. Plot a
graph for variation of current with R

15. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable resistor R.
Plot a graph showing the variation of terminal potential V with resistance!?
Chapter: 3 Current Electricity (MCQ Based Questions)
Q.1. In a current carrying conductor the net charge is
(a) 1.6 x 10–19 coulomb (b) 6.25 x 10–18 coulomb
(c) zero (d) infinite
Q.2. The current which is assumed to be flowing in a circuit from positive terminal to
negative, is called
(a) direct current (b) pulsating current
(c) conventional current (d) alternating current
Q.3. When no current is passed through a conductor,
(a) the free electrons do not move
(b) the average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is not zero
(c) the average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(d) the average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is non-zero
Q.4. A current pass through a wire of non-uniform cross-section. Which of the
following quantities are independent of the cross-section?
(a) The charge crossing (b) Drift velocity
(c) Current density (d) Free-electron density

Physics/XII Page 41
 Q.5. In the equation AB = C, A is the current density, C is the electric field, Then B is
(a) resistivity (b) conductivity
(c) potential difference (d) resistance
Q.6. Drift velocity of electrons is due to
(a) motion of conduction electrons due to random collisions.
(b) motion of conduction electrons due to electric field E
(c) repulsion to the conduction electrons due to inner electrons of ions.
(d) collision of conduction electrons with each other.
Q.7. The speed at which the current travels, in conductor, is nearly equal to
(a) 3 × 104 m/s (b) 3 × 105 m/s
6
(c) 4 × 10 m/s (d) 3 × 108 m/s
Q.8. In the absence of an electric field, the mean velocity of free electrons in a
conductor at absolute temperature (T) is
(a) zero (b) independent of T
(c) proportional to T (d) proportional to T2
Q.9. When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor at a temperature T,
the drift velocity of electrons is proportional to
(a) V (b) V
(c) T (d)1/ T
Q.10. For which of the following dependence of drift velocity v d on electric field E, is
Ohm’s law obeyed?
(a) vd α E2 (b) vd = E1/2
(c) vd = constant (d) vd = E
Q.11. The current density (number of free electrons per m3) in metallic conductor is
of the order of
(a) 1022 (b) 1024
(c) 1026 (d) 1028
Q.12. A current passes through a resistor. If K1 and K2 represent the average kinetic
energy of the conduction electrons and the metal ions respectively then
(a) K1 < K2 (b) K1 = K2
(c) K1 > K2 (d) any of these three may occur
Q.13. A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the
temperature of the metal wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it
(a) increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(b) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(c) increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
(d) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
Q.14. The electric field intensity E, current density J and specific resistance k are
related to each other through the relation
(a) E = J/k (b) E = J k
(c) E = k/J (d) k = J E
Q.15. The relaxation time in conductors
(a) increases with the increases of temperature
(b) decreases with the increases of temperature
(c) it does not depends on temperature
(d) all of sudden changes at 400 K
Q.16. We are able to obtain fairly large currents in a conductor because
(a) the electron drift speed is usually very large
(b) the number density of free electrons is very high and this can compensate for the
low values of the electron drift speed and the very small magnitude of the electron
charge
(c) the number density of free electrons as well as the electron drift speeds are very
Physics/XII Page 42
 large and these compensate for the very small magnitude of the electron charge
(d) the very small magnitude of the electron charge has to be divided by the still
smaller product of the number density and drift speed to get the electric current
Q.17. In conductor when electrons move between two collisions, their paths are …
A… when external fields are absent and … B…when external filed is present. Here,
A and B refer to
(a) straight lines, straight lines
(b) straight lines, curved lines
(c) curved lines, straight lines
(d) curved lines, curved lines
Q.18. The effective resistance between C & D in given circuit is

(a) R (b) 3R
(c) 2R/3 (d) R/3
Q.19. Two or more resistors are said to be in …A… if one end of all resistors is
joined together and similarly the other ends joined together, Here, A refers to
(a) series (b) parallel
(c) either (a) or (b) (d) None of these
Q.20. The example of non-ohmic resistance is
(a) diode (b) copper wire
(c) filament lamp (d) carbon resistor
Q.21. Constantan wire is used for making standard resistance, because it has
(a) high melting point (b) low specific resistance
(c) high specific resistance (d) negligible temperature coefficient of resistance
Q.22. At temperature 0K, the germanium behaves as a / an
(a) conductor (b) insulator
(c) super-conductor (d) ferromagnetic
Q.23. Which of the following is used for the formation of thermistor?
(a) Copper oxide (b) Nickel oxide
(c) Iron oxide (d) All of the above
Q.24. What is the suitable material for electric fuse?
(a) Cu (b) Constantan
(c) Tin-lead alloy (d) Nichrome
Q.25. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature
to 80 K. The resistance of
(a) each of these increases (b) each of these decreases
(c) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(d) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
Q.26. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If its length and radius are
both doubled, then
(a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both remain unchanged
(b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
(c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
(d) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
Q.27.Nichrome or Manganin is widely used in wire bound standard resistors because
of their
(a) temperature independent resistivity
Physics/XII Page 43
 (b) very weak temperature dependent resistivity.
(c) strong dependence of resistivity with temperature.
(d) mechanical strength.
Q.28. With increase in temperature the conductivity of
(a) metals increases and of semiconductor decreases.
(b) semiconductors increases and metals decreases.
(c) in both metals and semiconductors increases.
(d) in both metal and semiconductor decreases.
Q.29. The resistance of a metal increases with increasing temperature because
(a) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the electrons increase
(b) the collisions of the conducting electrons with the lattice consisting of the ions of
the metal increase
(c) the number of conduction electrons decreases
(d) the number of conduction electrons increases
Q.30. To minimize the power loss in the transmission cables connecting the power
stations to homes and factories, the transmission cables carry current
(a) at a very low voltage.
(b) at a very high voltage
(c) at 220 volt
(d) neither at a very high voltage nor at a very low voltage.
Q.31. Appliances based on heating effect of current work on
(a) only a.c. (b) only d.c.
(c) both a.c. and d.c. (d) None of these
Q.32. In the series combination of two or more than two resistances
(a) the current through each resistance is same
(b) the voltage through each resistance is same
(c) neither current nor voltage through each resistance is same
(d) both current and voltage through each resistance are same.
Q.33.Emf of a cell is
(a) the maximum potential difference between the terminals of a cell when no current
is drawn from the cell.
(b) the force required to push the electrons in the circuit.
(c) the potential difference between the positive and negative terminal of a cell in a
closed circuit.
(d) less than terminal potential difference of the cell.
Q.34. To draw a maximum current from a combination of cells, how should the cells
be grouped?
(a) Parallel (b) Series
(c) Mixed grouping
(d) Depends upon the relative values of internal and external resistances.
Q.35. The resistance of the coil of an ammeter is R. The shunt required to increase its
range n-fold should have a resistance
(a) R/n (b) R/(n-1)
(c) R/(n+1) (d) nR
Q.36. A cell of internal resistance r is connected across an external resistance nr. Then
the ratio of the terminal voltage to the emf of the cell is
(a) 1/n (b) 1/(n+1)
(c) n/(n+1) (d) (n-1)/n
Q.37. When potential difference is applied across an electrolyte, then Ohm’s law is
obeyed at
(a) zero potential (b) very low potential
(c) negative potential (d) high potential
Physics/XII Page 44
 Q.38. Under what condition will the strength of current in a wire of resistance R be
the same for connection is series and in parallel of n identical cells each of the internal
resistance r? When
(a) R = n r (b) R = r/n
(c) R = r (d) R → ∞, r → 0
Q.39. A cell of internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The
current will be maximum in R, if
(a) R = r (b) R < r
(c) R > r (d) R = r/2
Q.40. An energy source will supply a constant current into the load if its internal
resistance is
(a) very large as compared to the load resistance
(b) equal to the resistance of the load
(c) non-zero but less than the resistance of the load
(d) zero
Q.41. Kirchhoff’s first law, i.e., ∑ i = 0 at a junction, deals with the conservation of
(a) charge (b) energy
(c) momentum (d) angular momentum
Q.42. The Kirchhoff’s second law (∑iR = ∑E), where the symbols have their usual
meanings, is based on
(a) conservation of momentum (b) conservation of charge
(c) conservation of potential (d) conservation of energy
Q.43. Why is the Wheatstone bridge better than the other methods of measuring
resistances?
(a) It does not involve Ohm’s law (b) It is based on Kirchhoff’s law
(c) It has four resistor arms d) It is a null method
Q.44. If in the experiment of Wheatstone’s bridge, the positions of cells and
galvanometer are interchanged, then balance point will
(a) change
(b) remain unchanged
(c) depend on the internal resistance of cell and resistance of galvanometer
(d) None of these
Q.45. In a Wheatstone bridge in the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then
the deflection in galvanometer will
(a) change in previous direction (b) not change
(c) change in opposite direction (d) none of these.
Q.46. In meter bridge or Wheatstone bridge for measurement of resistance, the known
and the unknown resistance are interchanged. The error so removed is
(a) end correction (b) index error
(c) due to temperature effect (d) random error
Q.47. Potentiometer is based on
(a) deflection method (b) zero deflection method
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Q.48. In potentiometer a balance point is obtained, when
(a) the e.m.f. of the battery becomes equal to the e.m.f of the experimental cell
(b) the p.d. of the wire between the +ve end of battery to jockey becomes equal to the
e.m.f. of the experimental cell
(c) the p.d. of the wire between +ve point of cell and jockey becomes equal to the
e.m.f. of the battery
(d) the p.d. across the potentiometer wire becomes equal to the e.m.f. of the battery
Q.49. Potentiometer measures potential more accurately because
(a) it measures potential in open circuit
(b) it uses sensitive galvanometer for null deflection
Physics/XII Page 45
 (c) it uses high resistance potentiometer wire
(d) it measures potential in closed circuit
Q.50. For measuring voltage of any circuit, potentiometer is preferred to voltmeter
because
(a) the potentiometer is cheap and easy to handle.
(b) calibration in the voltmeter is sometimes wrong .
(c) the potentiometer almost draws no current during measurement.
(d) range of the voltmeter is not as wide as that of the potentiometer.
Q.51. In the experiment of potentiometer, at balance point, there is no current in the
(a) main circuit (b) galvanometer circuit
(c) potentiometer circuit (d) both main and galvanometer
circuits
Q.52. Sensitivity of potentiometer can be increased by
(a) increasing the e.m.f of the cell
(b) increasing the length of the potentiometer
(c) decreasing the length of the potentiometer wire
(d) None of these

Chapter: 3 Current Electricity

ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTIONS:
Q.1. Assertion : In a simple battery circuit, the point of the lowest potential is
positive terminal of the battery.
Reason : The current flows towards the point of the higher potential, as it does in
such a circuit from the negative to the positive terminal.
Q.2. Assertion : A larger dry cell has higher e.m.f.
Reason : The e.m.f of a dry cell is proportional to its size.
Q.3. Assertion : A current continues to flow in superconducting coil even after
switch is off.
Reason : Superconducting coils show Meissner effect.
Q.4. Assertion : Voltmeter is connected in parallel with the circuit.
Reason : Resistance of a voltmeter is very large.
Q.5. Assertion : Ohm’s law is applicable for all conducting elements.
Reason : Ohm’s law is a fundamental law.
Q.6. Assertion : An electric bulb becomes dim, when the electric heater in parallel
circuit is switched on.
Reason : Dimness decreases after sometime.

CHAPTER:3 (ELECTRIC CURRENT)

Case Study Based Questions:

Q1. Read the following source and answer any four out of the following
questions:
Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical
circuit. Resistance is measured in ohms. Also Resistivity, the electrical resistance of a
conductor of unit cross-sectional area, and unit length. … A characteristic property of
each material, resistivity is useful in comparing various materials on the basis of their
ability to conduct electric currents.

Physics/XII Page 46
 1. Resistivity is independent of:
a) nature of material b) temperature
c) dimensions of material d) none of the above
2. As compare to short wires, long wires have _______ resistance.
a) More b) less
c) same d) zero
3. As compare to thin wires, thick wires have _______ resistance.
a) more b) less
c) same d) zero
4. The resistance of a wire depends upon:
a) cross-sectional area b) length of wire
c) wire’s nature d) all of the above
5. A copper wire having the same size as steel wire have:
a) more resistance b) less resistance
c) same resistance d) none of the above
Q2. Whenever an electric current is passed through a conductor, it becomes hot after
some time. The phenomenon of the production of heat in a resistor by the flow of an
electric current through it is called heating effect of current or Joule heating. Thus, the
electrical energy supplied by the source of emf is converted into heat. In purely
resistive circuit, the energy expended by the source entirely appears as heat. But if the
circuit has an active element like a motor, then a part of energy supplied by the source
goes to do useful work and the rest appears as heat. Joule’s law of heating forms the
basis of various electrical appliances such as electric bulb, electric furnace, electric
press etc.
(i) Which of the following is correct statement?
(a) Heat produced in a conductor is independent of the current flowing.
(b) Heat produced in a conductor varies inversely as the current flowing.
(c) Heat produced in a conductor varies directly as the square of the current flowing.
(d) Heat produced in a conductor varies inversely as the square of the current flowing.
(ii) If the coil of a heater is cut to half, what would happen to heat produced?
(a) Doubled (b) Halved
(c) Remains same (d) Becomes four times.
(iii) A 25 W and 100 W are joined in series and connected to the mains. Which
bulb will glow brighter?
(a) 100 W (b) 25 W
(c) Both bulbs will glow brighter (d) None will glow brighter
(iv) A rigid container with thermally insulated wall contains a coil of resistance
100 Ω, carrying 1 A. Change in its internal energy after 5 min will be
(a) 0 kJ (b) 10 kJ
(c)20 kJ (d) 30 kJ
(v) The heat emitted by a bulb of 100 W in 1 min is
(a) 100 J (b) 1000 J
(c) 600 J (d) 6000 J
Physics/XII Page 47
 CHAPTER-4
Magnetic Effects Of Current & Magnetism
1 Mark Questions
Q1.One alpha particle and a deuteron entered perpendicularly in a uniform magnetic
field with same velocity. Which one follow the greater circle?
Q2. Out of Voltmeter and Mille voltmeter, which has the higher resistance?
Q3. Proton is moving along the axis of a solenoid carrying current of 2 A and 50
number of turns per unit length. What will be the force acting on the particle?
Q4. Out of Ammeter and Mille ammeter, which has the higher resistance?
Q5. The pole of a magnet is brought near to a stationary charge. What will be the
force experienced by pole?
Q6. Current ‘I’ flows along the length of an infinitely long straight thin walled pipe.
What is the magnetic field at any point on the axis of pipe?
Q7. The Earth’s core contains iron but geologists do not regard this as a source of
magnetic Field, Why?
Q8. A Magnetic Field dipole placed in a Magnetic Field experiences a net force. What
can you say about the Nature of Magnetic Field?

2 Marks Questions
Q9. Suppose a helical spring is suspended from the roof of a room and very small
weight is attached to its lower end what will happen to the spring when a current is
passed through it? Give reason to support your answer?
Q10. Can a Moving Coil Galvanometer can be used to detect an A.C. in a circuit.
Give reason.
Q11. Two wires of equal length are bent in the form of two loops. One loop is square
Whereas the other is circular. These are suspended in same magnetic field and
same current is passed through them. Explain with reason which will experience
greater torque?
Q12. A charge particle moving in a magnetic field penetrates a layer of lead and there
by losses half of its kinetic energy. How does the radius of curvature of its path
change?
Q13. Earth’s Magnetic Field does not affect working of moving Coil Galvanometer.
Why?
Q14. A proton is about 1840 times heavier than an electron. What will be its kinetic
Energy when it is accelerated by a potential difference of 1KV?
Q15 What is the work done by a magnetic field on moving a charge? Give reason
Q16 Why does the kinetic energy of the charge not change while moving in the
magnetic field.
Q17 If B is the magnetic field produced at the centre of a circular coil of one turn of
length L carrying current I then what is the magnetic field at the centre of the same
coil which is made into 10 turns?
Q18. Find the magnetic moment of a wire of length l carrying current I bent in the
form of a circle.

3MarksQuestions
Q19. A Voltmeter, an ammeter and a resistance are connected in series with a battery.
There is some deflection in voltmeter but the deflection of ammeter is zero.
Explain why? How does a ferromagnetic material change its Magnetic properties
if it is heated beyond its curie temperature?
Q20. Two long straight wires are set parallel to each other. Each carries a current I in
the same direction and the separation between them is 2r. What is the intensity of

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 the magnetic field mid away between them?
Q21. A circular loop of radius R carrying current I ,lies in X-Y plane with its centre at
origin. What is the total magnetic flux through X-Y plane?
Q22. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. What is the distance from the
centre of the coil on its axis where the magnetic field is 1/8th of its value at the
centre?
Q23. A magnetic needle suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field experiences
torque but no net force. A nail made up of iron kept near a bar magnet experience
a force of attraction and torque .Give reason.
Q24.A particle with charge q moving with velocity v in the plane of the paper enters a
Uniform magnetic field B acting perpendicular to the plane of the paper. Deduce
an expression for the time period of the charge as it moves in a circular path in
the field.
Q25. What is the magnetic field produced at the centre of curvature of an arc of wire
of radius r carrying current I subtends an angle P /2radians at its centre.
Q26. When current is flowing through two parallel conductors in the same direction
they attract while two beams of electrons moving in the same direction repel each
other. Why?
Q27. Draw diagrams to show behavior of magnetic field lines near a bar of
(i) Aluminium (ii)copper and (iii) mercury cooled to a very low temperature 4.2 K

5MarksQuestions
Q28, a) An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform
electrostatic field in north to south direction. Specify the direction in which the
uniform magnetic field should be set up to prevent the electron from deflecting
from its straight line path.
b) A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 0.5 m and mass 50 g is
suspended by two vertical wires at its ends. A current of 5A is set up in the rods
through the wires.
(i) What magnetic field should be set up normal to the conductor in order that the
tension in the wires is zero?
(ii)What will be the tension in the wire if the direction of current is reversed
keeping the magnetic field same as before?(neglect the mass ; g=10m/s2 )
Q29. Draw a neat and labeled diagram of a cyclotron. State the underlying the
principle
and explain how a positively charged particle will get accelerated. Show
mathematically the cyclotron frequency does not depend upon speed of the
particle.
Q30. With the help of a labeled diagram the underlying principle and working of a
moving coil galvanometer. What is the function of?
i) uniform radial field ii) soft iron core in such a device.

MCQs based on Moving Charges and Magnetism:

Q.1. Biot- Savart law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity v) produce a
magnetic field B such that
(a) B ⊥ v.
(b) B || v.
(c) it obeys inverse cube law.
(d) it is along the line joining the electron and point of observation.

Physics/XII Page 49
 Q.2. Two charged particles traverse identical helical paths in a completely
opposite sense in a uniform magnetic field B = B0k.
(a) They have equal z-components of momenta.
(b) They must have equal charges.
(c) They necessarily represent a particle- antiparticle pair.
(d) The charge to mass ratio satisfy: (e/m) 1+(e/m)2 =0
Q.3. A circular coil of radius 4 cm and of 20 turns carries a current of 3 amperes.
It is placed in a magnetic field of intensity of 0.5 weber/m². The magnetic dipole
moment of the coil is
(a) 0.15 ampere-m² (b) 0.3 ampere-m²
(c) 0.45 ampere-m² (d) 0.6 ampere-m²
Q.4. The conversion of a moving coil galvanometer into a voltmeter is done by
(a) introducing a resistance of large value in series.
(b) introducing a resistance of small value in parallel.
(c) introducing a resistance of large value in parallel.
(d) introducing a resistance of small value in series.
Q.5. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current
carrying long solenoid. Which of the following is true?
(a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.
(b) The electron path will be circular about the axis.
(c) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence execute a helical
path.
(d) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the
solenoid.
Q.6. In a cyclotron, a charged particle
(a) undergoes acceleration all the time.
(b) speeds up between the dees because of the magnetic field.
(c) speeds up in a dee.
(d) slows down within a dee and speeds up between dees.
Q.7. If a charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to it
(a) both momentum and energy of particle change.
(b) momentum as well as energy are constant.
(c) energy is constant but momentum changes.
(d) momentum is constant but energy changes.
Q.8. A circular current loop of magnetic moment M is in an arbitrary
orientation in an external magnetic field B. The work done to rotate the loop by
30° about an axis perpendicular to its plane is
(a) MB (b) √3MB2
(c) MB2 (d) zero
Q.9. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire
such that the wire is parallel to the one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane
of the loop. If a steady current I is established in wire as shown in figure, the loop
will

(a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire.

Physics/XII Page 50
 (b) move away from the wire or towards right.
(c) move towards the wire.
(d) remain stationary.
Q.10. A cubical region of space is filled with some uniform electric and magnetic
fields. An electron enters the cube across one of its faces with velocity v and a
positron enters via opposite face with velocity -v. At this instant,
(a) the electric forces on both the particles cause identical accelerations.
(b) the magnetic forces on both the particles cause equal accelerations.
(c) Only electron gains or loses energy.
(d) the motion of the centre of mass (CM) is determined by E alone.
Q.11. Consider a wire carrying a steady current, I placed in a uniform magnetic
field B perpendicular to its length. Consider the charges inside the wire. It is
known that magnetic forces do not work. This implies that,
(a) motion of charges inside the conductor is unaffected by B, since they do not
absorb energy.
(b) Some charges inside the wire move to the surface as a result of B.
(c) if the wire moves under the influence of B, no work is done by the force.
(d) If the wire moves under the influence of B, no work is done by the electric force
on the ions, assumed fixed within the wire.
Q.12. The maximum current that can be measured by a galvanometer of
resistance 40 Ω is 10 mA. It is converted into voltmeter that can read upto 50 V.
The resistance to be connected in the series with the galvanometer is
(a) 2010 Ω (b) 4050 Ω
(c) 5040 Ω (d) 4960 Ω
Q.13. Two identical current carrying coaxial loops, carry current I in an opposite
sense. A simple amperian loop passes through both of them once. Calling the
loop as C,
(a) ∮B.dl = ± 2µ0I.
(b) the value of ∮CB.dl is independent of sense of C. c
(c) there may be a point on C where, B and dl are parallel.
(d) B vanishes everywhere on C.
Q.14. The strength of magnetic field at the centre of circular coil is

Q.15. A current carrying closed loop of an irregular shape lying in more than
one plane when placed in uniform magnetic field, the force acting on it
(a) will be more in the plane where its larger position is covered.
(b) is zero.
(c) is infinite.
(d) may or may not be zero.
Q.16. A current loop placed in a non-uniform magnetic field experiences
(a) a force of repulsion. (b) a force of attraction.
(c) a torque but not force. (d) a force and a torque.

Physics/XII Page 51
 Q.17. If the beams of electrons and protons move parallel to each other in the
same direction, then they
(a) attract each other. (b) repel each other.
(c) no relation. (d) neither attract nor repel.
Q.18. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current i. It is
placed in a uniform magnetic field B, such that B is perpendicular to the plane of
the loop. The magnetic force acting on the loop is
(a) irB. (b) 2πriB
(c) zero (d) πriB
Q.19. The gyro-magnetic ratio of an electron in an H-atom, according to Bohr
model, is
(a) independent of which orbit it is in. (b) neutral
(c) positive (d) increases with the quantum number n.
Q.20. An electron is projected along the axis of a circular conductor carrying the
same current. Electron will experience
(а) a force along the axis. (b) a force perpendicular to the axis.
(c) a force at an angle of 4° with axis. (d) no force experienced.
Q.21. Three long, straight parallel wires, carrying current are arranged as
shown in the figure. The force experienced by a 25 cm length of wire C is

(a) 10-3 N (b) 2.5 × 10-3 N

(c) zero (d) 1.5 × 3 N
Q.22. What is the net force on the rectangular coil?

(a) 25 × 10-7 N towards wire. (b) 25 × 10-7 N away from wire.

-7
(c) 35 × 10 N towards wire. (d) 35 × 10-7 N away from wire.
Q.23. In a circular coil of radius r, the magnetic field at the centre is
proportional to
(a) r² (b) r
(c) 1/r (d) 1/r²
Q.24. A positive charge enters in a magnetic field and travels parallel to but
opposite the field. If experiences
(a) an upward force. (b) a downward force.
(c) an accelerated force. (d) no force.
Q.25. When a magnetic compass needle is carried nearby to a straight wire
carrying current, then
(I) the straight wire cause a noticeable deflection in the compass needle.
(II) the alignment of the needle is tangential to an imaginary circle with straight wire
as its centre and has a plane perpendicular to the wire

Physics/XII Page 52
 (a) (I) is correct (b) (II) is correct
(c) both (I) and (II) are correct (d) neither (I) nor (II) is correct
Q.26. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron. Then the
electron
(a) moves in the direction of the field.
(b) remained stationary.
(c) moves perpendicular to the direction of the field.
(d) moves opposite to the direction of the field.
Q.27. In an inertial frame of reference, the magnetic force on a moving charged
particle is F Its value in another inertial frame of reference will be
(a) remained same
(b) changed due to change in the amount of charge
(c) changed due to change in velocity of charged particle
(d) changed due to change in field direction
Q.28. Which one of the following is correct statement about magnetic forces?
(a) Magnetic forces always obey Newton’s third law.
(b) Magnetic forces do not obey Newton’s third law.
(c) For very high current, magnetic forces obey Newton’s third law.
(d) Inside low magnetic field, magnetic forces obey Newton’s third law.
Q.29. A charged particle is moving on circular path with velocity v in a uniform
magnetic field B, if the velocity of the charged particle is doubled and strength of
magnetic field is halved, then radius becomes
(a) 8 times (b) 4 times
(c) 2 times (d) 16 times
Q.30. Two a-particles have the ratio of their velocities as 3 : 2 on entering the
field. If they move in different circular paths, then the ratio of the radii of their
paths is
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 2
(c) 9 : 4 (d) 4 : 9
Q.31. A charged particle is moving in a cyclotron, what effect on the radius of
path of this charged particle will occur when the frequency of the ratio
frequency field is doubled?
(a) It will also be doubled. (b) It will be halved.
(c) It will be increased by four times. (d) It will remain unchanged.
Q.32. Which of the following is not correct about cyclotron?
(a) It is a machine to accelerate charged particles or ions to high energies.
(b) Cyclotron uses both electric and magnetic fields in combination to increase the
energy of charged particles.
(c) The operation of the cyclotron is based on the fact that the time for one revolution
of an ion is independent of its speed or radius of its orbit.
(d) The charged particles and ions in cyclotron can move on any arbitrary path.
Q.33. If an electron is moving with velocity ν produces a magnetic field B , then
(a) the direction of field B will be same as the direction of velocity ν.
(b) the direction of field B will be opposite to the direction of velocity ν.
(c) the direction of field B will be perpendicular to the direction of velocity ν.
(d) the direction of field B does not depend upon the direction of velocity ν.

Physics/XII Page 53
 Q.34. Current flows through uniform, square frames as shown in the figure. In
which case is the magnetic field at the centre of the frame not zero?

Q.35. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by

(a) introducing a shunt resistance of large value in series.
(b) introducing a shunt resistance of small value in parallel.
(c) introducing a resistance of small value in series.
(d) introducing a resistance of large value in parallel.
Q.36. Two identical current carrying coaxial loops, carry current I in opposite
sense. A simple amperian loop passes through both of them once. Calling the
loop as C, then which statement is correct?

(c) there may be a point on C where B and dl are parallel.

(d) none of these

Q.37. The correct plot of the magnitude of magnetic field B⃗ vs distance r from
centre of the wire is, if the radius of wire is R

Q.38. The nature of parallel and anti-parallel currents are

(a) parallel currents repel and antiparallel currents attract.
(b) parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
(c) both currents attract.
(d) both currents repel.
Q.39. The magnetic moment of a current I carrying circular coil of radius r and
number of turns N varies as
(a) 1/r² (b) 1/r
(c) r (d) r²

Physics/XII Page 54
 Q.40. Ampere’s circuital law is given by

Q.41. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0. 65 J T-1, then the
magnitude and direction of the magnetic field produced by the magnet at a
distance 8 cm from the centre of magnet on the axis is
(a) 2.5 × 10-4 T, along NS direction (b) 2.5 × 10-4 T along SN direction
-4
(c) 4.5 × 10 T, along NS direction (d) 4.5 × 10-4 T, along SN direction
Q.42. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field. The torque
acting on it does not depend upon
(a) area of loop (b) value of current
(c) magnetic field (d) None of these
Q.43. In a moving coil galvanometer the deflection (Φ) on the scale by a pointer
attached to the spring is

Case Study Question 1:

Moving coil galvanometer operates on Permanent Magnet Moving Coll (PMMC)
mechanism and was designed by the scientist Darsonval. Moving coil galvanometers
are of two types
(i) Suspended coil
(ii) Pivoted coil type or tangent galvanometer,
Its working is based on the fact that when a current carrying coil is placed in a
magnetic field, it experiences a torque. This torque tends to rotate the coil about its
axis of suspension in such a way that the magnetic flux passing through the coil is
maximum.

(i) A moving coil galvanometer is an instrument which

(a) is used to measure emf
(b) is used to measure potential difference
(c) is used to measure resistance
(d) is a deflection instrument which gives a deflection when a current flows through
its coil

Physics/XII Page 55
 (ii) To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer.
(a) number of turns of coil is kept small
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe
(c) poles are of very strong magnets
(d) poles are cylindrically cut
(iii) The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
(a) directly proportional to torsional constant of spring
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the current in the coil
(iv) In a moving coil galvanometer, having a coil of N-turns of area A and
carrying current I is placed in a radial field of strength B.
The torque acting on the coil is
(a) NA2B2I (c) N2ABI
(b) NABI2 (d) NABI
(v) To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer, we should
decrease:
(a) strength of magnet (c) number of turns in coil
(b) torsional constant of spring (d) area of coil

Q2. Solenoid:
A solenoid is a long helical coil of wire through which a current is run in order to
create a magnetic field. The magnetic field of the solenoid is the superposition of the
fields due to the current through each coil. It is nearly uniform inside the solenoid and
close to zero outside and is similar to the field of a bar magnet having a north pole at
one end and a south pole at the other depending upon the direction of current flow.
The magnetic field produced in the solenoid is dependent on a few factors such as, the
current in the coil, number of turns per unit length etc. The following graph is
obtained by a researcher while doing an experiment to see the variation of the
magnetic field with respect to the current in the solenoid. The unit of magnetic field as
given in the graph attached is in milli-Tesla (mT) and the current is given in Ampere.

Physics/XII Page 56
 (i) What type of energy conversion is observed in a linear solenoid?
a. Mechanical to Magnetic c. Electrical to Mechanical
b. Electrical to Magnetic d. Magnetic to Mechanical
(ii) What will happen if a soft iron bar is placed inside the solenoid?
a. The bar will be electrocuted resulting in short-circuit.
b. The bar will be magnetised as long as there is current in the circuit.
c. The bar will be magnetised permanently.
d. The bar will not be affected by any means.
(iii) The magnetic field lines produced inside the solenoid are similar to that of …
a. a bar magnet
b. a straight current carrying conductor
c. a circular current carrying loop
d. electromagnet of any shape
(iv) After analyzing the graph a student writes the following statements.
i.The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is inversely proportional to the current.
ii.The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to the current.
iii.The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is directly proportional to square of
the current.
iv.The magnetic field produced by the solenoid is independent of the current.
Choose from the following which of the following would be the correct statement(s).
a) Only IV b. I and III and IV
c) I and II d. Only II
(v) From the graph deduce which of the following statements is correct.
a. For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 13 mT
b. For larger currents, the magnetic field increases non-linearly.
c. For a current of 0.8A the magnetic field is 1.3 mT

Physics/XII Page 57
 CHAPTER-5
Magnetic Material
1 Mark Questions
1. Relative permeability of a material µr = 0.5. Identify the nature of the magnetic
material and write its relations of magnetic susceptibility.
2. What are permanent magnets? Give one example.
3. Where on the surface of the earth’s vertical component of earth’s magnetic field
zero?
4. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a place is B and angle
of dip is 60°. What is the value of vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field
at equator?
5. What is the angle of dip at a place where the horizontal and vertical components
of the earth’s magnetic field are equal?
6. A magnetic needle free to rotate m a vertical plane orients itself vertically at a
certain place on the earth What are the values of horizontal component of the
earth’s magnetic field and angle of dip at this place?
7. Where on the surface of earth is the angle of dip 90°?
8. The permeability of a magnetic material is 0.9983. Name the type of magnetic
material, it represents.
9. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 1.9 x 10-5. Name the of magnetic
material, it represents.
10. The susceptibility of a magnetic material is -4.2× 10-6. Name the type of magnetic
material, it represents.
11. If the horizontal and vertical components of the earth’s magnetic field are equal at
a certain place, what would be the angle of dip at that place?
12. What is the Characteristic property of a diamagnetic material?
13. Define the term magnetic declination.

