MOCK TEST PAPER 2

Time : 3 Hours Total Marks : 300

General Instructions :
1. There are three subjects in the question paper consisting of Physics (Q. no. 1 to 30), Chemistry (Q. no. 31 to 60) and Mathematics
(Q. no. 61 to 90).
2. Each subject is divided into two sections. Section A consists of 20 multiple choice questions & Section B consists of 10 numerical
value type questions. In Section B, candidates have to attempt any five questions out of 10.
3. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices in Section A. For each question 4 marks will be awarded for correct
choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice for Section A questions and zero mark will be awarded for not attempted
question.
4. For Section B questions, 4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero for unattempted and incorrect answer.
5. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the students appearing for the test.
6. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet is provided with Question Paper.

Physics

Q. 5. A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of

Section A
50 N/m2 from a volume of 10 m3 to a volume
of 4 m3. Energy of 100 J is then added to the
Q. 1. If energy (E), velocity (V) and force (F), be gas by heating. Its internal energy is :
taken as fundamental quantities, then what (1) Increased by 400 J
are the dimensions of mass ? (2) Increased by 200 J
(1) EV2 (2) EV–2 (3) Increased by 100 J
–1 –2
(3) FV (4) FV (4) Decreased by 200 J
Q. 2. A body starts from rest with constant Q. 6. Two rectangular blocks A and B of different
acceleration a, its velocity after n second metals have same length and same area of
is v. The displacement of body in last two cross-section. They are kept in such a way
seconds is : that their cross-sectional area touch each
other. The temperature at one end of A is
2 v ( n − 1) v ( n − 1) 100°C and that of B at the other end is 0°C.
(1) (2)
n n If the ratio of their thermal conductivity is
v ( n + 1) 2 v ( n + 1) 1 : 3, then under steady state, the temperature
(3) (4) of the junction in contact will be :
n n
(1) 25°C (2) 50°C
Q. 3. Work done in converting one gram of ice at
(3) 75°C (4) 100°C
–10°C into steam at 100°C is :
Q. 7. An anisotropic material has coefficient of
(1) 3045 J (2) 6056 J
linear thermal expansion a1, a2 and a3 along
(3) 721 J (4) 616 J x, y and z–axis respectively. Coefficient of
Q. 4. Which of the following quantities is zero on cubical expansion of its material will be
an average for the molecules of an ideal gas equal to :
in equilibrium ? (1) a1 + a2 + a3 (2) a1 + 2a2 + 3a3
(1) Kinetic energy (2) Momentum α1 + α 2 + α 3
(3) 3a1 + 2a2 + a3 (4)
(3) Density (4) Speed 3
2 Oswaal JEE (Main) Mock Test 15 Sample Question Papers

Q. 8. Two strings A and B, made of same material ∆g

(1) zero (2) Df =
are stretched by same tension. The radius g 0 β sin ( 2φ )
of string A is double of the radius of B. A
transverse wave travels on A with speed vA ∆g
(3) Df = (4) Df =
v β cos ( 2φ ) g0
and on B with speed vB. The ratio A is :
vA Q. 15. A point object is placed at a distance of 30 cm
1
(1) (2) 2 from a convex mirror of focal length 30 cm.
2
What is the separation between the image
1
(3) (4) 4 and the object?
4
(1) 40 cm (2) 45 cm
Q. 9. In the interference of two sources of
(3) 50 cm (4) 55 cm
intensities I0 and 9I0 the intensity at a point
π Q. 16. A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the
where the phase difference is is :
2 same number of waves as 5 cm of water.
(1) 10 I0 (2) 8 I0
When both are traversed by the same
(3) 82 I0 (4) 4 I0 monochromatic light. If the refractive index
Q. 10. When an engine passes near to a stationary 4
of water is   . What is that of glass ?
observer then its apparent frequencies 3
5 5
occurs in the ratio 5/3. If the velocity of (1) (2)
3 4
engine is :
16
(1) 540 m/s (2) 270 m/s (3) (4) 1.5
15
(3) 85 m/s (4) 52.5 m/s Q. 17. The maximum value of index of refraction
Q. 11. The value of series limit in the case of of a material of a prism which allows
paschen series is : the passage of light through it when the
(1) 1875 nm (2) 122 nm refracting angle of the prism is A is :
(3) 822 nm (4) tending to zero
A A
Q. 12. Two radioactive sources A and B of half lives (1) 1 + sin   (2) 1 + cos  
2 2
of 1 hour and 2 hours, respectively, initially
contain the same number of radioactive A A
(3) 1 + tan 2   (4) 1 + cot 2  
atoms. At the end of two hours, their rates of 2 2
disintegration are in the ratio of : Q. 18. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm is placed
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 3 coaxially in front of a convex mirror. The
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 lens is 5 cm from the pole of the mirror.
Q. 13. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric When an object is placed on the axis at a
experiment is doubled, the stopping distance of 20 cm from the lens, it is found
potential will : that the image coincides with the object.
Calculate the radius of curvature of the
(1) be doubled
mirror - (consider all optical event) :
(2) be halved
(1) 45 cm (2) 55 cm
(3) become more than double
(3) 65 cm (4) 85 cm
(4) become less than double
Q. 19. In the diagram shown, the separation
Q. 14. The dependence of g on geographical between the slit is equal to 3l, where l is
latitude at sea level is given by the wavelength of the light incident on the
g = g0(1 + b sin2f) where f is the latitude plane of the slits. A thin film of thickness 3l
angle and b is a dimensionless constant. If Dg and refractive index 2 has been placed in
is the error in the measurement of g then the the front of the upper slit. The distance of
error in measurement of latitude angle is : the central maxima on the screen from O is:
MOCK TEST PAPER-2 3

