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(4076) Jee Advanced 2020 Sample Test Paper 2 Resonance Nagpur
(4076) Jee Advanced 2020 Sample Test Paper 2 Resonance Nagpur
point A lies on the line y = 2x + 3, where 20. If the eccentricity of the hyperbola
are Integers, and the area of the triangle is S is times the
such that [S] = 2 where [.] denotes the greatest
integer function. Then the possible coordinates eccentricity of the ellipse .
of A can be
(A) (–7, –11) (B) (–6, –9) Then the smallest positive value of is .
P
(C) (2, 7) (D) (3, 9)
The value of P is?
13. Let N = 2 + 22 + 222 + …. upto 30000 terms.
(A) last four digits of N are 8580
(B) last three digits of N are 580 PART - II : PHYSICS
(C) last four digits of N are 7580
SECTION – 1
(D) last digit of N is 0
This section contains FIFTEEN questions
14. ABCD is a square of unit area. A circle is Each question has FOUR options (A), (B),
tangent to two sides of ABCD and passes (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of
through exactly one of its vertices. The radius these four option(s) is(are) correct
of the circle is less than or equal to
(A) 2 2 (B) 2 1 21. A train is moving with constant speed along a
1 1 circular track. If length of the train is one fourth
(C) (D) of length of circular track then which of the
2 2 following is/are correct options (Assume that
sound source is at engine) :
15. The equation
(A) Frequency observed by a passenger who
is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from
has front and rear end) will continuously increase.
(A) Four real roots if a > 2 (B) Frequency observed by a passenger who
(B) Four real roots if a < –1 is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from
(C) Two real roots if 1 < a < 2 front and rear end) will remain constant but
(D) No real root if a < –1 more than actual frequency.
(C) Frequency observed by a passenger who 24. Choose the correct option(s)
is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from (A) A tight string is fixed at both ends and
front and rear end) will remains constant and sustaining standing wave then at the middle,
equal to actual frequency. antinode is formed in odd harmonic
(D) Wavelength observed by the person who is (B) A tight string is fixed at one end and free at
on the rear end of train is more than the actual the other end then at the middle, neither node
wavelength of sound wave. nor antinode is formed.
(C) Standing wave is formed in an open organ
22. In a flexible balloon, 2 moles of SO2 having pipe and end correction is not negligible, then
phase difference between SHMs of any two
initial volume of 1kl at a temperature of 270C is
particles will be either or zero.
filled (SO2 is a non-linear triatomic gas). The
(D) Standing wave is formed in a closed organ
gas is first expanded to thrice its initial volume pipe and end correction is not negligible. then
isobarically and then expanded adiabatically so at the middle, neither node nor antinode is
as to attain its initial temperature. Assuming formed
25
gas is ideal and R = Jmol-1K-1.
3 25. An elastic ring of mass 'm' and force constant k
Choose the INCORRECT option(s). (stiffness) is released from rest in a smooth
cone of semi vertex angle from horizontal
(A) Change in internal energy of the gas in the position as shown in figure. Initially the ring
4
isobaric process is 2.5 × 10 J was in natural length : Choose the correct
(B) Change in internal energy of the gas in the option(s)
4
isobaric process is 3 × 10 J
(C) Work done by the gas in the whole process
is 35 kJ
(D) Work done by the gas in the whole process ring
is 40 kJ g
A
(A) Displacement of A is R 2 4
(B) Displacement of B is ( – 2) R
(C) Displacement of C is R 2 4
(D) Displacement of D is ( + 2) R
40. Figure shows a particle of mass m attached 43. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
with 4 identical springs each of spring constant incorrect ?
K and each of which are initially in their natural (A) Molar volume of every gas at STP is 22.4 L
length L. The gravitational force is neglected. If (B) Under critical conditions compressibility
the mass is slightly displaced by distance x factor is 1.
along a line perpendicular to the plane of the (C) For any gas Boyle's temperature (TB) is
figure and released then the force acting on greater than critical temperature(TC).
particle just when it is released is proportional (D) At absolute zero temperature kinetic
to xn, find n. energy of gas is R.
