(6001CJA10100123024) *6001CJA10100123024*

(Academic Session : 2023 - 2024)

TARGET : JEE (M + A) : 2025

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL)

Time : 3 Hours (ACT-3) Maximum Marks : 300

Student's Form No. : ..................................................................... Batch : ..........................................

Student's Name : .........................................................................................................................................

Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1, 2, 3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each subject
and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions. First 5 attempted questions
will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly
prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic device etc, except
the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However, the candidate
are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
PHYSICS : Newton's Law of Motion, Friction, Circular Motion,
Work Power Energy (Work Calculation, Work Energy Theorem)

CHEMISTRY : Chemical Bonding Complete, Mole Concept (Basic Stoichiometry,

Percentage Purity), Atomic Structure, IUPAC Nomenclature

MATHS : Sequence & Series, Solution of Triangle, Straight Line

Topic :
Newton's Law of Motion, Friction, Circular Motion, Work Power Energy (Work Calculation, Work
Energy Theorem)
PHYSICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 2. A 10 kg block is connected to an empty 1kg bucket
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 by a cord running over a friction less pulley. The
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions static friction coefficient is 0.4 and the kinetic
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, friction coefficient between the table and block is
marks will be awarded as follows: 0.3. Sand is gradually added to the bucket until the
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. system just begins to move. The mass of sand
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. added to the bucket and the acceleration (in m/s2)
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. of the system respectively ( g = acceleration due to
gravity)
1. Initial velocity of the block v¯ = 45 ^i m/s while
external force on it is F¯ = 25 N −i^ . ( )

If coefficient of static and kinetic friction are 0.3

and 0.2 respectively then distance traveled by the
block in 12 sec. (g = 10 m/s2) is :

(A) 225 m
(B) 216 m (A) 5 kg, g/10 (B) 3 kg, g/12
(C) 210 m (C) 3 kg, g/14 (D) 5 kg, g/2

(D) 250 m

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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3. Assertion:- The rate of change of total momentum
of a many particle system is proportional to the
sum of the internal forces of the system.
Reason:- Internal forces can change the kinetic
energy but not the momentum of the system.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false
(D) If assertion is false but reason is true
4. A 40 kg slab rests on a frictionless floor as shown
in the figure. A 10 kg block rests on the top of the
slab. The static coefficient of friction between the
block and slab is 0.60 while the kinetic friction is
0.40. The 10 kg block is acted upon by a horizontal
force 100 N. If g = 9.8 m/s2 , the resulting
acceleration of the slab will be
(A) 0.98 m/s2 (B) 1.47 m/s2
(C) 1.52 m/s2 (D) 1.96 m/s2
5. A flat plate moves normally with a speed ν 1
towards a horizontal jet of water of uniform area
of cross-section. The jet discharges water at the rate
of volume V per second at a speed of ν 2 . The
density of water is ρ . Assume that water splashes
along the surface of the plate at right angles to the
original motion. The magnitude of the force acting
on the plate due to the jet of water is
(A) ρ V ν 1
(B) ρ V ( ν 1 + ν 2 )
ρV
(C) ν2
ν1 + ν2 1
V
(D) ρ [ ] ( ν 1 + ν 2 )2
ν2
6. A 60 kg man stands on a spring scale in the lift. At
some instant he finds, scale reading has changed
from 60 kg to 50kg for a while and then comes
back to the original mark. What should we
conclude ?
(A) The lift was in uniform motion upwards
(B) The lift was in uniform motion downwards
(C) The lift while in uniform motion upwards, is
stopped suddenly
(D) The lift while in uniform motion downwards,
is suddenly stopped

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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7. The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are 9. A particle is moving with speed V = 2t2 on the
connected by a massless spring as shown in figure. circumference of circle of radius R. Match the
A force of 200 N acts on the 20 kg mass. At the quantities given in column - I with corresponding
instant shown, the 10 kg mass has acceleration results in column - II.
12 m/sec2 . What is the acceleration of 20 kg mass COLUMN - I COLUMN - II
(A) Magnitude of
(p) Decreases
tangential acceleration
with time
(A) 12 m/sec2 (B) 4 m/sec2 of particle
(C) 10 m/sec2 (D) Zero (B) Mmagnitude of
(q) Increases
Centripetal acceleration
8. A raindrop of mass m at a height h starts from rest with time
of particle
and initially accelerates under gravity. Due to
viscous drag of air, its motion is resisted and finally (C) Magnitude of angular
(r) Remains
it acquires a constant terminal velocity ν T and hits speed of particle with
constant
the ground. Neglect the buoyancy; denote respect to centre of circle
acceleration due to gravity by g and assume no (D) Angle between the
wind. The magnitude of average viscous force on total acceleration vector
(s) Depends on the
the rain drop during the entire downward trip is and centripetal
value of radius R.
ν T2 ν T2 acceleration vector of
(A) m (g + ) (B) m (g − ) particle
h h