Q. 23. A ball of mass m = 20 kg released from

height h = 10 m falls on the Earth’s surface.
S1 The speed of the Earth when the ball reaches
on the Earth’s surface is ............ × 10–23 m/s.
O
Q. 24. A solid sphere, rolls on a rough horizontal
S2
surface with a linear speed 7 m/s collides
D elastically with a fixed smooth vertical
wall. Then the speed of the sphere, when
λd it has started pure rolling in the backward
(1) D (2)
D direction is ............ m/s.
λD Q. 25. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular
(3) (4) None of these
d orbit around the earth with a speed equal to
Q. 20. In a hydraulic press there is a larger piston of half the magnitude of escape velocity from
diameter 35 cm at a height of 1.5 m relative the earth. If the satellite is stopped in its orbit
to the smaller piston of diameter 10 cm. A and allowed to fall freely onto the earth, the
20 kg mass is loaded on the smaller piston. speed with which it hits the surface ............
3
Density of oil in the press is 750 kg/m . The km/s. [g = 9.8 ms–2 and Re = 6400 km]
thrust on the load by the larger piston is : Q. 26. A weightless rigid rod with a small iron bob
at the end is hinged at point A to the wall so
that it can rotate in all directions. The rod is
kept in the horizontal position by a vertical
1.5 m 20 kg
inextensible string of length 20 cm, fixed at
its mid point. The bob is displaced slightly,
perpendicular to the plane of the rod and
string. The period of small oscillations of the
πx
system in the form is ............ sec. and
(1) 1.1 × 103 N (2) 1.3 × 103 N 10
value of x is ............. (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 1.1 × 104 N (4) 1.3 × 104 N

Section B  = 20 cm

Q. 21. A wet open umbrella is held upright and is A Bob

rotated about the handle at a uniform rate of
21 revolutions in 44 s. If the rim of the
umbrella is circle of 1 metre in diameter and
the height of the rim above the floor is 1.5 m,
the drops of water spun off the rim and
hit the floor at a horizontal .......... m from
umbrella.
Q. 22. A block of mass 2.0 kg is pulled up on a
smooth incline of angle 30° with the
horizontal. If the block moves with an
2
acceleration of 1.0 m/s , the power delivered
by the pulling force at a time 4.0 s after the
motion starts is ............ J/s.
 
