Proposed Key Answers 41

PROPOSED KEY ANSWERS
FOR THE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION FOR THE POST OF

DISTRICT JUDGE (ENTRY LEVEL) IN THE PUDUCHERRY JUDICIAL
SERVICE HELD ON 10.06.2023 (SATURDAY)
(Notification No.41/2023, dated 08.03.2023)
The proposed key answers for Paper – I and Paper – II, marked in the
Question Booklet (A-Series), for the Preliminary Examination for the post of
District Judge (Entry Level) in the Puducherry Judicial Service conducted on
10.06.2023 (Saturday) in two sessions, i.e. Paper – I (10.00 a.m. – 01.00 p.m.)
and Paper – II (02.00 p.m. – 05.00 p.m.) are hosted herewith.
Any objection with regard to any of the proposed key answers should be
sent by the candidates to the Registrar (Recruitment), High Court, Madras,
through e-mail (recruitment.mhc@gov.in) within two days from today,
specifying the following: 1.Name of Paper, 2.Series of the Question Booklet,
3.Question Number, 4.Photostat copy of the question paper, 5.Self-attested photo
copies of source documents / proof on the basis of which he / she submits
objections / clarifications. In such Objections, Registration Number, Name and
address of the candidate etc., with supporting material for such claim should
invariably be quoted.
Any objections received after two days or without requisite particulars

or incorrect question number or vague objections without any material to
support etc., will receive no attention.
Dated: 12.06.2023 Sd/-XXX

Place: Chennai. Registrar (Recruitment)
MHCPDJFN0000 Question Booklet Series:
A
Booklet No. Register No.
Duration : Three Hours Max Marks. 150

(Time : 9.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon) [0.25 Negative marks for
(Session - I) each incorrect answer]
OBJECTIVE TiCPE — 2023
PAPER — I
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS eCC
C.n
The candidates will be supplied with Question Booklet 15 minutes prior to the
commencement of the Examination
This Question Booklet contains 150 objective questions. Before answering the
questions, the candidates are requested to check whether all the questions are in
seriatim and ensure that there are no blank pages in the question booklet. In case,
1
if any defect is noticed in the question booklet, it shall be reported to your room
invigilator immediately, so as to get it replaced with a new question booklet with the
same series. If the defect is reported after the commencement of the Examination, it
will not be replaced.
The Question paper is in English and all the questions carry equal marks,
i.e., 150 x 1 mark = 150 marks. For each incorrect answer, 0.25 marks will be
deducted.
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
MHCPDJFN0000 2 A
4.4
1./ A 'Contract for Sale' of immovable property
(A) does create interest in such property

(B) does create charge on such property
0 does not, by itself, create interest in or charge on such property

(D) none of the above
2. A patient in a Mental Health Centre, who is, at intervals, of sound mind

during those intervals.
(A) cannot contract

may contract
(C) may contract through his guardian only
(D) may contract with the permission of the court
3. In a contract of guarantee
0 there is an implied promise by the principal debtor to indemnify the

surety
there is no implied promise by the principal debtor to indemnify the
surety
there is an implied promise by the surety to indemnify the creditor
none of the above
4. 'A' owes 'B', under a contract, a sum of money, the amount of which has not
been ascertained. 'A', without ascertaining the amount, gives to 'B' and 'B', in
satisfaction thereof accepts the sum of Its. 2000/-. This is a discharge of
0 whole debt
part debt
earnest money
previous debt
A 3 MHCPDJFN0000
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5. There is presumption of existence of contract entitling an agent to enforce or
bind him in respect of contracts entered by him on behalf of principal
(A) where the contract is made by an agent for the sale or purchase of goods
for a merchant resident abroad
(B) where the agent does not disclose the name of his principal
(C) where the principal, though disclosed, cannot be sued
(12) all of the above
When an acceptance may be revoked:
An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication of

the acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards
0 An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication of

the acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards
(C) An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication of
the acceptance is incomplete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards
03) An acceptance may be revoked at any time after the communication of
the acceptance is complete as against the acceptor, but not afterwards
7./ When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or

misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract
0 voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused

illegal
depends upon the circumstances of the case
void
If the event becomes impossible, such contracts becomes:
(A) Illegal (B) Bad

Void (D) Voidable
MHCPDJFN0000 4 A
A condition is a stipulation to the main purpose of the contract, the breach of
which gives rise to a right to treat the contract as repudiated
(A) Not essential (B) Not collateral
0 Essential (D) Collateral
10. A remedy of a person unsuccessful in a suit u/s 6 of the Specific Relief Act is to
file
(A) appeal
(B) application for review
0 a regular suit for establishing title to the suit property
11. > Specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person
who would not be entitled to recover compensation for its breach
who acts in fraud of the contract
who fails to prove that he has performed or has always been ready and
willing to perform the essential terms of the contract which are to be
performed by him.
(A) to (C) above
12. 1 Suit for possession under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is to be
filed within of dispossession.
six months (B) one year
(C) three years (D) twelve years
5 MHCPDJFN0000
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13.- Where no time is fixed for the performance of agreement, a suit for specific
performance is to be filed within
(A) three years of the agreement

(B) three years of notice seeking performance
0 three years of notice of refusal of performance

(D) twelve years of the agreement
14.7 Specific relief can be granted only for the purpose of
enforcing individual civil rights and not for the mere purpose of
enforcing a penal law
(B) enforcing individual fundamental rights
(C) enforcing individual criminal rights only
(D) enforcing individual civil rights as well as criminal rights
15., Which formality is essential for a valid adoption?
(A) homa (B) registration
0 actual giving and taking (D) written document
16. In a suit for compensation for malicious prosecution the plaintiff has to prove
(A) that the prosecution was actuated by malice

(B) the prosecution was instituted against him without any reasonable or
probable cause
(C) the proceedings complaint of terminated in favour of the plaintiff
all the above
17., 'Armchair Rule' pertains to
(A) Interpretation of statute

a ix
Interpretation of a will
Interpretation of terms of a contract
None of the above
MHCPDJFN0000 6 A
18.‘ For the application of Section 14(1) of Hindu Succession Act 1956, the female
Hindu
(A) must have some interest in the property vested in her

(B) must be in possession of the property
(C) either (A) or (B)
both (A) and (B)
19. Iliba under the Mohammedan Law means

f(49) immediate and unqualified transfer of the corpus of the property
without any return
immediate and unqualified transfer of the profits of the property
without the corpus and without any return
immediate but qualified transfer of the corpus of the property for a
consideration
immediate and unqualified transfer of the corpus of the property for a
return
For the purpose of Section 6 of the Hindu Succession

(Amendment of 2005) Act, 1956 'Partition' means
any partition made by execution of a deed of partition duly registered

partition effected by decree of a Court
0 (A) and (B) above
21., An application for grant of succession certificate may be entertained by a

Court within whose jurisdiction
the deceased ordinarily resided

where no fixed place of residence of deceased, at a place where any part
of property may be found
0 Both (A) and (B)
(D) where applicant resided
7 MHCPDJFN0000
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22.1 The object of Section 14(2) of Hindu Succession Act, 1956 is to
(A) interfere in the contracts, grants, etc., by virtue of which a woman's

right was restricted
remove the disability on women imposed by law
both (A) and (B)
only (A) and not (B)
23. Presumption that the younger survived the elder under Section 21 of the
Hindu Succession Act 1956 is a
(A) Presumption of fact (B) Presumption of fact and law

Rebuttable presumption of law (D) Irrebuttable presumption of law
24:i Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to
Movable property
Immovable property
Both movable and immovable property
(D) None of the above
25../ The right of a child in the womb at the time of the death of the intestate are
provided under the Hindu Succession Act in
(A) Section 19 CO) Section 20

(C) Section 21 (D) Section 22
26..4 Which section of the Hindu Succession Act 1956 deals with the Order of
succession among heirs in the Schedule?
(A) Section 12 of Hindu Succession Act 1956

Section 9 of Hindu Succession Act 1956
MHCPDJFN0000 8 A
27. Section 25 of Hindu Succession Act 1956 deals with
(A) Right of a child in the womb

go) Murderer disqualified
Disease, defect, etc. not to disqualify
Testamentary succession
28. When the same person becomes entitled to the absolute ownership of the
whole of the dominant and servient heritages
an easement is neither extinguished nor suspended
an easement is suspended
an easement is extinguished
(D) an easement is either suspended or extinguished
29. Which section of The Indian Easements Act 1882 deals with the Servient
owners?
(A) Section 12 of The Indian Easements Act 1882

Section 9 of The Indian Easements Act 1882
30. Which section of The Indian Easements Act 1882 deals with Exclusion in
favour of reversioner of servient heritage?
(B) Section 14 of The Indian Easements Act 1882
(C) Section 13 of The Indian Easements Act 1882
(D) Section 18 of The Indian Easements Act 1882
A 9 MHCPDJFN0000
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31.. Section 17 of the Indian Easements Act 1882 provides
41) Rights which cannot be acquired by prescription

Servient owner not bound to do anything
Injunction to restrain disturbance
Transfer of dominant heritage passes easement
32. Which section of The Indian Easements Act 1882 deals with Passing of
easement upon Transfer of dominant heritage?
(A) Section 17 of The Indian Easements Act 1882
65. Section 19 of The Indian Easements Act 1882

33. The immovable property sold in execution of a decree and such sale has
become absolute, the property shall be deemed to have vested in the
purchaser
from the time when the property is sold
(B) when the sale becomes absolute

(C) on grant of sale certificate
(D) on payment of entire purchase money
34. the 'Court may by order appoint a receiver of any property before
or after decree.
(01,1J Where it appears to the court to be just and convenient

