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1 CHAPTER 15

1 Which of the following statements about wired and wireless LANs is correct?
A) Both operate in the lower two layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite.
B) Wired LANs operate in the lower two layers and wireless LANs operate in the lower
three layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite.
C) Wired LANs operate in the lower three layers and wireless LANs operate in the lower
two layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite.
D) Both operate in the lower three layers of the TCP/IP protocol suite.

2 IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the
physical and data-link layers.
A) IEEE 802.3
B) IEEE 802.5
C) IEEE 802.11
D) IEEE 802.2

3 The CSMA/CD algorithm does not work in wireless LAN because


A) wireless host does not have enough power to work in a duplex mode.
B) of the hidden station problem.
C) signal fading could prevent a station at one end from hearing a collision at the other
end.
D) all of the choices are correct.

4 In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional
central base station, known as the access point (AP).
A) ESS
B) BSS
C) CSS
D) None of the choices are correct

5 In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called _________.


A) an ad hoc architecture
B) an infrastructure network
C) either an ad hoc architecture or an infrastructure network
D) None of the choices are correct

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2 CHAPTER 15

6 In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________.


A) an ad hoc architecture
B) an infrastructure network
C) either an ad hoc architecture or an infrastructure network
D) None of the choices are correct

7 In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually
occurs via two ________.
A) BSSs
B) ESSs
C) APs
D) None of the choices are correct

8 In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or
moving only inside a BSS.
A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
D) None of the choices are correct

9 In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but
the movement is confined inside one ESS.
A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
D) None of the choices are correct

10 In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another.
A) no-transition
B) BSS-transition
C) ESS-transition
D) None of the choices are correct

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3 CHAPTER 15

11 In IEEE 802.11, distributed coordination function (DCF) uses _______ as the access
method.
A) CSMA/CA
B) CSMA/CD
C) ALOHA
D) None of the choices are correct
12 In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another station in
the same BSS, the address flag is _____.
A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11

13 In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address
flag is _______.
A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11

14 In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is _____.
A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11

15 In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless


distribution system, the address flag is _____.
A) 00
B) 01
C) 10
D) 11

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4 CHAPTER 15

16 In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______.
A) contention
B) controlled
C) polling
D) None of the choices are correct

17 In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a time period used for collision avoidance.
A) NAV
B) BSS
C) ESS
D) None of the choices are correct

18 In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses.


A) four
B) five
C) six

D) None of the choices are correct

19 The original IEEE 802.11 uses _________.


A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
D) either FHSS or DSSS

20 The IEEE 802.11a uses _________.


A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
D) either FHSS or DSSS

21 The IEEE 802.11b uses _________.


A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
D) either FHSS or DSSS

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5 CHAPTER 15

22 The IEEE 802.11g uses _________.


A) FHSS
B) DSSS
C) OFDM
D) either FHSS or DSSS

23 The IEEE 802.11 FHSS uses ______ modulation.


A) ASK
B) FSK
C) PSK
D) None of the choices are correct

24 The IEEE 802.11 or IEEE 802.11b DSSS uses ______ modulation.


A) ASK
B) FSK
C) PSK
D) None of the choices are correct

25 The IEEE 802.11a, IEEE 802.11g, or IEEE 802.11n OFDM uses ______ modulation.
A) ASK
B) FSK
C) PSK
D) None of the choices are correct

26 Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small


area.
A) wired LAN
B) wireless LAN
C) VLAN
D) None of the choices are correct

27 In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________.


A) scatternet; piconets
B) piconets: scatternet
C) piconets: bluenet
D) bluenet; scatternet

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6 CHAPTER 15

28 A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary


devices.
A) one; five
B) five; three
C) two; six
D) one; seven

29 In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps.


A) 2
B) 5
C) 11
D) None of the choices are correct

30 The access method in Bluetooth is ________.


A) FDMA
B) TDD-TDMA
C) CDMA
D) None of the choices are correct

31 In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding
latency.
A) SCO

B) ACL
C) ACO
D) SCL

32 Bluetooth uses ______ in the physical layer to avoid interference from other devices or
other networks.
A) DSSS
B) FHSS
C) FDMA
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT210 CHAPTER 17

1 A VLAN is a local area network configured by_____________.


A) software
B) physical wiring
C) software or physical wiring
D) None of the choices are correct

2 A repeater is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer(s).


A) physical
B) physical and data-link
C) data-link and network
D) physical, data-link, and network

