REVISION NO.

INITIAL January 22, 2010

ATPL – FLIGHT PERFORMANCE & PLANNING

SET B
1. If a jet engine fails during take-off before V1:

a. The take-off can be continued or aborted

b. The take-off should be aborted
c. The take-off should be continued
d. The take-off may be continued if the aircraft speed is above VMCG
and lies between VGO and VSTOP

2. When does THRUST = DRAG?

a. Climbing at a constant IAS

b. Descending at a constant IAS
c. Flying level at a constant IAS
d. All of the above

3. How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in
the case of flights into areas subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?

a. 3.00 hrs
b. 0.30 hrs
c. 1.00 hr
d. 0.10 hr

4. At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires:

a. More thrust and a lower coefficient of lift

b. Less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift
c. More thrust and a lower coefficient of drag
d. A higher coefficient of lift

5. Which of the following would give the greatest gliding performance?

a. Flight at VMD
b. Flight at 1.32VMD
c. Flight at the best CL/CD ratio
d. Flight close to CL MAX

6. You make a diversion from the route given in the flight plan and land at an
uncontrolled airfield. Within what time after landing should you inform ATC?

a. 10 mins
b. 20 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 45 mins

7. After flying for 16 minutes at 100kt TAS with a 20kt tail wind, you have to
return to the airfield of departure. You will arrive after:

a. 10 min 40 sec
b. 20 min
c. 24 min
d. 16 min
8. When approaching a wet runway, with the risk of hydroplaning, what
technique should the pilot adapt?

a. Positive touchdown, full reverse and brakes as soon as possible

b. Smoothest possible touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below
VP
c. Positive touchdown, full reverse and only brakes below VP
d. Normal landing, full reverse brakes at VP

9. The best EAS/Drag ratio is approximately:

a. 1.3 VMD
b. 1.32 VMD
c. 1.6 VMD
d. 1.8 VMD

10. What factors affect descent angle in a glide?

a. Configuration and altitude

b. Configuration and angle of attack
c. Mass and altitude
d. Mass and configuration

11. An aircraft climbs from an airfield, elevation 1500ft, QNH 1023mb, to FL75.
What height does the aircraft have to climb? (Assume 1mb=30ft)

a. 6600 ft
b. 7800 ft
c. 6300 ft
d. 6000 ft

12. At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of usable fuel remaining.
Alternative fuel required is 12USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35
mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable?

a. 33.0 USG/Hr
b. 37.9 USG/Hr
c. 30.3 USG/Hr
d. 21.3 USG/Hr

13. In flight, it is possible to:

i. File an IFR flight plan

ii. Modify an active flight plan
iii. Cancel a VFR flight plan
iv. Close a VFR flight plan
(rules of the air ann2 3.3.5)

a. i and ii
b. i, ii, iii and iv
c. ii, iii and iv
d. i and iv

14. Maximum endurance:

a. Can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum

fuel consumption
b. Can be achieved by flying at the best rate of climb speed in straight
and level flight
c. Can be achieved in a steady climb
d. Can be achieved by flying at the absolute ceiling
15. By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?

a. 30%
b. 10%
c. 20%
d. 15%

16. The maximum induced drag occurs at a speed of:

a. VMD
b. VMP
c. VSO
d. VATO

17. Define the useful load:

a. traffic load plus dry operating mass

b. traffic load plus usable fuel mass
c. dry operating mass plus usable fuel load
d. that part of the traffic load which generates revenue

18. An aeroplane of 110,000kg has its CG at 22.6m aft of the datum. The CG
limits are 18m to 22m aft of the datum. How much mass must be removed
from a hold 30m aft of the datum to bring the CG to its mid point?

a. 26,800 kg
b. 28,600 kg
c. 86,200 kg
d. 62,800 kg

19. What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan?

a. From take-off to overhead destination

b. From take-off to overhead destination + 15 mins
c. From take-off to landing
d. From taxi to arrival on the gate

20. How is fuel consumption affect by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg?

a. Increases with a forward C of G

b. Decreases with an aft C of G
c. Decreases with a forward C of G
d. Fuel consumption is not affected by the C of G position

21. For take-off performance calculations, what is taken into account?

a. OAT, pressure altitude, wind, weight

b. Standard temperature, altitude, wind, weight
c. Standard altitude, standard temperature, wind, weight
d. Standard temperature, pressure altitude, wind, weight
22. BIRMINGHAM EGBB/BHX
SA0850 280850 18014kt 9999 SCT024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011 =
FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27kt 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812
5000 – DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214 19022G37 =
FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000
RA BKN010 BECMG 2201 25007kt

Refer to weather information for Birmingham above. What is the total time for
which the weather is forecast?

a. 9 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 28 hours

23. When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin?

a. When V2 is reached
b. When 35 feet is reached
c. When flaps are up
d. When gear and flaps are up

24. For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is:

a. The time overhead the first reporting point after take-off

b. The time at which the flight plan is filed
c. The estimated off-block time
d. The time of take-off

25. Given:
True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600ft; local airfield gives QNH as
1035mb; required terrain clearance 1500ft; temperature ISA -15C.

Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?

a. FL150
b. FL140
c. FL120
d. FL110
Problem Solving. Show your solution. (5points each)
1. A flight is planned from L to M, distance 850 nm. Wind component out is 35
kt(TWC), TAS 450kt. Mean fuel flow out is 2500kg/hr, mean fuel flow inbound
is 1900kg/hr and the fuel available is 6000kg.