ν T2 ν T2 (A) A - Q; B - S; C - P,Q; D - P,S

(C) m (g + ) (D) m (g − )
2h 2h (B) A - Q; B - Q, S; C - Q, S; D - P, S
(C) A - P, S; B - Q; C - R, S; D - R
(D) A - R, S; B - Q; C - R, S; D - R, S
10. The displacement x of a particle moving in one
dimension under the action of a constant force is
related to the time t by the equation t = x + 3, √

where x is in meters and t is in seconds. The work

done by the force in the first 6 seconds is
(A) 9 J (B) 6 J (C) 0 J (D) 3 J

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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11. Assuming the gravity to be in negative z-direction, 14. The magnitude of rate of change of acceleration in
a force F→ = →ν × A→ is exerted on a particle in a uniform circular motion of angular frequency ω
addition to the force of gravity where →ν is the and radius R is
→ is a constant vector
velocity of the particle and A (A) 0 (B) R ω 3
in positive x-direction. With what minimum speed Rω3
(C) 2R ω 3 (D)
a particle of mass m be projected so that it 2
continues to move undeflected with constant 15. Consider the two statements below.
velocity Statement-1:- When we attempt to slide one surface
mg ^ mg ^ over another, we have to apply a force to overcome
(A) k (B) − k
A A interlocking between the irregularities present on
mg ^ mg ^
(C) j (D) − j the surfaces.
A A
Statement-2:- The total work done by internal
12. A boy whirls a stone in a horizontal circle of radius
forces of a system may be positive.
1.5 m and at height 2.0 m above level ground. The
Choose the correct option from below :
string breaks, and the stone files off horizontally
and strikes the ground after travelling a horizontal (A) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is
distance of 10 m. What is the magnitude of the incorrect
centripetal acceleration of the stone while in (B) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is
circular motion ? g = 10 m/s2
( ) correct
(A) 90 m/s2 (B) 125 m/s2 (C) Both the statements are correct
(C) 120 m/s2 (D) 166.6 m/s2 (D) Both the statements are incorrect
13. A curved section of a road is banked. If there is 16. In a simple pendulum, the breaking strength of the
friction force between road and tires of the car and string is double the weight of the bob. The bob is
the car moves without slipping, then released from rest when the string is horizontal.
(A) Horizontal component of normal reaction The string breaks when it makes an angle θ with
alone is the centripetal force the vertical.
θ = cos−1 (1/3)
∘
(B) Horizontal component of friction alone is the (A) (B) θ = 60
centripetal force (C) θ = cos−1 (2/3) (D) θ=0
(C) Horizontal component of the net force by the
road is the centripetal force
(D) Vertical component of normal reaction
balances the weight of car
JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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17. A 10 kg block is pulled in the vertical plane along a 19. The velocity of a particle of mass 10−2 kg is given
frictionless surface AB in the form of an arc of a as →ν = 2xi^ + 3yj^ + 4zk^ m/ sec (where x, y and z
( )

circle of radius 10m. The applied force F is of 200 N
as shown. If the block had started from rest at A, the
velocity at B would be : g = 10 m/s2
( )
are in metre). The amount of work done by applied
force in displacing a particle from (1m, 2m, 0) to
(−1m, 3m, 1m) is

(A) 0.31 joule (B) 0.24 joule

(C) 0.48 joule (D) 0.72 joule
20. Two blocks A and B of masses m and 2m
respectively are connected together by a light
spring of stiffness K. The system is lying on a
smooth horizontal surface with the block A in
(A) 1.7 m/s (B) 17.32 m/s contact with a fixed vertical wall as shown in the
figure. The block B is pressed towards the wall by
(C) 21.58 m/s (D) 34 m/s a distance x0 and then released. There is no friction
18. In the figure the variation of components of acceleration anywhere :
of a particle of mass 1 kg is shown w.r.t. time. The
initial velocity of the particle is →u = −3i^ + 4j^ m/s.
( )