3 A link-layer switch is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer(s).


A) physical
B) physical and data-link
C) data-link and network
D) physical, data-link, and network

4 A router is a connecting device that operates in the _______ layer(s).


A) physical
B) physical and data-link
C) data-link and network
D) physical, data-link, and network

5 A _________ has no filtering capability.


A) repeater
B) link-layer switch
C) router
D) None of the choices are correct

6 A three-layer switch is a __________.


A) repeater
B) link-layer switch
C) router
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT210 CHAPTER 17

7 A router filters packets based on the __________ destination addresses.


A) data-link
B) network-layer
C) transport-layer
D) None of the choices are correct

8 A link-layer switch filters packets based on the __________ destination addresses.


A) data-link
B) network-layer
C) transport-layer
D) None of the choices are correct

9 Looping problems in a set of swtiches can be eliminated using ___________ algorithm.


A) routing
B) spanning-tree
C) forwarding
D) None of the choices are correct

10 Membership in a VLAN can be based on ________.


A) interface numbers
B) MAC addresses
C) IP addresses
D) All of the choices are correct

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IT 210 CHAPTER 18

1 Packetizing at the network layer involves ___________________________.


A) encapsulating the payload at the source
B) adds a header that contains the source and destination information
C) decapsulating the payload at the destination
D) All of the choices are correct

2 Routers in the path are not allowed to ___________________________.


A) fragment the packet they receive
B) decapsulate the packet
C) change source or destination address
D) All of the choices are correct

3 The network layer in the Internet provides _________________.


A) comprehensive error and flow control
B) limited error control, but no flow control
C) comprehensive error control but limited flow control
D) All of the choices are correct

4 In a virtual-circuit approach, the forwarding decision is based on the value of the


_____________ field in the packet header.
A) source address
B) destination address
C) label
D) None of the choices are correct

5 In a datagram approach, the forwarding decision is based on the value of the


_____________ field in the packet header.
A) source address
B) destination address
C) label
D) None of the choices are correct

CREATED BY: SAHAR SALEM 1


IT 210 CHAPTER 18

6 The performance of a network can be measured in terms of ________.


A) delay
B) throughput
C) packet loss
D) All of the choices are correct

7 Transmission delay (time) is the ratio of______________________.


A) transmission rate to packet length
B) transmission rate to distance
C) packet length to transmission rate
D) processing time to transmission rate

8 Propagation delay (time) is the ratio of______________________.


A) transmission rate to propagation speed
B) propagation speed to distance
C) packet length to propagation speed
D) distance to propagation speed

9 When the load in the network reaches the network capacity, the packet delay
___________ and the network throughput
reaches ______________.
A) increases sharply; its minimum
B) increases sharply; its maximum
C) decreases sharply; its minimum
D) decreases sharply; its maximum

10 In open-loop congestion control, policies are applied ____________________.


A) to prevent congestion before it happens
B) to alleviate congestion after it happens
C) to either prevent congestion before it happens or alleviate congestion after it happens
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT 210 CHAPTER 18

11 The __________________ technique is one of the open-loop congestion policies.


A) backpressure
B) choke packet
C) implicit signaling
D) None of the choices are correct

12 The__________________ technique is one of the close-loop congestion policies.


A) acknowledgment policy
B) choke packet
C) discarding policy
D) None of the choices are correct

13 An IPv4 address is normally represented in base ____ in dotted-decimal notation.


A) 16
B) 256
C) 10
D) None of the choices are correct

14 In classful addressing, the IPv4 address space is divided into _______ classes.
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) None of the choices are correct

15 The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.


A) can be any number
B) must be a multiple of 256
C) must be a power of 2
D) None of the choices are correct

16 The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.


A) must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses in the organization
B) must be divisible by 128
C) must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT 210 CHAPTER 18

17 In subnetting, the number of addresses in each subnet must _______.


A) be a power of 2
B) be a multiple of 128
C) be divisible by 128
D) None of the choices are correct

18 What is the default prefix length for class A in CIDR notation?


A) 9
B) 8
C) 16
D) None of the choices are correct

19 What is the default prefix length for class B in CIDR notation?


A) 9
B) 8
C) 16
D) None of the choices are correct

20 What is the default prefix length for class C in CIDR notation?


A) 24
B) 8
C) 16
D) None of the choices are correct

21 DHCP is a (an) ___________ layer protocol.


A) application
B) transport
C) network
D) data-link

22 In DHCP, the client uses ________ port and the server uses _________port.
A) an ephemeral; a well-known
B) a well-known; a well-known
C) a well-known; an ephemeral
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT 210 CHAPTER 18