Q. 27. A non-conducting sphere of radius R = 5 cm
has its centre at origin O of co-ordinate
system. It has a spherical cavity of radius
r = 1 cm having its centre at (0, 3 cm). Solid
material of sphere has uniform positive
10 −6
charge density r = coulomb m–3. The
π
potential at point P is ............volt. (4 cm, 0).
Q. 28. Two identical capacitors are connected
as shown and having initial charge Q0.
Separation between plates of each capacitor
is d0. Suddenly the left plate of upper
capacitor and right plate of lower capacitor
4 Oswaal JEE (Main) Mock Test 15 Sample Question Papers

start moving with speed v towards left while minimum number of 100 watt light bulb
other plate of each capacitor remains fixed.
operated at 120 volts in home is .............
QV
(given 0 = 10 A). The value of current in
2d0 Q. 30. A charged particle is accelerated through
the circuit is………. A.
a potential difference of 12 kV and
Q0
V
acquires a speed of 106 m s–1. It is projected

perpendicularly into the magnetic field of

V strength 0.2 T. The radius of circle described

Q0
is…………… cm.
Q. 29. A 15 A circuit breaker trips in home when
the current through it, reaches 15 A. The

Chemistry

Section A Q. 36. The acceptable resonating structures of the

following molecule are :
Q. 31. The correct IUPAC name of 2-ethyl-3- ..
..O
pentyne is : CH 3––CH
CH CH==CC––..O .. –CH2 – CH 3
CH 3 – CH = C |– O.. –CH2 – CH 3
3 | .. –CH2 – CH 3
(1) 3-methyl hexyne-4 |:N
:N
(2) 4-ethyl pentyne-2 :N
CH 3
HH3C3C
C CH
(3) 4-methyl hex-2-yne Θ CH 3
3
H 3
Θ.. ..
(x) CH3 –..Θ..C H – C –....O

(4) None of these (x) CH O.. –CH
H – C||–O CH2––CH
CH 3
(x) CH3––C
CH – C||–⊕.... –– CH2 – CH 3
2 3
3
Q. 32. How many conformations does ethane || ⊕
have? NN⊕
N
CH3
(1) 1 (2) 2 HH3C
H
3C
C CH
CH 3
3Θ .. ⊕3
(3) 3 (4) Infinite Θ .. ⊕
(y)
(y) CHCH3 –..CCHH –CC==
Θ ⊕ O
.. – CH2 – CH3
O
Q. 33. H2O2 can be obtained when following reacts (y) CH33 ––C H –– C | |=O .. – CH2 – CH3
.. – CH2 – CH3
:N|:N
with H2SO4 except with :N
CH3
(1) PbO2 (2) BaO2 HH3C
H
3C
C CH
CH 3
3⊕ .. 3
(3) Na2O2 (4) SrO2 (z) ⊕ ..
(z) CH CCHH –CC||––O
CH3 –⊕ .. O
O.. –CH CH2––CH
CH3
Q. 34. Which of the following compounds are (z) CH33 ––C H –– C || – .... –– CH 2 – CH3
2 3
||NΘΘ
formed when boron trichloride is treated NΘ
N
with water. CH3
HH3C
H
3C
C CH
CH 3
(1) H3BO3 + HCl (2) B2H6 + HCl 3⊕
⊕ Θ
Θ 3
(w) CH3 –⊕CCH HH––CC|== –CHCH2––CH
CH3
(3) B2O3 + HCl (4) None of these (w)
(w) CH3––C
CH – C| =O OO–– CH
Θ
2 – CH3
2 3
3
Q. 35. Y ←∆ ,205° C
 CaSO4.2H2O  ∆ ,120° C
→ X. :N|:N
:N
X and Y are respectively CH 3
HH3C
H
3C
C CH
CH 3
(1) plaster of paris, dead burnt plaster 3 3

(2) dead burnt plaster, plaster of paris (1) x, y (2) x, z

(3) CaO and plaster of paris (3) y, z (4) z, w
(4) plaster of paris, mixture of gases
MOCK TEST PAPER-2 5

