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Manipal College of Medical Sciences, Pokhara

II Sessional Examination Oct/ Nov 2017
II Semester Batch - 2016
Paper – I
[Basic Concepts, Genetics, Immune System and Immunology]

Time: 30 minutes
Date: 25 Oct 2017 (Wednesday) Full Marks: [30x1=30]

Instructions to candidates
All questions are compulsory. Each question carries one mark. Select single best answer and mark by √. No marks
will be awarded on marking more than one answer. Use blue or black ink. Do not use pencils.

Name ----------------------------- Roll

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Section 'A'
Multiple Choice Question's (MCQ)
Anatomy

1. Which of the following intercellular junction creates diffusion barrier?

a. Occluding junction
b. Zonula adherens
c. Desmosome
d. Nexus junction

2. “Os trigonium” represents which of the following epiphysis?

a. Pressure epiphysis
b. Traction epiphysis
c. Atavistic epiphysis
d. Compound epiphysis

3. Select the connective tissue cell among following which shows metachromasia:
a. Plasma cell
b. Mast cell
c. Adipose cell
d. Macrophage

4. Which of the following represents the schindylesis?

a. Lambdoid suture
b. Ligamentum flavum
c. Vomerosphenoid joint
d. Intervertebral disc

5. Corpus luteum of pregnancy remains functional for:

a. First 20 weeks
b. First 21 weeks
c. First 22 weeks
d. First 23 weeks

6. Thalidomide babies in 1957-62, in west Germany, have mainly which of the following defects:
a. Limb defects
b. Heart defects
c. Craniofacial defects
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d. Gastrointestinal defects
7. Billroth cords are the feature of which of the following lymphoid organ?
a. Lymph node
b. Spleen
c. Thymus
d. Tonsil

Biochemistry

8. The α-helix and β-sheet conformations of proteins correspond to which of the following?
a. Primary structure
b. Secondary structure
c. Tertiary structure
d. Quaternary structure

9. Enzymes are efficient catalysts because they can do which of the following?
a. Catalyze reactions that otherwise would not occur
b. Decrease the free energy of activation of reactants
c. Decrease the standard free-energy change (ΔG0′) of reactions
d. Prevent the conversion of product to substrate

10. A patient presents with pale skin, sunken eyes, sore gums, muscle pain, loose teeth, and corkscrew-shaped
hair. A deficiency in which of the following vitamins would result in the observed symptoms?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Biotin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Riboflavin

11. Which of the following groups of amino acids are nitrogen donors in purine ring biosynthesis?
a. Arginine, lysine, histidine
b. Asparagine, lysine, histidine
c. Glutamate, histidine, aspartate
d. Glutamine, glycine, aspartate

12. Which of the following is the major role of the 3′→5′ exonuclease activity of DNA polymerases?
a. Leaving Okazaki fragments
b. Elongating DNA strands
c. Excision of RNA primers
d. Removing mismatched nucleotides

13. Restriction endonucleases are powerful enzymes used in molecular biological experimentation. Which of
the following chemical bonds do these enzymes target?
a. Disulfide
b. Glycosidic
c. Peptide
d. Phosphodiester

Microbiology

14. Which combination is an example of type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

a. Atopic eczema and contact dermatitis
b. Tuberculosis and graft-versus-host disease
c. Leprosy and myasthenia gravis
d. Chronic granulomatous disease and chronic allograft rejection
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15. The host which harbours only the larval stage of the parasite is known as
a. Definitive host
b. Intermediate host
c. Paratenic host
d. Reservoir host

16. As per the WHO recommendations, human and animal body parts biomedical waste is to be collected in:
a. Yellow bag/container
b. Red bag/container
c. Blue bag/container
d. Black bag/container

17. Which of the following statement about artificial culture medium is correct?
a. Agar provides nutrition to bacteria.
b. Agar inhibits the growth of unwanted bacteria.
c. Agar helps to differentiate bacteria.
d. Agar acts as solidifying agent.

18. An important method of prevention of hospital acquired infections is:

a. For health care workers to wash their hands between patient contacts.
b. For all patients to be placed in a single room.
c. For all patients to receive a single dose of antibiotic at the time of admission.
d. An infection control program with one nurse for every 100 patients in the hospital.
Pathology

19. In dystrophic calcification:

a. Calcium salt is deposited in normal tissue.
b. Calcium metabolism is deranged.
c. Serum calcium level is normal.
d. May be seen in hyper parathyroidism.

20. Apoptosis is inhibited by:

a. P53
a. n-myc
b. ras
c. bcl 2

21. During the early stages of the inflammatory response, histamine induced increased vascular permeability is
most likely to occur in:
a. Arteries
a. Precapillary arterioles
b. Capillaries
c. Postcapillary venules

22. Release of lipopolysaccharide in the body leads to:

a. Cardiogenic shock
a. Hypovolemic shock
b. Septic shock
c. Neurogenic shock
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Pharmacology [5]

23. Which of the following drugs is most likely to be absorbed from the stomach?
a. Morphine sulfate
b. Diclofenac sodium
c. Hyoscine hydrobromide
d. Quinine hydrochloride

24. Zero order kinetics is followed by all of the following drugs EXCEPT:
a. Phenytoin
b. Barbiturates
c. Alcohol
d. Theophylline

25. The therapeutic index of a drug is a measure of its:

a. Safety
b. Potency
c. Efficacy
d. Dose variability

26. Following is an example of physiological antagonism:

a. Isoprenaline and Salbutamol
b. Isoprenaline and Adrenaline
c. Isoprnaline and Propanolol
d. Adrenaline and Histamine

27. Select the receptor that is located intracellularly:

a. Opioid M receptor
b. Steroid receptor
c. Prostaglandin receptor
d. Angiotensin receptor

Physiolgoy [3]

28. RBC membrane is maintained by:

a. Spectrin
b. Laminin
c. Collagen
d. Elastin

29. Resting membrane potential is mainly due to:

a. Na+
b. K+
c. Cl-
d. Ca++

30. Presentation of antigen on MHC-I by a cell will result in:

a. Generation of antibodies
b. Activation of cytotoxic T cells
c. Increase in phagocytosis
d. Release of histamine by mast cells
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