23 DHCP uses the services of _______.


A) UDP
B) TCP
C) IP
D) None of the choices are correct

24 _________ allows a site to use a set of private addresses for internal communication
and a set of global Internet addresses for
communication with the rest of the world.
A) DHCP
B) NAT
C) IMCP
D) None of the choices are correct

25 The idea of address aggregation was designed to alleviate the increase in routing table
entries when using ________
addressing.
A) classful
B) classless
C) classful or classless
D) None of the choices are correct

26 The use of hierarchy in routing tables can ________ the size of the routing tables.
A) reduce
B) increase
C) neither reduce nor increase
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT 210 CHAPTER 19

1 IP is a _________ protocol.
A) connection-oriented unreliable
B) connection-oriented reliable
C) connectionless unreliable
D) connectionless reliable

2 An HLEN value of decimal 10 means _______.


A) there are 10 bytes of options
B) there are 10 bytes in the header
C) there are 40 bytes of options
D) there are 40 bytes in the header

3 If the fragment offset has a value of 100, it means that _______.


A) the datagram has not been fragmented
B) the datagram is 100 bytes in size
C) the first byte of the datagram is byte 800
D) None of the choices are correct

4 What is needed to determine the number of the last byte of a fragment?


A) offset number
B) total length
C) both offset number and the total length
D) None of the choices are correct

5 The IP header size is _______ bytes long.


A) 20 to 60
B) 20
C) 60
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT 210 CHAPTER 19

6 Packets in the IP layer are called _________.


A) segments
B) datagrams
C) frames
D) None of the choices are correct

7 The total length field defines the total length of the datagram _________.
A) including the header
B) excluding the header
C) excluding the option length
D) None of the choices are correct

8 When a datagram is encapsulated in a frame, the total size of the datagram


must be less than the _______.
A) MUT
B) MAT
C) MTU
D) None of the choices are correct

9 ICMP is a (an) _________ layer protocol.


A) application-layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer
B) transport-layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer
C) network-layer protocol
D) data-link layer protocol that helps TCP/IP at the network layer

10 Which of the following is true about ICMP messages?


A) An ICMP error message may be generated for an ICMP error message
B) An ICMP error message may be generated for a fragmented datagram
C) An ICMP error message may be generated for a multicast datagram
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT 210 CHAPTER 19

11 When a host moves to a new network, its original address is referred to as


__________.
A) home
B) care-of
C) foreign
D) None of the choices are correct

12 Which of the following addresses are permanent in mobile IP?


A) home
B) care-of
C) foreign
D) None of the choices are correct

13 To communicate with a remote host, a computer needs to go through


__________ phase(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) None of the choices are correct

14 In mobile IP communication, the first phase is called __________.


A) agent discovery
B) registration
C) data transfer
D) None of the choices are correct

15 In mobile IP communication, the second phase is called __________.


A) agent discovery
B) registration
C) data transfer
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT 210 CHAPTER 19

16 In mobile IP communication, the third phase is called __________.


A) agent discovery
B) registration
C) data transfer
D) None of the choices are correct

17 In mobile IP communication, inefficiency in triangle routing is ________ the one


in double crossing.
A) more severe than
B) less severe than
C) in the same level as
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT210 CHAPTER 20

1 Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as ________ routing.


A) interdomain
B) intradomain
C) out-of-domain
D) None of the choices are correct

2 Routing between autonomous systems is referred to as ______ routing.


A) interdomain routing
B) intradomain routing
C) out-of-domain
D) None of the choices are correct

3 In _______ routing, the least cost route between any two nodes is the route with the
minimum distance.
A) path vector
B) distance vector
C) link state
D) None of the choices are correct

4 In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every


node.
A) path vector
B) distance vector
C) link state
D) None of the choices are correct

5 In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with
_________ and whenever there is a change.
A) every other node
B) its immediate neighbors
C) one neighbor
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT210 CHAPTER 20

6 The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________


routing.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
D) None of the choices are correct

7 The metric used by _______ is the hop count.


A) OSPF
B) RIP
C) BGP
D) None of the choices are correct

8 In RIP, the ________ timer controls the advertising of regular update messages.
A) garbage collection
B) expiration
C) periodic
D) None of the choices are correct

9 In RIP, the ________ timer is used to purge invalid routes from the table.
A) garbage collection
B) expiration
C) periodic
D) None of the choices are correct

