Question Bank Physics (PG 1 To 236)

Subject : Physics
(Divisions of Aakash Educational Services Limited)

PHYSICS
CHAPTER No. TOPIC PAGE No.
1. Units and Measurement .............................................................................. 1 - 3

2. Motion in a Straight Line ............................................................................. 4 - 8
3. Motion in a Plane ...................................................................................... 9 - 15
4. Laws of Motion ........................................................................................ 16 - 24
5. Work, Energy and Power ........................................................................ 25 - 36
6. System of Particles and Rotational Motion ............................................. 37 - 51
7. Gravitation... .................................................................................... ..... 52 - 59
8. Mechanical Properties of Solids .............................................................. 60 - 64
9. Mechanical Properties of Fluids .............................................................. 65 - 74
10. Thermal Properties of Matter ................................................................... 75 - 82
11. Thermodynamics .................................................................................... 83 - 90
12. Kinetic Theory ......................................................................................... 91 - 93
13. Oscillation .............................................................................................. 94- 105
14. Waves ................................................................................................. 106 - 114
15. Electric Charges and Fields ................................................................ 115 - 123
16. Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance ............................................. 124 - 136
17. Current Electricity ............................................................................... 137 - 147
18. Moving Charges and Magnetism ......................................................... 148 - 158
19. Magnetism and Matter ........................................................................ 159 - 163
20. Electromagnetic Induction ................................................................... 164 - 172
21. Alternating Current .............................................................................. 173 - 179
22. Electromagnetic Waves ...................................................................... 180 - 182
23. Ray Optics and Optical Instruments ................................................... 183 - 194
24. Wave Optics ....................................................................................... 195 - 200
25. Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter ................................................... 201 - 205
26. Atoms and Nuclei ....... ....................................................................... 206 - 213
27. Semiconductor .................................................................................... 214 - 220
Answer Keys ............................................................................................ .... 221 - 230
Chapter 01
Units and Measurement
1. The kinetic energy of a particle varies according to 7. Velocity v of a particle depends upon the time t
Av 2 c
relation K  . Here x is the distance and v according to the equation v  a  bt  . The
d t
B  x  2
dimension of bc will be
is the velocity. The dimensional formula of AB is
(1) [LT–1] (2) [LT–2]
(1) [ML3T0] (2) [ML4T0]
(3) [L2T–2] (4) [L3T–1]
(3) [ML4T1] (4) [M2L3T0]
8. The focal length of spherical mirror, if the object
x2
dx distance u   50.1  0.5  cm and image distance
2. If A   B – x ; where x represents position and A
x1 v   20.1  0.2  cm, will be
and B are unknown quantities, then dimensions of
A
(1) 12.2  0.2 cm (2) 14.3  0.1 cm
 B  are
  (3) 10.2  0.1 cm (4) 15.1  0.3  cm
(1) [M0LT0] (2) [M0L0T0]
9. Velocity v is given by v = at2 + bt + c, where t is
(3) [M0L–1T0] (4) [M0L2T0]
a 2b
3. How many significant figures are there in the value time. Find the dimension of
c
2.50×1010m ?
(1) [L2 T–6] (2) [L T–6]
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) [L2 T–7] (4) [L2 T–4]
(3) 4 (4) 5
10. A physical quantity Q is found to depend on
4. Length of one division on main scale of vernier
calliper is 0.1 cm. If 10 division of vernier scale x3 y 2
coincides with the 9 divisions of the main scale, find observables x, y and z obeying relation Q = .
z
least count The maximum percentage error in the measurement
of x, y and z are 1%, 2% and 4% respectively. Find
(1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.1 cm
the maximum percentage error in the quantity Q
(3) 0.02 cm (4) 0.002 cm (1) 4% (2) 3%
5. Time period T of a small drop of liquid (due to (3) 11% (4) 1%
surface tension) depends on density , radius r and
surface tension s. The relation is 11. The potential energy of a particle varies with
1 A x
distance x from a fixed origin as U  .
 r 3  2 B  x 
3
(1) T  (2) T  rs
The dimensional formula of A is
 s 
1 9
(1) ML2 T 2 (2) ML2 T 1
r s
(3) T  (4) T 
s r 9
(3) ML2 T 2 (4) Indeterminable
6. A vernier callipers has 1 mm marks on the main 12. In a new system of units the fundamental quantities
scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the vernier scale mass, length and time are replaced by acceleration
which match with 16 main scale divisions. For this ‘a’, density ‘’ and frequency ‘f’. The dimensional
vernier callipers, the least count is, formula for force in this system is
(1) 0.02 mm (2) 0.05 mm (1) [a4f] (2) [a4f –6]
(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.2 mm (3) [–1a–4f6] (4) [–1a–4f –1]
(1)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Units and Measurement
13. Number of significant figures in the given number 20. Which of the following measurements is made by
62.00 m is the most precise measuring instrument ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 6.00 mm (2) 6.00 cm
(3) 4 (4) None of these (3) 6.00 m (4) 6.00 km
14. The diagram shows part of vernier scale on a pair 21. The dimension of time in torque is
of calipers. W hich reading is correct ?
(Least count = .01 cm) (1) 0 (2) –2
O (3) 2 (4) 1
2.5 3.0 22. The velocity of a particle is given by
v = A cos(t –kx), where x is position and t is

(1) 2.74 cm (2) 3.10 cm
k
(3) 3.26 cm (4) 3.64 cm time. The dimensions of is

15. Find the maximum possible percentage error in the
calculation of force on an object (of mass m), (1) [LT–1] (2) [L–1T1]
travelling with velocity v in a circle of radius r, if
(3) [L2T–2] (4) [L–2T2]
m=(4.0±0.1) kg, v=(10±0.1)m/s and r=(8.0±0.2)m.
23. Evaluate 88.956 cm – 78.8 cm
(1) ± 5% (2) ± 8%
(1) 10.2 cm (2) 10.15 cm
(3) ± 4% (4) ± 7%
16. A voltmeter has a least count of 0.1 V and an (3) 10.156 cm (4) 10 cm
ammeter has a least count of 0.1 A. The potential
24. If in a hypothetical system, the unit of velocity is 4
drop V across a resistor is measured as 10.0 V and
m/s, the unit of acceleration is 24 m/s2 and the unit
current through it is measured as 1.0 A. The value
of force is 6 N, then the unit of energy is
of resistance with error is
(1) 4 J (2) 6 J
(1) (10±1.1)  (2) (10±1) 
(3) 8 J (4) 10 J
(3) (10±0.5)  (4) (10±0.2) 
25. The dimensional formula for impulse is
17. Kinetic energy of the particle is given by
x 2 (1) [MLT–2] (2) [MLT–1]
K.E  , where x is position and t is time.
  t2 (3) [ML2T–1] (4) [M2L2T–1]
Find out the dimension of . 26. A physical quantity A is related to four observables
(1) [ML0T2] (2) [ML0T–2] a2b3

a, b, c and d as follows A = . The percentage
(3) [MLT–2] (4) [MLT2] c d
1
18. If percentage error in the measurement of radius of errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are %,
the sphere is 1.5% then the maximum percentage 4
error in measurement of its volume is 1 1 1
% , % and % respectively. The possible
3 4 2
(1) 3% (2) 1.5% percentage error in the calculation quantity A is
(3) 4.5% (4) 6% (1) 3% (2) 2%
19. The time dependence of a physical quantity P is
(3) 5% (4) 1%
given by P = P0e(–t2) [ where  is a constant and
t is time]. The constant  27. The number of significant figures in the
(1) has dimensions [T–2] measurements 4.7000 × 10 4 and 47000.50 are
respectively
(2) has dimensions [T2]
(1) 5 and 7 (2) 5 and 6
(3) has dimensions of P
(4) is dimension less (3) 2 and 3 (4) 2 and 4
(2)
Units and Measurement Medical Q-Bank-2020
28. The percentage errors in the measurement of length 32. Select from the following that is true.
and time period of a simple pendulum are 1% and
2% respectively. Then the maximum error in the Given [q] = [ML-1T-1]
measurement of acceleration due to gravity is
[Here v, A and t represent velocity, area and time
(1) 8% (2) 3% respectively]
(3) 5% (4) 4% dv dt
(1) q = A (2) q = A
29. An object is oscillating about certain mean position. dt dv
Its time period of oscillation is being measured by
1 dv
a stop watch of least count 0.1 s. For 20 (3) q = (4) None of these
oscillations the time noted down is 40.0 s. Then A dt
fractional error in measurement of time period of
oscillation is 33. In a particular system, the units of length, mass
and time are chosen to be 10cm, 10g and 0.1s
respectively. The unit of force in this system will be
1 equivalent to:
(1)
20
(1) 0.1N (2) 1N
1 (3) 10N (4) 100N
(2)
400 34. You measure two quantities as A = (10.0  0.2)m
and B = (20.0  0.2)m. We should report correct
1
(3) value for AB as :
200
(1) (14.1  0.3)m (2) (14.1  0.15)m
1
(4) (3) (14.1  0.4)m (4) (14.1  0.2)m
40
35. In a vernier callipers, N divisions of a vernier
30. In a screw gauge, the main scale divisions is 1mm coincide with (N–1) divisions of main scale in which
and there are 100 divisions on circular scale. What length of 1 division is 1mm. The least count of the
is the least count of the screw gauge? instrument (in cm) is
(1) 1mm (2) 0.1mm (1) N (2) N–1
(3) 0.01mm (4) 1cm 1 1

(3) (4)
31. For two resestors R1 and R2 connected in parallel, 10N N
if R 1 =(30  1)  and R 2 =(60  2)  .The 36. A drop of olive oil of radius 0.25mm spreads into a
percentage error in the measurement of equivalent circular film of radius 5cm on the water surface.
resistance is Estimate the thickness of the film
(1) 3.33% (2) 33.3% (1) 8.3x10-10m (2) 7.2x10-9m
(3) 6.67% (4) 9% (3) 8.9x10-9m (4) 8.3x10-9m

(3)
Chapter 02
Motion in a Straight Line
1. Two cars are moving in the same direction at the 5. A car is moving on a straight road. The velocity of
same speed u. The cars maintained a constant the car varies with time as shown in the figure.
distance x between them. An another car (third car) Initially (at t=0) the car was at x=0, where x is the
coming from opposite direction meets the two cars position of the car at any time t. Find acceleration
at an interval of ‘t’. Then find the speed of the third of car at time t=15 sec and t=55 sec
car.
v(m/s)
x x
(1) tu (2) 8
t t
4
x x 60 70
(3) u  (4) u 0 10 20 30 t(sec)
t t 50
2. The acceleration of a particle starting from rest,  5
varies with time according to the relation a=(kt+c) (1)  0,  m/s 2 (2) (0, 0.4) m/s2
 2
where k and c are positive constant. The velocity of
the particle after time t will be (3) (0, –0.4) m/s2 (4) (0, 0.2) m/s2
1 2 6. The acceleration time graph of a particle moving

(1) kt 2 +ct (2) kt +ct along straight line is as shown in the figure. What
2
is the velocity of the particle at t=8 sec, if initial
velocity of particle is 3 m/s?
1 2 1
(3) (kt +c) (4) kt 2+ ct
2 2 2
a(m/s )
3. A thief is running away on a straight road in a jeep 4
moving with a speed of 9m/s. A policeman chases
him on a motor cycle moving at a speed of 10m/s
and the instantaneous separation of the jeep from
4 8 t(s)
0
the motor cycle is 100 m, how long will it take for –1
the policeman to catch the thief ?
(1) 4 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(1) 1s (2) 19s
(3) 1 m/s (4) 7 m/s
(3) 90s (4) 100s
7. A particle moving in the positive x direction has
4. If a particle travels distance s1, s2 and s3 taking
initial velocity v0. The particle undergoes retardation
equal time to cover the respective distances. Find
kv2, where v is instantaneous velocity. The velocity
average speed of the particle, if it travels with a
of the particle as a function of time is
velocity v1, v2 and v3 for the respective distances.
v0 2v 0
v1  v 2  v 3 (1) v  (2) v 
(1) 1  kv 0 t 1  kt
s1 s2 s3
 
v1 v 2 v 3
v0 v0
(3) v  (4) v 
v1  v 2  v 3
kt 1  k v t 
2 2
0
(2)
3 8. Two cars leave one after the other and travel with an
acceleration of 4 m/s 2 . Two minutes after the
s1  s2  s3 departure of the first the distance between the cars
(3)
s  becomes 28 km. The time interval between the
3 1  departures of the cars is
 v1 
(1) 190 sec (2) 100 sec
(4) both (2) and (3) (3) 80sec (4) 140 sec
(4)
Motion in a Straight Line Medical Q-Bank-2020
9. The velocity-time graph of a body moving along a 15. Two particles A and B are thrown in directions as
straight line is as follows. The displacement of the shown in figure simultaneously with velocities 5 m/
body in 5 sec is s and
20 m/s. Initially the particle A is at a height 20 m
v from ground. The time when the particles will collide
2m/s is
1m/s
4 5
t A
1 2 3 5 m/s
–2m/s
20 m
(1) 5m (2) 2m
20 m/s
(3) 4m (4) 3m
B
10. Motion of a particle is given by equation (1) 0.2 sec (2) 0.8 sec
S=(3t 3 +7t 2 +4t+4)m where t is sec. the value of (3) 0.6 sec (4) 0.5 sec
acceleration of particle at t = 1s is
16. The velocity of a particle is given by
(1) 10 m/s2 (2) 32 m/s2
v  180  16x , where x is position in m and v in
(3) 16 m/s2 (4) 23 m/s2
m/s. Its acceleration will be
11. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with (1) –8 ms–2 (2) 5 ms–2
an acceleration of 10m/s2. The fuel is finished in 1
minute and the rocket continues to move up. The (3) –9 ms–2 (4) 10 ms–2
maximum height attained by rocket from ground is 17. The distance travelled by a particle starting from
(1) 18 km (2) 26 km 4
rest and moving with an acceleration ms–2 in the
(3) 36 km (4) 20 km 3
12. A very broad elevator is going up vertically with a third second is
constant acceleration of 2m/s2. At instant when its (1) 6 m (2) 4 m
velocity is 4 m/s a ball is projected from the floor
of the lift with speed of 4 m/s relative to the floor 10 19
(3) m (4) m
at an elevation of 30°. The time taken by the ball 3 3
to return the floor is 18. A ball is projected upwards from a height h above
the surface of the earth with velocity v. The time at
1 1 which the ball strikes the ground is
(1) s (2) s
2 3
v 2h 2v 2h
1 (1)  (2) 
(3) s (4) 1s g g g g
4
13. Two objects are moving along the same straight v 2gh 
line. They cross a point A with acceleration a, 2a (3) g 1  1  2  (4) None of these
 v 
and velocity 2u, u at time t = 0. The distance
moved by object when one overtakes the other is 19. A motor boat covers a given distance in 6 hour
moving downstream on a river. It covers the same
6u2 2u2 distance in 10 hour moving upstream. The time it
(1) (2) takes to cover the same distance in still water is
a a
(1) 9.5 hour (2) 7.5 hour
4u2 8u2 (3) 6.5 hour (4) 8 hour
(3) (4)
a a
20. A police jeep is chasing a thief with velocity of 45
14. A juggler maintains four balls in motion, making km hr–1 who is moving in another jeep moving with
each of them to rise a height of 20m from his velocity 153 km hr –1 . Police fires a bullet with
hand. W hat time interval should he maintain muzzle velocity of 180 ms –1 . The velocity with
between throws of saccessive balls? which the bullet appears to strike the jeep of the
thief, to the thief is
3
(1) 3s (2) s (1) 150 ms–1 (2) 27 ms–1
2
(3) 1s (4) 2s (3) 450 ms–1 (4) 250 ms–1
(5)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Motion in a Straight Line
21. A train of 150 m length is going towards North 25. Depict the shown v – x graph in a – x, graph
direction at a speed of 10 ms–1. A parrot flies at a
speed of 5 ms–1 towards south direction parallel to v
the railway track. The time taken by the parrot to v0
cross the train is
(1) 12 second (2) 8 second x0
x
(3) 15 second (4) 10 second
22. For the corresponding a-t graph, Draw the v-t graph a a
(The particles starts from rest) x
(1) x (2)
a a
2
t a a
2 4
x
v (3) (4) x
2 a a
(1)
t 26. An object is dropped from the top of a tower. It
travels a distance x in the first second of its motion
v and a distance 7x in the last second. Height of the
4 tower is (g = 10 m/s2)
(2)
t (1) 40 m (2) 45 m
v (3) 75 m (4) 80 m
4
(3) 27. A particle is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity
t at half of the height is 10 m/s. Then the maximum
height attained by it (g = 10 m/s2)
v
4 (1) 10 m (2) 20 m
(4)
t (3) 15 m (4) 18 m
23. A balloon starts rising from the ground with an 28. Position-time graph for two particles A and B as
accelaration of 1.25 m/s 2 . After 8s, a stone is shown in figure. If both the particles start from
released from the balloon. The stone will origin, and average velocity of A and B during
(1) cover a distance of 40m, before reaching to the interval of 5 sec are vA and vB, then
ground
(2) have a displacement of 50m, before reaching to B A
the ground x
(3) reach the ground in 4 sec, after the release
(4) begin to move down after being released
24. The v–t graph for a particle moving along x-axis is
shown in the figure, then the average velocity of the t
particle in 0 to 8 sec is 5 sec
v
8 (1) vA > vB (2) vB > vA
4
(3) vA = vB (4) vA = 2vB
0 t
2 4 8
–4 29. The displacement s of a point moving in a straight
–8 line is given by s = 8t2 + 3t – 4, s being in cm and
t in s. The initial velocity of the particle is
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(1) 8 cm/s (2) 5 cm/s
1
(3) 1 m/s (4) m/s
2 (3) 6 cm/s (4) 3 cm/s
(6)
Motion in a Straight Line Medical Q-Bank-2020
30. An object is dropped from rest. Its velocity versus 34. A lift performs the first part of its ascent from the
displacement graph is (assume downward direction lowest position with uniform acceleration a and the
to be positive) remaining to the topmost position with uniform
retardation 2a. If t is the time of ascent, find the
v v
depth of the shaft.
1 2
(1) (2) (1) at (2) at2
3
s s
1 2 at
v v (3) at (4)
2 3
(3) (4) 35. The v-t plot of a moving object is shown in the
figure. The average velocity of the object during the
s s
first 10 s is
31. Two bodies of different masses ma and mb are
–1
dropped from two different height a and b. The ratio v (ms )
of time taken by the two bodies through these 10 m/s
distances is
(1) a2 : b2 (2) a: b t (s)
0 5 10
a ma b
(3) (4)
b mb a
32. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height –10 m/s
h m. It takes T s to reach the ground. What is the
(1) Zero (2) 2.5 ms–1
T (3) 2 ms–1 (4) 5 ms–1
position of the ball in s?
3 36. A car starts from rest and moves with constant
acceleration on a straight road. The ratio of
h
(1) m from the ground displacement travelled by car in first 4 seconds and
9 next 4 seconds.
8h (1) 1:2 (2) 1:1
(2) m from the ground
9 (3) 1:3 (4) 1:4
7h 37. A particle is released from the top of a tower of
(3) m from the ground height 150m and another ball is thrown vertically
9
upwards with velocity 20m/s from a tower of height
17h 50m at the same time. Assume both are in a same
(4) m from the ground vertical line. Then time after which they collide to
9
33. Two objects A and B are moving with velocities VA each other– (take g= 10m/s2)
and VB respectively along positive x-axis. If VA < VB (1) 2s (2) 3s
then, which of the following position-time graphs is (3) 4s (4) 5s
correctly showing the velocity of A and B? 38. If x denotes displacement in time ‘t’ and x=a Cost,
then acceleration is
x(m) A x(m) (1) a Cost (2) –a Cost
B B A
(3) a Sint (4) –a Sint
39. If velocity of a particle moving in a straight line is
(1) (2) given by v = 2t + 3 where t in sec and v in m/s.
Then, its average velocity in the interval 0  t  1
t(s) t(s) is
(1) 1 m/s (2) 5 m/s
(3) 3 m/s (4) 4 m/s
B A 40. A man is standing behind a car at a distance of
x(m) A x(m) B 48m. At a particular instant, the car starts
accelerating at 1m/s 2 and the man runs at a
constant speed of 11m/s in the same direction. The
(3) (4) man will meet the car the first time at time
(1) t = 6s (2) t = 16s
t(s) t(s) (3) t = 6s and t = 16s (4) None of these
(7)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Motion in a Straight Line
41. A stone is thrown vertically upward from a bridge, 47. A particle covers half its journey with a constant speed
with an initial velocity of 4.9m/s. It strikes the water ‘v’, half the remaining part of journey with a constant
after 2s. What is the height of the bridge from the speed of ‘2v’ and the rest of journey with a constant
water level? (g=9.8m/s2) speed of ‘4v’. Its average speed during the entire
(1) 19.6m (2) 9.8m journey is,
(3) 29.4m (4) None of these
16v 11v
42. A juggler throws one ball into air, whenever the (1) (2)
previous one is at its highest point. How high do 11 16
the balls rise, if he throws ‘n’ balls each sec?
(Acceleration due to gravity is g.) 19 v 23v
(3) (4)
13 12
g g
(1) (2) 48. A particle starts from rest from x=5 m. Its velocity-
4n2 2n2
time curve is shown in figure. Determine the
g 2g position of particle after 6 seconds, assuming
(3) (4) particle moves in a straight line path along x-axis
n2 n2
43. A car travelling at a speed of 30km/hr is brought to v(in m/s)
a halt in 8m by applying brakes. If the same car is
travelling at 60km/hr, it can be brought to a halt
with the same braking force in 10m/s
(1) 8m (2) 16m
(3) 24m (4) 32m 3s 6s t(in sec)
44. Among the four graphs, there is only one graph for
which average velocity = 0 is possible for a (1) 54 m (2) 50 m
particular time interval starting from t = 0. Which
(3) 45 m (4) 40 m
one is it?
49. The velocity (v) of a particle moving along x-axis,
x x varies with its position x as shown in figure. The
acceleration ‘a’ of the particle varies with position
as
(1) (2) v(m/s)
(0, 0) t (0, 0) t
45°
x x 2
x(m)
(1) a = x+2 (2) a = 2x2+4
(3) (4) (3) a = x2+2 (4) a = x–4
(0, 0) t (0, 0) t 50. A body is released from a height and falls freely
towards ground. Exactly 1 sec later another body
45. If the relation between distance ‘x’ and time ‘t’ is is released. What is the distance between the two
2 bodies 2sec after the release of the second body,
given as t = x   x
if g=9.8m/s2 and no body has reached ground by
 and  being appropriate constants, then the then ?
retardation of the particle is, (v is the velocity of the (1) 45m (2) 44.3m
particle) (3) 25m (4) 24.5m
(1) 2  v3 (2) 2  v3 51. A body starts accelerating uniformly from rest. If t1,
(3) 2   v3 (4) 2  2v3 t2 and t3 are the time taken by the body to cover
successive equal distances, then t1:t2:t3 is
46. A person driving a car with a speed 72km/hr, suddenly
sees a boy crossing the road. If the distance moved (1) 1: 2 : 3
by the car, before the person applies brakes is 5m,
the reaction time of the person is, (2) 1: 2  1: 3  2
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.10 s (3) 1:2:3
(3) 10 s (4) 0.25 s (4) None of these
(8)
Chapter 03
Motion in a Plane
1. A man wants to reach point B on the opposite bank  
of a river flowing at a speed 4 m/s starting from A 5. A particle has initial velocity  2 i  3 j  m/s and
as shown in figure. What minimum speed relative to  
 
water should the man have so that he can reach  
acceleration  0.3 i  0.2 j  m/s2. The magnitude of
point B directly by swimming?  
velocity after 10 seconds will be
30m B
(1) 5 units (2) 9 units
40m (3) 9 2 units (4) 5 2 units
6. If magnitude of change in velocity of particle

A
projected from ground till it lands on ground as
shown in figure is 2m/s, find maximum height of the
4 12 projectile. [g=acceleration due to gravity]
(1) m/s (2) m/s
5 5
16 23
(3) m/s (4) m/s
5 5
1 1
2. A man who can swim at the rate of 2 km/h (in still (1) m (2) m
g 4g
river) crosses a river to a point exactly opposite on
the other bank by swimming in a direction of 120°
to the flow of river water. The velocity of water 2 1
(3) m (4) m
current in km/h is g 2g
(1) 1 (2) 2 7. A projectile is thrown at an angle 37° from the
vertical. The angle of elevation of the highest point
1 3 of the projectile from point of projection is
(3) (4)
2 2
3 2
(1) tan1   (2) tan1  
3. A car start moving from rest on a horizontal ground 2 3
such that the position vector of a car with respect
   3 8
to it’s starting point is given as  r  bt i  ct 2 j  ; (3) tan1   (4) tan1  
  8 3
where a and b are positive constants. The equation 8. A particle is moving in a circle of radius 3 m with
of trajectory of car y = f(x) is an angular velocity 2 radian per second in
clockwise direction as shown. Find acceleration of
c 2 c  2
(1) y    x (2) y   2  x particle at point Q.
b b  y
2
c   c  Q
(3) y   x (4) y   2  x
 b  b  60°
x
4. The trajectory of a projectile launched from ground
is given by the equation y = (– 0.025x 2 + 0.5x);
where x and y are the coordinates of the projectile
on a rectangular system of axes. Find the angle at   
   

which projectile is launched ? (1)  6 i  6 3 j  m/s 2 (2)  6 3 i  6 j  m/s 2
   
(1)  = tan–1(0.2) (2)  = tan–1(0.4)
   
   
(3)  = tan–1(0.5) (4)  = tan–1(0.6) (3)  6 i  6 3 j  m/s 2 (4)  6 i  6 3 j  m/s 2
   
(9)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Motion in a Plane
9. Find magnitude of average acceleration between the 14. To a man walking at the rate of 3km/h the rain
points P and Q for a particle performing uniform appears to fall vertically. When he increases his
circular motion. Radius of circle is 2 m speed to 6km/h, it appears to meet him at an angle
45° with vertical. The speed of rain is
4m/s
(1) 2 3 km/h (2) 6 km/h
Q
4m/s
60° (3) 3 2 km/h (4) 4 3 km/h
P
15. A particle is thrown from a tower height 40 m with
initial velocity 20 2 m/s making an angle of 45°
84 82 with horizontal as shown in figure. The time at
(1) m/s 2 (2) m/s 2 which the particle will strike the ground will be
11 11
nearest to
84 82 45°
(3) m/s 2 (4) m/s 2 40m
22 22 20 2m/s
10. A man can swim at a speed of 5 km/h w.r.t. water.