2 Marks Questions

14. Show diagrammatically the behavior of magnetic field lines in the presence of
paramagnetic and diamagnetic substances. How does one explain this
distinguishing feature?
15. Out of the two magnetic materials, A has relative permeability slightly greater
than unity while B has less than unity. Identify the nature of the materials A and
B. Will their susceptibilities be positive or negative?
16. Give two points to distinguish between a paramagnetic and diamagnetic
substance.
17. (i) How is an electromagnet different from a permanent magnet?
(ii) Write two properties of a material which makes it suitable for making
electromagnet.
18. The relative magnetic permeability of a magnetic material is 800. Identify the
nature of magnetic material and state its two properties.
19. (i) How does a diamagnetic material behave when it is cooled to very low
temperature?
(ii) Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetization when cooled?
Explain.

Physics/XII Page 58
 20. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic
meridian has its North tip down at 60° with the horizontal. The horizontal
component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.4 G.
Determine the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place.
21. Distinguish between diamagnetic and ferromagnetic materials in terms of
susceptibility and their behaviour in a non-uniform magnetic field.
22. (i) Write two characteristics of a material used for making permanent magnets?
(ii) Why is core of an electromagnet made of ferromagnetic materials?
23. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a place is V3 times its
vertical component there. Find the value of the angle of dip at that place. What is
the ratio of the horizontal component to the total magnetic field of the earth at that
place?
24. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at a place equals to its
vertical component there. Find the value of the angle of dip at that place. What is
the ratio of the horizontal component to the total magnetic field of the earth at that
place?
25. Draw the magnetic field lines when a (i) diamagnetic (ii) paramagnetic substance
is placed in an external magnetic field. Which magnetic property distinguishes this
behavior of the field lines due to the two substances?
26. State briefly an efficient way of making a permanent magnet. Write two properties
to select suitable material for making permanent magnets.
Out of the following, identify the material which can be classified as (i)
paramagnetic (ii) diamagnetic (a) Aluminium (b) bismuth (c) copper
(d) sodium . Write one property to distinguish between paramagnetic and
diamagnetic materials.
27. The following figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetization versus the
applied magnetic field intensity H for two magnetic materials A and B.
(i) Identify the materials A and B.
(ii) Why does the material B have a larger susceptibility than A for a given field at
constant temperature?

28. Define magnetic susceptibility Of a material. Name two elements, one having
positive susceptibility and the other having negative susceptibility. What does
negative susceptibility signify?
29. Draw a plot showing the variation of intensity of magnetization with the applied
magnetic field intensity for bismuth. Under what condition a diamagnetic material
exhibit perfect conductivity and perfect diamagnetism?
30. Draw the magnetic field lines due to a current passing through a long solenoid.
Use Ampere’s circuital law, to obtain the expression for the magnetic field due to
the current I in a long solenoid having n number of turns per unit length.
31. (i) Two long straight parallel conductors a and b carrying steady currents Ia and Ib
respectively are separated by a distance d. Write the magnitude and direction,
what is the nature and magnitude of the force between the two conductors?
(ii) Show with the help of a diagram, how the force between the two conductors
would change when the currents in them flow in the opposite directions.

Physics/XII Page 59
 32. A circular coil of N turns and radius R carries a current I. It is unwound and
rewound to make another coil of radius R/2, current I remaining the same.
Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the new coil and the original coil.
33. A circular coil of N turns and diameter d carries a current I. It is unwound and
rewound to make another coil of diameter 2d, current I remaining the same.
Calculate the ratio of the magnetic moments of the new coil and the original coil.
34. Explain the following:
a) Why do magnetic lines of force form continuous closed loops?
b) Why are the field lines repelled (expelled) when a diamagnetic material is
placed in an external uniform magnetic field?
35. A small compass needle of magnetic moment M and moment of inertia I is free to
oscillate in a magnetic field It is slightly disturbed from its equilibrium position
and then released. Show that it executes simple harmonic motion. Hence, write the
expression for its time period.
36. How does a circular loop carrying current behaves as a magnet?
37. Deduce the expression for the magnetic dipole moment of an electron orbiting
around the central nucleus.
2 Marks Questions

38. A wheel with 8 metallic spokes each 50 cm long is rotated with a speed of 120
rev/min in a plane normal to the horizontal component of the each’s magnetic
field. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.4 G and the angle of dip is 60°.
Calculate the emf induced between the 3txle and the rim of wheel. How will the
value of emf be affected if the number of spokes were increased?
39. (i) What happens when a diamagnetic substance is placed in a varying magnetic
field?(ii) Name the properties of a magnetic material that makes it suitable for
making (a) a permanent magnet and (b) a core of an electromagnet.
40. (i) How does angle of dip change as line goes from magnetic pole to magnetic
equator of the earth?(ii) A uniform magnetic field gets modified as shown in the
figure below, when two specimens X and Y are placed in it. Identify whether
specimens X and Y are diamagnetic, paramagnetic or ferromagnetic.
41. When two materials are placed in an external magnetic field, the behavior of
magnetic field lines is as shown in the figure. Identify the magnetic nature of each
of these two materials.
42. Name the three elements required to specify the earth’s magnetic field at a given
place. Draw a labeled diagram to define these elements. Explain briefly how these
elements are determining to find out the magnetic field at a given place on the
surface of the earth.
43. Name and define the elements of the earth’s magnetic field other than the
horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field. Why do we say that at the
place like Delhi and Mumbai, a magnetic needle shows the true North direction
quite accurately as compared to other places in India?
44. (i) A small compass needle of magnetic moment M is free to turn about an axis
perpendicular to the direction of uniform magnetic field B. The moment of
inertia of the needle about the axis is I. The needle is slightly disturbed from its
stable position and then released. Prove that it executes simple harmonic motion.
Hence, deduce , the expression for its time period.

Physics/XII Page 60
 (ii) A compass needle free to turn in a vertical plane orients itself with its axis
vertical at a certain place on the earth. Find out the values of
(a) horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field and(b) angle of dip at the
place.

MCQ Based questions:

Q1.S.I. unit of flux is :
(a) Ohm (b) Weber
(c) Tesla (d) None
Q2.What is the angle of dip at a place where the horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field is equal to the vertical component?
(a) 0° (b) 30°
(c) 45° (d) 90°
Q3.Which of the following has a low value in ferrites?
(a) Conductivity (b) Permeability
(c) Magnetic susceptibility (d) All the above
Q4.The dimensional representation of magnetic flux density is :
(a) [MLT-2] (b) [MLT-2 A-1]
-2 -2
(c) [MLT A ] (d) [MT-2A-1]
Q5.Tangent law is applicable only when:
(a) two uniform and mutually perpendicular magnetic fields exist
(b) two magnetic fields exist
(c) horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is present
(d) uniform magnetic field are used
Q6.Ferrites may be:
(a) ant. Ferromagnetic (b) ferromagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic (d) None of the above
Q7.A magnetic bar of M magnetic moment is placed m the field of magnetic strength
B, the torque acting on it is :
(a) M⃗ .B⃗ (b) –M⃗ .B⃗
(c) M⃗ × B⃗ (d) B⃗ × M⃗
Q8.The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet:
(a) do not exist (b) depends on area of cross-section of
bar magnet
(c) are from N-pole to S-pole of the magnet (d) are from S-pole to N-pole of the
magnet.
Q9.A magnetic dipole moment is a vector quantity directed from:
(a) S to N (b) N to S
(c) E to W (d) W to E
Q10.What is the magnetic field in the empty space enclosed by the toroidal solenoid
of radius ‘R’? ,
(a) Infinity (b) (µ0/4π).(2πl/R)
(c) (µ0/4π).(πl/R) (d) zero
Q11.A current carrying power line carries current from west to east. What will be
direction of magnetic field 1 meter above it?
(a) N to S (b) S to N
(c) E to W (d) W to E
Q12.The dimensional representation of √ (L/MB)is similar to that of:
(a) frequency (b) time
(c) distance (d) speed

Physics/XII Page 61
 Q13.On quadrupling the moment of inertia of a magnet, its frequency of oscillation
will become:
(a) half (b) double
(c) four times (d) one-fourth
Q14.The magnetic field strength due to a short bar magnet directed along its axial line
at a distance r is B. What is its value at the same distance along the equatorial line?
(a) B (b) 2B
(c) B/2 (d) B/4
Q15.The neutral point in the magnetic field of a horizontally placed bar magnet is a
point where the magnetic field due to that bar magnet is:
(a) zero (b) more than that of earth
(c) less than that of earth (d) equal to that of earth
Q16.In a moving coil galvanometer, we use a radial magnetic field so that the
galvanometer scale is :
(a) exponential (b) linear
(c) algebraic (d) logarithmic
-7 -1
Q17.The force between two parallel wire 2 × 10 Nm , placed 1 m apart to each
other in vacuum. The electric current flowing through the wires is:
(a) 1 A (b) zero
(c) 5 × 106 A (d) 2 × 10-7 A
Q18.The force acting per unit length of a semicircular wire of radius R carrying a
current I is:
(a) µ0l2/ 4R (b) µ0l2/2R
(c) µ0l2/R (d) 2µ0l2/R
Q19.Which of the following has higher magnetic susceptibility?
(a) diamagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(c) ferromagnetic (d) None of these
Q20.The magnetic field of earth is due to:
(a) induction effect of the sun
(b) the presence of a large magnet at the centre of the earth
(c) interaction of cosmic rays with the current of earth
(d) motion and distribution of some material in an outside the earth
Q21.In a bar magnet, magnetic lines of force z :
(a) are produced only at north pole like rays of light from a bulb
(b) starts from north pole and ends at the south pole
(c) emerge in circular paths from the middle of the bar
(d) run continuously through the bar and outside
Q22.The Mariner’s compass is provided with Gimbals arrangement so as to :
(a) keep the needle always horizontal (b) give a direct reading of declination
(c) give the direct value of dip (d) all of the above
Q23.A wire of length I has a magnetic moment M. It is then bent into a semi-circular
arc. The new magnetic moment is :
(a) M (b) M.l.
(c) 2M/π (d) M/π
Q24.The relation between geometric length (L) and magnetic length (L m) is:
(a) Lm = 5/6 Lg (b) Lm = 6/5 Lg
(c) Lm = Lg (d) Lm = 2Lg
Q25.The radius of curvature of the path of charged particle in a uniform magnetic file
is directly proportional to the
(a) charge on fie particle (b) Momentum of particle
(c) energy of particle (d) Strength of field

Physics/XII Page 62
 Q26.The magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is B. If the
radius of the loop is doubled keeping the current unchanged, the magnetic field at the
centre of loop will become:
(a) B/2 (b) B/4
(c) 2B (d) 4B

Assertion and reason based questions:

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q.1. Assertion: We cannot think of a magnetic field configuration with three poles
Reason: A bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own field.
Q.2. Assertion: In high latitudes one sees colourful curtains of light hanging down
from high altitudes
Reason: The high energy charged particles from the sun are deflected to polar regions
by the magnetic field of the earth.
Q.3. Assertion: The true geographic north direction is found by using a compass
needle.
Reason: The magnetic meridian of the earth is along the axis of rotation of the earth.
Q.4. Assertion: A disc-shaped magnet is deviated above a superconducting material
that has been cooled by liquid nitrogen.
Reason: Superconductors repel a magnet.
Q.5. Assertion: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is a useful diagnostic tool for
producing images of various parts of human body.
Reason: Protons of various tissues of the human body play a role in MRI.
Q.6. Assertion: Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
Reason: Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.
Q.7. Assertion: Ferro-magnetic substances become paramagnetic above Curie temp.
Reason: Domains are destroyed at high temperature.
Q.8. Assertion: If a compass needle be kept at magnetic north pole of the earth the
compass needle may stay in any direction.
Reason: Dip needle will stay vertical at the north pole of earth
Q.9. Assertion: The ferromagnetic substance do not obey Curie’s law.
Reason: At Curie point a ferromagnetic substance start behaving as a paramagnetic
substance.
Q.10. Assertion: The ferromagnetic substance do not obey Curie’s law.
Reason: At Curie point a ferromagnetic substance start behaving as a paramagnetic
substance.
Q.11. Assertion: A paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same
magnetic field) when cooled.
Reason: The magnetisation does not depend on temperature.
Q.12. Assertion: Electromagnetic are made of soft iron.
Reason: Coercivity of soft iron is small.
Q.13. Assertion: The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by
placing a suitable magnetic material as a core inside the coil.
Physics/XII Page 63
 Reason: Soft iron has high magnetic permeability and cannot be easily magnetized or
demagnetized.
Q.14. Assertion: The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two
pieces.
Reason: The magnetic moment will be reduced to half when a magnet is broken into
two equal pieces.

Case study based question:

The magnetic field lines of the earth resemble that of a hypothetical magnetic dipole
located at the centre of the earth. The axis of the dipole does not coincide with the
axis of rotation of the earth but is presently tilted by approximately 11.3° with respect
to the later. If the magnetic needle is perfectly balanced about a horizontal axis so that
it can swing in a plane of the magnetic meridian, the needle would make an angle
with the horizontal. This is known as the angle of dip (also known as inclination).
1.What is the angle of dip at the equator?
(a) 0° (b) 45°
(c) 60° (d) 90°
2. At the poles, the dip needle will
(a) stay horizontal
(b) stay vertical
(c) stays at 45° angle with the horizontal
(d) does not remain steady in any fixed position
3.The angle of dip where the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field is equal
to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field will be
(a)0° (b)45°
(c)60° (d)90°
4. Which of the following independent quantities is not used to specify the earth’s
magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic declination (θ)
(b) Angle of dip (δ)
(c) Horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field (BH)
(d) Vertical component of earth’s magnetic field (BV)

Physics/XII Page 64
 CHAPTER-6
Electromagnetic Induction

1. A choke coil and a bulb are connected in series to a d.c source. The bulb shines
brightly .How does the brightness change when an iron core is inserted in the choke
coil?
2. A vertical magnetic poles falls down through the plane of the magnetic meridian.
Will any e.m.f be produced between its ends? Give reason for your answer.
3. Power factor of an ac circuit is 0.5. What will be the phase difference between
voltage and current in the circuit?
4. The e.m.f of ac source is given by the expression E = 300 sin 314 t volts. Write the
values of an peak voltage and frequency of source.
5. Which is the best method of reducing current in an a.c circuit and why?
6. Write expression for the average value of the a.c voltage V = V osinωt over the time
interval t =0 and t = π/ω.
7. An electrical element X, when connected to an alternating voltage source, has the
current through it leading the voltage by π/2 rad. Identify X and write an expression
for its reactance.
8. State Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
9. State Lenz law .Show that Lenz law follows from principle of conservation of
energy.
10. Draw the graphs showing the variation of reactance of (a) a capacitor and
(b) an inductor with the frequency of an a.c. circuit.
11. Derive an expression for induced e.m.f produced by changing the area of a
rectangular coil placed perpendicular to the magnetic field.
12. Derive an expression for the instantaneous value of induced e.m.f in a coil when it is
rotated in a uniform magnetic field at a uniform angular velocity .How does the
e.m.f vary when the coil rotates through an angle of 2π ?
(OR)
A 44 mH inductor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz A.C supply. Determine the r.m.s
value of current in the circuit.
13. How are eddy currents produced? Give two applications of eddy currents.
14. Derive expression for the self-inductance of a long solenoid of length having N
turns.
15. A radio frequency choke is air cored coil whereas an audio frequency choke is iron
cored. Give reasons for this difference.
16. Define Mutual induction. Write its S.I unit. Give two factors on which the
coefficient of mutual inductance between a pair of coils depends.
17. The magnetic flux through a coil perpendicular to its plane is varying according to
the relation Φ = (5 t3 + 4 t2 + 2t -5) weber. Calculate the induced current through the
coil at t = 2 s of the resistance of the coil is 5Ω.
18. Describe the principle, construction and working of a transformer. Why is the core
of the transformer laminated? Explain the power losses. Give the remedies.
(OR)
(i) What is self-inductance? Deduce an expression for the self-Inductance of a long
solenoid of N turns, having a core of relative Permeability μr .
(ii) How does the self-inductance of an air core coil change, when
(a) the number of turns in the coil is decreased ,
(b) an iron rod is introduced in the coil ?
19. (a) A capacitor is connected across an a.c source. Show
Mathematically that the current in it lags behind the applied emf by a phase
angle of π/2.What is the inductive reactance

Physics/XII Page 65
 (b) Briefly describe how electrical power is transmitted from a power house to a
substation and eventually used by the consumers.
(OR)
(a) Define Mutual induction. Write its S.I unit.
(b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of
same length wound one over the other.
MCQs based on Electromagnetic Induction:
Q.1. Whenever the magnetic flux linked with an electric circuit changes, an emf is
induced in the circuit. This is called
(a) electromagnetic induction (b) lenz’s law
(c) hysteresis loss (d) kirchhoff’s laws
Q.2. In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge is independent of
(a) change of flux (b) time.
(c) resistance of the coil (d) None of these
Q.3. An induced e.m.f. is produced when a magnet is plunged into a coil. The
strength of the induced e.m.f. is independent of
(a) the strength of the magnet
(b) number of turns of coil
(c) the resistivity of the wire of the coil
(d) speed with which the magnet is moved
Q.4. According to Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
(a) electric field is produced by time varying magnetic flux.
(b) magnetic field is produced by time varying electric flux.
(c) magnetic field is associated with a moving charge.
(d) None of these
Q.5. A moving conductor coil produces an induced e.m.f. This is
in accordance with
(a) Lenz’s law (b) Faraday’s law
(c) Coulomb’s law (d) Ampere’s law
Q.6. A coil of insulated wire is connected to a battery. If it is taken to
galvanometer, its pointer is deflected, because
(a) the induced current is produced
(b) the coil acts like a magnet
(c) the number of turns in the coil of the galvanometer are changed
(d) None of these
Q.7. The polarity of induced emf is given by
(a) Ampere’s circuital law (b) Biot-Savart law
(c) Lenz’s law (d) Fleming’s right hand rule
Q.8. The self-inductance of a coil is a measure of
(a) electrical inertia (b) electrical friction
(c) induced e.m.f. (d) induced current
Q.9. The coils in resistance boxes are made from doubled insulated wire to nullify
the effect of
(a) heating (b) magnetism
(c) pressure (d) self-inducede.m.f.
Q.10. Two pure inductors each of self-inductance L are connected in series, the net
inductance is
(a) L (b) 2 L
(c) L/2 (d) L/4
Q.11. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) charge (b) mass
(c) energy (d) momentum

Physics/XII Page 66
 Q.12. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then the induced
e.m.f. is
(a) larger in case (i)
(b) smaller in case (i)
(c) equal to both the cases
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil
Q.13. The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of
a:
(a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter
(c) electric motor (d) generator
Q.14. Two coils are placed closed to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair
of coils depends upon
(a) the rate at which currents are changing in the two coils.
(b) relative position and orientation of two coils.
(c) the material of the wires of the coils.
(d) the currents in the two coils.
Q.15. Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current i each circulating in the
same direction. If the loops approach each other, you will observe that the current
in
(a) each increases
(b) each decreases
(c) each remains the same
(d) one increases whereas that in the other decreases
Q.16. When current in a coil changes from 5 A to 2 A in 0.1 s, average voltage of 50
V is produced. The self-inductance of the coil is
(a) 1.67 H (b) 6 H
(c) 3 H (d) 0.67 H
Q.17. The self-inductance associated with a coil is independent of
(a) current (b) induced voltage
(c) time (d) resistance of a coil
Q.18. A coil having 500 sq. loops of side 10 cm is placed normal to magnetic flux
which increases at a rate of 1 T/s. The induced emf is
(a) 0.1 V (b) 0.5 V
(c) 1 V (d) 5 V
Q.19. A coil of 100 turns carries a current of 5 mA and creates a magnetic flux of
10-5 weber. The inductance is
(a) 0.2 mH (b) 2.0 mH
(c) 0.02 mH (d) 0.002 H
Q.20. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid
connected to a short galvanometer. The magnet was held stationary for a few
seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and then withdrawn
rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the
magnet was
(a) moving towards the solenoid (b) moving into the solenoid
(c) at rest inside the solenoid (d) moving out of the solenoid
Q.21. The current flows from A to B is as shown in the figure. The direction of the
induced current in the loop is

(a) clockwise. (b) anticlockwise.

(c) straight line. (d) no induced e.m.f. produced.
Physics/XII Page 67
 Q.22. In a coil of self-induction 5 H, the rate of change of current is 2 As-1. Then
emf induced in the coil is
(a) 10 V (b) -10 V
(c) 5 V (d) -5 V
Q.23. The magnetic flux linked with a coil of N turns of area of cross section A held
with its plane parallel to the field B is

Q.24. Two identical coaxial coils P and Q carrying equal amount of current in the
same direction are brought nearer. The current in
(a) P increases while in Q decreases (b) Q increases while in P decreases
(c) both P and Q increases (d) both P and Q decreases
Q.25. Faraday’s laws are consequence of the conservation of
(a) charge (b) energy
(c) magnetic field (d) both (b) and (c)
Q.26. Direction of current induced in a wire moving in a magnetic field is found
using
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule (b) Fleming’s right hand rule
(c) Ampere’s rule (d) Right hand clasp rule
Q.27. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a circuit changes, an emf is
induced in circuit.
(b) The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.
(c) The direction of induced emf is given by Lenz’s law.
(d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of momentum.
Q.28. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of
(a) charge (b) energy
(c) induced emf (d) induced current
Q.29. A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it.
If an iron core is inserted into the solenoid, the current will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remain same (d) first increase then decrease
Q.30. There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane
of the paper. An irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a
circular loop in the plane of the paper. Then
(a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction.
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction.
(c) ac is induced in the loop.
(d) no current is induced in the loop.
Q.31. In the given figure current from A to B in the straight wire is decreasing.
The direction of induced current in the loop is A

(a) clockwise (b) anticlockwise

(c) changing (d) nothing can be said
Q.32. Which of the following does not use the application of eddy current?
(a) Electric power meters (b) Induction furnace
(c) LED lights (d) Magnetic brakes in trains

Physics/XII Page 68
 Q.33. The north pole of a bar magnet is rapidly introduced into a solenoid at one
end (say A). Which of the following statements correctly depicts the phenomenon
taking place?
(a) No induced emf is developed.
(b) The end A of the solenoid behaves like a south pole.
(c) The end A of the solenoid behaves like north pole.
(d) The end A of the solenoid acquires positive potential.
Q.34. A metal plate can be heated by
(a) passing either a direct or alternating current through the plate.
(b) placing in a time varying magnetic field.
(c) placing in a space varying magnetic field, but does not vary with time.
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct.
Q.35. Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field.
(b) Eddy currents can be minimized by using laminated core.
(c) Induction furnace uses eddy current to produce heat.
(d) Eddy current can be used to produce braking force in moving trains.
Q.36. If number of turns in primary and secondary coils is increased to two times
each, the mutual inductance
(a) becomes 4 times (b) becomes 2 times
(c) becomes A times (d) remains unchanged 4
Q.37. When the rate of change of current is unity, the induced emf is equal to
(a) thickness of coil (b) number of turns in coil
(c) coefficient of self-inductance (d) total flux linked with coil
Q.38. Two inductors of inductance .L each are connected in series with opposite?
magnetic fluxes. The resultant inductance is (Ignore mutual inductance)
(a) zero (b) L
(c) 2L (d) 3L
Q.39. A square of side L metres lies in the x-y plane in a region, where the
magnetic field is given by B = B0(li + 3j + 4k) T, where Bo is constant. The
magnitude of flux passing through the square is
(a) 2BoL² Wb. (b) 3BoL² Wb.
(c) 4BoL² Wb. (d) √29 BoL² Wb.
Q.40. A loop, made of straight edges has six comers at A(0, 0, 0), B(L, 0, 0) C(L, L,
0), D(0, L, 0), E(0, L, L) and F(0,0, L). A magnetic field B = B o (i+k)T is present in
the region. The flux passing through the loop ABCDEFA (in that order) is
(a) BoL² Wb. (b) 2BoL² Wb.
(c) √2BoL² Wb. (d) 4BoL² Wb.
Q.41. An e.m.f is produced in a coil, which is not connected to an external voltage
source. This is not due to
(a) the coil being in a time varying magnetic field.
(b) the coil moving in a time varying magnetic field.
(c) the coil moving in a constant magnetic field.
(d) the coil is stationary in external spatially varying magnetic field, which does not
change with time.
Q.42. There are two coils A and B as shown in Figure. A current starts flowing in
B as shown, when A is moved towards B and stops when A stops moving. The
current in A is counterclockwise. B is kept stationary when A moves. We can infer

that
(a) there is a constant current in the clockwise direction in A.

Physics/XII Page 69
 (b) there is a varying current in A.
(c) there is no current in A.
(d) there is a constant current in the counterclockwise direction in A.
Q.43. Same as question 4 except the coil A is made to rotate about a vertical axis
(Figure). No current flows in B if A is at rest. The current in coil A, when the
current in B (at t = 0) is counterclockwise and the coil A is as shown at this instant,
t = 0, is

(a) constant current clockwise. (b) varying current clockwise.

(c) varying current counterclockwise. (d) constant current counterclockwise.
Q.44. A cylindrical bar magnet is rotated about its axis (Figure). A wire is
connected from the axis and is made to touch the cylindrical surface through a
contact. Then

(a) a direct current flows in the ammeter A.

(b) no current flows through the ammeter A.
(c) an alternating sinusoidal current flows through the ammeter A with a time period
T = 2πω
(d) a time varying non-sinusoidal current flows through the ammeter.
Q.45. Eddy currents do not cause
(a) damping (b) heating
(c) sparking (d) loss of energy

Chapter 6 Electromagnetic Induction

ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTIONS:
Q.1. Assertion : Induced emf will always occur whenever there is change in magnetic
flux.
Reason : Current always induces whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Q.2. Assertion : Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of energy.
Reason : In a purely resistive ac circuit, the current legs behind the emf in phase.
Q.3. Assertion : Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the
coil.
Reason : The presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintain a current in the
coil of the circuit is continuous.
Q.4. Assertion : Lenz’s law violates the principle of conservation of energy.
Reason : Induced emf always opposes the change in magnetic flux responsible for its
production.
Q.5. Assertion : An induced current has a direction such that the magnetic field due to
the current opposes the change in the magnetic flux that induces the current.
Reason : Above statement is in accordance with conservation of energy.

Physics/XII Page 70
 Q.6. Assertion : Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long solenoid decreases.
Reason : The induced current produced in a circuit always flow in such direction that it
opposes the change to the cause that produced it.
Q.7. Assertion : Figure shows a horizontal solenoid connected to a battery and a
switch. A copper ring is placed on a smooth surface, the axis of the ring being
horizontal. As the switch is closed, the ring will move away from the solenoid.

Reason : Induced emf in the ring, e=-dΦ/dt

Q.8. Assertion : An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a magnetic field.
Reason : An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic field.
Q.9. Assertion : Figure shows a metallic conductor moving in magnetic field. The
induced emf across its ends is zero.

Reason : The induced e.m.f across the ends of a conductor is given by e = Bvℓ sinθ.
Q.10. Assertion : Eddy currents are produced in any metallic conductor when magnetic
flux is changed around it.
Reason : Electric potential determines the flow of charge.
Q.11. Assertion : An induced e.m.f appears in any coil in which the current is
changing.
Reason : Self-induction phenomenon obeys Faraday’s law of induction.
Q.12. Assertion : When number of turns in a coil is doubled, coefficient of self-
inductance of the coil becomes 4 times.
Reason : This is because L α N2.

Physics/XII Page 71
 CHAPTER-7
Alternating Current
1. Why is the use of AC voltage preferred over DC voltage? Give two reasons.
2. The current flowing through a pure inductance 2mH is, l =(15 cos 300t) A. What is
the (i) rms and average value of current for a complete cycle?
3. Define the term wattles current.
4. Define the term rms value of the current. How is it related to the peak value?
5. How much average power over a complete cycle, does an AC source supply to a
capacitor?
6. The instantaneous current and voltage of an AC circuit are given by I =(10 sin
300t) A and V= (200 sin 300t) V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit?
7. The instantaneous current and voltage of an AC circuit are given by I = (10 sin
314t) A and V= (50 sin 314t) V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit?
8.A light bulb is rated 150 W for 220 V AC supply of 60 Hz. Calculate the resistance
of the bulb and the rms current through the bulb.
9. Prove that an ideal capacitor in an AC circuit does not dissipate power.
10. (i) When an AC source is connected to an ideal capacitor, then show that the
average power supplied by the source over a complete cycle is zero.(ii) A lamp is
connected in series with a capacitor. Predict your observations when the system is
connected first across a DC and then AC source. What happens in each case if the
capacitance of the capacitor is reduced?
11.Derive an expression for average power consumed in an ac circuit over a complete
cycle.
12. Distinguish between reactance and impedance. Sketch the graph showing the
variation of impedance of LCR circuit with the frequency of applied voltage.
(i) A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor. Predict your
observations for dc and ac connections. What happens in each case
if the capacitance of the capacitor is reduced?
(ii) A 15 .0 µF capacitor is connected to a 220V, 50HZ source. Find the
capacitive reactance.
13.A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60 μF capacitor in series is connected
to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible. (a) Obtain the
current amplitude and rms values. (b) Obtain the rms values of potential drops
across each element.(c) What is the average power transferred to the inductor ?
14.Explain the basic principle, description and working of a.c generator with neat
labeled diagram.
15. A rectangular coil of N turns and area of cross section A, is held in time varying
magnetic field given by B = B0 sin ωt , with plane of coil normal to the magnetic
field .Deduce an expression for the e.m.f induced in the coil.
16.Two circular coils, one of radius r and the other are placed coaxially with their
centre coinciding. For R>>r, obtain an expression for the mutual inductance of the
arrangement.
16. A pure conductor is connected across an a.c source. Show mathematically that the
current in it lags behind the applied emf by a phase angle of π/2.What is the
inductive reactance?
17. Derive the expression for magnetic energy stored in a inductor/ solenoid.
18. Explain the LCR circuit with neat diagram. State the condition under which the
phenomenon occurs in a series LCR circuit. Plot a graph showing variation of
current with frequency of a.c source in a series LCR circuit.
19. How does the impedance of an LCR series circuit varies with the frequency of
a.c?

Physics/XII Page 72
 20. (i) Figure (a), (b) and (c) Show three alternating circuits with equal currents.If
frequency of alternatingemf be increased, what will be the effect on currents In the
three cases. Explain

(a) (b) (c)

(ii) Does the current in an A.C. circuit lag, lead or remain in phase with the Voltage of
frequency ν applied to the circuit when (i) ν = ν r (ii) ν < ν r (iii) ν > ν r where r is the
resonance frequency.