Q. 37. What would be the product when ethene is (1) CH3CH2CH2OH

oxidised with cold dil. KMnO4 solution : (2) CH3 −CH−CH3
(Hydrocarbon) |
CH 2–CH2 OH
H– C – H
(1) | | (2) || (3) CH3OCH2CH3
OH OH O
(4) CH3CH2CHO
H – C – OH
(3) || (4) CO2 + H2O Q. 42. Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated
O with X and phenol gives benzene on being
heated with Y. Therefore X and Y are
respectively
Q. 38. (1) Soda lime and copper
(2) Zinc dust and sodium hydroxide
 → C6H5 – X
ozonolysis
(3) Zinc dust and soda lime
Functional groups Y, –CH = CH2 and X (4) Soda lime and zinc dust
respectively are ... and ... directing. Q. 43. Alkylamine dissolve in hydrochloric acid
(1) Meta, ortho–para and ortho–para to form alkylammonium chloride. The
(2) Meta, meta and meta nitrogen in the latter salt is :
(3) Meta, ortho–para and meta (1) Quadricovalent only
(4) All the three ortho–para (2) Tricovalent only
Q. 39. Isocyanide reaction involves the (3) Unielectrovalent only
intermediate formation of (4) Quadricovalent, Unielectrovalent
+
(1) : CCl2 (2) CH3 Q. 44. Two elements X (atomic weight = 75) and
Y (atomic weight = 16) combine to give a
(3) : CH3– (4) : CCl3–
compound having 75.8% X. The formula of
NaBH 4
Q. 40. B ← CH = CH–CHO the compound is :
(1) XY (2) X2Y
H 2 /Pt
 → A (3) X2Y2 (4) X2Y3
A and B are - Q. 45. In the reaction–(Biomolecules)

(1) CH2CH2CHO, [X] —CH — CH2 —

nCH2–CH=CH2→
CH3
CH=CH–CH2OH n
Reagent X is :
(1) Triethylaluminiumandtitanium
tetrachloride
(2) CH2CH2CH2OH,
(2) Triethyl aluminium
(3) Zeigler Natta Catalyst
CH=CH–CH2OH
(4) both 1 and 3
Q. 46. On heating Cu(NO3)2 strongly, the material
(3) CH=CH–CH2OH in both cases finally obtained is :
(1) Cu (2) Cu2O
(4) CH2CH2CH2OH in both cases (3) Cu(NO2)2 (4) Cu(NO3)2
Q. 47. The value of D0 for RhCl63– is 243 KJ/mol
[ ] O what wavelength of light will promote an
Q. 41. C3H8O  → C 3H 6O
K 2 Cr2 O7 /H 2 SO4
electron from. The colour of the complex is :
I2 + NaOH ( aq.)
  → CHI3, (1) Blue (2) Green
In this reaction the first compound is : (3) Yellow (4) Orange
6 Oswaal JEE (Main) Mock Test 15 Sample Question Papers
Q. 48. Gold is extracted by making soluble cyanide
complex. The cyanide complex is :
– –
(1) [Au(CN)4] (2) [Au(CN)2]
(3) [Au(CN)3]– (4) [Au(CN)]–
Q. 49. A white powder when strongly heated gives
off brown fumes. A solution of this powder
gives a yellow precipitate with a solution
of KI. When a solution of barium chloride
is added to a solution of powder, a white
precipitate results. This white powder may
be :
(1) A soluble sulphate
(2) KBr or NaBr
(3) Ba(NO3)2
(4) AgNO3
Q. 50. In which of the following species S atom
3 Hg. The temperature of the jar is reduced
assumes sp hybrid state ?
(I) (SO3);    (II) SO2,   (III) H2S   (IV) S8
(1) I, II (2) II, III
(3) II, IV (4) III, IV
Section B
Q. 51. A definite volume of H2O2 undergoing
spontaneous decomposition required
22.8 c.c. of standard permanganate solution
for titration. After 10 and 20 minutes
respectively the volumes of permanganate
required were 13.8 and 8.25 c.c. The time
required for the decomposition to be half
completed is .......... min.
Q. 52. The half-life of cobalt 60 is 5.26 years. The
percentage activity remaining after 4 years
is ............%.
Q. 53. The e.m.f. of cell Zn | ZnSO4 || CuSO4| Cu
at 25°C is 0.03 V and the temperature
–4
coefficient of e.m.f. is –1.4 × 10 V per
degree. The heat of reaction for the change
taking place inside the cell is – (.............) kJ/
mol.
Q. 54. If NaCl is doped with 10-3 mol % of SrCl2.
The concentration of cation vacancy is
18
............ × 10 .
Q. 55. Volume of N2 at NTP required to form a
monolayer on the surface of iron catalyst is
8.15 ml/g of the adsorbent. if each nitrogen
molecule occupies 16 × 10
–22
m2. The surface
area of the 100 g adsorbent will be ..........
18 2
× 10 m .
Q. 56. A solution of a non volatile solute in water
freezes at –0.30°C. The vapour pressure
of pure water at 298 K is 23.51 mm Hg
and Kf for water is 1 – 86 degree/mol. The
vapour pressure of rain solution at 298 K is
.......... mm Hg.
Q. 57. A jar contains a gas and a few drops of water
at T K. The pressure in the jar is 830 mm of
by 1%. The vapour pressure of water at two
temperatures are 30 and 25 mm of Hg. The
new pressure in the jar is ............ mm of Hg.
Q. 58. The molar heats of formation of NH4NO3 (s)
is – 367.54 kJ and those of N2O (g), H2O (l)
are 81.46 and – 285.8 kJ respectively at 25°C
and atmosphere pressure. The difference of
∆H and ∆E of the reaction
NH4NO3 (s) → N2O (g) + 2H2O(l) is ........ kJ.
Q. 59. A 0.5 g sample of an iron-containing mineral
mainly in the form of CuFeS2 was reduced
suitably to convert all the ferric iron into
ferrous form and was obtained as a solution.
In the absence of any interfering matter, the
solution required 42 ml of 0.01 M K2Cr2O7
solution for titration. The percentage
of CuFeS2 in the mineral is ..........%
(Cu = 63.5, Fe = 55.8, S = 32, O = 16).
Q. 60. Sulphide ion in alkaline solution reacts with
solid sulphur to form polysulphide ions
having formula , S 22 − , S 32 − , S 24 − , etc. if K1 =
2−
12 for S+S  S 2 and K2 = 132 for 2S+S
2- 2-
 S 32 − , K3 = ............ for S + S 22 −  S 32 −
 MOCK TEST PAPER-2 7