10 In RIP, the ________ timer controls the validity of the route.


A) garbage collection
B) expiration
C) periodic
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT210 CHAPTER 20

11 RIP uses the services of _______.


A) TCP
B) UDP
C) IP
D) None of the choices are correct

12 The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table.
A) distance vector

B) link state
C) path vector
D) None of the choices are correct

13 The Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) protocol is an intradomain routing protocol
based on _______ routing.
A) distance vector
B) link state
C) path vector
D) None of the choices are correct

14 The _______ protocol allows the administrator to assign a cost, called the metric, to
each route.
A) OSPF
B) RIP
C) BGP
D) None of the choices are correct

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IT210 CHAPTER 20

15 In OSPF, a ________ link connects two routers without any other host or router in
between.
A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
D) None of the choices are correct

16 In OSPF, a _______ link is a network with several routers attached to it.


A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
D) None of the choices are correct

17 In OSPF, a ________ link is a network connected to only one router.


A) point-to-point
B) transient
C) stub
D) None of the choices are correct

18 In OSPF, a ________ defines the links of a network.


A) network link
B) router link
C) summary link to network

D) None of the choices are correct

19 ___________ is an interdomain routing protocol using path vector routing.


A) BGP
B) RIP
C) OSPF
D) None of the choices are correct

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CHAPTER 23 1

1 One of the main duties of the transport layer is to provide ____________ communication.
A) node-to-node
B) host-to-host
C) process-to-process
D) None of the choices are correct

2 A client program normally uses ____________ port number. A server program normally
uses __________ port number.
A) a well-known; an ephemeral
B) an ephemeral; a well-known
C) a private; a well-known
D) None of the choices are correct

3 A socket address is a combination of __________.


A) a MAC address and a logical address
B) a MAC address and a port number
C) a user-specific address and a logical address
D) None of the choices are correct

4 ______________ means accepting items from more than one source. ______________
means delivering items to more than one source.
A) Demultiplexing; Multiplexing
B) Multiplexing; Demultiplexing
C) Encapsulation; Decapsulation
D) Pulling; Pushing

5 ________ means the producer delivers the items when they are produced. _______
means the consumer takes the items when it is ready to do so.
A) Pushing; Pulling
B) Pulling; Pushing
C) Forwarding; Accepting
D) None of the choices are correct

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CHAPTER 23 2

6 In the stop-and-wait protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the
maximum receive window size is _______, where m is the number of bits in
the sequence.
A) 1; 1
B) 2m; 1
C) 1; 2m
D) 2m ; 2m

7 In the Go-Back-N protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the maximum
receive window size is _______, where m is related to the number of
bits in the sequence number.
A) 1; 1
B) 1; 2m
C) 2m − 1; 1
D) 2m − 1; 2m – 1

8 In the selective-repeat protocol, the maximum send window size is ______ and the
maximum receive window size is _______, where m is the number of bits
in the sequence.
A) 1; 1
B) 1; 2m − 1
C) 2m − 1; 1
D) 2m − 1; 2m – 1

9 UDP is a ________________transport protocol.


A) connectionless, reliable
B) connection-oriented, unreliable
C) connectionless, unreliable
D) None of the choices are correct

10 UDP is an acronym for _______.


A) User Delivery Protocol
B) User Datagram Procedure
C) User Datagram Protocol
D) None of the choices are correct

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CHAPTER 23 3

11 At the transport layer, to define the processes, we need two identifiers called
____________.
A) logical addresses
B) physical addresses
C) port addresses
D) None of the choices are correct

12 The ports ranging from 0 to 1,023 are called the ___________ ports. The ports ranging
from 1,024 to 49,151 are called ___________ ports. The ports
ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 are called the ___________ ports.
A) well-known; registered; dynamic or private

B) registered; dynamic or private; well-known


C) private or dynamic; well-known; registered
D) private or dynamic; registered; well-known

13 UDP and TCP are two protocols at the ___________ layer.


A) data-link
B) network
C) transport
D) application

14 A port number is _______ bits long.


A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64

15 Communication at the transport layer is _________.


A) node-to-node
B) end-to-end
C) node-to-host
D) host-to-node

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CHAPTER 23 4

16 In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 6,


the value of Sf is _______________.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 5
D) None of the choices are correct

17 In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 6,


the value of Sn is _______________.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 5
D) None of the choices are correct