The total work done by the resultant force on the

particle in time interval from t = 0 to t = 4 seconds is :

If the spring takes time Δ t to acquire its natural

length, then magnitude of average force on the
block A by the wall is
x0
(A) 0 (B) √ 2mK
Δt
(C) mK x0 (D) mK x0
3√ √

2 Δt 3 Δt

(A) 22.5 J (B) 10 J

(C) 0 (D) None of these

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 1.
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places; e.g.
6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is
11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)
by darken the corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the
bubbles as follows.
2.
3.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1)
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A particle P is moving on a circle under the action
of only one force, which always acts towards a
fixed point O lying on the circumference. Find
2
d2 θ dθ
ratio of to ( ) at the moment when
dt2 dt
θ = 45∘ . (C is centre of circle)
The time taken by a body to slide down a rough
45∘ inclined plane is twice that required to slide
down a smooth 45∘ inclined plane. The coefficient
of kinetic friction between the object and rough
plane is given by x where x is an integer. Find x.
4
Two blocks of masses 2.9 kg and 1.9 kg are
suspended from a rigid support S by two
inextensible wires each of length 1m. The upper
wire has negligible mass and the lower wire has a
uniform mass of 0.2 kg/m. The whole system of
block, wire and support have an upward
acceleration of 0.2 m/s2 . The tension at the mid-
point (in newton) of lower wire is g = 9.8 m/s2
( )
6001CJA10100123024
English / 03122023
4. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg
mass is placed 5m away from the open end as
shown. The coefficient of friction between the box
and the surface below it is 0.15. On a straight road,
the truck starts from rest and accelerates with
2 ms−2 . At what distance (in metre) from the
starting point does the box fall off the truck (i.e.
distance travelled by the truck) ? [Ignore the size of
the box]
5. If all the strings are light and the pulleys are
massless and frictionless. Determine the speed of
mass m.
6. A particle is moving with constant speed in a
circular path. The ratio of average velocity to its
instantaneous velocity when the particle describes
2 √x
an angle θ = π is to .
2 π
JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1)
English / 03122023 Space for Rough Work
7. A car of mass 50kg is moving with speed10 m/sec
and is taking a turn on circular road of radius 10m.
The angle of banking is 37∘ . The coefficient of
friction is 0.4. According to given information the
frictional force acting on the car is x N. Find x.
(Use g = 10 m/s2)
8. A block of mass 4kg is placed in contact with the
front vertical surface of a lorry. The coefficient of
friction between the vertical surface and block is
0.8. The lorry is moving with an acceleration of
15 m/s2 g = 10 ms2 . The force of friction
( )
between lorry and block is
9. A position dependent force F = 7 − 2x + 3x2 newton
acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and displaces it
from x = 0 to x = 5 m. The work done in joule is x J.
Find x.
10. One end of a massless rope, which passes over a
massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook
C while the other end is free. Maximum tension
that the rope can bear is 360N with what value of
minimum safe acceleration in ms−2 can a
( )
monkey of 60 kg move down on the rope.
6001CJA10100123024
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Topic : Chemical Bonding Complete, Mole Concept ( Basic Stoichiometry, Percentage Purity), Atomic
Structure, IUPAC Nomenclature
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. Assertion (A): CH3 Cl is more polar than CH3 F
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 Reason (R): C – Cl bond has more electronegativity
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions difference than C – F bond
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question, (A) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct
marks will be awarded as follows: explanation of A
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
(B) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. explanation of A
(C) If A is true but R is false
1. According to VBT if y-axis is internuclear axis,
then which of the following is considered zero (D) If A is false but R is true
overlap 4. Which among the following is an INCORRECT
(A) dxy − py (B) dyz − pz statement according to molecular orbital theory?
(C) px − px (D) dzx − dzx (A) Both and π 2px have ungerade
2. Which of the following statement is true for symmetry
carbonates and bicarbonates of alkali metals. (B) Due to pairing of electrons in 2p orbitals
(A) Down the group L.E decreases more than H.E. energy difference between 2s and 2p increases
due to bigger anion. and sp mixing does not takes place

(B) Down the group increase in solubility is due (C) Both C2 and N2 molecules have only π bond
to increases in H.E character