Chapter 7: Alternating Current

ASSERTION AND REASON QUESTIONS
Q.1. Assertion : In series LCR resonance circuit, the impedance is equal to the ohmic
resistance.
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance exceeds the capacitive reactance.
Q.2. Assertion : A capacitor is connected to a direct current source. Its reactance is
infinite.
Reason : Reactance of a capacitor is given by χc = 1/ωC.
Q.3. Assertion : Average value of ac over a complete cycle is always zero.
Reason: Average value of ac is always defined over half cycle.
Q.4. Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the emf by a phase angle of, π/2
when AC flows through an inductor.
Reason : The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of AC source increases.
Q.5. Assertion : The inductive reactance limits amplitude of the current in a purely
inductive circuit.
Reason: The inductive reactance is independent of the frequency of the current.
Q.6. Assertion : The power is produced when a transformer steps up the voltage.
Reason : In an ideal transformer VI = constant.
Q.7. Assertion : A capacitor blocks direct current in the steady state.
Reason : The capacitive reactance of the capacitor is inversely proportional to
frequency f of the source of emf.
Q.8. Assertion : The voltage and current in a series AC circuit are given by V =
V0sinωt and i = i0cosωt. The power dissipated in the circuit is zero.
Reason : Power in AC circuit is given by P=V0I0 cosΦ / 2
Q.9. Assertion : In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, the current is referred to as
wattless current.
Reason: No power is dissipated in a purely inductive or capacitive circuit even though
a current is flowing in the circuit.
Q.10. Assertion : The power in an ac circuit is minimum if the circuit has only a
resistor.
Reason: Power of a circuit is independent of the phase angle.
Q.11. Assertion : When the frequency of the AC source in an LCR circuit equals the
resonant frequency, the reactance of the circuit is zero, and so there is no current
through the inductor or the capacitor.
Reason : The net current in the inductor and capacitor is zero.
Q.12. Assertion : A laminated core is used in transformers to increase eddy currents.
Reason: The efficiency of a transformer increases with increase in eddy currents.
Physics/XII Page 73
 Q.13. Assertion : Choke coil is preferred over a resistor to control the current in an AC
circuit.
Reason : Power factor of an ideal inductor is zero.
MCQs based on Alternating Current:
Q.1. In general in an alternating current circuit
(a) the average value of current is zero
(b) the average value of square of the current is zero
(c) average power dissipation is zero
(d) the phase difference between voltage and current is zero
Q.2. The frequency of A.C. mains in India is
(a) 30 c/s (b) 50 c/s
(c) 60 c/s (d) 120 c/s
Q.3. A.C. power is transmitted from a power house at a high voltage as
(a) the rate of transmission is faster at high voltages
(b) it is more economical due to less power loss
(c) power cannot be transmitted at low voltages
(d) a precaution against theft of transmission lines
Q.4. The electric mains supply in our homes and offices is a voltage that varies like
a sine function with time such a voltage is called … A… and the current driven by
it in a circuit is called the … B… Here, A and B refer to
(a) DC voltage, AC current (b) AC voltage, DC current
(c) AC voltage, DC voltage (d) AC voltage, AC current
Q.5. Alternating currents can be produced by a
(a) dynamo (b) choke coil
(c) transformer (d) electric motor
Q.6. The peak value of the a.c. current flowing throw a resistor is given by
(a) I0 = e0/R (b) I = e/R
(c) I0= e0 (d) I0 = R/e0
Q.7. The alternating current can be measured with the help of
(a) hot wire ammeter (b) hot wire voltmeter
(c) moving magnet galvanometer (d) suspended coil type galvanometer
Q.8. Alternating current cannot be measured by D.C. ammeter, because
(a) A. C. is virtual
(b) A. C. changes its direction
(c) A. C. can not pass through D.C. ammeter
(d) average value of A. C for complete cycle is zero
Q.9. The heat produced in a given resistance in a given time by the sinusoidal
current I0sinωt will be the same as that of a steady current of magnitude nearly
(a) 0.71 I0 (b) 1.412 I0
(c) I0 (d) √I0
Q.10. An A.C. source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is
true?
(a) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase
(b) Current lags behind voltage in phase
(c) Current and voltage are in same phase
(d) Any of the above may be true depending upon the
value of resistance.
Q.11. In which of the following circuits the maximum power dissipation is
observed?
(a) Pure capacitive circuit (b) Pure inductive circuit
(c) Pure resistive circuit (d) None of these

Physics/XII Page 74
 Q.12. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the inductive reactance
(a) decreases (b) increases directly with frequency
(c) increases as square of frequency (d) decreases inversely with frequency
Q.13. If the frequency of an A.C. is made 4 times of its initial value, the inductive
reactance will
(a) be 4 times (b) be 2 times
(c) be half (d) remain the same
Q.14. A capacitor acts as an infinite resistance for
(a) DC (b) AC
(c) DC as well as AC (d) neither AC nor DC
Q.15. The capacitive reactance in an A.C. circuit is
(a) effective resistance due to capacity (b) effective wattage
(c) effective voltage (d) None of these
Q.16. Of the following about capacitive reactance which is correct?
(a) The reactance of the capacitor is directly proportional to its ability to store charge
(b) Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the frequency of the current
(c) Capacitive reactance is measured in farad
(d) The reactance of a capacitor in an A.C. circuit is similar to the resistance of a
capacitor in a D.C. circuit
Q.17. Phase difference between voltage and current in a capacitor in an ac circuit
is
(a) π (b) π/2
(c) 0 (d) π/3
Q.18. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X, if capacitance and frequency
become double, then reactance will be
(a) 4X (b) X/2
(c) X/4 (d) 2X
Q.19. When an ac voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C, then
(a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.
(b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.
(c) the charge on the plate is not in phase with the applied voltage.
(d) power delivered to the capacitor per cycle is zero.
Q.20. In LCR circuit if resistance increases quality factor
(a) increases finitely (b) decreases finitely
(c) remains constant (d) None of these
Q.21. An inductor, a resistor and a capacitor are joined in series with an AC
source. As the frequency of the source is slightly increased from a very low value,
the reactance of the
(a) inductor increases (b) resistor increases
(c) capacitor increases (d) circuit increases
Q.22. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the impedance of an L-C-R
series circuit
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) decreases at first, becomes minimum and then increases.
Q.23. If an LCR series circuit is connected to an ac source, then at resonance the
voltage across
(a) R is zero (b) R equals the applied voltage
(c) C is zero (d) L equals the applied voltage
Q.24. In an L.C.R. series a.c. circuit, the current
(a) is always in phase with the voltage (b) always lags the generator voltage
(c) always leads the generator voltage (d) None of these
Physics/XII Page 75
 Q.25. An LCR series circuit, connected to a source E, is at resonance. Then the
voltage across
(a) R is zero (b) R equals applied voltage
(c) C is zero (d) L equals applied voltage
Q.26. At resonance frequency the impedance in series LCR circuit is
(a) maximum (b) minimum
(c) zero (d) infinity
Q.27. At resonant frequency the current amplitude in series LCR circuit is
(a) maximum (b) minimum
(c) zero (d) infinity
Q.28. In tuning, we vary the capacitance of a capacitor in the tunning circuit such
that the resonant frequency of the circuit becomes nearly equal to the frequency of
the radio signal received. When this happens, the …A… with the frequency of the
signal of the particular radio station in the circuit is maximum. Here A refers to
(a) resonant frequency (b) impedance
(c) amplitude of the current (d) reactance
Q.29. The power factor in a circuit connected to an A.C. The value of power factor
is
(a) unity when the circuit contains an ideal inductance only
(b) unity when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only
(c) zero when the circuit contains an ideal resistance only
(d) unity when the circuit contains an ideal capacitance only
Q.30. Current in a circuit is wattless if
(a) inductance in the circuit is zero (b) resistance in the circuit is zero
(c) current is alternating (d) resistance and inductance both are zero
Q.31. Power factor is one for
(a) pure inductor (b) pure capacitor
(c) pure resistor (d) either an inductor or a capacitor.
Q.32. Power factor of the A. C. circuit varies between
(a) 0 to 0.5 (b) 0.5 to 1
(c) 0 to 1 (d) 1 to 2
Q.33. The graph between inductive reactance and frequency is
(a) parabola (b) straight line
(c) hyperbola (d) an arc of a circle
Q.34. For minimum dissipation of energy in the circuit the power factor should be
(a) large (b) small
(c) moderate (d) can not say
Q.35. The opposition offered by ohmic and non ohmic components is
(a) inductive reactance (b) capacitive reactance
(c) impedance (d) all of these
Q.36. The transformer voltage induced in the secondary coil of a transformer is
mainly due to
(a) a varying electric field (b) a varying magnetic field
(c) the vibrations of the primary coil (d) the iron core of the transformer
Q.37. A transformer is employed to
(a) convert A.C. into D.C. (b) convert D.C. into A.C.
(c) obtain a suitable A.C. voltage (d) obtain a suitable D.C. voltage
Q.38. Transformers are used
(a) in DC circuit only (b) in AC circuits only
(c) in both DC and AC circuits (d) neither in DC nor in AC circuits
Q.39. The loss of energy in the form of heat in the iron core of a transformer is
(a) iron loss (b) copper loss
(c) mechanical loss (d) None of these
Physics/XII Page 76
 Q.40. A transformer is based on the principle of
(a) mutual induction (b) self-induction
(c) Ampere’s law (d) X-ray crystallography
Q.41. Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is
(a) voltage (b) current
(c) frequency (d) None of these
Q.42. Eddy currents in the core of transformer can’t be developed by
(a) increasing the number of turns in secondary coil
(b) taking laminated transformer
(c) making step down transformer
(d) using a weak a.c. at high potential
Q.43. The core of transformer is laminated to reduce
(a) flux leakage (b) hysteresis
(c) copper loss (d) eddy current
Q.44. The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer is
(a) one (b) greater than one
(c) less than one (d) the ratio greater or less than one depends on the other factor
Q.45. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
I. In LCR series ac circuit, as the frequency of the source increases, the impedence of
the circuit first decreases and then increases.
II. If the net reactance of an LCR series ac circuit is same as its resistance, then the
current lags behind the voltage by 45°.
III. Below resonance, voltage leads the current while above it, current leads the voltage.
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) I and III (d) I and II
Q.46. The parallel combination of inductor and capacitor is called as
(a) rectifier circuit (b) tank circuit
(c) acceptor circuit (d) filter circuit
Q.47. Consider the following statements and then select the correct statements.
I. Most of the electrical device we use require AC voltage.
II. Most of the electrical energy sold by power companies is transmitted and distributed
as alternating current.
III. AC voltage can be easily and efficiently converted from one to the other by means
of transformers.
(a) I is correct, II and III are incorrect
(b) I III are correct, II is incorrect
(c) I II are correct, III is incorrect
(d) I, II and III are correct
Q.48. The correct variation of capacitive reactance of a capacitor with frequency is
represented by

Physics/XII Page 77
 Q.49. The correct formula to determine the Q factor of series resonance circuit is

Q.50. An AC voltage source of variable angular frequency ω and fixed amplitude

V0 is connected in series with a capacitance C and an electric bulb of resistance R
(inductance zero). When ω is increased then,
(a) The bulb glows dimmer
(b) The bulb glows brighter
(c) Total impedance of the circuit is unchanged
(d) Total impedance of the circuit increases
Q.51. The dimensions of Inductance/Resistance is same as the dimension of
(a) time (b) capacitance
(c) capacitive reactance (d) inductive reactance
Q.52. A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is lit by an AC source. If a soft
iron core is introduced in the solenoid then,
(a) the bulb will glow brighter
(b) the bulb will glow dimmer
(c) there will be no effect on the light produced by the bulb
(d) bulb may glow more brighter or dimmer

Physics/XII Page 78
 CHAPTER-8
Electromagnetic Waves
1 Mark Questions
Q1.To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does a wave of frequency 5 x
1019 Hz belong?
Q2. To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does a wave of frequency 3 x
1013 Hz belong?
Q3. Write the condition under which an electron will move undeflected in the
presence
of crossed electric and magnetic fields.
Q4. Welders wear special goggles or face masks with glass windows to protect their
eyes from electromagnetic radiation. Name the radiations and write the range of
their frequency.
Q5. What are the directions of electric and magnetic field vectors relative to each
other and relative to the direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves?
Q6. Name the electromagnetic waves which
(i) maintain the earth’s warmth and
(ii) are used in aircraft navigation.
Q7. A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along Z- direction. What can
you say about the direction of electric and magnetic field vectors?
Q8.What is the frequency of electromagnetic waves produced by oscillating charge of
frequency V=105Hz?
Q9. How are infrared waves produced? What is the range of their wavelength?
Q10. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength? Microwaves, ultraviolet
rays, X-rays.
Q11. Arrange the following in descending order of wavelength. X-rays, radiowaves,
blue light, infrared light.
Q12. Which part of electromagnetic spectrum has largest penetrating power?
Q13. Which part of electromagnetic spectrum is absorbed from sunlight by ozone
layer?
Q14. Which part of electromagnetic spectrum is used in RADAR systems?
Q15. In what way, are the directions of the electric and magnetic field vectors
representing an electromagnetic wave related to each other?
Q16. Express the velocity of propagation of an electromagnetic waves in terms of the
peak value of the electric and magnetic fields.
Q17. Name the electromagnetic waves used for studying crystal structure of solids.
What is its frequency range?
Q18. Write the following radiations in ascending order in respect of their frequencies
X-rays, microwaves, ultraviolet rays and radio waves.
Q19. Name the electromagnetic radiation to which waves of wavelength in the range
of 10-2 m belongs. Give one use of this part of electromagnetic spectrum.
Q20. Name the electromagnetic radiation which can be produced by a klystron or a
magnetron valve.
Q21. Why is ozone layer on top of the stratosphere crucial for human survival.
Q22. State the reason why microwaves are best suited for long distance transmission
of signal.
Q23. Special devices like the klystron valve or the magnetron valve, are used for
production of electromagnetic waves. Name these waves and also write one of
their applications.

Physics/XII Page 79
 Q24. (a) How does oscillating charge produce electromagnetic waves?
(b) Sketch a schematic diagram depicting oscillating electric and magnetic fields
of an EM wave propagating along positive Z-direction.
Q25. (i) How are electromagnetic waves produced?
(ii) How do you convince yourself that electromagnetic waves carry energy and
momentum?
Q26. (i) Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the descending order of their
wavelengths.

 Microwaves
 Infrared rays
 Ultraviolet radiation
 y-rays
(ii) Write one use each of any two of them.
Q27. (i) An electromagnetic wave is travelling in a medium, with a velocity v = vi.
Draw a sketch showing the propagation of the electromagnetic wave, indicating
the direction of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
(ii) How are the magnitudes of the electric and magnetic fields related to velocity
of the electromagnetic wave?
Q28. A capacitor of capacitance C is being charged by connecting it across a DC
source along with an ammeter. Will the ammeter show a momentary deflection during
the process of charging? If so, how would you explain this momentary deflection
and the resulting continuity of current in the circuit? Write the expression for the
current inside the capacitor.
Q29. When an ideal capacitor is charged by a DC battery, no current flows. However,
when an AC source is used, the current flows continuously. How does one explain
this, based on the concept of displacement current?
Q30. Explain briefly how electromagnetic waves are produced by an oscillating
charge?
How is the frequency of the electromagnetic waves produced related to that of the
oscillating charge?
Q31. Name the constituent radiation of electromagnetic spectrum which is used for

 aircraft navigation
 studying the crystal structure Write the frequency range for each.

Q32. Draw a sketch of a plane electromagnetic wave propagating along the Z-

direction. Depict clearly the directions of electric and magnetic fields varying
sinusoidally with Z.
Q33. Answer the following questions.
(i) Optical and radio telescopes are built on the ground while X-ray astronomy is
possible only from satellites orbiting the earth. Why?
(ii) The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival.
Why?
Q34. How does a charge, q oscillating at certain frequency produce electromagnetic
waves? Sketch a schematic diagram depicting electric and magnetic fields for an
electromagnetic wave propagating along the Z- direction.
Q35. Name the electromagnetic radiations having the wavelength range from 1 mm to
700 nm. Give its two important applications.
Q36. Identify the different types of electromagnetic radiations, which are used
(i) to kill germs,
(ii) for physical therapy.
Physics/XII Page 80
 Q37. In an electromagnetic wave, the oscillating electric field having a frequency of 3
x 1010 Hz and an amplitude of 30 V/m propagates in the positive X-direction. What is
the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave? Write down the expression to represent
the corresponding magnetic field.

3 Marks Questions:
Q38. Answer the following questions.
(i) Name the waves which are produced during radioactive decay of a
nucleus.
(ii) Write their frequency range.
(iii)Welders wear special glass goggles while working. Why? Explain.
(iv) Why are infrared waves often called as heat waves? Give their one
application.

Q39. Answer the following questions

(i) Name the EM waves which is suitable for radar systems used in aircraft
navigation. Write the range of frequency of these waves.
(ii) If the earth did not have atmosphere, would its average surface temperature
be higher or lower than what it is now? Explain.
(iii) An EM wave exerts pressure on the surface on which it is incident. Justify
Q40. Answer the following questions.

(i) Name the EM waves which are used for the treatment of certain forms of
cancer. Write their frequency range.
(ii) Thin ozone layer on top of stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why?
(iii) Why is the amount of the momentum transferred by the EM waves incident
on the surface so small?
Q41. Answer the following questions:

(i) Show, by giving a simple example, how EM waves carry energy and
momentum.
(ii) How are microwaves produced? Why is it necessary in microwaves ovens to
select the frequency of microwaves to match the resonant frequency of water
molecules?
(iii) Write two important uses of infrared waves.

Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

MCQ BASED QUESTIONS:
Q.1. In electromagnetic waves the phase difference between electric and
magnetic field vectors are
(a) zero (b) 𝜋4
(c) 𝜋2 (d) π
Q.2. Which of the following has minimum wavelength?
(a) Blue light (b) γ-rays
(c) infrared rays (d) microwave
Q.3. The correct option, if speeds of gamma rays, X-rays and microwave are Vg,
Vx an Vm respectively will be.
(a) Vg >Vx >Vm (b) Vg <Vx <Vm
(c) Vg >Vx >Vm (d) Vg = Vx = Vm

Physics/XII Page 81
 Q.4. Which of the following has maximum penetrating power?
(a) Ultraviolet radiation (b) Microwaves
(c) γ-rays (d) Radio waves
Q.5. Electromagnetic waves travelling in a medium having relative permeability
μr = 1.3 and relative permittivity Er = 2.14. The speed of electromagnetic waves
in medium must be
(a) 1.8 × 108 ms-1 (b) 1.8 × 104ms1
(c) 1.8 × 106ms1 (d) 1.8 × 10² ms-1
Q.6. The quantity √𝜇0𝜀0 represents
(a) speed of sound (b) speed of light in vacuum
(c) speed of e.m. waves (d) inverse of speed of light in
vacuum
Q.7. In electromagnetic wave if ue and um are mean electric and magnetic
energy densities respectively, then

Q.8. Which of the following is called heat radiation?

(a) X-rays (b) γ-rays
(c) Infrared radiation (d) Microwave
Q.9. From Maxwell’s hypothesis, a charging electric field gives rise to
(a) an electric field. (b) an induced emf.
(c) a magnetic field. (d) a magnetic dipole.
Q.10. The ultra high frequency band of radio waves in electromagnetic wave is
used as in
(a) television waves (b) cellular phone communication
(c) commercial FM radio (d) both (a) and (c)
Q.11. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by
(a) polarisation. (b) interference,
(c) reflection. (d) diffraction.
Q.12. Which of the following are not electromagnetic waves?
(a) Cosmic rays (b) γ-rays
(c) β-rays (d) X-rays
Q.13. 10 cm is a wavelength corresponding to the spectrum of
a) infrared rays (b) ultraviolet rays
(c) microwaves (d) X-rays
Q.14. If 𝐸⃗ and 𝐵⃗ represent electric and magnetic field vector of the
electromagnetic waves then the direction of propagation of the em wave is that of

Q.15. The structure of solids is investigated by using

(a) cosmic rays (b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays (d) infrared rays
Q.16 The condition under which a microwave over heats up a food item
containing water molecules most efficiently is
(a) The frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of the water
molecules.
(b) The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of the
water molecules.
(c) Microwaves are heat waves, so always produce heating.
(d) Infrared waves produce heating in a microwave oven.
Physics/XII Page 82
 Q.17. Which radiations are used in treatment of muscle ache?
(a) Infrared (b) Ultraviolet
(c) Microwave (d) X-rays
Q.18. Waves in decreasing order of their wavelength are
(a) X-rays, infrared rays, visible rays, radio waves
(b) radio waves, visible rays, infrared rays, X-rays.
(c) radio waves, infrared rays, visible rays, X-rays.
(d) radio waves, ultraviolet rays, visible rays, X-rays.
Q.19. The electric field associated with an e.m wave in vacuum is given
by 𝐸⃗ =40 cos (kz – 6 × 108) 𝑖⃗ , where E, Z and t are in volt/m, metre and seconds
respectively. The value of wave vector K is
(a) 2 m-1 (b) 0.5 m-1
-1
(c) 6 m (d) 3 m-1
Q.20. Electromagnetic waves with wavelength λ are used by a FM radio station
for broadcasting. Here λ belongs to
(a) radio waves (b) VHF radio waves
(c) UHF radio waves (d) microwaves
Q.21. The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given as
By = (8 × 10-6) sin [2 × 1011t+ 300πx] T, wavelength of the em wave is
(a) 0.80 cm (b) 1 × 103m
(c) 2 × 10-2cm (d) 0.67 cm
Q22. Maxwell in his famous equations of electromagnetism introduced the
concept of
(a) ac current (b) displacement current
(c) impedance (d) reactance
Q.23. The conduction current is same as displacement current when source is
(a) ac only (b) dc only
(c) either ac or dc (d) neither dc nor ac
Q.24. If a variable frequency ac source is connected to a capacitor then with
decrease in frequency the displacement current will
(a) increase (b) decrease
(c) remains constant (d) first decrease then increase
Q.25. An electromagnetic wave can be produced, when charge is
(a) moving with a constant velocity (b) moving in a circular orbit
(c) falling in an electric field (d) both (b) and (c)
Q.26. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of
electromagnetic waves?
(a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same
place and same time.
(b) The energy in electromagnetic waves is divided equally between electric and
magnetic field vectors.
(c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and
perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave.
(d) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.
Q.27. Which of the following has/have zero average value in a plane
electromagnetic wave?
(a) Both magnetic and electric fields (b) Electric field only
(c) Magnetic field only (d) None of these
Q.28. A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a
frequency of 109 Hz. The frequency of electromagnetic waves produced by the
oscillator is

Physics/XII Page 83
 (a) 106 Hz (b) 107 Hz
(c) 108 Hz (d) 109 Hz
Q.29. If E and B denote electric and magnetic fields respectively, which of the
following is dimensionless?

Q.30. The waves used by artificial satellites for communication is

(a) microwaves (b) infrared waves
(c) radio waves (d) X-rays
Q.31. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in medicine to
destroy cancer cells?
(a) IR-rays (b) Visible rays
(c) Gamma rays (d) Ultraviolet rays
Q.32. A linearly polarized electromagnetic wave given as E = E0 𝑖̂ cos (kz – ωt) is
incident normally on a perfectly reflecting infinite wall at z = a. Assuming that
the material of the wall is optically inactive, the reflected wave will be given as
(a) Er = -E0 𝑖̂ cos (kz – ωt). (b) Er = E0 𝑖̂ cos (kz + ωt).
(c) Er = -E0 𝑖̂ cos (kz + ωt). (d) Er = E0 𝑖̂ sin (kz – ωt).

Q.33. Light with an energy flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a non-reflecting surface at

normal incidence. If the surface has an area of 30 cm2, the total momentum
delivered (for complete absorption) during 30 minutes is ,
(a) 36 × 10-5 kg m/s. (b) 36 × 10-4 kg m/s.
4
(c) 108 × 10 kgm/s. (d) 1.08 × 107 kg m/s.
Q.34. The electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming from 100 W
bulb at a 3 m distance is E. The electric field intensity produced by the radiations
coming from 50 W bulb at the same distance is

Q.35. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field vectors of the

electromagnetic wave, the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is
along
(a) E. (b) B.
(c) B × E. (d) E × B.
Q.36. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of em waves?
(a) The energy of em wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic fields.
(b) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each and perpendicular to
the direction of propagation of wave.
(c) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation.
(d) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maximum and minimum at the
same place and same time.
Q.37. An EM wave radiates outwards from a dipole antenna, with E0 as the
amplitude of its electric field vector. The electric field E0 which transports

Physics/XII Page 84
 significant energy from the

Q.38. An electromagnetic wave travelling along z-axis is given as-E=E0 cos (kz –
cot). Choose the incorrect option from the following;
(a) The associated magnetic field is given as B = 1𝑐𝑘̂ × E = 1𝜔(𝑘̂ × E)
(b) The electromagnetic field can be written in terms of the associated magnetic field
as E = c(B × 𝑘̂ )
(c) 𝑘̂ .E = 0, 𝑘̂ .B =0.
(d) 𝑘̂ × E = 0, k𝑘̂ × B = 0.
Q.39. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating along x direction can have the
following pairs of E and B
(a) Ex,By. (b) Ey, Bz.
(c) Bx, Ey (d) None of these
Q.40. A charged particle oscillates about its mean equilibrium position with a
frequency of 109 Hz. For producing electromagnetic waves which one is not true?
(a) They will have frequency of 109 Hz.
(b) They will have frequency of 2 × 109 Hz.
(c) They will have a wavelength of 0.3 m.
(d) They fall in the region of radio waves.
Q.41. The source of electromagnetic waves can be a charge
(a) moving with a constant velocity. (b) moving in a circular orbit.
(c) at rest. (d) falling in a magnetic field.
Q.42. One requires 11 eV of energy to dissociate a carbon monoxide molecule
into carbon and oxygen atoms. The minimum frequency of the appropriate
electromagnetic radiation to achieve the dissociation lies in
(a) visible region. (b) infrared region.
(c) ultraviolet region. (d) microwave region.
Q.43. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field
components to the intensity of an EM wave is
(a) c : 1 (6) c² : 1
(c) 1 : 1 (d) √c : 1
Q.44. An electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z direction: E = (E{i +
E2j) cos(kz – cot). Choose the correct options from the following:

(c) The given electromagnetic field is circularly polarised.

(d) The given electromagnetic wave is unpolarised.
Q.45. Speed of electromagnetic wave related to electric field and magnetic field
vector in vacuum.

Physics/XII Page 85
 Q.46. An EM wave of intensity I falls on a surface kept in vacuum and exerts
radiation pressure p on it. Which of the following is not true?
(a) Radiation pressure is I/c if the wave is totally absorbed.
(b) Radiation pressure is I/c if the wave is totally reflected.
(c) Radiation pressure is 2I/c if the wave is totally reflected.
(d) Radiation pressure is in the range I/c < p < 2I/c for real surfaces.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:

CHAPTER: 8: Electromagnetic Waves
Laser:
Electromagnetic radiation is a natural phenomenon found in almost all areas of daily
life, from radio waves to sunlight to x-rays. Laser radiation – like all light – is also a
form of electromagnetic radiation. Electromagnetic radiation that has a wavelength
between 380 nm and 780 nm is visible to the human eye and is commonly referred to
as light. At wavelengths longer than 780 nm, optical radiation is termed infrared (IR)
and is invisible to the eye. At wavelengths shorter than 380 nm, optical radiation is
termed ultraviolet (UV) and is also invisible to the eye. The term “laser light” refers to
a much broader range of the electromagnetic spectrum that just the visible spectrum,
anything between 150 nm up to 11000 nm (i.e. from the UV up to the far IR). The
term laser is an acronym which stands for “light amplification by stimulated emission
of radiation”.
Einstein explained the stimulated emission. In an atom, electron may move to higher
energy level by absorbing a photon. When the electron comes back to the lower
energy level it releases the same photon. This is called spontaneous emission. This
may also so happen that the excited electron absorbs another photon , releases two
photons and returns to the lower energy state. This is known as stimulated emission.
Laser emission is therefore a light emission whose energy is used, in lithotripsy, for
targeting and ablating the stone inside human body organ. Apart from medical usage,
laser is used for optical disk drive, printer, barcode reader etc.
Read the following case/passage and answer the following questions:
(i) What is the full form of LASER ?
(a) Light amplified by stimulated emission of radiation
(b) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
(c) Light amplification by simultaneous emission of radiation
(d) Light amplified by synchronous emission of radiation
(ii) The “stimulated emission” is the process of :
(a) release of a photon when electron comes back from higher to lower energy level.
(b) release of two photons by absorbing one photon when electron comes back from
higher to lower energy level.
(c) absorption of a photon when electron moves from lower to higher energy level.
(d) None of the above Ans.
(iii) What is the range of amplitude of LASER?
(a) 150 nm – 400 nm
(b) 700 nm – 11000 nm

Physics/XII Page 86
 (c) Both the above
(d) None of the above
(iv) Lithotripsy is:
(a) an industrial application. (c) laboratory application.
(b) a medical application. (d) process control application.
(v) LASER is used in:
(a) optical disk drive. (c) radio communication.
(b) transmitting satellite signal. (d) ionization.

Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

ASSERTION AND REASON:
Q.1. Assertion : Electromagnetic wave are transverse in nature.
Reason : The electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are perpendicular
to each other
and the direction of propagation.
Q.2. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves interact with matter and set up oscillations.
Reason : Interaction is independent of the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave.
Q.3. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves can be polarised.
Q.4. Assertion : Electromagnetic waves exert radiation pressure.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
Q.5. Assertion : The electromagnetic wave is transverse in nature.
Reason : Electromagnetic wave propagates parallel to the direction of electric and
magnetic fields.
Q.6. Assertion : The velocity of electromagnetic waves depends on electric and
magnetic properties of the
medium.
Reason : Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space is constant.
Q.7. Assertion : The basic difference between various types of electromagnetic
waves lies in their wavelength or frequencies.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves travel through vacuum with the same speed.
Q.8. Assertion : Microwaves are better carrier of signals than optical waves.
Reason : Microwaves move faster than optical waves.
Q.9. Assertion : Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the average
temperature of earth.
Reason : Infrared radiations are sometimes referred to as heat waves

Physics/XII Page 87
 CHAPTER-9
Ray Optics
Q1. Does critical angle depend on wavelength used?
Q2. Name the phenomenon responsible for mirage formation.
Q3. Does a prism displace or deviate an incident ray?
Q4 . What are the factors on which light reflected from a surface depends?
Q5 . A thin prism of 600 gives deviation of 300. what is the refractive index of the
material of the prism?
Q6. For what angle of incidence the lateral shift produced by a parallel sided glass
slab is maximum?
Q7 . What will be the colour of the sky in the absence of atmosphere?
Q8. You are provided with four lenses of focal lengths 1cm, 3cm, 10cm and 100 cm .
Which two would you prefer for a microscope and which two for a telescope?
Q9. How deep will a 4m tank appear when seen in air due to optical illusion.
Refractive index of water is 4/3.
Q10 . Name the color having the ( i ) minimum speed ( ii ) maximum speed through
a prism.
Q11 . What do you mean by spherical aberration of a mirror ? How can it be
minimized?
Q12. Yellow light of wavelength 589nm is incident on a boundary separating air and
glass . Find the speed , wavelength and frequency for ( i ) reflected light ( ii )
refracted light . Refractive index of glass for yellow light is 1.5
Q13 . Two thin lenses having focal lengths having focal lengths +20cm and -30cm are
put in contact . The doublet behaves as an achromatic lens. Find the focal length
of this doublet. What will be the converging power if the focal length of the two
lenses I s made the same?
Q14 . Derive mirror formula for concave mirror forming virtual image.
Q15 . The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the time taken by light to travel 1m
thickness of the glass ? the speed of light in vacuum is 3x 108 m/s .
Q16. Where should an object be placed from a converging lens of focal length 20cm
so as to obtain a real image of magnification 2?
Q17. Show that angle of deviation depends on angle of incidence.
Q18 . Write the difference between dispersive and non dispersive medium with
examples.
Q19. Show that lateral displacement is directly proportional to t and i1.
Q20. What is the main requirement in the fabrication of optical fibres? How it can be
achieved? Write two examples
Q21. Obtain a relation for refraction from a rarer to denser medium at a convex
spherical surface forming real image.
Q22. Derive thin lens formula for a concave lens .
Q23. What is myopia? What are its causes? How can it be corrected?
Q24. Describe an astronomical telescope .Derive an expression for its magnifying
power when final image is at
( a ) infinity
( b ) at D

Physics/XII Page 88
 Q25 . Compound microscope has an objective lens of focal length 2cm and eye lens
of focal length 5cm. If an object is placed 3cm from the objective and final image is
formed at the least distance of distinct vision, find the magnification produced.
Q26. A double convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 has both curvatures
of radii 20cm. An object 2cm high is placed 2cm from this lens , find the position,
nature and size of the image.
Q27. The angle of minimum deviation for yellow light in a prism of refractive index
1.6 is found to be 460. Calculate refracting angle of the prism.
Q28 . Derive lens makers formula.
Q29 . Give the construction and working of a compound microscope. Define and
derive an equation for its magnifying power.