3
8
SECTION – 2
CH=O This section contains FIVE questions
The answer to each question is a SINGLE
50. Which of the following species will be DIGIT INTEGER ranging from 0 to 9, both
diamagnetic in nature, if Hund's rule is violated inclusive
while writing their molecular orbital
configuration? 56. Given is an equation of state for real gas,
(A) O2 (B) N22 where A and B are constants. P : Pressure
(C) He2 (D) B2 and V : Molar volume
A 2B
PV = RT –
51. Which of the following contain same number of V V2
linearly arranged carbon atoms in their 1
Find at critical point.
respective molecules ? Z
(A) CH2 = CH – C CH
(B) HC C – C CH 57. A magnesium ribbon, when burnt in air, left an
(C) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 ash containing MgO and Mg3N2. The ash was
(D) CH3 – C C – CH3 found to consume 0.6 mol of HCl according to
the reactions :
52. Which of the following statement(s) is/are MgO + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2O.
correct : Mg3N2 + 8HCl 3MgCl2 + 2NH4Cl.
(A) CH4 cannot be prepared by Wurtz reaction The solution so obtained is treated with excess
method. of NaOH, then 0.1 mol of NH3 is evolved
(B) Wolft-Kishner reduction is used to prepare (NaOH + NH4Cl NH3 + H2O + NaCl). The
alkanes from carboxylic acid mass (in g) of magnesium burnt is.
(C) Lindlar's catalyst is used to prepare alkene
from alkyne. 58. How many structural alcohol of formula C5H12O
(D) Oxymercuration–demercuration process can give instant turbidity with Lucas reagent
gives alcohols corresponding to Markovnikov (HCl + ZnCl2)
addition of water to carbon carbon double
bond.
59. How many functional groups are present in the
following compound:
H2N O O
H
NH OH
O O O O
H
O O
neo-pentane COOH
(I)
Maleic acid
(II)
OH
COOH
COOH
Succinic acid Carbolic acid
(III) (IV)
COOH O
O–C–CH3
Aspirin Styrene
(V) (VI)
CH=CH–COOH
OH
COOH
Salicylic acid
(IX)
SOLUTIONS & ANSWER KEY
PART : I MATHEMATICS 2p 1
1. A point is moving...................... p a p b p c 3
3
Sol. Equation of chord of contact from (-2, 0) is 3x +
4y -34 = 0 7. The number ......................
2 Sol. When z = n + 1, we can choose x, y from
Solving this with circle we get x = 6 , 2
5 {1,2,........,n} n ways
total no. of ways = n n 1 .......... 1
2 2
2. If the normal at......................
Sol. Equation of normal at P (2 sec , 2 tan )
2
Again since roots are imaginary, a < 16 2 x 2 x ( 2m 1) 0
i.e., –4 < a < 4. Therefore
7 5 1 1 8 ( 2m 1)
a , , . Hence choices (B) and (C) x
6 6 6 4
are correct. 1
x
4
11. The least positive ...................... Where 8 ( 2m 1) 1 is an odd integer.
Sol. We have sin ( x 2 x ) sin x 2
( x 2 x ) n ( 1)n x 2 , n Z 12. In a ABC , ......................
x 2 x n ( 1)n x 2 Sol. The point lies on y = 2x + 3
Now, two cases arise. = 2 + 3
Case 1 When n is an even integer say n = Area of triangle ABC
2 m, m Z In this case, Eq. (i) reduces to
=
x 2 x 2m x 2 x 2m, m Z
Case 2 When n is an odd integer say n = = -7, -6, 2, 3.
2m + 1, m Z In this case, Eq. (i) reduces
to x 2 x ( 2m 1) x 2
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13. Let N = 2 + ...................... x y x y
Sol. N 2 22 222 2222 2997 10,000 m x2 – y2 – 4x + 8y – 12
3 3
2
x y
2
= [9 + 99 + 999......]
9 =0
3
2
cofficient of x2 + coefficient of y2 = 0
2 3
= [10 + 10 + 10 .... – 30000]
9
122 + 12 – 12 = 0
Where m is a positive integer
2 + – 1 = 0
14. ABCD is a square......................
Sum of values of = –1
Sol.
2 = r (1 + 2) No. of ways =
2
=r If x = 5, the steps will be 1 1 1 1 1 2 no.
2 1 of ways = 6
2
2 1 = r If x = 7, the steps will be 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
no. of ways = 1
r = 2 2
20. If the eccentricity......................
15. The equation ......................
Sol. . Sol. and
f [v s v cos ]
fobs = =f
[v s v cos ]
17. Number of ...................... v s v cos
obs =
Sol. f
For any observer in train frequency
observed is equal to original frequency but
observed wavelength is more.
sinx = 0, where x = 0, , 2, 3
22. In a flexible ..............................
18. The tangent ...................... Sol. The V-T diagram for the process would be :
Sol. (x – y + 2)(x + y – 6) = 0
x2 – y2 – 4x + 8y – 12 = 0
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24. Choose the ..............................