( 3) Where it appears to the court that any property in dispute in a suit is in
danger of being wasted, damaged or alienated by any party to the suit
Where it appears to the court that any property in dispute in a suit is
likely to be wrongfully sold in execution of a decree
(B) and (C) above
MHCPDJFN0000 10 A
35.- Parties by their consent/agreement
(A) can confer jurisdiction on a court, where there is none in law

(B) can oust the jurisdiction of the court where there is one in law
0 can oust the jurisdiction of one of the courts when there are two courts
simultaneously having jurisdiction in law
all the above
36... Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) the executing court must take the decree as it stands

(B) the executing court cannot go into the question whether the decree has
been obtained by fraud
(C) the executing court cannot question the legality, correctness or validity
of the decree
0 all the above
37. A garnishee order is an order
0 prohibiting the judgment debtor's debtor from making any payment to

the judgment debtor
(B) directing the judgment debtor's creditor to take the payment from the
judgment debtor's debtor
(C) permitting the judgment debtor's debtor to make the payment to the
judgment debtor
(D) either (A) or (B) or (C)
38., I. Objection as to place of suing can be allowed at appellate stage though

such objection was not taken in the Court of first instance.
II. Objection as to place of suing can be allowed at revisional stage though
such objection was not taken in the Court of first instance.
(A) I is true and II is false (B) I is false and II is true

Both I and II are true Both I and II are false
A 11 MHCPDJFN0000
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39.- What is the remedy against the order of detention in the civil prison under
Order XXXIX, Rule 2A of Code of Civil Procedure?
(A) Appeal under Clause (r) of Rule 1 of Order XLIII

(B) Appeal under Section 96 of C.PC.
(C) Writ Petition
lb) Appeal under clause (h) of Section 104 of C.P.0
40. Where an immovable property of a judgment debtor is attached in execution,

the statutory remedy of the person seeking to lay claim over the said property
or object to attachment is
to challenge the said order by filing appeal

file objections before the Court passing the order
file Writ Petition before Hon'ble High Court.
none of the above
41. Effect of death• of sole plaintiff between the conclusion of the hearing and
pronouncing of the judgment is that
The suit would be abate
Legal representatives will have to be brought on record before judgment

There will be no effect
42. If one of the several plaintiffs has to abandon a suit or part of a claim
(A) he can do so on his own accord
he has to obtain the consent of other plaintiffs

he has to obtain consent of at least half of the plaintiffs
none of the above
MHCPDJFN0000 12 A
43. An anti suit injunction is
an order preventing opposite party from commencing or continuing

proceeding in another jurisdiction
an order preventing opposite party from commencing or continuing
proceeding in same jurisdiction
an order preventing another inferior Court from passing any order in
favour of opposite party
none of the above
44. Which of the following deals with the time for inspection when notice is given
in the Code Of Civil Procedure?
(A) Order 16, Rule 12 (B) Order 4, Rule 13
(C) Order 6, Rule 10 Order 11, Rule 17
c Which of the following deals with the right to challenge non-appealable orders
in appeal against decrees in the Code of Civil Procedure?
Order 43, Rule 1A (B) Order 31, Rule 9

(C) Order 22, Rule 18 (D) Order 9, Rule 10
46, In order that a decision in a former suit may operate as res judicata, the court
which decided that suit must have been?
A civil court of competent jurisdiction

A court of exclusive jurisdiction
A court of concurrent jurisdiction 'competent to try the subsequent suit'
A court of limited jurisdiction competent to try the issue raised in the
subsequent suit
(A) Either I or III (B) Either II or III

(C) Either III or IV Cr) All of these
A 13 MHCPDJFN0000
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11
47. An order under Order 33 Rule 11 CPC directing the pauper plaintiff to pay
the Court-fees can only be made in which of the following cases?
Where the plaintiff fails in the suit

Where the plaintiff is dis-paupered under rule 9
Where the suit is withdrawn
Where the suit is dismissed under the circumstances specified in cl. (a)
or cl.(b)
(A) I, III, IV (B) II, IV

(C) III, IV CD All of these
48. Which of the following are the principal rules as to concurrent jurisdiction?
Concurrent as to pecuniary limit and the subject matter

Competency of the former court to be determined as on the date of the
'former suit' and not as on the date of the 'subsequent suit'
Competency of the trial court to determine
Competence of court when there is a court with preferential jurisdiction
Both the suits are in revenue court, but appeals lie to different
authorities
I, III (B) II, IV, V

(C) I, IV, V All of these
49„ A gift of immovable property must be effected
by registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor, and

attested by at least two witnesses
by registered instrument signed by or on behalf of the donor, and
attested by at least two witnesses when the value of the property is
Rs. 100 or upward
need not be effected by registered instrument
by delivery of possession by the donor and acceptance thereof by the
donee
MlicTDJFN0000 14 A
50, Which amongst the following is not a mode of transfer under the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882?
(A) Mortgage (B) Lease

(C) Exchange 0 Pledge
51. 'X' executes sale deed in respect of a property in favour of 'Y' for a
consideration of Rs. One lakh. Out of the said amount Rs. Fifty thousand is
paid and balance is to be paid within three months. What is the right of 'X' if
the amount is not paid by Y?
He can revoke the sale deed

He shall be entitled to the balance amount along-with interest
(C) He can exercise either or both of the aforesaid action
(I)) None of the above
52., An agreement vendee of an immovable property can claim protection

u/s. 53-A of Transfer of Property Act
0 if possession is given to him in part performance by written agreement

if possession is given to him in part performance under an oral
agreement
if the agreement is registered although possession under part
performance is not given.
Op) all of the above
53.„,/ Which of the following can be considered implied surrender of the lease?
(A) Non acceptance of a new lease taking effect during the continuance of
the existing lease
Abandonment of possession by the lessee
(C) A surrender by one of the two joint lessee's, implied surrender on the
part of second lessee
None of these
A 15 MHCPDJFN0000
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54.1 Which of the following can be transferred under the provisions of the Transfer
of Property Act, 1882?
(A) The right to mesne profits

A decree for mesne profits
A transfer of property to a prostitute for future cohabitation
A sub-lease of a farm for the retail sale of opium
55. Which of the following sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 deals
with the appointment of a receiver?
(A) Section 68 (B) Section 68A

(C) Section 69 Sk Section 69A
56. Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882
(A) Applies to property sold in auction sale

Does not apply to property sold in auction sale
Applies to compromise of doubtful rights
Does not apply to compromises of doubtful rights
57. / The doctrine of lis pendens
(A) is applicable to both movable and immovable property

is applicable to both partial and absolute transfers
is applicable on both specified and unspecified properties
all of these
58., Under the provisions of section 29 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 an
ulterior disposition of the kind contemplated in the provision of section 28
cannot take effect unless
condition is strictly fulfilled (B) condition is not fulfilled

(C) only (B) is correct (D) none of the above
MHCPDJFN0000 16 A
59., Section 41 of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882 applies to voluntary
transfers and has no application to
0 court sale (B) contingent sale
(C) perpetuity sale (D) price less sale
60v The mortgagor in Indian law is the owner who had parted with some rights of
ownership and the rights of redemption is a right which he exercises by virtue
of his
0 residuary ownership (B) pecuniary ownership
(C) conditional ownership (D) none of the above
61. Owelty is
an amount paid by one owner to another to equalise partition of

property
an amount paid by transferee to the transferor for delayed payment of
consideration
an amount paid by tenant to Landlord for occupying the premises
beyond agreed term
0:0 an amount of damages to be recovered from a tortfeasor
62., In computing the period of limitation for any suit
the time during which the defendant has been absent from India shall
be excluded
not be excluded
be excluded provided the period of limitation for the suit has not
commenced to run before he has left India
none of the above
A 17 MHCPDJFN0000
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63.7 Suit for partition of joint family property is to be filed within
Twelve years after the exclusion from the joint family becomes known to
the plaintiff
Three years after the exclusion from the joint family becomes known to
the plaintiff
Three years after the plaintiff looses possession
Twelve years after the plaintiff looses possession
64.d Acknowledgment contemplated u/s. 18 of the Limitation Act for granting

fresh period of limitation
(A) may be an acknowledgment given beyond period of limitation

has to be given within prescribed period of limitation.
both (A) and (B)
none of the above
65. 'Tort' in the Limitation Act, 1963 includes which of following?
Civil wrong, which is exclusively the breach of a contract or the breach

of trust
Judicial wrong, which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the
breach of trust
Civil wrong, which is not exclusively the breach of a contract or the
breach of trust
(D) None of these
66:- Which of the following sections of the Limitation Act, 1963 gives recognition
to the concept of 'Adverse Possession'?
(A) 22 (B) 24
26 027
MHCPDJFN0000 18 A
67. Where in any case, the suit or application is based upon fraud or mistake, the
period of limitation shall not begin to run untill the plaintiff or applicant has
discovered the fraud or the mistake. The statement is
False
True
Provided under Section 17
Not provided under Limitation Act
Choose the correct combination:
(A) None of the options is correct (B) Only (1) is correct

(C) (1) and (4) (2) and (3)
68.," Where the mortgage is illegal for want of registration but the mortgagee
continues in possession of the mortgaged property, a valid mortgage comes in
existence after the expiry of
5 years (B) 10 years
0 12 years (D) 20 years
69. 'X' executed a sale deed in favour of 'Y' on 1-1-2002. Subsequently on

10-1-2002, 'X' executed a sale deed in respect of the same property in favour of
'Z'. Thereafter the sale deed in favour of 'Z' executed on 10-1-2002 was
registered on 20-1-2002. Whereas the sale deed in favour of 'Y' was registered
on 30-1-2002. In the said case, by virtue of Section 47 of The Registration Act,
1908
the sale deed executed in favour of 'Y' on 1-1-2002 and registered on