(C) Down the group H.E. nearly remains same but (D) Both O2 and B2 are Paramagnetic species
L.E decreases considerably due to bigger 5. Which of the following property is due to H–bonding
anion (i) Higher electrical conductivity of HF in presence of KF
(D) Down the group ionic character of the bond (ii) Lower density of ice than water
increases due to increase in size of cation (iii) Lower boiling point of orthonitro phenol than
paranitro phenol
(A) ii & iii (B) i, ii & iii
(C) Only iii (D) i & iii

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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6. A 20 ml mixture of N2 and O2 having an average 9. Which of the following gases can be completely
vapour density of 14.5 is heated in a closed vessel combusted by 60 ml of O2. Assuming volumes are
to form NO2 gas. If the final volume of the reaction compared at similar conditions
mixture is 18.5 ml then, which statement is TRUE (A) 25 ml of CH4 (B) 40 ml of C2H4
(A) Final mixture contains only 2 ml of NO2 (C) 40 ml of C2H6 (D) 30 ml of C2H2
(B) Reaction is only 40% complete 10. Consider the following sequence of reactions.
(C) Average vapour density of final mixture is 34 3
A → 2B (60% complete)
2
(D) Mole fraction of N2 in the final mixture is 1
B → C (80% complete)
0.73 2
2C → D (70% complete)
7. An iron ore contains only 28 g of Fe per 5kg of ore.
D + 2E → 2F (60% complete)
Then what mass of ore is required to prepare an
If initially 2 mole of A and 1 mole of E is taken
alloy of 5kg iron which contains 60% Fe by mass
number of moles of F formed will be
(A) 535.71 kg (B) 525.34 kg
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.3 (D) 0.15
(C) 842.18 kg (D) 540.32 kg
11. Which of the following is true relation for H – like
8. 0.2 g of NaOH is dissolved in enough water to give species ?
a 100 ml solution. 10 ml of this solution is mixed
(A) I. E of B+4 = I. E of Li+2 + I. E of Be+3
with 40 ml of Ca(OH)2 solution containing
6 × 1019 Ca+2 ions per 1 ml of solution. Final (B) r4 of Be+3 = r2 of H
mixture of solution is diluted to a volume of 250 ml, (C) V3 of Li+2 = V2 of He+1
then
(D) All are true
(A) Final solution contains 3 × 1020 Na+
12. In atomic spectrum of hydrogen like species the
(B) Final concentration of OH – in the solution is
3.4 × 10−2 M
longest wave length in the paschen series is 9
7
times that of shortest line in the Lyman series of
MCa+2
(C) In final solution = 0.5 H – atom. Then
MNa+
(D) Both (A) & (B) (A) Charge on the H – like species is +1
(B) I.E of the species is 4 times that of H – atom
(C) P.E of electron in 1st excited state is – 108.8 e.V
(D) All are true

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

English / 03122023 Space for Rough Work Page 9/18

13. An atomic orbital has following observations 16.
i. It has two radial nodes
ii. It touches the one of the axis at two different point IUPAC name of this compound
iii. xz plane acts as a nodal plane
Then the orbital can be
is:
(A) 2s (B) 3px
(A) 1,2-dimethyl cyclohex -2-ene
(C) 4py (D) 5dyz
(B) 1,2-dimethyl cyclohex -1-ene
14. Which of the following frequencies is required to
eject a photo electron having work function of 6 (C) 2,3-dimethyl cyclohex -1-ene
e.V and the velocity of photo electron greater than (D) 1,6-dimethyl cyclohex -1-ene
velocity of 2nd Bohr's orbit of H – atom
17. Which is the correct IUPAC name of the following
( h = 6.625 × 10−34 J. sec)
compound
(A) 2 × 1015 Hz (B) 2.5 × 1015 Hz

(C) 1.2 × 1015 Hz (D) 1.7 × 1015 Hz

15. Statement 1: According to J.J. Thomson model

during α −ray scattering experiment most α − (A) 3 – hydroxyhept – 6 – enal
Particles should go through the gold foil with very
small deviation (B) 4 – hydroxy – 3 – (but – 3 – enyl)butanol
Statement 2: According to J.J. Thomson model (C) 3 – (hydroxymethyl)hept – 6 – enal
volume of atom is permeable
(D) 3 – methoxyhept – 6 – enal
(A) Both statements are true
(B) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(C) Statement 2 is true and Statement 1 is false
(D) Both Statement are false