18 In Go-Back-N, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo = 5,


the window ________.
A) slides two slots
B) slides one slot

C) slides three slots


D) does not slide

19 In Selective Repeat, the values of Sf = 3 and Sn = 7, after receiving a packet with ackNo
= 5, the window ________.
A) slides two slots
B) slides one slot
C) slides three slots
D) does not slide

20 In Selective Repeat, when a timeout occurs, the timer is ________.


A) stopped
B) started
C) reset (stopped and started)
D) None of the choices are correct

CREATED BY SAHAR SALEM


1 CHAPTER 24

1 UDP and TCP are two protocols at the ___________ layer.


A) data-link
B) network
C) transport
D) application

2 A port number is _______ bits long.


A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64

3 Which of the following does UDP provide?


A) Flow control
B) Connection-oriented delivery
C) Error control
D) None of the choices are correct

4 The source port number on the UDP user datagram header defines _______.
A) the sending computer
B) the receiving computer
C) the process running on the sending computer
D) None of the choices are correct

5 To use the services of UDP, we need ________ socket addresses.


A) four
B) two
C) three
D) None of the choices are correct

6 UDP packets are called __________.


A) user datagrams
B) segments
C) frames
D) None of the choices are correct

CREATED BY SAHAR SALEM Page 1


2 CHAPTER 24

7 UDP packets have a fixed-size header of _______ bytes.


A) 16
B) 8
C) 40
D) 32

8 TCP is a __________protocol.
A) byte-oriented
B) message-oriented
C) block-oriented
D) None of the choices are correct

9 TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called a ___________.


A) user datagram
B) segment
C) datagram
D) None of the choices are correct

10 TCP is a(n) ___________ protocol.


A) connection-oriented
B) connectionless
C) both connection-oriented and connectionless
D) None of the choices are correct

11 TCP is a(n) _______ transport protocol.


A) unreliable
B) best-effort delivery
C) reliable
D) None of the choices are correct

12 TCP uses _________________ to check the safe and sound arrival of data.
A) an acknowledgment mechanism

B) out-of-band signaling
C) the services of another protocol
D) None of the choices are correct

CREATED BY SAHAR SALEM Page 2


3 CHAPTER 24

13 The bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. The
numbering starts with a __________________.
A) 0
B) 1
C) randomly generated number
D) None of the choices are correct

14 In TCP, the sequence number for each segment is the number of the _______ byte
(virtual byte) carried in that segment.
A) first
B) last
C) middle
D) None of the choices are correct

15 Communication in TCP is ___________.


A) simplex
B) half-duplex
C) full-duplex
D) None of the choices are correct

16 In TCP, the value of the acknowledgment field in a sent segment defines the sequence
number related to the ______byte a party expects to receive next.
A) first
B) last
C) next
D) None of the choices are correct

17 The inclusion of the checksum in the TCP segment is ________.


A) optional
B) mandatory
C) depends on the type of data
D) None of the choices are correct

CREATED BY SAHAR SALEM Page 3


4 CHAPTER 24

18 In TCP, a SYN segment consumes _____ sequence number(s).


A) no
B) one
C) two

D) None of the choices are correct

19 In TCP, a SYN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence numbers.


A) no
B) three
C) two
D) one

20 In TCP, an ACK segment, if carrying no data, consumes ______ sequence number(s).


A) no
B) one
C) two
D) None of the choices are correct

21 The connection establishment procedure in TCP is susceptible to a serious security


problem called the _________ attack.
A) ACK flooding
B) FIN flooding
C) SYN flooding
D) None of the choices are correct

22 The SYN flooding attack belongs to a group of security attacks known as a _____
attack.
A) denial of service
B) replay
C) man-in-the middle
D) None of the choices are correct

CREATED BY SAHAR SALEM Page 4


5 CHAPTER 24

23 In TCP, a FIN segment consumes ____ sequence numbers if it does not carry data.
A) two
B) three
C) no
D) one

24 In TCP, a FIN + ACK segment consumes _____ sequence number(s) if it does not carry
data.
A) two
B) three
C) one
D) no

25 In TCP, one end can stop sending data while still receiving data. This is called a ______
termination.
A) half-close
B) half-open
C) full-close
D) None of the choices are correct

26 TCP sliding windows are __________ oriented.


A) packet
B) segment
C) byte
D) None of the choices are correct

27 In TCP, the size of the send window is the ________ of rwnd and cwnd.
A) maximum
B) sum of
C) minimum
D) None of the choices are correct