The time and distance to PSR is:

a. 1hr 30 min, 660nm

b. 1hr 30 min, 616nm
c. 1hr 15 min, 606nm
d. 1hr 16 min, 616nm

2. Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.2 & 4.5.3.2

Estimated take-off mass 57,000kg; ground distance 150nm; temperature ISA
-10C; cruise at M0.74.

What is the optimum cruise altitude and TAS?

a. 25,000ft & 445kt

b. 33,000ft & 420kt
c. 25,000ft & 435kt
d. 33,000ft & 430kt

3. Given:
DOM 33,510kt; Traffic load 7,600kg; Trip fuel 2040kg; Final reserve 983kg
Alternative fuel 1100kg; Contingency 5% of trip fuel

Which of the following is correct?

a. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,193kg

b. Estimated landing mass at destination 43,295kg
c. Estimated take-off mass 43,295kg
d. Estimated take-off mass 45,233kg

4. Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.6

Given:
Distance to alternate 400nm
Landing mass at alternate 50,000kg
Headwind component 25kt

The alternate fuel required is:

a. 2550kg
b. 2800kg
c. 2900kg
d. 2650kg

5. Refer to CAP697 MRJT1 Fig. 4.3.1

Given:
Estimated zero fuel mass 50t; estimated landing mass at destination 52t;
final reserve fuel 2t; alternate fuel 1t; flight to destination distance 720nm,
true course 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: LRC, at FL330 outside air
temperature -30C.

Find estimated trip fuel and time.

a. 4,800kg / 01hr 45min

b. 4,400kg / 02hr 02min
c. 4,750kg / 02hr 00min
d. 4,600kg / 02hr 05min
When submitting a flight plan before flight, departure time is?
- at which the aircraft leaves the parking area

What is the Total Elapsed Time on a VFR flight plan?

- From take-off to overhead destination

“Total Elapsed Time”for an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan at box 16, is the time elapsed
from :
- take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination aerodrome

In flight, it is possible to:

i. file an IFR flight plan
ii. modify an active flight plan
iii. cancel a VFR flight plan
iv. Close a VFR flight plan

- I, II, III and IV

If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the destination aerodrome specified in the ICAO flight plan, she
must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination is informed within a specified time of her planned ETA at
destination.
The time is:
- 30 mins

How many hours in advance of departure time should a flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas
subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)?
- 3.00 hrs

For a flight plan filed before flight, the indicated time of departure is:
- the estimated off-block time

Birmingham EGBB/BHX
SA0850 280850 18014KT 9999 SCT 024 BKN030 BKN045 12/08 Q1011=
FC0600 280600Z 280816 190015G27KT 9999 BKN025 TEMPO 0812 5000 – DZ BKN012 BECMG 1214
19022G37=
FT0400 280434Z 281212 19022G37 9999BKN025 TEMPO 1902 5000 RA BKN010 BECMG 2201
25007KT

Refer to the weather information for Birmingham, above. What is the total time for which the weather is
forcast?
- 28 hours

Given:
True track 215; mountain elevation 11,600 ft; local airfield gives qnh as 1035 mb; Required terrain
clearance 1500 ft; temparute ISA-15C
Which of the following is the minimum flight level considering the temperature?
-FL140

At a fuel check you have 60 US gallons (USG) of useable fuel remaining. Alternative fuel required is 12
USG. The flight time remaining is 1 hour 35 mins. What is the highest consumption rate acceptable?
- 30.3 USG/HR

After flying for 16 minutes at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind, you have to return to the airfield of
departure. You will arrive after:
- 24 mins

The CG is found to be 652.5 inches aft of the datum.. What percentage is the CG to the MAC?
- 20%

Define the useful load:

- traffic load plus usable fuel mass

The useful load is:

- TOM minus the DOM

To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during the landing the pilot of a modern airliner should:
- make a “positive” landing and apply maximum reverse thrust and brakes as quickly as
possible.

The first segment of the take-off flight path ends:

- at completion fo gear retraction

When does THRUST = DRAG?

- flying level at a constant IAS
For a turbojet aeroplane the second segment of the climb begins when:
- Landing gear is fully retracted

For a turbojet aeroplane the third segment of climb begins when:

- Acceleration to a flap retraction speed begins (min 400ft)

How is fuel consumption affected by the C of G position, in terms of ANM/kg?

- decreases with a forward C of G

Maximum Endurance:
- can be achieved in level unaccelerated flight with minimum fuel consumption

The best EAS/Drag ratio is approximately:

- 1.32 VMD

The maximum induced drag occurs at a speed of :

- VSO

Which of the following would give the greatest gliding endurance?

- Flight close to CL MAX

For takeoff performance calculations, what is taken into account?

- OAT, pressure altitude, wind , weight

By what percentage should V2 be greater than VMCA?

- 10 %

At a constant mass and altitude, a lower airspeed requires:

- a higher coefficient of lift

When does the first segment of the take-off climb begin?

- When 35 feet is reached

Thrust equal drag:

- in unaccelerated level flight
What is characteristic of longitudinal instability?
-pitch oscillations becoming progressively greater

What affects indicated stall speed?

-weight load factor and power

What is characteristic of an aircraft with a cg in the aft limit?

-lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed and least stability

An upward runway slope?

-increases takeoff distance required

What factors affect descent angle in a glide ?

-Configuration and angle of attack
At what speed with reference to L/D max does a maximum rate of climb for a jet airplane
occur?
-a speed greater than that for L/D max

What relationship of the rate of turn with the radius of turn with a constant angle of bank
but increasing airspeed?
-rate will decrease but radius will increase

If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds were subjected to a total load of 6000
pounds in flight, the load factor would be
-3G’S