Q30. For refraction through prism derive prism formula.

Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments:

Case Study Question 1:
A compound microscope is an optical instrument used for observing highly magnified
images of tiny objects. Magnifying power of a compound microscope is defined as the
ratio of the angle subtended at the eye by the final image to the angle subtended at the
eye by the object, when both the final image and the objects are situated at the least
distance of distinct vision from the eye. It can be given that: m=me x mo, where me is
the magnification produced by the eye lens and mo is the magnification produced by
the objective lens.
Consider a compound microscope that consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0
cm and an eyepiece of focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm.
(i) The object distance for eye-piece, so that final image is formed at the least distance
of distinct vision, will be
(a) 3.45 cm (c) 1.29 cm
(b) 5 cm (d) 2.59 cm
(ii) How far from the objective should an object be placed in order to obtain the
condition described in part (i)?
(a) 4.5 cm (c) 1.5 cm
(b) 2.5 cm (d) 3.0 cm
(iii) What is the magnifying power of the microscope in case of least distinct vision?
(a) 20 (c) 40
(b) 30 (d) 50
(iv) The intermediate image formed by the objective of a compound microscope is
(a) real, inverted and magnified (c) virtual, erect and magnified
(b) real, erect and magnified (d) virtual, inverted and magnified
(v) The magnifying power of a compound microscope increases with
(a) the focal length of objective lens is increased and that of eye lens is decreased.
(b) the focal length of eye lens is increased and that of objective lens is decreased.
(c) focal length of both objects and eye-piece are increased.
(d) focal length of both objects and eye-piece are decreased.
Q2. Sparking Brilliance of Diamond:
The total internal reflection of the light is used in polishing diamonds to create a
sparking brilliance. By polishing the diamond with specific cuts, it is adjusted the
most of the light rays approaching the surface are incident with an angle of incidence
more than critical angle. Hence, they suffer multiple reflections and ultimately come
out of diamond from the top. This gives the diamond a sparking brilliance.

Physics/XII Page 89
 1. Light cannot easily escape a diamond without multiple internal reflections.
This is because:
a) Its critical angle with reference to air is too large
b) Its critical angle with reference to air is too small
c) The diamond is transparent
d) Rays always enter at angle greater than critical angle
2. The critical angle for a diamond is 24.4o . Then its refractive index is
a) 2.42 c) 1
b) 0.413 d) 1.413
3. The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut diamond is that
a) It has low refractive index c) It has high refractive index
b) It has high transparency d) It is very hard
4. A diamond is immersed in a liquid with a refractive index greater than water.
Then the critical angle for total internal reflection will
a) will depend on the nature of the liquid
b) decrease
c) remains the same
d) increase

Q3. Reflecting Telescope:

Sumati wanted to see the stars of the night sky. She knows that she needs a telescope
to see those distant stars. She finds out that the telescopes, which are made of lenses,
are called refracting telescopes and the ones which are made of mirrors are called
reflecting telescopes. So she decided to make a refracting telescope. She bought two
lenses, L1 and L2. out of which L1 was bigger and L2 was smaller. The larger lens
gathers and bends the light, while the smaller lens magnifies the image. Big, thick
lenses are more powerful. So to see far away, she needed a big powerful lens.
Unfortunately, she realized that a big lens is very heavy. Heavy lenses are hard to
make and difficult to hold in the right place. Also since the light is passing through
the lens, the surface of the lens has to be extremely smooth. Any flaws in the lens will
change the image. It would be like looking through a dirty window.

Physics/XII Page 90
 (i) Based on the diagram shown, what kind of lenses would Sumati need to make
the telescope?
a) Concave lenses c) Bifocal lenses
b) Convex lenses d) Flat lenses
(ii) If the powers of the lenses L1 and L2 are in the ratio of 4:1, what would be
the ratio of the focal length of L1 and L2?
a) 4:1 c) 2:1
b) 1:4 d) 1:1 19
(iii) What is the formula for magnification obtained with a lens?
a) Ratio of height of image to height of object
b) Double the focal length.
c) Inverse of the radius of curvature.
d) Inverse of the object distance.
(iv) Sumati did some preliminary experiment with the lenses and found out that
the magnification of the eyepiece (L2) is 3. If in her experiment with L2 she
found an image at 24 cm from the lens, at what distance did she put the object?
a) 72 cm c) 8 cm
b) 12 cm d) 6 cm
(v) Sumati bought not-so-thick lenses for the telescope and polished them. What
advantages, if any, would she have with her choice of lenses?
a) She will not have any advantage as even thicker lenses would give clearer images.
b) Thicker lenses would have made the telescope easier to handle.
c) Not-so-thick lenses would not make the telescope very heavy and also allow
considerable amount of light to pass.
d) Not-so-thick lenses will give her more magnification

Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

ASSERTION AND REASON
Q.1. Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image.
Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.
Q.2. Assertion : The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is
placed in water.
Reason : The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to , f = R/2.
Q.3. Assertion : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly real if the object
is virtual.
Reason : The image formed by a concave mirror is certainly virtual if the object is
real.
Q.4. Assertion : The image of an extended object placed perpendicular to the
principal axis of a mirror, will be erect if the object is real but the image is virtual.
Reason : The image of an extended object, placed perpendicular to the principal axis
Physics/XII Page 91
 Q.5. Assertion : An object is placed at a distance off from a convex mirror of focal
length f its image will form at infinity.
Reason : The distance of image in convex mirror can never be infinity
Q.6. Assertion : The image of a point object situated at the centre of hemispherical
lens is also at the centre.
Reason : For hemisphere Snell’s law is not valid.
Q.7. Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature R made
of material of refractive index μ = 1.5, is R.
Reason : The focal length of the lens will be R/2.
Q.8. Assertion : If the rays are diverging after emerging from a lens; the lens must be
concave.
Reason : The convex lens can give diverging rays.
Q.9. Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the
objective lens is more.
Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects more light.
Q.10. Assertion : The optical instruments are used to increase the size of the image of
the object.
Reason : The optical instruments are used to increase the visual angle.

Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Q.1. Which of the following colour of white light deviated most when passes
through a prism?
(a) Red light (b) Violet light
(c) Yellow light (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.2. For a total internal reflection, which of the following is correct?
(a) Light travels from rarer to denser medium.
(b) Light travels from denser to rarer medium.
(c) Light travels in air only.
(d) Light travels in water only.
Q.3. Mirage is a phenomenon due to
(a) refraction of light (b) reflection of light
(c) total internal reflection of light (d) diffraction of light.
Q.4. Critical angle of glass is θ2 and that of water is θ2. The critical angle for
water and glass surface would be (μg = 3/2, μw = 4/3).
(a) less than θ2 (b) between θ1 and θ2
(c) greater than θ2 (d) less than θ1
Q.5. An astronomical refractive telescope has an objective of focal length 20 m
and an eyepiece of focal length 2 cm. Then
(a) the magnification is 1000
(b) the length of the telescope tube is 20.02 m
(c) the image formed of inverted
(d) all of these
Q.6. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the
refractive index of the lens. Then its focal length will
(a) become zero (b) become infinite
(c) become small, but non-zero (d) remain unchanged

Physics/XII Page 92
 Q.7. Which of the following forms a virtual and erect image for all positions of
the object?
(a) Concave lens (b) Concave mirror
(d) Convex mirror (d) Both (a) and (c)
Q.8. Two lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and – 40 cm are held in contact. The
image of an object at infinity will be formed by the combination at
(a) 10 cm (b) 20 cm
(c) 40 cm (d) infinity
Q.9. Two beams of red and violet color are made to pass separately through a
prism (angle of the prism is 60°). In the position of minimum deviation, the angle
of refraction will be
(a) 30° for both the colors (b) greater for the violet color
(c) greater for the red color (d) equal but not 30° for both the
colors
Q.10. An under-water swimmer cannot see very clearly even in absolutely clear
water because of
(a) absorption of light in water
(b) scattering of light in water
(c) reduction of speed of light in water
(d) change in the focal length of eye lens
Q.11. The field of view is maximum for
(a) plane mirror (b) concave mirror
(c) convex mirror (d) cylindrical mirror
Q.12. A person is six feet tall. How tall must a plane mirror be if he is able to see
his entire length?
(a) 3 ft (b) 4.5 ft
(c) 7.5 ft (d) 6 ft
Q.13. The image formed by a concave mirror is
(a) always real
(b) always virtual
(c) certainly real if the object is virtual
(d) certainly virtual if the object is real
Q.14. When light is refracted into a medium,
(a) its wavelength and frequency both increase
(b) its wavelength increases but frequency remains unchanged
(c) its wavelength decreases but frequency remains unchanged
(d) its wavelength and frequency both decrease
Q.15. Which of the following phenomena is used in optical fibres ?
(a) Total internal reflection (b) Scattering
(c) Diffraction (d) Refraction
Q.16. Critical angle of light passing from glass to water is minimum for
(a) red colour (b) green colour
(c) yellow colour (d) violet colour
Q.17. If a glass prism is dipped in water, its dispersive power
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) does not change
(d) may increase or decrease depending on whether the angle of the prism is less than
or greater than 60º
Q.18. The objective of a telescope must be of large diameter in order to
(a) remove chromatic aberration
(b) remove spherical aberration and high magnification
Physics/XII Page 93
 (c) gather more light and for high resolution
(d) increase its range of observation
Q.19. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of
focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away
from the mirror. The length of the image is
(a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm
(c) 2.5 cm (d) 5 cm
Q.20. To increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope, one should
increase
(a) the focal length of the lens (b) the power of the lens
(c) the aperture of the lens (d) the object size

Physics/XII Page 94
 CHAPTER-10
Wave OPTICS
1 Mark Questions
1. What is the polarizing angle of a medium of refractive index 1.732?
2. Sketch the variation of intensity of interference pattern in Young’s double slit
experiment.
3. What is the ratio of fringe width of bright and dark fringes in Young’s double
slit experiment?
4. What is the effect on interference fringes in Young’s double slit experiment if
one slit is covered?
5. A polarizer and analyzer are so oriented that intensity of transmitted light is
maximum. If the analyzer is rotated through 600 what fraction of maximum
light is transmitted?
6. Draw a graph showing variation of intensity of polarized light transmitted by
an analyzer.
7. Bubbles of a colourless soap solution appear colored in sun light. Why?
8. What happens to the energy at destructive interference in interference pattern?

2 Mark Questions
9. What will be the effect on interference fringes in Young’s double slit
experiment if (i) Monochromatic source is replaced by white light; (ii) Screen
is moved away from the slit. Justify your answer.
10. Name one device for producing polarized light. Two polarides are [laced
perpendicular to each other and the transmitted intensity is zero. What happens
when one more Polaroid is placed between these two at an angle of 45 0 ?
11. In Young’s experiment the width of the fringes obtained with light of
wavelength 6000 A0 is 2mm. What will be the fringe width if the apparatus is
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 4/3?
12. Show that the maximum intensity in interference pattern is four times the
intensity due to each slit.
13. In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the
original width. How does this affect the size and intensity of central diffraction
band?
14. How does the resolving power of a microscope change on (i) decreasing the
wavelength of light (ii) decreasing the diameter of the objective lens?
15. Draw the wavefront for a beam of light (i) coming from a convex lens when a
point source is placed at its focus (ii) divergent radially from a point source.
16. The refractive index of a denser medium is 1.732. Calculate (i) Polarising
angle of the medium (ii) angle of refraction.
17. Determine the angular separation between the central maximum, and first
order maximum of diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 0.25mm.
18. State two conditions for sustained interference of light. Draw the variation of
intensity with position in Young’s double slit experiment.
3 Marks Questions
19. State Huygens principle. For reflection of plane wavefront at a plane reflecting
surface, construct the corresponding reflected wavefront. Using this diagram
prove that angle of incidence is equal to angle of reflection.
20. Two independent sources of light cannot be coherent. Why? Two coherent
sources have intensities in the ratio 25:16. Find the ratios of the intensities of
maxima to minima after interference.

Physics/XII Page 95
 21. In a single slit diffraction experiment width of the slit is made double the original
width. How does it affect the size and intensity of central diffraction band.
Explain. Draw a graph showing variation of intensity with angle in single slit
diffraction.
22. What is meant by plane polarized light. What type of waves show the property of
polarization? Describe a method to produce plane polarized light.
23. Define polarizing angle. Derive the relation connecting polarizing angle and
refractive index of the medium.
24. State Huygens’s principle. Deduce the laws of refraction on the basis of
Huygens’s principle.
25. When two narrow slits 2mm apart are illuminated by a light of wavelength 5000
A0 the third minima is measured to be 0.5mm from the central maxima on a
screen. What is the distance of the screen from the slit?
26. How does the resolving power of a microscope change when (i) the wavelength
of the light is increased (ii) the microscope is kept inside water (iii) diameter of
the objective lens is doubled.
27. In Young’s double slit experiment when a source of light of wavelength 5000 A0
is used the fringe width obtained is 0.6cm. If the distance between slit and screen
is reduced to half what would be the wavelength of source to get a 0.003 m wide
fringes.
OR
State the essential condition for diffraction of light to occur. The light of
wavelength 600nm is incident normally on a slit if width 3mm. calculate the linear
width of central maximum when the screen is 3m away from the slit.
5 Marks Questions
28. Explain the phenomenon of diffraction of light at a single slit. Show graphically
the variation of intensity with angle in the diffraction pattern.
29. What is meant by the term angular resolution of a telescope?
30. What do you understand by polarization of light? What are plane of polarization
and plane of vibration? Explain polarization (i) by scattering (ii) by reflection.
31. Explain Young’s double slit experiment of interference of light waves. Calculate
the path difference between interfering waves and give conditions for maxima and
minima. . Get the expression for dark and bright fringes

OPTICS QUESTION BANK

Q1. How is a wave front different from a ray? Draw the geometrical, shape of the
wave fronts when (i) light diverges from a point source, and (ii) light emerges out
of a convex lens when a point source is placed as its focus.
Or
(a) In Young's double slit experiment, deduce the conditions for (i) constructive
and (ii) destructive interference at a point on the screen. Draw a graph showing
variation of the resultant intensity in the interference pattern against position
'x' on the screen.
(b) Compare and contrast the pattern which is seen with two coherently
illuminated narrow slits in Young's experiment with that seen for a coherently
illuminated single slit producing diffraction.
Q2. A figure divided into squares, each of size 1 mm2 is being viewed at a distance of
9cm through a magnifying lens of local length 10cm, held close to the eye.
(i) Draw a ray diagram showing the formation of the image.
(ii) What is the magnification produced by the lens? How much is the area of each

Physics/XII Page 96
 square in the virtual image?
(iii) What is the angular magnification of the lens?
Q3. The image of a candle is formed by a convex lens on a screen. The lower half of
the lens is painted black to make it completely opaque. Draw the ray diagram to
show the image formation. How will this image be different from the one
obtained when the lens is not painted black?
Q4. What is the function of cladding' in a typical optical fiber?
Q5. A right-angled crown glass prism with critical angle 41 0 is placed before an
object PQ, in two positions as shown in the figures (i) and (ii). Trace the paths of
the rays from P and Q the prisms in the two cases.

Q6. (a) Draw a labelled ray diagram to show the formation of an image by a
compound microscope. Write the expression for its magnifying power.
(c) How does the resolving power of a compound microscope change, when
(i) refractive index of the medium between the object and the objective lens
increases; and (ii) wavelength of the radiation used is increased?
Q7. Using Huygen's principle, draw a diagram to show propagation of a wave-front
originating from a monochromatic point source.
Describe diffraction of light due to a single slit. Explain formation of a pattern of
fringes obtained on the screen and plot showing variation of intensity with angle
in single slit diffraction.
Or
What is meant by a linearly polarized light? Which type of waves can be
polarised? Briefly explain a method for producing polarised light.
Two Polaroids are placed at 900 to each other and the intensity of transmitted
light is zero. What will be the intensity of transmitted light when one more
Polaroid is placed between these two bisecting the angle between them? Take
intensity of unpolarised light as I.
Q8. What are coherent sources? How does the width of interference fringes in
Young's double slit experiment change when The distance between the slits at
screen is decreased?
Q9. What is an optical fiber? Explain with the help of a diagram, how light can travel
through it and remain confined to the fiber.
Q10. Show by a diagram the image formation of a point object by a thin double
convex lens
(a) Having radii of curvature R1 and R2 . Hence derive the lens maker formula.
Or
State Huygens’s principle. Use Huygens’s construction to explain refraction of
a plane wave front at a plane surface. Draw diagrams to show the behavior of
a (i) convex lens, (ii) concave mirror when a plane wave front falls on it.

Physics/XII Page 97
 Q11. Monochromatic light is refracted from air into glass .of refractive index n, Find
the ratio of wavelengths of the incident and refracted light.
Or Write two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to take place.
Q12. Using Huygen's principle, explain the refraction of a plane wave front at a plane
surface.
(a) Hence prove Snell's law.
Or
The figure given below shows an experimental set up for Young's double slit
experiment to observe interference of light on the screen OP.

Here path difference SS 2 - SS 1 = λ/4. Obtain the condition for (i) constructive,
and (ii) destructive interference at any point P in terms of path difference = s 2p-s1p
Q13. Draw a labelled diagram of a compound microscope when the image is formed
at infinity. Deduce the expression for its magnifying power. How can the
magnifying power be increased?
Or
Draw a labelled diagram to show the image formation in an astronomical
telescope. Write an expression for its magnifying power. Why should the
objective lens of such a telescope have large diameter?
Q. 14. Name the underlying principle of the working of an optical fibre.
Q. 15. Explain, using Huygen’ principle, how diffraction is produced by a narrow slit
which is illuminated by a monochromatic light. Show that central maximum is
twice as wide as the other maxima and the pattern becomes narrower as the
width of the slit is increased.
Q. 16. (i) Draw a labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope, showing the
formation of image at the near point of the eye.
(ii) A compound microscope uses an objective lens of focal length 4 cm and
eye lens of focal length 10cm. An object is placed at 6 cm from the
objective lens.
(a) Calculate magnifying power of the compound microscope, if the final
image is formed at the near point.
(b) Calculate the length of the compound microscope also.
Or
Draw a labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope, forming the image
at infinity. As astronomical telescope uses two lenses of powers 10 diopter,
1 diopter.
(i) State with reason, which lens is preferred as objective and eye-piece.
(ii) Calculate the magnifying power of the telescope, if the final image is
formed at the near point.
(iii) How do the light gathering power and resolving power of a telescope
change, if the aperture of the objective lens is doubled ?
Q17. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 18 cm in air.
Calculate the change in its focal length when it is immersed in water of
refractive index 4/3 .
Q18. What are coherent sources ? Why are coherent sources required to produce
interference of light ? Give an example of interference of light in everyday life.

Physics/XII Page 98
 In Young's double slit experiment, the two slits are 0.03 cm apart and the screen
is placed at a distance of 1.5 m away from the slits. The distance between the
central bright fringe and fourth bright fringe is 1 cm. Calculate the wavelength of
light used.
OR
State the condition under which the phenomenon of diffraction of light takes
place. Derive an expression for the width of the central maximum due to
diffraction of light at a single slit.
A slit of width 'a' is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength 700 nm
at normal incidence. Calculate the value of 'a' for position of
(i) first minimum at an angle of diffraction of 30°.
(ii) first maximum at an angle of diffraction of 30°.
19. Define resolving power of a compound microscope. How does the resolving
power of a compound microscope change when
(i) refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens increases?
(ii) wavelength of the radiation used is increased ?
20. A double convex lens of glass of refractive index 1.6 has its both surfaces of equal
radii of curvature of 30 cm each. An object of height 5 cm is placed at a distance
of 12.5 cm from the lens. Calculate the size of the image formed.
21. State the essential condition for diffraction of light to take place.
Use Huygen's principle to explain diffraction of light due to a narrow single slit
and the formation of a pattern of fringes obtained on the screen. Sketch the
pattern of fringes formed due to diffraction at a single slit showing variation of
intensity with angle .
OR
What are coherent sources of light ? Why are coherent sources required to obtain
sustained interference pattern ?
State three characteristic features which distinguish the interference pattern due to
two coherently illuminated sources as compared to that observed in a diffraction
pattern due to a single slit.
22. What does the statement, “natural light emitted from the sun is unpolarized” mean
in terms of the direction of electric vector ? Explain briefly how plane polarized
light can be produced by reflection at the interface separating the two media.
23. Draw a schematic diagram of a single optical fibre structure. On what principle
does such a device work ? Explain the mechanism of propagation of light signal
through an optical fibre.
24. Define the term ‘wavefront’. Draw the wavefront and corresponding rays in the case
of a
(i) diverging spherical wave, (ii) plane wave. Using Huygen’s construction of a
wavefront, explain the refraction of a plane wavefront at a plane surface and hence
verify Snell’s law. OR
Derive the relation between the focal length of a convex lens in terms of the radii of
curvature of the two surfaces and refractive index of its material. Write the sign
conventions and two assumptions used in the derivation of this relation,
A convex lens of focal length 40 cm and a concave lens of focal length — 25 cm are
kept in contact with each other. What is the value of power of this combination ?
25. A glass lens of refractive index 1.45 disappears when immersed in a liquid. What is
the value of refractive index of the liquid ?
26. State the conditions for the phenomenon of total internal reflection to occur.
27. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. If
focal length of the lens is 12 cm, find the refractive index of the material of the lens.
28. What is an unpolarized light ? Explain with the help of suitable ray diagram how an
unpolarized light can be polarized by reflection from a transparent medium. Write the
Physics/XII Page 99
 29. State Huygens’s principle. Show, with the help of a, suitable diagram, how this
principle is used to obtain the diffraction pattern by a single slit. Draw a plot of
intensity distribution and explain clearly why the secondary maxima become weaker
with increasing order (n) of the secondary maxima.
OR
Draw a ray diagram to show the working of a compound microscope. Deduce an
expression for the total magnification when the final image is formed at the near
point. In a compound microscope, an object is placed at a distance of 1.5 cm from the
objective of focal length 1.25 cm. If the eye piece has a focal length of 5 cm and the
final image is formed at the near point, estimate the magnifying power of the
microscope.
30. A converging lens is kept coaxially in contact with a diverging lens – both the lenses
being of equal focal lengths. What is the focal length of the combination ?
When light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed decreases. Does this
decrease in speed imply a decrease in the energy carried by the light wave ? Justify
your answer.
31 . (i) Draw a neat labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in normal
adjustment. Explain briefly its working.
(ii) An astronomical telescope uses two lenses of powers 10 D and 1 D. What is its
magnifying power in normal adjustment ?
OR
(i) Draw a neat labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope. Explain briefly its
working.
(ii) Why must both the objective and the eye-piece of a compound microscope have
short focal lengths ? 3
32. In Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits 0.15 mm apart are illuminated by
monochromatic light of wavelength 450 nm. The screen is 1.0 m away from the slits.
(a) Find the distance of the second (i) bright fringe, (ii) dark fringe from the central
maximum.
(b) How will the fringe pattern change if the screen is moved away from the slits ?

34. An illuminated object and a screen are placed 90 cm apart. Determine the focal length and
nature of the lens required to produce a clear image on the screen, twice the size of the
object.
35. When monochromatic light travels from one medium to another its wavelength changes
but frequency remains the same, Explain.
36. Two convex lenses of same focal length but of aperture A1 and A2 (A2 < A1), are used
as the objective lenses in two astronomical telescopes having identical eyepieces. What is
the ratio of their resolving power ? Which telescope will you prefer and why ? Give
reason.
37. Describe Young's double slit experiment to produce interference pattern due to a
monochromatic source of light. Deduce the expression for the fringe width.
OR
Use Huygen's principle to verify the laws of refraction.
38. (a) Describe briefly, with the help of suitable diagram, how the transverse nature of light
can be demonstrated by the phenomenon of polarization. 3
(b) When unpolarised light passes from air to a transparent medium, under what
condition does the reflected light get polarized ?
(c) Explain briefly how the phenomenon of total internal reflection is used in fibre optics.
OR
Obtain lens makers formula
39. A convex lens made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped, in turn, in (i) a medium
of refractive index 1.65, (ii) a medium of refractive index 1.33.

Physics/XII Page 100

 (a) Will it behave as a converging or a diverging lens in the two cases?
(b) How will its focal length change in the two media?
40 . Use the mirror equation to show that
(a) an object placed between f and 2f of a concave mirror produces a real image
beyond 2f.
(b) a convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of the location of
the object.
(c) an object placed between the pole and focus of a concave mirror produces a virtual
and enlarged image.
41. A compound microscope uses an objective lens of focal length 4 cm and eyepiece lens
of focal length 10 cm. An object is placed at 6 cm from the objective lens. Calculate
the magnifying power of the compound microscope. Also calculate the length of the
microscope.
OR
A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length 15
m. If an eyepiece lens of focal length 1.0 cm is used, find the angular magnification of
the telescope.
If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image of the
moon formed by the objective lens ? The diameter of the moon is 3.42 x 10 6 m and
the radius of the lunar orbit is 3.8 x 106 m.
42. State the importance of coherent sources in the phenomenon of interference. In
Young's double slit experiment to produce interference pattern, obtain the conditions
for constructive and destructive interference. Hence deduce the expression for the
fringe width. How does the fringe width get affected, if the entire experimental
apparatus of Young is immersed in water ?
OR
(a) State Huygens' principle. Using this principle explain how a diffraction pattern is
obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a narrow beam coming from a
monochromatic source of light is incident normally.
(b) Show that the angular width of the first diffraction fringe is half of that of the
central fringe.
(c) If a monochromatic source of light is replaced by white light, what change would
you observe in the diffraction pattern ?
43. A beam of light coming out of a convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus
is incident on an equilateral prism. Draw the shape of wave fronts coming out of the
convex lens and the prism.
44. Two slits in Young’s experiment are illuminated by a monochromatic lamp. With a
neat sketch, get an expression for fringe width of the interference pattern so obtained.
How will the fringe width change when the region between coherent sources and the
screen is filled with another medium of refractive index ’μ’.
45. Trace the path of three rays from a distant object through an astronomical telescope in
normal adjustment.(a) The far point of a myopic person is 80 cm in front of the eye.
What is the power of the lens required to enable him to see very distant objects
clearly?
(b) In what way does the corrective lens help the above person?
(c) The above person prefers to remove his spectacles while reading a book. Why?
OR
(a) A ray of light is normally incident on one face of an equilateral prism. Trace the
course of the ray through the prism and emerging from it.
(b) The critical angle for glass-air interface is ‘ic’. Will the critical angle for glass-
water interface be greater than or less than ‘ic ’? Why?

Physics/XII Page 101

 (c) How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism change if the incident
violet light is replaced by red light?

46. Draw a graph to show the angle of deviation with the angle of incidence i for a
monochromatic ray of light passing through a prism of refracting angle A.

Deduce the relation

Define diffraction. Deduce an expression for fringe width of the central maxima of the
diffraction pattern, produced by single slit illuminated with monochromatic light
source.

Chapter :10 Wave Optics

Question 1:Diffraction of Light:
A and B went to purchase a ticket of a music program. But unfortunately only one
ticket was left. They purchased the single ticket and decided that A would be in the
hall during the 1st half and B during the 2nd half.
Both of them reached the hall together. A entered the hall and found that the seat was
behind a pillar which creates an obstacle. He was disappointed. He thought that he
would not be able to hear the program properly.
B was waiting outside the closed door. The door was not fully closed. There was a
little opening. But surprisingly, A could hear the music program.
This happened due to diffraction of sound.
The fact we hear sounds around corners and around barriers involves both diffraction
and reflection of sound.
Diffraction in such cases helps the sound to “bend around” the obstacles.
In fact, diffraction is more pronounced with longer wavelengths implies that we can
hear low frequencies around obstacles better than high frequencies.

B was outside the door. He could also hear the programme. But he noticed that when
the door opening is comparatively less he could hear the programme even being little
away from the door. This is because when the width of the opening is larger than the
wavelength of the wave passing through the gap then it does not spread out much on
the other side. But when the opening is smaller than the wavelength more diffraction
occurs and the waves spread out greatly – with semicircular wavefront. The opening
in this case functions as a localized source of sound.
Read the above case/passage and answer the following questions:

Physics/XII Page 102

 (i) A and B could hear the music programme due to phenomenon named
(a) interference. (c) diffraction.
(b) scattering (d) dispersion
(ii) Diffraction is more pronounced with ______ wavelengths.
(a) Longer (c) fluctuating
(b) Shorter (d) all
(iii) The minimum and maximum frequencies in the musical programme were
550 Hz and 10 kHz. Which frequency was better audible around the pillar
obstacle?
(a) 10 kHz (c) Mid frequency
(b) 550 kHz (d) The complete frequency range
(iv) Diffraction of sound takes place more when :
(a) sound is diffracted through an opening having width equal to the wavelength of
the sound.(b) sound is diffracted through an opening having width more than the
wavelength of the sound.
(c) sound is diffracted through an opening having width less than the wavelength of
the sound.
(d) diffraction of sound does not depend on the width of the opening.
(v) How the waveform will look like outside the door of the hall?
(a) Sound repeater (c) Localized sound source
(b) Sound reflector (d) None of the above

Q2. Young’s double slit experiments

Holograms also depend upon interference to produce their three-dimensional-like
images. In reflection holograms, both a reference and object-illuminating beam are
reflected onto a thick film from opposite sides. These beams interfere to produce light
and dark areas that correspond to an image that appears three-dimensional.
Transmission holograms use both the reference and object-illuminating beams on the
same side of the film to produce a similar type of effect.

Interference also occurs with sound waves and waves induced in a standing pool of
water. A very concise and easy interference experiment can be performed at home
using a sink full of water and two marbles. First, let the water become very still, then
simultaneously drop the marbles into the water (about 10-14 inches apart) from a
height of about a foot. Just as with light waves, the two marbles will induce a series of
waves in the water emanating in all directions. Waves formed in the area between
where the marbles entered the water will eventually collide.
Q1. In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, if instead of monochromatic light white
light is used, what would be the observation?
a) The pattern will not be visible
b) The shape of the pattern will change from hyperbolic to circular

Physics/XII Page 103

 c) Colored fringes will be observed with a white bright fringe at the center
d) The bright and dark fringes will change position
Q2. What kind of sources are required for Young’s Double Slit experiment?
a) Coherent c) Intense
b) Incoherent d) Bright
Q3. In YDS, the width of the fringes obtained from a light of wavelength 500 nm
is 3.6 mm. What is the fringe width id the apparatus is immersed in a liquid of
refractive index 1.2?
a) 2 mm c) 3 mm
b) 2.6 mm d) 3.2 mm
Q4. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the distance between the two slits is 0.5
mm and the distance between the screen and the slits is 1 m. When a light of
wavelength 500 nm is incident on the slits, what would be distance between the
two second bright fringes?
a) 1 mm c) 3 mm
b) 2 mm d) 4 mm
Q5. A Young’s double slit apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
1.25. What is the ratio of the fringe width in air and liquid?
a) 1: 2 c) 5: 4
b) 4: 5 d) 2: 1

Q3. Diffraction Of Light:

The diffraction of light has been cleverly taken advantage of to produce one of
science's most important tools—the diffraction grating. Instead of just one aperture, a
large number of thin slits or grooves—as many as 25,000 per inch—are etched into a
material. In making these sensitive devices it is important that the grooves
are parallel, equally spaced, and have equal widths.