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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18. IUPAC name of the following is:
(A) 2-Chloro-3-methoxy cyclohex-5-ene carboxylic
acid
(B) 6-Chloro-5-methoxy cyclohex-2-ene carboxylic
acid
(C) 6-Chloro-5-methoxy cyclohex-2-enoic acid
(D) 2-Chloro-3-methoxy cyclohex-5-enoic acid
19. Correct IUPAC name for the compound 2-ethyl-4-
isopropylhexane will be
(A) 3-methyl-5-isopropylhexane
(B) 3-ethyl-2,5-dimethylheptane
(C) 3-isopryl-5-methylhexane
(D) 5-ethyl-3,6-dimethylheptane
20. Correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
(A) 2,3-diethyl-2, 4-dimethyl-1-oxobutane
(B) 3,4-diethyl-2,4-dimethyl-1-oxobutane
(C) 2,3-diethyl-2,4-dimethyloxetane
(D) 2,3-diethyl-2,4-dimethyloxirane
JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1)
English / 03122023 Space for Rough Work
SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted
questions will be evaluated.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places; e.g.
6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is
11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)
by darken the corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the
bubbles as follows.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to
the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.
1. How many of the following molecules can show
back bonding.
⊕
CF3 , BCl3 , AlCl3 , N(SiH3 )3 , N(CH3 )3 ,
NF3 , BeF2 , Na2 O, B2 H6
6001CJA10100123024
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2. If a bond A-B shows 40% ionic character and has a 7. Which of the following molecule has less than
bond length of 480 pm, then dipole moment of the 100o bond angle?
bond in debyes will be a. H2 s b. H2Se c. H2 T e
3. How many the following relations are correct d. PH3 e. ASH3 f. SbH3
i. Bond angle: g. P4 h. CH4 i. NH3
CH4 > NH3 > H2 O > P H3
j. H2O
ii. Dipole moment: 8. If position of the −CH3 group is X and position of -
H − F > H − Cl > H2 O > HBr > HI Cl is Y in the given molecule then X + Y will be
iii. C-H bond length:
CH3 F < CH3 Cl < CH3 Br < CH3 I
iv. Bond order: N2 > N2+ > N2−2 > O−1
2 > O2
−2

v. Ionic character: LiI>LiBr>LiCl>LiF>Li2O

vi. Solubility in H2O: BeO < MgO < CaO < SrO <
BaO
vii. Bond strength: H2 O > H2 S > H2 Se > H2 T e
9.
viii. Thermal stability:
BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4

4. Two different solutions of HCl having

concentrations 1.2M, 2% w %, d = 1.15g/cc
( )
w No. of carbon atoms in parent chain of compound y = b
respectively are mixed in 1:2 volume ratio. If
density of the resulting solution is 1.15g/cc. What
will be the molality of this solution
5. The percentage of C3H8 in a mixture
of C3H8, C2H4 and C2H2 is 36.5% by volume. The 10.
volume of CO2, produced in milli liters when 100 ml
of the mixture burnt in excess O2 is
6. Degeneracy of H-atom in 3rd excited state is x and
degeneracy of He-atom is 2nd excited state is y,
then x will be
y
JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1)
No. of carbon atoms in parent chain of compound x = a
Position of – OH group (locant) in compound z = c
a+b
Then is
c
How many of the following IUPAC name are
incorrectly matched
i. Picric acid → 2, 4, 6 - trinitrobenzoic acid
ii. Orthosalicylic acid → 2 - hydroxybenzoic acid
iii. Acetonitrile → Propanenitrile
iv. Paraxylene → 1, 4-dimethylbenzene
v. Cinnamic acid → 3-Phenylprop- 2 -enoic acid
vi. valeric acid → 2 hydroxybutanoic acid
vii. Acetoacetic acid → 3-oxoButanoic acid
6001CJA10100123024

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Topic : Sequence & Series, Solution of Triangle, Straight Line
MATHEMATICS
SECTION-I : (Maximum Marks: 80) 3. If f (x) = 4x4 − ax3 + bx2 − cx + 5 where
This section contains 20 questions. Each question has 4 has four positive real roots r1 , r2 , r3 and r4 such that
r1 r r r
options for correct answer. Multiple-Choice Questions + 2 + 3 + 4 = 1 then a is
2 4 5 8
(MCQs) Only one option is correct. For each question,
(A) 17 (B) 18
marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. (C) 19 (D) 20
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected. 4. Let r be a real number such that |r| < 1 and
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected. 2 + 2r + 2r2 + 2r3 +. . . . = 2 + 2. It is given that
√