30-1-2002 shall have precedence and confer title on
the sale deed executed in favour of 'Z' on 10-1-2002 and registered on
20-1-2002 shall have precedence and confer title on 'Z'.
both the sale deeds shall be void
the sale deeds in favour of 'Y' and 'Z' shall remain valid to the extent of
50% of the property
A 19 MHCPDJFN0000
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70. / The Section providing for documents of which registration is optional under
the Registration Act is
Section 18 (B) Section 19

71.y Under Section 34 of the Indian Registration Act, the registering officer shall
inquire
(A) about the identity of the property under transfer

(0, about the identity of the parties to that transfer
(C) about the title of the party seeking transfer of that property
03) about all of these
72. If in an instrument the amount undertaken or ordered to be paid is stated

differently in figures and in words
the instrument is void due to uncertainty

the amount stated in figure shall be the amount undertaken or ordered
to be paid
0 the amount stated in words shall be the amount undertaken or ordered

to be paid
73. Inchoate instrument means
kfi,) Blank or incomplete instrument (B) Unstamped instrument

(C) Ambiguous instrument (D) Illegible instrument
74./ Director of a company is vicariously liable for the offence committed by the
company
in cases where statute so provides

where there are specific allegations against the director
both (A) and (B)
MHCPDJFN0000 20 A
75' A "cheque" is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and not
expressed to be payable
(A) on demand
(B) otherwise than on demand
(C) to payee
either to order or to bearer
76. Where a promissory note is payable by installments, and two or more

installments have become due, and the holder of the note sues only for one of
the installments and omits to sue for the other installments?
(A) He can afterwards sue for these installments

11) He cannot afterwards sue for these installments
(C) Either (A) or (B)
(D) None of these
77. Which of the following is not included in the definition of "Bill of exchange
payable on demand?
Any instrument attested by a witness and payable to order or bearer,

whereby a person /obliges himself to pay money to another
A letter of credit, an instrument by which one person authorities
another to give credit, to the person in whose favour it is drawn
An order for the payment of any sum of money by a bill of exchange or
promissory note
An order of the payment of any sum of money weekly, monthly, or at
any other states period person is whose favour it is drawn
784 What is epistolary jurisdiction?
(A) Exercise of suo moto powers by Court

Entertaining of letters as petitions by a Court.
Allowing party in person to appear in Court
Public Interest Litigation
A 21 MHCPDJFN0000
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794 Latin Maxim 'Audi Alteram Partem' is based on the principle
16N\ No man be condemned unheard
No man shall be judge of his own cause
No man shall meet his maker with a lie in his mouth
None of the above
80., Rules of procedure are handmaids of justice' means
(A) Procedural laws need not be adhered to
,-(0) Procedural laws must sub serve to and are in aid of justice
Procedural laws are always directory
Procedural laws are always mandatory
81. ' Which of the following is the closest in meaning to the legal maxim
res communes?
Whence there is truth, there is light

Things belonging to nobody
0 Things belonging to everybody
Rest of the communities
82. Actio personalis moritur cum persona means:
A personal right of action dies with the person

(B) Personal Care of citizens
(C) An action directed toward a Criminal for reformation
(D) An action is not given to him who is not injured
83. J What do you mean by the term ad Litem?
for the suit (B) party in a dispute

tax litigation (D) money agreement
MHCPDJFN0000 22 A
84. According to Sale of Goods Act, 1930 an unpaid seller has which rights where
goods are passed to the buyer?
(A) a lien on the goods for the price while he is in possession of them
(B) in case of the insolvency of the buyer a right of stopping the goods in
transit after he has parted with the possession of them
(C) a right of re-sale as limited by this Act
all of the above
85, Where there is a contract for the sale of specific or ascertained goods the
property in them is transferred to the buyer
0 At such time as the parties to the contract intend it to be transferred
At such time as the buyer only intend it to get it transferred
It depends upon the circumstances of the case

At such time as the seller only intend it to transfer to the buyer
86., The conditions and warranties in a sale of goods may be
Express or implied (B) Express

(C) Implied (D) None of the above
87./ A lien can be exercised by the unpaid seller only
(A) When the ownership right relating to goods have transferred to the
buyer
gO, When the goods are still in possession of the un-paid seller
(C) When the goods have been transported through the carrier made
available by the buyer
(D) When the goods have been delivered to the buyer
A 23 MHCPDJFN0000
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88. "Specific goods" means
(A) Goods identified and agreed when actual sale is made

Goods identified and agreed upon at the time a contract of sale is made
Goods to be identified only when the buyer is making cash purchases
Goods identified at the time a contract of sale is made
89. Future goods' means
(A) Goods to be manufactured or acquired from the third person by the

seller after making of the contract of sale
Goods to be manufactured or produced or acquired by the seller after
making of the contract of sale
Goods to be manufactured or produced by the seller after making of the
contract of sale
Goods to be acquired by the seller after making of the contract of sale
90. 'Cooling off period prescribed under Section 13B of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
is
(A) three months 11b) six months

(C) nine months (D) twelve months
A divorced Muslim woman would be entitled to claim maintenance from her

divorced husband, as long as?
(A) She is observing iddat She does not remarry

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Appointment of testamentary guardian by father shall have no effect, if

father predeceases the mother
II. Such appointment however revives if the mother dies without
appointing, by Will, any person as guardian
(A) I is correct but II is incorrect (B) I is incorrect but II is correct

Both I and II are correct (D) Both I and II are incorrect
MHCPDJFN0000 24 A
Death of insured after the accident would bar the claim of the third parties
against
(A) Insurer (B) Estate of deceased

(C) Both (A) and (B) Neither (A) nor (B)
.11. In case of composite negligence liability of the tortfeasors is joint and

several and it is the prerogative of the claimant to lay his claim against
either or all of them.
II. In case of contributory negligence liability of the tortfeasor is to the

extent of his negligence.
(A) I is true, II is false (B) I is false, II is true
0 I and II are true (D) I and II are false
95./ "Hit and Run motor accident" is defined under which section of
Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?
(A) Section 160 Section 161(a)(b)
Bar on jurisdiction of Civil Courts is provided under which Section of the

Motor Vehicles Act
CD Section 94 (B) Section 75

(C) Section 76 (D) None of the above
Under Section 173 of the Motor Vehicles Act, a person aggrieved by an award
of the Tribunal can prefer an appeal to
(A) The Supreme Court UT The High Court
(C) The District Court (D) None of the above
A 25 MHCPDJFN0000
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98. In the absence of agreement between the parties regarding appointment of
arbitrator, the arbitrator is to be appointed by
The Chief Justice (or)

Person designated by the Chief Justice (or)
Institution designated by the Chief Justice
W) Any one of the above
99. i'What does 'Venue' and 'Seat' of arbitration signify?
Venue is merely geographical location where arbitration is to be

conducted whereas seat is related to the laws of area governing
arbitration
They are both one and the same
Selection of Venue decides the Laws governing arbitration
None of the above
100.„ 'An oral arbitration agreement
(A) may be recognised at the discretion of the arbitrators

is not recognised as an arbitration agreement
(C) may be recognised depending upon the facts and circumstances of case
to case
(D) may be recognised at the discretion of the parties
101. Chapter II of Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 deal with
the enforcement of certain foreign awards made under
The New York and Geneva Convention

The New York Convention
0 The Geneva Convention

MHCPDJFN0000 26 A
102. "Arbitral Award"
(A) Does not include an interim award

(B) Inclusion of an interim award depends upon case to case basis
Includes an interim award
May or may not include an interim award
103:An arbitral tribunal shall be deemed to have entered upon the reference on
the date on which the arbitrators
receive notice, in writing, of their appointment
(B) receive notice, orally, of their appointment
(C) receive notice, of their appointment
(D) give their consent for their appointment
104/ Decree for eviction on the ground of bonafide requirement for additional
accommodation may not be passed even after the bonafide requiremea is
proved by the landlord if
0, It is shown that greater hardship would be caused to the tenant by

grant of decree than what would be caused to Landlord by its' refusal
Landlord is a rich person
Landlord has several other premises

( 3) It is shown that greater hardship would be caused to the family of
tenant than to the family of the Landlord
105: Solatium under Section 23(2) of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 is to be
awarded at the rate of over the market value
(A) 15% 30%

50% (D) None of the above
A 27 MHCPDJFN0000
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106./ Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to the Constitution by
6,1) The Constitution First Amendment Act

The Constitution Second Amendment Act
The Constitution Fourth Amendment Act
The Constitution Sixth Amendment Act
/
107, If the President of India wants to resign, he has to address the letter of
resignation to the
(A) Chief Justice of India (B) Prime Minister
0 Vice-President (D) Speaker
108: In which part of the Indian Constitution, the Fundamental Duties are
enshrined?
(A) IV IV-A
(C) IV-B (D) V
109.'" The 73rd amendment was brought into force to give effect to one of the
Directive Principles of State Policy mentioned in
(A) Article 47 grei) Article 40

(C) Article 45 (D) Article 46
Panchayati Raj belongs to
(A) Residuary list (B) Concurrent list

State list (D) Union list
Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) protect the use of information and ideas
that are of
(A) Ethical value (B) Moral value

(C) Social value Commercial value
MHCPDJFN0000 28 A
112./The following cannot be exploited by assigning or by licensing the rights to
others
(A) Patents (B) Designs
0 Trademark (D) All of the above
113. Design does not include
(A) Features of shape

(B) Composition of lines or colours
Mode or principle of construction
114./A design can be also registered under
(A) Trademark Act (B) Patent Act

(C) Geographical Indication Act In Copyright Act
115.1 IPR Complete specification gives
(A) Full description of claim only (B) Full description of royalty

0 Full description of invention (D) Full description of application
116. Copyright is granted for
(A) Original trademark (B) Original research product
0 Original musical work (D) Original ideas
117. 'Copyright is a
Creation by person of efforts, intellectual and capital