The diffraction grating transforms an incident beam of light into a spectrum. This
happens because each groove of the grating diffracts the beam, but because all the
grooves are parallel, equally spaced and have the same width, the diffracted waves
mix or interfere constructively so that the different components can be viewed
separately. Spectra produced by diffraction gratings are extremely useful in
applications from studying the structure of atoms and molecules to investigating the
composition of stars.
Q1. What changes are observed in a diffraction pattern if the whole apparatus is
immersed in water?
a) The Wavelength of light increases
b) Width of central maximum increases

Physics/XII Page 104

 c) Width of central maximum decreases
d) Frequency of light decreases
Q2. How shall a diffraction pattern change when white light is used instead of a
monochromatic light?
a) The pattern will no longer be visible
b) The shape of the pattern will change from hyperbolic to circular
c) The colored pattern will be observed with a white bright fringe at the center
d) The bright and dark fringes will change position
Q3. If the Fresnel’s distance is a, then what should be the distance of the screen
from the slit, d, such that ray optics is no longer valid?
a) d > a c) d = a
b) d < a d) No relation between d and a
Q4. X-ray crystallography uses which characteristic of light?
a) Polarization c) Diffraction
b) Interference d) Coherency
Q5. By observing the diffraction patter, the two images are said to be just
resolved when ________
a) The central maxima of one image coincide with central maxima of the other
b) The central maxima of one do not coincide with central maxima of the other
c) The central maxima of one image coincides with the first minimum of the other
d) The central maxima of one image do not coincide with the first minimum of other

Chapter 10 Wave Optics

Q.1. Assertion : According to Huygen’s principle, no backward wave-front is
possible.
Reason : Amplitude of secondary wavelet is proportional to (1 + cos θ) where θ is the
angle between the ray at the point of consideration and the direction of secondary
wavelet.
Q.2. Assertion : Thin film such as soap bubble or a thin layer of oil on water show
beautiful colours when illuminated by white light.
Reason : It happens due to the interference of light reflected from upper and lower
face of the thin film.
Q.3. Assertion : No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are
infinitely close to each other.
Reason : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two
sources.
Q.4. Assertion : It is necessary to have two waves of equal intensity to study
interference pattern.
Reason : There will be an effect on clarity if the waves are of unequal intensity.
Q.5. Assertion : White light falls on a double slit with one slit is covered by a green
filter. The bright fringes observed are of green colour.
Reason : The fringes observed are coloured.
Q.6. Assertion : In YDSE, if a thin film is introduced in front of the upper slit, then
the fringe pattern shifts in the downward direction.
Reason : In YDSE if the slit widths are unequal, the minima will be completely dark.
Q.7. Assertion : In Young’s double slit experiment if wavelength of incident
monochromatic light is just doubled, number of bright fringe on the screen will
increase.
Reason : Maximum number of bright fringe on the screen is inversely proportional to
the wavelength of light used

Physics/XII Page 105

 Q.8. Assertion : In YDSE number of bright fringe or dark fringe cannot be unlimited
Reason : In YDSE path difference between the superposing waves cannot be more
than the distance between the slits.
Q.9. Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using yellow light instead of red
light, the fringes becomes narrower.
Reason : In YDSE, fringe width is given by β=λD/d
Q.10. Assertion : Coloured spectrum is seen when we look through a muslin cloth.
Reason : It is due the diffraction of white light on passing through fine slits.
Q.11. Assertion : Diffraction takes place for all types of waves mechanical or non-
mechanical, transverse or longitudinal.
Reason : Diffraction’s effect are perceptible only if wavelength of wave is
comparable to dimensions of diffracting device.

Chapter 10 Wave Optics

Q.1. The locus of all particles in a medium, vibrating in the same phase is called
(a) wavelet (b) fringe
(c) wave front (d) None of these
Q.2. Which of the following is correct for light diverging from a point source?
(a) The intensity decreases in proportion for the distance squared.
(b) The wavefront is parabolic.
(c) The intensity at the wavelingth does depend of the distance.
(d) None of these.
Q.3.Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate
with the same
(a) phase (b) amplitude
(c) frequency (d) period
Q.4. The phenomena which is not explained by Huygen’s construction of wavefront
(a) reflection (b) diffraction
(c) refraction (d) origin of
Q.5.Huygen’s concept of secondary wave
(a) allows us to find the focal length of a thick lens
(b) is a geometrical method to find a wavefront
(c) is used to determine the velocity of light
(d) is used to explain polarisation
Q.6. A plane wave passes through a convex lens. The geometrical shape of the
wavefront that emerges is
(a) plane (b) diverging spherical
(c) converging spherical (d) None of these
Q.7. Spherical wavefronts, emanating from a point source, strike a plane reflecting
surface. What will happen to these wave fronts, immediately after reflection?
(a) They will remain spherical with the same curvature, both in magnitude and sign.
(b) They will become plane wave fronts.
(c) They will remain spherical, with the same curvature, but sign of curvature
reversed.
(d) They will remain spherical, but with different curvature, both in magnitude and
sign.
Q.8. When light suffers reflection at the interface between water and glass, the change
of phase in the reflected wave is
(a) zero (b) π
(c) π/2 (d) 2π

Physics/XII Page 106

 Q.9. Two plane wavefronts of light, one incident on a thin convex lens and another on
the refracting face of a thin prism. After refraction at them, the emerging wavefronts
respectively become
(a) plane wavefront and plane wavefront (b) plane wavefront and spherical
wavefront
(c) spherical wavefront and plane wavefront (d) spherical wavefront and spherical
wavefront
Q.10. When a film is illuminated by white light, its upper portion appears dark. Path
difference between two reflected beams at the spot must be
(a) zero (b) λ/2
(c) 2 λ/2 (d) π
Q.11. If two coherent sources are vibrating in phase then we have constructive
interference at any point P whenever the path difference is
(a) (n+1/2)λ (b) nλ/2
(c) (n-1/2)λ (d) nλ
Q.12. If two sources are coherent, then the phase difference (􀁉) between the waves
produced by them at any point
(a) will change with time and we will have stable positions of maxima and minima.
(b) will not change with time and we have unstable positions of maxima and minima.
(c) Positions of will not change with time and we will have stable positions of
maxima and minima.
(d) will change with time and we will have unstable positions of maxima and minima.
Q.13. The device which produces highly coherent sources is
(a) Fresnel biprism (b) Young’s double slit
(c) Laser (d) Lloyd’s mirror
Q.14. Which of the following, cannot produce two coherent sources?
(a) Lloyd’s mirror (b) Fresnel biprism
(c) Young’s double slit (d) Prism
Q.15. Coherence is a measure of
(a) capability of producing interference by wave (b) waves being diffracted
(c) waves being reflected (d) waves being refracted
Q.16. Two sources of light are said to be coherent, when they give light waves of
same
(a) amplitude and phase (b) wavelength and constant phase
difference
(c) intensity and wavelength (d) phase and speed
Q.17. Intensity of light depends on
(a) amplitude (b) frequency
(c) wavelength (d) velocity
Q.18. The colour of bright fringe nearest to central achromatic
fringe in the interference pattern with white light will be
(a) violet (b) red
(c) green (d) yellow
Q.19. The correct formula for fringe visibility is
(a) V=(Imax-Imin)/(Imax+Imin) (b) V=(Imax+Imin)/(Imax-Imin)
(c) V=Imax/Imin (d) V=Imin/Imax
Q.20. Laser light is considered to be coherent because it consists of
(a) many wavelengths (b) uncoordinated wavelengths
(c) coordinated waves of exactly the same wavelength(d) divergent beam
Q.21. The interfering fringes formed by a thin oil film on water are seen in yellow
light of sodium lamp. We find the fringes

Physics/XII Page 107

 (a) coloured (b) black and white
(c) yellow and black (d) coloured without yellow
Q.22. In Young’s Double slit experiment, if the distance between the slit and screen
(D) is comparable with fringe width (B), the fringe pattern on screen will
(a) strictly be a parabola (b) strictly be a hyperbola
(c) be a elliptical (d) be a straight line
Q.23. If Young’s double slit experiment is performed in water keeping the rest of the
set-up same, the fringes will
(a) increase in width (b) decrease in width
(c) remain unchanged (d) not be formed
Q.24. In the Young’s Double slit experiment, when we place a converging lens after
the slits and place the screen at the focus of the lens, it
(a) introduces an extra path difference in the parallel beam.
(b) introduces no path difference in the parallel beam.
(c) introduces an extra phase difference in the parallel beam.
(d) introduces an extra fringe in the diffraction pattern.
Q.25. The fringe width for red colours as compared to that for violet colour is
approximately
(a) 3 times (b) 2 times
(c) 4 times (d) 8 times
Q.26. In Young’s double slit experiment, the minimum amplitude is obtained when
the phase difference of super-imposing waves is (where n = 1, 2, 3, …)
(a) zero (b) (2 n – 1) π
(c) n π (d) (n + 1) π
Q.27. The fringe width in a Young’s double slit experiment can
be increased if we decrease
(a) width of slits (b) separation of slits
(c) wavelength of light used (d) distance between slits and
screen
Q.28. In Young’s double slit experiment, one slit is covered with
red filter and another slit is covered by green filter, then
interference pattern will be
(a) red (b) green
(c) yellow (d) invisible
Q.29. Instead of using two slits, if we use two separate identical sodium lamps in
Young’s experiment, which of the following will occur?
(a) General illumination (b) Widely separate
interference
(c) Very bright maxima (d) Very dark minima
Q.30. Which of the following is not essential for two sources of light in Young’s
double slit experiment to produce a sustained interference?
(a) Equal wavelength (b) Equal intensity
(c) Constant phase relationship (d) Equal frequency
Q.31. In Young’s double slit experiment, the locus of the point P lying in a plane with
a constant path difference between the two interfering waves is
(a) a hyperbola (b) a straight line
(c) an ellipse (d) a parabola
Q.32. If the width of the slit in single slit diffraction experiment is doubled, then the
central maximum of diffraction pattern becomes
(a) broader and brighter (b) sharper and brighter
(c) sharper and fainter (d) broader and fainter.

Physics/XII Page 108

 Q.33. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using beam of red. light what will happen,
if red light is replaced by the blue light?
(a) Bands disappear. (b) Bands become broader and farther
apart.
(c) No change will take place.(d) Diffraction bands become narrow and crowded
together.
Q.34. When monochromatic light is replaced by white light in Fresnel’s biprism
arrangement, the central fringe is
(a) coloured (b) white
(c) dark (d) None of these
Q.35. The condition for observing Fraunhoffer diffraction from a single slit is that the
light wavefront incident on the slit should be
(a) spherical (b) cylindrical
(c) plane (d) elliptical
Q.36. The phenomenon of diffraction can be treated as interference phenomenon if
the number of coherent sources is
(a) one (b) two
(c) zero (d) infinity
Q.37. The diffraction effects in a microscopic specimen become important when the
separation between two points is
(a) much greater than the wavelength of light used.
(b) much less than the wavelength of light used.
(c) comparable to the wavelength of light used.
(d) independent of the wavelength of light used.
Q.38. What is the Brewester’s angle for air to glass transition?( μ ag = 1.5)
(a) tan (1.5) (b) sin (1.5)
–1
(c) sin (1.5) (d) tan–1 (1.5)
Q.39. When ordinary light is made incident on a quarter wave plate, the emergent
light is
(a) linearly polarised (b) circulary polarised
(c) unpolarised (d) elliptically polarised
Q.40. Transverse nature of light was confirmed by the phenomenon of
(a) refraction of light (b) diffraction of light
(c) dispersion of light (d) polarization of light
Q.41. In the case of linearly polarized light, the magnitude of the electric field vector
(a) is parallel to the direction of propagation (b) does not changes with
time
(c) increases linearly with time (d) varies periodically
with time
Q.42. Unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass surface The angle of incidence so
that reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, them
(a) tan iβ = μ/2 (b) tan iβ = μ
(c) sin iβ = μ (d) cos iβ = μ
Q.43. Light waves can be polarised because they
(a) have high frequencies (b) have short wavelength
(c) are transverse (d) can be reflected
Q.44. Light transmitted by nicol prism is
(a) unpolarised (b) plane polarised
(c) circularly polarised (d) elliptically polarized
Q.45. Optically active substances are those substances which
(a) produces polarised light (b) produces double refraction
(c) rotate the plane of polarisation of polarised light
Physics/XII Page 109
 (d) converts a plane polarised light into circularly polarised light.
Q.46. Polaroid glass is used in sun glasses because
(a) it reduces the light intensity to half on account of polarisation (b) it is
fashionable
(c) it has good colour (d) it is cheaper.
Q.47. In the propagation of light waves, the angle between the plane of vibration and
plane of polarisation is
(a) 0º (b) 90º
(c) 45º (d) 80º
Q.48. In the propagation of electromagnetic waves, the angle between the direction of
propagation and plane of polarisation is
(a) 0º (b) 45º
(c) 90º (d) 180º
Q.49. When unpolarised light is incident on a plane glass plate at Brewster’s angle,
then which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised with their planes of
polarization parallel to each other
(b) Reflected and refracted rays are completely polarised with their planes of
polarization perpendicular to each other
(c) Reflected light is plane polarised but transmitted light is partially polarised
(d) Reflected light is partially polarised but refracted light is plane polarised
Q.50. From Brewster’s law of polarisation, it follows that the anlge of polarisation
depends upon
(a) the wavelength of light (b) plane of polarisation’s orientation
(c) plane of vibration’s orientation (d) None of these

Physics/XII Page 110

 CHAPTER-11
Dual Nature Of Matter And Radiations
1 Mark Questions
1. Define intensity of radiation on the basis of photon picture of light. Write its SI
unit.
2.The graph shows the variation of stopping potential with frequency of incident
radiation for two photosensitive metals A and B. Which one of the two has higher
value of work-function? Justify your answer.

3.The graph shows variation of stopping potential V0 versus frequency of incident

radiation v for two photosensitive metals A and Which one of the two metals has
higher threshold frequency and why?

4.In photoelectric effect, why should the photoelectric current increase as the intensity
of monochromatic radiation incident on a photosensitive surface is increased?
Explain.
5.The given graph shows the variation of photoelectric current (I) versus applied
voltage (V) for two different photosensitive materials and for two different intensities
of the incident radiations. Identify the pairs of curves that corresponds to different
materials but same intensity of incident radiation.

6.Show on a plot the nature of variation of photoelectric current with the intensity of
radiation incident on a photosensitive surface.
7.Define intensity of radiation in photon picture of light.
8.Define the term stopping potential in relation to photoelectric effect.
9.Show the variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different
frequencies but same intensity of incident radiation.
Physics/XII Page 111
 10.Show the variation of photocurrent with collector plate potential for different
intensities but same frequency of incident radiation.
11.The stopping potential in an experiment on photoelectric effect is 1.5 V. What is
the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted?
12.The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is 3eV. What is its stopping
potential?
13.The stopping potential in an experiment on photoelectric effect is 2 V. What is the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted?
14.The figure shows a plot of three curves a, b, c showing the variation of
photocurrent vs collector plate potential for three different intensities I 1, I2 and
I3 having frequencies v1 v2 and v3, respectively incident on a photosensitive surface.

15.Write the expression for the de-Broglie wavelength associated with a charged
particle having charge q and mass m, when it is accelerated by a potential.
16.State de-Broglie hypothesis.
17.A proton and an electron have same kinetic energy. Which one has greater de-
Broglie wavelength and why?
18.Write the relationship of de-Broglie wavelength X associated with a particle of
mass m in terms of its kinetic energy E .
19.Show graphically, the variation of de-Broglie wavelength (A,) with the potential
(V) through which an electron is accelerated from rest.
20.Name an experiment which shows wave nature of the electron. Which
phenomenon was observed in this experiment using an electron beam?
21.An electron and a-particle have the same kinetic energy. How are the de-Broglie
wavelengths associated with them related?

2 Marks Questions
22.(i) Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0×1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The
power emitted is 2.0 x 103 W. Estimate the number of photons emitted per second on
an average by the source.
(ii) Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current versus the intensity of
incident radiation on a given photosensitive surface.
23.(i) Monochromatic light of frequency 5.0 x 1014 Hz is produced by laser. The
power emitted is 3.0 x 10′3 W. Estimate the number of photons emitted per second on
an average by the source.
(ii) Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current versus the intensity of
incident radiation on a given photosensitive surface.
24.Write three basic properties of photons which are used to obtain Einstein’s
photoelectric equation. Use this equation to draw a plot of maximum kinetic energy of
the electrons emitted versus frequency of incident radiation.
25. (i) Define the term stopping potential.
(ii) Plot a graph showing the variation of photoelectric current as a function of
anode potential for two light beams of same intensity but of
different frequencies v1 and v2(v2 > v1).
Physics/XII Page 112
 26.(i)Define the term threshold frequency as used in photoelectric effect.
(ii) Plot a graph showing the variation of photoelectric current as a function of
anode potential for two light beams having the same frequency but
different intensities and I2 > I2 )•
27.Two monochromatic radiations of frequencies v2 and v2(v1 >v2) and having the
same intensity are in turn, incident on a photosensitive surface to cause photoelectric
emission. Explain giving reason in which case (i) more number of electrons will be
emitted and (ii) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons will be more.
28.Two monochromatic radiations, blue and violet of the same intensity are incident
on a photosensitive surface and cause photoelectric emission. Would (i) the number of
electrons emitted per second and (ii) the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons be
equal in the two cases? Justify your answer.
29.Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly the three salient features
observed in photoelectric effect which can be explained on the basis of above
equation.
30.Plot a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with the frequency of
incident radiation for two different photosensitive materials having work-functions
and W2 (W1> W2). On what factors does the

 slope and
 intercept of the lines depend?
32.Figure shows variation of stopping potential (V 0) with the frequency (v) for two

photosensitive materials M1 and M2.

(i) Why is the slope same for both lines?
(ii) For which material will the emitted electrons have greater kinetic energy for the
incident radiation of the same frequency? Justify your answer.
33.The given graph shows variation of photoelectric current with collector plate
potential for different frequencies of incident radiation.
(i) Which physical parameter is kept constant for the three curves?
(ii) Which frequency (v1 ,v2 or v3) is the highest?

34.Plot a graph showing variation of stopping potential (V 0) with the frequency (v) of
the incident radiation for a given photosensitive material. Hence, state the significance
Physics/XII Page 113
 of the threshold frequency in photoelectric emission. Using the principle of energy
conservation, write the equation relating the energy of incident photon, threshold
frequency and the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons
35.Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation relating the maximum kinetic energy of the
emitted electron to the frequency of the radiation incident on a photosensitive surface.
State clearly the basic elementary process involved in photoelectric effect.

36.Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. Explain the terms:

 threshold frequency and

 stopping potential.
37.Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation in terms of the stopping potential and the
threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material. Draw a plot showing the
variation of stopping potential versus the frequency of incident radiation.
38. A proton and a deuteron are accelerated through the same accelerating potential.
Which one of the two has

 greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it and

 less momentum? Give reasons to justify your answer.
39. A deuteron and an a-particle are accelerated with the same accelerating potential.
Which one of the two has

 greater value of de-Broglie wavelength, associated with it and

 less kinetic energy? Explain.
40.X-rays fall on a photosensitive surface to cause photoelectric emission. Assuming
that the work-function of the surface can be neglected, find the relation between the
de-Broglie wavelength (A,) of the electrons emitted to the energy (E v) of the incident
photons. Draw of the graph for A, as function of E v.
41. An electron is revolving around the nucleus with a constant speed of 2.2 xlO 8 m/s.
Find the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it.
42. An a-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by the same potential. Find
the ratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths.
43. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V. What is the de-
Broglie wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum
does this value of wavelength correspond?
44. An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 144 V. What is the
de-Broglie wavelength associated with it? To which part of electromagnetic spectrum
does this wavelength correspond?
45.An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 64 V What is the de-
Broglie wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum
does this value of wavelength correspond?
46.Find the ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with

 protons, accelerated through a potential of 128 V and

 a-particles, accelerated through a potential of 64 V.
47.The ratio between the de-Broglie wavelengths associated with protons, accelerated
through a potential of 512 V and a-particles, accelerated through a potential of X volt
is found to be one. Find the value of X.
48.Derive an expression for the de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron
accelerated through a potential V. Draw a schematic diagram of a localised wave
describing the wave nature of the moving electron.

Physics/XII Page 114

 49.Calculate the ratio of the accelerating potential required to accelerate a proton and
an cx- article to have the same de-Broglie wavelength associated with them.
50.Calculate the ratio of the accelerating potential required to accelerate a deuteron
and an a-particle to have the same de-Broglie wavelength associated with them.
(Given, mass of deuteron = 3.2 x 1CT 27 kg)
51.Crystal diffraction experiments can be performed either by using electrons
accelerated through appropriate voltage or by using X-rays. If the wavelength of these
probes (electrons or X-rays) is 1 A, estimate which of the two has greater energy.
52.In Davisson-Germer experiment, state the observations which led to

 show the wave nature of electrons and

 confirm the de-Broglie relation.
53.For what kinetic energy of a neutron will the associated de-Broglie wavelength be
1.32 x 10-10 m?
54.An electron and a-particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength with them. How
are their kinetic energies related to each other?
55.For what kinetic energy of a neutron, will the associated de-Broglie wavelength
be 1.32 x 10_1° m? Given that the mass of a neutron = 1.675 xlO-27 kg.
3 Marks Questions
56.An electron microscope uses electrons accelerated by a voltage of 50 kV.
Determine the de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electrons. Taking other
factors, such as numerical aperture, etc., to be same, how does the resolving power of
an electron microscope compare with that of an optical microscope which uses
yellow light?
57.(i) Describe briefly how the Davission-Germer experiment demonstrated the wave
nature of electrons.
(ii) An electron is accelerated from rest through a potential V, obtain the expression
for the de-Broglie wavelength associated with it.
60.Determine the de-Broglie wavelength of a proton whose kinetic energy is equal to
the rest mass energy of an electron. Mass of a proton 1836 times that of electron, (ii)
In which region of electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength lie?
61.The mass of a particle moving with velocity 5 x 106 m/s has de-Broglie
wavelength associated with it to be 0.135 nm. Calculate its mass.
(ii) In which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength lie?
62.An electron and a photon each have a wavelength lnm. Find

 their momenta
 the energy of the photon and
 the kinetic energy of electron.
63.A proton and an a-particle are accelerated through the same potential. Which of the
two has ‘

 greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it and

 less kinetic energy? Justify your answer.
64.An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential. Which one of
the two has

 greater value of de-Broglie wavelength associated with it and

 less momentum? Justify your answer.
65.(i) Why photoelectric effect cannot be explained on the basis of wave nature of
light? Give reasons.

Physics/XII Page 115

 (ii) Write the basic features of photon picture of electromagnetic radiation on which
Einstein’s photoelectric equation is based.
66.Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation and point out any two characteristic
properties of photons on which this equation is based. Briefly explain three observed
features which can be explained by this equation.
67.(i) State three important properties of photons which describe the particle picture
of electromagnetic radiation.(ii) Use Einstein’s photoelectric equation to define the
terms :

 Stopping potential and

 Threshold frequency.

68.Write two characteristic features observed in photoelectric effect which supports

the photon pictures of electromagnetic radiation. Draw a graph between the frequency
of incident radiation (v) and the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted
from the surface of a photosensitive material. State clearly how this graph can be used
to determine the
 (i) Planck constant and (ii) work-function of the material?
69.Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly how this equation is obtained
using the photon picture of electromagnetic radiation. Write the three salient features
observed in photoelectric effect which can be explained using this equation.
70.Define the terms cut-off voltage and threshold frequency in relation to the
phenomenon of photoelectric effect. Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation show
how the cut-off voltage and threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material
can be determined with the help of a suitable plot/graph.
71.Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current with collector plate
potential for two different frequencies, v2 >v1 of incident radiation having the same
intensity. In which case will the stopping potential be higher? Justify your answer.

72.(i) Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2271 A from a 100 W mercury source is

incident on a photocell made of molybdenum metal. If the stopping potential is 13 V,
estimate the work-function of the metal.
(ii) How would the photocell respond to high intensity? (10 5W/m2) red light of
wavelength 6328 A produced by a He-Ne laser?
73.Define the terms threshold frequency and stopping potential in the study of
photoelectric emission. Explain briefly the reasons why wave theory of light is not
able to explain the observed features in photoelectric effect?
74.The following graph shows the variation of stopping potential, V 0 with the
frequency v of the incident radiation for two photosensitive metals, X and Y:

 Which of the metals has larger threshold wavelength? Give reason.

 Explain giving reason, which metal gives out electrons having larger kinetic
energy. For the same wavelength of the incident radiation.
 If the distance between light source and metal X is halved, how will the kinetic
energy of electrons emitted from it change? Give reason.

Physics/XII Page 116

 Case Study Questions:
Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
According to wave theory of light, the light of any frequency can emit electrons from
metallic surface provided the intensity of light be sufficient to provide necessary
energy for emission of electrons, but according to experimental observations, the light
of frequency less than threshold frequency can not emit electrons; whatever be the
intensity of incident light. Einstein also proposed that electromagnetic radiation is
quantised. If photoelectrons are ejected from a surface when light of wavelength λ 1 =
550 nm is incident on it. The stopping potential for such electrons is V s =0.19 .
Suppose the radiation of wavelength λ2 = 190 nm is incident on the surface.
(i) Photoelectric effect supports quantum nature of light because
(A) there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photoelectrons are emitted.
(B) the maximum K.E. of photoelectric depends only on the frequency of light and
not on its intensity.
(C) even when the metal surface is faintly illuminated, the photo electrons leave the
surface immediately.
(D) electric charge of the photoelectrons is quantized.
(a) A, B, C (c) C, D
(b) B, C (d) A, D, C
(ii) In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals, if the incident light has a
certain minimum
(a) wavelength (c) amplitude
(b) frequency (d) angle of incidence
(iii) Calculate the stopping potential V s2 of surface.
(a) 4.47 (c) 2.76
(b) 3.16 (d) 5.28
(iv) Calculate the work function of the surface.
(a) 3.75 (c) 4.20
(b) 2.07 (d) 3.60
(v) Calculate the threshold frequency for the surface.
(a) 500 x 1012 Hz (c) 520 x 1011 Hz
13
(b) 480 x 10 Hz (d) 460 x 1013 Hz
Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
Q.1. Assertion : In process of photoelectric emission, all emitted electrons do not
have same kinetic energy.
Reason : If radiation falling on photosensitive surface of a metal consists of different
wavelength then energy acquired by electrons absorbing photons of different
wavelengths shall be different.
Q.2. Assertion : Though light of a single frequency (monochromatic) is incident on a
metal, the energies of
emitted photoelectrons are different.
Reason : The energy of electrons emitted from inside the metal surface, is lost in
collision with the other atoms in the metal.
Q.3. Assertion : The photoelectrons produced by a monochromatic light beam
incident on a metal surface have a spread in their kinetic energies.
Reason : The work function of the metal is its characteristics property.
Q.4. Assertion : Photoelectric saturation current increases with the increase in
frequency of incident light.
Reason : Energy of incident photons increases with increase in frequency and as a
result photoelectric current increases.

Physics/XII Page 117

 Q.5. Assertion : Photosensitivity of a metal is high if its work function is small.
Reason : Work function = hf0 where f0 is the threshold frequency.
Q.6. Assertion : The photon behaves like a particle.
Reason : If E and P are the energy and momentum of the photon, then p = E / c .
Q.7. Assertion : In an experiment on photoelectric effect, a photon is incident on an
electron from one direction and the photoelectron is emitted almost in the opposite
direction. It violate the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
Reason : It does not violate the principle of conservation of linear momentum.
Q.9. Assertion : Two sources of equal intensity always emit equal number of photons
in any time interval.
Reason : Two sources of equal intensity may emit equal number of photons in any
time interval.
Q.10. Assertion : Two photons of equal wavelength must have equal linear
momentum.
Reason : Two photons of equal linear momentum will have equal wavelength.
Q.11. Assertion : The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from metal surface
does not depend on the intensity of incident photon.
Reason : The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is not possible with
frequency of incident photons below the threshold frequency.
Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
Q.1. Cathode ray consists of
(a) photons (b) electrons
(c) protons (d) α-particles
Q.2. A discharge takes place between the two electrodes on applying the electric field
to the gas in the discharge tube. The cause of this fluorescence was attributed to
(a) the radiations which appeared to be coming from the anode
(b) the radiation which appeared to be coming from the cathode
(c) the protons coming from the cathode
(d) the protons coming from the anode
Q.3. The presently accepted value of charge/mass (e/m) is
(a) 1.66 x 10–19 c/kg (b) 9.1 x 1011 c/kg
(c) 1.76 x 1011 c/kg (d) 9.1 x 1019 c/kg
Q.4. In which of the following, emission of electrons does not take place?
(a) Thermionic emission (b) X-rays emission
(c) Photoelectric emission (d) Secondary emission
Q.5. Photoelectric emission occurs only when the incident light has more than a
certain minimum
(a) power (b) wavelength
(c) intensity (d) frequency
Q.6. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit photoelectrons ?
(a) UV radiations (b) Infrared radiation
(c ) Radio waves (d) Microwaves
Q.7. Particle like behavior of light arises from the fact that each quanta of light has
definite …X… and a fixed value of …Y.. just like a particle, Here, X and Y refer to
(a) frequency, energy (b) shape, volume
(c) energy, frequency (d) energy, momentum
Q.8. The wave nature of light was established by (i) Maxwell’s equations (ii)
Fraunhoffer’s lines (iii) Hertz experiment (iv) Einstein’s theory
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (iii) and (iv) only

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 Q.9. The work-function of a metal is
(a) the minimum current required to take out electron from the metal surface
(b) the maximum frequency required to take out electron from the metal surface
(c) the minimum amount of energy required to take out the electron from the metal
surface
(d) None of these
Q.10. The work function of a metal is independent of
(i) nature of the surface of the metal
(ii) dimensions of the metal
(iii) properties of the metal
(iv) abundance of the metal
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
Q.11. The theory of quantisation of electric charge was given by
(a) William Crookes (b) J. J. Thomson
(c) R.A. Millikan (d) Wilhelm Hallwachs
Q.12. In photoelectric effect, electrons are ejected from metals, if the incident light
has a certain minimum
(a) wavelength (b) frequency
(c) amplitude (d) angle of incidence
Q.13. Which of the following metals is not sensitive to visible light?
(a) Caesium (b) Sodium
(c) Rubidium (d) Cadmium
Q.14. A photosensitive substance emits _____when illuminated by light.
(a) only protons (b) only neutrons
(c) electrons and protons (d) only electrons
Q.15. The photoelectric current does not depend upon the
(i) frequency of incident light
(ii) work function of the metal
(iii) stopping potential
(iv) intensity of incident light
(a) (i) and (iv) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (iii) only (d) (ii) only
Q.16. The stopping potential is directly related to
(a) the work function of the metal
(b) intensity of incident radiation
(c) the saturation current for the given frequency
(d) the kinetic energy gained by the photoelectrons
Q.17. The wave theory of light does not explain
(a) polarisation (b) diffraction
(c) photocurrent (d) interference
Q.18. Photoelectric effect can be explained by
(a) wave theory of light (b) Bohr’s theory
(c) quantum theory of light (d) corpuscular theory of light
Q.19. In Einstein’s picture of Photoelectric emission, the photoelectric emission does
not take place by
(a) continuous emission of energy from radiation
(b) continuous absorption of energy from radiation
(c) discrete absorption of energy from radiation
(d) discrete emission of energy from radiation

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 Q.20. The particle nature of light is not confirmed by
(a) photoelectric effect (b) scattering of X-rays by electrons
(c) diffraction of electrons (d) Compton effect
Q.21. Photons are deflected by
(a) electric field only (b) magnetic field only
(c) electromagnetic field (d) None of these
Q.22. Electrically, photons are
(a) positively charged (b) negatively charged
(c) neutral (d) strongly charged, may be positive or
negative
Q.23. In a photon-particle collision, the quantity that does not remain conserved is
(a) total energy (b) total momentum
(c) number of photons (d) None of these
Q.24. Of the following properties, the photon does not possess
(a) rest mass (b) momentum
(c) energy (d) frequency
Q.25. It is essential to consider light as a stream of photons to explain
(a) diffraction of light (b) refraction of light
(c) photoelectric effect (d) reflection of light
Q,26. Photoelectric effect was discovered by
(a) Hertz (b) Hallwachs
(c) Lenard (d) Millikan
Q.27. The momentum of a photon of wavelength λ is
(a) hλ (b) h/λ
(c) λ/h (d) h/cλ
Q.28. The photo-electrons emitted from a metal surface are such that their velocity
(a) is zero for all (b) is same for all
(c) lies between zero and infinity (d) lies between zero and a finite
maximum
Q.29. Photoelectric effect shows
(a) wave like behaviour of light (b) paritcle like behaviour of light
(c) both wavelike and paticle like behaviour (d) neither wave like nor particle like
behaviour of light
Q.30. A photoelectric cell converts
(a) light energy into heat energy (b) light energy to sound energy
(c) light energy into electric energy (d) electric energy into light energy
Q.31. Light of a particular frequency 􀁉 is incident on a metal surface. When the
intensity of incident radiation is increased, the photoelectric current
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains unchanged (d) sometimes increases and sometimes
decreases
Q.32. The photoelectric effect is based on the law of conservation of
(a) momentum (b) energy
(c) angular momentum (d) mass
Q.33. The photoelectric effect can be understood on the basis of
(a) wave theroy of light only (b) electromagnetic theory of light only
(c) quantum theory of light only (d) None of these
Q.34. When light is incident on a metal surface the maximum kinetic energy of
emitted electrons
(a) vary with intensity of light (b) vary with frequency of light
(c) vary with speed of light (d) vary irregularly

Physics/XII Page 120

 Q.35. The maximum energy of electrons released in a photocell is independent of
(a) the frequency of the incident light (b) the intensity of the incident
light
(c) the nature of the cathode (d) All of the above
Q.36. Einstein’s photoelectric equation states that hν = W0 + Ek.In this equating,
Ek refers to the
(a) kinetic energy of all the emitted electrons
(b) mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(c) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(d) minimum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
Q.37. In the photoelectric effect, electrons are emitted
(a) at a rate that is proportional to the amplitude of the incident radiation
(b) with a maximum velocity proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation
(c) at a rate that is independent of the emitter
(d) only if the frequency of the incident radiations is above a certain threshold value
Q.38. The minimum energy required to eject an electron, from the metal surface is
called
(a) atomic energy (b) mechanical energy
(c) electrical energy (d) work function
Q.39. The work function for photoelectric effect
(a) is different for different metals (b) is same for all metals
(c) depends upon the intensity of incident light (d) depends upon the frequency
of incident light
Q.40. Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon in which
(a) photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of electrons.
(b) photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the action of an electric field.
(c) electrons come out of a metal with a constant velocity
(d) which depends on the frequency and intensity of incident light wave.
Q.41. A photoelectric cell is a device which
(a) converts light into electricity (b) converts electricity into light
(c) stores light (d) stores electricity
Q.42. Which of the following shows particle nature of light?
(a) Refraction (b) Interference
(c) Polarization (d) Photoelectric effect

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 CHAPTER-12
Atom
1.The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and
potential energies of electron in this state?
2. When is Ha-line of the Balmer series in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atom
obtained?
3.Why is the classical (Rutherford) model for an atom of electron orbitting around the
nucleus not able to explain the atomic Structure?
4.Define ionization energy. What is its value for a hydrogen atoms?
5.Find the ratio of energies of photons produced due to transition of an electron of
hydrogen atom from its

 second permitted energy level to the first permitted level and

 the highest permitted energy level to the first permitted level.