He wants to cross a 1.5 km wide river flowing at 3 (1) 1.5 second (2) 2.3 second
km/h. He always keeps himself at an angle of 60° (3) 3.2 second (4) 4.2 second
with the flow direction while swimming. The time
taken by him to cross the river will be 16. A particle is moving in X – Y plane such that
vx = 4 + 4t and vy = 4t(t in seocnd and vx, vy in m/
(1) 0.25 h (2) 0.35 h s). If the initial position of particle is (1, 2) m. Then
the equation of trajectory is
(3) 0.45 h (4) 0.55 h
(1) y2 = 4x (2) y = 2x
11. Two particles 1 and 2 are allowed to descend on
2 y
the two frictionless chord OA and OB of vertical (3) x  (4) None of these
circle at the same instant from point O. The ratio 2
of the velocities of the particles 1 and 2, when they 17. A particle moves in a circle of radius 1.0 cm at a
reach on the circumference will be (OB is diameter) speed given by v = 2.0t where v is in cm/s and t
in seconds. The magnitude of total acceleration at
O t = 1s is nearest to
 (1) 4.5 cm/s2 (2) 2.5 m/s2
A
(3) 6.2 cm/s2 (4) 8.5 cm/s2
B
(1) sin  (2) tan  18. If speed of an object revolving in a circular path is
doubled and angular speed is reduced to half of
(3) cos  (4) independent on 
original value, then centripetal acceleration will
12. The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is y become/remain
= ax–bx2, where a and b are constants and x and
(1) Same (2) Double
y respectively are horizontal and vertical distances
of the projectile from the point of projection. The (3) Half (4) Quadruple
maximum height attained by the particle and the 19. The velocity of a particle projected in vertical plane
angle of projection from the horizontal are
   
at the initial point A is v   2 i  3 j  m s1 . Its
s
b2 a2  
(1) , tan–1(b) (2) , tan–1(2a) velocity (in m s–1) at point B is
2a b
y
a2 2a2
(3) , tan–1(a) (4) , tan–1(a)
4b b
13. A boat which has a speed of 5km/h in still water v
crosses a river of width 1km along shortest possible
path in 15 minutes. The velocity of river water in B
km/h is: A x
   
(1) 1 (2) 3 (1) 2 i  3 j (2) 2 i  3 j
   
(3) 4 (4) 41 (3) 2 i  3 j (4) 2 i  3 j
(10)
Motion in a Plane Medical Q-Bank-2020
20. A ball is moving in a circular path of radius 5 m. If

tangential acceleration at an instant is 10 m s–2  

26. A projectile is given an initial velocity of  i  2 j  m/
and the net acceleration makes an angle 30° with  
the centripetal acceleration, then the instantaneous  
speed is s, where i and j are unit vectors along horizontal
and vertical upwards direction with respect to
(1) 50 3 ms–1 (2) 9.3 ms–1 ground. If g=10m/s2, the equation of trajectory is
(3) 6.6 ms–1 (4) 5.4 ms–1 (1) y=(2x2–3x) (2) y=2x–5x2
21. To a man walking due west with a speed of 4m/s, (3) y=x 2–4x (4) y=(3x2–5x)
wind appears to blow from the north-east, when he
increases his speed to 7m/s the wind appears to 27. A particle is moving at a constant speed in a
blow from the north. Find velocity of wind with circular trajectory centered at the origin of an xy
respect to ground. co-ordinate system. At one point (x=4m, y=0m) the

(1) (2) particle has a velocity –5.0 j m/s. Determine

50 40
acceleration of particle.
(3) 58 (4) 42 y
22. A swimmer heads directly across a river swimming
at 1.6 m/s relative to water. She arrives at a point
(0,0)
u
40m downstrem from the point directly across the
river, which is 80 m wide. Find time taken to cross
the river ?  
(1) –6.25 i m/s2 (2) 6.25 i m/s2
(1) 30 s (2) 40 s
 
(3) 50 s (4) 60 s (3) 6.25 j m/s2 (4) 6.25(– j ) m/s2
23. Rain is falling with a speed of 4m/s is a direction 28. Speed of a particle moving in a circular path of
making an angle of 30° with vertical towards south. radius 1m varies with time as v = 2t2 Here v and t
What should be the magnitude and direction of are measured in SI units. Find acceleration of
velocity of cyclist to hold his umbrella exactly particle at t=1s.
vertical, so that rain does not wet him ?
(1) 2 2m / s2 (2) 4 2m / s2
(1) 2m/s towards north
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 2 m/s2
(2) 4m/s towards south
29. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 m/s.
(3) 2m/s towards south Wind starts blowing after some time with a speed
of 15 m/s from east to west direction. In which
(4) 4m/s towards north direction should a boy waiting for bus hold his
umbrella ?
24. A particle moves with a constant speed v along a
parabolic path y=kx 2 , where k is a positive 1  1
constant. Find the acceleration of the particle at the (1) At an angle tan   with vertical towards
2
point x=0.
east
1 2  1
(1) kv2 (2) kv 1
(2) At an angle tan   with vertical towards
2
2
(3) 2kv2 (4) 3kv2 west
(3) At an angle tan–1(2) with vertical towards east
  
  (4) At an angle tan–1(2) with vertical towards west
25. A particle is moving with a velocity v  k  y i  x j  .
  30. A particle projected at some angle with velocity 50
Where k is a constant. The general equation of the m/s crosses a 20 m high wall after 1s and 4 s from
path is the time of projection. The angle of projection of the
particle is
(1) y2=x2+constant (2) y=x2+constant
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) y2=x+constant (4) xy=constant
(3) 60° (4) 53°
(11)
31. The coordinates of a projectile projected from 38. A ball is projected horizontally from the top of a
surface of a planet is given by y = (4t – 2t2) and tower with a velocity v0. It will be moving at an
x = 4t, where t is in second, x and y in m, point angle of 60º with the horizontal after time
of projection is taken as origin, horizontal and
vertical direction as x and y-axes. Initial direction of
v0 v0
motion of particle makes an angle  with x-axis (1) (2)
where  is g 3g
(1) 45° (2) 37°
(3) 30° (4) 60° 3v 0 v0
(3) (4)
g 3g
32. A body is moving in a circular path of radius 16 m.
It completes one revolution in 8 seconds.
39. The horizontal range and maximum height attained
Considering the speed to be uniform, the value of
by a projectile are R and H respectively. If a
centripetal acceleration in m/s2 is
g
3 constant horizontal acceleration a  is imparted
484  22  2
(1) (2)   to the projectile due to wind, then its new horizontal
49  7 
range will be
44 89
(3) (4)  H
7 7 (1)  R   (2) (R + 2H)
 2
33. The angle made by vector 3i  j with x-axis is
 H
(1) 45° (2) 30° (3) (R + H) (4)  R  
 3
(3) 60° (4) 90°
34. The x and y co-ordinate of a particle at any time t 40. A projectile is fired from level ground at an angle 
are given by x = 7t + 4t2, and y = 5t where x and above the horizontal. The elevation angle  of the
y are in m and t in s. The acceleration of the highest point as seen from the launch point is
particle at 5 s is related to  by the relation
(1) 4 m/s2 (2) 6 m/s2

1
(1) tan   tan  (2) tan = tan
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) 10 m/s2 2
    
35. If | A  B |  | A |  | B |, then angle between A and 1
 (3) tan   tan  (4) tan = 4tan
B will be 4
(1) 90º (2) 120º 41. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8 km/
h (relative to water). If the velocity of the boat with
(3) 0º (4) 60º respect to ground is 10 km/h, the river is flowing
with a velocity.
  
36. The resultant of two vectors P and Q is R . If the
 (1) 4 km/h (2) 6 km/h
magnitude of Q is doubled, the new resultant
 (3) 8 km/h (4) 9 km/h
becomes perpendicular to P . Then the ratio
  42. Two projectiles are simultaneously projected from a
R : Q will be large height from two different points
10 m/s 12 m/s
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1
37° 
• •
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 :1 
h (h>>)
37. The velocity (in m/s) of an object changes from
 
v1  10iˆ  4 j  2k to v 2  4iˆ  2 j  3k in 5 s. The
magnitude of average acceleration is Find angle  such that they collide mid-air.
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 1.28 m/s2 (1)  < 30° (2) 30° <  < 60°
(3) 2.48 m/s2 (4) 3.4 m/s2 (3) 30° (4) 60°
(12)
43. The component of velocity of a body moving in a 49. An artillary piece which consistently shoots its
circle of radius R in the radial direction is (symbols shells with the same muzzle speed has a
have usual meaning) maximum range R. To hit a target which is at a
(1) Zero (2) R2 R

distance of from the gun, the angle of projection
2
v2 must be
(3) (4) v
R (1) 15º (2) 30º
44. A particle is projected from horizontal making an
(3) 45º (4) 60º
angle 60º with initial velocity u0. If time taken by the
particle to make angle 45º from horizontal is 1.5 s,
50. A bomber plane moves horizontally with a speed of
then u0 is nearest to
600 m/s and a bomb released from it strikes the
(1) 40 m/s (2) 50 m/s ground in 80 s. Angle at which it strikes the ground
will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(3) 60 m/s (4) 20 m/s
      1 4
(1) tan1  
1
45. For two vectors A and B , | A + B | = | A – B | is (2) tan  
2 3
always true when
 
(i) | A | = | B |  0 3
(3) tan1   (4) tan–1(1)
  5
(ii) A  is perpendicular to B
51. A particle is moving along a circular path of radius
  1 m. If its angular speed is 2 rad/sec, angle
(iii) A and B are parallel or antiparallel
between the centripetal acceleration and angular
  velocity (with respect to centre) –
(iv) When either | A | or | B | is zero
(1) is 90°
(1) (i, iv) (2) (ii, iii)
(2) keeps on changing
(3) (ii, iv) (4) (i, ii, iv)
(3) increases then decreases
46. Out of the following set of forces the resultant of
which cannot be 4 newton (4) decreases then increases
(1) 2 N and 2 N (2) 2 N and 4 N 52. The equation of projectile on a certain planet is
(3) 2 N and 6 N (4) 2 N and 8 N y  3 x  5 x 2 . The ratio of maximum height

attained to horizontal range is
47. A car with a vertical windshield moves horizontally
in a rain storm at a speed of 40 km/h. The rain
drops fall vertically with constant speed of 20 m/s 3
with respect to ground. The angle at which rain (1) 3 (2)
4
drops strike the windshield is
4 2
1 2 1 3 (3) (4)
(1) tan   (2) tan   3
3 2 3
53. A ball rolls from the top of a stair way with a

5
(3) tan1   (4) tan–1(2) horizontal velocity u m/s. If the steps are of height
9 h and width b, the ball will hit the edge of the nth
step when n is equal to
48. A particle is thrown with the speed u at an angle
 with the horizontal. When the particle makes an
angle  with the horizontal, its speed will be hu2 hu2
(1) (2)
2gb 2 4gb2
(1) u tan2 (2) u sin cosec
4hu2 2hu2
u sin2  (3) (4)
(3) (4) u cos.sec gb2 gb 2
cos 
(13)
   
54. Given A  2iˆ  3 ˆj and B  iˆ  ˆj . The component 58. The angle between A and B is  . The value
of vector A along vector B is   
A  ( B × A ) is
(1) 5 2 (1) A 2 B (2) Zero
(3) A2B Sin  (4) A2B Cos 

5
(2)
2 59. Three particles A, B and C start moving from the
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side length  with
(3) 3 2 speed u each such that A moves towards B, B towards
C and C towards A. Find the initial angular velocity of
3 B with respect to A.
(4)
2
3u
(1)
  2
55. Two forces F1  500 N due east and F2  250 N due
  u
north have their common initial point then. F2 – F1 is (2)
2
(1) 250 5 N , tan–1(2) West of North 3u

(3)
2
(2) 250 N, tan–1(2) West of North
(3) Zero (4) Zero
60. A bullet is to be fired from ground with a speed 2000

3 1 m s-1 to hit a target 200m away on a level ground. If
(4) 750 N, tan   North of West
4 g=10m/s2, the gun should be aimed
56. The angular velocity of a particle moving in a circle

of radius 50cm is increased from 100 revolution
per minute to 400 revolution per minute in 5 min.
The tangential acceleration of the particle is
(1) 60m s –2
h=?

(2) m s –2
30 • •

(3) m s –2
15 (1) 10cm above the target
(2) 15 cm above the target


(4) m s –2
60 (3) 5 cm above the target
57. A particle starts moving from origin in xy plane (4) 2cm above the target
such that its instantaneous velocity in m/s is
61. The height ‘y’ and distance ‘x’ along a horizontal plane

v  5y 2i  2tj where y and t are the instantaneous of a projectile on a certain planet are given by, x = 6t
y-co-ordinate (in m) and time (in sec) respectively. and y = (8t - 5t2); where t in s gives x and y in m. The
Find the locus of the particle velocity with which the projectile is projected, is
(1) y5 = x 2 (1) 8 m/s
(2) y2 = x 5 (2) 6 m/s
(3) y3 = x 2 (3) 10 m/s
(4) y2 = x 3 (4) Zero
(14)
62. A fan makes 2400 rpm. If after switched off, it comes 66. A swimmer can swim at a speed of 10 km/h in still
to rest in 10 seconds, then find the number of times water. A river of width 800 m is flowing at a speed of
it will rotate before it comes to rest, after it is switched 6 km/h. Find the time taken to cross the river along
off. (Assume constant retardation) the shortest path.
(1) 100 (2) 200 (1) 4.8 min (2) 6 min
(3) 400 (4) 800 (3) 12 min (4) 9 min
63. A motor car is travelling at 30m/s on a circular road 67. A harbour enemy ship is at a distance 180 3 m from
of radius 500m. It is increasing its speed at the rate
the security cannon having a muzzle velocity of 60m/
of 2m/s2, what is its acceleration at that instant?
s. Calculate the angle the cannon must be elevated
(1) 2m/s 2 (2) 1.8m/s 2 to hit the ship(g=10 m/s2)
(3) 2.7m/s 2 (4) 3.8m/s 2 (1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 30° or 60° (4) None of these

64. A person is standing at (0,a) and is observing another
person moving with constant velocity v along x axis 68. A particle moves in xy plane with velocity
starting from origin. Find at what rate the angular
position of the particle is changing with respect to  t2
v   2  t i  j , where t in s gives v in m/s. The
4
3a
the person s. later particle starts from origin. Find the y-cordinate when
v
the x-coordinate becomes zero after start
v v 8
(1) (2) (1) m
2a 4a 5
v v 24
(3) (4) (2) m
a 3a 3
      4
65. For vectors A and B , (AxB)  (A  B) will be (3) m
3
(1) A 2 B 2 (2) (A+B)(AB)
16
(3) Zero (4) (4) m
A 2  B2  2AB 3

(15)
Chapter 04
Laws of Motion
1. Normal reaction is a type of which fundamental 5. Calculate the minimum force applied for which the
force ? mass m stays at rest w.r.t the body of mass M.
(1) Gravitational force

 m
(2) Electromagnetic force M
(3) Strong nuclear force

smooth
(4) Weak nuclear force
g
(1) m
2. A particle of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 
20m and rises to a height of 5m. Calculate the
change in momentum between before and after (2) Zero
hitting the ground
(3) m cannot be at relative rest
(1) 30 kg m/s (2) Zero
(3) 10 kg m/s (4) 60 kg m/s g

(4) M  m 

3. Calculate the tension in the horizontal string
6. A block of mass m is placed over the rough

horizontal surface of a truck of friction co-efficient
  = 0.5 as shown –
L = 2m
m
m
(1) mgtan (2) mgsin • •
(3) mgcot (4) mgcosec If the truck suddenly starts accelerating towards
right with acceleration of 6 m/s2, find the time after
4. Calculate the tension in the rope of mass M, length which the block falls off the truck ? (g = 10 m/s2)
L at the given point P as shown in the figure
(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec
(3) 0.5 sec (4) block will never fall
x M, L 7. Calculate the force of friction acting on the body of

mass m placed over the inclined plane of friction co-
efficient  = 0.8.
•P TP = ?
m
30°
M M 3 mg
(1) mg  xg (2) mg  (L  x)g (1) mg (2)
L L 2 2
(3) mg + Mg (4) Zero (3) mg (4) Zero

(16)
Laws of Motion Medical Q-Bank-2020
8. Calculate acceleration of mass 2 kg if a constant 12. The pulleys and strings are smooth and of negligible
force of 12 N is applied on 6 kg mass given that mass. For the system to remain in equilibrium, the
the surface between the blocks is rough with  = angle  should be
0.3 while ground surface is smooth.
=0.3 2kg

6kg F=12 N m m
2m
(1) 1.5 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2 (1) 0° (2) 30°

(3) 45° (4) 60°
(3) Zero (4) 1 m/s2
13. A spring balance is attached to the ceiling of a lift.
9. Calculate the contact force acting on the mass m A man hangs his bag on the spring and the spring
placed over the inclined plane of friction co-efficient reads 49 N, when the lift is stationary. If the lift
 = 0.5 as shown
moves downward with an acceleration of 5 m/s2,
the reading of the spring balance will nearly be equal
to
m
(1) 24 N (2) 74 N
(3) 15 N (4) 49 N
37°
14. A bar of mass m1 is placed on a plank of mass m2
which rests on a smooth horizontal plane. The
2 coefficient of friction between the surfaces of bar
(1) mg (2) mg
5 and plank is k. The plank is subjected to a
horizontal force F depending on time t as F = at,
where a is constant. The moment of time t 0 at
2 which the bar starts sliding is
(3) Zero (4) mg
5
m1
10. Calculate final velocity of the particle of mass 2 kg
if initial velocity of it is 6 m/s. A force if it is acted m2 F
on it and whose variation with time has been shown
below –
akg m1  m2  kg
(1) (2)
F(N) m1  m2 a
6
 m1  m2  g k
(3) (4)
k  1 m2  g
m 
15. The acceleration of block of mass M as shown in

t(sec) the figure is of system is released from rgt. (all the
4
surfaces are smooth)
(1) 10 m/s (2) 6 m/s
(3) 12 m/s (4) Zero
11. A ball weighing 10 g hits a hard surface vertically

with a speed of 5 m/s and rebounds with the same M
speed. The ball remains in contact with the surface
for 0.01 sec. The average force exerted by the 2M
30°
surface on the ball is
g g
(1) down the plane (2) up the plane
3 3
(1) 100 N (2) 10 N
(3) 1 N (4) 0.1 N 2g 2g

(3) down the plane (4) up the plane
3 3
(17)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Laws of Motion
16. What is the impulse of force shown in the following 21. A body of mass M just starts sliding down on the
figure? inclined plane when the angle ACB = 30° as
shown in figure. The coefficient of kinetic friction is
F(N)
M
C
100 30°
1 t(s)
10
(1) 225 Ns (2) 450 Ns A B
(3) 900 Ns (4) 1000 Ns 1 3
(1) (2)
2 2
17. A rocket with its fuel has a mass of 200 kg. The
exhaust velocity of fuel is 1.6 km/s. The minimum (3) 3 (4) None of these
rate of consumption of fuel so that the rocket may 22. A rough vertical board has a horizontal acceleration
rise from ground is (g = 10m/s2) ‘a’ so that a 2kg block pressing against it does not
(1) 1.250kg/sec (2) 2.315 kgs–1 fall. The coefficient of friction between the block and
the board should be
(3) 3.125 kgs–1 (4) 4.251 kgs–1
18. The coefficient of static friction between A and B is a

0.4 and B is placed on a frictionless horizontal
surface. If a force of 250 N is applied on block A
then acceleration of block B will be 2 kg
A=10kg F=250N
g
(1) greater than or equal to
a
B 25kg
g
(2)
a
g
(1) 1.6 m/s2 (2) 2.0 m/s2 (3) less than or equal to
a
(3) 2.5 m/s2 (4) 3.5 m/s2
a
19. A car is moving on a circular level road with radius (4)
g
of curvature 300m. If the coefficient of friction is 0.3
and acceleration due to gravity is 10m/s 2 , the 23. A block of mass m is placed at relative equilibrium
maximum speed of car can be on an inclined plane which itself is placed on a lift
(1) 90 km/h (2) 81 km/h moving upwards with constant velocity v0. If the
(3) 108 km/h (4) 162 km/h friction co-efficient between block and plane is ,
find the instantaneous power supplied by friction to
20. The force F acting on a particle of mass m is the block ?
indicated by force-time graph shown below. The
change in momentum of the particle over the time
interval from zero to 8 second is
F(N) v0
6 m
3 
t(s)
O 2 4 6 8 mgv 0Sin  2 
–3 (1) (2) v0mgSin2
2
(1) 24 Ns (2) 20 Ns mgv 0Sin  2 
(3) (4) v0mgCos2
(3) 12 Ns (4) 6 Ns 2
(18)
24. A particle of mass m moving with a velocity v 28. A machine gun fires bullets of mass 30g with a
strikes a wall at an angle of incidence  and velocity of 1500 m/s. The man holding the gun can
rebounds back as shown in the figure. Calculate exert a maximum force of 300N on it. How many
change in momentum bullets can he fire per sec. at most ?
y (1) 1 (2) 2
v
• 
(3) 3 (4) 6
x 29. Calculate the friction force acting on the block

placed at rest on the horizontal surface.
v
• 4 kg
 
(1) 2mv cos i   (2) 2mv cos  j   =0.3
(1) 12 N (2) Zero
 
(3) 2mv sin i  (4) 2mv sin i   (3) 40 N (4) 3 N
30. Calculate the maximum force F for which both the
25. Calculate the tension in the string BC as shown. blocks move simultaneously, given that friction co-
efficient between the blocks is  whereas ground
surface is smooth.
A  C m2
90°
B m1 F
• (1) m2g (2) g(m1 + m2)
 m1  m2  g
m (3) g(m1) (4)

31. Calculate the contact force of the inclined plane

acting on a body of mass m kept at rest on an
(1) 2mg cos (2) mg sin
inclined plane at an angle of 
(3) 2mg sin (4) mg cos
(1) mg (2) mgcos
26. Calculate the tension in the string connected
(3) mg tan (4) mg sin
between the 1 kg and 3 kg masses.
32. F
3 kg 1 kg
F0
4 kg 4 kg t
T T
(1) 30 N (2) 40 N 2
(3) 50 N (4) 60 N A particle of mass m moving with velocity u makes
27. Calculate the maximum acceleration of M for which an elastic one dimensional collision with a
all the bodies move together considering smooth stationary particle of mass m. They are in contact
surface everywhere. for a very brief time T. Their force of interaction
m1 T
increases from zero to F0 linearly in time , and
2
M m2 T
decreases linearly to zero in further time . The
2
m1 M magnitude of F0 is
(1) g (2) g
m2 m1 mu 2mu
(1) (2)
T T
m2 m2 mu mu
(3) g (4) g (3) (4)
M m1 2T 4T
(19)
36. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m

respectively are connected by a massless and
33. inextensible string. The whole system is
suspended by a massless spring as shown in the
figure. The magnitude of acceleration of A and B
immediately after the string is cut, respectively, is
m
A
m 2m
F1 = 2mg B
A 2m
B m
m
C
m
g g
(1) g , (2) ,g
2 2
F2 = mg
g g
(3) g, g (4) ,
In the figure, the blocks A, B, C of mass m each 2 2
have acceleration a1, a2 and a 3 respectively. F 1
and F2 are external forces of magnitudes 2mg and 37. A man of mass m climbs up along massless rope
mg respectively.
g
with an acceleration of . The force of contact
(1) a1 = a2 = a3 2
between block and ground is (Mass of block = 3m)
(2) a1 > a3 > a2
(3) a1 = a2, a2 > a3
(4) a1 > a2, a2 = a3
34. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of

radius 10 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. A g
bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a light a
2
string. The angle made by the string with the
vertical at equilibrium is (g = 10 m/s2) 3m
(1) Zero (2) 30°
(3) 45° (4) 60°

3
(1) 3 mg (2) mg
35. What is the maximum value of the force F such 2
that the block shown in the arrangement is just
about to move? 5 mg
(3) mg (4)
2 2
F
38. Two blocks of masses 8 kg and 5 kg are connected
with a rod of mass 3 kg. The 8 kg mass is pulled
60° m  3 kg 1 with force of 180 N. The tension in rod at contact

2 3 point of 8 kg block is
(1) 20 N 3 kg
Smooth 5 kg 8 kg
F = 180 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 12 N (1) 22.5 N (2) 45 N

(4) 15 N (3) 90 N (4) 180 N
(20)
39. When a bicycle is pedalled, the force of friction 45. In the arrangement shown in figure, the strings are
exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such ideal. The surface over which blocks are placed is
that it acts smooth. The tension developed in the string
between the blocks of 4 kg and 2 kg is
(1) In the backward direction on the front wheel and
in the forward direction on the rear wheel
(2) In the forward direction on the front wheel and 4 kg