Creation by person of the efforts only
Creation by negligence of a person
(B) Creation by the mental status of a person
A 29 MHCPDJFN0000
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118. Process for obtaining some product which is different and new from the
previous one can be
(.114 Patented (B) Registered under trademark act

(C) Registered under design act (D) Copyrighted
119.! Assignment of patent means transfer of in the patent by the

patent holder in favour of another.
(A) Title (B) Ideas
0 Interest (D) Goods
120. The power of the Government to refer a Dispute under the Industrial
Disputes Act is
(A) Mandatory 4fr Discretionary

(C) Recommendatory (D) Either mandatory or discretionary
121. 'Retrenchment' means
(A) Termination of service of the workers due to punitive action by the

employer
[tit Termination of service of workers on account of being declared surplus
Dismissal of the workers by the employer due to violent activities of the
workers
None of the above
122. Under which of the following legislations there is a provision called 'protected
workmen'?
Trade Unions Act, 1926

Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
Factories Act, 1948
Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
MHCPDJFN0000 30 A
Under which Section of the General Clauses Act does the effect of repeal is
started?
(A) Section 3 (B) Section 4
0 Section 6 (D) Section 8
/Which of the following rules of interpretation are applicable to Taxation

Statutes?
(A) Liberal and wide interpretation
Strict and narrow interpretation
Beneficial interpretation
Utilitarian interpretation
125.,,How will the profits be divided among partners in the absence of a

partnership deed?
Depending on the capital invested
Depending on the work experience
Unequal
Equal
126. What is a limited liability partnership?
(A) Form of business partnership where there is no fixed term agreed for
the duration of the partnership
Partnership in which the liability of a partner is limited as a

shareholder of a company
(C) Form of partnership under common law
A partnership was formed for a single transaction
A 31 MHCPDJFN0000
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127. What is partner by estoppel?
An interested person who is involved in the daily operations of the

partnership
A person who provides some of the capital for a business but who does
not take an active part in managing the business
A person who holds himself out as a partner or permits a partner to
hold him out
A person who gives an impression to others that he/she is a partner of
the firm
128. 'Partners in a firm will get Interest on Capital if provided in the partnership
`r deed but only out of which account?
(A) Reserves (B) Goodwill

(C) Assets 4 Profits
129.; X' a partnership firm is registered with the Registrar of firms however name
of plaintiff-partner is not shown in the register of firms and the suit is filed to
enforce right arising from a contract and conferred by the Indian Partnership
Act, 1932, then such suit would be
(A) Maintainable
IJ Not maintainable
(C) Maintainable with prior leave of the Court
(D) Maintainable with the permission of Registrar of firms
130. ./Which are following are not instrument as defined under Section 2(14) Indian
Stamp Act, 1899
(A) An entry in register containing the term of hiring of machinery
0 Photocopy of an agreement
Bond
A document by which any such right or liability is only recorded even
though the document itself does not create such a right or liability
MHCPDJFN0000 32 A
131. Under which section of Hindu Marriage Act is prohibited relationship
defined?
(A) Section 3(d) (B) Section 3(e)

(C) Section 3(f) 0 Section 3(g)
132._ Trade Union under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 means, a trade union
registered under the
(A) Industrial Disputes Act

Trade Union Act
Industrial Employment Standing Orders Act
Factories Act
133. "First come, last go and last come, first go" is the principle of
(A) Closure (B) Dismissal

(C) Lay-off 0 Retrenchment
134., means an interim or a final determination of any industrial
dispute or of any question relating thereto by any Labour Court:
conciliation proceedings
adjudication order
work committee order
0 award
135. Public utility services have been listed in the schedule of the
Industrial Disputes Act 1947.
141 (B) II
0)) W
A 33 MHCPDJFN0000
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136. The dispute of individual workman is deemed to be industrial dispute, if the
disputes are different connected with or arising out of the following, where no
other workman nor any union of a workman is a party to the dispute:
discharge of an individual workman
dismissal of an individual workman
grievance of an individual workman
discharge, dismissal, retrenchment or otherwise termination of services

of an individual workman
137. The special provisions relating to lay-oft retrenchment and closure as given
in the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 applied to those establishments where
atleast
(A) 50 workers are employed 100 workers are employed
(C) 250 workers are employed (D) 500 workers are employed
138. Section of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 deals with Labour
Courts.
(A) 5 (B) 6
7 (D) 7A
139. Section 29 of the Industrial Disputes Act 1947 deals with
penalty for illegal strikes and lock downs
penalty for giving financial aid to illegal strikes and lock downs
penalty for breach of settlement or award
(D) penalty for disclosing confidential information
MHCPDJFN0000 34
140„.. Conciliation officer is given the powers of
(A) Arbitrator (B) Labour Court
0 Civil Court (D) Adjudicator
141. ,Section of the Motor Vehicles Act deals with the scheme for
payment of compensation in case of hit and run motor accidents
(A) 164 163
(C) 162 (D) 161
142, Which Act gives the general guidelines on legislative drafting?
Limitation Act
Civil Procedure Code
Court Fee and Suit Valuation Act
(5) General Clauses Act
143. Which is the only directive principle which has been converted into a
fundamental right?
Right to equal pay for equal work
Establishment of village panchayat
Separation of judiciary from executive
Right to education
144. iWhich of the following is/are an exception/s to the rule of "Precedent"?
(A) decision per incuriam (B) decision sub silentio
(C) obiter dicta (A) and (B) above
A 35 MHCPDJFN0000
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A final judgment of a competent Court, in exercise of matrimonial jurisdiction
is
fit a judgment in rem (B) a judgment in personam

(C)• a judgment simplicitor (ID) all the above
Defamation by means of writing, print etc. is legally called
(A) Innuendo (B) Slander

Libel (D) None of the above
147. Article 361 of the Constitution exempts the following from operation of the
Penal Code
Ministers
Judges
President and Governor/or Governor of a State
148. The expression "dying intestate" refers to
dying without making a Will (B) dying without legal heirs

dying without any property (D) none of the above
149. The Basic Structure doctrine was propounded in
Kesavananda Barathi's case (B) ADM Jabalpur's case

(C) Madhuri Paul's case (D) Visaka's case
150/ What is the limit of the pecuniary Jurisdiction of the Madras High Court on
its Original side?
(A) Above Rs. 10 crores (B) Above Rs.25 crores
0 Above Its. 1 crore (D) Above Its. 5 crores
MHCPDJFN0000 36 A
A 37 MHCPDJFN0000
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MHCPDJFN0000 38 A
A 39 MHCPDJFN0000
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The candidates must write their Register Number in the space provided on the top
right side of this page. Do not write anything else on the question booklet, except in
the space provided for rough work. This should be strictly adhered to.
Personalized OMR Answer Sheets will be provided by the Invigilator for answering
the questions.
The candidates shall write their Question Booklet Series (for Example, A, B, C & D)
in the space provided in the personalized OMR Answer sheet.
The candidates should not remove or tear off any sheet from this Question Booklet.
The candidates are not allowed to take the question booklet out of the examination
Hall during the time of the examination.
After the examination, the candidates must hand over their - OMR Answer Sheet to
the Invigilator. The candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet with them
only after the examination is over.
.0!
The facts and particulars given in the Question Booklet, i.e., name dqf tile court, pkie,
name of parties, etc., are fictional and may not be true in real and legal (sense.
Yet the candidates have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purpose of
answering the paper, without interpreting them in any other manner.
Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render the candidates liable
for action or penalty, as the High Court may decide at their discretion.
MHCPDJFN0000 A
MHCPDJAN0000 Question Booklet Series:
A
Booklet No. Register No.
Duration : Three Hours Max Marks: 150

(Time : 2.00 P.M. to 05.00 P.M.) [0.25 Negative marks for
(Session - II) each incorrect answer]
OBJECTIVE TYPE — 2023
PAPER—TI
Read the following instructions carefully before you begin to 'answer the questions.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. The candidates will be supplied with Question Booklet 15 minutes prior toxthe
commencement of the Examination
This Question Booklet contains 150 objective ciuestiOns. Before answering the
questions, the candidates are requested to check whether all the questions are in
seriatim and ensure that there are no blank pages in the question booklet. In case, if
any defect is noticed in the question booklet, it shall be reported to your room
invigilator immediately, so as to get it replaced with a new question booklet with the
same series. If the defect is reported after the commencement of the Examination, it
will not be replaced.
The Question paper is in English and all the questions carry equal marks,
i.e., 150 x 1 mark = 150 marks. For each incorrect answer, 0.25 marks will be
deducted.
[Turn over
4--
ear
MHCPDJAN0000 2
1. The report of the Probation Officer is considered to be
(A) privileged 0 confidential

(C) a piece of evidence (D) indispensable in all cases
2. The term for which the Court directs the offender to be imprisoned in default
of payment of fine shall not exceed of the term of imprisonment
which is the maximum fixed for the offence, if the offence be punishable with
imprisonment as well as fine.
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/3

0 1/4 (D) no such limit
3. Using as Genuine a forged document or electronic record is punishable under
(A) Section 469 IPC (B) Section 470 IPC