Mathematics

Section A Q. 67. The vector p perpendicular to the vectors
 
a = 2ˆi + 3ˆj − k and b =ˆi − 2 ˆj + 3k and satisfy-

Q. 61.  log ( log x ) + 1 

(
ing the condition p ⋅ 2ˆi − ˆj + kˆ = –6 is : )
∫  dx =
( log x )  ( )
2
 (1) −ˆi + ˆj + kˆ (2) 3 −ˆi + ˆj + kˆ
x
(1) x log log x + +c
log x (
(3) 2 −ˆi + ˆj + kˆ ) (4) ˆi − ˆj + kˆ

(2) x log log x + 2 x + c Q. 68. If a2 + b2 + c2 = – 2 and

log x
(3) x log log x − x + c
1 + a2 x (1 + b ) x (1 + c ) x
2 2

log x (
f (x ) = 1 + a2 ) x 1 + b x (1 + c ) x
2 2

(4) x log log x − 2 x + c (1 + a 2

) x (1 + b ) x (1 + c ) x
2 2

log x
 2 4 6 2n
 then f (x) is a polynomial of degree
 1  n2  2 2  n2  3 2  n2  n 2  n2  (1) 1 (2) 0
lim  1 +
Q. 62. n →∞  n 2   1 +   1 +  ...  1 +  
   n2   n2   n2   (3) 3 (4) 2

is equal to : 
Q. 69. If ax4 + bx3 + cx2 + dx + e =
e 4 2x x −1 x +1
(1) (2)
4 e x + 1 x 2 − x x − 1 , then the value of e, is :
e
(3) 1 (4) x −1 x +1 3x
2
Q. 63. If (a, b), (c, d) are points on the curve 9y2 = x3 (1) 0 (2) –2
where the normal makes equal intercepts on (3) 3 (4) –1
Q. 70. Number of integral values of x satisfying the
the axes, then the value of a + b + c + d is :
6 x + 10 − x 2
(1) 0 (2) 8 3 27
inequality   < is :
4
  64
(3) 27 (4) 64
Q. 64. Let f(x) be a function such that ; (1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) Infinite
f ' (x) = log1/3 (log3(sin x + a)) (where a ∈ R). If
Q. 71. If α and β are the roots of the equation
f(x) is decreasing for all real values of x then 1
2 1
the exhaustive solution set of a is .......... . x + px + 2 = 0 and and are the roots of
a b
(1) (1, 4) (2) (4, ∞)
2  1
(3) (2, 3) (4) (2, ∞) the equation 2x + 2qx + 1 = 0, then  α − 
 α
Q. 65. If ( 3 + i )( z + z ) − ( 2 + i )( z − z ) + 14i = 0, then  1  1  1
z z is equal to :  β −   α +   β +  is equal to :
 β   β   α 
(1) 10 (2) 8
9 9
(3) –9 (4) –10 (1)
4
(
9 + q2 ) (2)
4
(
9 − q2 )
Q. 66. The length of the perpendicular from
9 9
the point (2, –1, 4) on the straight line, (3)
4
(
9 + p2 ) (4)
4
(
9 − p2 )
x+3 y−2 z Q. 72. The sum of the series
= = is :
10 −7 1 1.32 + 2.52 + 3.72+.... upto 20 terms is :
(1) 188090 (2) 180890
(1) greater than 3 but less than 4
(3) 189820 (4) 180889
(2) less than 2 Q. 73. If mC3 + mC4 > m + 1C3, then least value of m is :
(3) greater than 2 but less than 3 (1) 6 (2) 7
(4) greater than 4 (3) 5 (4) 4
8 Oswaal JEE (Main) Mock Test 15 Sample Question Papers