2 kg
in the backward direction on the rear wheel 7N 1 kg
(3) In the backward direction on both wheels F = 28 N
(4) In the forward direction on both wheels

(1) 21 N (2) 19 N
40. If system of blocks as shown in the figure is at
rest, the mass of block B is [g = 10 m/s2] (3) 18 N (4) 12 N
m = 5 kg 46. The figure shows the position-time (x-t) graph of one

dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4 kg. It
A suffers impulse at regular intervals. The magnitude
of each impulse is
 = 0.5
B m x(m)
(1) m > 2.5 kg (2) None 2
(3) m  2.5 kg (4) m  2.5 kg
41. Two blocks A and B having masses 5 kg and 3 kg
are connected by a massless string and are placed 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 t (s)
on a horizontal plane as shown in figure. If B is
pulled by 8 N horizontally, then tension in string is
(g = 10 m/s2) (1) 0.2 Ns (2) 0.4 Ns
A B (3) 0.8 Ns (4) 1.6 Ns
5 kg 3 kg 8N
47.
 = 0.2  = 0.3 A 50 N mA=10 kg
(1) 0 N (2) 8 N mB=10 kg
(3) 2 N (4) 1 N B
42. If two balls each of mass 0.06 kg moving in
opposite directions with speed 4 m/s collide and
rebound with same speed, then impulse imparted System is initially at rest and friction coefficient
to each ball by the other is between the blocks is 0.5 while the ground surface
(1) 0.48 kg m/s (2) 0.81 kg m/s is smooth. The acceleration of two blocks
(3) 0.53 kg m/s (4) 0.92 kg m/s (1) aA=2.5 m/s2, aB=2.5 m/s2
43. A block of mass m is placed on a rough surface
(2) aA=5 m/s2, aB=2.5 m/s2
(with coefficient of friction ) inclined at  to
horizontal. If the block is just in equilibrium, then (3) aA=2.5 m/s2, aB=5 m/s2
(1)  = tan–1  (2)  = tan–1 (2)
(4) aA=2.5 m/s2, aB=0
(3)  = tan–1 (3) (4)  = tan–1 (2.5)
48. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on long
44. A body of mass 2 kg is kept stationary by pressing
horizontal ice slab. When given a velocity of 6 ms–
to a vertical wall by a force of 100 N. The coefficient 1, it is stopped by friction in 10 seconds. Then the
of friction between wall and body is 0.3. Then the
coefficient of friction is
frictional force is equal to (g=10 m/s2)
(1) 6 N (2) 20 N (1) 0.02 (2) 0.03
(3) 600 N (4) 700 N (3) 0.06 (4) 0.01
(21)
49. One end of massless rope, which passes over a 52. A horizontal force of 25N is necessary to just hold
massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of
hook C. The other end is free. Maximum tension friction between the block and the wall in 0.4. The
that the rope can bear is 640 N. With what value weight of the block is
of maximum acceleration (in ms–2) can a man of
40 kg climb up the rope? (Take g = 10 ms–2)
P
25N
(1) 2.5N (2) 20N

C
(3) 10N (4) 5N
53. Two wooden blocks are moving on a smooth

(1) 16 (2) 12 horizontal surface such that the mass m remains
(3) 8 (4) 6 stationary with respect to block of mass M as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of force F is
  
50. W hen forces F1 , F2 and F3 are acting on a
 
particle of mass m such that F2 and F3 are Smooth
mutually perpendicular, then the particle remains
 m
stationary. If the force F1 is now removed, then the F
acceleration of the particle is M
  
F1 F1
(1)  (2)
m m
(1) (M+m)g tan (2) mg tan
 
F12  F22 F3  F2 (3) mg cos (4) (M+m)g cosec
(3) (4)
m m 54. A reference frame attached to the earth
51. A person is drawing himself up and a trolley on (1) is an inertial frame by definition
which he stands with some acceleration. As height
of man increases, he increases the pulling force on
the string. The normal reaction between person and (2) Cannot be an inertial frame because the earth
the trolley will is revolving around the sun
(3) is an inertial frame because Newton’s laws are

applicable
(4) is an inertial frame because the earth rotating

about its own axis
55. What should be the acceleration of traingular block

so that mass m just fly from it’s surface
m
smooth
(1) Increase
M 
(2) Decrease
(3) Remain same (1) gtan(right) (2) gtan(left)
(4) Can not be predicted as data is insufficient (3) gcot(right) (4) gcot(left)
(22)
56. A body of mass 2kg having an initial velocity u m/ 61. Calculate the tension connecting the masses of 2kg
s is undergoing the motion as given in the F-t and 3kg.
curve. Calculate its velocity in m/s after 3 second.
F is along the line of u. 4kg 3kg 2kg 1kg 100N
F(N)
(1) T=50N (2) T=70N
4
(3) T=100N (4) T=0
2
t(sec) 62. A plate of mass M is kept floating in a horizontal
position by shooting particles of mass m vertically
up from below. Each particle hits the plate with a
(1) u+6 (2) u+3 speed of u and rebounds with the same speed.
Calculate the number of particles that should be shot
(3) u+1.5 (4) u+1.33
per unit time to keep the plate in equilibrium
57. A body is moving in a banked smooth circular path
of radius 1m banked at an angle   37 with
Mg 2Mg
horizontal. Calculate its speed in m/s. (1) (2)
mu mu
15
(1) (2) 30 Mg 4Mg
4
(3) (4)
2mu mu
30
(3) (4) 15 63. A block placed at the bottom of rough incline is
4
projected upwards with some initial speed.
58. A body of mass m is tied to a string of length l and Calculate the retardation of the block while moving
is kept in a trolley. The entire system is allowed to up
slide down on a smooth incline. Calculate the
pseudo force acting on the body if the observer is
in the frame of trolley
(1) mg sin (2) mg cos
u
(3) mg tan (4) zero

59. In the arrangement shown in the figure, friction is
absent everywhere. The string and pulley are light.
The system is released from rest. If acceleration of (1) g(sin    cos )
A is ‘a’ then acceleration of B is
a (2) g(sin    cos )
B A (3) g( cos   sin )
(1) a (2) 2a (4) g( sin   cos )
a a 64. A particle of mass ‘m’ moves in a circular path of

(3) (4) radius 2m with a speed of 10m/s. Calculate the
2 2 time after which the magnitude of change in its
60. A body is at equilibrium and is being acted upon by momentum becomes equal to its initial momentum
   
three forces F1 , F2 , F3 . F1  3i  4 j  2k , 
(1) sec
 15
F2  i  j  k . Calculate the inclination of the third
force with the negative x-axis 2
(2) sec
15
1 4
(1)   cos 1 (2)   cos 1
3 42 
(3) sec
5
4 4
(3)   cos 1 (4)   cos 1
13 29 (4) Not possible
(23)
65. A body starts moving in a straight line under the 68. A block is placed on a rough plane whose inclination
influence of a variable force F. Calculate the time to the horizontal () can be varied. The angle of repose
after which the initial velocity of body becomes is 30°. The graph that correctly indicates the variation
equal to the final velocity of body for the given of the frictional force (f) between the block and the
F-t graph
plane with  is.[  s  k ]
F(in N) f f
2
t(sec)
12 (1) (2)
 
300 300
(1) ( 2  2 2 )sec (2) (2  2) sec
f f
 1 
(3) 4 sec (4)  2   sec
 2
(3) (4)
66. Blocks A and B are connected by a bar of negligible  
300
weight. If m A  mB  170 kg and  A  0.2 and
B  0.4 where  A and B are the coefficient of 69. The wedge is placed on a smooth surface and is
friction between blocks A and B and plane, then the being rotated about a vertical pole with angular
speed  with the help of a string. Over the wedge
8 a block is placed and friction co-efficient between
tension in the bar is ( tan   )
15 them is 0.5. Find the maximum value of  (in rad/
sec) for which the block does not skid up
B

A h
ug
Ro
m
(1) 250 N (2) 100 N
37° Smooth
(3) 150 N (4) 75 N
67. A monkey is climbing on the rope as shown in 20cm

figure. The string and the pulley are light. The
2 (1) 10 (2) 2
acceleration of monkey relative to rope is 2m / s
downwards. The acceleration of the monkey is
(3) 5 (4) 20
70. A particle of mass M initially at rest is split into

1 1 1
three parts of masses in the ratio of : : . The
4 4 2
5Kg first two masses move perpendicular to each other
15Kg with a speed V and 2V along y-axis and x-axis
respectively. Calculate the speed of the third particle
3 7
(1) V (2) V
2 2
11
(1) m / s2 (2) 6m / s2
2
5 V
(3) 5m / s2 (4) zero (3) V (4)
2 2
(24)
Chapter 05
Work, Energy and Power
5. Two identical masses A and B are on same vertical
1. F line. A is released from rest while B is
simultaneously projected upwards with a velocity of
F0 50 m/s. Find the velocity of the combined mass
just after collision considering perfectly inelastic
collision. (g = 10 m/s2)
x
x0
A
Calculate the net work done by the force F whose
variation with position has been shown as above.
50 m

(1) F0 x 0 50 m/s
4
B
 2 (1) 20 m/s (2) 5 m/s

(2) F0
2 (3) 15 m/s (4) 25 m/s
6. Calculate the angle ‘’ for which if the particle A is
 2 released, it undergoes perfectly elastic collision
(3) x0
8 with another identical mass B placed at rest and B
is found to just reach the horizontal position of its
(4) All of the above string
2. Conservation of mechanical energy can be applied •


(1) In all cases •
(2) If conservative and non conservative forces alone A

perform work B
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) If conservative and external forces alone perform (3) 37° (4) 53°
work
(4) If conservative force alone perform work F
3. A particle attached to a light wire of length  is

projected horizontally with a velocity of 5g .
7.
Calculate its net acceleration when wire becomes • • • • x
A B C •
D E F•
horizontal
(1) Zero (2) 10g

The force acting on a particle constrained to move
along x-axis varies as shown.
(3) g (4) 3g
Identify the correct option(s) –
4. While walking without sliding on road the work done (1) E is a neutral equilibrium position
by friction is
(2) F is a stable equilibrium position
(1) Positive (2) Zero
(3) B, D are unstable equilibrium position
(3) Negative (4) None (4) Both (1) and (3)
(25)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Work, Energy and Power
8. Calculate the acceleration of mass at the maximum 11. Two blocks in contact with each other are being
elongation of spring if a constant force acts on block pushed by a external agent as shown-
placed on smooth surface if the spring shown is in
its natural length
v0
k
m F
F m1 m2

2F
(1)
m
There is no friction anywhere and the blocks have
an instantaneous velocity v0 in the position. Find
F
(2) the instantaneous power supplied by m1 to m2
m
(3) Zero  m1F 

(1)   v0 (2) Fv0
 1  m2 
m
F
(4)
2m
2
 m1   m2F 
9. W hich among the following is correct for (3)   Fv 0 (4)   v0
 1  m2 
m  m1  m2 
conservative forces ? Work done by a conservative
force in a closed path is
12. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path
(1) positive of fixed radius r such that its centripetal
acceleration ac is varying with time as ac = k2rt2,
(2) Zero where k is constant. The power delivered to the
particle by the forces acting on it as a function of
(3) negative time t is
(4) All of these are possible (1) 2mk2r2t (2) mk2r2t
10. A spring of spring constant k is compressed by an

1
amount of x and a mass m is just placed in (3) mk4r2t5 (4) 0
3
contact with it and released. Calculate minimum
value of x for which the mass ‘m’ completes the 13. A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with
vertical circle in the circular track. 1

velocity v = ax3/2 where a = 5 m 2 s–1. The work
done by the net force during its displacement from
x = 0 to x = 2 m is
R
• (1) 1.5 J (2) 50 J
x
k (3) 10 J (4) 100 J
m
14. A body of mass m is projected vertically with a
velocity v 0 . If it passes through the point of
Natural
length v0
position projection with speed , the work done by air
2
resistance is
m 5gR m
(1) 2gR (2) 3mv 02
k 2 k (1) Zero (2) 
4
m 3mv 02 3mv 20
(3) 5gR (4) None of these
k (3) (4)
4 8
(26)
Work, Energy and Power Medical Q-Bank-2020
15. A massless spring when stretched by a force 150N 19. A pendulum consists of a wooden bob of mass m
shows an extension of 1.5m. This spring is and length . A bullet of mass m1 is fired towards
arranged as shown in figure. A block of mass 10kg the pendulum with a velocity v1. The bullet comes
is released at rest on a frictionless incline. It slides
v1
down and compresses the spring by 3m before out of the bob with speed and the bob just
coming to rest momentarily. Distance by which the 3
block slides before hitting the spring is completes motion along a vertical circle. The
vleocity v1 is
Kg
10 3 m m
(1) 5g (2) 5g
2  m1  m1
=30°
3 m 3  m1 
(1) 4m (2) 6m (3) g (4) 5g
2  m1  2  m 
(3) 9m (4) 12m
20. Displacement of a particle of mass 2kg varies with
16. Potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg moving
 x3 
 
time as S  2t 2  2t  10 m where t in sec. Find
along x-axis is given by U =   4x  12 where the total work done on the particle in a time interval
 3 
from t = 0 to t = 2s
x is in meter. For this force field consider the
following four statements and identify the correct (1) 26 J (2) 32 J
combination of statements – (3) 28 J (4) 36 J
(i) x = 2m and x = –2m are positions of 21. The diagram shows a plot of potential energy as a
equilibrium function of x for a particle moving along the x axis.
The point(s) of stable equilibrium are
(ii) x = 2m is the position of stable equilibrium
(iii) x = –2m is the position of unstable equilibrium U

(iv) Potential energy is minimum at x = 2m
(1) (i, ii) (2) (ii, iv)
(3) (i, ii, iii) (4) (i, ii, iii, iv) X

a b c d e f
17. Two perfectly elastic particles A and B of equal
masses travelling along the line joining them with (1) Only a (2) b, d
velocity 15 m/s and 10 m/s respectively collide.
Their velocity in m/s after the elastic collision will (3) Only c (4) Only e
be respectively 22. A ball x of mass 1 kg is moving with 4ms–1 along
(1) 0 and 25 (2) 5 and 20 +x axis collides elastically with another ball Y of
mass 2kg moving with 6m/s in opposite direction.
(3) 10 and 15 (4) 20 and 5 The velocity of ball y after collision will be
18. A particle of mass m1 strikes on ground with angle 2

of incidence 45° and velocity v. If coefficient of (1) m / s in  ve x  axis
3
1
restitution e = , the velocity of reflection is
2 3
(2) m / s in  ve x  axis
2
3v
(1) (2) 3v 2
2 (3) m / s in  ve x  axis
3
v v
(3) (4) 5
2 3 (4) m / s in  ve x  axis
3
(27)
23. Ball 1 collides with an another identical ball 2 at 28. A ball is dropped from height h0 and after striking
rest as shown in figure. For what value of coefficient with the ground it rises upto height h. The coefficient
of restitution e, the velocity of second ball of restitution between the ball and the ground is
becomes two times that of 1 after collision?
2
h  h 
1 2 (1) (2)  

h0  h0 
1 1
(1) (2) h  h0 
3 2 (3) (4)  
h0  h 
1 1
(3) (4) 29. A shell of mass 200g is ejected from a gun of
4 6
mass 4kg by an explosion that generates 1.05 kJ
24. A simple pendulum of length l and mass m is of energy. The initial velocity of the shell is
initially at its lowest position. It is given the
(1) 100 ms–1 (2) 80 ms–1
minimum horizontal speed necessary to move in a
circular path about the point of suspension. The (3) 40 ms–1 (4) 120 ms–1
tension in the string at the lowest positon of bob is
30. A block C of mass m is moving with velocity v0 and
(1) 3mg (2) 4mg collides elastically with block A of mass m and
(3) 5mg (4) 6mg connected to another block B of mass 2m through
a spring of spring constant K. Find the value of K,
25. A stone of mass m is tied to a string and is moved
if x 0 is the compression of the spring when
in a vertical circle of radius r and has angular
velocity n rev/min at bottom most point. The tension velocities of A and B are same.
in the string when the stone is at the lowest point
is C v0 A B smooth
(1) mg (2) m(g+nr2)
mv 02 mv 02
 2 n 2 r  (1)
x02
(2)
2x02
(3) m(g+nr) (4) m g  
 900 
26. A small block A of mass m0 is given a velocity v in 3 mv 02 2 mv 02

(3) (4)
horizontal direction as shown. The bigger block B 2 x 02 3 x 02
is initially at rest. The curved surface of the block
B becomes vertical at the top point. If M = 4m0, 31. If a particle has a velocity v0 at origin at t = 0 and
what should be the minimum value of v so that the it is acted upon by force which supplies it an
block A climbs upto the top on B? All surfaces are instantaneous power given by P = Kv2 where k is
smooth (g = 10 m/s2) a positive constant and v is instantaneous velocity.
Find the charge in momentum when it reaches a
position x = x0
4m
A m M (1) kx 0 (2) 2kx0
0 v
B kx 0
(3) (4) 4kx0
2
(1) 20 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 9 m/s (4) 2 m/s 32. A uniform chain has mass M and length L. It is
placed on a frictionless table with length l0 hanging
27. A particle accelerating uniformly has velocity v at over the edge. The chain begins to slide down. Then
time t1. Calculate the work done on the particle in the speed v with which the chain falls when the
time t(t1 > t) entire length of chain just becomes vertical is -
2
1  mv 2  2 1  mv  2 g g 2 2
(1) 2  2  t (2)   t (1) v  L  l0  (2) v  
L  l0 
 t1  2  t1  3L L
mv 2  2mv 2  2 g
(3) t2 (4)  t L  l0 
t12  2   (3) v  (4) v  2g L  l0 
 t1  L
(28)
33. For the motion of a particle attached to a string in 38. If U represents the potential energy of particle
vertical circle, at what location tension is maximum? constrained to move along x-axis then for
The motion is under the influence of gravity and U = ax2 – bx, find out the value of x where stable
tension alone.
equilibrium is attained
•C
b
B (1)
•D • 2a
•
A
• 2a
(2)
b
(1) B (2) A
(3) C (4) B and D a
(3)
34. If the maximum height of a particle after third b
collision from ground is 60 m, calculate the initial
height from which it was dropped if the coefficient (4) There is no position of stable equilibrium
of restitution is e.
60 60 39.
(1) (2)
e6 e2
k (spring constant)
60
(3) (4) 60
e3
m
35. In two dimensional elastic collision which among
the following are correct ?
(1) Momentum is always conserved of the system Calculate the maximum elongation of the spring
considering that the block is released from rest from
(2) Kinetic energy of the each particle remains
the natural length position of spring.
same throughout
(3) Momentum of colliding masses is conserved 2mg 4mg
(1) (2)
individually perpendicular to line of action if k k
there is no friction
(4) All of the above mg
(3) (4) Zero
36. Two particles of mass 1 kg each are moving in k
opposite direction with speed of 6 m/s and 4 m/s
40. Which among the following forces is an example of
and undergoes collision with coefficient of restitution
conservative forces ?
1
= . Calculate loss in kinetic energy (1) Gravity (2) Spring
2
(3) Electrostatic (4) All of the above
75 300
(1) (2) 41. Calculate the maximum compression of the spring
4 8
v k
3
(3) 75 (4) m
4
37. If U represents the potential energy associated with =0
a particle constrained to move under the action of
a conservative force F, then in stable equilibrium
k m
(1) v (2) v
dU m k
(1) 0 (2) U is minimum
dr
k 2k
dF (3) v (4) v
(3) 0 (4) All of the above 2m m
dr
(29)
42. If a particle loses 20% of its speed after penetrating 47. When we drop a block of mass m from the relaxed
through a single plank. Calculate the minimum position of a spring of stiffness k from rest, the
number of planks required to completely stop the compression where speed of the block is maximum
is
plank.
(1) 6 (2) 8
m
(3) 4 (4) 3
43. A particle slides on the surface of a fixed smooth k
sphere starting from the topmost point. Find the
angle rotated by the radius through the particle,
when it leaves contact with the sphere.
mg mg
2 (1) (2)
 11 1 k 2k
(1) cos   (2) cos  
3 3
2mg 4mg
 1 2 (3) (4)
(3) tan   1
(4) tan  
1 k k
3 3
48. The potential energy of a 1 kg particle free to move
44. A uniform rope of length  lies on table. If the
coefficient of friction is  then the maximum length  x 4 x2 
x, of the part of this rope which can overhang from along x-axis is given by U  x      J . The
 4 2 
the edge of the table without sliding down is
total mechanical energy of the particle is 2J. Then
  the maximum speed in (m/s) is
(1) (2)
  1
1
(1) (2) 2
  2
(3) (4)
 1  1
3
45. The force acting on an object varies with the (3) (4) 2
distance travelled by the object as shown in figure. 2
Work done by the force in moving the object from
x = 0 m to x = 4m is 49. If, M >> m for the elastic collision between the
smooth bodies of masses M and m, the maximum
F(N) compression of the spring of stiffness k will be
4N v k
M m
x(m)
0 6 m v m
(1) v (2)
k 2 M
16
(1) 4 J (2) J
3
m m
(3) 2v (4) v
4 k 2k
(3) J (4) 12 J
3
50. A ball of mass m is released from a height h. If the
46. A block slides down an inclined plane of inclination
 with constant velocity. It is then projected up the 1
coefficient of restitution e  , the energy loss
inclined plane with an initial speed u. How far up 2
the incline will it move before coming to rest ? during collision is
u2 u2 mgh mgh
(1) (2) (1) (2)
4gsin gsin 2 4
u2 u2 3mgh 2mgh
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2gsin  g 4 3
(30)
51. A bullet of mass m hits the hanging block, of same 57. The work done by friction force
mass inelastically with a velocity v. The change in
tension in the string just before and after collision (1) may be positive or zero negative
is (2) is always negative
mv 2 2mv 2 (3) is always zero

(1) (2)  mg
  (4) is always positive
58. In a conservative field the potential energy U as a
 v2  2mv 2 function of position x is given by U = x2. Then the
(3) m  g   (4) corresponding conservative force is given by
 2  3
(1) x (2) 2x
52. A position dependent force F = (7 – 2x + 3x 2 ) (3) –x (4) –2x
newton acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and
59. A constant horizontal force is applied on the
displaces it from x = 0 m to x = 5 m. The work
hanging bob of a simple pendulum of mass m,
done by the force is starting from vertical position as shown-
(1) 0 J (2) 270 J
(3) 80 J (4) 135 J 

53. A water pump can pump 400 kg of water upto
height of 100 m in 10 s. Then average power •
delivered by the pump, is
(1) 20 kW (2) 40 kW
m• F
(3) 80 kW (4) 400 kW
The string deflects through a maximum angle .
54. A block of mass 50 g moving with a speed of 10
m/s on smooth horizontal surface strikes a spring F
Find
of force constant 2000 N/m. The maximum mg
compression in the spring is (1) tan  (2) cot 
v = 10 m/s  

(3) cot   (4) tan  
2 2
K = 2000 N/m
m = 50 g 60. A particle of mass 6kg moving with a velocity of 10
m/s collides with another particle of 3kg at rest
1
initially. If the coefficient of restitution is e  ,
(1) 0.025 m (2) 0.10 m 2
calculate loss in kinetic energy
(3) 0.05 m (4) Zero
(1) 75 J (2) 100 J
55. Linear momentum of a body is increased by 10% (3) 125 J (4) 200 J
keeping mass constant. Increase in the Kinetic 61. A particle strikes the surface and rebounds as
energy is shown in the figure. Calculate the coefficient of
restitution ‘e’
(1) 21% (2) 44%
(3) 144% (4) 20%

37° 53°
56. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving along x-axis at
time t. Its position is given as x = t2. The work done
by the force acting on it in time interval t = 0 s to t
8 9
= 5 s, is (1) (2)
9 25
(1) 900 J (2) 150 J
9 12
(3) 120 J (4) 100 J (3) (4)
16 16
(31)
62. A particle is dropped from a height of 80 m and the 66. If there is work done on a system only by non-
coefficient of restitution of its collision with the conservative force, then potential energy of system
1 due to this work will
ground is e  . Calculate the total distance
2 (1) Increase
covered by the particle before it finally stops (2) Decrease
400 (3) Remain constant
(1) 400 m (2) m (4) Increase or decrease depending upon direction
3
of force
1600 200 67. Two balls having mass m1 and m2 respectively are
(3) m (4) m moving with equal kinetic energy, then ratio of their
3 3
linear momentum will be
63. Two particles undergoes perfecting inelastic collision
as shown in the figure. The final speed of the m1 m2
bodies (1) (2)
m2 m1
10 m/s
5 m/s
• • m1 m2
(3) (4)
2kg 3kg m2 m1
(1) 7 m/s (2) 4 m/s 68. A sphere of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of
0.4 m onto a spring having force constant
(3) 3 m/s (4) 1 m/s
1960 N/m, then maximum compression of spring
64. A small sphere undergoes vertical circular motion will be (g = 9.8 m/s2)
inside a smooth vertical tube where sphere just fits
(1) 0.1 m (2) 0.15 m
inside the tube as shown in the diagram. Calculate
minimum speed required at the bottom-most so (3) 0.2 m (4) 0.25 m
that it could go in the complete loop
69. A power P is required in maintaining the liquid flow
through a pipe at velocity v. If the speed of flow is
doubled the new power required will be
R (1) 8P (2) 4P
• (3) 2P (4) P
v= ?? 70. Which of the following is not possible ?