0 Section 471 IPC (D) Section 468 IPC
4. In the cases of consecutive sentences on conviction for several offences at one

trial by a Metropolitan Magistrate, the aggregate punishment
shall not exceed twice the amount of punishment which the Magistrate
is competent to inflict for a single offence
shall not exceed the amount of punishment which the Magistrate is
competent to inflict for a single offence as prescribed under section 29
of Cr.P.C.
shall not exceed thrice the amount of punishment which the
Magistrate is competent to inflict for a single offence
shall not exceed 3 years, in any case
5. If the accused, though not of unsound mind, cannot be made to understand

the proceedings, and if such proceedings result in a conviction, the final
order has to be passed by
the Judicial Magistrate. First Class conducting the trial

the Chief Judicial Magistrate
the Sessions Court
0 the High Court
A 3 MHCPDJAN0000
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6. Statements of witness recorded under Section 164 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure can be used
for contradiction only

for corroboration only
0
(D)
both for corroboration and contradiction
neither for corroboration nor for contradiction
7. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding six months

but not exceeding one year, the term of solitary confinement
(A) shall not exceed one month (B) shall not exceed forty-five days
0 shall not exceed two months (D) shall not exceed three months
8. As per Section 468 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, the period of

limitation for an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term of two
years is
(A) one year (B) two years
0 three years (D) seven years
9. Court can take cognizance of the offence punishable under Section 498-A of
the Indian Penal Code, even if the complaint is made by
(e) brother of the aggrieved person (B) neighbour of the aggrieved person
(C) Police Patil of the village (D) Women Welfare Committee
10. Section 76 and section 79 of I.P.C., provide the general exception of
(A) mistake of law 0 mistake of fact

(C) both mistake of law and fact (D) either mistake of law or of fact
11. In an appeal from a conviction, the Appellate Court cannot
(A) alter the finding, maintaining the sentence

(B) without altering the finding, alter the nature of the sentence
CiP alter the extent of the sentence, so as to enhance the same

(D) alter the extent of the sentence, so as to reduce the same
MHCPDJAN0000 4 A
12. The maxim 'de minimus curat lex' means
law would not take action on small and trifling matter

law does not ignore any act which causes the slightest harm
law would not take action in serious matters
all the above
13. Which one of the following does not amount to criminal conspiracy
an agreement to do an illegal act coupled with some act to carry out

that agreement
an agreement to commit an offence without doing any act to carry out
that agreement
0 an agreement to do an illegal act without doing any act to carry out

that agreement
(D) mere agreement to pay bribe to a Public Servant
14. A is attacked by a mob who attempt to murder him. He can not effectually
exercise his right of private defence without firing on the mob, and he cannot
fire without risk of harming young children who are mingled with the mob.
A fires and harms one child. Which one of the following is the liability of A?
A commits no offence as he exercised right of private defence

A commits an offence punishable under section 304-A as he fired in a
rash or negligent manner
A commits an offence punishable under Section 304 part II only as
there was no intention to cause death of the child
A commits an offence 302 I.P.C. as the act of firing was so imminently
dangerous that it must have caused death of child
15. A person who causes bodily injury to another who is labouring under a
disorder, disease or bodily infirmity and thereby accelerates the death of
that other, shall be deemed to have caused his death, by virtue of
explanation I to section 299 (B) explanation I to section 300

(C) explanation II to section 299 (D) explanation III to section 299
A 5 MHCPDJAN0000
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16. As per section 195A of I.P.C., which was inserted by the Criminal Law
(Amendment)Act, 2005 the offence of threatening any person to give false
evidence, is punishable with
0 imprisonment upto 7 years or with fine or with both

imprisonment upto 5 years or with fine or with both
imprisonment upto 3 years or with fine or with both
imprisonment upto 1 year or with fine or with both
17. A instigates B to murder C. B refuses to do so. Which one of the following is

the liability of A?
since essentials to constitute an offence of abatement are not fulfilled,

A is not guilty of instigating B to murder C
the refusal of B to act on the instigation of A. puts an end to the matter
and A is not guilty of any abatement
0 A is guilty of abetting B to commit murder as to constitute abatement

it is not necessary that the act abetted should be committed
(D) since the offence was not committed there can be no abatement for an
offence which is not committed. Hence A is not liable
18. A, a 17 year old boy, by instigation, voluntarily causes Z, a girl under 18

years of age to jump of a 50 meter bridge into sea. Z jumps and dies
(A) A has not committed any offence as Z took the risk of death with her
own consent
0 A abetted suicide by Z
A, himself being a 17 year old boy, cannot be fastened with any
criminal liability
A will get the benefit of section 87 of the IPC as Z jumped into the sea
with her own consent
MHCPDJAN0000 6 A
The Information Technology (Amendment) Act, 2008 (10 of 2009) with effect
from 27 October, 2009, which amended Section 464 of the Indian Penal Code
substituted "Electronic Signature" for
0 Digital signature (B) Documentary Evidence

(C) Digital certificate (D) Electronically certified signature
Section 326B in I.P.C., which was added by Criminal Law(Amendment) Act,

2013 refers to
(A) Grievous hurt (B) Trafficking of a person

Attempting to throw acid (D) Sexual assault
Concealment of birth and secret disposal of dead body is offence under
(A) Section 315 of IPC (B) Section 316 of IPC

(C) Section 317 of IPC Section 318 of IPC
X is an agent for Y. There is a contract between X and Y that all sums

remitted by Y to X shall be invested by X, according to Y's direction. Y,
remits Its. 10 lakh to X, with a direction to X to invest the same in
'infrastructure bonds'. X dishonestly disobeys the direction and puts the
money in his own business with a hope that the investment will generate
more profit.
X has committed
(A) no offence (B) criminal misappropriation

criminal breach of trust (D) extortion
The offence of Stalking, upon second or subsequent conviction is
(A) Non-cognizable and Bailable

( 3) Cognizable and Bailable
ed; Cognizable and Non-bailable

(3) Non-cognizable and Non-bailable
A 7 MHCPDJAN0000
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24. The Constitution Bench of the Horfble Supreme Court in Joseph Shine Vs.
Union of India has struck down section as unconstitutional,
being violative of Articles 14, 15 and 21 of the Indian Constitution
(A) 303 I.P.C. la 497 I.P.C.

(C) 503 I.P.C. (D) 59 I.P.C.
25. To constitute the offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship, in respect

of the person of unsound mind, the outer age limit is
(A) 16 years, if female (B) 18 years, if male

(C) 21 years
0 not prescribed
26. A's wallet falls out of his pocket unknown to him. His friend, B, who sees
this, picks up the same. On finding that the wallet contains Rs. 2000/- B uses
the money for his own purposes. After six hours, B puts Rs. 2000/- back in
the wallet and returns the same to A. B is guilty of
(A) no offence
(B) theft as B has caused wrongful to loss to A for Six hours
0
(D)
criminal misappropriation of property
cheating as he deceived A
27. Section 41-D has been inserted to the Code of Criminal Procedure vide
amendment Act 5 of 2009 which deals with
right of arrested person to meet an advocate of his choice during

interrogation
(B) establishment of control rooms at State level and in every district
(C) notice of appearance before the police officer
(D) arrest on refusal to give name and residence
28. The new provisions of section 55-A, section 60-A and 195-A came to be
inserted in the Code of Criminal Procedure and the same came into effect
from
0 31/12/2009 (B) 23/06/2006

(C) 03/02/2013 (D) 16/04/2006
MHCPDJAN0000 8 A
29. A declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure can be set aside by
Chief Judicial Magistrate / Chief Metropolitan Magistrate

Magistrate issuing the search warrant
Sessions Court
High Court
30. A, a Police Officer, tortures Z in order to induce Z to confess that he

committed a crime. A committed
(A) no offence (B) offence punishable u/s. 384 IPC

0 offence punishable u/s. 330 IPC (D) offence punishable u/s. 218 of IPC
31. A carbon copy of the injury report prepared by a Doctor by one uniform
process by which the original was prepared may be admitted as
(A) secondary evidence primary evidence

(C) direct evidence (D) circumstantial evidence
32. Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act is based on
(A) doctrine of agency

(B) doctrine proportionality
doctrine of confirmation by subsequent events
(D) doctrine of eclipse
33. Sentence of solitary confinement is imposed in respect of
an offence for which, under the Indian Penal Code, the Court has
power to impose sentence of rigorous imprisonment
(B) offence punishable with simple imprisonment
(C) an offence for which under any statute the Court has power to impose
sentence of rigorous imprisonment
(D) (A) and (B) above
A 9 MHCPDJAN0000
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34. A report made by a police officer in a case which discloses, after
investigation commission of a non cognizable offence shall be deemed to be
(A) police report (B) charge sheet

complaint (D) final report
35. As per section 85(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a proclaimed person
whose property has been attached, can claim the property or the sale
proceeds on appearing
(A) within one year of attachment

iJ within two years of attachment
(C) within three years of attachment
(U) within six months of the attachment
36. Where a Magistrate of the first class passes a sentence of fine not exceeding
one hundred rupees, an appeal lies before
Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate

Court of Sessions
High court
No appeal lie
37. Right to private defence under Section 99 of the Indian Penal Code
(A) extends to causing any harm for the purpose of defence

does not extend to causing more harm than necessary for the purpose
of defence
(C) does not extend to causing any harm
(D) is unrestricted in both extent and duration
38. Where in any case, the Court should have dealt with an accused person
under the provisions of the Probation of Offenders Act but has not done so. it
is for the Court to record special reasons for not having done so.
(A) directory (B) discretionary
0 mandatory (U) desirable
MHCPDJAN0000 10 A
39. If the accused is convicted in a criminal case for an offence under the statute
which does not provide for payment of compensation
The Court cannot award compensation under section 357 of the CrPC
and no civil proceedings are possible
The Court cannot award compensation under section 357 of the CrPC,
but other civil remedies are possible
0 The Court can award compensation under section 357 of the CrPC. but
the award will be taken into account in subsequent civil suits
(D) The Court can award compensation under section 357 of the CrPC, but
the award will not be taken into account in subsequent civil suits
40. A witness or any other person may file a complaint in relation to an offence
under section 195A of IPC is provided under of Cr.P.C. as
inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 (5 of
2009) with effect from 31-12-2009
section 195 A (B) section 196 A

section 197 A (D) section 198 A
41. Order under Section 357 of the Code of Criminal Procedure granting
compensation to the victim can be passed by
(A) the trial court only (B) the appellate court only
(C) the revisional court only el) all of the above courts
42. Every State Government in co-ordination with the Central Government shall
formulate Victim Compensation Scheme (VCS) for providing fund for
compensation to victims falls under section 357A of Cr.P.C. This section was
inserted by
0 Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2008 (5 of 2009)

Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005)
Criminal Procedure Law (Amendment) Act, 2005 (2 of 2006)
Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2001 (50 of 2001)
A 11 MHCPDJAN0000
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43. The execution of a document required by law to be attested, cannot be
proved by other evidence, if
no attesting witness can be found

the attesting witness denies the execution of the document
the attesting witness does not recollect the execution of the document
0)) the attesting witness fails to prove the execution of the document
44. Presumption under Section 90 of Indian Evidence Act, as to due execution

and attestation of document is attached to
(A) registered document only

CO) thirty year old-document
(C) any twelve year old document
(D) any document obtained from the custody of Court
45. A witness who is not a party to a suit
can be compelled by a party to produce his title deeds to any property

cannot be compelled to produce his title deeds to any property
0 cannot be compelled to produce his title deeds to any property unless

he agrees with the person seeking the production of such deeds in
writing to produce them
03) can be compelled to produce his title deeds to any property, if the Court
so desires
46. 'X' puts jewels into a box belonging to Y with the intention that they may be
found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause Y to be convicted of
theft. X has
(A) prosecuted Y on the charge of theft
0 fabricated false evidence

charged Y for misappropriation of property
none of the above
MHCPDJAN0000 12 A
47. Abettor is a person
(A) who actually commits the offence

who instigates the commission of offence
who merely remains present at the scene of offence
who does not report the crime to police
48. When an accused seeks pardon from the Court and offers to give evidence
against all others involved in a crime, he is called
Approver (B) Accomplice

(C) Witness (D) none of the above
49. No one can be convicted twice for the same offence. This doctrine is called
(A) Estoppel j Double jeopardy

(C) Burden of proof (D) Corpus delicti
50. The section dealing with the medical examination of the victim of rape as
inserted by Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 (25 of 2005) is
Section 164 A (B) Section 166 A

(C) Section 166 B (D) Section 53 A
51. Dying declarations were admissible as evidence generally under
(A) Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act

Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act
52. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Evidence Act, Relevancy
of facts forming part of same transaction is dealtwith?
(A) Section 4 0 Section 6

A 13 MHCPDJAN0000
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53. Suresh is accused of a crime committed by him at Calcutta. He produces a
letter written by himself and dated at Lahore on that day and bearing the
Lahore post-mark of that day. Applying Section 21 of the Indian Evidence
Act, which of the following is possible
the statement of date in the letter is admissible, because if Suresh

were dead, it would be admissible under section 30, clause (2)
the statement of date in the letter is admissible, because if Suresh
9 the statement of date in the letter is admissible, because if Suresh

(D) the statement of date in the letter is admissible, because if Suresh
54. Presumption as to document admissible in England or Ireland without proof

of seal or signature, is contained in

Section 81-A of the Indian Evidence Act
O Section 82 of the Indian Evidence Act

55. Under Section 306 of the Code of Criminal Procedure a tender of pardon to
accomplice may be granted
in respect of any offence triable exclusively by the Court of Session

in respect of any offence punishable with imprisonment which may
extend to 7 years or with more severe sentence
in respect of any offence
(A) and (B) above
56. Cruelty to a woman by husband or relatives of husband is defined under
(A) 306 I.P.C. (B) 309 I.P.C.

304B I.P.C. 0 498A I.P.C.
MHCPDJAN0000 14 A
57. When an offence is committed outside India by a citizen of India he may be
dealt with in respect of such offence as if it had been committed at any place
within India at which he may be found provided that
0 the Central Government grants previous sanction for inquiry into or

trial of such offence in India
the State Government grants previous sanction for inquiry into or trial
in India
the Governor grants previous sanction for inquiry into or trial in India
the President grants previous sanction for inquiring into or trial in
India
58. Every warrant of arrest issued by a Court shall remain in force, until
it is cancelled by the court which issued it, or until it is executed

the expiry of one year from the date of issuance
the date on which it is made returnable
expiry of maximum period of imprisonment prescribed for the offence
59. Whoever intentionally puts any person in fear of any injury to that person,
or to any other, and thereby dishonestly induces the person so put in fear to
deliver to any person any property, valuable security or anything signed or
sealed which may be converted into a valuable security commits
(A) dacoity (B) robbery

(C) cheating extortion
60. 'P' committing a murder removed some ornaments from the dead body.
Though the accused 'P' was guilty of an offence of murder, the removal of
ornaments amounts to
(A) theft (B) mischief

dishonest misappropriation (D) robbery
A 15 MHCPDJAN0000
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61. A person Suresh gives a public servant Ramesh an amount of ten thousand
rupees to ensure that he is granted a license over all the other bidders.
Suresh is guilty of an offence under
(A) section 7 of the Prevention of Corruption Act

section 8 of the Prevention of Corruption Act
62. What is the punishment for an abetment of an offence under the Prevention
of Corruption Act 1988?
(A) half of the punishment prescribed for the offence which is abetted
0 imprisonment for a period not less than 3 years, but may extend to
7 years and with fine
actual punishment prescribed for the offence which is abetted
imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than one year, but
which may extend to 3 years and with fine
63. Whoever convicted of an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act

1988, Subsequently commits an offence punishable under the said Act shall
be punishable with imprisonment for a term?
0 not less than 5 years, but it may extend to 10 years and fine
(B) not less than 3 years, but it may extend to 5 years and fine
(C) upto 10 years
(D) upto 7 years
64. A foreigner without any justification, inflicts a blow on another foreigner in a

foreign vessel on high seas (without maritime belt), and the person so struck
lands in Bombay. The foreigner who struck the blow also lands in Bombay
(a) Criminal courts in India cannot take action against the offender
Criminal courts in India can take action against the offender
Criminal courts in India can take action against the offender, only if
the country to which the foreigner belongs, consents
None of the above
MHCPDJAN0000 16 A
65. A woman ran to a well stating she would jump in to it, but she was caught
before she could reach it. She is guilty of
(A) attempt to culpable homicide (B) attempt to injure herself

(C) attempt to suicide 0 no offence
66. Stolen property means

property, the possession whereof has been transferred by theft
property, the possession whereof has been transferred by theft or by
extortion or by robbery
property, which has been criminally misappropriated
(A) to (C) above
67. Misfeasance would imply
(A) where person omits to do some act prescribed by law

(B) where an act prohibited in law is done by a person
where lawful act is done in an improper manner
(D) (B) and (C) above
68. In exercise of powers of revision the Court of session cannot
(A) reverse the finding and sentence and acquit or discharge the accused
convert a finding of acquittal into one of conviction
(C) alter the finding, maintaining the sentence
(D) without altering the finding alter the nature or extent of sentence
69. The Court is vested with the power to sentence any person convicted of an
offence, for which for which rigorous imprisonment can be granted, to be
kept in solitary confinement under
(A) Section 72 IPC • Section 73 IPC

(C) Section 74 IPC (D) Section 75 IPC
A 17 MHCPDJAN0000
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70. When the question is whether a man is alive or dead and it is shown that he
was alive within years , the burden of proving that he is dead
is on the person who affirms it.
7 years (B) 10 years

(C) 30 years (D) 5 years
71. A threat to commit suicide amounts to
(A) undue influence (B)• fraud

(C) misappropriation coercion
72. 'Malice' in law means
wrongful act done intentionally

wrongful act done with or without intention
wrongful act done intentionally with a just cause and excuse
wrongful act done intentionally, without any just cause or excuse
73. In calculating fractions of terms of punishment, imprisonment for life shall

be reckoned as equivalent to imprisonment for years
(A) fourteen (B) forty

(C) twenty five twenty
74. Where an act or omission constitutes an offence under two or more

enactments, then the offender shall be
liable to be prosecuted and punished under either or any of those

enactments, but shall not be liable to be punished twice for the same
offence
liable to be prosecuted and punished under either or any of those
enactments
liable to be prosecuted and punished under both the enactments
none of the above
MHCPDJAN0000 18 A
75. Which of the following is an exception to hearsay evidence?
(A) Confession (Judicial) to, Dying declaration
(C) Extra-judicial confession (D) None of these
76. The compounding of an offence under Section 320 of Cr.P.C. before charge is
framed shall have the effect of
(A) discharge (B) withdrawal
(C) permission of the court 3 an acquittal
77. 'A' sees a ring belonging to 'Z' lying on a table in Z's house. Not venturing to
misappropriate the ring immediately for fear of search and detection. A
hides the ring in a place where it is highly improbable that it will ever be
found by Z, with the intention of taking the ring from the hiding place and
selling it when the loss is forgotten.
(A) 'A' commits offence of attempt to commit theft
0 'A' commits theft
'A' commits no offence
'A' commits offence of attempt to commit dishonest misappropriation of

property
78. Tender of pardon to an accomplice is granted with a view
(A) to convict the accused persons
to obtaining the evidence of any person who is privy to an offence
to tender pardon to an accomplice
(B) and (C) above
A 19 MHCPDJAN0000
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79. 'A', intending to murder 'Z', by poison, purchases poison and mixes the same
with food and places the same on `Z"s table
0 'A' has committed the offence of attempt to commit murder

he has not committed any offence
`A"s act is a mere preparation to commit an offence
(B) and (C) above
80. 'A' instigates 'B' to burn 'Z's house. 'B' sets fire to the house and at the same
time commits theft of property there
'A' is guilty of abetting the burning of the house