28 In TCP, the window should not be _________.


A) opened
B) closed
C) shrunk
D) slide

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6 CHAPTER 24

29 In TCP, the receiver can temporarily shut down the window; the sender, however, can
always send a segment of _____ byte(s) after the window is shut
down.
A) ten
B) zero
C) one
D) None of the choices are correct

30 A serious problem can arise in the sliding window operation when either the sending
application program creates data slowly or the receiving application
program consumes data slowly, or both. This problem is called the ______.
A) silly window syndrome
B) unexpected syndrome
C) window bug
D) None of the choices are correct

31 Nagle's algorithm can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________.

A) sender
B) receiver
C) both sender and receiver
D) None of the choices are correct

32 Clark's solution can solve the silly window syndrome created by the _________.
A) sender
B) receiver
C) both sender and receiver
D) None of the choices are correct

33 Delayed acknowledgment can solve the silly window syndrome created by the
_________.
A) sender
B) receiver
C) both sender and receiver
D) None of the choices are correct

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7 CHAPTER 24

34 In TCP, an ACK segments that carry no data consumes _______ sequence number(s).
A) no
B) one
C) two
D) None of the choices are correct

35 In modern implementations of TCP, a retransmission occurs if the retransmission timer


expires or ________ duplicate ACK segments have arrived.
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) None of the choices are correct

36 In TCP, ________ retransmission timer is set for an ACK segment.


A) one
B) a previous
C) no
D) None of the choices are correct

37 In TCP, there can be ______ RTT measurement(s) in progress at any time.


A) two
B) only one

C) several
D) None of the choices are correct

38 We need to multiply the header length field by _______ to find the total number of bytes
in the TCP header.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) None of the choices are correct

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8 CHAPTER 24

39 In TCP, urgent data requires the urgent pointer field as well as the URG bit (to be set) in
the _______ field.
A) control
B) offset
C) sequence number
D) None of the choices are correct

40 In TCP, if the ACK value is 200, then byte _______ has been received successfully.
A) 199
B) 200
C) 201
D) None of the choices are correct

41 __________ control refers to the mechanisms and techniques to keep the load below
the capacity.
A) Flow
B) Error
C) Congestion
D) None of the choices are correct

42 In TCP's ________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases exponentially
until it reaches a threshold.
A) congestion avoidance
B) congestion detection
C) slow start
D) None of the choices are correct

43 In TCP's __________ algorithm the size of the congestion window increases additively
until congestion is detected.
A) congestion avoidance
B) congestion detection
C) slow start
D) None of the choices are correct

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9 CHAPTER 24

44 ________ treats the two signs of congestion detections, timeout and three duplicate
ACKs, in the same way.
A) Taho TCP
B) Reno TCP
C) New Reno TCP
D) None of the choices are correct

45 In ______ TCP, when the connection is established, TCP starts the slow start algorithms
and sets the ssthresh variable to a pre-agreed value (normally 64 or
128 kilobytes) and the cwnd variable to 1 MSS.
A) Taho
B) Reno
C) new Reno
D) None of the choices are correct

46 The ___________ added a new state to the congestion control FSM, called the fast
recovery state.
A) Taho TCP
B) Reno TCP
C) new Reno TCP
D) None of the choices are correct

47 The ___________ treated the two signals of congestion, timeout and arrival of three
duplicate ACKs, differently.
A) Taho TCP
B) Reno TCP
C) new Reno TCP
D) None of the choices are correct

48 The __________ state in Reno TCP is a state somehow between the slow start and the
congestion avoidance states.
A) congestion avoidance
B) congestion detection
C) slow recovery
D) None of the choices are correct

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10 CHAPTER 24

49 In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if duplicate ACKs continue to
come, TCP ____________________________________.
A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively
B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially
C) moves to slow start state
D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflate the size of the cwnd to ssthresh
value

50 In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if a timeout occurs, TCP
____________________________________.

A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively


B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially
C) moves to slow start state
D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflate the size of the cwnd to ssthresh
value

51 In the Reno TCP, when TCP enters the fast recovery, if a new (non duplicate) ACK
arrives, TCP ____________________________________.
A) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows additively
B) stays in this state, but the cwnd grows exponentially
C) moves to slow start state
D) moves to the congestion avoidance state but deflates the size of the cwnd to ssthresh
value

52 A later version of TCP, called ______ TCP, made an extra optimization on the _______
TCP.
A) new Reno; Reno
B) new Taho; Taho
C) new Reno; Taho
D) new Taho; Reno