6.What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground
state, in a hydrogen atom?

7.The radius of innermost electron orbit of a hydrogen atom is 5.3x 10-11 What is the
radius of orbit in the second excited state?

8.Write the expression for Bohr’s radius in hydrogen atom.

9.State Bohr’s Quantisation condition for defining stationary orbits.

10.In the Rutherford scattering experiment, the distance of closest approach for an a-
particle is do. If a-particle is replaced by a proton, then how much kinetic energy in
comparison to a-particle will be required to have the same distance of Closest
approach do ?

11. An electron, a-particle and a proton have the same de-Broglie

wavelength. Which of these particles has (i) minimum kinetic energy, (ii) maximum
kinetic energy, and why ?In what way has the wave nature of electron been exploited
in electron microscope?
12. Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron orbitting in the n52 state
of hydrogen atom.

13. What will be the ratio of radii of two nuclei of mass numbers A1 and A2?
𝛼 𝛽
14. The sequence is represented as 𝐷 → 𝐷1 → 𝐷2 if the mass numbers and atomic
numbers of D2 are 176 and 71 respectively, what is the mass number and atomic
number of D.
15. The wavelength of some of the spectral lines obtained in hydrogen spectrum
are 9546 A, 6463 A, 1216 A. which one of these wavelengths belongs to Lymann
series.
16. Why do α particles have high ionizing power?
17. What happens to the neutron to proton ratio after the emission of alpha particles?
18. Define impact parameter.
19. What is the ratio of nuclear densities of two nuclei having mass number 1:4?

Physics/XII Page 122

 20. Assuming the nuclei to be spherical in shape how does the surface area of nucleus
of mass number A1 vary with that of nucleus of mass number A2 ?
21. Radioactive isotope of silver has half-life of 20 minutes. What fraction of the
original mass would remain after one hour?
22. Group the following four nuclides into two pairs of isotones and isobars.
3 198 3 197
2𝐻𝑒 , 80𝐻𝑔 , 1𝐻 , 79𝐴𝑢
23. Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy between the pair of
nucleons as the function of their separation. Indicate the regions in which the
nuclear force is attractive and repulsive.
24. Calculate the radius of the smallest orbit of hydrogen atom.
25. Calculate the frequency of the photon which can excite an electron to -3.4 eV from
-13.6 eV.
26. You are given two nuclei 73𝑋 𝑎𝑛𝑑 43𝑌 , explain giving reasons as to which one of the
nuclei is likely to be more stable.
27. Show that the speed of the electron in the second orbit of hydrogen like atom He +
is equal to speed of an electron in the hydrogen atom.
28. What are the limitations of Bohr atomic model?
29. The energy levels of an element X are shown in the figure. A hoton of wavelength
620 nm is emitted and this corresponds to which of the transition A, B, C, D or E?
0 A B C

-1 eV D
E

-3 eV

30. Calculate the speed of electron revolving around the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in
order that it may not be pulled into the nucleus by electrostatic attraction.
-10 eV
31. What is the distance of closest approach and derive an expression for the same?
32. Draw a labeled diagram of Geiger – Marsden experiment on th scattering of α
particles. How is the size of the nucleus estimated based on the experiment?
33. Derive an expression for the potential and kinetic energy of an electron in any orbit
of a hydrogen atom. How does the potential energy change with increasing n?
34. Show that Bohr’s second postulate “The electron revolves around the nucleus only
in certain fixed orbits without radiating energy” can be explained on the basis of de
– Broglie hypothesis of wave nature of electron.
35. Calculate the longest and shortest wavelength in the Blamer series of hydrogen
spectrum. Given R= 1.0987 x 107/m.
36. Calculate the binding energy per nucleon in the case of 5626𝐹𝑒 . Given mass of
proton = 1.007825 amu. Mass of neutron = 1.00865 amu, mass of the 56 26𝐹𝑒 nucleus is
55.934939 amu.
37. State and explain the laws of radioactive disintegration and hence define
disintegration constant and half-life period. Establish the relation between them.
38. Plot a graph between mass number and average binding energy per nucleon
and hence explain the energy released in the process of nuclear fission and fusion.
39. State the basic postulates Bohr’s atom model. Obtain the relation for the
frequency of spectral lines emitted from hydrogen atom.
40. Which of the following radiations are α β and γ rays. Similar to X raysEasily
absorbed by the matter Travel with greatest speed. Similar in nature to cathode rays
After two hours 1/16 th of initial amount of certain radioactive isotope remains
undecayed. What is the half-life of the isotope?
Physics/XII Page 123
 41. If 200 MeV energy is released in the fission of single nucleus of 235
92𝑈 , how
many fissions must occur to produce a power of 1 kW. What are the functions of
moderator and control rods in nuclear reactor? Give an example for each.

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:

Chapter : 12 Atoms
The spectral series of hydrogen atom were accounted for by Bohr using the relation

where, R=Rydberg constant = 1.097 x 107 m-1

Lyman series is obtained when an electron jumps to first orbit from any subsequent
orbit. Similarly, Balmer series is obtained when an electron jumps to 2 nd orbit from
any subsequent orbit. Paschen series is obtained when an electron jumps to 3rd orbit
from any subsequent orbit. Whereas Lyman series in U.V. region, Balmer series is in
visible region and Paschen series lies in infrared region. Series limit is obtained when
n2=∞.
(i) The wavelength of first spectral line of Lyman series is
(a) 1215.4 A0 (c) 1215.4 m
(b) 1215.4 cm (d) 1215. 4 mm
(ii) The wavelength limit of Lyman series is
(a) 1215.4 A0 (c) 951.6 A0
0
(b) 511.9 A (d) 911.6 A0
(iii) The frequency of first spectral line of Balmer series is
(a) 1.097 x 107 Hz (c) 4.57 x 1015 Hz
(b) 4.57 x 1014 Hz (d) 4.57 x 1016 Hz
(iv) Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atom emit photon of highest
frequency?
(a) n=1 to n=2 (c) n=6 to n=2
(b) n=2 to n=6 (d) n=2 to n=1
(v) The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in Balmer series is
(a) 5 : 9 (c) 1 : 4
(b) 5 : 36 (d) 3 : 4
Chapter 12 Atoms
Q.1. Balmer series lies in which spectrum?
(a) visible (b) ultraviolet
(c) infrared (d) partially visible, partially infrared
Q.2. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, let P.E. represents potential energy and T.E.
represents the total energy. In going to a higher level.
(a) P. E. decreases, T.E. increases (b) P. E. increases, T.E. decreases
(c) P. E. decreases, T.E. decreases (d) P. E. increases, T.E. increases
Q.3. Which of the following statements is correct in case of Thomson’s atomic
model?
(a) It explains the phenomenon of thermionic emission, photoelectric emission and
ionisation.
(b) It could not explain emission of line spectra by elements.
(c) It could not explain scattering of 􀁉-particles
(d) All of the above
Q.4. Which one did Rutherford consider to be supported by the results of experiments
in which α-particles were scattered by gold foil?

Physics/XII Page 124

 (a) The nucleus of an atom is held together by forces which are much stronger than
electrical or gravitational forces.
(b) The force of repulsion between an atomic nucleus and an α-particle varies with
distance according to inverse square law.
(c) α-particles are nuclei of Helium atoms.
(d) Atoms can exist with a series of discrete energy levels
Q.5. According to the Rutherford’s atomic model, the electrons inside the atom are
(a) stationary (b) not stationary
(c) centralized (d) None of these
Q.6. According to classical theory, the circular path of an electron in Rutherford atom
model is
(a) spiral (b) circular
(c) parabolic (d) straight line
Q.7. Rutherford’s α-particle experiment showed that the atoms have
(a) Proton (b) Nucleus
(c) Neutron (d) Electrons
Q.8. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
(a) coulomb’s force (b) nuclear force
(c) vanderwaal’s force (d) gravitational force
Q.9. The Rutherford α-particle experiment shows that most of the α-particles pass
through almost unscattered while some are scattered through large angles. What
information does
(a) Atom is hollow.
(b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated in a small
centre called nucleus
(c) Nucleus is positively charged
(d) All of the above
Q.10. In Rutherford’s α -particle scattering experiment, what will be correct angle for
α scattering for an impact parameter b = 0 ?
(a) 90º (b) 270º
(c) 0º (d) 180º
Q.11. In the ground state in …A… electrons are in stable equilibrium while in …B…
electrons always experiences a net force. Here, A and B refer to
(a) Dalton’s theory, Rutherford model
(b) Rutherford’s model, Bohr’s model
(c) Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model
(d) Rutherford’s model, Thomson’s model
Q.12. The significant result deduced from the Rutherford’s scattering experiment is
that
(a) whole of the positive charge is concentrated at the centre of atom
(b) there are neutrons inside the nucleus
(c) α-particles are helium nuclei
(d) electrons are embedded in the atom
Q.13. Electrons in the atom are held to the nucleus by
(a) coulomb’s force (b) nuclear force
(c) vanderwaal’s force (d) gravitational force
Q.14. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile ofcharge Z1 and mass
M1 approaches a target nucleus ofcharge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest
approach
is r0. The energy of the projectile is
(a) directly proportional to Z1 Z2 (b) inversely proportional to Z1
(c) directly proportional to mass M1 (d) directly proportional to M1 × M2
Physics/XII Page 125
 Q.15. According to classical theory, Rutherford’s atomic model is
(a) stable (b) unstable
(c) meta stable (d) both (a) and (b)
Q.16. Rutherford’s atomic model was unstable because
(a) nuclei will break down (b) electrons do not remain in orbit
(c) orbiting electrons radiate energy (d) electrons are repelled by the nucleus
Q.17. The electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected to lose energy because,
they
(a) move randomly (b) jump on nucleus
(c) radiate electromagnetic waves (d) escape from the atom
Q.18. As one considers orbits with higher values of n in a hydrogen atom, the electric
potential energy of the atom
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains the same (d) does not increase
Q.19. Which of the following parameters is the same for all hydrogen-like atoms and
ions in their ground states?
(a) Radius of the orbit (b) Speed of the electron
(c) Energy of the atom (d) Orbital angular momentum of the electron
Q.20. The angular speed of the electron in the nth orbit of Bohr hydrogen atom is
(a) directly proportional to n (b) inversely proportional to n
(c) inversely proportional to n2 (d) inversely proportional to n3
Q.21. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom
(a) the linear velocity of the electron is quantised.
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is quantised.
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is quantised.
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is quantised.
Q.22. As the quantum number increases, the difference of energy between
consecutive energy levels
(a) remain the same (b) increases
(c) decreases (d) sometimes increases and sometimes
decreases.
Q.23. Which of the following in a hydrogen atom is independent of the principal
quantum number n? (The symbols have their usual meanings).
(a) νn (b) Er
(c) En (d) νr
Q.24. According to the Bohr theory of H-atom, the speed of theelectron, its energy
and the radius of its orbit varies withthe principal quantum number n, respectively, as
(a) 1/n, n2, 1/n2 (b) n, 1/n2, n2
(c) n, 1/n2, 1/n2 (d) 1/n, 1/n2, 1/n2Answer
Q.25. In terms of Bohr radius r0, the radius of the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen
atom is given by
(a) 4 r0 (b) 8 r0
(c) √2 r0 (d) 2 r0
Q.26. When hydrogen atom is in its first excited level, it’s radius is
(a) four times, it ground state radius (b) twice times, it ground state radius
(c) same times, it ground state radius (d) half times, it ground state radius.
Q.27. The angular momentum of the electron in hydrogen atom in the ground state is
(a) 2h (b) h/2
(c) h/2π (d) h/4π
Q.28. When an atomic gas or vapour is excited at low pressure, by passing an electric
current through it then

Physics/XII Page 126

 (a) emission spectrum is observed (b) absorption spectrum is observed
(c) band spectrum is observed (d) both (b) and (c)
Q.29. The first spectral series was discovered by
(a) Balmer (b) Lyman
(c) Paschen (d) Pfund
Q.30. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit, one gets the
(a) second line of Paschen series (b) second line of Balmer series
(c) first line of Pfund series (d) second line of Lyman series
Q.31. The Balmer series for the H-atom can be observed
(a) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted when an excited atom falls to the
ground state
(b) if we measure the frequencies of light emitted due to transitions between excited
states and the first excited state
(c) in any transition in a H-atom
(d) None of these
Q.32. In Balmer series of emission spectrum of hydrogen, first four lines with
different wavelength Hα Hβ Hγ and Hδ are obtained. Which line has maximum
frequency out of these?
(a) Hα (b) Hβ
(c) Hγ (d) Hδ
Q.33. In which of the following series, does the 121.5 nm line of the spectrum of the
hydrogen atom lie ?
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series (d) Brackett series.
Q.34. Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the
visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series
(c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
Q.35. The shortest wavelength in Balmer’s series for Hydrogen atom is …A… and
this is obtained by substituting …B … in Balmer’s formula. Here, A and B refer to
(a) 656.3 nm, n = 3 (b) 486.1 nm, n = 4
(c) 410.2 nm, n = 5 (d) 364.6 nm, n = ∞
Q.36. As an electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a
hydrogen – like atom/ion
(a) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same
(b) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases
(c) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
(d) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease
Q.37. Which of the following series in the spectrum of hydrogen atom lies in the
visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum?
(a) Paschen series (b) Balmer series
(c) Lyman series (d) Brackett series
Q.38. In a hydrogen atom, which of the following electronic transitions would involve
the maximum energy change
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 1
(c) n = 4 to n = 2 (d) n = 3 to n = 2
Q.39. Hydrogen atom excites energy level from fundamental state to n = 3. Number
of spectral lines according to Bohr, is
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 1 (d) 2
Q.40. The transition from the state n = 4 to n = 3 in a hydrogen like atom results in
ultraviolet radiation. Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from
Physics/XII Page 127
 (a) 2 → 1 (b) 3 → 2
(c) 4 → 2 (d) 5 → 4
Q.41. For a given value of n, the number of electrons in an orbit is
(a) n (b) n2
(c) 2n2 (d) 2n
Q.42. Bohr’s atom model is the modification of Rutherford’s atom model by the
application of
(a) newton’s theory (b) huygen’s theory
(c) maxwell’s theory (d) planck’s quantum theory
Q.43. In Bohr’s model electrons are revolving in a circular orbits around the nucleus
called as
(a) stationary orbits (b) non radiating orbits
(c) Bohr’s orbits (d) all of these
Q.44. According to Bohr’s theory of H atom, an electron can revolve around a proton
indefinitely, if its path is
(a) a perfect circle of any radius (b) a circle of an allowed radius
(c) a circle of constantly decreasing radius (d) an ellipse with fixed focus
Q.45. According to Bohr the difference between the energies of the electron in the
two orbits is equal to
(a) hν (b) hc/λ
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a) nor (b)
Q.46. The angular momentum of electrons in an atom produces
(a) magnetic moment (b) ZEEMAN effect
(c) light (d) nuclear fission
Q.47. According to Planck’s quantum theory any electromagnetic radiation is
(a) continuously emitted (b) continuously absorbed
(c) emitted or absorbed in discrete units (d) None of these
Chapter 12 Atoms
Q.1. Assertion : The force of repulsion between atomic nucleus and α-particle varies
with distance according to inverse square law.
Reason : Rutherford did α-particle scattering experiment.
Q.2. Assertion : According to classical theory the proposed path of an electron in
Rutherford atom model will be parabolic.
Reason : According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated particle continuously
emits radiation.
Q.3. Assertion : Bohr had to postulate that the electrons in stationary orbits around
the nucleus do not radiate.
Reason: According to classical physics all moving electrons radiate.
Q.4. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces.
Reason : The atom is stable only because the centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law
is balanced by the centrifugal force.
Q.5. Assertion : Hydrogen atom consists of only one electron but its emission
spectrum has many lines.
Reason : Only Lyman series is found in the absorption spectrum of hydrogen atom
whereas in the emission
spectrum, all the series are found.
Q.6. Assertion : Between any two given energy levels, the number of absorption
transitions is always less than the number of emission transitions.
Reason : Absorption transitions start from the lowest energy level only and may end
at any higher energy level. But emission transitions may start from any higher energy
level and end at any energy level below it.

Physics/XII Page 128

 CHAPTER-13
Nuclei
1.Using the curve for the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number A,
state clearly how the release in energy in the processes of nuclear fission and nuclear
fusion can be explained.
2.Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their
separation. Write two important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature
of nuclear forces.
3.Draw a plot of the binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number for a
large number of nuclei 20 > A > 240 . How do you explain the constancy of binding
energy per nucleon in the range of 30<A<170 using the property that nuclear force is
short-ranged?
4.A heavy nucleus X of mass number 240 and binding energy per nucleon 7.6 MeV is
splitted into two fragments Y and Z of mass numbers 110 and 130. The binding
energy of nucleons in Y and Z is 8.5 MeV per nucleon. Calculate the energy released
per fission in MeV.
6.(i) The mass of a nucleus in its ground state is always less than the total mass of its
constituents neutrons and protons. Explain, (ii) Plot a graph showing the variation of
potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation.
8.Sketch a graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon as a function of
mass number A for large number of nuclei. State briefly from which region of the
graph can release of energy in the process of nuclear fusion be explained.
11.Draw a plot of potential energy between a pair of nucleons as a function of their
separation. Mark the regions where potential energy is
(i)positive and
(ii)negative.
12.Answer the following.
(i)Why is the binding energy per nucleon found to be constant for nuclei in the range
of mass number (A) lying between 30 and 170?
(ii)When a heavy nucleus with mass number A = 240 breaks into two nuclei, A = 120,
energy is released in the process.
14.(i)What characteristic property of nuclear force explains the constancy of binding
energy per nucleon (BE/A) in the range of mass number A lying 30 < A < 170?
(ii) Show that the density of nucleus over a wide range of nuclei is constant and
independent of mass number A.

Chapter 13 Nuclei
Q.1. Assertion : Density of all the nuclei is same.
Reason : Radius of nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of mass number.
Q.2. Assertion : Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.
Reason : Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.
Q.3. Assertion : The mass number of a nucleus is always less than its atomic number.
Reason : Mass number of a nucleus may be equal to its atomic number.

Physics/XII Page 129

 Q.4. Assertion : The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei with atomic mass number
A > 100, decrease with A.
Reason : The forces are weak for heavier nuclei.
Q.5. Assertion : Radioactivity of 108 undecayed radioactive nuclei of half-life of 50
days is equal to that of 1.2 × 108 number of undecayed nuclei of some other material
with half-life of 60 days.
Reason : Radioactivity is proportional to half-life.
Q.6. Assertion : The ionizing power of β-particle is less compared to β-particles but
their penetrating power is more.
Reason : The mass of β-particle is less than the mass of α- particle.
Q.7. Assertion : Radioactive nuclei emit β–1 particles.
Reason : Electrons exist inside the nucleus.
Q.8. Assertion : ZXA undergoes 2α, 2β- particles and 2γ-rays, the daughter product
is Z-2YA – 8.
Reason : In α- decay the mass number decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases
by 2. In β-decay the mass number remains unchanged, but atomic number increases
by 1.
Q.9. Assertion : The heavier nuclei tend to have larger N/Z ratio because neutron
does not exert electric force.
Reason : Coulomb forces have longer range compared to the nuclear force.
Q.10. Assertion : A free neutron decays to a proton but a free proton does not decay
to a neutron. This is because neutron is an uncharged particle and proton is a charged
particle.
Reason : Neutron has larger rest mass than the proton.
Q.11. Assertion : Cobalt-60 is useful in cancer therapy.
Reason : Cobalt -60 is source of γ- radiations capable of killing cancerous cells.
Q.12. Assertion : It is not possible to use 35Cl as the fuel for fusion energy.
Reason : The binding energy of 35Cl is to small.
Q.13. Assertion : Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light
nuclei undergo fusion.
Reason : For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon increases with increasing Z
while for light nuclei it decreases with increasing Z.

CHAPTER: 13 Nuclei
Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Neutrons and protons are identical particle in the sense that their masses are nearly the
same and the force, called nuclear force, does into distinguish them. Nuclear force is
the strongest force. Stability of nucleus is determined by the neutron proton ratio or
mass defect or packing fraction. Shape of nucleus is calculated by quadrupole
moment and spin of nucleus depends on even and odd mass number. Volume of
nucleus depends on the mass number. Whole mass of the atom (nearly 99%) is
centred at the nucleus.
(i) The correct statements about the nuclear force is/are
(a) charge independent (c) non-conservative force
(b) short range force (d) all of these
(ii) The range of nuclear force is the order of
(a) 2 x 10-10 m (c) 1.2 x 10-4 m
-20
(b) 1.5 x 10 m (d) 1.4 x 10-15 m
(iii) A force between two protons is same as the force between proton and
neutron. The nature of the force is
(a) electrical force (c) gravitational force
(b) weak nuclear force (d) strong nuclear force
Physics/XII Page 130
 (iv) two protons are kept at a separation of 40 A0. Fn is the nuclear force and Fe is
the electrostatic force between them. Then
(a) Fn <<Fe (c) Fn >> Fe
(b) Fn= Fe (d) Fn ≈ Fe
(v) All the nucleons in an atom are held by
(a) nuclear forces (c) tensor forces
(b) vanderwaal’s forces (d) coulomb forces

Chapter 13 Nuclei
Q.1. For a nuclear fusion process, suitable nuclei are
(a) any nuclei (b) heavy nuclei
(c) lighter nuclei (d) nuclei lying in the middle of periodic table
Q.2. In the uranium radioactive series, the initial nucleus is 92U238 and that the final
nucleus is 82Pb206. When uranium nucleus decays to lead, the number of α particles
and β particles
emitted are
(a) 8α, 6β (b) 6α, 7β
(c) 6α, 8β (d) 4α, 3β
Q.3. The nuclear radius is of the order of
(a) 10–10 m (b) 10–6 m
(c) 10–15 m (d) 10–14 m
Q.4. Particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atomwithout changing its
chemical properties are called
(a) neutrons (b) electrons
(c) protons (d) alpha particles
Q.5. The radius of a nucleus is
(a) directly proportional to its mass number
(b) inversely proportional to its atomic weight
(c) directly proportional to the cube root of its mass number
(d) None of these
Q.6. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of
(a) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(b) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
(c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(d) 11 protons and 13 electrons
Q.7. The electrons cannot exist inside the nucleus because
(a) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is much less than the
size of nucleus
(b) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is much greater than
the size of nucleus
(c) de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron in β -decay is equal to the size of
nucleus
(d) negative charge cannot exist in the nucleus
Q.8. In …X… water is circulated though the reactor vessel and transfers energy to
steam generator in the …Y… Here, X and Y refer to
(a) primary loop, secondary loop (b) reactor core, turbine
(c) secondary loop, primary loop (d) turbine, reactor core
Q.9. A nuclei having same number of neutron but different
number of protons / atomic number are called
(a) isobars (b) isomers
(c) isotones (d) isotopes
Physics/XII Page 131
 Q.10. Which one of the following has the identical property for isotopes?
(a) Physical property (b) Chemical property
(c) Nuclear property (d) Thermal property
Q.11. The number of protons in an atom of atomic number Zand mass number A is
(a) zero (b) Z
(c) A – Z (d) A
Q.12. When the number of nucleons in nuclei increases, thebinding energy per
nucleon
(a) increases continuously with mass number
(b) decreases continuously with mass number
(c) remains constant with mass number
(d) first increases and then decreases with increase of mass number
Q.13. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that of a neutron.A given nucleus, of
binding energy B, contains Z protonsand N neutrons. The mass M(N, Z) of the
nucleus is given
by (c is the velocity of light)
(a) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2 (b) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2
(c) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2 (d) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
Q.14. Mass energy equation was propounded by
(a) Newton (b) Madam Curie
(c) C. V. Raman (d) Einstein
Q.15. The mass of an atomic nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of its
constituents. This mass defect is converted into
(a) heat energy
(b) light energy
(c) electrical energy
(d) energy which binds nucleons together
Q.16. Which of the following statement is not true regardingEinsteins mass energy
relation?
(a) Mass disappears to reappear as energy.
(b) Energy disappears to reappear as mass.
(c) Mass and energy are two different forms of the same entity.
(d) Mass and energy can never be related to each other.
Q.17. The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of atomic mass number
has a sharp peak for helium nucleus. This implies that helium
(a) can easily be broken up
(b) is very stable
(c) can be used as fissionable material
(d) is radioactive
Q.18. Nuclear forces are
(a) spin dependent and have no non-central part
(b) spin dependent and have a non-central part
(c) spin independent and have no non-central part
(d) spin independent and have a non-central part
Q.19. Nuclear forces exists between
(a) neutron – neutron (b) proton – proton
(c) neutron – proton (d) all of these
Q.20. The antiparticle of electron is
(a) positron (b) α-particle
(c) proton (d) β-particle

Physics/XII Page 132

 Q.21. Neutron decay in free space is given as follows
0n → 1H + -1e + []
1 1 0

Then the parenthesis [ ] represents a

(a) neutrino (b) photon
(c) antineutrino (d) graviton
Q.22. Radioactivity is
(a) irreversible process (b) self disintegration process
(c) spontaneous (d) all of the above
Q.23. γ-rays are deflected by
(a) an electric field but not by a magnetic field
(b) a magnetic field but not by an electric field
(c) both electric and magnetic field
(d) neither by electric field nor by magnetic field
Q.24. Beta rays emitted by a radioactive material are
(a) electromagnetic radiations
(b) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
(c) charged particles emitted by nucleus
(d) neutral particles
Q.25. Which of the following is not a mode of radioactive decay ?
(a) Positron emission (b) Electron capture
(c) Fusion (d) Alpha decay
Q.26. The half-life period and the mean life period of a radioactiveelement are
denoted respectively by Th and Tm. Then
(a) Th = Tm (b) Th > Tm
(c) Th < Tm (d) Th ≥ Tm
Q.27. In γ ray emission from a nucleus
(a) only the proton number changes
(b) both the neutron number and the proton numberchange
(c) there is no change in the proton number and theneutron number
(d) only the neutron number changes
Q.28. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by
(a) Klaproth (b) Rontgen
(c) Irene Curie and Joliot (d) P. Curie and M. Curie
Q.29. Radioactive samples are stored in lead boxes because it is
(a) heavy (b) strong
(c) good absorber (d) bad conductor
Q.30. The process of radioactive radiations remains unaffected due to
(a) physical changes (b) chemical changes
(c) electric or magnetic fields (d) all of the above
Q.31. A radioactive material undergoes decay by ejecting electrons. The electron
ejected in this process is
(a) the electron from the decay of a neutron
(b) the electron present in the nucleus
(c) the resulting from the conversion of photon
(d) an orbital electron
Q.32. The same radioactive nucleus may emit
(a) all the three α, β and γ one after another
(b) all the three α, β and γ radiations simultaneously
(c) only α and βsimultaneously
(d) only one α, β and γ at a time

Physics/XII Page 133

 Q.33. Which of the following of a radioactive material is a
measure of its instability?
(a) Full life (b) Mean life
(c) Half life (d) None of these
Q.34. The rate of disintegration at a given instant, is directly proportional to the
number of atoms present at that instant. This is the statement of
(a) law of radioactive decay (b) half life
(c) law of radioactive transformation (d) group displacement law
Q.35. Three specimens A, B, C of same radioactive element has activities 1
microcurie, 1 rutherford and 1 becquerel respectively. Which specimen has maximum
mass?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) all have equal masses
Q.36. If a radioactive element is placed in an evacuatedchamber, then the rate of
radioactive decay will
(a) decrease (b) remains unchanged
(c) increase (d) none of these
Q.37. The alpha radiations are
(a) electromagnetic radiation with high energy
(b) electromagnetic radiation with low energy
(c) charged particles emitted by the nucleus
(d) electrons orbiting the nucleus
Q.38. Radioactive substance emits
(a) α-rays (b) β-rays
(c) γ-rays (d) All of the above
Q.39. The ‘rad’ is the correct unit used to report the measurementof
(a) the ability of a beam of gamma ray photons to produceions in a target
(b) the energy delivered by radiation to a target
(c) the biological effect of radiation
(d) the rate of decay of a radioactive source
Q.40. One curie is equal to
(a) 3.7 × 1010 disintegration/sec (b) 3.2 × 108 disintegration/sec
(c) 2.8 × 1010 disintegration/sec (d) None of these
Q.41. Half life of radioactive element depends upon
(a) amount of element present (b) temperature
(c) pressure (d) nature of element
Q.42. A nuclear reaction is given by
ZX → Z+1Y + -1e + ν̅
A A 0

(a) fission (b) β-decay

(c) σ –decay (d) fusion
Q.43. Fusion reaction occurs at temperatures of the order of
(a) 103 K (b) 107 K
(c) 10 K (d) 104 K
Q.44. Control rods used in nuclear reactors are made of
(a) stainless steel (b) graphite
(c) cadmium (d) plutonium
Q.45. Boron rods in a nuclear reactor are used to
(a) absorb excess neutrons (b) absorb alpha particle
(c) slow down the reaction (d) speed up the reaction

Physics/XII Page 134

 Q.46. A moderator is used in nuclear reactors in order to
(a) slow down the speed of the neutrons (b) accelerate the neutrons
(c) increase the number of neutrons (d) decrease the number of neutrons
Q.47. Fusion reactions take place at high temperature because
(a) atoms are ionized at high temperature
(b) molecules break up at high temperature
(c) nuclei break up at high temperature
(d) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei

Physics/XII Page 135

 CHAPTER-14
Semiconductor Devices
1. How is a n-p-n transistor represented symbolically?
2. How does conductivity of a semiconductor change with temperature?
3. Draw energy band diagram for a p-type extrinsic semiconductor.
4. Give the ratio of number of holes and the number of conduction electrons in an
intrinsic semiconductor?
5. What is the order of energy gap in the semiconductor?
6. In the figure given below, state the type of biasing of the diode.