'A' is guilty of abetting the burning of the house and theft
'A' is guilty of abetting the theft
'A' is guilty of conspiracy to commit mischief and theft
81. The First Information Report
(A) is a substantive piece of evidence

is used for corroboration or to contradict the evidence of the maker
thereof
is used as a corroborative piece of evidence
(A) and (C) above
82. Any person, who has accepted a tender of pardon made under Section 306 or
Section 307, has, either by willfully concealing anything essential or by
giving false evidence, not complied with the condition on which the tender
was made.
Who will certify this fact?
(A) District Magistrate (B) Sessions Judge

Public Prosecutor (D) Chief Judicial Magistrate
MHCPDJAN0000 20 A
83. Section 15 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012,
deals with the punishment for
storage of pornographic material involving child
using child for pornographic purposes
sexual harassment
abetment for any offence under the Protection of Children from Sexual
Offences Act
84. Which section of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
deals with the recording of statement of a child by Magistrate?
(A) Section 24 11) Section 25
85. Section 37 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
provides
right of child to take assistance of experts
guidelines for child to take assistance of experts
0 trial to be conducted in camera
(D) child not to see accused at the time of testifying
86. A confession made by a conspirator involving other members is relevant

against the co-conspirator jointly tried with him and is admissible
under section 8 of The Evidence Act
under section 11 of The Evidence Act
0 under section 30 of The Evidence Act
(D) both (B) and (C)
A 21 MHCPDJAN0000
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87. The accused is a warehouse-keeper. The complainant, going on a journey,
entrusts his furniture to the accused under a contract that the furniture
would be returned on payment of stipulated sum of money. The accused sells
the furniture. The accused is guilty of which one of the following
(A) Criminal misappropriation (B) Theft

(C) Robbery Criminal breach of trust
88. The right of private defence of property extends to the voluntary causing of
death of the wrong doer in case of an offence of
(A) mischief (B) robbery

(C) house breaking by night (B) and (C) above
89. In a private complaint case, which is found to be false, the question of

awarding compensation to the accused can be decided as follows
By immediately passing order of compensation in the same order of

acquittal
By immediately passing order to arrest and detain the complainant in
default of payment of the fine/compensation, which may be awarded
By giving direction to the accused to file suit for compensation,, while
passing order of acquittal
By giving finding about falsity and after summary inquiry and deciding
separately the issue of compensation
90. Proceedings under Section 258 of Cr.P.C. can be stopped
(A) in a summons case instituted upon a complaint
0 in a summons case instituted otherwise than upon a complaint

(C) in a warrant case instituted upon a complaint
(D) in a warrant case instituted otherwise than upon a complaint
MHCPDJAN0000 22 A
91. Under section 102 of I.P.C., the right to private defence of the body
0 commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body

arises and continues as long as that apprehension continues
commences as soon as a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body

arises and continues even after that apprehension ceases
commences only when the assault is actually done and continues
during the period of assault
commences only when the assault is actually done and continues after
the assailant has left
92. Under Section 149 of I.P.C. if an offence is committed by a member of an

unlawful assembly in furtherance of their common object
0 every person who at that time was a member of that assembly shall be
guilty of that offence
only the person committing the offence shall be guilty of that offence
and all shall be guilty of unlawful assembly only
only that person committing the offence shall be guilty and others shall
not be guilty of any offence
either (B) or (C)
93. Y, a small boy was guarding the field. Z and M outsiders trespassed and
started harvesting, on protest by Y they beat him up and hearing his cries, X
and P, Uncles of Y who were working in different directions, rushed in, one
of them X, fired at the trespassers killing one of them and ran away. P was
arrested and charged under section 302 of the I.P.C. for murder read with
section 34. Which of the following statements is correct?
he is liable for murder because of the similar intention of both the

brothers
he is liable for murder because of the same intention of both the
brothers
he is liable for murder because he was present when his brother fired
at the trespassers
he is not liable because there was no common intention to kill
A 23 MHCPDJAN0000
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94. Section 27 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872, applies to
14) discovery of some fact which the police had not previously learnt from
other sources and was first derived from the information given by the
accused
discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from
other sources
discovery of some fact which the police had previously learnt from
other sources and the accused has also given information regarding the
same
all the above
95. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused
if they are tried jointly for the same offences

if they are tried jointly for different offences
if they are tried for the same offences but not jointly
if they are tried for different offences and not jointly
96. Section 55A of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with
identification of persons arrested

examination of arrested person by medical officer
health and safety of arrested persons
examination of accused by medical practitioner at the request of the
police officer
97. of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with language and
sentence of judgment.
(A) section 353 section 354
section 355 (D) section 356
MIICPDJAN0000 24 A
98. Section 46(4) of the Code of Criminal Procedure prohibits
0 arrest of woman after sunset and before sunrise except in unavoidable

circumstances
a male police officer from touching the person of a woman while
making her arrest
arrest of man after sunset and before sunrise
police officer from touching the person of a woman while making her
arrest
99. Under section 259 of Code of Criminal Procedure, the Magistrate has power
to convert the summons case into a warrant case
relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term

exceeding six months
relating to any offence irrespective of punishment prescribed
exceeding one year
exceeding three years
100. permits joint trial of several persons.
(A) section 221 of Cr.P.C. (B) section 222 of Cr.P.C.

$0 section 223 of Cr.P.C. (D) section 224 of Cr.P.C.
101. In a private complaint for offences triable by a Judicial Magistrate, after

recording of statement of the complainant and the witnesses if any on oath,
the Magistrate
(A) can direct the police to investigate under section 156(3) Cr.P.C.
ti0 can direct the police to investigate under section 202 Cr.P.C.
both (A) and (B)
has no other option, but to decide by himself
A 25 MHCPDJAN0000
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102. Non compliance of Section 50 of the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances Act, 1985 where search and seizure of contraband is from the
suitcase with the accused. In such case,
(A) trial is vitiated

(B) accused would be entitled to acquittal
compliance is not mandatory
103. At what stage an accused before 18 years of age can claim benefit of
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000
During the trial

Before the Appellate Court
After the matter is finally decided
All of the above
104. Under section 26 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act,
2005, any relief available under sections 18, 19, 20, 21 and 22 of the said Act,
can also be sought in any legal proceedings before a
0 Civil Court, Family Court, or a Criminal Court affecting the aggrieved

person
(B) Civil Court, Family Court, or a Revenue Court affecting the aggrieved
person
(C) Civil Court, Criminal Court or a Rent Court affecting the aggrieved
person
(D) Civil Court, Family Court or a Rent Court affecting the aggrieved
person
105. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure,

1973, the offence under sub section (1) of section 31 of the Protection of
Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, shall be
(A) cognizable and bailable

cognizable and non-bailable
(C) non-cognizable and non-bailable
(D) non-cognizable and bailable.
MHCPDJAN0000 26 A
106. Under Section 9 of the National Security Act, 1980, every Advisory Board
shall consist of persons, who are, or have been, or are qualified to
appointed as Judges of a High Court and such persons shall be appointed by
the appropriate Government.
(A) 2 3
(C) 5 (D) 6
107. The maximum period for which any person may be detained in pursuance of
any detention order, which has been confirmed under section 12 of the
National Security Act, 1980 shall be from the date of detention
(A) 10 months 12 months
(C) 24 months (D) 36 months
108. The provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 shall apply
(A) citizens of India outside India
(B) persons on ships and aircrafts, registered in India, wherever they may
be
0 both (A) and (B)
109. Who can be the Presiding Officer of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Tribunal?
(A) A Judge of Supreme Court
A Judge of High Court
(C) Serving District Judge
(D) Retired District Judge
A 27 MITCPDJAN0000
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110. Which of the following statements does NOT hold true for the confessions
made to the Magistrate under the provisions of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973?
It is the duty of the Magistrate to exclude the presence of the police

officer from the place where the confession is recorded
It is obligatory for the Magistrate to warn the accused, before recording
his confession that he is not bound to make it and that if he does so, it
may be used as evidence against him
1:1) The accused should be sent back to police custody as soon as the
confession is recorded
(D) It is necessary for the confession to be signed by the accused
111. Which of the following statements in NOT true regarding the charge sheet
made under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) In case of offence of a rape of a child the charge sheet must be

submitted within three months of the FIR
After submission of the charge sheet there cannot be any further
investigation into the case by police
The right to be released on bail is lost once the charge-sheet is filed
Charge sheet against absconding accused can be filed even - if the

accused is not arrested
112. Under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 cognizance
can be taken of
Offence
Accused
Witnesses
Offenders
Only I (B) landIll

(C) landil (D) I and IV
MHCPDJAN0000 28 A
113. Under section 239 and 240 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
Reasons must be given if the accused is discharged

Reasons must be given if the charges are framed against him
Hearing includes recording of evidence if needed
(A) I and II I and III

(C) II and III (D) Only III
114. The word 'inspection' used in section 93(1) (c), Cr PC refers to
(A) things or documents 3 locality and place

(C) both (A) and (B) (D) either (A) or (B)
115. The investigating police officer in a case has power to require attendance of a
person acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case, under
(A) Section 158 of Cr.P.0 (B) Section 159 of Cr.P.0

Section 160 of Cr.P.0 (D) Section 161 of Cr.P.0
116. Procedure when corporation or registered society is an accused is found in

O Section 305 Cr. P.C. (B) Section 387 Cr. P.C.
(C) Section 280 Cr. P.C. (D) Section 289 Cr. P.C.
117. Which of the following deals with appeal from orders under
Section 446 Cr.P.C.?
(A) Section 286 Cr. P.C. iti Section 449 Cr. P.C.
(C) Section 388 Cr. P.C. (D) Section 500 Cr. P.C.
118. Infancy' as an exception has been provided under