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11 CHAPTER 24

53 In the slow start algorithm, the size of the congestion window grows ______________
until ___________________.
A) exponentially; it reaches a threshold
B) exponentially; congestion is detected
C) additively; it reaches a threshold
D) additively; congestion is detected

54 In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the size of the congestion window grows
______________.
A) exponentially; it reaches a threshold
B) exponentially; congestion is detected
C) additively; it reaches a threshold
D) additively; congestion is detected

55 The congestion window size, after it passes the initial slow start state, follows a saw
tooth pattern called _________________________________.
A) exponential increase, additive decrease
B) additive increase, exponential decrease
C) multiplicative increase, additive decrease
D) additive increase, multiplicative decrease

56 Stream Control Transmission Protocol (SCTP) is a new _____________protocol.


A) reliable, character-oriented
B) reliable, message-oriented

C) unreliable, message-oriented
D) None of the choices are correct

57 SCTP allows __________ service in each association.


A) only single-stream
B) multistream
C) only double-stream
D) None of the choices are correct

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12 CHAPTER 24

58 In SCTP, a data chunk is numbered using ________.


A) a TSN
B) an SI
C) an SSN
D) None of the choices are correct

59 To distinguish between different streams, SCTP uses ___________.


A) a TSN
B) an SI
C) an SSN
D) None of the choices are correct

60 The control information in SCTP is carried in the ________.


A) header control field
B) control chunks
C) data chunks
D) None of the choices are correct

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CHAPTER 26

1 HTTP uses the services of _________.


A) UDP
B) IP
C) TCP
D) DNS

2 In HTTP, the first line in a request message is called a _______ line; the first line in the
response message is called the ________ line.
A) request; response
B) status; response
C) status; status
D) None of the choices are correct

3 In a ___________ connection, one TCP connection is made for each request/response.


A) persistent
B) nonpersistent
C) persistent or a nonpersistent
D) None of the choices are correct

4 In a ___________connection, the server leaves the connection open for more requests
after sending a response.
A) persistent
B) nonpersistent
C) persistent or nonpersistent
D) None of the choices are correct

5 In HTTP, _______ server is a computer that keeps copies of responses to recent


requests.
A) a regular
B) a proxy
C) an auxiliary
D) a remote

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CHAPTER 26

6 An HTTP request message always contains _______.


A) a header line and a body
B) a request line and a header line
C) a request line, a header line, and a body
D) a request line, a header line, a blank line, and a body

7 Which of the following is present in both an HTTP request line and a status line?
A) Version number
B) URL
C) Status code
D) Method

8 FTP uses the services of ________.


A) UDP
B) IP
C) TCP
D) None of the choices are correct

9 In FTP, _________ well-known port(s) is (are) used.


A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four

10 During an FTP session the control connection is opened _______.


A) once
B) twice
C) many times
D) None of the choices are correct

11 During an FTP session the data connection may be opened _______.


A) only once
B) only two times
C) as many times as needed
D) None of the choices are correct

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CHAPTER 26

12 In FTP, a file can be organized into records, pages, or a stream of bytes. These are
types of an attribute called _______.
A) file types

B) data structures
C) transmission modes
D) None of the choices are correct

13 In FTP, there are three types of _______: stream, block, and compressed.
A) file types
B) data types
C) transmission modes
D) None of the choices are correct

14 An FTP, ASCII, EBCDIC, and image define an attribute called _______.


A) file type
B) data structure
C) transmission mode
D) None of the choices are correct

15 In FTP, when we _______, it is copied from the client to the server.


A) retrieve a file
B) store a file
C) open a file
D) None of the choices are correct

16 In the common scenario, the electronic mail system needs _________________________.


A) two UAs, two MTAs, and one MAA
B) two UAs, two MTAs, and two MAAs
C) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and a pair of MAAs
D) two UAs, two pairs of MTAs, and two pairs of MAAs

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CHAPTER 26

17 ________ provides service to the user to make the process of sending or receiving a
message easier.
A) An MTA
B) An MAA
C) A UA
D) None of the choices are correct

18 An e-mail message contains the ________ and the __________.


A) header; envelop
B) header; body
C) envelop; body

D) None of the choices are correct

19 In the Internet, an e-mail address consists of two parts: a _______ and a _______.
A) local part; domain name
B) global part; domain name
C) label; domain name
D) local part; label

20 _________ is a supplementary protocol that allows non-ASCII data to be sent through e-


mail.
A) SMPT
B) MPEG
C) MIME
D) POP

21 The formal protocol that defines the MTA client and server in the Internet is called
___________.
A) SMTP
B) SNMP
C) TELNET
D) SSH