(1) W ork done by external agent = change in
potential energy
(1) 5gR (2) 4gR
(2) Work done by external agent = change in total
(3) 3gR (4) 6gR mechanical energy
 (3) Work done by conservative force = change in

65. The potential energy of a force field F is given in potential energy
terms of co-ordinates by U(x,y) = cos(x + y). The (4) Work done by friction is positive
force acting on a particle at position given by co-
71. A block of mass m is attached to an undeformed
ordinate (0, /4) is
spring of stiffness constant ‘k’ as shown in figure
and released. Assume spring, string and pulley be
1  
(1) 
2
 
i j ideal. The maximum displacement of block is
k
1  
(2)
2
i j  
m
 i 3 
(3)  2  2 j  2mg mg
  (1) (2)
k k
 i  3  mg 3mg
(4)  2  2 j  (3) (4) ]
  2k 2k
(32)
72. Two springs are stretched by applying forces in two 76.

situations v=10 m/s k
m m m smooth
k1
(A) F
All blocks are identical and are of mass 1kg. The
k2 two blocks attached with the light spring are initially
F F
(B) at rest. If the collision is perfectly inelastic the
If the potential energy stored in them are UA and UB maximum compression of the spring after the
then the ratio UA : UB is collision can be (k=60,000 Nm–1)
(1) 1.67 cm (2) 3.33 cm
k1 k2
(1) (2) (3) 5.56 cm (4) 1.11 cm
k2 k1
77. A body of mass ‘m’ is moving in a vertical circle by
k2 k1 means of an inextensible string of length . The
(3) (4) tension in the string is 2mg when the body is at
k1 4k 2 the highest point. The speed of the body as it
73. Two blocks of mass m and 2m are moving towards passes the lowermost point will be
each other along the same line with velocities 5v
and v respectively. If the collision is perfectly (1) 5g (2) 3g
inelastic the energy lost in the collision is,
(3) 7g (4) 6g
5v v
m 2m 78. Figure shows the force (F) versus displacement (S)
(1) 5 mv2 (2) 7 mv2 graph for a particle of mass m=2kg initially at rest.
The particle once again has its speed zero at x
(3) 10 mv2 (4) 12 mv2
equal to
v F(N)
72 km/h
74.
A ball is thrown towards a moving train from behind

as shown. If the coefficient of restitution is 10
‘e’ = 1/3, the speed with which the ball is thrown 5 3
so that the ball comes to rest after the collision will 0
be 1 x(m)
(1) 80 m/s (2) 20 m/s
–10
(3) 60 m/s (4) 100 m/s
75. The power supplied by gravity to a projectile thrown
from ground varies as
(1) 4m (2) 5m
P (3) 6m (4) 7m
79. A particle of mass m projected with velocity
t 2gR from the lowermost point of smooth vertical

t0 circular track of radius R as shown. Then –
C
–P0
The projectile was of mass m and projected with
speed u and angle  with vertical. Find P0 and t0.
B
usin 
(1) mgusin,
g
ucos 
(2) mgusin, A
g
(1) Particle complete circular path
usin  (2) Particle will leave the track between points B
(3) mgucos,
g and C
(3) Particle starts oscillation about point ‘A’
ucos 
(4) mgucos, (4) Depends on mass of the particle
g
(33)
80. A truck moving on horizontal road with contant 85. Two particles of equal mass ‘m’ are connected by
acceleration of 2m/s2. A block of mass 2 kg kept a spring of spring constant K kept on a smooth
inside truck. An observer also stands at rest in the floor. Each of the bodies are given equal speed v in
truck, then work done by pseudo force on block in the opposite direction. Calculate the maximum
5 sec will be (There is no relative motion between compression of the spring.
truck and block)
2m m
(1) v (2) v
k k
a
2Kg v m v 2m
(3) (4)
2 k 2 k
86. What is number of positions for which a body is in
(1) –50J (2) +50J stable equilibrium as per the following graph in
which the net force F acting on a particle
(3) 0J (4) +100J
constrained to move along x-axis has been shown.
81. A uniform rope has mass m and length l. It is held F
on a frictionless table with one-sixth of its length
hanging over the edge. The work done in just
pulling the hanging part back on the table is
mgl mgl
(1) (2) x
72 36
mgl mgl (1) Zero (2) Five (3) One (4) Three
(3) (4)
12 6
87. A body of mass m is tied to a string of length l tied
82. A particle of mass m is fixed to a string of length to top of a trolley moving with an acceleration ‘a’.
‘’. The particle is given a horizontal velocity of Calculate the maximum angle the string will make
with the vertical.
5gl at the lowermost position. Calculate the net
acceleration when the string becomes horizontal.
 a
l
(1) 10g (2) 3g
(3) g (4) 2g
83. A projectile is thrown from horizontal ground with an
initial velocity ‘u’ at an angle  above horizontal.
a a
The particle undergoes inelastic collisions with the (1) tan-1   (2) 2tan-1  
ground having a coefficient of restitution ‘e’.  g g
Calculate the range between 2nd and 3rd collision
1 a  a 
 u2 sin2   u2 sin2 
2 (3) tan-1   (4) tan-1  
(1) e  e   2 g
g
 (2)
 g   2g 
 
88. Two blocks with masses m1=3kg and m2=5kg are
2
3  u sin2  1  u2 sin2  connected by a light string that slides over a
(3) e   (4) 3   frictionless pulley as shown in figure. Initially m2 is
 g  e  g  held 5m above the floor while m1is on the floor. The
system is then released. Find the speed at which
84. A particle of mass 4kg moving with a speed of m2 hit the floor (g = 10 m/s 2)
10m/s collides with a train moving in an opposite
direction with a speed of 20m/s. If coefficient of
1
restitution e= calculate the final speed of the
2
particle.(in m/s)
m2
m1 5m
(1) 5 (2) 15
(3) 20 (4) 35 (1) 10m/s (2) 7m/s (3) 5m/s (4) 12m/s
(34)
89. A particle of mass m is fixed at the lower end of a 94. A certain system has potential energy given by the
massless rod. The rod is given a velocity 4gl at function U(x)  ax 2  bx 4 with constants a,b>0.
Select from the following that is an unstable
the lower most position. Calculate the compression
equilibrium point
in the rod at the topmost position
(1) 0 (2) 2mg
(1) 0 (2) a / 2b
(3) 4mg (4) mg
90. A body of mass ‘m’ is released from a rough hill of
height h such that the velocity at the lower most (3)  a / 2b (4) a/b
gh 95. Calculate the work done by gravity when a body of

point is . Calculate the magnitude of work mass ‘m’ is displaced slowly by a force ‘F’ for
2
done by friction.   600 from position (A) to position (B)
mgh 3
(1) (2) mgh
4 4

mgh
(3) mgh (4)
2
91. A particle of mass m is released on a smooth
track in vertical plane which transforms into a
circular arc of radius R. Find the reaction force
exerted at the bottom most position.
mgl mgl
m (1) (2) -
2 2
3 3
3R R (3)  mgl (4) mgl
2 2
96. The velocity of a particle of mass m moving along

x-axis depends on x-coordinate as v  k x where
(1) 6mg (2) 7mg k is a positive constant. Total work done by all the
(3) 5mg (4) 9mg forces on the particle as it goes from x=0 to x=a
92. A body is dropped from a height of 80m which after is
re-bounding from the ground surface rises to a height
of 40m.Calculate coefficient of restitution of the surface 3 2
(1) mak (2) mak 2
1 2
1
(1) (2)
2 2
2 2
mak mak
1 (3) (4)
(3) zero (4) 3 2
4
93. A block of 8kg acted by a force of 56N exerted by a 97. Two identical block ‘A’ and ‘B’ each of mass m are
string in vertically upward direction as shown- placed on a smooth horizontal plane. At t=0 Block
B is given a velocity of 5 m/s. Calculate the
The system starts from rest. Find the work done by
compression in the spring when velocity of A is 3
tension in 1st 10 seconds
m/s, given spring constant of ideal spring is k.
56N 5m/s
B A
8Kg 8m 10m
(1) (2)
k k
(1) 4200J (2) 19600J 4m 12m

(3) (4)
(3) –8400J (4) –4200J k k
(35)
98. What should be the minimum velocity that should 100. A block of mass m is suspended from a string of
be imparted to a body of mass ‘m’ fixed at the length l. It is struck by a bullet of half the mass of
lower end of a massless rod of length l so that it block moving with speed u. The bullet gets embedded
can complete a circular loop? as soon as it strikes the block. Then find the
minimum value of u for which the combined mass
(1) 2 gl completes vertical circle.
(2) 5gl
l
(3) 6gl
u
M
M
/2
(4) 3gl
(1) 45gl (2) 15gl (3) 5gl (4) 30gl
99. A body of mass 1kg is moving in the upward 101. In the figure shown, a small object is released from
2 the position A on a smooth track. When the object
direction with an acceleration of 2m / s . Calculate
reaches at B then normal reaction on it by the track
the work done by tension in first second. (at t=0,
is
u=0)
T
2
1kg 2m/s
(1) 10 Joule 2mg 2

m g
(1) mg (2) (3) 2mg (4)
3 h
(2) 12 Joule
102. Power supplied to a particle varies with time as
(3) 24 Joule 2
P = (3t - 2t +1) watt, where t is in second. Find the
(4) 20 Joule change in its kinetic energy between time t=2sec
and t=4sec
(1) 32J (2) 46J (3) 61J (4) 102J

(36)
Chapter 06
System of Particles and Rotational Motion
1. The position vector of center of mass of four point 5. A particle of mass m is projected from origin O with
masses is speed u at an angle  with positive x-axis. Positive
y axis is in vertical upward direction. Find the
y(m)
angular momentum of particle at any time t about
m3=5kg
5 O before the particle strikes the ground again
m2=4kg
3
1
(1)  m  ucos   gt k (2) m(ucos) gt 3 k
2
1
x(m) 2
1
–5 –4 –3 –2 –1 –1 2 3 4
1
m4=1kg
–2 m1=2kg
(3) m  ucos   gt 2 k (4) –m(ucos) gt 3 k
–3 2
–4 6. ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre,
  
F1, F2 and F3 represent three forces acting along the
(1) 0.42i  2.75j (2) 2.3i  0.42j
sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque

(3) 2.3i  0.42j (4) 2.3i  0.81j about O is zero then the magnitude of F3 is
A
2. The position of centre of mass of the uniform lamina
shown in figure is F3
y O
B
F2
F1 C
   
(1) F1  F2 (2) F1  F2
x (3) F1 + F2 (4) F1 – F2
a 7. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius r is rotating
about its axis with a constant angular velocity w. Two
objects, each of mass m are attached gently to the
 a  a a  opposite ends of a diameter of the ring. The ring now
(1)  0,   (2)  ,  rotates with an angular velocity
 6  6 6 
wM w M  2m 
(1) (2)
 a  mM M  2m
(3)  ,0  (4) (0,0)
 6 
wM w M  2m 
3. A projectile is fired at a speed of 100 m/s at an (3) (4)
M  2m M
angle of 37° above the horizontal. At the highest
point, the projectile breaks into two parts of mass 8. A uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius r
ratio 1:3, the smaller coming to rest. Find the shown in the figure slips on a rough horizontal
plane. At some instant it has translational velocity
distance from the launching point to the point where
the heavier piece lands v0
v0 and rotational velocity about the centre .
2r
(1) 960 m (2) 1120 m
Find the translational velocity after the sphere starts
(3) 830 m (4) 720 m pure rolling
w = vo
4. Two spherical bodies of mass M and 5M and radii
2r
R and 2R are released in free space with initial O vo
separation between their centres equal to 12R. If r
they attract each other due to gravitational force
only, then the distance covered by the smaller body 5 6
(1) v (2) v
before collision is 7 0 7 0
(1) 1.5R (2) 2.5R
4 2
(3) v (4) v
(3) 4.5R (4) 7.5R 7 0 5 0
(37)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 System of Particles and Rotational Motion
 14. The moment of inertia of the two uniform joint rods
9. A force F  i  3j  6k is acting at a point
about axis passing through P and perpendicular to
 plane is
r  2i  6j  12k . The value of  for which angular
momentum about origin is conserved is M,
P
(1) 2 (2) Zero
(3) 1 (4) –1 M,
10. Three mass are placed on a light rod as shown in
figure. For equilibrium of the system, value of mass
m should be
M2 2M2
(1) (2)
12kg m 3kg 3 3
3M 2 5M2
(3) (4)
4 3
(1) 3 kg (2) 15 kg 15. Two rings of same mass and radius R are placed
(3) 21 kg (4) 1 kg with their planes perpendicular to each other and
11. A ladder of mass M and length L is supported in centres at a common point. The radius of gyration
equilibrium against a smooth vertical wall and a of the system about an axis passing through the
rough horizontal surface. If  be the angle of centre and perpendicular to plane of one ring is
inclination of the rod with the horizontal then
normal reaction of the wall on the ladder is R
(1) 2R (2)
2
smooth
3 3R
 (3) R (4) .
2 2
rough
16. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls down
Mg an inclined plane of height h without slipping. The
(1) Mg (2)
2 tan  speed of its centre of mass when it reaches the
bottom is
Mgcot  Mg
(3) (4)
3 2cos  4
(1) 2gh (2) gh
12. A square plate has a moment of inertia 0 about an 3
axis lying in the plane, passing through its cente
and making an angle  with one of the sides.
3 4g
Which graph represents the variation of I with  ? (3) gh (4)
4 h
 
R
(1) 0 (2) 17. A spherical part of radius is removed from a
2
  bigger solid sphere of radius R. Assuming uniform
mass distribution, shift in the centre of mass will be
 
0 0
(3) . (4)
  R
R
13. The moment of inertia of a uniform semicircular wire 2
of mass m and radius r, about an axis passing
through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its
plane is
R R
mr 2 (1) (2)
(1) (2) mr2 7 14
2
 4   4  R R
(3) mr2  1  (4) mr2  1  (3) (4)
  9 3
 2   2 
(38)
System of Particles and Rotational Motion Medical Q-Bank-2020
18. A 400 kg boat is 6m long. It is floating in still water 22. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass
and is at rest. A person of mass 80 kg moves from density  is bent into a circular loop with centre O
one end of the boat to the other. Displacement of as shown. The moment of inertia of the loop about
the boat relative to water is an axis XX is
(1) 1m in a direction opposite to the displacement
x x
of person 90°
O
(2) 0.5m in a direction opposite to the
displacement of person
L3 L3
(3) 1.5m in a direction opposite to the (1) (2)
displacement of person 8 2 16 2
(4) 1.5m in the direction of displacement of 5L3 3L3

person (3) (4)
16 2 8 2
19. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving on a straight line
y = –2x+4 with velocity 2 m/s. Then magnitude of
angular momentum of the particle w.r.t. origin is 23. Figure shows a hemisphere of radius 4R. A solid
ball of radius R is released from position A. It rolls
16 Kgm2 without slipping along the inner surface of the
32 Kgm2
(1) (2) hemisphere. Linear speed of its centre of mass
5 sec 5 sec when the ball is at position B is
A
8 Kgm2 Kgm2 4R
(3) (4) 32 5
5 sec sec
B
20. A uniform cubical block of size a is moving with
velocity v on the horizontal smooth plane as shown
30gR 24gR
in figure. It hits a small ridge at O. The angular (1) (2)
speed of the block after it hits O assuming it does 7 5
not jump off is
a
40gR
(3) (4) 6gR
v 9
O 24. A uniform solid cylinder of radius R is spun and
then placed on an incline having coefficient of
3v 3v friction  = tan ( is the angle of incline). The
(1) (2) cylinder continues to spin wihout falling for time
4a 2a
w0
3v
(3) (4) Zero
2a

21. A uniform cubical block is held stationary against
Rwo Rwo
a rough wall by applying a force F, then which of (1) (2)
the following statement is correct ? 3g sin  2g sin 
2a
Rwo 2Rwo
(3) gsin  (4) gsin 
a F
25. A solid sphere of radius R is gently placed on a
rough horizontal ground with an initial angular speed
w0 and no linear speed. the angular velocity w and
(1) Normal reaction will pass from the center of linear velocity v at the end of slipping is
cube
2 2
(2) Normal reaction will act above the centre (1) w0, w0R (2) w0, Rw0
3 3
(3) Normal reaction will pass below the center
(4) Torque of friction will be zero about the center 2 2 2 2
(3) w0, Rw0 (4) w0, Rw0
of the cube 5 5 7 7
(39)
26. A disc is made to rotate about a horizontal fixed 30. In the arrangement shown in figure if the system is
axis with the help of a body of mass 5kg attached released from rest, the acceleration of centre of
to a string wound around the disc. The radius of the mass of system is (pulley and string are ideal)
disc is 10 cm. The body falls vertically through 10m
in 10s starting from rest. The moment of inertia of
the disc is (g = 10 m/s2)
2kg
1kg
(1) 3.85 kgm2 (2) 4.85 kgm2

g g
(1) downward (2) upward
(3) 5.85 kgm2 (4) 2.45 kgm2 6 3
27. An inclined plane makes an angle of 30° with

g g
horizontal. A ring rolling down this inclined plane (3) downward (4) upward
from rest without slipping has a linear acceleration 9 5
equal to
31. A child with mass m is standing at the edge of a
horizontal merry go round having moment of Inertia
2g g I, radius R and Initial velocity w as shown in figure.
(1) (2)
3 2 The child jumps off the edge of merry go round with
tangential velcoity v with respect to ground. The
new angular velocity of merry go round is
g g
(3) (4)
3 4 V
28. A uniform cubical block of side L rests on a rough

horizontal surface with cofficient of friction . A w
horizontal force F is applied on the block as +
shown. If the coefficient of friction is sufficiently high
so that the block does not slip before toppling, the
shift in the normal reaction from the centre of the
cube is Iw2  mv 2
(1)
I
F
a
(2)
 I  mR  w
2 2
 mv 2
I
Fa Fa
(1) (2) Iw  mvR
2Mg Mg (3)
I
2Fa Fa
(3)
Mg
(4)
4Mg (4)
 I  mR  w  mvR
2
I
29. A particle of mass 2m is projected at an angle of 32. Four thin rods each of mass m and length  are
joined to make a square. The moment of Inertia of
45° with horizontal with velocity of 20 2 m/s. After
all four rods about any side of square is
1s explosion takes place and the particle is broken
into two equal pieces. As a result of explosion one
part comes to rest. The maximum height attained 5m 2 4m 2
(1) (2)
by other part will be (g=10m/s2) 3 3
(1) 40m (2) 25m 7 3

(3) m2 (4) m2
(3) 30m (4) 35m 4 2
(40)
33. If the force F is applied at the top of disc of mass 37. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity v
4 kg and radius 0.25 m. The maximum value of F at an angle 60° with horizontal. When the particle
for no slipping will be is at its maximum height, the magnitude of its
angular momentum about the point of projection is
F
3mv 3
(1) Zero (2)
16g
=0.6
3 mv 3 3mv 3
(1) 40 N (2) 56 N (3) (4)
16g 8g
(3) 72 N (4) 144 N
38. A thin circular disc of radius R is cut into two
34. A small solid cylinder of radius r is released halves. One half of the disc has mass m and is
coaxially from point A inside the fixed large shown below. The moment of inertia of the half disc
cylindrical bowl of radius R as shown in figure. If the about AB is
friction between the small and large cylinder is
sufficient enough to prevent any slipping then what
A
fraction of total kinetic energy will be rotational
Kinetic energy ?
m
A B
R
1 1
(1) mR 2 (2) mR 2
2 4
2 1
(1) (2) 1 1
3 3 mR 2 mR 2
(3) (4)
6 8
4 5 39. A thin metal disc of radius 0.25m and mass 2kg
(3) (4)
3 3 starts from rest and rolls down without slipping on
an incline. If its rotational kinetic energy is 4 joule
35. A disc and a solid sphere of same mass and radius at the foot of the incline then the linear velocity of
roll down an inclined plane. The ratio of frictional centre of mass at the same point is
force acting on disc and sphere is
(1) 2 ms–1 (2) 2 2 ms–1
7 5
(1) (2) (3) 2 3 ms–1 (4) 3 2 ms–1
6 4
40. A solid cylinder rolls down an inclined plane of
height 3m and reaches the bottom of the plane with
3 4
(3) (4)
2 5 angular velocity 2 2 rad s –1 . The radius of
cylinder must be
36. Acceleration of centre of mass of uniform spherical
(1) 5 m (2) 0.5 m
shell rolling down the inclined plane making an
angle 30° with horizontal (3) 10 m (4) 5 m
41. A cubical block of mass m and edge length a slides
down a rough inclined plane of inclination  with a
uniform speed. The torque of the normal force
acting on the block about its centre is
m
u
3g g 
(1) (2)
10 5
1 1
(1) ma sin  (2) mag sin 
2 2
g 2g
(3) (4) (3) amg cos (4) Zero
3 3
(41)
42. A wire of mass m and length "  " bent in the form 
47. A force F  2i  3j  5k N acts at a point
 
of an arc of a circle subtends an angle  at its
centre. Its moment of inertia (I) about an axis 
through centre of circle and normal to the plane of r1  2i  4j  7k m . The torque of the force
 
circle varies as

  
(1) I   (2) I  –2 
about the point r2  i  2j  3k m is 
3
(3) I   2 (4) I  0
43. The position vectors of three particles of mass m1

(1) 17i  5k  3j Nm
= 1 kg, m 2 = 2 kg and m 3 = 3 kg are

r1  i  4j  k m ,
 

r2  i  j  k m
  and
(2)  2i  4j  6k  Nm

r3  2i  j  2k m respectively. The position vector
  (3) 12i  5j  7k  Nm
of their centre of mass is
i  3j  k m 1   
(4) 13j  22i  k  Nm
(1)   (2)
2

3i  j  k m
48. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth
horizontal plane with velocity vo in a circule of
1    1   
(3)
2

i  3j  k m  (4)
3
 
i  2j  k m radius Ro. The mass is attached to a string which
passes through a smooth hole in the plane as
shown
44. The linear mass density of a thin rod of length 
varies with the distance x from one end as  =
x2
o . The position of centre of mass of rod from Ro
2
vo
same end is at a distance of
3
(1) (2) 
4
  The tension in the string is increased gradually and

(3) (4)
2 4 slowly and finally m moves in a circle of radius
45. A wooden plank of mass 20 kg is resting on a Ro
. The final value of kinetic energy is
smooth horizontal floor. A man of mass 60 kg starts 2
moving from one end of the plank to the other end.
The length of plank is 10m. Find the displacement
1
of the plank over the floor when the man reaches (1) mv o2 (2) mv o2
the other end of the plank 2
1
(3) mv o2 (4) 2 mv o2
4
10m
49. A horizontal disc rotating freely about a vertical
(1) 7.2 m (2) 6.5 m axis through its centre makes 90 revolutions per
(3) 7.5 m (4) 8.5 m minute. A small piece of wax of mass m falls
vertically on the disc and sticks to it at a
46. A particle of mass 5 kg is moving with a uniform distance r from the axis. If the number of
revolutions per minute reduce to 60, then
speed 3 2 in xy plane along the line y = x+4.
moment of inertia of disc is
The magnitude of its angular momentum about the
origin is
3 2
(1) 40 units (2) 60 units (1) mr2 (2) mr
2
(3) Zero (4) 40 2 units (3) 2 mr2 (4) 3 mr2
(42)
50. A uniform solid sphere is thrown on a horizontal 54. A small object of uniform density rolls up a rough
rough surface with initial velocity u without angular curved surface without slipping with an initial
motion. What will be its speed, when it starts pure velocity v. It reaches upto a maximum height of
rolling motion ? 3v 2
with respect to the initial position. The object
4g
3u 2u
(1) (2) is
5 5
(1) Solid sphere (2) Hollow sphere
(3) Disc (4) Ring
5u 2u
(3) (4) 55. Three particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg are
7 7 situated at the corners of an equilateral traingle of
side b as shown in the figure. The coordinates of
51. Three thin uniform rods each of mass m and length
the centre of mass are
L are joined to form an equilateral triangle as
shown in the figure. The moment of inertia about an y
axis passing through the centre of mass of the 3 kg
system and perpendicular to the plane ? •
L,M
•
1 kg •
2 kg x
ML2
(1) 2 ML2 (2)  7b 3 3b 
2 (1)  0, , 
 2 12 

2 2
ML ML
(3) (4)  3 3b 7b 
3 6 (2)  , ,0 
 
 12 12 
52. From a uniform circular disc of radius R and mass
R  7b 3 3b 
9M, a small disc of mass M and radius is (3)  , ,0 
3 
 12 12 
removed concentrically. The moment of inertia of
the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to
the plane of the disc and passing through its centre  7b 3 3b 
(4)  ,0, 
is  12 12 
40 56. A bomb of mass 4m is projected with velocity v at