7. Which gate is represented by the symbol shown?

8. Frequency of input voltage to a half wave rectifier is 50 Hz. What will be the
frequency of output voltage?
9. What is potential barrier? How does the thickness of the depletion region in a p-n
junction diode change, if it is forward biased?
10. The output of an OR gate is connected to both the inputs of a NAND gate, draw
the logic circuit of the combination of gates and write its truth table.
11. What is a light emitting diode (LED)? Mention two important advantages of LEDs
over conventional camps
12. For a transistor Ic/𝐼𝑏 =0.96.Calculate the current gain in CE configuration.
13. What is an ideal diode? Draw the output wave form across R for the input wave
form given below.

14. Draw the energy band diagram to distinguish between insulators, conductors and
semiconductors.

Physics/XII Page 136

 Or
With the help of a circuit diagram explain the use of Zener diode as voltage
stabilizer.
15. The input resistance of a common emitter amplifier is 2 kΩ and a.c. current gain
is 20. If the load resistor used 5 kΩ. Calculate (i) the voltage gain (ii) trans
conductance.
16. Identify the logic gate marked, X, Y. Write down the output at y ,when
A=0, B=1 AND A=1 B=0,

17. A photo diode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV. Can it
detect a wave length of 6000 nm? Justify.
18. Draw a circuit diagram for a pn-junction diode in forward and reverse bias.
Sketch the V-I graphs for them.
19. Explain with neat diagram formation of energy bands in solids. Define
conduction band and valance band.
20. What is an intrinsic semiconductor? How can this material be converted in to p-
type and n-type semiconductor? Explain with electron bond diagram.
21. A transistor is used in common emitter mode in an amplifier circuit. When a
signal of 24 mV is added to the base emitter voltage, the base current changes by
32µA and collector current by 3.6 mA. The load resistance is 4.5 kΩ. Calculate (i)
the current gain β (ii) the input resistance 𝑅𝑏𝑒 (iii) the transconductance 𝑔𝑚 (iv)
the voltage gain𝐴𝑣 .
22. Why NAND gate is called universal gate? Draw the diagram to convert NAND
gate alone in to OR gate
Or
Using only NOR gate how to obtained (i) AND gate (ii) OR gate
23. A semiconductor has an equal electron and hole concentration of 6 x108 /𝑚3 . On
doping with certain impurity, electron concentration increases to 4x 1010 /𝑚3 .
(i) What type of semiconductor is obtained on doping?
(ii) Calculate the new electron and hole concentration of the semiconductor.

Physics/XII Page 137

 (iii) How does the energy gap vary with doping?
24. What is the need of rectification? With the help of circuit diagram, explain the
working of half wave rectifier. Draw its input and output wave forms.
25. The ratio of the number density, of free electrons to holes,𝑛𝑒 /𝑛ℎ , for three
different materials A, B and C are equal to one, less than one more than one
respectively. Name the type of semiconductor to which A, B and C belong. Draw
labeled energy band diagrams for the three materials.
26. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, how the thickness of depletion layer in
a p-n junction diode changes when it is reverse biased. In the following circuits
which one of the two diodes is forward biased and which is reverse biased?

27. In the circuit shown below, a Zener diode of voltage 𝑉𝑍 (=6V) is used to maintain
a constant voltage across a load resistance (𝑅𝐿 (=1000Ω) by using a series
resistance R (=100Ω). If the e.m.f of source (E) is 9V, calculate the value of
current through series resistance, Zener diode and load resistance. What is the
power being dissipated in Zener diode?

28. Explain through a labeled diagram, the working of a transistor as an amplifier

(common-emitter configuration). Obtain an expression for the current gain,
voltage gain and power gain.
Or

Physics/XII Page 138

 Draw a labeled circuit diagram of a transistor oscillator. Briefly explain its
principle and state how the oscillations are sustained.
29. State the principle of working of p-n diode as rectifier. Explain with the help of
circuit diagram, the use of p-n diode as a full wave rectifier. Draw a sketch of the
input and the output waveforms.
Or
Draw the circuit diagram to study the characteristic of npn transistor in common
emitter configuration. Sketch typical (i) input characteristics (ii) output
characteristics for such a configuration. Explain how the current gain of transistor
is calculated from output characteristics.
30. Draw the circuit diagram and transfer characteristics of a base biased transistor in
common emitter configuration. Explain briefly the meaning of cut off, active and
saturation region. Referring to the diagram explain transistor as a switch.
Or
State and define various basic gates. Draw the logic symbols and write the truth
table for them. Explain how will you obtain NOR gate and NAND gate from
them. For a binary signal 1101001, draw the wave form and output wave form for
NOT gate.

CHAPTER:14 Semiconductor Electronics

Light Emitting Diode:
It is a heavily doped p-n junction which under forward bias emits spontaneous
radiation. The diode is encapsulated with a transparent cover so that emitted light can
come out. When the diode is forward biased, electrons are sent from n → p (where
they are minority carriers) and holes are sent from p → n (where they are minority
carriers). At the junction boundary, the concentration of minority carriers increases as
compared to the equilibrium concentration (i.e., when there is no bias).
Thus at the junction boundary on either side of the junction, excess minority carriers
are there which recombine with majority carriers near the junction. On recombination,
the energy is released in the form of photons. Photons with energy equal to or slightly
less than the band gap are emitted. When the forward current of the diode is small, the
intensity of light emitted is small. As the forward current increases, intensity of light
increases and reaches a maximum. Further increase in the forward current results in
decrease of light intensity. LED’s are biased such that the light emitting efficiency is
maximum.
The V-I characteristics of a LED is similar to that of a Si junction diode. But, the
threshold voltages are much higher and slightly different for each colour. The reverse
breakdown voltages of LED’s are very low, typically around 5 V. So care should be
taken that high reverse voltages do not appear across them. LED’s that can emit red,
yellow, orange, green and blue light are commercially available.

Physics/XII Page 139

 Read the above case/passage and answer the following questions:
(i) LED is a:
(a) lightly doped p-n junction diode.
(b) heavily doped p-n junction diode.
(c) moderately doped p-n junction diode.
(d) two back to back p-n junction diode.
(ii) LED emits light:
(a) when reversed biased. (c) when forward or reverse biased.
(b) when forward biased. (d) when heated.
(iii) During recombination at the junction, emitted photons have:
(a) energy equal to or slightly less than the band gap.
(b) energy greater than the band gap.
(c) energy which has no relation with the band gap.
(d) very low energy compared to band gap.
(iv) Threshold voltage of LED is:
(a) lower compared to other p-n junction diodes and slightly different for each colour.
(b) lower compared to other p-n junction diodes and same for all colours.
(c) higher compared to other p-n junction diodes and same for all colours.
(d) higher compared to other p-n junction diodes and slightly different for each
colour.
(v) The reverse breakdown voltages of LED’s are:
(a) very low and typically around 0.5 V.
(b) very high and typically around 50 V.
(c) very low and typically around 5 V.
(d) very low and typically around 0.05 V.

Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics

Q.1. Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of
resistance.
Reason : In a semiconductor on raising the temperature, more charge carriers are
released, conductance increases and resistance decreases.
Q.2. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor is increased then its resistance
decreases.
Reason : The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is very small.
Q.3. Assertion : In semiconductors, thermal collisions are responsible for taking a
valence electron to the conduction band.
Reason : The number of conduction electrons go on increasing with time as thermal
collisions continuously take place.
Q.4. Assertion : A p-type semiconductors is a positive type crystal.
Reason : A p- type semiconductor is an uncharged crystal.
Q.5. Assertion : Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor
devices.
Reason : The energy gap in germanium is more than the energy gap in silicon.
Q.6. Assertion : Electron has higher mobility than hole in a semiconductor.
Reason : The mass of electron is less than the mass of the hole.
Q.7. Assertion : The number of electrons in a p-type silicon semiconductor is less
than the number of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
Reason : It is due to law of mass action.
Q.8. Assertion : When two semiconductor of p and n type are brought in contact,
they form p-n junction which act like a rectifier.
Reason : A rectifier is used to convent alternating current into direct current.

Physics/XII Page 140

 Q.9. Assertion : Diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical communication.
Reason : Diode lasers consume less energy.
Q.10. Assertion : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the p-side to the n-
side.
Reason : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current when
the junction is in forward biased.
Q.11. Assertion : The drift current in a p-n junction is from the n-side to the p-side.
Reason : It is due to free electrons only.
Q.12. Assertion : A p-n junction with reverse bias can be used as a photo-diode to
measure light intensity.
Reason : In a reverse bias condition the current is small but it is more sensitive to
changes in incident light intensity.
Chapter: 14 Semiconductor Electronics
Q.1. In a semiconductor
(a) there are no free electrons at 0 K
(b) there are no free electrons at any temperature
(c) the number of free electrons increases with pressure
(d) the number of free electrons is more than that in a conductor
Q.2. Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic
semiconductor. Then
(a) nh > ne (b) nh = ne
(c) nh < ne (d) nh ≠ ne
Q.3. A p-type semiconductor is
(a) positively charged (b) negatively charged
(c) uncharged (d) uncharged at 0K but charged at higher temperatures
Q.4. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to
(a) electrons only (b) holes only
(c) both electrons and holes (d) neither electrons nor holes
Q.5. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may be doped to make it a p-type
semiconductor are those of
(a) phosphorus (b) boron
(c) antimony (d) nitrogen
Q.6. The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be increased by
(a) increasing the temperature (b) doping acceptor impurities
(c) doping donor impurities (d) All of the above
Q.7. The resistivity of a semiconductor at room temperature is in between
(a) 10–2 to 10–5 Ω cm (b) 10–3 to 106 Ω cm
(c) 106 to 108 Ω cm (d) 1010 to 1012 Ω cm
Q.8. Number of electrons in the valence shell of a pure semiconductor is
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q.9. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the
conduction band is of the order is
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 Mev
(c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV
Q.10. The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal at 0 K is
(a) 0.071 eV (b) 0.71 eV
(c) 2.57 eV (d) 6.57 eV
Q.11. In an insulator, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and
conduction band is of the order of

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 (a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 MeV
(c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV
Q.12. What is the resistivity of a pure semiconductor at absolute zero ?
(a) Zero (b) Infinity
(c) Same as that of conductors at room temperature
(d) Same as that of insulators at room temperature
Q.13. Temperature coefficient of resistance of semiconductor is
(a) zero (b) constant
(c) positive (d) negative
Q.14. In a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor valence band is
(a) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(b) close to conduction band of the host crystal
(c) below the conduction band of the host crystal
(d) above the conduction band of the host crystal
Q.15. In an n-type semiconductor, donor valence band is
(a) above the conduction band of the host crystal
(b) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(c) close to the conduction band of the host crystal
(d) below the valence band of the host crystal
Q.16. The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes because
(a) they are light (b) they carry negative charge
(c) they mutually collide less (d) they require low energy to continue their motion
Q.17. The relation between number of free electrons (n) in a
semiconductor and temperature (T) is given by
(a) n α T (b) n α T2
(c) n α √T (d) n α T3/2
Q.18. In semiconductors, at room temperature
(a) the conduction band is completely empty
(b) the valence band is partially empty and the conduction band is partially filled
(c) the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band is partially filled
(d) the valence band is completely filled
Q.19. At absolute zero, Si acts as
(a) non-metal (b) metal
(c) insulator (d) None of these
Q.20. One serious drawback of semi-conductor devices is
(a) they do not last for long time. (b) they are costly
(c) they cannot be used with high voltage. (d) they pollute the environment.
Q.21. When an impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor,the conductivity of
the semiconductor
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains the same (d) becomes zero
Q.22. An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let thenumber of charge carriers
be n and the average drift speedbe v. If the temperature is increased
(a) both n and v will increase (b) n will increase but v will decrease
(c) v will increase but n will decrease (d) both n and v will decrease
Q.23. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium crystal
(a) it becomes a p–type semiconductor
(b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
(d) its resistance is increased

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 Q.24. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of aconductor and a
semiconductor
(a) increases for both (b) decreases for both
(c) increases, decreases (d) decreases, increases
Q.25. A strip of copper and another of germanium are cooled fromroom temperature
to 80K. The resistance of
(a) each of these decreases
(b) copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases
(c) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
(d) each of these increases
Q.26. Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their
valence and conduction bands are separated by energy band gaps represented by
(Eg)C, (Eg)Si and (Eg)Ge respectively. Which one of the following relationship is true
in their case?
(a) (Eg)C > (Eg)Si (b) (Eg)C < (Eg)Si
(c) (Eg)C = (Eg)Si (d) (Eg)C < (Eg)Ge
Q.27. A semiconductor device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a
resistance. A current is found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery
is reversed, the current drops to almost zero. The device may be a/an
(a) intrinsic semiconductor (b) p-type semiconductor
(c) n-type semiconductor (d) p-n junction diode
Q.28. If the two ends of a p-n junction are joined by a wire
(a) there will not be a steady current in the circuit
(b) there will be a steady current from the n-side to the p side
(c) there will be a steady current from the p-side to the n side
(d) there may or may not be a current depending upon the resistance of the connecting
wire
Q.29. The drift current in a p-n junction is from the
(a) n-side to the p-side
(b) p-side to the n-side
(c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if
it is reverse biased
(d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction
if it is reverse-biased
Q.30. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the
(a) n-side to the p-side
(b) p-side to the n-side
(c) n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if
it is reverse-biased
(d) p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction
if it is reverse-biased
Q.31. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude
(a) if the junction is forward-biased (b) if the junction is reverse-biased
(c) if the junction is unbiased (d) in no case
Q.32. Forward biasing is that in which applied voltage
(a) increases potential barrier (b) cancels the potential barrier
(c) is equal to 1.5 volt (d) None of these
Q.33. In V-I characteristic of a p-n junction, reverse biasing results in
(a) leakage current (b) the current barrier across junction increases
(c) no flow of current (d) large current

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 Q.34. In reverse biasing
(a) large amount of current flows (b) potential barrier across junction
increases
(c) depletion layer resistance increases (d) no current flows
Q.35. Zener diode is used for
(a) amplification (b) rectification
(c) stabilisation (d) all of the above
Q.36. Filter circuit
(a) eliminates a.c. component (b) eliminates d.c. component
(c) does not eliminate a.c. component (d) None of these
Q.37. For a junction diode the ratio of forward current (If) andreverse current (Ir) is
[e = electronic charge,
V = voltage applied across junction,
k = Boltzmann constant,
T = temperature in kelvin]
(a) e–V/kT (b) eV/kT
–eV/kT
(c) (e + 1) (d) (eeV/kT – 1)
Q.38. In a semiconductor diode, the barrier potential offersopposition to
(a) holes in P-region only (b) free electrons in N-region only
(c) majority carriers in both regions (d) majority as well as minority carriers in both
regions
Q.39. In a P -N junction
(a) the potential of P & N sides becomes higher alternately
(b) the P side is at higher electrical potential than N side.
(c) the N side is at higher electric potential than P side.
(d) both P & N sides are at same potential.
Q.40. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not depend on
(a) doping density (b) diode design
(c) temperature (d) forward bias
Q.41. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
(a) increases the minority carrier current (b) lowers the potential barrier
(c) raises the potential barrier (d) increases the majority carrier
current
Q.42. In forward biasing of the p–n junction
(a) the positive terminal of the battery is connected top–side and the depletion region
becomes thick
(b) the positive terminal of the battery is connected ton–side and the depletion region
becomes thin
(c) the positive terminal of the battery is connected ton–side and the depletion region
becomes thick
(d) the positive terminal of the battery is connected top–side and the depletion region
becomes thin
Q.43. When p-n junction diode is forward biased then
(a) both the depletion region and barrier height are reduced
(b) the depletion region is widened and barrier height isreduced
(c) the depletion region is reduced and barrier height isincreased
(d) Both the depletion region and barrier height are increased
Q.44. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n junction diode is
(a) depletion of positive charges near the junction
(b) concentration of positive charges near the junction

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 (c) depletion of negative charges near the junction
(d) concentration of positive and negative charges nearthe junction
Q.45. The ratio of forward biased to reverse biased resistancefor p-n junction diode is
(a) 10–1 : 1 (b) 10–2 : 1
4
(c) 10 : 1 (d) 10–4 : 1
Q.46. In the middle of the depletion layer of a reverse- biased p-n junction, the
(a) electric field is zero (b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum (d) potential is zero
Q.47. Bridge type rectifier uses
(a) four diodes (b) six diodes
(c) two diodes (d) one diode
Q.48. In a half wave rectifier, the r.m.s. value of the a.c. component of the wave is
(a) equal to d.c. value (b) more than d.c. value
(c) less than d.c. value (d) zero

Physics/XII Page 145

 VERY IMPORTANT QUESTIONS FOR BOARD EXAMINATION
Electrostatics
1. Derive an expression for the electric field at a point on the axial position of an
electric dipole.
2. Derive an expression for the electric field at a point on the equatorial position of an
electric dipole
4. Derive an expression for the energy stored in a capacitor .Show that whenever two
conductors share charges by bringing them into electrical contact, there is a loss of
energy
5. Derive an expression for the effective capacitance when capacitors are connected in
(a) series and (b) parallel.
6. Explain the principle of a capacitor and derive an expression for the capacitance of
a parallel plate capacitor.
7. State Gauss theorem and apply it to find the electric field at a point due to (a) a line
of charge (b) A plane sheet of charge (c) A Charged spherical conducting shell
8. State Coulomb's law and express it in vector form. Derive it using Gauss theorem.
9. Derive an expression for the torque on an electric dipole in a uniform electric field.
10. Derive an expression for the work done in rotating an electric dipole in a uniform
electric field.
11. Derive an expression for the energy stored (Potential Energy) in a dipole in a
uniform electric field.
12. Derive an expression for the electrostatic potential energy of a system of point
charges.
13. Derive an expression for the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with (a) a
dielectric slab (b) a metallic plate in between the plates of the capacitor.
14. Define electric potential at a point. Derive an expression for the electric potential
at a point due to (a) a point charge (b) a system of point charges (c) a dipole.
15. Show that the work done in an electric field is independent of path.
16. What are dielectrics? Distinguish polar and nonpolar dielectrics. Define the term
Polarization vector.
Current electricity:
1. Define drift velocity and derive an expression for it.
2. Derive the expression i= nAevd
3. Deduce Ohm's law from elementary ideas and hence write an expression for
resistance and resistivity
4. Derive an expression for conductivity in terms of mobility.
5. Explain the color coding of carbon resistors.
6. Derive an expression for the current in a circuit with external resistance R when
(a) n identical cells of emf E and internal resistance r are connected in series (b) m
identical cells are connected in parallel
7. State and explain Kirchhoff's laws.
8. State and explain the principle of Wheat Stone's principle. Deduce it using
Kirchhoff's laws.
9. Describe how you will determine the resistance of a given wire using Meter Bridge.
10. Explain the principle of a potentiometer. Describe how will you determine (a) the
ratio of emfs of two primary cells usingpotentiometer. (b) The internal resistance of a
primary cell using potentiometer.

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 11. Explain the variation of resistance and resistivity with temperature and hence
define temperature coefficient of resistance and resistivity.
Magnetism:
1. State Biot- Savart law and apply it to find the magnetic field due to a circular loop
carrying current at a point (a) at its centre (b) on the axis.
2. State Ampere's circuital law and apply it to find the magnetic field (a) inside a
current carrying solenoid (b) inside a current carrying toroid.
3. Apply Ampere's circuital law to determine the magnetic field at a point due to a
long straight current carrying conductor.
4. Derive an expression for the force on a current carrying conductor in a uniform
magnetic field.
5. Derive an expression for the force between long straight conductors carrying
current and hence define 1 ampere.
6. Derive an expression for the torque on a current carrying loop in a uniform
magnetic field.
7. Describe the principle construction and working of a Moving coil galvanometer.
8. Describe the conversion of a moving coil galvanometer into (a) Ammeter (b)
Voltmeter
9. What is radial magnetic field? What is its importance in a moving coil
galvanometer? How is a radial magnetic field realized in moving coil galvanometers?
10. Describe the principle construction and working of a cyclotron. Explain why an
electron cannot be accelerated using a cyclotron.
11. Describe the motion of a charged particle in a magnetic field when it enters the
field (a) perpendicular to the field lines obliquely making and angle θ with the field
lines.
12. Derive an expression for the magnetic dipole moment of a revolving electron and
hence define Bohr magneton.
Electromagnetic Induction
1. State and Explain Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction.
2. State Lenz' Law and show that it is in accordance with the law of conservation of
energy.
3. Use Lenz' law to find the direction of induced emf in a coil when (a) a north pole is
brought towards the coil (b) north pole taken away from the coil (c) A south pole is
brought towards the coil and (d) a south pole is taken away from the coil, Draw
illustrations in each case.
4. What is motional emf. Deduce an expression for it. State Fleming's tight hand rule
to find the direction of induced emf.
S. What are eddy currents? Describe the applications of eddy current
6. Explain the working of (a) Electromagnetic Brakes (b) induction Furnace
7, which physical quantity is called the INERTIA OF ELECTRİCITY? Why is it
called so?
8. Define self-induction and self-inductance. What is its unit? Write its dimensions.
9. Derive an expression for the self-inductance of a long solenoid.
10. Explain the phenomenon of mutual induction and define mutual inductance. Write
the unit and dimensions of mutual inductance.

Physics/XII Page 147

 11. What are the factors affecting mutual inductance of a pair of coils? Define
coefficient of coupling.
12. Describe the Various methods of producing induced emf. Derive an expression for
the instantaneous emf induced in a coilrotated in a magnetic field.
13. What is displacement current? Explain its need.
Alternating Current
1. Describe the principle construction and working of an AC generator. Draw neat
labeled diagram
2. Define mean value of AC (over a half cycle) and derive an expression for it.
3.Define RMS value of AC and derive an expression for it.
4. Show that the average value of AC over a complete cycle is zero.
5. Show that the current and voltage are in phase in an ac circuit containing resistance
only.
6. Deduce the phase relationship between current and voltage in an ac circuit
containing inductor only.
7. Deduce the phase relationship between current and voltage in an ac circuit
containing capacitor.
8. Draw the phasor diagram showing voltage and current in LCR series circuit and
derive an expression for the impedance.
9. What do you mean by resonance in Series LCR circuit? Derive an expression for
the frequency of resonance in LCR circuit.
10. Distinguish between resistance, reactance and impedance.
11. Define quality factor (Q factor) of resonance and derive an expression for it.
12. Describe the mechanism of electromagnetic oscilltions in LC circuit and write
expression for the frequency of oscillations produced.
13. Derive an expression for the average power in an ac circuit.
14. Define power factor. Deduce expression for it and explain wattles current?
15. Describe the principle construction theory and working of a transformer.
16. Describe the various losses in a transformer and explain how the losses can be
minimized.
Ray Optics
1. Derive mirror formula for a concave mirror and convex mirror.
2. Derive an expression for lateral shift and normal shift. On what factors these
depend
3. Define TIR and write the conditions for TIR. Derive a relation between critical
angle and the refractive index of the medium. Also explain the working of isosceles
prism and optical fiber
4. Derive the following relation for a real image formed by a convex refracting
surface when the object is placed in rarer medium. Also write the assumptions and
sign convention used.
µ2 µ1 µ2−µ1
5. Derive: − =
𝑣 𝑢 𝑟
6. Derive the lens maker's formula. Also write the assumptions and sign convention
used.
7. Derive the lens formula for convex lens and concave lens.

Physics/XII Page 148

 8. Derive the relation for equivalent focal length or power when two thin lenses are
placed in contact to each other. In which condition the lens combination will act as a
plane glass sheet.
9. Derive the following relations for a prism- (a) i+e =A+δ (b) δ = (µ-1) A (c) µ
sin( 𝐴+𝛿)/2
= where the symbols have their usual daning
sin(𝐴/2)
10. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in refracting type astronomical
telescope in the near point adjustment(when image is formed at LDDV ie. D=25cm).
Derive an expression for its magnifying power. Why the diameter of objective of
telescope should be large.
11. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation in refracting type astronomical
telescope in the normal adjustment (when image is formed at infinity) . Derive an
expression for its magnifying power. How does the magnifying power get affected on
increasing the aperture of the objective lens and why?
12. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a compound microscope.
Explain briefly the working. Derive an expression for magnifying power. Why the
diameter of objective of microscope should be small?
13. Draw a labeled diagram of a reflecting type telescope. State two advantages of this
telescope over refracting type telescope.
14. Define resolving power of compound microscope. How does the resolving power
of a compound microscope change when(a) Refractive index of medium between the
object and objective lens increases (b) Wavelength of the light used is increased (c)
decreasing the diameter of objective (iv) increasing the focal length of its objective.
15. Define the resolving power of astronomical telescope. Write the expression for it
and state, on what factors it depends
Wave Optics
1. Define wave front. State Huygens principle and verify Snell's law.
2. State Huygens principle and prove the laws of reflection and refraction on the basis
of wave theory
3. What do you mean by interference of light? Explain in brief the Young's double slit
experiment.
4. What are the coherent sources? Write the conditions for the sustained interference
pattern. Also draw the intensity v/s path difference curve.
5. Find the conditions for constructive and destructive interference. How does the
intensity depend on the width of slit?
6. Find the expression for the fringe width. What is the effect on the fringe width if
the whole apparatus (YDSE) is completely immersed in a liquid of refractive index µ?
7. What do you mean by diffraction of light and state the condition for the diffraction?
Obtain the conditions for secondary maxima and minima. Also draw the intensity
distribution curve.
8. Prove that the width of central maxima is twice the width of the secondary maxima.
How does the width of central maxima depend on the width of the slit?
9. State Brewster's law and prove that the reflected and refracted rays are mutually
perpendicular at the angle of polarization.
10. State law of Malus and draw an intensity V/s angle between the plane of

Physics/XII Page 149

 transmission of polarizer and analyzer.
11. What is a Polaroid? How are they constructed? Mention their important
applications.
12. Explain Polarization of light. Give any one method to produce plane polarized
light.
Dual Nature of Matter
1. Describe the experiment to study. photoelectric effect and explain the laws of
photoelectric effect and the significance of each.
2. Describe Hertz and Lenard's experiment to demonstrate photoelectric effect.
3. Explain Einstein's photoelectric equation and explain the laws of photoelectric
effect using it.
5. Describe Davisson- Germer experiment which provided experimental evidence for
wave nature of matter. State and explain De-Broglie relation for matter waves.
6. Write the characteristics of Photon.
Atom and Nuclei
1. Using Bohr Theory derive expression for (a) the radius of the nth orbit (b) velocity
of electron in the n'th orbit.
2.By Bohr's postulates of atomic model, derive expressions for kinetic energy and
potential energy of an electron in an orbit of radius r.
3. Explain the term (a) excitation energy (b) excitation potential (c) ionization energy
(d) ionization potential
4. Define binding energy. How does binding energy per nucleon vary with mass
number? What is its significance ?
5. State the laws of radioactive decay. Derive its expression for it and half-life.
6. What do you mean by the average life of a radioactive substance? Derive an
expression for it.
Electronic Devices
1. Distinguish between conductors, insulators and semiconductors on the basis of
energy bands.
2. What are extrinsic semiconductors? Mention its types and explain the mechanism
of conduction in each.
3. Explain the conduction in N Type and P Type semiconductor on the basis of band
theory.
4. Explain the formation of depletion layer and potential barrier in a PN junction
diode.
5. Draw the circuit diagram used to determine the VI characteristics of a diode and
draw the forward and reverse bias characteristics of a diode. Explain the conclusions
drawn from the graph
5. With the help of a labeled circuit diagram explain the working of half wave rectifier
and draw the input and output wave form.
7. With the help of a labeled circuit diagram explain the working of full wave rectifier
and draw the input and output wave form.
8. Write notes on LED, photodiode and solar cell.
9. What is a Zener diode? Draw the VI characteristics of Zener diode. Explain Zener
breakdown and describe the use of a zener diode as a voltage regulator.

Physics/XII Page 150

 1o. Explain the action of a PNP transistor and an NPN transistor (Explain how
conduction takes place in NPN and PNP transistor)
11. Draw the circuit diagram for determining transistor characteristics and describe
the input and output characteristics of transistor in CB configuration with relevant
graphs.
12. Draw the circuit diagram for determining transistor characteristics and describe
the input and output characteristics of transistor in CE configuration with relevant
graphs.
13. Explain the working of Transistor amplifier in CE configuration with necessary
circuit diagram.