Q. 74. Ten different letters of an alphabet are given.

3 ( 2x + 3 y + 2 )
2
2 2
Words with five letters are formed from these Q. 79. (x – 1) + (y – 2) =
13
given letters. Determine the number of words represents hyperbola whose eccentricity is :
which have at least one letter repeated.
(1) 13 (2) 13
(1) 69762 (2) 69676
3 3
(3) 69760 (4) 69766
(3) 3 (4) 3
Q. 75. If m1 and m2 are roots of the equation
Q. 80. If the point (1, 3) serves as the point of
( ) ( )
x 2 + 3 + 2 x + 3 − 1 = 0 then the area 3 2
inflection of the curve y = ax + bx then the
of the triangle formed by the lines y = m1x, value of ‘a’ and ‘b’ are
y = m2x and y = c is :
3 3
(1) a = and b = –
 33 − 11  2  33 + 11  2 2 2
(1)   c (2)   c
 4   4  3 9
(2) a = and b =
2 2
 33 + 11  2  33 − 11  2 3 9
(3)   c (4)   c (3) a = – and b = –
 2   2  2 2
Q. 76. If the length of the chord of the circle, x2 + 3 9
2 2
(4) a = – and b =
y = r (r > 0) along the line, y –2x = 3 is r, 2 2
2
then r is equal to :

(1)
9
(2) 12
Section B
5
 5π 
24 12 Q. 81. If f ( x=
) 3 cos  x + − 5 sin x + 2 then
(3) (4)  6 
5 5
maximum value of ƒ(x) is ..........
Q. 77. The centre of the circle passing through the
point (0, 1) and touching the parabola y = x
2 sin 3 θ cos3 θ
=
Q. 82. Let x = , y and
at the point (2, 4) is : cos2 θ sin 2 θ
 − 53 16  1 p
,   6 53  sin θ + cos θ = . If x + y = where p and q
(1)  (2)  ,  q
 10 5   5 10  2
are coprime then (p + q) is equal to : ..........
 3 16   − 16 53 
(3)  ,  (4)  ,  Q. 83. Consider ƒ(x) = sin–1[2x] + cos–1([x] –1)
 10 5   5 10  (where [.] denotes greatest integer function.)
Q. 78. The eccentricity, foci and the length of the If domain of ƒ(x) is [a, b) and the range of ƒ(x)
2 2
latus rectum of the ellipse x + 4y + 8y – 2x 2d
is {c, d} then a + b + is equal to ..........
+ 1 = 0 are respectively equal to : c
(where c < d)
1
Q. 84. If 0 < x < π and cos x + sin x = , then tan x is
(1)
2
3
(
; 1 ± 3, −1 ; 2 ) 2

(1)
(1 − 7 ) (2)
(4 − 7 )
(2)
2
3
(
; 1 ± 3, 1 ; 1 ) 4 3

(3) −
(4 + 7 ) (4)
(1 + 7 )
3 4
(3)
2
3
(
; 1 ± 3, −1 ; 1 ) Q. 85. Let a real valued function ƒ(x) satisfying
ƒ(x + y) + ƒ(x – y) = ƒ(x)ƒ(y) {ƒ(0) ≠ 0}
(4)
2
3
( )
; 1 ± 3, 1 ; 2 " x, y ∈ R, then ƒ(–2) – ƒ(–1) + ƒ(0) + ƒ(1) –
ƒ(2) is equal to ..........
MOCK TEST PAPER-2 9

(sin( ne x ))2 Q. 89. If y = ƒ(x), ƒ '(0) = ƒ(0) = 1 and if y = ƒ(x)