(1) MR2 (2) MR2 an angle  with horizontal. At maximum height it
9 explodes into two equal parts. One part falls at point
of projection. Then at what distance from the point
4 of projection other part will fall ?
(3) 4MR2 (4) MR2
9
2v 2 sin2 v 2 sin2 
(1) (2)
53. Figure shows a thin uniform metallic triangular g g
sheet ABC. The mass of the sheet is M. The
moment of inertia of the sheet about side AC is v 2 sin 2 v 2 sin2 
(3) (4)
g 2g
A B
57. Three identical rods, each of length x, are joined to
form a rigid equilateral triangle. Its radius of gyration
about an axis passing through a corner and
perpendicular to the plane of triangle is
C
x x
M2 M 2 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 3 2
18 12
3 x
M2 M 2 (3) x (4)
(3) (4) 2 2
6 4
(43)
58. A body of mass m slides down on smooth incline 63. The following figure shows two situations in which
and reaches the bottom with a velocity v. If the two same uniform round rigid body are released
same mass was in form of a ring rolls down without from rest from the position shown, such that it is
slipping over another incline from same vertical just able to loop without leaving contact with the
height, the velocity of the ring at the bottom would track. Assuming that radius of the both circular
have been track is same and it is large in comparison to the
(1) v (2) 2v h1
radius of round body, the ratio is-
h2
v 2
(3) (4) v
2 5
59. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R is placed
•
on a rough horizontal surface. It is pulled by a
horizontal force F acting through its centre of mass h1
as a result of which it begins to roll without slipping.
Angular acceleration of the sphere can be R
expressed as
smooth surface
3F 5F
(1) (2)
4MR 7MR •
7F 5F
(3) (4) h2
11MR 2MR
60. A uniform disc is thrown on a horizontal rough
surface in such a way that it slides with speed v0 R
intially without angular motion. It will start rolling
Rough surface and no slipping motion
without slipping when its speed reduces to
v0 2v 0 (1) must be greater than 1
(1) (2)
2 3
(2) must be less than 1
3v 0 5v 0
(3) (4) (3) must be equal to 1
5 7
61. A uniform rod AB of length  and mass m is free
(4) can be less than or greater than 1 depending
to rotate vertically about a fixed point A. The rod is
upon the moment of inertia of the round body
released from rest in the horizontal position. The
initial angular acceleration of the rod will be 64. Three uniform solid spheres each of mass M and
• radius R are placed along x-axis as shown in figure
A B then moment of inertia of system about y-axis is
3g 2g y
(1) (2)
2 3
g 3g x
(3) (4)
2 4
62. A cubical block is on a rough fixed incline plane of
angle of inclination . What is the shift in normal
reaction from the center of the cubical block, if 8MR 2
(1)
block is at just rest ? 5
a
m
 24MR 2
(2)
5

36MR 2
a (3)
(1) (2) a tan 5
2
a a 46MR 2
(3) tan  (4)  tan  (4)
2 2 5
(44)
65. One quarter sector is cut from a uniform circular 1

disc of radius R. This sector has mass M. It is 69. If suddenly earth shrinks to of its present radius
n
made to rotate about a line perpendicular to its without any change in its mass, then length of day
plane and passing through the centre of the original will be (in hour)
disc. Its moment of inertia about the axis of
rotation is 24
(1) 24 n2 (2)
n2
24
(3) 24 n (4)
n
70. A rigid body can be hinged about any point on the
x-axis. When it is hinged such that the hinge is at
x, the moment inertia is given by I = 2x2 – 12x +
27, the x-co-ordinate of centre of mass is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 5 (4) 3
71. A block of mass M, length L and height H is kept at
1 1 rest on a rough inclined plane of inclination  with
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
2 4 the horizontal as shown. If  is the coefficient of friction
between the block and the inclined plane, then the
1 block topples over if
(3) MR 2 (4) 2 MR 2
8 L H
M
66. A non uniform ring of radius R and mass m has mass
per unit length  which varies with . Moment of inertia
of the ring about the axis XX through centre normal

to the plane is
(1) tan= L/H (2) tan> L/H
X
(3) tan< L/H (4) tan= L/2H
72. A solid cylinder is rolling without slipping on a

plane having inclination  and the coefficient of
static friction s. and kinetic friction k. The most
appropiate relationship–
X
(1) tan   2 s (2) tan   3 s
3 (3) tan   2 k (4) tan   3 k
R
(1) mR2 (2) 73. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R rolls on a
3
horizontal sphere without slipping. The ratio of
rotational kinetic energy to total kinetic energy is
R 3 1
(3) (4) mR2
2 2 1 3
(1) (2)
2 7
67. Two identical particles move towards each other with 2
2
velocities 2v and v respectively. The velocity of (3) (4)
centre of mass is 7 10
74. A solid sphere placed on a fixed rough surface is
v pulled horizontally using a force F. If it undergoes
(1) v (2) pure rolling the frictional force developed is,
3
v
(3) (4) Zero •
2 F
68. A disk is rotating about its own axis with constant rough
angular acceleration after starting from rest. Then
ratio of total angle rotated by it after 1, 2 and 3 2F 3F
second are in ratio (1) (2)
7 5
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 3 : 5 5F
(3) (4) 2F
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 7
(45)
75. A solid uniform circular disc of mass m and radius 79. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R having
R is spinning with angular velocity w about its moment of inertia I about its diameter is recast into
center of mass and is gently placed upon rough solid disc of radius r and thickness t. The moment
horizontal surface. The angular velocity of rotation of inertia of disc about edge and perpendicular to
when pure rolling start plane is I, then
w w
(1) (2) R R
3 2 (1) r  (2) r 
15 4
2w 3w
(3) (4)
3 4 R 2R
(3) r  (4) r 
76. A block of mass m is supported by a massless 4 15
inextensible string wound around a uniform hollow
cylinder of mass m and radius R as shown in figure 80. Two particles A and B of same mass m are moving
where block accelerates in vertical direction. If the perpendicular to each other with equal speeds v. The
string does not slip on the cylinder, then speed of their center of mass is
acceleration of the block.
v
m,R
v
m m
(1) v (2) 2v
v
(3) (4) v 2
2
m
81. When string doesn’t slip over the uniform cylindrical
pulley of mass 4kg then what is the tension T1 in the
2g g left side of the string as shown in diagram? The axis
(1) (2)
3 2 of the solid cylinder is horizontal and there is no
friction at the axle. Take gravitational acceleration (g)
5g = 10m/s2.
(3) (4) g
6
77. Four particles of masses m, 2m, 4m and 8m are
placed at the corners of a square of side a. The
co-ordinates of centre of mass is
Y Mc = 4 kg
8m a 4m T1
a a 2 kg 1 kg
m a X (1) 10 N (2) 16 N
2m
 a a  (3) 20 N (4) 25 N
 a 3a 
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
 2 2 2 4  82. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a disc all
having same mass and radius, are placed at the
 a 2a   2a 4a  top of an incline and released. The friction
(3)  ,  (4)  ,  coefficients between the objects and the incline are
5 5   5 5  same and sufficient to allow pure rolling. Least time
78. Angular acceleration  of a body is given by the will be taken in reaching the bottom by
relation  = 4at3 – 3bt2. If initial angular velocity of (1) All will take same time
the body is w0, then its angular velocity at time t
will be (2) The hollow sphere
(1) w0 + at4 – bt3 (2) w0 + 4at4 – 3bt3 (3) The disc
(3) 12at2 – 6bt (4) at4 – bt3 (4) The solid sphere
(46)
83. If angular momentum of a body is increased by 87. Let I1 and I2 be the moment of a inertia of uniform
20% then rotational kinetic energy is increased by square plate about axes shown in the figure. Then
(moment of inertia is constant) the ratio I1:I2 is
(1) 44% (2) 22% 1
(3) 40% (4) 50%

2
84. A heavy circular disc of mass M is revolving in a
horizontal plane with angular speed w0 about its
centre which is fixed. An insect of mass m walks
from the centre to the edge and then flies relative
to disc in vertically upwards direction. New angular
speed of disc is
Mw0 Mw0
(1) (2)
(M  m) (M  2m)
1 12
(1) 1: (2) 1:
mw0 7 7
(3) (4) w0
(M  m)
7
(3) 1: (4) 1:7
85. From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a 12
R 88. A light rigid rod connected with two particles of
small disc of radius is removed from the disc. masses m and 2m rotates in vertical plane against
3
horizontal and vertical surfaces shown in the figure.
2R The angular momentum of particle 1 relative to 2 is
Where center of smaller disc is at from the
3
center of the whole disc. The moment of inertia of
the remaining disc about an axis perpendicular to m
1
the plane of disc and passing through O is
• l
R
2R
3 2m
v
2
(1) 4MR2 2mvl
(1) (2) mvlCos
40 Cos
(2) MR 2
9 mvl mvl
(3) 10 MR2 (3) (4)
Cos Sin
37 89. Angular momentum of the particle p moving parallel
(4) MR2 to X-axis about origin O is (in kg–m2s–1)
9
Y
86. A cubical block of side a and of mass m rest on
a rough horizontal surface. A horizontal force F is
applied to normal to one of the faces at height h
above the base h>a/2. The minimum value of F for m = 2 kg

10m/s
which the cube begins to topple about an edge 5 4m

mga O 3
X
(1) Fmin 
2h (1) 50 (2) 80
(3) 60 (4) 100
mga
(2) Fmin  90. If the origin of co-ordinate system lies at the centre
h
of mass, the sum of the moments of the masses
2mga of the system about the centre of mass
(3) Fmin  (1) may be greater than zero
h
(2) may be less than zero
3mga (3) may be equal to zero
(4) Fmin 
h (4) is always zero
(47)
91. In the diagram given below a solid sphere of radius 93. A body falling vertically downwards under gravity
r moving on horizontal surface with velocity of 2v0. breaks in two parts of unequal masses with one of
and angular velocity w0. The angular momentum then moving horizontally. The centre of mass of the
about an axis passing through horizontal surface as two parts taken together
shown is (v0=w0r) :
(1) Shift horizontally towards heavier piece
m
(2) Shift horizontally towards lighter piece
w0
2v0 (3) Moves in parabolic path
r
(4) Shift in vertical direction only
O r
axis  to page
94. A boat of mass 100 kg is floating in water. Two men
of mass 40 kg and 60 kg are at a distance 10m
2
(1) 2mv0r (2) mv 0r on the boat. Each move distance 2m towards
5 each-other over the boat. Then find displacement of
Centre of Mass of the boat.
8 12
(3) mv 0r (4) mv 0r
5 5 (1) 2m towards 60 kg man
92. A thin rod of length ‘L is lying along the x-axis with (2) 0.2 m away from 60 kg man
its ends at x=0 and x=L. Its linear density varies
(3) 0.2 m towards 40 kg man
n
with x as K  x  , where n can be zero or any (4) 0.2 m towards 60 kg man
L 
95. The thin rod shown has mass M and length L. A
positive number. If the position xcm of the centre of force F acts at one end and free to rotate about
mass of the rod is plotted against n, which of the the other end in the plane of force. Initial angular
following graphs best approximates the dependence acceleration of the rod is – (neglect gravity)
of xcm on n
º
x c.m F
60
L
(1) L/2
3F
(1)
2ML
n
x c.m 2F
(2)
3ML
L
F
(3)
(2) L/2 ML
n F
(4)
2ML
x c.m
96. A solid sphere is rolling without slipping on a
surface shown in figure. Find it’s angular
L momentum about origin O if centre of sphere is
moving along the x axis.
(3) L/2
y
n
C v
O r x
x c.m
7
L (1) mvr (2) mvr
5
(4) L/2
2 3
(3) mvr (4) mvr
n 5 5
(48)
97. The uniform rod of mass m is at rest on smooth 100. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform circular disc
vertical and rough horizontal surface with friction co- about one of it’s diameter is I. It’s moment of
efficient  = 0.5 as shown. The friction force acting inertia about an axis tangent to it and perpendicular
on it is – to its plane is –
2I
(1) (2) 2I
3
I
(3) (4) 6I
60º 2
101. A sphere is given a linear velocity v0 and is placed
on a rough surface. Which of the following shows
mg mg the variation of linear velocity (v) with time (t) ?
(1) (2)
2 2 3
v v
3 mg 3 v0 v0
(3) mg (4)
2 4
(1) (2)
98. Three particles are placed at corners of an t t
equilateral triangle. Find moment of inertia of
system of particles about y axis v v
v0
y v0
(3) (4)
2m t t
102. W hen a body is under pure rolling on a fixed

x
m  m horizontal surface, the fraction of its total kinetic
2
energy which is purely rotational is . The body is
m 2
m 2 5
(1) (2)
2 4 (1) a solid sphere (2) a hollow cylinder
(3) a hollow sphere (4) a solid cylinder
103. A solid sphere of mass m and radius r is rolling up
3m 2 3m 2 without slipping an inclined plane as shown in
(3) (4)
2 4 figure. The frictional force acting on it –
99. A light rigid rod of length 2 is welded with another
rod of mass m and length 2. The light rod is
hinged at the free end and the combination is given
an angular velocity such that the centre of mass
moves with velocity v. The Kinetic Energy of rod is 
2
(1) mg sin (2) mgsin 
5
8 2
2 (3) mgsin  (4) mg sin
7 7
104. If mass per unit length of a non-uniform rod of
length  is given by  = cx2, where x is distance
m,2 v from end A, then distance of center of mass from
end A is
A B
mv 2 28mv 2
(1) (2)  
54 27 (1) (2)
2 3
mv 2 14mv 2 2 3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
27 27 3 4
(49)
105. A particle is moving in a circle has initial angular 109. Four particles are placed at corners of a square of
velocity 50 rpm and has an angular acceleration of side . Find moment of inertia of system about
 rad/s2. Its angular velocity after one minute is diagonal line AC
(1) 110 rpm (2) 850 rpm

m  m
D C
(3) 1850 rpm (4) None of these
106. A disc of mass m and radius r is rolling without  

slipping on a horizontal surface. If angular speed is
w then its angular momentum about point of A B
m  m
contact will be :
disc (1) 9 m 2 (2) 4 m 2
(3) m 2 (4) None of these
110. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass

M and length L about an axis passing through its
midpoint and perpendicular to its length is I0. Its
2 2
(1) mr 2 w (2) mr w moment of inertia about an axis passing through
3 one of its ends and perpendicular to its length is
3 2 5 2
(3) mr w (4) mr w ML2
2 3 (1) I0 + ML2 (2) I0 
2
107. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v hit a
rod of identical mass free to rotate about one end ML2
and stick to it. Find angular velocity of rod just after (3) I0  (4) I0 + 2ML2
4
collision. ( = length of rod)
111. The moment of inertia of a thin disc of mass M and
m, radius R about an axis, which is tangential to the
circumference of the disc and parallel to the plane
of the disc, is :
v
m
 5 2
2 (1) MR2 (2) MR2
4 3
v 3v
(1) (2) 3 1
2 4 (3) MR2 (4) MR2
2 2
6v 5v 112. A uniform rod of length  and mass m is free to

(3) (4) rotate in a vertical plane about a wedge A. The rod
7 6
initially in horizontal position is released. The initial
108. Three blocks of mass m, 2.5kg and 2.5kg are in torque acting on the rod with respect to wedge is
equilibrium with rigid rod shown in fig. The value of -
m is
 3
 4 4
3
4 4
A
x x
m 2.5kg 2.5kg mg mg

(1) (2)
2 4
(1) 5 kg (2) 10 kg
3mg 4mg
(3) 15 kg (4) 20 kg (3) (4)
4 3
(50)
113. A thin spherical shell start rolling without slipping 114. A solid sphere is pushed on a rough horizontal
from rest. Find the speed of spherical snell when its surface with velocity of centre of mass V without
centre of mass falls a height h any angular velocity. If coefficient of friction is ,
then find time after which it will start pure rolling
V
H
rough with friction coefficient = 
h
V 2V 5V 2V
(1) (2)
 2g 5g (3) 7g (4)
7g
115. A solid sphere is rolling without slipping down an
inclined plane of inclination . Find the friction force
(1) 2gh acting on it. Co-efficient of friction is .
V 
6gh
(2)
5

(1) mg cos kinetic friction up the plane
6gH
(3) 2
5 (2) mgsin  kinetic friction up the plane
5
2
10gH
(3) mgsin  static friction down the plane
(4) 5
7
2
(4) mgsin  static friction up the plane
7

(51)
Chapter 07
Gravitation
1. A planet is revolving around the sun as shown in 5. The mass of a planet is 6 times that of the earth.
elliptical path. The correct option is The radius of the planet is twice that of earth.
Its escape velocity from the earth is v, then escape
velocity from the planet is
B (1) 2v
3v (2)
(3) 5v (4) 12 v
A C 6. By what % the energy of a satellite has to be
S
increased to shift it from an orbit of radius r to
D 3r
2 ?
(1) The time taken in travelling DAB is less than (1) 15% (2) 20.3%
that for BCD (3) 66.7% (4) 33.33%
(2) The time taken in travelling DAB is greater than 7. The ratio of kinetic energy of a planet at the points
that for BCD 1 and 2 is
(3) The linear momentum of planet in travelling DAB

remains constant
(4) The time taken in travelling CDA is greater than r1 r2
that for ABC 1 2
2. The height at which the weight of the body becomes Sun
th
 1  of its weight on the surface of earth
 16  2 2
   r1   r2 
(1)   (2)  
(radius R) is  r2   r1 
(1) 4R (2) 5R
r1 r2
(3) 15R (4) 3R (3) (4)
r2 r1
3. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a
circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v. 8. If the gravitational field in a certain region of space
For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the is zero then –
earth’s radius, the orbital velocity is (1) the potential difference between any two points
in this region is zero
3 3 (2) the potential of every point in the region is zero
(1) v (2) v
2 2 (3) work required to be done by external agent to
move a mass from one point to another is
2 2 positive but by field is negative
(3) v (4) v
3 3 (4) All of these
4. The change in the gravitational potential energy 9. If earth is supposed to be a sphere of radius R, if
when a body of mass m is raised to a height nR g30 is value of effective acceleration due to gravity
above the surface of the earth is (here, R is the at latitude of 30° and g at the equator, the value of
radius of the earth) : g  g30 is ( is angular velocity of rotation of earth)
n n 1 2 3 2
(1) mgR (2) mgR
n 1 n 1 (1) R (2) R
4 4
mgR 1 2
(3) n mgR (4) (3) 2R (4) R
n 2
(52)
Gravitation Medical Q-Bank-2020
10. The escape velocity for a planet is ve. A tunnel is 14. The figure represents an elliptical orbit of planet
dug along a diameter of the planet and a small around sun. The planet takes time T1 to travel from
body is dropped into it at the surface. When the A to B and it takes T2 time to travel from C to D.
body reaches the centre of the planet, its speed will If area of CSD is double that of area ASB, then
be
Planet D
ve ve C
(1) (2)
3 2
S
ve SUN
(3) (4) Zero
2
A B
11. A satellite going around the earth in a circular orbit
loses some kinetic energy due to a collision. Its
speed is v and distance from the earth is d before
collision. Just after collision (Assume circular orbit (1) T1 = T2 (2) T2 = 2T1
after collision) (3) T2 = 0.5 T1 (4) T1 = 0.25 T2
(1) d will increase, v will increase 15. The minimum and maximum distances of a satellite
(2) d will increase, v will decrease from the centre of earth are 2R and 4R where R is
the radius of earth and M is mass of earth. The
(3) d will decrease, v will decrease value of maximum speed of satellite will be
(4) d will decrease, v will increase
12. Three identical particles each of mass m are placed V2
at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side . R
The work done by external force to increase the 3R
sides of triangle from  to 2 is R
V1
3GM2
(1) 

2GM GM
(1) (2)
3R 6R
3GM2
(2) 
2 3GM 3GM
(3) (4)
R 2R
3GM2
(3) 16. At a height H from the surface of earth, the total
2
energy of a satellite is equal to the potential energy
of a body of equal mass at a height 3R from the
3GM2 surface of the earth (R = Radius of the earth). The
(4)
 value of H is
13. An artificial satellite of mass m is moving in a 4R
circular orbit at a height equal to radius R of earth. (1) R (2)
3
Suddenly due to internal explosion the satellite
breaks into two parts of equal pieces. One part of R
satellite stops just after explosion. The increase in (3) 3R (4)
3
mechanical energy of system due to explosion will
be 17. A satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius R
round the earth. Which of the following statements
(1) mgR is incorrect?
mgR 1
(1) Its angular momentum varies as
(2) R
2
1
(2) Its linear momentum varies as
mgR R
(3) 1
4 (3) Its kinetic energy varies as
R
3mgR 1
(4) (4) Its frequency varies as
4 R 3/2
(53)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Gravitation
18. A body has been thrown with a speed v from the 23. Two satellites A and B go around a planet P in
surface of the earth which is double the escape circular orbits having radius 4R and R respectively.
speed (ve) from the surface of the earth. The speed If the speed of satellite A is 3v, then the speed of
left with the body in interstellar space at infinity will the satellite B will be
be
(1) 6v (2) 9v
(1) ve (2) 2v e
(3) 3v (4) 2v
ve
(3) 3 ve (4) 24. Let the minimum external work done in shifting a
2
19. A massive particle of twice the mass of earth is particle from centre of earth to earth’s surface be w1
dropped from a height h above earth’s surface. Find and that from surface of earth to infinity be w2. The
the distance moved by the particle before striking w1/w2 is equal to
earth
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:2
h 2h
(1) (2) (3) 2:1 (4) 1:3
3 3
25. The escape velocity for a body projected vertically
2h upward form the surface of earth is 11 km/s. If the
(3) (4) almost h body is projected at an angle of 45° with the
5
vertical, the escape velocity will be
20. An asteroid was located at a distance of 5R with
respect to earth’s centre and moving with a speed (1) 22 km/s (2) 11 km/s
vo at an angle of 37° with the line connecting them,
as shown 11
(3) km/s (4) 11 2 km/s
2
vo
37° R 26. A satellite of mass m is in a circular orbit of radius
Earth 2RE about the earth. The energy required to transfer
it to a circular orbit of radius 4RE is (where ME and
If the asteroid just grazes the earth’s surface, find RE is the mass and radius of earth respectively).
its maximum speed
GMEm GMEm
(1) 5vo (1) (2)
2RE 4RE
(2) 3vo
(3) 2vo GMEm GMEm
(3) (4)
(4) cannot be determined 8RE 16RE
21. Figure shows the elliptical path of a planet about 27. The satellite of mass m revolving in a circular orbit
the sun. The two shaded parts have equal area. of radius r around the earth has kinetic energy E.
If t1 and t2 be the time taken by the planet to go Then its angular momentum w.r.t. centre of earth will
from a to b and from c to d respectively be
b
E E
(1) (2)
c a mr 2 2mr 2
S
d (3) 2Emr 2 (4) 2Emr
(1) t1 < t2 28. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity
(2) t1 = t2
g
(3) t1 > t2 becomes (where g = acceleration due to gravity
9
(4) Insufficient informations to deduce the relations of the surface of the earth, R is radius of the earth)
between t1 and t2 is
22. A body weighs 250 N on the surface of the earth.
How much will it weigh half way down to the centre R
(1) (2) 2R
of the earth? 2
(1) 125 N (2) 150 N
R
(3) 175 N (4) 62.5 N (3) 2 R (4)
2
(54)
29. With what velocity should a particle be projected 32. Isolated uniform hollow sphere of mass M and radius
from the surface of earth, so that its maximum R has a point mass m placed at its centre as shown
height from surface of earth becomes equal to in figure. Find out the work done in moving the point
radius of earth. if R = Radius of earth, M = Mass mass from the centre to a point A
of earth
M
GM 8GM A
(1) (2)
R R m R/2
O
2GM 4GM
(3) (4)
R R
(1) Gm M/R (2) 2 Gm M/R
30. The additional kinetic energy to be provided to a
satellite of mass m revolving around a planet of (3) –2 Gm M/R (4) Zero
mass M to transfer it from a circular orbit of radius 33. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
R1 to another of radius R2 (R2 > R1) is is g. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of
another planet of same density but radius half that
   1 1  of earth is
(1) GMm  1  1  (2) 2GMm   
 R1 R2   R1 R 2 
g
(1) (2) 2 g
2
1  1 1   1 1 
(3) GMm    (4) GMm   2
2 R R 2
g
 1 2   R1 R 2  (3) g (4)
4
31. Variation of magnitude of gravitational potential V
with distance r for a solid sphere starts from centre 34. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around
as a planet. Total energy of satellite is E. Kinetic energy
and potential energy of satellite are (taking infinity as
zero potential)
V
(1) –E and 2E
(2) E and –2E
(3) +2E and –2E
(1)
(4) –2E and +2E
r
r=R 35. A satellite of mass m is revolving around the earth
V of mass M in a circular orbit of radius 2R. The
amount of energy given to the satellite so that it
start revolving in circular orbit of radius 3R is
GMm GMm
(2) (1) (2)
12R 6R
r
r=R GMm GMm
V (3) (4)
3R R
36. Two particles revolving in circular paths under the
mutual gravitational force. If ratio of their kinetic
energy is 1 : 8, then ratio of their masses are
(3)
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 1
r
r=R (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
V 37. An orbiting satellite will escape if
(1) Its speed is increased by 21%
(2) Its speed in the orbit is made 1.4 times

(4)
(3) Its kinetic energy is doubled
r
r=R (4) It stops moving in the orbit
(55)
38. The gravitational potential at a point on surface of 43. A body is projected up with a velocity equal to three-
earth is –V. Then the escape velocity of the object fourth of the escape velocity from the surface of the
from the surface of earth is earth. The maximum height to which it rises,
neglecting the air friction, is (take radius of the earth
(1) 2V (2) 4V2 as R)
(3) V (4) 2V2 9R 7R
(1) (2)
39. The escape velocity from earth is x. A body is 7 5
projected with velocity 2x. Then the velocity it will
move in inter-planetary space 4R
(3) 3R (4)
(1) x (2) 3x 3
(3) 3x (4) 5x 44. For a uniform ring of mass M and radius R at its
centre
40. The gravitational potential in a region is given by
(1) Gravitational field and potential both are zero
V = 20 (x + y) J/kg
The gravitational field is GM
(2) Gravitational field is zero but potential is 
R
(1) ( 20i  20j ) N/kg
GM
(3) Gravitational field is but potential is zero
(2) ( 120i  120j ) N/kg R2
 