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CHAPTER 26

22 SMTP is a __________protocol.
A) pull
B) push
C) push and pull
D) None of the choices are correct

23 The message access protocol is a ________ protocol.


A) pull
B) push
C) push and pull
D) None of the choices are correct

24 In the _______ encoding scheme, each 24 bits become four 6-bit chunks, and
eventually are sent as 32 bits.
A) 8bit
B) binary
C) base64
D) quoted-printable

25 In the _______ encoding scheme, a non-ASCII character is sent as 3 characters.


A) 8bit
B) base64
C) quoted-printable
D) binary

26 TELNET is an abbreviation for ____________.


A) terminal network
B) telephone network
C) telecommunication network
D) None of the choices are correct

27 When a user logs into a local time-sharing system, it is called ________ login.
A) local
B) remote
C) local or remote
D) None of the choices are correct

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CHAPTER 26

28 When a user wants to access an application program or utility located on a remote


machine, he or she performs ___________ login.
A) local
B) remote
C) local or remote
D) None of the choices are correct

29 Network Virtual Terminal (NVT) uses two sets of characters, one for _____and one for
__________.
A) sending; receiving
B) request; reply
C) data; control
D) None of the choices are correct

30 For data, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______.
A) 1
B) 0
C) 1 or 0
D) None of the choices are correct

31 For control, NVT uses US ASCII characters with the highest order bit set to ______.

A) 1
B) 0
C) 1 or 0
D) None of the choices are correct

32 The _______ translates local characters into NVT characters.


A) terminal driver
B) TELNET client
C) TELNET server
D) pseudoterminal driver

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CHAPTER 26

33 The _______ translates NVT characters into a form acceptable by the remote operating
system.
A) terminal driver
B) TELNET client
C) TELNET server
D) pseudoterminal driver

34 The _________ component in the SSH provides confidentiality, integrity, authentication,


and compression.
A) SSH Application
B) SSH-AUTH
C) SSH-CONN
D) SSH-TRAN

35 Port forwarding is ____________________________.


A) a protocol used to forward messages from one port to another port
B) a procedure for changing an ephemeral port to a well-known port
C) a service, provided by SSH, that creates a secure channel for applications that do not
have security services
D) None of the choices are correct

36 In a (an) _______ name space, a name is a sequence of characters without structure.


A) linear
B) flat
C) hierarchical
D) organized

37 In a (an) _________name space, each name is made of several parts.


A) linear
B) flat

C) hierarchical
D) organized

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CHAPTER 26

38 In the DNS, the names are defined in ___________ structure.


A) a linear list
B) an inverted-tree
C) a three-dimensional
D) None of the choices are correct

39 The root of the DNS tree is _______.


A) a string of 127 characters
B) a string of 63 characters
C) a string of 15 characters
D) an empty string

40 In the domain name space, a full domain name is a sequence of labels separated by
________.
A) colons
B) semicolons
C) dots
D) commas

41 In the domain name space, if a label is terminated by a null string, it is called a


__________.
A) PQDN
B) CQDN
C) SQDN
D) None of the choices are correct

42 In the domain name space, if a label is not terminated by a null string, it is called a
__________.
A) FQDN
B) PQDN
C) SQDN
D) None of the choices are correct

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CHAPTER 26

43 In the domain name space, a _________ is a subtree of the domain name space.
A) label
B) name
C) domain
D) None of the choices are correct

44 In the domain name space, what a server is responsible for or has authority over is
called a _________.
A) domain
B) label
C) zone
D) None of the choices are correct

45 A _______ server is a computer whose zone system consists of the whole tree.
A) domain
B) zone
C) root
D) primary

46 A ________ server is a computer that stores a file about the zone for which it has an
authority.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) zone
D) root

47 A ________ server is a computer that transfers the complete information about a zone
from another server.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) zone
D) root

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CHAPTER 26

48 In the Internet, the country domain section uses ___________ country abbreviations.
A) two-character
B) three-character
C) four-character
D) None of the choices are correct

49 In __________ resolution, the resolver expects the server to supply the final answer.
A) iterative
B) recursive
C) straight
D) None of the choices are correct

50 In __________ resolution, the server returns the IP address of the server that it thinks can
resolve the query.

A) iterative
B) recursive
C) straight
D) None of the choices are correct

51 DNS can use the services of ________.


A) UDP
B) TCP
C) either UDP or TCP
D) None of the choices are correct

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