Physics/XII Page 151

 PEN PAPER TEST-I
CLASS: XII
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
Time: 1:30 Hours M.M.: 50
General Instructions:
1. Attempt all the questions and draw relevant diagrams wherever required.
2. Assume the suitable missing data if any.
3. You may use the following values of physical constants wherever
necessary:

Section-A (3×5=15)
Q1. a) Draw a graph to show that variation of angle of deviation δ with that of angle
of incidence i for a monochromatic ray of light passing through a glass prism of
refracting angle A.
b) A prism is made of glass of unknown refractive index. A parallel beam of light is
incident on a face of the prism. The angle of minimum deviation is measured to be
400. What is the refractive index of the material of the prism? The refracting angle of
the prism is 600. If the prism is placed in water (refractive index 1.33), predict the new
angle of minimum deviation of a parallel beam of light.(2+3)
Q2. (i)Use Gauss law to deduce the expression for the electric field due to a uniformly
charged thin sheet having surface charge density σ .
(ii) Two identical metallic spheres A and B having charges +4q and – 10q are kept a
certain distance apart. A third identical uncharged sphere C is first placed in contact
with sphere A and then with sphere B. Then, spheres A and Bare brought in contact
and then separated. Find the charges on the spheres A and B.(3+2)
Q3. (i) Derive the expression internal resistance of a cell using the concept of
potentiometer.
(ii) A long uniform potentiometer wire AB is having a constant potential gradient
along its length. The null points for the two primary cells of emf E 1 and E2 connected
in manner shown, are obtained at a distance of 120cm and 300 cm from the end A

Find : (a) E1/E2 and Position of null point for the cell E1
(b) how the sensitivity of a potentiometer increased(2+3)

SECTION-B
Case study based question:

Physics/XII Page 152

 Q4.Total internal reflection (T.I.R.) is the phenomena of reflection of light into
denser medium at the interface of denser medium with rare medium. For this
phenomena to occur necessary condition is that light must travel from denser to
rare medium and incident angle should be greater than critical angle. Critical
angle depends on nature of medium and wave length of light.
Answer the following questions:(1×4=4)
i) Calculate critical angle for the glass air interface, where refractive index of
glass is 3/2.
ii) If critical angle for the water air inter face is 450, what is the refractive
index of water?
iii) Which of the following is not due to the TIR?
a) Working of optical fiber
b) Difference between real and apparent depth
c) Mirage on hot summer days
d) Brilliance of diamond
iv) Critical angle for glass is θ1 and that of water is θ2. The critical angle for
water and glass surface would be, (µg= 3/2 and µw= 4/3)
a) Less than θ2
b) Between θ1 and θ2
c) Greater than θ2
d) Less than θ1

SECTION-C (3×5=15)
Q5.A battery of emf 12V and internal resistance 2 V is connected to a 4 V resistor as
shown in the figure.
(a) Show that a voltmeter when placed across the cell and across the
resistor, in turn, gives the same reading.
(b) To record the voltage and the current in the circuit, why is voltmeter
placed in parallel and ammeter in series in the circuit? (2+1)

Q6.How is the electric field due to a charged parallel plate capacitor affected when a
dielectric slab is inserted between the plates fully occupying the intervening
region?(3)

Q7. A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area as the plates of a
parallel plate capacitor but has thickness 1/2 d, where d is the separation between the
plates. Find the expression for the capacitance when the slab is inserted between the
plates. (3)
Q8. A capacitor of 200 pF is charged by a 300 V battery. The battery is then
disconnected and the charged capacitor is connected to another uncharged capacitor
of 100 pF. Calculate the difference between the final energy stored in the combined
system and the initial energy stored in the single capacitor.(3)
Q9. Find the charge on the capacitor as Shown in the circuit.(3)

Physics/XII Page 153

 SECTION-D (2×6=12)
Q10. You are given an air filled parallel plate capacitor C1. The space between its
plates is now filled with slabs of dielectric constants K1 and K2 as shown in figure.
Find the capacitance of the capacitor C2 if area of the plates is A and distance between
the plates is d.(2)

Q11.A silver wire has a resistance of 2.1Ω at 27.5˚c and a resistance of 2.7Ω at 100˚c.
Determine the temperature coefficient of resistivity of silver. (2)
Q12. A double convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 has both curvatures
of radii 20cm. An object 2cm high is placed 2cm from this lens, Find the position,
nature and size of the image. (2)
Q13.The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the time taken by light to travel 1m
thickness of the glass? The speed of light in vacuum is 3x 10 8 m/s.(2)

Q14.Figure shows two circuits each having a galvanometer and a battery of 3V.
When the galvanometers in each arrangement do not show any deflection obtain the
ratio R1/R2. (2)

Physics/XII Page 154

 Q15.A wire of 15 Omega resistance is gradually stretched to double in original
length. it is then cut into two equal parts. These parts are then connected in
parallel across a 3.0volt battery. Find the current draw from the battery.(2)
SECTION-E (1×4=4)
Q16. If a body is charged by rubbing it, which kind of charge will appear on it and
what will be the weight of body after charging?
Q17. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field. Find the net force on the
dipole. Q18. If the radius of the Gaussian surface enclosing a charge is halved, how
does the electric flux through the Gaussian surface change?
Q19. Why is manganin used for making standard resistor?

Physics/XII Page 155

 Pre-Board (2021-22)
Class-12
Subject: Physics (042)

Time: 90 Minutes Max.

Marks: 35
General Instructions:
1. The Question Paper contains three sections.
2. Section A has 21 questions. Attempt all questions.
3. Section B has 19 questions. Attempt any 19 questions.
4. Section C has 5 questions. Attempt all 5 questions.
5. All questions carry equal marks.
6. There is no negative marking.
SECTION A

Q1. Two similar spheres having +Q and -Q charges are kept at a certain
distance. F force acts between the two. If at the middle of two spheres, another
similar sphere having +Q charge is kept, then it experiences a force in magnitude
and direction as
(a) zero having no direction. (b) 8F towards +Q charge.
(c) 8F towards -Q charge. (d) 4F towards +Q charge.
Q2. A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q – q. If the coulomb repulsion
between them when they are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of Q/q should
be
(a) 2:1 (b) 1/2(c) 4:1 (d) 1/4
Q3. An electric charge q is placed at the centre of a cube of side a. The electric
flux on one of its faces will be𝝐𝟎
𝒒 𝒒 𝒒 𝒒
a) b) c) 𝟐 d) 𝟐
𝟔𝝐𝟎 𝟔𝝐𝟎 𝟒𝝅𝝐𝟎 𝒂 𝟔𝝐𝟎 𝒂
Q4. Which of the following graphs shows the variation of electric field E due to a
hollow spherical conductor of radius R as a function of distance from the centre
of the sphere?

Q5. In Fig. (i) two positive charges q2 and q3 fixed along the y-axis, exert a net
electric force in the +x direction on a charge q 1 fixed along the x-axis. If a
positive charge Q is added at (x, 0) in figure (ii), the force on q 1 is
(a) shall increase along the positive x-axis.
(b) shall decrease along the positive x-axis.
(c) shall point along the negative x-axis.
(d) shall increase but the direction changes
because of the intersection of Q with q2 and q1
Q6. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two point charges +q
and +q as shown in the figure. The ratio of charges Q and q is
Physics/XII Page 156
 (a) 4 (b) 1/4 (c) -4 (d) -1/4
Q7. A positively charged particle is released from rest in an uniform electric
field. The electric potential energy of the charge
(a) remains a constant because the electric field is uniform.
(b) increases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(c) decreases because the charge moves along the electric field.
(d) decreases because the charge moves opposite to the electric field.
Q8. Figures show some equipotential lines distributed in space. A charged object
is moved from point A to point B.

(a) The work done in Fig. (i) is the greatest.

(b) The work done in Fig. (ii) is least.
(c) The work done is the same in Fig.
(i), Fig.(ii) and Fig. (iii).
(d) The work done in Fig. (iii) is greater
than Fig. (ii) but equal to that in Fig. (i).

Q9. A capacitor of 4 pF is connected as shown in the circuit. The internal

resistance of the battery is 0.5 Q. The amount of charge on the capacitor plates
will be
(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 16 μC (d) 8 μC
Q10. When air is replaced by a dielectric medium of constant K, the maximum
force of attraction between two charges separated by a distance
(a) increases K times (b) remains unchanged
(c) decreases K times (d) increases K-1 times
Q11. Equipotential at a great distance from a collection of charges whose total
sum is not zero are approximately
(a) spheres (b) planes (c) paraboloids (d)
ellipsoids
Q12. A metal wire is subjected to a constant potential difference. When the
temperature of the metal wire increases, the drift velocity of the electron in it
(a) increases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(b) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron increases
(c) increases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases
(d) decreases, thermal velocity of the electron decreases

Q13. The electric field intensity E, current density J and specific resistance k are
related to each other through the relation
(a) E = J/k(b) E = J k(c) E = k/J (d) k = J E
Q14. If in the experiment of Wheatstone’s bridge, the positions of cells and
galvanometer are interchanged, then balance point will
(a) change (b) remain unchanged
(c) depend on the internal resistance of cell and resistance of galvanometer
(d) None of these
Q15. Two pure inductors each of self-inductance L are connected in series, the
net inductance is
(a) L (b) 2 L (c) L/2 (d) L/4
Q16. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

Physics/XII Page 157

 (a) charge (b) mass (c) energy (d)
momentum
Q17. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then the induced
e.m.f. is
(a) larger in case (i) (b) smaller in case (i) (c) equal to both the cases
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil
Q18. The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of
a
(a) galvanometer (b) voltmeter (c) electric motor(d)
generator
Q19. A circular coil of radius 4 cm and of 20 turns carries a current of 3
amperes. It is placed in a magnetic field of intensity of 0.5 weber/m². The
magnetic dipole moment of the coil is
(a) 0.15 ampere-m² (b) 0.3 ampere-m² (c) 0.45 ampere-m²(d) 0.6
ampere-m²
Q20. The conversion of a moving coil galvanometer into a voltmeter is done by
(a) introducing a resistance of large value in series.(b) introducing a resistance of
small value in parallel.
(c) introducing a resistance of large value in parallel.(d) introducing a resistance of
small value in series.
Q21. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current
carrying long solenoid. Which of the following is true?
(a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.
(b) The electron path will be circular about the axis.
(c) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence execute a helical
path.
(d) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the
solenoid.

SECTION – B
Q22. Which of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a
single negative charge?

Q23. The SI unit of electric flux is

(a) N C-1 m-2(b) N C m-2(c) N C-2 m2(d) N C-1 m2
Q24. The unit of electric dipole moment is
(a) newton(b) coulomb(c) farad(d) debye
Q25. Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the
total charge is zero. At points outside the region
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.
(c) the dominant electric field is inversely proportional to r3, for large r (distance from
origin).
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the

Physics/XII Page 158

 region will not be zero.

Q26.The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in figure is :-

a) C b) 2C c) 3C/2 d) C/2

Q27. During charging and discharging of a capacitor: -

a) Current flows in the circuit, which is constant during charging or discharging
duration
b) No current flows in the circuit
c) Current flows in the circuit and is varying with time
d) During charging current is constant but while discharging current is variable
Q28. Find capacitance across AB :-

a) C/3
b) 3C
c) C
d) None of these
Q29. If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and
dielectric constant is doubled then the capacitance will become:-
a) Half b)Two times c) Four times d) Remains the
same
Q30. A wire has resistance 16 Ω . It is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle.
The effective resistance between the two points on any median of the triangle is:
a) 16 Ω b)8 Ω c)4 Ω d) 32 Ω
Q31. Choose the correct alternative:
a) Alloys of metal have lesser resistivity than that of constituent metals
b) Resistivity of semiconductor increases rapidly with increasing temperature
c) Alloys have lower temperature coefficients of resistance than pure metals
d) The path of electrons in metals between successive collisions is straight line
when
current flows through them
Q32. The current in a metallic conductor is plotted against voltage at two
different temperatures T1 and T2. Choose the correct answer.
a) T1 > T2
b) T1 < T2
c) T1 = T2
d) none

Q33. Two electric lamps A and B having power 200 watt and 100 watt
respectively are rated on the same voltage. The ratio of resistance of lamp A to
that of B is :
a) 1: 2 b) 2: 1 c) 1: 4 d) 4 : 1

Q34. A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a resistance

R. Resistance R can be adjusted to any value greater than or equal to zero. A
graph is plotted between the current (i) passing through the resistance and
potential difference (V) across it. Select the correct alternative(s).
a) internal resistance of battery is 5Ω
b) emf of the battery is 20V
c) maximum current which can be taken from the battery is 4A

Physics/XII Page 159

 d) V- I graph can never be a straight line as shown in figure.

Q35. The current flows from A to B is as shown in the figure. The direction of
the induced current in the loop is

(a) clockwise. (b) anticlockwise. (c) straight line.(d) no induced e.m.f.

produced.
Q36. In a coil of self-induction 5 H, the rate of change of current is 2 As-1. Then
emf induced in the coil is
(a) 10 V (b) -10 V (c) 5 V (d) -5 V
Q37. A capacitor has capacitance C and reactance X, if capacitance and
frequency become double, then reactance will be
(a) 4X(b) X/2(c) X/4(d) 2X

Q38. Assertion (A): An electron has a high potential energy when it is at a location
associated with a more negative value of potential, and a low potential energy when at
a location associated with a more positive potential.
Reason (R): Electrons move from a region of higher potential to region of lower
potential.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii)A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.
Q39. Assertion(A): A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane, orients itself
(with its axis) vertical at the poles of the earth.
Reason (R): At the poles of the earth the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic
field will be zero.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii)A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.

Q40. Assertion(A): A proton and an electron, with same momenta, enter in a

magnetic field in a direction at right angles to the lines of the force. The radius of the
paths followed by them will be same.
Reason(R): Electron has less mass than the proton.
(i) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(ii) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(iii)A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false and R is also false.
SECTION C
Case study: Read the following paragraph and answers the questions:

An electron with speed Vo << c moves in a circle of

radius ro in a uniform magnetic field. This electron
is able to traverse a circular path as magnetic field
is perpendicular to the velocity of the electron.
A force acts on the particle perpendicular to both

Physics/XII Page 160

 v⃗ 0→0 and B⃗. This force continuously deflects the
particle sideways without changing its speed and
the particle will move along a circle perpendicular
to the field. The time required for one revolution of
the electron is To .

Q41. If the speed of the electron is now doubled to 2vo.The radius of the circle
will change to
a) 4r0 b) 2r0 c) r0 d) r0/2

Q42. If vo = 24Tvo then the time required for one revolution of the electron will
change to
(a) 4T0 (b) 2T0 (c) T0 (d) T0/2

Q43. A charged particles is projected in a magnetic field B⃗=(2i^ + 4j^)×102 T

The acceleration of the particle is found to be a⃗ =(xi^+2j^)ms−2. Find the value
of x.
(a) 4 m s-2 (b) -4 m s-2 c) -2 m s-2 (d) 2 m s-2

Q44. If the given electron has a velocity not perpendicular to B, then trajectory
of the electron is
(a) straight line (b) circular (c) helical (d) zig-zag

Q45. If this electron of charge (e) is moving parallel to uniform magnetic field
with constant velocity v, the force acting on the electron is
(a) Bev(b) Be/v (c) B/ev (d) zero

Physics/XII Page 161

 Full Length Test Paper- 1
SUB- PHYSICS
CLASS- XII
TIME ALLOWED – 3.00 HRS MAXIMUM MARKS- 70

General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) There are 28 questions in total. Questions No. 1 to 5 are very short answer type
questions and carry one mark each.
(iii) Questions No. 6 to 12 carry two marks each, questions 13 to 23 carry three marks
each and questions 24 to 27 carry five marks each.
(iv) One of the questions carrying three marks weightage is value based question.
(v) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one
question of two marks, one question of three marks and all three questions of five
marks each weightage. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
(vi) Use of calculators is not permitted. However, you may use log tables if necessary.
(vii)You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary :

SECTION-A
1. What is LOS communication?
2. What is displacement current? Explain its need.
3. Show that the work done in an electric field is independent of path.
4. What is the ratio of nuclear densities of two nuclei having mass number 1:4?
Or
What is the polarizing angle of a medium of refractive index 1.732?

5. Draw its V-I characteristics, with the help of a circuit diagram, its use as a
voltage regulator.
Or
Define the term magnetic declination.

SECTION-B

6. Two identical metallic spherical shells A and B having charges + 4Q and -

10Q are kept a certain distance apart. A third identical uncharged sphere C is
first placed in contact with sphere A and then with sphere B, then spheres A
and B are brought in contact and then separated. Find the charge on the
spheres A and B.
Or

Physics/XII Page 162

 Two point charges 3µC and -3µC are placed at points A and B, 5 cm apart.(a)
draw the equipotential surfaces of the system (b) why do equipotential
surfaces get close to each other near the point charge?

7. Three resistance 3Ω, 6Ω and 9Ω are connected to a battery. In which of them

will the power dissipation be maximum if a) They all are connected in
parallel b) They all are connected in series. Give reason.
Or
A wheel with 8 metallic spokes each 50 cm long is rotated with a speed of 120
rev/min in a plane normal to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic
field. The earth’s magnetic field at the place is 0.4 G and the angle of dip is
60°. Calcuate the emf induced between the 3axle and the rim of wheel. How
will the value of emf be affected if the number of spokes were increased?
8. Define Mutual induction. Write its S.I unit. Give two factors on which the
coefficient of mutual inductance between a pair of coils depends.
9. (i)You are given 8 Ω resistor. What length of wire of resistance 120 Ωm-1
should be joined in parallel with it to get a value of 6 Ω ? (ii)Three resistance
3Ω,6Ω and 9Ω are connected to a battery. In which of them will the power
dissipation be maximum if a) They all are connected in parallel b) They all are
connected in series. Give reason.
10. In an electromagnetic wave, the oscillating electric field having a frequency of
3 x 1010 Hz and an amplitude of 30 V/m propagates in the positive X-
direction. What is the wavelength of the electromagnetic wave? Write down
the expression to represent the corresponding magnetic field.
11. A double convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 has both curvatures
of radii 20cm. An object 2cm high is placed 2cm from this lens, find the
position, nature and size of the image.
12. The refractive index of a denser medium is 1.5. Calculate (i) Polarising angle
of the medium (ii) angle of refraction.

SECTION-C

13. Write Einstein’s photoelectric equation. State clearly the three salient features
observed in photoelectric effect which can be explained on the basis of above
equation.
14. Plot a graph between mass number and average binding energy per nucleon
and hence explain the energy released in the process of nuclear fission and
fusion.
Or
A heavy nucleus X of mass number 240 and binding energy per nucleon 7.6
MeV is splitted into two fragments Y and Z of mass numbers 110 and 130.
The binding energy of nucleons in Y and Z is 8.5 MeV per nucleon. Calculate
the energy released per fission in MeV
15. A semiconductor has an equal electron and hole concentration of 6 x108 /𝑚3 .
On doping with certain impurity, electron concentration increases to 4x
1010 /𝑚3 .
(iv) What type of semiconductor is obtained on doping?
(v) Calculate the new electron and hole concentration of the
semiconductor.
(vi) How does the energy gap vary with doping?

Physics/XII Page 163

 16. Write the function of the following in communication system (i)Transducer
(ii) Repeater (iii) Receiver (iv) Demodulator .
17. Define modulation index. Give its physical significance. For an amplitude
modulated wave, the maximum amplitude is found to be 10 V while the
minimum amplitude is 2 V. Determine the modulation index p.
18. Draw the circuit diagram to study the characteristic of npn transistor in
common emitter configuration. Sketch typical (i) input characteristics (ii)
output characteristics for such a configuration. Explain how the current gain of
transistor is calculated from output characteristics.
Or
State the principle of working of p-n diode as rectifier. Explain with the help
of circuit diagram, the use of p-n diode as a full wave rectifier. Draw a sketch
of the input and the output waveforms.
19. An electron, a-particle and a proton have the same de-Broglie wavelength.
Which of these particles has (i) minimum kinetic energy, (ii) maximum kinetic
energy, and why ?In what way has the wave nature of electron been exploited
in electron microscope?
20. Define diffraction. Deduce an expression for fringe width of the central
maxima of the diffraction pattern, produced by single slit illuminated with
monochromatic light source.
A slit of width 'a' is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength 700
nm at normal incidence. Calculate the value of 'a' for position of
(i) first minimum at an angle of diffraction of 30°.
(ii) first maximum at an angle of diffraction of 30°.
21. A compound microscope uses an objective lens of focal length 4 cm and
eyepiece lens of focal length 10 cm. An object is placed at 6 cm from the
objective lens. Calculate the magnifying power of the compound microscope.
Also calculate the length of the microscope.
22. (a) A glass lens of refractive index 1.45 disappears when immersed in a liquid.
What is the value of refractive index of the liquid?
(b) State the conditions for the phenomenon of total internal reflection to
occur.
23. What are coherent sources? Why are coherent sources required to produce
interference of light ? Give an example of interference of light in everyday
life. In Young's double slit experiment, the two slits are 0.03 cm apart and the
screen is placed at a distance of 1.5 m away from the slits. The distance
between the central bright fringe and fourth bright fringe is 1 cm. Calculate the
wavelength of light used.
24. A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60 μF capacitor in series is
connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
(a) Obtain the current amplitude and rms values. (b) Obtain the rms values of
potential drops across each element.(c) What is the average power transferred
to the inductor ?

SECTION-D

25. Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a cyclotron . State the underlying the
principle and explain how a positively charged particle will get accelerated.
Show mathematically the cyclotron frequency does not depend upon speed of
the particle.
OR

Physics/XII Page 164

 Define the terms (i)capacitance of a capacitor (ii)dielectric strength of a
dielectric
(iii)When a dielectric is inserted between the plates of a charged parallel plate
capacitor fully occupying the intervening region, how does the polarisation of
the dielectric medium affect the net electric field? For a linear dielectric, show
that the introduction of the dielectric increases its capacitance by a factor K
which is a characteristic of the dielectric.
26. State the working principle of potentiometer explain with the help of circuit
diagram how the potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of
the given primary cell. Explain with the help of circuit diagram how the emf
of two primary cells are compared by using the potentiometer.
The variation of potential difference with length in case of two potentiometres
A and B is given below.Which of the two is more sensitive.

OR
A capacitor of 200 pF is charged by a 300 V battery. The battery is then
disconnected and the charged capacitor is connected to another uncharged
capacitor of 100 pF. Calculate the difference between the final energy stored
in the combined system and the initial energy stored in the single capacitor.
Calculate the work done to associate the system of three charges q, -4q and 2q
placed on the vertices of equilateral triangle of side 10cm. here q = 1.6 х 10 -10
C.
27. (a) An electron travelling west to east enters a chamber having a uniform
electrostatic field in north to south direction. Specify the direction in which the
uniform magnetic field should be set up to prevent the electron from deflecting
from its straight line path.
b) A straight horizontal conducting rod of length 0.5 m and mass 50 g is
suspended by two vertical wires at its ends. A current of 5A is set up in the
rods through the wires.(i) What magnetic field should be set up normal to the
conductor in order that the tension in the wires is zero?(ii)What will be the
tension in the wire if the direction of current is reversed keeping the magnetic
field same as before?(neglect the mass ; g=10m/s2 )
OR
(i)Using Gauss’ s law , derive an expression for electric field intensity charged
thin spherical shell of radius R and density σ C/m2. Draw the field lines
when the charge density of the sphere is (a) positive (b) negative.(ii) A
uniformly charged conducting sphere of 2.5 m in diameter has surface charge
density of 100µC/m2. Calculate(a)charge on the sphere and (b) total electric
flux through the sphere.
28. (a) Relative permeability of a material µr = 0.5. Identify the nature of the
magnetic material and write its relations of magnetic susceptibility
(b) In photoelectric effect, why should the photoelectric current increase as
the intensity of monochromatic radiation incident on a photosensitive surface
is increased? Explain.

Physics/XII Page 165

 (c) Monochromatic light of frequency 5.0 x 1014 Hz is produced by laser.
The power emitted is 3.0 x 10-3 W. Estimate the number of photons emitted
per second on an average by the source.
Or
(i)A circuit containing a 80 mH inductor and a 60 μF capacitor in series is
connected to a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. The resistance of the circuit is negligible.
(a) Obtain the current amplitude and rms values. (b) Obtain the rms values of
potential drops across each element.(c) What is the average power transferred
to the inductor ?
(ii)Explain the basic principle, description and working of a.c generator with
neat labeled diagram.

Physics/XII Page 166

 Full Length Test Paper - 2
PHYSICS (042) SET- A
Time allowed: 3 hours CLASS- XII Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
1. All questions are compulsory. There are 37 questions in all.
2. This question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D.
3. Section A contains twenty questions of one mark each, Section B contains seven
questions of two marks each, Section C contains seven questions of three marks each,
and Section D contains three questions of five marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in two
questions of one mark each, two questions of two marks, one question of three marks
and three questions of five marks weightage. You have to attempt only one of the
choices in such questions.
5. You may use the following values of physical constants where ever necessary.

SECTION – A
Question number 1 to 10 are multiple choice questions with only option correct.
1. In comparison with the electric force between two electrons, the electric force
between two protons is
(a) Zero (b) Smaller (c) Same (d) Greater
2. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are connected in parallel. If a charge Q is given to the
combination, the charge gets distributed. Then the ratio of the charge on C 1 to charge
on C2 is
(a) 1/C1C2 (b) C1C2 (c) C2/C1 (d) C1/C2

Physics/XII Page 167

3. A graph between energy(E) and potential (V) for a capacitor will

be
4. An ideal voltmeter and an ideal ammeter are connected as shown in the figure. The

reading of the voltmeter is

(a) 9 V (b) 6V (c) 3 V (d) Zero
OR
A metal foil of negligible thickness is introduced between two plates of a capacitor at
the centre. The capacitance of the capacitor will be:
(a) Same (b) Double
(C) Half (d) K times
5. An alpha particle enters at the middle as shown in the figure with the velocity 1x 10 5

m/s. In which direction will it bend?

(a) Towards 1 A wire (b) Towards 3 A wire
(c) Upward the plane of wire (d) Downwards the plane of wire

Physics/XII Page 168

6. The angle of dip at a place where horizontal and vertical components of earth’s
magnetic field are equal, is
(a) 90o (b) 30o (c) 45o (d) Zero
7. If a bismuth rod (Diamagnetic) is introduced in the air coil as shown in the figure then

current in the coil

(a) Increases (b) Remains (c) Decreases (d) None of
unchanged these
8. In a closed ring A and in an open ring B magnets are falling along the axis of the ring.
The current generated in A and B have directions

(a) Anti-clockwise, clockwise (b) Clockwise, Anti-clockwise

(c) Clockwise, Zero (d) Anti-clockwise, Zero
9. In the following circuit the values of L, C, R and E o are 0.01 H, 1x 10─5 F, 25 Ω and
220 volt respectively. The value of current flowing in the circuit at frequency f = 0

and f = ∞ will respectively be

(a) 8A and 0 A(b) 0 A and 0 A (c) 8 A and 8 A (d) 0A and 8 A
10. The figure shows the variation of R, XL and XC with angular frequency in a series
L,C,R circuit. Then, for what frequency point, the circuit is inductive?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) All points.

Question number 11 to 15 are fill in the blanks type and each carries 1 mark. Fill
it with the appropriate answer.
Physics/XII Page 169
11. An electric dipole is placed inside uniform electric field. Net _______________on it
is always zero.
12. The conduction current is same as ___________ _______ whether the source is a.c. or
D.C.
13. In cassegrainian telescope, a large aperture_______________ mirror & a small
aperture _______________ mirror is used.
14. Polaroid is a device to produce and detect __________ polarized light.
15. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is independent of --------- of
incident radiation.
Question numbers 16 to 20 are of one mark each. Answer it with the appropriate
word or statement.
16. Which kind of wave transverse or longitudinal can be polarised?
17. When a convex lens is placed over a plane mirror, then object needle and its image
coincides at 15 cm. Then find the focal length of the lens.
27 125
18. The radius of 13 Al is 3.6 Fermi. Find the radius of 52Te nucleus.
19. The half-life of radium is 1600 years. The fraction of radium atoms undecayed after
4800 years will be?
20. The visible region of hydrogen spectrum was first studied by whom?
Section – B (Question number 21 to 27 for 2 marks each)
21. Draw a schematic diagram of refracting telescope. Write its two important limitations.

22. Draw the intensity pattern for single slit diffraction and double slit interference.
Hence, state two differences between interference and diffraction patterns.

23. (i) Monochromatic light of frequency 6x1014 Hz is produced by a laser. The power
emitted is 2x10─3 W. Estimate the number of photons emitted per second on an
average by the source.
(ii) Draw a plot showing the variation of photoelectric current versus the intensity of
incident radiation on a given photosensitive surface.

OR
(i) Define the term threshold frequency as used in photoelectric effect.
(ii) Plot a graph showing the variation of photoelectric current as a function of anode
potential for two light beams having the same frequency but different intensities I 1
and I2 (I1> I2).
24. Name the semiconductor device that can be used to regulate an unregulated DC power
supply. With the help of I-V characteristics of this device, explain its working
principle.
25. State Bohr’s postulate of hydrogen atom that gives the relationship for the frequency
of an emitted photon in a transition.
26. The two lines marked A and B in the given figure, shows the plot of de-Broglie
2
wavelength λ versus 1/√𝑉, where V is the accelerating potential for two nuclei 1H
3
and 1H
(i) What does the slope of the lines represent?
(ii) Identify which of the lines corresponded to these nuclei.

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27. Unpolarised light is passed through a polaroid P1. When this polarized beam passes
through another polaroid P2 and if the pass axis of P2 makes an angle of θ with the
pass axis of P1, then write the expression for the polarised beam passing through P 2.
Draw a plot showing the variation of intensity, for θ varies from 0 to 2π.

Section- C (Question from 28 – 34 are of 3 marks each)

28. An inductor of inductance XL is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source.
How would brightness of the bulb change when (i) Number of turns in the inductor is
reduced, (ii) An iron rod is inserted in the inductor and (iii) A capacitor of reactance
XC = XL is inserted in series in the circuit. Justify your answer in each case.

29. A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns and resistance 200 Ω is placed with its plane
perpendicular to the horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field. It is rotated
about its vertical diameter through 180o in 0.25 second. Estimate the magnitudes of
emf and current induced in the coil. ( BH = 3 x 10─5 Tesla)

30. Write the expression for Lorentz magnetic force on a particle of charge ‘q’ moving
with velocity v in a magnetic field B . Show that no work is done by this force on
the charged particle.
OR
A steady current I1 flows through a long straight wire. Another wire carrying current
I2 in the same direction is kept close and parallel to each other. Show with the help of
a diagram how the magnetic field due to current I1 exerts a magnetic force on the
second wire. Write the expression of this force.

31. A conductor of length ‘L’ is connected to a DC source of potential ‘V’. If the length
of the conductor is tripled by gradually stretching it, keeping ‘V’ constant, how will
(i) Drift speed of electron and (ii) resistance of conductor be affected? Justify your
answer.
32. Two metal spheres, one of radius ‘R’ and other of radius ‘2R’ both have same surface
charge density  . They are brought in contact and separated. What will be the new
surface charge densities on them?

33. Two charges ─q is uniformly distributed over the length of a ring of radius “R”. A
small test charge +q of mass “m” is kept at the centre of the ring and is given a gentle
push along the axis of the ring. Show that the particle executes a simple harmonic
oscillation. Obtain its time period.

34. A room has AC run for 5 hours a day at a voltage of 220 V. the wiring of the room
consists of copper of 1 mm radius and a length of 10 m. power consumption per day is
10 commercial units. What fraction of it goes in the joule heating in wires? What

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 would happen if the wire is made of aluminum of the same dimensions? { ρcu = 1.7 x
10─8Ωm, ρAl = 2.7 x 10─8Ωm}

Section – D (Question from 35 – 37 are of 5 marks each)

35. (i) Derive an expression for the magnetic field at a point on the axis of a current
carrying circular loop.
(ii) A coil of 100 turns (tightly bound) and radius 10 cm. carries a current of 1 A. what
is the magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil?

OR
State Ampere’s circuital law. Consider a long straight wire of a circular cross section
(radius “a”) carrying steady current “I”. The current “I” is uniformly distributed
across this cross section. Using Ampere’s circuital law, find the magnetic field in the
region r < a and r > a.
36. (i) State and explain Huygens principle. Using it obtain Snell’s law of refraction.
(ii) When light travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium, the speed decreases.
Does the reduction in speed imply a reduction in the energy carried the light wave?

OR
With the help of a labeled ray diagram show the image formation by a compound
microscope. Derive an expression for its magnifying power. How can the magnifying
be increased?
37. Suppose a ‘n’- type wafer is created by doping Si crystal having 5 x 1028 atoms/m3
with 1 ppm concentration of As. On the surface 200 ppm Boron is added to create “P”
region in this wafer. Considering ni = 1.5 x 1016 m─3.
(i) Calculate the densities of the charge carriers in the “n” & “P” regions.
(ii) Comment which charge carriers would contribute largely for the reverse biased.

OR
(i) Explain the formation of depletion layer in P-N Junction. Why we do biasing of the
P-N Junction, when diffusion current stops? Plot the I-V characteristic for P-N
Junction in forward biased and reversed biased and explain the reason of strong and
weak current in different biasing.5]

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