(3) ( 20i  20j ) N/kg
GM GM
(4) ( 10i  10j ) N /kg (4) Gravitational field is and potential is 
2
R R
41. If the radius of the earth is reduced to half of its present
day value without change in its mass, what will be 45. If an object of mass m is taken from surface of earth
the length of the day? to a point at a height 3R from the surface of earth,
(1) 6 hour (2) 12 hour then work done against gravity is (R = Radius of earth)
(3) 18 hour (4) 24 hour 3

(1) mgR
42. Three particles A, B and C of equal mass m each 4
are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle
of side a. Force on C is 1
(2) mgR
2
m
A
1
(3) mgR
3
a
a
4
(4) mgR
3
m m
a 46. Distance of a planet at perihelion and aphelion from
B C
Sun are in the ratio 1 : 3. Ratio of respective angular
speeds at these points about Sun is
3 Gm2
(1) (1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
a2
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 9 : 1
2
2 3Gm 47. If the Earth stops rotating about its axis the value of
(2)
a2 g at equator will be (symbols have usual meaning)
(1) Increased by R2

2 Gm2
(3)
a2 (2) Decreased by R2
(3) Increased by 2 R2

3Gm2
(4) (4) Decreased by 2 R2
a2
(56)
48. The variations in acceleration due to gravity (g) of two 53. A mass m is placed in the cavity inside a hollow
planets A and B are plotted as a function of distance sphere of mass M as shown in the figure. What is
r from its center. Which of the following statements the gravitational force on the mass m ?
is correct?
g r m
R
A B
GMm GMm
(1) (2)
r R2 r2
(1) The planet A has greater mass than B GMm

(2) The planet A and B have same mass (3) 2 (4) Zero
R – r 
(3) The planet A is denser than B
54. Suppose ge be the acceleration due to gravity at
(4) The planet B is smaller in size the equator and gp be that at the poles. Assuming
49. The plane of rotation of a geostationary satellite the earth to be a sphere of radius Re rotating about
its own axis with angular speed , then (gp–ge) is
(1) Must be parallel to equatorial plane given by
(2) Must be perpendicular to equatorial plane
2
(3) Must pass through the centre of earth (1) (2) Re2
Re
(4) Both (1) and (3)
50. The gravitational field due to mass distribution 2
(3) 2R e2 (4)
A R 2e
is E  in x-direction. Here, A is constant. Taking
x2 55. Two uniform sphere each of mass M and radius ‘R’
the gravitational potential to be zero at infinity, potential separated by a disctance ‘10R’. A point mass ‘m
at x is projected from surface of one sphere towards other
sphere. The minimum velocity of projection for
2A 2A
(1) (2) which particle will reach at the other sphere
x x3
A A GM GM
(3) (4) 2
(1) (2) 8
x 2x 45R 45R
51. A missile is launched with velocity less than the
escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic and potential GM GM
energies is (3) (4) 8
R R
(1) positive
56. The force of interaction between the semi - circular
(2) negative ring and the particle placed at it centre when each
(3) zero is of mass M is
(4) may be positve or negative depending on its
initial velocity M,R
52. A body starts from rest from a point distance r0 from

the centre of earth. It reaches the surface of the earth M
whose radius is R. The velocity acquired by the body
is
1 1  1 1 GM2 GM2
(1) 2GM – (2) 2GM  –  (1)
R2
(2)
2R 2
R r0  R r0 
1 1 1 1 4GM2 2GM2
(3) GM – (4) GM  –  (3) 2 2 (4)
R r0  R r0  R R2
(57)
57. Two sphere of mass 4M and M are separated by 61. A particle of mass m is thrown upward from earth
distance 6R. P is a null point then OP is equal to
GM
surface (as shown) with speed V  . Increase
R
4M M
2R in its gravitational potential energy, when it reaches
R at topmost point is
O P O
6R
V
m
(1) 3R (2) 4R M,R
3R
(3) (4) 2R
2
GMm GMm
58. The gravitational field due to a system of two (1) (2) 
concentric thin spherical shells of mass m1 and m2 2R R
and radii r1 and r2 at the point P
GMm 2GMm
(3)  (4)
3R R
m2
m1,r1
,r 2
62. Escape velocity of a particle from earth surface is

P 11.2 km/s. Find the escape velocity on a new
planet whose density is double that of earth and
radius is three times that of earth
Gm1 Gm2 (1) 18  11.2 km/s

(1) (2)
r12 r2 2
2
(2) ×11.2 km/s
G(m1  m2 ) 3
(3) (4) Zero
r12
3
(3)  11.2 km/s
59. The distance between Centre of Mass of solid sphere 2
and ring is x. The force acting on ring due to sphere
is (4) 2  11.2 km/s
M
63. A planet of mass m revolves around sun in elliptical
R R,m orbit of area A and eccentricity 0.5.
x
solid ring P
sphere
Q
GMm GMm SUN C(centre of ellipse)
(1) 2 (2) 2 2
x (x  R )
GMm x
(3) (4) None of these
(x 2  R2 )3/2
It moves between point P to Q in time t, then the
60. The escape velocity from the equilibrium point of a angular momentum of planet about the sun at
uniform ring of mass M and radius R is – perihelion is -
2GM GM mA 1.07 mA
(1) (2) (1) (2)
R R 2 t  t
GM GM 2.14 mA 1.57 mA
(3) (4) 2 (3) (4)
2R R  t  t
(58)
64. Three particles are placed at corners of square of 67. A particle of mass m is taken to height equal to double
side . The net force acting on a particle of mass the radius of earth. The increase in Potential Energy
m placed at centre of the square is of system is (g is the acceleration due to gravity at
surface)
A
m D
O
m
B C (1) mg2R
2m 3m
mgR
(2)
2
4Gm2 2Gm2
(1) (2)
2 2 2mgR
(3)
3
2 2Gm2 4 2Gm2 (4) None of these
(3) (4)
2 2 68. Select the escape velocity of a particle placed at
65. The variation of gravitational field intensity at a distance centre of the earth (g is the acceleration due to gravity
r from centre of a uniform solid sphere is at surface)
(1) 2gR
m, R
(2) 3gR
(3) 5gR
I 3
(4) gR
I 2
(1) (2)
69. Select the angular speed of a geostationary satellite
R r R r
(1) zero

(2) rad/sec
43200
I I
(3) (4) 
(3) rad/sec
R r r 1800
(4) Can’t be determined
66. Four particles each of mass m is placed at corner of
70. A satellite of mass m is revolving in a circular orbit
a square of side . Find the Potential Energy of
of radius r around a planet of mass M. If PE of the
system
orbit is assumed to be zero then its total energy
will be
Gm2 2 Gm2  1 
(1) (2) 2   GMm GMm
   2 (1)  (2) 
r 2r
GMm
2Gm2  1  Gm2  1  2r
(3) 2   (4)  2 
  2   2

(59)
Chapter 08
Mechanical Properties of Solids
1. The stress-strain graph for a metallic wire is shown 6. If a wire having initial diameter of 2 mm produced
at four different temperature T1, T2, T3 and T4 then the longitunal strain of 0.1% then the final diameter
of wire is ( = 0.5)
Stress (1) 2.002 mm (2) 1.999 mm
T1 (3) 1.998 mm (4) 2.001 mm
T2
T4 7. Two rods of different materials having Young’s
modulus Y 1 and Y 2 and coefficient of thermal
T3 expansion 1 and 2 are fixed between two rigid
Strain
supports. The rods are heated to the same
temperature if there is no bending of the rods, the
(1) T1 > T2 > T3 > T4 (2) T1 < T2 < T3 < T4 thermal stress developed in these rods are equal
(3) T3 > T4 > T2 > T1 (4) T1 < T4 < T2 < T3 provided
2. The Bulk modulus for gases depends on the

Y1 2
atomicity of gas in (1) 
Y2 1
(1) Isothermal process (2) Isochoric process
(3) Adiabatic process (4) Both (1) and (3)
Y1 1
3. Two wires of equal cross-sectional area and length (2) 
Y2 2
L and 2L are suspended as shown in figure.
Their Young’s modulli are Y1 and Y2 respectively.
The equivalent Young’s modulli will be Y1 1
(3) 
Y2 2
L Y1 2
(4) 
Y2 1
2L 8. A wire suspended vertically from one of its ends is

stretched by attaching a weight of 200 N to the
lower end. The weight stretches the wire by 1 mm.
Then the elastic energy stored in the wire is
3Y1Y2 3Y1Y2
(1) (2) (1) 0.2 J (2) 10 J
2Y1  Y2 Y1  2Y2
(3) 20 J (4) 0.1 J
Y1  Y2 3Y1Y2 9. Two rods of different materials having coefficients of
(3) (4) thermal expansion 1 and 2 and Young’s moduli
2 Y1  Y2
Y1 and Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid
4. A 5m Al wire (Y = 7×1010 N/m2) of diameter 3mm massive walls. The rods are heated such that they
supports a 40kg mass. In order to have the same undergo the same increase in temperature. There is
elongation in a Cu wire (Y = 12×1010 N/m2) of the no bending of the rods and junction does not shift.
same length under the same weight, the diameter If  1 and  2 are in the ratio 2:3, the thermal
should be in mm stress developed in the two rods are equal provided
Y1 : Y2 is equal to
(1) 1.75 (2) 2.0
(3) 2.3 (4) 5.0 (1) 2:3 (2) 1:1
(3) 3:2 (4) 4:9
5. If work done in stretching a wire by 1mm is 2J, the
10. Two wires A and B have the same length and area
work necessary for stretching another wire of same
of cross-section. Young’s modulus of A is two times
material but with double radius of cross-section and
the Young’s modulus of B. Then the ratio of force
half the length by 1 mm is
constant of A to that of B is
(1) 16J (2) 8J (1) 1 (2) 2
1 1
(3) 4J (4) J (3) (4) 2
4 2
(60)
Mechanical Properties of Soids Medical Q-Bank-2020
11. A given quantity of an ideal gas is at pressure P 19. W hich of the following statement is correct
and absolute temperature T. The isothermal bulk regarding Poisson’s ratio
modulus of gas is: (1) It is the ratio of longitudenal strain to lateral
strain
2P
(1) (2) P (2) Its value is independent of nature of the
3 material
3P (3) It is unit less and dimensionless quantity
(3) (4) 2P
2
(4) The practical value of Poisson’s ratio lies
12. A wire is suspended by one end. At the other end
between 0 and 1
a weight of 20N is hung. If the increase in length
of wire is 1mm, the increase in the elastic potential 20. W hen a rod is heated but prevented from
energy of the wire will be expanding, the stress developed in rod is
independent of
(1) 0.01 J (2) 0.02 J
(1) Material of the rod (2) rise is temperature
(3) 0.04 J (4) 1.00 J
(3) length of the rod (4) None of these
13. A steel ring of radius r and cross-sectional area A
is fitted on to a wooden disc of radius R (R > r). If N
21. A wire of Young’s modulus 2  1011 has length
Young's modulus of steel is Y then stress in the m2
steel ring is 1m and area 1 mm2, the work required to increase
its length slowly by 2mm is
RY R  r 
(1) (2)  Y (1) 0.4 J (2) 40 J
r  r  (3) 4 J (4) 400 J
22. A uniform metal rod of 2mm 2 cross-section is
 r  r 
(3)  Y (4)  Y heated from 0°C to 20°C. The coefficient of linear
R  r  R expansion of rod is 12 × 10 –6 /°C. Its young’s
modulus of elasticity is 10 11 N/m 2 . The energy
14. A force F is applied along a rod of transverse cross
stored per unit volume of rod if the rod is free to
sectional area A. The tangential stress to a section expand is –
PQ inclined at an angle  to transverse section will
(1) zero (2) 1500 J/m3
be maximum for angle  (in degree) is 3
(3) 5760 J/m (4) 1440 J/m3
23. Strain produced in a string due to stress s is x.
Q Energy density in the string is

F F sx s
(1) (2)
P 2 2x
(1) 0 (2) 30 s2 5s 2
(3) (4)
(3) 45 (4) 90 2x 2
24. When a 20 kg load is applied to a uniform string,
15. A sphere is taken to the bottom of sea 3 km deep then in equilibrium elongation of the string is 5 mm
then the fractional change in radius of sphere is from its natural length. When it is loaded with 40
(Bulk modulus of the sphere is 9.8×108 N/m2) kg then its equilibrium elongation from its natural
(1) 0.1 (2) –0.01 length will be
(3) –0.03 (4) 3 (1) 5 mm (2) 10 mm
(3) 15 mm (4) 20 mm
16. The Bulk modulus for an incompressible liquid is
25. Breaking stress of a wire of radius r is S0. If radius
(1) Zero (2) Unity
becomes double then breaking stress of same wire
(3) Infinite (4) Between 0 and 1 becomes
17. A cable that can support a load of 800N is cut into (1) S 0 (2) 2S0
two equal parts. The maximum load that can be S0
supported by either part is (3) 4S0 (4)
2
(1) 100N (2) 400N 26. A uniform wire of mass M, length L, area of cross-
(3) 800N (4) 1600N section A and Young’s modulus Y is suspended
18. If in a wire of Young’s modulus Y, longitudenal from the ceiling. Elongation of the wire due to its
strain x is produced then the potential energy own weight is
stored in its unit volume will be MgL MgL2
(1) (2)
(1) 0.5Yx2 (2) 0.5Y2x 2 AY 2 AY
(3) 2Yx 2 (4) Yx 2 MgL MgL3
(3) (4)
2Y 2 AY
(61)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Mechanical Properties of Soids
27. Which among the following can not be the value of 34. Volume of a sphere is decreased by 0.02%, when it
poisson’s ratio ? is subjected to a change in pressure of 4 × 105 Pa.
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.3 Bulk modulus of the material of sphere is
(3) 0.49 (4) 0.56 (1) 4 × 105 Nm–2 (2) 2 × 105 Nm–2
28. Two metallic cylinders A and B of radii (2r) and (3r) (3) 2 × 109 Nm–2 (4) 4 × 109 Nm–2
are joined as shown in figure. If top end is fixed and
35. A solid metal cube is kept on a table surface such
lower end is twisted by an angle , then angle of
that its face in contact with table is rigidly fixed. A
twist for cylinder A is
tangential stress 4 × 108 Nm–2 is applied to the top
2r
face of the cube. If modulus of rigidity of the metal of
cube is 4 × 1011 Nm–2, then shearing strain
A produced in the cube is
(1) 10–19 radian (2) 103 radian
(3) 10–3 radian (4) 10–2 radian
B
36. For a material  Poisson’s ratio = 0.20 under an
3r
external stress. If the longitudinal strain is 0.01. The
percentage change in the diameter of wire is
(1) 0.10% (2) + 1%
15 16 (3) + 2% (4) + 0.20%
(1)  (2) 
16 17 37. In the load-extension graph for a wire, the elastic
proportional limit lies upto the point
81 16
(3)  (4) 
97 27
Extension
29. Calculate the thermal stress developed in a rod kept
on a smooth surface as shown in figure if the C
temperature of rod is increased by T. [Y  B
young’s modulus,   coefficient of thermal
A
expansion A  cross-section area] Load
O
Rod
(1) B (2) A
smooth
horizontal (3) O (4) C
38. The stress and strain curve for two wires is as
shown in figure given below. If Y 1 and Y 2 are
Young’s modulus of the material of wires, then ratio
(1) y  T (2) 2T
(3) Zero (4) yAT  Y1 
  will be
30. A 4cm cube has its upper face displaced by 0.1mm  Y2 
by a tangential force of 8KN. Calculate the shear
modulus of the cube Stress
(1) 2×1010 dyne/cm2 (2) Zero (1)
(3) 4×1010 dyne/cm2 (4) 6×1010 dyne/cm2 (2)
31. For a given material the Young’s modulus is 2.4 times
the modulus of rigidity, Its poisson’s ratio is
45° 60°
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4 Strain
(3) 1.2 (4) 2.4

1
(1) 1 (2)
3
32. For an incompressible material bulk modulus is
(1) Zero (2) Infinity 2
(3) 3 (4)
(3) Negative (4) All of these 3
33. A wire of a substance is elongated to double its 39. The upper end of a wire of radius 4 mm and length
length such that its density remains unchanged. 100 cm is clamped and its lower end is twisted through
Poisson’s ratio of the substance is an angle of 30°. The angle of shear is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.1 (1) 1.2° (2) 0.012°

(3) – 1 (4) 0.3 (3) 0.12° (4) 12°
(62)
Mechanical Properties of Soids Medical Q-Bank-2020
40. A spherical ball contracts in volume by 0.05%

when subjected to normal uniform pressure of 50 U
atm. The volumetric strain of ball is
r0
(1) 0.05 (2) 0.0005
(3) r
(3) 0.5 (4) 50
41. Two rods of same material but of radius ‘r’ and 2r

fixed between two supports and the temperature is
raised by T°C. The ratio of thermal stress developed U
in them is
r0
(1) 1:2 (2) 1:1
(4) r
(3) 1:4 (4) 4:1
42. If  is the density of the material of a wire and s the

breaking stress, the maximum length of the wire that 45. Calculate the tangential stress on surface BB
can hang freely without breaking is when force ‘F’ acts on a solid cylinder fixed on one
end whose cross-sectional area is as shown in the
2s  figure.
(1) (2) B
g sg
F
g s
(3) (4) 
2s g B cross-sectional
Fixed end
area A
43. To what depth below the surface of sea should a rubber
F F
ball be taken so as to decreases its volume by 0.1% (1) (2) Sin2
(Average density of sea water 1000kg/m3 , bulk A 2A
8 N 2F F
modulus of rubber = 9  10 , and g = 10ms–2) (3) Sin2 (4) Sin
m2 A A
46. A wire of length L and density  and Young’s
(1) 9m (2) 18m modulus Y is hanging from a rigid support. Find
the elongation in the length of wire at which wire will
(3) 180m (4) 90m break :
44. If U represent potential energy and r represent
L2g L2g
interatomic separation between the atoms, then (1) (2)
which of the following graph best represent variation Y 2Y
in U with r (Here r0 represents equilibrium distance)
2L2 g L2g
(3) (4)
Y 4Y
U
47. A uniform elastic rod of cross-sectional area A,
natural length L and Young’s modulus Y is placed
on a smooth horizontal surface. Now two horizontal
forces (of magnitude F and 3F) directed along the
r0 r
(1) length of rod and in opposite direction act at two of
its ends as shown. After the rod has acquired
steady state, the extension of the rod will be
elastic rod
F
U 3F
r0 2F 4F
(2) L L
r (1) (2)
YA YA
F 3F
(3) L (4) L
YA 2YA
(63)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Mechanical Properties of Soids
48. The pressure of a medium is changed from (1) Material in (A) is ideal to make thin wire
1.01×10 5 N/m2 to 1.11×10 5 N/m2 and change in
volume is 5% keeping temperature constant. The (2) Material in (B) is ideal to make thin wire
bulk modulus of the medium is
(3) Both materials in (A) and (B) are ideal to make
(1) 204.8×105 N/m2 (2) 2.0×105 N/m2 thin wire
(3) 2.45×105 N/m2 (4) 3.05×105 N/m2
(4) Both materials in (A) and (B) are not good to
49. Modulus of rigidity (shear modulus) is not defined make thin wire
for
54. A 1 metre long steel wire of cross-sectional area
(1) solid only (2) liquid only
1mm 2 is extended by 1mm. If Y equals to
(3) gas only (4) liquid & gas both 2×1011N/m2, then the work done in stretching is
50. The two wires shown in figure are made of the (1) 0.1J (2) 0.2J
same material which has a breaking stress of
8 × 10 8 N/m2 . The area of cross-section of the (3) 0.3J (4) 0.4J
upper wire is 0.006 cm2 and that of the lower wire
is 0.003 cm2. The mass m1 = 10 kg, m2 = 20 kg 55. A solid ball is fully immersed in a liquid contained
and the hanger is light. The maximum load that can in a cylinder. The radius of cylinder is R. A piston
be put on the hanger without breaking a wire is (weightless) is placed on the liquid surface. If a
pressure is applied on the liquid by a weight “W’
placed on the piston, then the fractional change in
radius of ball is ‘x’. Then the bulk modulus for the
m2 material of ball is, (given that x < < 1)
W W
(1) (2)
m1 R2 x 3R2 x
Wx 3W
(1) 14 kg (2) 1.4 kg (3) (4)
R 2 R2 x
(3) 1.2 kg (4) 12 kg
56. If poisson’s ratio equal to 0.4 for the material of a
51. A material has poisson’s ratio of 0.5. If a uniform rod cylindrical wire, then find the percentage change in
of same material suffers a longitudinal strain of volume of the same wire in which longitudinal strain
2×10-3, then the % change in volume of the rod is is 2×10-3 on applying tensile stress.
(1) 2% (2) 20%
(1) 0.04% (2) 0.08%
(3) 0.2% (4) 0% (3) 0.02% (4) 4%
52. A uniform rod of young’s modulus Y, coefficient of
57. Two rods A and B of radii in ratio 1:2 and length
linear expansion  and area of cross-section A is
ratio 2 : 5, are placed between rigid supports with
heated such that the magnitude of temperature
no scope for expansion. The material of both rods
change is T. Calculate the thermal stress
is same. Now if both the rods are heated to
developed in the rod if its length is L and it is free
produce the same temperature rise, then the ratio
to expand on smooth horizontal surface.
of thermal stress developed in A and B is
(1) YT (2) YAT
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:2
YA
(3)  T (4) Zero (3) 1:4 (4) 1:8
L
58. Calculate the maximum length of a uniform wire
which can be hanged from ceiling. =density of
material of wire, g=acceleration due to gravity and
53. =breaking stress for the material of wire.
Stress Stress
 g
(1) (2)
g 
Strain Strain
(A) (B) 1 2
(3) (4)
g g
Choose the correct statement
(64)
Chapter 09
Mechanical Properties of Fluids
1. A tank is filled with immiscicible liquid of two 7. An ice block floats in a liquid whose density is less
different densities  and 2 upto height 2H metre than water. A part of block is outside the liquid.
as shown in figure. An orifice is created at the When whole ice has melted, the liquid level will
bottom. Find efflux velocity. (1) rise
(2) go down
H  (3) remain same
(4) first rise then go down
H 2 8. A man is rowing a boat of mass m with a constant
v velocity v0 in a river. The contact area of boat is A
and coefficient of viscosity is . The depth of river
is D. Assume that velocity gradient is constant. The
(1) 2gH (2) 3gH force required to row the boat is
Av 0 2Av 0
(3) 4gH (4) 6gH (1) (2)
2D D
2. A cubical vessel with open top of side length 1m is
filled with water. Now it start moving with constant Av 0 3Av 0
(3) (4)
acceleration 19.6 m/s2 in horizontal direction. Then D 2D
the amount of water split out is
9. Two liquid drops of equal radius are combined to
(1) 250 kg (2) 500 kg form a bigger drop. What is the ratio of surface
energy of bigger drop to one of the smaller one ?
(3) 750 kg (4) 900 kg
1
3. 8 identical drops of the same radius are falling (1) 2 3 : 1 (2) 1:1
through air with steady velocity 5 cm/s. If these 8 2
drops coalesce the terminal velocity would be (3) 2 3 : 1 (4) None of these
(1) 10 m/s (2) 0.1 m/s 10. What should be the pressure inside a small air
bubble of 0.1 mm radius situated just below
(3) 20 cm/s (4) 40 cm/s the water surface? (Surface tension of water
4. Bernoulli’s principle is based on = 7.2×10–2 N/m and atmospheric pressure = 1.013
× 105 N/m2)
(1) Conservation of mass
(1) 2.012×105 N/m2 (2) 2.012×104 N/m2
(2) Conservation of Energy
(3) 1.027×105 N/m2 (4) 1.027×104 N/m2
(3) Conservation of momentum
11. Water rises to a height of 10 cm in a glass capillary
(4) Conservation of Volume tube. If the area of cross-section of the tube is
reduced to 1/ 4th of the former value, what is the
5. An open U-tube contains mercury. When 11.2 cm
height of water rise now?
of water is poured into one of the arms of the tube,
how high does the mercury rise in the other arm (1) 20 cm (2) 5 cm
from its initial level ? (Density of mercury is
13.6 g/cm3) (3) 2.5 cm (4) 7 cm
12. Water rises to a height of 16.3 cm in a capillary of
(1) 0.56 cm (2) 1.35 cm height 18 cm above the water level. If the tube is
cut at a height of 12 cm
(3) 0.41 cm (4) 2.32 cm
(1) Water will come as a fountain from the capillary
6. A closed compartment containging gas is moving tube
with some acceleration in horizontal directions. (2) W ater will stay at a height of 12 cm in the
Neglect effect of gravity. Then the pressure in the capillary tube
compartment is (3) The height of the water in the capillary will be
10.3 cm
(1) same everywhere (2) lower in front side
(4) Water will flow down the sides of the capillary
(3) lower in rear side (4) lower in upper side tube
(65)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Mechanical Properties of Fluids
13. A large open tank has two holes on the side wall. 18. A ring is cut from a platinum tube of 8.5 cm internal
One is a square hole of side ‘L’ at a depth y from and 8.7 cm external diameter. Its plane is kept
the top and the other is a circular hole of radius R horizontal, so that it comes in contact with the
at a depth 4y from the top. W hen the tank is water in a vessel. What is the surface tension of
completely filled with water the quantities of water water if an extra 3.97 g force is required to pull it
flowing out per second from both the holes are the away from water ?(g = 980 cm/s2)
same. Then R is equal to
(1) 72 dyne/cm (2) 14 dyne/cm
L (3) 60 dyne/cm (4) 36 dyne/cm
(1) 2L (2) 19. Two separate soap bubbles of radii 0.002 m and
2
0.004 m formed of the same solution of surface
tension 0.07 N/m come together to form a double
L
(3) L (4) bubble. Then the radius of curvature of the internal
2 film surface common to both the bubble
14. The speed of air-flow on the upper and lower (1) 0.004 m (2) 0.002 m
surfaces of a wing of an aeroplane are v1 and v2 (3) 0.001 m (4) 0.02 m
respectively. If A is the projectional area along
20. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R.
horizontal of the wing and  is the density of air,
One end of it has n fine holes, each of radius r. If
then the upward lift is
the speed of liquid in the tube is v, the speed of
the ejection of the liquid through the holes is
1 1
(1) A  v 1  v 2  (2) A  v 1  v 2 
2 2 v 2R vR 2
(1) (2)
nr n 2r 2
1 1
(3)
2