1. Three line equation, x = y, x = −y and α x + β y = 1, there is exactly one ordered pair(a, b) of positive
forms a triangle. If α and β changes subject to the integers such that 2rb + 2ra+b + 2r2a+b +. . . = 1. Then
condition α 2 + β 2 = 1, then the locus of its a
1
k
1
b k
∑ ( ) + ∑ ( ) is____
circumcentre is k=1
b k=1
a
(A) 2 2 3 5
( x2 − y ) = x2 + y 2 (A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 3
2 2
2
(B) ( x2 − y 2 ) = x2 − y 2 5. 1
Let r > 0 such that 6
√ r+ = 6. The value of
(C) 2
x + y = 4x y2 2 2 6
√ r
∣
1 ∣

(D) 2 2 2 2 2 2
4
∣√ r− ∣
( x −y ) = (x + y )
∣
4
√ r∣
2. In a Δ ABC, AB= 7, BC = 5 and AC=6. Locate (A) 13 (B) 14
points p1 , p2 , p3 , p4 on BC such that the side is (C) 15 (D) 16
divided into 5 equal segments each of length 1. Let
qK = APK for K ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4} where APK 6. Let ⟨ an ⟩ , ⟨ bn ⟩ and ⟨ cn ⟩ such that
n
represents distance of point A from points PK. ∑ ai = n 3 ∀ n ∈ N
4 i=1
Then ∑ qi 2 equals n

i=1 ∑ b i = an ∀ n ∈ N
i=1
(A) 142 (B) 150 n
∑ ci = b n ∀ n ∈ N
(C) 155 (D) 160 i=1
c2 + c20 + c202 + c2024
Then is
c2023 + c32 + c320 + c2
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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7. then 11. The perpendicular distances p1, p2, p3 of points
(A) The elements of S form set of parallel lines (a2 , 2a , (ab, a + b) , b2 , 2b
) (respectively from
)

straight line x + y tan θ + tan2 θ = 0 are in:

(B) The elements of S form set of concentric π ;n ∈ Z
θ ≠ (2n + 1)
circles 2

(C) The elements of S form set of concurrent lines (A) AP (B) GP

(D) The elements of S form set of circles and lines (C) HP (D) AGP

8. A triangle with vertices (6, 5) , (8, −3) and (9, 1)is 12. Given A ≡ (1, 1) and AB is any line through it
reflected in the line x=8 to create a second triangle. cutting the x – axis in B. If AC is perpendicular to
The area of union of the two triangles are AB and meets the y – axis in C, then the equation of
locus of mid – point P of BC is:
(A) 48 (B) 8
3 3 (A) x+y=1 (B) x+y=2
(C) 16 (D) 32
(C) x + y = 2xy (D) 2x + 2y = 1
3 3
9. Let L be a line passing through origin (0, 0), Let L' −x + x√4x − 3
13. For x ⩾ 3, Let f (x) =
be reflection of L in y =x. If L and L' intersects the 2
Suppose a1, a2,a3,...be sequence satisfying a1>3
x2
curve y= (for x>0) at P and Q and a2024 = 2024 and for n=1,2,3,....,2023
√ 1 − x2
respectively. Then the possible pairs (OP, OQ) may Define an+1 = f (an ). Then
be
2023
(ai+1 )3
a1 + ( ∑ 2 2
) is
(Note: OP, OQ represents distance of points P and i=1 (ai+1 ) + ai ai+1 + (ai )
Q from origin respectively) (A) 2024 (B) 4047
1 1 (C) 2025 (D) 4049
(A) ( 2023, ) (B) ( 2022, )
2022 2023
1 1 1
14. Let d(n) represents sum of perpendicular distances
(C) ( , ) (D) ( 2023, ) 1 1
2023 2022 2023 from the point ( , sin ) to the sides of triangle
n n
10. Let (a, b) ∈ S where set S = {−3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3} with vertices (0, 0), (4, 0) and ( 2, 2√3).Then
The number of ordered pairs(a, b) such that 2023
1 2
a2 4 − x2 + b2 9 − y 2 + ab (12 − 12xy) = 0.
( ) ( ) ( ∑ d (n)) = λ . Then λ equals
2023 n=1
represents distinct pair of straight lines.
(A) 9 (B) 10
(A) 48 (B) 46
(C) 11 (D) 12
(C) 45 (D) 44