Sol. (A) Number of loops (of length /2) will be
even or odd and node or antinode will
respectively be formed at the middle.
Phase of difference between two particle in
same loop will be zero and that between two
particles in adjacent loops will be .
(B) and (D) Number of loops will not be
integral. Hence neither a node nor an
antinode will be formed in the middle.
Phase of difference between two particle in
V1 V2 same loop will be zero and that between two
A) (for process AB )
particles in adjacent loops will be .
T1 T2
1 3 25. An elastic ..............................
T2 = 900 K Sol. (A) initial acceleration of any point on
300 T2
circumference of ring is g cos
6R (B*) initial acceleration of centre of ring is g
dU nC v dT 2 600 3 104 J sin cos
2
P V P2 V2
C) dW Wab Wbc Pdv 1 1
1
radius = a
nRdT h
= nRdT 40kJ (C)
1 radius = b
23. Consider one ..............................
Sol. After collision velocity of (particle + piston) =
b a
v tan =
h
2
h = (b – a) cot
1 v2 mv 2
So, K.E. = (2m) = 1 2
2 4 4 mg (b – a) cot = k(2b – 2a)
As, Q = 0, U = –W 2
mv 2 3R 1 2 2
So, = T T = mg (b – a) cot = 4 k(b – a)
4 2 2
mv 2 mg cot
b–a=
6R 22k
mv 2 mv 2 7 mv 2 (D) at the moment maximum vertical
So, Tmax = = displacement acceleration of centre of ring
R 6R 6 R
is upward.
mv 2 mv 2 5 mv 2
and Tmin = =
R 6R 6 R
26. A semi circular ..............................
Tmax 7 Sol. Displacement of centre of mass is zero. So
So, = .
Tmin 5 take centre of mass as origin then find
D) When particle strikes elastically, particle displacement of all points.
comes to rest instantaneously and piston
moves with velocity v. 27. An external ..............................
1 3
So, mv2 = RT Sol. Fdrag = 6RV = 6
20
× 0.1 × 5 = 10 N
2 2 6
2
mv
T =
3R
4 mv 2
So, Tmax =
3 R
mv 2
and Tmin =
R
Tmax 4
So, =
Tmin 3
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Fb + 8 = 10 32. A boat crosses ..............................
Fb = 2 Sol.
B
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37 A particle is .............................. 40. Figure shows ..............................
Sol. Sol.
Fnet = 4F cos
x
Apply conservation of energy = 4K L2 x 2 L .
L2 x 2
1 1
m (6gL) = mgL + mVB2
2 2
1 L
3 mgL = mgL + mVB2 = 4Kx 1
2 L x2
2
VB= 4gL
x2
1/ 2
mVB2 = 4Kx 1 1 2
TB = = 4 mg L
L
1 1 x2 2K
m (6 gL) = 2 mgL + mVC2 = 4Kx 2 = 2 x 3
2 2 L
2L
1
mgL = mVC2
2 PART : III CHEMISTRY
VC = 2gL
41. Which of the following ..........
mVC2 + –
TC + mg = Sol. HA H + A
L C O O
TC = 2 mg – mg = mg C(1-) C C
TB 4mg [H ] [A ] c2
=4 Ka =
=
TC mg [HA ] 1
+ [HA]
[H ] = Ka
38. A thin rod .............................. [A ]
Sol. Lets take an element of dx width at a
distance x from the lowest end. [A ]
pH = pka + log
x 1 [HA]
dU = (dm) g x x 2 dx 40J c
x 0 pH = pka + log
c (1 )
pH = pka + log
1
dx
1
log = pka – pH
x 1
10pka pH
1
1 10pka pH
39. A uniform ..............................
c.
1 ka =
Sol. (K.E.) of plate w.r.to A = I 2 1
2 A
4 [H ]
A = kg m2 ka =
3 1
1 4 8
(K.E.)A = × × 4 = J. 43. Which of the following ..........
2 3 3
Sol. (A) Molar volume of ideal gas at STP is 22.4 L
3
(B) Under critical conditions Z = .
8
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44. Which of the following .......... 51. Which of the following..........