A v12  v 22  (4)
2

A v12  v 22  vR 2 vR 2
(3) (4)
15. The blood flows through a large artery extending nr 2 n3 r 2
from heart to lungs with a radius of 2.5 mm and 15 21. A solid sphere of mass m = 2 kg and specific
cm long. The pressure across the artery ends is gravity s = 0.5 is held stationary relative to tank
found to be 380 Pa then what is the blood’s average filled with water by attaching a string between
speed ? (Coefficient of viscocity of blood is 0.0027 sphere and bottom of the tank. The tank is
Poiseulli) accelerated upward with acceleration 2 m/s2. The
(1) 0.0286 mm/s (2) 0.0144 mm/s  kg 
tension in the string is    1000
(3) 0.0073 mm/s (4) 0.00073 mm/s  m3 
16. Equal masses of water and a liquid of densities of
1g/cm3 and 2g/ cm3 are mixed together. Then the
mixture has density of a = 2 m/s2
2 4
(1) g/cm3 (2) g/cm3
3 3
(1) 24 N (2) 4 N
3 (3) 8 N (4) 32 N
(3) g/cm3 (4) 3 g/cm3
2 22. The pressure (P) versus depth (h) graph for the
17. A uniform solid sphere floats in an immiscible liquid of density  as shown in figure. The density
mixture of water ( w = 10 3 kg/m 3 ) and of liquid will be
Pressure(P)
4
 3 3

liquid   13.50  10 kg / m such that its
5
th
45°
1
portion is in water and th portion is in liquid.
5
Density of metal is h(depth)
kg kg 1 2
(1) 4.5 × 103 (2) 4.0 × 103 (1) unit
m3 m3 g unit (2)
g
kg kg 3 4
(3) 3.5 × 103 (4) 1.9 × 103 (3) unit (4) unit
m3 m3 g g
(66)
Mechanical Properties of Fluids Medical Q-Bank-2020
23. Equal volumes of two immiscible liquids of densities 26. Water rises in a capillary tube to a height of 2.0
 and 2 are filled in vessel as shown in figure. Two cm. In another capillary tube whose radius is one
third of it, the height upto which water will rise is
h 3h
small holes are punched at depth and from (1) 6.5 cm (2) 6.0 cm
2 2
the surface of lighter fluid. If v1 and v2 are the (3) 4.0 cm (4) 2 cm
velocities of efflux at these two holes, Then v1/ v2
is 27. Two immiscible liquids (see diagram below) are
filled in a vessel. The velocity with which the liquid
will emerge out of a narrow hole at the bottom is

h v1
A  A = 0.5 g/cc
2H
h v2
 B H  B = 1.0 g/cc
1 v
(1)
2 2
(1) 6gH (2) 4gH
1
(2)
2 (3) 3gH (4) 2gH
1 28. During a storm, density of air is found to be  and

(3) flow velocity v outside a mud hut whose roof is covered
4
with an asbestos sheet of mass m and surface area
1 A.
(4)
2
24. A glass rod of radius 1 mm is inserted A
symmetrically into a glass capillary tube with inside
radius 2 mm. Then the whole arrangement is
brought in contact of surface of water. Surface
tension of water is 7× 10–2 N/m. To what height will
water rise in capillary?
(1) 0.93 cm Find the condition for which the roof top blows up.
(2) 1.4 cm 2
(1) Av  mg
(3) 2.1 cm
2
(2) 2Av  mg
(4) 6.8 cm
25. In the given figure calculate the velocity v3 of the Av 2

fluid in section 3 of pipe (3)  mg
4
2
(4) Av  2mg
1
A,v
29. A liquid drop of radius R breaks into 64 tiny drops
3
each of radius r. If the surface tension of the liquid is
2 2A,v3 T, then the gain in surface energy is
v (1) 48 r2T
A ,2
(2) 12 r2T
(1) 1.5 v (2) 3 v (3) 96 r2T
(3) 2 v (4) v (4) 192 r2T
(67)
30. The terminal velocity of small-sized spherical body 37. A bubble is at the bottom of the lake of depth h. As
of radius r falling vertically in a viscous liquid is the bubble comes to sea level, its radius increases
proportional to to three times. If atmospheric pressure is equal to
l metre of water column, then h is equal to
1 1
(1) (2) (1) 26l (2) l
r2 r
(3) 25l (4) 30l
(3) r (4) r2
31. Calculate the depth below the surface of sea that 38. A metal block having an internal cavity weight 110
a rubber ball should be taken so as to decrease g in air and 80 g in water. If the density of the
its volume by 0.1% (density of sea water = 1000 kg metal is 5.5 g/cc then the volume of cavity is
m –3 , Bulk modulus of rubber = 9×10 8 N m –2 , (1) 30 cc (2) 20 cc
acceleration due to
gravity = 10 m s–2) (3) 10 cc (4) 5 cc
(1) 9 m (2) 18 m 39. Two solid spheres of same metal of mass M and
(3) 180 m (4) 90 m 8M fall simultaneously on a viscous liquid and their
terminal velocities are v and nv, then value of n is
32. Which of the following is correct ?
(1) 16 (2) 8
(1) Buoyant force on an object is independent of its
depth in a given liquid (3) 4 (4) 2
(2) Buoyant force on an object is independent of 40. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 N/m. If a thin
acceleration of observer film formed on a loop of area 0.02 m 2 then its
surface energy will be
(3) Buoyant force on an object depend upon
density of liquid (1) 5×10–2J (2) 2.5×10–2J
(4) All of these (3) 2×10–1J (4) 3×10–1J
33. A small drop of water falls from rest through a 41. The excess pressure inside the first soap bubble is
large height h in air, the final velocity is 3 times that inside the second bubble then
the ratio of volume of the first to the second bubble
(1) Proportional to h will be
(2) Proportional to h
(1) 1:27 (2) 3:1
(3) Inversely proportional to h
(4) Almost independent of h (3) 1:3 (4) 1:9
34. An object of density 10 kg/m3 is floating in a liquid 42. The excess pressure due to surface tension inside
of density 2 kg/m 3 . Fraction of its volume a spherical drop is 6 units. If 8 such drops combine
immersed in liquid is then the excess pressure due to surface tension
inside the larger drop is
1
(1) (2) 1 (1) 3 units (2) 6 units
5
(3) 12 units (4) 48 units
1 1
(3) (4) 43. There are two holes, each of cross-sectional area
2 10
‘’ on the opposite side of a wide rectangular tank
35. Ice pieces are floating in a beaker A containing water containing a liquid of density . When the liquid
and also in a beaker B containing miscible liquid of flows out of the holes, the net force on the tank is.
specific gravity 1.2. When ice melts, the level of [h= vertical distance between the two holes]
(1) Water increases in A
(1) 2gh (2) 4gh
(2) Water decreases in A
(3) Liquid in B decreases (3) 0.5gh (4) gh
(4) Liquid in B increases 44. To get the maximum flight, a ball must be thrown
36. W hy the dam of water reservoir is thick at the as
bottom?
(1) Quantity of water increases with depth (1) (2)
(2) Density of water increases with depth
(3) Pressure of water increases with depth
(3) v (4) Any of a), b), c)
(4) Temperature of water increases with depth
(68)
45. If two soap bubbles of different radii are connected 49. Water flows through a frictionless duct with a cross-
by a tube, section varying as shown in figure. Pressure P at
points along the axis is represented by
(1) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller
bubble till the sizes becomes equal
(2) air flows from bigger bubble to the smaller
bubble till the sizes are interchanged
(3) air flows from the smaller bubble to the bigger
bubble
(4) there is no flow of air P P
46. Radius of an air bubble at the bottom of the lake

is r and it becomes 2r when the air bubble rises to (1) (2)
the top surface of the lake. If the atmospheric
pressure is p cm, then the depth of the lake is x x
(Neglect pressure difference due to surface tension)
P P
(1) 2p cm
(2) 8p cm
(3) (4)
(3) 4p cm
x x
(4) 7p cm
50. A U-tube of base length  filled with same volume
47. Which of the following statements are not correct of two liquids of densities  and 2 is moving with
about a soap bubble ? an acceleration on horizontal plane. If the height
difference between the two surfaces (open to
i. Work done in forming the bubble of radius R
atmosphere) becomes zero, then height h is given
and surface tension T is 4R2T
by
ii. Work done in doubling the radius of a bubble
of radius R and surface tension T is 24R2T
iii. Pressure inside a bubble is greater than inside

a drop of the same radius and liquid
h
iv. Pressure inside a bubble is lesser than outside
a
it.
(1) i, ii (2) i, iii


(3) i, iv (4) ii, iii
48. A cylindrical vessel of height h and base area S is 3a a

filled with water. An orifice of area A << S is (1) (2)
2g 2g
opened in the bottom of the vessel. Neglecting the
viscosity of water determine how soon all the water
will flow out of the vessel ? a 2a
(3) (4)
g 3g
S 2h
(1) 51. The height of water level in tank is H. The range of
A g
H
water stream coming out of a hole at depth
4
A g from upper water level will be
(2)
S 2h
3H 2H
(3) SA 2gh (1) (2)
2 3
2h S H
(4) (3) (4) 3H
g A 2
(69)
52. A plate of area 100 cm2 lying on the upper surface of 57. The depth of an ocean is about 3000 m. Calculate
a 2 mm thick oil film. If the coefficient of viscosity of the percentage compression of the water at the bottom
oil is 0.01 poise then horizontal force required to of the ocean. [Bwater = 1.5 × 109 N/m2]
move the plate with a velocity of
(1) 3% (2) 2%
3 cm/s will be
(3) 6.2% (4) 0.2%
(1) 3 × 10–4 N (2) 1.5 × 10–4 N
58. Calculate the force acting on a wall of height ‘h’ which
(3) 2 × 10–4 N (4) 4 × 10–4 N
supports a liquid of density of ‘’. The width is w.
53. A cube of edge length 10 cm is just balanced at the
interface of two liquids A and B as shown in figure. If gh2 w gh2 w
A and B has specific gravity 0.6 and 0.4 respectively, (1) (2)
2 4
then mass of cube is
(3) gh2w (4) ghw2
59. Water flows along a horizontal pipe whose cross
section is not constant. The pressure is 1 cm of Hg
B where the velocity is 35 cm/s. At a point where the
velocity is 65 cm/sec. The pressure will be
A (1) 0.89 cm of Hg (2) 0.5 cm of Hg

(3) 8.9 cm of Hg (4) 1 cm of Hg
60. Two glass plates separated by a distance d traps a
film of water forming semicircular curvature. The
(1) 240 g (2) 360 g surface area of the plates is ‘A’. Calculate the force
(3) 480 g (4) 540 g required to separate them apart
54. A body of mass M and volume V is floating in a liquid
2TA TA
of density . When an excess mass m is placed on (1) (2)
the body, then it just sinks in the liquid. The value of d d
excess mass is
(1) V + M T2 d 2Td
(3) (4)
A A
(2) V – M
(3) M – V 61. A solid cube of volume V m3 is immersed in water
3
V  M  with th of its volume is above the water level.
(4)  V  4
 M  What will be density of material of cube if density
of water is 1000 kg/m3?
55. An orifice is made at the bottom of a container. The
maximum height is h of a liquid of surface tension T (1) 300 kg/m3 (2) 250 kg/m3
and density  can be filled such that there is no (3) 1000 kg/m3 (4) 100 kg/m3
leakage of the liquid through the orifice. Radius of
62. A tank is filled with a liquid of density  up to a
orifice is
height H. The average pressure on the walls of
2 T container is
(1) (2)
Tgh gh
1
(1) gH (2) gH
2T  2
(3) (4)
gh Tgh
1 1
56. A boat is floating on a lake loaded with solid iron (3) gH (4) gH
4 8
bricks. If the bricks are unloaded into water, then level
of liquid in the lake 63. A tank is filled with water up to a height of 80 m.
A narrow hole is made at the bottom of the tank.
(1) Decreases What will be speed of water coming out of the
(2) Increases hole?
(3) Remains constant (1) 10 m/s (2) 40 m/s
(4) First increases then decreases (3) 40 cm/s (4) 10 cm/s
(70)
64. W hen a body dropped in a viscous liquid then 67. The U tube in figure contains two different liquids in
velocity versus time graph will be given by static equilibrium, the pressure of point B is equal
to
V (m/s)
P0
P0
(1) D
t (s) E
A
V (m/s)
B C
(2)
t (s)
V (m/s) (1) E (2) A

(3) D (4) C
68. The diameters of the two pistons in hydraulic are 1
(3) cm and 10 cm. What weight on smaller piston will
support W weight on larger piston?
t (s)
W
(1) 100W (2)
10
V (m/s)
W
(3) (4) 10W
100
(4) 69. An aeroplane works on
t (s) (1) Archimedes’ principle (2) Pascal’s law

(3) Stoke’s law (4) Bernoullis theorem
65. Excess pressure inside a drop is given by (S = surface
tension, R = radius of drop) 70. W hich among the following options is correct
regarding the case when a capillary kept in water is
4S S cut so that it becomes of insufficient length ?
(1) (2)
R R (1) Water starts pouring out
2S 8S (2) Water does not rises

(3) (4)
R R (3) The contact angle changes so as to accomodate
rise to the maximum height
66. If liquid flow through P to Q in pipe shown
(4) Water level falls down
A2 71. The work done to get n smaller equal size spherical

A1
liquid drops from a bigger size spherical drop of water
Q is proportional to
P
2
has cross-sectional area A1 and A2. If motion of 3
  – 31 
liquid is streamlined and speed of liquid through P (1)  n – 1 (2)  n – 1
is V1 while through Q is V2 then    
(1) V1 = V2 (2) V2 < V1  1

  4

3 3
(3)  n – 1 (4)  n – 1
(3) V2 > V1 (4) A1A2 = V1V2    
(71)
72. Eight spherical rain drops of the same mass and 77. A capillary tube of radius ‘r’ is immersed in water
radius are falling down with a terminal speed of and water rises in it to a height ‘h’. The mass of
6 cm-s –1. If they coalesce to form one big drop, water in the capillary tube is 5 g. Another capillary
what will be the terminal speed of the bigger drop- tube of radius 2r is immersed in water. The mass
(neglect the buoyancy of the air) ? of water that will rise in this tube is
(1) 1.5 cms –1 (2) 6 cms –1 (1) 2.5 g (2) 5.0 g
(3) 24 cms –1 (4) 32 cms –1
(3) 10 g (4) 20 g
73. When the u-tube (shown below) is in rest then
liquid stands at the same level in both the tubes. 78. A container contains some liquid of density twice
But as indicated a height difference h occurs when that of Hg. A bubble moves from bottom of the
the system is given an acceleration a towards the container to the surface of the liquid such that the
right. Here h is equal to radius of the bubble doubles. Find the height of the
liquid in the container if atmospheric pressure is 76
cm of Hg column.
(1) 266 cm (2) 76 cm

h (3) 152 cm (4) 228 cm
a
79. The arrangement shown in the figure is of a
cylindrical tube of uniform cross-sectional area. The
vertical limbs contain a liquid of density ‘’ to a
height ‘h’ each. The lower (horizontal) part of length
L 2h of the tube contains a liquid of density ‘2’. The
aL arrangement is finally accelerated horizontally at
gL
(1) (2) g
2g 2a
m/s 2. Find the difference in the heights of the
2
gl aL liquid in the two vertical limbs.
(3) (4)
a g
74. A closed rectangular tank is completely filled with
water and is accelerated horizontally with an
acceleration a towards right. Pressure is maximum
at
A B h h
a
2h 2
D C
4h
(1) D (2) C (1) (2) 8h/7
7
(3) B (4) A
75. A capillary tube is attached horizontally to a 2h h
(3) (4)
constant head arrangement. If the radius of the 7 7
capillary tube is increased by 10%, then the rate of
80. A solid cube floats in a liquid in a container such
flow of liquid will change nearly by
that 40% of its volume is floating outside the liquid.
(1) +10% (2) +46% Now the container is accelerated vertically up by
‘2g’m/s 2 . The percentage of ball now floating
(3) –10% (4) –40%
outside the liquid
76. A tank is filled with water upto height H. When a
(1) Will be equal to 40%
hole is made at a distance h below the level of
water, what will be the horizontal range of water jet? (2) Will be less than 40%
(3) Will not change
(1) 2 h H – h  (2) 4 h H  h 
(4) May increase or decrease depending upon
relation between densities of liquid and solid
(3) 4 h  H – h  (4) 2 h H  h  cube
(72)
81. Two tubes A and B are in series. Radius of A is R 87. Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 and 1.02
and that of B is 2R. If water flows through A with atmospheres. Ratio between their volumes is
velocity ‘v’, then velocity of water through B is
(1) 102 : 101 (2) (102)3 : (101)3
(1) v/2 (2) v
(3) 8 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
(3) v/4 (4) v/8 88. At what speed, the velocity head of water is equal
82. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in a liquid. to pressure head of 40 cm of Hg?
The liquid rises to a height h. The corresponding mass (1) 8.4 ms –1 (2) 10.3 ms –1
is m. What mass of water shall rise in the capillary if (3) 2.8 ms –1 (4) 5.6 ms –1
the radius of the tube is doubled ? 89. Calculate the density of mixture obtained by mixing
(1) 1 m (2) 2 m equal masses of two immiscible liquids of density
d1 and d2.
(3) 3 m (4) 4 m
d1  d2 d1d2
83. A U-tube of uniform cross-section initially contained (1) (2)
2 d1  d2
a liquid of density 2 and had a length of L in the
tube. Now another liquid (immiscible with the previous
2d1d2
liquid) of density  is poured in the U tube from one (3) (4) d1d2
end such that this liquid also fills length L in the tube. d1  d2
Find the difference in the levels of the liquid on the 90. Calculate the average pressure on the walls of a
two sides of the tube. fully filled cylinder of volume V and cross-sectional
radius R. d=density of liquid in the cylinder.
L
(1) L (2) dVg dVg
2 (1) (2)
2R2 R 2
L L
(2) (4) dg dg
3 4 (3) (4)
R VR2
84. A barometer when accelerated vertically up by 91. A cubical container was initially full with a liquid. The
acceleration ‘a’ gives the reading as 47.5 cm of Hg. container is now accelerated horizontally with
Find the value of ‘a’ if atmospheric pressure is 76 cm acceleration ‘a’ such that one-third of the liquid is
of Hg. (g = 10 m/s2) spilled out. Find the value of ‘a’
(1) g (2) g/3
(1) a = 2 m/s2 (2) a = 4 m/s2
(3) a = 6 m/s2 (4) a = 5 m/s2 2g
(3) (4) g/2
3
85. Two bodies A and B weigh 10 kg and 20 kg
92. A capillary tube of insufficient length is dipped in a
MA liquid. The angle of contact for solid liquid pair is
respectively in water. Find the value of
MB , if their acute
relative densities are 2 and 4 respectively. (MA and (1) The liquid will not rise in such a tube
MB are mass of A and B respectively) (2) The liquid will rise up to the available length and
then will come out as fountain liquid
1 1
(1) (2) (3) The liquid will rise up to available length and
1 2
then will start oozing out
3 1 (4) The liquid will rise up to available length and will

(3) (4) stay there
4 4
93. The correct relation for Reynold’s number (R) in
86. A drop of water of volume 10-3 m3 is pressed between terms of V= velocity of fluid, = density of fluid,
the two glass plates so as to spread to an area of 10- D=diameter of tube and = coefficient of viscosity
2 m2. If the surface tension of water is 40 N/m, then for the fluid.
what is the value of normal force required to separate
the glass plates? VD VD
(1) R  (2) R 
 
(1) 16 N (2) 8 N
D D
(3) 4 N (4) 2 N (3) R  (4) R 
V V
(73)
94. A cylindrical tank has a small hole at its bottom. 97. Calculate the change in surface potential energy when
Calculate the time taken by level of water (non- ‘n’ identical drops of radius ‘r’ of a liquid of surface
viscous) to fall from H1 to H2. A = cross-sectional tension S combine to form a bigger drop.
Area of cylinder and a = cross-sectional area of hole. (1) 4r2S(n1/3–1) (2) 4r2S(n–n1/3)
(3) 4r2S[n2/3–n] (4) 4r2S n[1–n1/3]
A 2H1 2H2 A H1 H2
(1) (  ) (2) (  ) 98. A barometer when accelerated vertically up by
a g g a g g
acceleration ‘a’ gives the reading as 63.33 cm of Hg.
Find the value of ‘a’ if atmospheric pressure is 76 cm
of Hg.
2A 2A
(3) ( H1  H2 ) (4) (H1  H2 ) (1) 2 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2
ag ag
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 5 m/s2
95. A tank, which is open at the top, contains a non- 99. In the given arrangement, the two limbs of the tube
viscous liquid upto a height H. A small hole is made have frictionless and massless pistons. If a mass of
in the side of the tank at a distance y below the liquid 10 kg on piston A of cross-section area 10 cm2 is
surface. The liquid emerging from the hole lands at a exactly balanced by a mass of 5 kg on piston B of
distance x from the tank. Choose the correct cross section area ‘a’ such that the two pistons are
statement. on the same level. Find ‘a’
A B
y M1 M2
(1) If y is increased from zero to H, x will first (1) 100 cm2 (2) 10 cm2
decrease and then increase.
(3) 5 cm2 (4) 2.5 cm2
(2) If y is increased from zero to H, x will first
increase and then decrease. 100. A cubical block of edge length ‘a’ floats in a liquid of
density  such that fraction of volume immersed is
(3) x is maximum for two different values of y. ‘b’. Calculate the minimum force which should be
(4) x is a constant and does not depend on y. applied on the block such that it just immerses fully
in the liquid.
96. Two capillary tubes of cross-sectional radii r1 and r2
carry same liquid through them. Calculate the radius (1) a3g(1–b)
of a single capillary tube through which same volume
of same liquid will flow per unit time as the other two (2) b3g(1–a)
of radii r1 and r2 (connected in parallel), given that all
the three capillary tubes are of same length and have (a3  b3 )
the same pressure difference across their ends. (3)
g
(1) (r14  r24 )1/ 4 (2) (r12  r22 )1/ 2

(4) a3bg
(3) (r13  r23 )1/ 3 (4) r1  r2

(74)
Chapter 10
Thermal Properties of Matter
1. Which of the curves represents the relation between 5. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
celsius and Fahrenheit temperature ? radiates 450 W thermal radiation at 500 K. If the
radius were halved and the temperature doubled, the
°C 2
3 power radiated would be
(1) 450 W (2) 225 W
4 1 (3) 1000 W (4) 1800 W
6. The temperature of a body falls from 80° to 70°C in
°F 10 minute. Find time in which temperature will fall
from 70°C to 60°C, if temperature of surrounding is
15°C. (Assume Newton average rate of cooling to be
valid)
(1) 15 min (2) 10 min
(3) 16 min (4) 12 min
(1) 1 (2) 2
7. Light from an electric lamp A has spectral emissive
power as shown in figure. For another lamp B
(3) 3 (4) 4 which takes the same input power as lamp A but
2. Two identical rectangular strips, one of copper and operates at a higher temperature, the graph is best
the other of steel, are rivetted together to form a represented by
e
bimetallic strip (  copper >  steel) on heating, the
strip will
A
(1) remain straight
(2) bend with copper on convex side

(3) bend with steel on convex side e
(4) get twisted

B
3. 5 gm of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1gm steam at (1)
A
100°C. The final temperature and composition of the

mixture is
e
(1) water at 60°C
(2) water at 40°C A B
(2)
(3) 2gm water at 100°C and rest as steam

(4) 2gm water at 0°C and rest ice
4. Four rods of same material and having the same
cross-section and length have been joined as B
e A
shown. The temperature of the junction of four rods
will be
(3)
0°
30° 
•
e
90° 60°
B
(1) 20°C (2) 30°C (4)
A
(3) 45°C (4) 60°C 
(75)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Thermal Properties of Matter
8. Assume that specific heat capacity of a material 12. A liquid in a beaker has temperature (t) at time t
increases with increase in temperature. If equal and (s) is the temperature of surrounding. (i) is the
amount of the substance is mixed in isolation at initial temperature of the body at t=0. Then,
two different temperatures T1K and T2K (T2 > T1) according to Newton’s law of cooling the correct
then the equilibrium temperature will be graph between temperature of body and time is:-
 T1  T2  
(1) greater than   (1)
 2 
s
 T1  T2  i
(2) lesser than  
 2 
Time
T1  T2
(3)
2 (2) 
(4) unpredictable due to insufficient data s
9. A uniform cylinder of length  and radius r is i

connected between ice at 0°C and steam at 100°C.
This leads to melting of ice at the rate of  kg/sec. Time
Now the cylinder is melted and recast into 3
identical cylinders of radius  2r  each and they