Q. 86. The value of lim 2 is .......... d 2 y dy
x →0
( e tan x
− 1) satisfies 2 + = x , then the value of [ƒ(1)]
dx dx
Q. 87. P(x) be a polynomial satisfying P(x) – 2P’(x)
is .......... (where [.] denotes greatest integer
= 3x3 – 27x2 + 38x + 1.
function)
If function
 P ''( x ) + 18 π Q. 90. A man has 3 pairs of white socks and
 x≠
6 2 2 pairs of blue socks kept together in a bag.
f (x) = 
sin ( ab ) + cos−1 ( a + b − 3ab ),
−1 π If he dressed up hurriedly in the dark, the
x=
 2 probability that after he has put on a white
π sock, he will then put on another white
is continuous at x = , then (a + b) is equal
2 M M
to .......... . sock is ( is in simplest form) then
∞
n n
(sin x ) x(sin x )
x
dy π n – M = .......... .
Q. 88 If y = x , then at x = is equal
dx 2
to .......... .

Answers
Physics
Q. No. Answer Topic Name Q. No. Answer Topic Name
1 (2) Unit & Dimension 16 (1) Refraction at plane surface
2 (1) One Dimension 17 (4) Prism
3 (3) Calorimetry 18 (2) Refraction at Curve Surface
4 (2) Kinetic Theory of Gases 19 (1) Wave Optics
5 (1) Thermodynamics 20 (2) Fluid Mech
6 (1) Heat Transfer 21 0.829 Circular Motion
7 (1) Thermal Expansion 22 48.00 Rotational Motion
8 (1) Transverse Wave 23 4.66 Conservation Law
9 (1) Sound Wave 24 3.00 Rotational Motion
10 (3) Dopplar Effect 25 7.919 Gravitation
11 (3) Atomic Structure & Matter wave 26 4.00 Elasticity
12 (3) Nuclear Physics & Radioactivity 27 35.16 Current Electricity
13 (3) Photo Electric Effect 28 20.00 Capacitance
14 (2) Practical Physics 29 18.00 Current Electricity
15 (2) Reflection at Plane and Curve Surface 30 12.00 Magnetic Effect of Current

Chemistry
Q. No. Answer Topic Name Q. No. Answer Topic Name
31 (3) IUPAC 46 (2) Transition Elements
32 (4) Isomerism 47 (4) Coordination compound
33 (1) Hydrogen & Its Compound 48 (2) Metallurgy
34 (1) p-Block(Boron) 49 (4) Salt Analysis
35 (1) (s-Block) 50 (4) Oxygen Family
36 (1) General Organic Chemistry 51 13.71 Chemical Kinetic
37 (1) Hydrocarbon 52 53.00 Nuclear Chemistry
38 (3) Aromatic Compound 53 13.842 Electrochemistry
10 Oswaal JEE (Main) Mock Test 15 Sample Question Papers

39 (1) Halogen Dervitative 54 6.02 Solid State

40 (2) Salt Analysis 55 35.00 Surface Chemistry
41 (2) Carbonyl Compound 56 23.44 Solution
42 (4) Carboxylic Acid 57 817.00 Gaseous States
43 (4) Nitrogen Compound 58 2.324 Chemical Energetics
44 (4) Practical Chemistry 59 92.40 Redox Reaction
45 (4) Biomolecules 60 11.00 Chemical Equilibrium

Mathematics
Q. No. Answer Topic Name Q. No. Answer Topic Name
61 (3) Indefinite Integration 76 (1) Circle
62 (2) Definite Integration 77 (4) Parabola
63 (2) Tangent and Normal 78 (3) Ellipse
64 (2) Monotonicity 79 (3) Hyperbola
65 (1) Complex Number 80 (4) Maxima and Minima
66 (2) Three Dimensional Plane 81 9.00 Trigonometric Ratio
67 (2) Vector 82 97.00 Trigonometric Equation
68 (3) Metrics 83 4.00 Inverse Trigonometric Functions
69 (1) Determinants 84 330 Trigonometry
70 (2) Logarithm 85 2.00 Function
71 (4) Quadratic Equation 86 1.00 Limit
72 (1) Progression 87 2.00 Continuity
73 (2) Binomial Therom 88 1.00 Differentiation
74 (3) Permutation and Combination 89 1.00 Differential Equation
75 (2) Straight Line and Point 90 4.00 Probability

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