Section 82 of IPC (D) Section 84 of IPC
A 29 MHCPDJAN0000
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119. The accused without any provocation caught hold of the legs of a 7 year old
child and dashed his head thrice in quick succession resulting in the death of
the boy. Immediately after the occurrence the accused ran away. The
accused pleaded insanity in defence.
(A) the offence falls under Clause (iii) of Section 300, IPC
the offence falls under Clause (iv) of Section 300, IPC
the offence falls under Clause (v) of Section 300, IPC

the offence falls under Clause (vi) of Section 300, IPC
120. Assaulting or obstructing public servant when suppressing riot, etc. is dealt
under
Section 152 of IPC (D) Section 153 of IPC
121. The principle on which a dying declaration is admitted in evidence is

indicated in the legal maxim:
nemo moriturusa proesumitur mentire
lexfori
res judica
none of them
122. The principles of Section 44, -Indian Evidence Act cannot be extended to
which of the following?
misrepresentation or undue influence
fraud
collusion
all of them
MHCPDJAN0000 30 A
123. A dying declaration to be admissible
must be made before a Magistrate

must be made before the police officer
may be made before a doctor or a private person
may be made either before a magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or
a private person
124. Declaration as to custom are admissible
(A) under section 32(1) of Evidence Act

(B) under section 32(2) of Evidence Act
under section 32(4) of Evidence Act
(D) under section 32(7) of Evidence Act
125. The resinteraliaacta is receivable
(A) under section 45 of Evidence Act

it ) Under section 46 of Evidence Act
(C) under section 47 of Evidence Act
(D) under section 48 of Evidence Act
126. Facts of which the judicial notice is to be taken are stated in

(A) Section 56 of Evidence Act Section 57 of Evidence Act•
(C) Section 58 of Evidence Act (D) Section 55 of Evidence Act
127. Contents of a document may be proved under section 61 of Evidence Act
by primary evidence
by secondary evidence
either by primary or by secondary evidence
(D) only by primary evidence and not by secondary evidence
A 31 MHCPDJAN0000
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128. Principle of `Omnia praesumuntur ite esse acta' is contained in
(A) Section 78 of Evidence Act
Section 79 of Evidence Act
129. Presumption as to the accuracy of maps and plans made by the authority of
Government is contained in
O Section 83 of Evidence Act
(D) Section 84 of Evidence Act
130. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act deals with
admission by person from whom interest is derived?
(A) Section 12 (B) Section 16
(C) Section 13 (10) Section 18
Puducherry was integrated into India in the year
(A) 1949 (B) 1960
0 1962 (D) 1965
Gingee river is located in
Puducherry region (B) Mahe region
(C) Yanam region (D) Karaikal region
MHCPDJAN0000 32 A
133. Who can be the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission?
cep who has been a Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court
who has been a Chief Justice of a High Court
who has been a Judge of a High Court
who has been an Attorney General of India
134. of the provision of Human Rights Act 1993 deals with the
complaints of violation of human rights by the members of the armed forces
(A) section 18 section 19

(C) section 20 (D) section 21
135. The Chairperson of the State Human Rights Commission has to submit his
resignation to
(A) the Chief Minister of the State

the Governor of the State
the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court
the Advocate General of the State
136. The National Human Rights Commission shall not inquire into any matter
after the expiry of years from the date on which the act
constituting the violation of human rights is alleged to have been committed.
(A) six months one year
(C) two years (D) three years
137. Government of India, in the year 2020 banned 59 Chinese mobile apps
including Tik Tok, by invoking of the Information Technology
Act 2020.
(A) Section 66A (B) Section 67A

Section 69A (D) Section 70A
A 33 MHCPDJAN0000
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138. The Information Technology Act 2020 directed the formation of Controller
Certifying Authorities to regulate the issuance of
the Internet service provider licence

data licence
digital signatures
(D) I.P., address in India
139. Anand is a brother of Rani. Geetha is the mother of Anand; Rani is the
granddaughter of Dinesh and Suresh is the son of Anand. What is the
relation of Suresh to Dinesh?
(A) grandson (B) nephew

great grandson (D) paternal uncle
140. Anand ate 100 apples in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous
day. How many apples did he eat on the first day?
(41, 8
(C) 6
If 2x - y = 4 ; then 6x -3y = ?
(A) 10 012
(C) 15 (D) 18
What number should come next?

8, 6, 9, 23, 87,
(A) 135 (B) 227
(C) 327 429
MHCPDJAN0000 34 A
In a certain language "CAGE" is written as 1600, "MATE" is written as
3900, then 4300 will represent which of the alternative?
BOOK (B) GOOD
(C) WOOD (D) CRAB
ACD; EGH; KMN; QST;

SUV (B) SW
(C) UVW (D) 3CYZ
145. Anand was born 2 years after his father's marriage; his mother is 5 years
younger than his father, but 20 years older than Anand, who is 10 years old;
at what age did his father got married.
0 23 years (B) 24 years
(C) 25 years (D) 28 years
146. Which of the following Commission is related to Article 330A of the Indian
Constitution?
(A) National Commission for Scheduled Castes
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
National Commission for women
National Commission for Backward Classes
147. "Economic boycott", as per the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act means
a refusal to deal with, work for hire or do business with other person
to deny opportunities including access to services or contractual
opportunities for rendering service for consideration
to abstain from the professional or business relations that one would
maintain with other person
0 either (A) or (B) or (C)
A 35 MHCPDJAN0000
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148. A victim or his dependent under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act shall be entitled to be heard in
bail proceedings
request for parole
plea of the accused for discharge
all the above
149. Section 18 of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
Atrocities) Act provides
0 section 438 of Cr.P.C., is not applicable to the persons committed an

offence under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes
(Prevention of Atrocities) Act
section 360 of Cr.P.C., is not applicable to the persons guilty of an

Probation of Offenders Act is not applicable to the persons gilty of an

03) none of the above
150. What is the period of limitation provided under section 14-A of the
Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act for
preferring an appeal challenging the judgment, sentence or order passed
under the said Act?
(A) 15 days (B) 30 days
(C) 60 days (111 90 days
MHCPDJAN0000 36 A
A 37 MHCPDJAN0000
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MHCPDJAN0000 38 A
:1"
A 39 MHCPDJAN0000
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The candidates must write their Register Number in the space provided on the top
right side of this page. Do not write anything else on the question booklet, except in
the space provided for rough work. This should be strictly adhered to.
Personalized OMR Answer Sheets will be provided by the Invigilator for answering
the questions.
f t
The candidatel shall write their Question Booklet Series (for Example, A, B, C & D)
in the space provided in the personalized OMR Answer sheet.
The candidates should not remove or tear-off any sheet from this Question Booklet.
The candidates are not allowed to take the qUestion booklet out of the examination
Hall during the time of the examination.
After the examination, the candidates must hand over their OMR Answer Sheet to
the Invigilator. The candidates are allowed to take the Question Booklet with them
only after the examination is over.
The facts and particulars given in the Question Booklet, i.e., name of the couralace,
name of parties, etc., are fictional and may not be true in real and legal sense. Yet
the candidates have to conclusively assume them to be true for the pUrpose of
answering the paper, without interpreting them in any other manner.
Failure to comply with any of the above instructions will render the candidates liable
for action or penalty, as the High Court may decide at their discretion.
MHCPDJAN0000 A

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PROPOSED KEY ANSWERS

FOR THE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION FOR THE POST OF

(Notification No.41/2023, dated 08.03.2023)

Any objections received after two days or without requisite particulars

Dated: 12.06.2023 Sd/-XXX

Duration : Three Hours Max Marks. 150

OBJECTIVE TiCPE — 2023

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS eCC

(A) does create interest in such property

0 does not, by itself, create interest in or charge on such property

2. A patient in a Mental Health Centre, who is, at intervals, of sound mind

(A) cannot contract

0 there is an implied promise by the principal debtor to indemnify the

When an acceptance may be revoked:

An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication of

0 An acceptance may be revoked at any time before the communication of

7./ When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or

0 voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused

If the event becomes impossible, such contracts becomes:

(A) Illegal (B) Bad

(A) Not essential (B) Not collateral

0 Essential (D) Collateral

(B) application for review

0 a regular suit for establishing title to the suit property

(D) none of the above

11. > Specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person

who would not be entitled to recover compensation for its breach

who acts in fraud of the contract

(A) to (C) above

six months (B) one year

(C) three years (D) twelve years

(A) three years of the agreement

0 three years of notice of refusal of performance

14.7 Specific relief can be granted only for the purpose of

15., Which formality is essential for a valid adoption?

(A) homa (B) registration

0 actual giving and taking (D) written document

(A) that the prosecution was actuated by malice

17., 'Armchair Rule' pertains to

(A) Interpretation of statute

(A) must have some interest in the property vested in her

19. Iliba under the Mohammedan Law means

For the purpose of Section 6 of the Hindu Succession

any partition made by execution of a deed of partition duly registered

21., An application for grant of succession certificate may be entertained by a

the deceased ordinarily resided

(A) interfere in the contracts, grants, etc., by virtue of which a woman's

(A) Presumption of fact (B) Presumption of fact and law

24:i Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 applies to

(A) Section 19 CO) Section 20

(A) Section 12 of Hindu Succession Act 1956

(A) Right of a child in the womb

Disease, defect, etc. not to disqualify

an easement is neither extinguished nor suspended

(D) an easement is either suspended or extinguished

(A) Section 12 of The Indian Easements Act 1882

Section 16 of The Indian Easements Act 1882

(B) Section 14 of The Indian Easements Act 1882

(C) Section 13 of The Indian Easements Act 1882

(D) Section 18 of The Indian Easements Act 1882

41) Rights which cannot be acquired by prescription

(A) Section 17 of The Indian Easements Act 1882

65. Section 19 of The Indian Easements Act 1882