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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15. If the sides of triangle ( Δ ABC) satisfies 18. For every positive integer n, let
3 1 1 1 √ 1 1 1
= + . The angle between an = 1 + √ − −√ −
a+b+c a+b a + c n n+1 n n+1
side b and c Then the product a1 a2 . . . . a99 equals
(A) π (B) π (A) 1 (B) 1
2 3 51 91
(C) π (D) π (C) 1 (D) 1
4 5
55 99
16. Let {a1 , a2 , . . . a100 }be
a sequence of consecutive
19. In a Δ ABC we have sin A = 2022 sin B sin C and
positive integers. The minimum integral value of
cos A = 2022 cos B cos C then tan A equals

 99

⎷
∑ ai − √a1 + a100 is (A) 2021 (B) 2023
i=2
(C) 2022 (D) 2024
(A) 88 (B) 77
13
4x k
(C) 66 (D) 55 20. Suppose f (x) = . Find ∑ f ( )
4x + 2 k=1
14
17. Let C1 be a circle of radius 1 and C2 be a circle that
(A) 5 (B) 11
lies completely inside C1 or internally touches C1. 2
Suppose P is a point that lies inside or on C2. 13
Suppose O1 and O2 be centres of C1 and C2 (C) 6 (D)
2
respectively. The maximum possible area of
Δ O1 O2 P is
1 1
(A) (B)
32 16
1 1
(C) (D)
8 4

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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 SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 1. In the coordinate plane, let A = (−8, 0) , B (8, 0)
This section contains 10 questions Candidates have to and C (t, 6). The maximum value of
attempt any 5 questions out of 10. If more than 5 (sin θ 1 ) (sin θ 2 ) over all real numbers t is λ . Then
questions are attempted, then only first 5 attempted 8 λ is____
questions will be evaluated. (Here: θ 1 = ∠ CAB
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. θ 2 = ∠ CBA)
For each question, enter the correct numerical value (If 2. Let T be a triangle with side lengths 3, 4 and 5. If
the numerical value has more than two decimal places, P is a point in or on T, what is the greatest possible
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places; e.g. sum of the distances from P to each of the three
6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, –127.30, if answer is sides of T?
11.36777..... then both 11.36 and 11.37 will be correct)
3. Let α , β , γ be the three distinct roots of the cubic
by darken the corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
30x3 − 50x2 + 22x − 1 = 0
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill the
Define Sn = α n + β n + γ n as the sequence of Sn for
bubbles as follows.
all n ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, . . . . .}
∞
1
Then ( ∑ Sn ) equals
3 n=0
2023
(∑ k! (k3 + 2k2 + 3k + 1)) + 1
k=1
4. is
(2024)2 2024!
(Here r! denotes factorial of r)
5. The sum of first n terms of an A.P is given by
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to Sn = 3n2 − 2n.Then
the following marking scheme: ∞
21
Full Marks : +4 If correct answer is selected. ∑ (
Sn Sn+2 + Sn−1 Sn+1 − Sn Sn+1 − Sn−1 Sn+2
)

n=1
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the option is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

JEE (M + A) NURTURE PHASE 1 & 2 (COMMON FOR ALL) ACT - 3 (PAPER 1) 6001CJA10100123024

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 n
6. Consider the following line segments
8. Define sequence S (n) = ∑ 1λ .
L1 : {x} + {y} = 1 ∀ x, y ∈ [0, 1) 2λ =1
L2 : (x + 1) − {y} = 1 ∀ x, y ∈ [0, t] Define set of lines L1,L2,...,Ln as follows:
Let f(t) denotes minimum distance between line Ln : y = S (n) x
segments L1 and L2 for parameter t. The minimum distance of point(0,1) among the set
3
1 λ of lines Ln tends to a fixed value ℓ . Then 2 ℓ √
If ∑ f( ) = then ( λ − 1)
k=1
k+1 12√2 equals _____
equals_____ 9. The value of |c| for which the curve
(Note: {x} and |x| represents fractional part and y = |x − 20| + |x − 23| meets the line y = x + 10c in
modulus function respectively) exactly one point is___
7. Consider the curve given by set S as follows: ∣ 60 k
n2 ∣∣
10. If ∣
∣
∑ ∑ =λ
∣ n=1
61 − 2n ∣∣
k=1
There is a unique equilateral triangle whose The product of digits of number λ is____
vertices belong to set S. If Δ be the area of such
4Δ2
triangle then equals_____
3

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