Sol. Formation of CO from constituent elements Sol.Structure Linearly arranged carbon atoms
involves combustion. H H
(A) C=C 3
H C–CC–H
45. Salt AB undergoes anionic .......... (B) H–CC–CC–H 4
– –
Sol. B + H2O HB + OH H
H
c(1–h) ch ch (C) C=C H 2
c = 0.1 M H C=C
–5 H H
ch = 10
–4 H
h = 10 H
2 –9
Kh = ch = 10 C
Ka(HB) = 10
–5 (D) H CC–C–H 4
– –9 H
Kb of B = 10 H
1
pH = (5 – (–1)) = 3
2 52. Which of the following ..........
dry ether
Sol. (A) 2 R X 2Na R R 2 NaX
48. The wave functions ..........
Sol. (A) Total nodal surfaces in 3s = 2 (B)
CH3 – C – CH3 NH2NH2 / KOH CH3 – CH2 – CH3
Total nodal surfaces in 3p = 2
Alkane
(B) Angular node in 3p, cos = 0 O
= /2 Carbonyl compound
zr (C) R R
(C) Let =x R–CC–R
Lindlar's
C=C
a0 Catalyst H H
4 2 cis
Radial nodes in 3s, (6 – 4x + x )=0
9
53. Select the incorrect ..........
2 2 2 O
(3 – 2x + x ) = 0 27 – 18x + 2x = 0
9
Sol. H–O–O–S–OH
18 324 – 216 18 108
x= = O
22 4 O
93 3 9–3 3 2
–
P
x= ,x= OH
2 2 O O
O—B—O
2 Borax 2Na +
HO—B B—OH O=P
O
P=O
Radial nodes in 3p. 4 – x = 0 O
O
3 O—B—O O O
x=6 OH P
Hence their radial nodes are not same. O
(D) It is a fact. H2S2O5 (Pyrosulphurous acid)
O O
49. In the following options .......... H–O–S–S–OH
Sol. As bond order between carbon and nitrogen O
increases, bond length decreases.
54. Which of the following ..........
50. Which of the following .......... P
Sol. (A) O2 :- 2
1s *2
1s 2s2 *2s2 22pz Sol. S S
S
2p2x 22py * 2p2x * 2p y (diamagnetic)
P P
(B) N22 :- 1s
2 *
1s 2 22s *2s2 2p2x 22py P
22pz * 2p2x * 2p y (paramagnetic) 55. Ca2B6O11 + Na2CO3 ..........
Sol. Compound [X] is Na2B4O7.
(C) He2 :- 1s
2 *
1s1 (paramagnetic) (A) In anion of borax two boron is sp
3
2
hybridised and two boron are sp
2 *
(D) B2 :- 1s 1s 2 22s *2p2 2px 2 2p y hybridised.
(B) Aqueous solutions of [X] is alkaline.
(C) In the structure of [X] anion B–O–B
bonds.
(D) [X] on heating with chromium salts in
oxidizing flame gives green coloured bead.
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56. Given is an equation of .......... 57. A magnesium ribbon..........
A 2B Sol. Mg + air MgO + Mg3N2
Sol. PV = RT –
V V2 0.25 mol 0.1 0.05
RT A 2B MgO + 2HCl MgCl2 + H2O.
P= 2 3 0.1 0.2mol
V V V
dP
At critical point 0 Mg3N2 + 8HCl 3MgCl2 + 2NH4Cl.
dV 0.05 mol 0.4 mol 0.1 mol
dP RT 2A 6B
2 3 4 NaOH
dV V V V
1 2A 6B NH3
0= 2
RT 2
V V V 0.1 mol
2
RTV –2AV + 6B = 0 58. How many structural ..........
2
D = 4A – 4 × RT × 6B = 0 Sol. 2-methylbutan-2-ol.
A2 6B A3
TC = VC = PC = ; 59. How many functional ..........
6RB A 108B2 Sol. Functional group present are : aldehyde,
P V 1 alcohol, primary amine, ketone, secondary
Z= C C =3
RTC Z amide, carboxylic acid and anhydride.
ANSWER KEY
PART : I MATHEMATICS
8. (AD) 9. (AC) 10. (BC) 11. (CD) 12. (ABCD) 13. (BD) 14. (AD)
15. (ABC) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (7) 20. (4)
PART : II PHYSICS
21. (CD) 22. (AC) 23. (AD) 24. (ABCD) 25. (BC) 26. (ABD) 27. (ABCD)
28. (BC) 29. (ABCD) 30. (AB) 31. (ABCD) 32. (BC) 33. (BCD) 34. (AC)
35. (ABCD) 36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (8) 39. (8) 40. (3)
41. (AB) 42. (ABCD) 43. (ABD) 44. (ABC) 45. (ABCD) 46. (ACD) 47. (AB)
48. (ABD) 49. (ABCD) 50. (ABD) 51. (BD) 52. (ACD) 53. (B) 54. (ABCD)
55. (BCD) 56. (3) 57. (6) 58. (1) 59. (7) 60. (7)
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