(3)
are now connected in series across the same ice
and steam chambers. The new rate of melting of i
ice in kg/sec is
s
(1) 2 (2) 
(3) 4 (4) 6 Time
10. The coefficient of volume expansion of material of a

metre scale is 18  10 -5 K -1. Find the fractional 
(4)
change in its length when temperature is changed
by 20°C. i
(1) 36  10-4 s
(2) 18  10-4
Time
(3) 12  10-4
13. A black body has maximum wavelength  m at
(4) 6  10-4
temperature 1000 K. It’s corresponding wavelength
11. Consider a compound slab consisting of two at temperature 4000 K will be:-
different material having equal area cross-section
and thermal conductivities K and 4K. The equivalent (1) 2m (2) m
thermal conductivity of the slab is:-
m m
A B (3) (4)
1 K 2 2 4
1 2
4K
A B 14. Suppose on a temperature scale X, water boils at
60 X and freezes at 200 X . Calculate the
(1) K
temperature of 50 C on the X-scale
(2) 1.5 K
(3) 2 K (1) 120 X (2) 130 X
(4) 2.5 K (3) –140°X (4) –135°X
(76)
Thermal Properties of Matter Medical Q-Bank-2020
15. The volume of a metal sphere increases by 0.24%, 21. The power emitted per unit area of a black body is R
when its temperature is increased by 40 C . Find  Watt/m2. The wavelength at which the power radiated
the co-efficient of linear expansion of the metal by black body will be maximum is (Stefans constant
measured in SI unit is  and Wien’s constant is b)
(1) 2 × 10–5 (2) 6 × 10–5
1 1
(3) 8 × 10–5 (4) 1.2 × 10–5
 b  4  b 4
(1)   (2)  
16. 200 g of a solid ball at 20 C is dropped in an R  R
equal amount of water at 80 C . The resulting
1 1
temperature is 60 C . This means that specific  bR  4   4
(3)   (4) b  
heat of solid is,    R
(1) One fourth of water
(2) One half of water 22. Two liquids L 1 and L 2 are at 20°C and 40°C
(3) Twice of water respectively. When equal masses of them are mixed
(4) Four times of water together the temperature of mixture becomes 35°C.
17. A cylinder of radius R of a material of thermal The ratio of specific heat capacities of L1 and L2 is
conductivity K1 is surrounded by a cylindrical sheet (1) 1:1 (2) 3:1
of inner radius R and outer radius 3R, made of a
(3) 1:3 (4) 2:3
material of thermal conductivity K 2 . The effective
thermal conductivity of the system assuming heat 23. If the time taken by ice to increase the thickness
current to flow along the length of cylinder is from 0 to x is t, then the time taken to increase
the thickness from x to 2x is
K1  3K 2
(1) K1  K 2 (2) (1) 3t (2) 4t
4
(3) 2t (4) 6t
K1  8K 2 8K1  K 2
(3) (4) 24. Two metallic rods of equal length and cross section
9 9
but thermal conductivity k1 and k2 are welded as
18. The time taken by ice on the surface of a pond to
shown. The equivalent thermal conductivity of this
grow from zero initial thickness to a thickness of
resulting rod will be
2.5 cm is 25 hrs. Find the time taken to grow from
1.5 cm to 2 cm k1 k2
(1) 9 hrs (2) 6 hrs
(3) 5 hrs (4) 7 hrs XXX
19. A body cools in 5 min from 80 C to 60  C . Find
k1 k 2
its temperature after the next 5 mins (Given (1) (2) k1 + k2
k1  k 2
temperature of surrounding is 10 C )
(1) 45.7 C (2) 50.4 C 2k1 k 2 k1  k 2
(3) (4)
(3) 42.8 C 
(4) 40 C  k1  k 2 2
20. Two bodies A and B of same mass, area and 25. If the temperature of sun is decreased by x% then
surface finish, with specific heat capacities SA and the value of solar constant is changed by
SB ( SA > SB ) are allowed to cool beginning from (1) 4x % (2) –4x %
same initial temperature in same surrounding. (3) 2x % (4) –2x %
Temperature ( ) varies with time(t) as.
26. A black body, which is at a high temperature T K,
 thermal radiation emitted at a rate of EW/m2. If the

T
A B temperature falls to K , then thermal radiation
(1) (2)
4
B A
emitted in W/m2 will be
t t
E
  (1) E (2)
4
B A E E
(3) A (4) (3) (4)
B 64 256
t t
(77)
27. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerine is 33. Two bodies A and B of equal masses area and
49×10–5K–1. The fractional change in density on emissivity cooling from same temperature are
30°C rise in temperature is represented by graph. If T is the instantaneous
temperature and T0 be temperature of surroundings
(1) –1.47×10–2 (2) –1.47×10–3
then relationship between their specific heats is
(3) –1.47×10–1 (4) –1.47×10–4
28. The temperature of iron piece is increased from
ln(T–T0)
30°C to 90°C. Calculate the change in the
temperature expressed on Fahrenheit scale A
(1) 60°F (2) 78°F B
t
(3) 108°F (4) 98°F
(1) SA = SB (2) SA > SB
29. Three rods made of same material and having the (3) SA < SB (4) SA  SB
same cross section have joined as shown in figure.
Each rod has same length. The left and right ends 34. The rate of cooling of solid sphere of radius r and
are kept at 0°C and 90°C respectively. The density will depend upon its radius is
temperature of junction of three rod (1) r–2 (2) r–1
90°C (3) r0 (4) r2

35. The pressures of the gas filled in the bulb of a
constant volume gas thermometer are 48 cm and
0°C 68 cm of mercury column at 0°C and 100°C
T
respectively. When the bulb is immersed in a liquid,
90°C
placed in a vessel, its pressure is 50 cm of Hg
(1) 45°C (2) 60°C column. Calculate the temperature of the liquid
(1) 10°C (2) 15°C
(3) 30°C (4) 20°C
(3) 20°C (4) 25°C
30. Two rods of length l1 and l2 are made of material
having coefficient of linear expansion 1 and 2 36. On heating a liquid of coefficient of cubical
respectively. If the difference in length of two rods expansion  in a container having co-efficient of
does not depend upon temperature variation then

2 linear expansion , the level of liquid in the
 l1  2
  is equal to container will. For a container of rectangular cross-
 l2  section if y = 2.
(1) Rise (2) Fall
2 12
(1) (2) (3) Remain stationary (4) Difficult to say
1  22
37. Absolute co-efficient of volume expansion of a liquid
2
is 10 times the co-efficient of volume expansion of
 2  the vessel. Ratio of absolute and apparent
(3) 1222 (4)   expansion of the liquid is
 1 
(1) 10 : 9 (2) 1 : 9
31. In an experiment of specific heat of a metal, a 0.20
kg block of metal at 150°C is dropped in a copper (3) 10 : 3 (4) 3 : 10
calorimeter (of water equivalent 0.025 kg) containing 38. 5 g of water at 30°C and 5 g of ice at –20°C are
150 cc of water at 27°C. The final temperature is mixed together in a calorimeter. Find the final
40°C. The value of specific heat of metal is temperature of the mixture, assuming water
equivalent of calorimeter to be negligible
(1) 0.01 cal/gm°C (2) 0.1 cal/gm°C
(3) 0.2 cal/gm°C (4) 0.4 cal/gm°C cal
(specific heats of ice and water are 0.5 and
32. A black body at 1500°C emits radiations with gc
maximum intensity at a wavelength of 5000 A°. If
the temperature of body is increased by 100°C, the cal
1 . Latent heat of fusion of ice=80cal/g)
maximum intensity will observe nearly at: gc
(1) 4700 A° (2) 5000 A° (1) –30°C (2) 5°C
(3) 6000 A° (4) 3000 A° (3) 0°C (4) –20°C
(78)
39. Find the temperature of the junction shown in figure 43. The steam point and the ice point of a mercury
for three rods, identical in dimensions. thermometer are marked as 80° and 20° in a
certain scale. W hat will be the temperature in
20 C centigrade when this thermometer read 32° ?
(1) 32°C (2) 20°C
(3) 40°C (4) None of the above
60 C 44. A cylindrical metal rod of length L0 and thickness
d, is shaped into a ring with a small gap x as
shown. On heating the system
40 C x
(1) 33.33°C (2) 36.67°C

• r
(3) 40°C (4) 30°C
40. Two metallic spheres have radii ‘’ and ‘3’ and
they emit thermal radiation with maximum
d
intensities at wavelengths  and 2 respectively..
(1) x decreases, r and d increases
The ratio of the radiant powers emitted by them is
(2) x and r increases, d decreases
(1) 16:9 (2) 9:16 (3) x, r and d all increases
(3) 3:4 (4) 4:3 (4) Data insufficient
41. The graph, shown in the Temperature-time diagram 45. 1 kg of ice at 0°C, 1 kg water at 100°C and 1 kg
represents variation of temperature of two bodies x steam at 100°C are mixed in an insulated closed
and y having same surface area and same heat container. After equilibrium is established, the
capacity with time ‘t’, due to the emission of amount of ice, water and steam are mi, mw and ms
radiation. The correct relation between the kg respectively. Which of the following options is
emissivity (E) and absorptive power (a) of the two correct (Lf = 80 cal/gm, Lv = 540 cal/gm) ?
bodies is
T 1 5
(1) mi  kg ; mw = 1 kg; ms  kg
3 3
(2) mi = 0.5 kg; mw = 2 kg; ms = 0.5 kg
y
7 2
x (3) mi = 0 kg; m w  kg ; ms  kg
3 3
t
7 2
(1) Ex  Ey and ax  a y (4) mi  kg ; mw = 0 kg; ms  kg
3 3
(2) Ex  Ey and ax  ay 46. Figure shows a composite rod containing two parts.
The thermal conductivities and the geometric
dimensions are marked. If the ends are maintained
(3) Ex  Ey and
at temperature T 1 and T 2 respectively, the
temperature of the interface is
(4) Ex  Ey and ax  a y
2 
42. A black body has wavelength m corresponding to
maximum intensity at 2000 K. Its wavelength
K/4 2K
corresponding to maximum intensity at 3000 K will
be T1 T2
3 2 T1  T2 8T1  T2
(1) m (2) m (1) (2)
2 3 2 9
16 81 4T1  T2 T1  16T2
(3) m (4) m (3) (4)
81 16 5 17
(79)
47. A black body at a temperature of 227°C radiates 50.

heat at a rate of 20 cal/m2s. When its temperature
is raised to 727°C, the heat radiated by it in cal/ E
m2s will be closest to
(1) 40 (2) 160 T0

(3) 320 (4) 640
A
48. A body is cooling under Newton’s law of cooling
from initial temperature T1. If T is the instantaneous 0 
temperature and T 0 is the temperature of
surrounding then variation of ln(T – T0) with time t The spectral emissive power of an object at a
can be represented as
temperature T0 is plotted against wavelength    as
shown. The area enclosed within the graph is A.
ln(T–T0) Now the temperature is increased such that the
ln(T1 – T0 )  0 
maximum spectral emissive power is at  ,
 3
(1) then at this new temperature the area enclosed
within the graph becomes
t
(1) A (2) 3A
(3) 81A (4) 27A

ln(T–T0)
51. In a faulty thermometer, the freezing point of water
is marked as –20°X and boiling point of water is
ln(T1 – T0)
marked as 160°X. W hat is the temperature
(2) corresponding to 40°C on the scale ?
(1) 52°X (2) 60°X
t
(4) 40°X (4) 76°X
52. 50 g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 5 g steam at

ln(T–T0) 100°C. Find the final temperature and composition
of the mixture.
(1) 40g water and 15g ice at 0°C

(3) ln(T1–T0)
t

ln(T–T0) 53. Three rods identical in dimensions but with different
thermal conductivities, as marked, are connected as
ln(T1–T0) shown in figure. Find the temperature of the
(4) junction.
60°C
K 2K
49. The temperature of a body falls from 40°C to 36°C
in 5 minutes when placed in a surrounding of 100°C
constant temperature 16°C. Find the approximate 3K
time taken for the temperature of the body to
become 32°C from 36°C
20°C
(1) 3 min (2) 6 min (1) 40°C (2) 43.33°C
(3) 9 min (4) 12 min (3) 46.67°C (4) 50°C
(80)
54. A body cools from 80°C to 70°C in 5 mins. What 58. The amount of heat required to convert 5 gm of ice at
wil be its temperature in the next 5 mins. –10°C to water at 20°C is (S ice  0.5 cal/g°C,
Temperature of surroundings is 10°C Lfusion = 80 cal/g)
(1) 60°C (2) 63.32°C (1) 500 cal (2) 525 J

(3) 525 cal (4) 425 cal
(3) 61.43°C (4) 65°C
59. A cylindrical measuring jar contains mercury as
55. The spectral emissive power against wavelength shown. The coefficient of volume expansion of
graph of a black-body emitting radiations are shown mercury is  and that of the jar material (glass) is .
in the figure, at two different temperatures T 1 = When the temperature of the system is changed,
27°C and T2 = 327°C. If the total power emitted at the reading remains unchanged. Correct relation is
temperature T1 is P. What is the area of the shaded
portion ?
e
(1)  = 
(2)  < 
T2 (3)  > 
T1
 (4) Any of the above depending on the value of the
(1) 15 P (2) 8 P reading
(3) 16 P (4) 7 P
60. Two metal spheres having equal heat capacity and
56. A composite slab consists of two different materials equal radius are heated to same temperature and
having equal cross-sectional area but lengths in the are kept in identical surroundings. If their emissivities
ratio 2 : 1 and thermal conductivity K and 3K are in the ratio 2 : 1, then their instantaneous rate of
respectively as shown in figure. The equivalent cooling is
thermal conductivity of slab is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
K 3K (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
2L L 61. If temperature of a black body increases from –

73°C to 327°C, then ratio of emissive power at
these two temperatures is
9K 3K
(1) (2) (1) 27 : 1 (2) 81 : 1
7 2
(3) 1 : 27 (4) 1 : 81
3K 3K
(3) (4) 62. The spectrum of a black body at 7°C is as shown
4 8
in the figure. The area under the curve is A. The
57. Figure shows a composite wall made of two walls A corresponding area at –133°C will be
and B each of equal area and thickness. Ratio of
thermal conductivity of A and B is 3 : 2. Temperature
Intensity
Spectral
of the common face is
A B 7°C
40ºC 20ºC wavelength

A A
(1) (2)
2 4
(1) 30ºC (2) 32ºC A

(3) (4) 2 A
(3) 35ºC (4) 37.5ºC 16
(81)
63. A thermal conductor of uniform cross-sectional area 68. A black body at a temperature of 27°C radiates heat
A has its thermal conductivity decreasing from end A at the rate of 20 cal/m2s. When its temperature rises
towards end B, with end A maintained at higher to 327°C, the rate of heat radiated will be
temperature (T1)
(1) 320 cal/m2s (2) 640 cal/m2s
(3) 160 cal/m2s (4) 40 cal/m2s

A B
69. A liquid with co-efficient of volume expansion 
completely fills a container having co-efficient of linear
T=T1 T=T2 (T1 > T2) expansion . If the liquid does not overflow on heating,
If steady state has been achieved, identify the correct then which must be true?
option- (1)   3  (2)   4 
T1  T2 (3)  > 3  (4)  > 5 
(1) temperature of mid-point >
2
70. If  be the temperature difference between a body
T1  T2 and its surroundings cooling according to Newton’s
(2) temperature of mid-point < law, then choose the correct graph (here t is time).
2
(3) heat current (amount of heat energy flowing per-
second) is more in the left half  
(4) both (2) and (3) (1) (2)
64. The thickness of ice on surface of a lake becomes t t
x cm and y cm starting from zero thickness in
2
1 t x 1
time t1 and t2 respectively. If t  3 , then 2 is ln ln 
2 y
equal to (3) (4)
1 3 t t
(1) (2)
3 1
71. A body of mass ‘m’ grams has specific heat
capacity half of specific heat capacity of water.
1 1
(3) (4) Then water equivalent of body in grams is
9 3
65. A one litre flask contains some mercury. It is found m
that at different temperature the volume of air inside (1) m (2)
2
the flask remains the same. The volume of mercury
in the flask is (glass = 9 × 10–6/°,           Hg =
180 × 10–6/°C ) m m
(3) (4)
(1) 150 cm3 (2) 225 cm3 4 6
(3) 300 cm3 (4) 450 cm3 72. Liquid oxygen at 60K is heated to 300 K at
66. Steam at 100°C is allowed to pass into a vessel constant pressure of 1atm. The rate of heating is
containing 10 gm ice and 100 gm of water at 0°C, constant. Which of the following graphs represent
until all the ice is melted and the temperature is the variation of temperature with time?
raised to 40°C. Neglecting water equivalent of the
vessel, the approximate amount of steam
Temp Temp
condensed is
(1) 9 gm (2) 18 gm
(3) 15 gm (4) 21 gm (1) Time (2) Time
67. Bottom of a Lake is at 0ºC and atmospheric
temperature is –20°C. If 1cm ice is formed on the
surface in 24 h, then time taken to form next 1cm Temp Temp
of ice is
(1) 24 h (2) 72 h (3) (4)
Time Time
(3) 48 h (4) 96 h
(82)
Chapter 11
Thermodynamics
1. P–T diagram is shown below, then choose the 5. Variation of pressure (P) with volume (V) for an ideal
corresponding V–T diagram monoatomic gas is shown in figure. The molar
specific heat of the gas in the process will be
P
C
A P
B D
V V
V
A D
B D
(1) B C (2) 3R
A C (1) (2) 2R
T T
2
5R
V V (3) (4) 3R
B C D 2
B
C 6. N moles of a monoatomic gas is carried through
(3) . A D (4)
A rectangular cycle ABCDA as shown in the diagram.
T T The thermodynamic efficiency of the cycle is
approximately
2. Figure shows the variation in internal energy U of 3
moles of Hydrogen gas with volume. The work done P
by gas from state A to B is
2P0 B C
U
2U0 A B
P0 A D
U0 V0 2V0 V
D C
V0 2V0 V (1) 15% (2) 50%
7U0 3U0 (3) 20% (4) 25%
(1) ln  2  (2) ln  2 
5 5 7. On a pressure volume diagram a process is given
by straight line as shown in figure. During the
4 process (Given: TB < TA)
(3) U0 ln  2  (4) U0V0
5
3. A certain amount of an ideal diatomic gas needs P
100 J of heat energy to raise its temperature by 40°C 3P0
at constant volume. The heat needed for the same A
temperature rise at constant pressure will be
P0
(1) 100 J (2) 140 J B
(3) 70 J (4) 120 J V0 V0 V
4. In an isobaric process of a monoatomic gas 100 J
(1) Temperature decreases
of heat is added to n moles of the gas to increase
temperature from T1 to T2. The amount of work done (2) Temperature increases continously
by the gas in the process is
(3) Temperature first increases then decreases
(1) 20 J (2) 30 J
(3) 60 J (4) 40 J (4) Both (2) and (3) are possible
(83)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Thermodynamics
8. A gas is filled in an open container at 27°C. On 14. When a system is taken from state ‘i’ to state ‘f’
increasing the temperature to 127°C, what fraction along the path iaf, it is found that heat given to the
of the initial amount of gas is present in the system Q = 50 cal and work done W = 20 cal.
Along the path ibf, heat given Q = 36 cal. Work
container.
done W along the path ibf is
3 1 p •f
(1) (2) a
4 4
i• •b
2 1
(3) (4) v
3 3
(1) 14 cal (2) 6 cal
9. The following P–V graph shows five different (3) 16 cal (4) 66 cal
thermodynamics process of an ideal gas. The 15. An infinitesimally small slow compression between
processes numbered ‘1’ and ‘3’ are one of them a cylinder and a piston, where there is friction
adiabatic and the other isothermal. Temperature of between the piston and the cylinder is a
the gas increases in (1) Quasi-static process as well as reversible
(2) Reversible but not quasi-static
P (3) Quasi-static but not reversible
(4) Insufficient data
4 16. A diatomic gas contained in a vessel is subjected
3
2 to a thermodynamic process such that its pressure
1 changes with volume as shown. Change of internal
V energy during the process is
(1) 1 (2) 4 P(N / m2 )

(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) 1, 2 and 4
4  105
10. For a cyclic process, which statement will be
correct ? 2  105
(1) U=0 V (in m3 )
0.1 0.5
(2) Initial temperature = Final temperature
(1) 4.5 × 105 J (2) 3.2 × 105 J
(3) Q=W
(3) 7.6 × 105 J (4) 5.7 × 105 J
(4) All of these 17. A monoatomic gas undergoes a change of state by
11. An ideal diatomatic gas is heated at constant the process shown in the V-T graph. Find the molar
pressure and absorbs 140J of heat. Then, increase specific heat capacity of the gas for the
in internal energy will be:- process.(R  molar gas constant)
(1) 40 J (2) 100 J

B
(3) 80 J (4) 200 J
12. A diatomic gas at pressure P o is suddenly A
1
compressed to its initial volume. The final T
32
pressure will be:- (1) 1.5R (2) 2.5R
(3) 3.5R (4) 0.5R
(1) 32Po (2) 64Po
18. A certain ideal gas with adiabatic exponent  = 1.5
(3) 128Po (4) 256Po is isothermally compressed to half its initial volume.
Find the further fractional change in pressure
13. A Carnot engine is working between temperature
(isochorically) such that when the gas is
627°C and 127°C. It takes 540J heat from the
adiabatically expanded, it reaches its initial
source. Amount of heat converted into work is:-
conditions
(1) 440 J (2) 420 J (1) 0.41 (2) 0.73
(3) 380 J (4) 300 J (3) 0.51 (4) 0.49
(84)
Thermodynamics Medical Q-Bank-2020
19. Find the fraction of the work done by a gas and the 24. For a certain process, the pressure of a diatomic
heat supplied for an isobaric process, if  is the gas varies according to relation P=aV2, where a is
adiabatic component constant. Pressure = P and Volume = V The molar
heat capacity of gas for this process will be
1 1 
(1) (2) 13R 8R
 
(1) (2)
6 3
 1
(3) (4) None of these 17R

(3) 2R (4)
6
20. The relation between internal energy, pressure and
volume (U, P and V) for a certain gas is U=a+bPV 25. Heat is supplied at constant pressure to diatomic
where a and b are positive constants. Then equation gas. The part of heat which goes to increase its
of process is (assume no heat exchange to take internal energy will be
place)
b 1
5 3
(1) (2)
(1) PVa=constant (2) PV b =constant 7 5
(3) PVb=constant (4) PVb/a =constant 2 2

(3) (4)
21. On moving from A to B, the work done by the gas 5 3
B 26. An ideal refrigerator runs between –23°C and 27°C.

V • The heat rejected to atmosphere for every joule of
work input is
•
A (1) 4 J (2) 6 J
P
(3) 5 J (4) 8 J
(1) Continuously increases 27. The efficiency of a carnot’s engine at a particular
(2) Continuously decreases 1
source and sink temperature is . When the sink
(3) Increases then decreases 2
(4) Decreases then increases temperature is reduced by 100°C, the engine
22. A refrigerator rejects 180 joule of energy to 2

efficiency becomes .Then the temperature of
atmosphere in one second from temperature –3°C to 3
27°C. Calculate the average rate of work done on the source is
system, assuming no energy losses in the process
(1) 600 K (2) 300 K
(1) 18 W (2) 54 W
(3) 400 K (4) 500 K
(3) 20 W (4) 120 W
23. The variation of PV with V of fixed mass of an ideal 28. During the free expansion of gas, the entropy of gas
gas at constant temperature is graphically will
represented by
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) First increase then decrease

(1) (2)
(4) Remain same
V V
29. Efficiency of a heat engine working between source
and sink is 0.5. Coefficient of performance of heat
pump working between same source and sink will
be
(3) (4) (1) 1 (2) 0.5
V V (3) 1.5 (4) 2

(85)
30. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas 35. An ideal gas expands isothermally from volume V1
of equal number of moles of different volumes are to V2 and then compressed to original volume V1
plotted as shown in figure. Choose the correct adiabatically. Initial pressure is P 1 and final
alternative pressure is P3. If the net work done by the gas is
W, then:
P (1) P3 > P1 ;W>0 (2) P3 < P1 ;W<0
4
2 (3) P3 > P1 ;W<0 (4) P3 = P1 ;W=0
36. In a thermodynamic process, helium gas obeys the
3
1 T
T law =constant. The heat given to the gas
P 2/5
(1) V1 = V2, V3 = V4 and V2 > V3 when temperature of 4 moles of gas is raised from
T to 2T is,
(2) V1 = V2, V3 = V4 and V2 < V3
(1) 8RT (2) 4RT
(3) V1 = V2 = V3 = V4 (3) 16RT (4) Zero
(4) V1 > V3 > V2 > V1
37. A Carnot engine operating between temperature T1
31. 20g of a gas occupies a 100cc volume at 105 dyne/
cm2. If during an isothermal process, the pressure 1
and T2 has efficiency . When T2 is lowered by
is changed to 104 dyne/cm2, the volume of the gas 6
in cc will be
1
(1) 10 (2) 50 62K, its efficiency increases to . Then T1 and T2
3
(3) 200 (4) 1000
are respectively
32. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic process
(1) 310K and 248K (2) 372K and 310K
are shown. Plots 1 and 2 correspond respectively
to (3) 372K and 330K (4) 330K and 268K
38. One mole of an ideal gas contained in a cylinder
undergoes a thermodynamic process during which
1
P 2 A
P 2
V pressure relates to volume as  B  , (A,B
1  
(1) He and O2 (2) O2 and He V
are constants). As the volume of the gas is changed
(3) He and Ar (4) O2 and N2 from V=B to V=2B, its change of temperature can be
33. The pressure P of an ideal diatomic gas varies with expressed as
its absolute temperature T, as shown in figure. The 6AB AB
molar heat capacity of gas during this process is (1) (2)
(R  universal Gas constant) 5R 2
P 3AB 11 AB
(3)  (4)
5R 10 R
39. According to second law of thermodynamics,
T (i) All heat can be converted into work.

(1) 1.7R (2) 3.25R
(ii) The efficiency of a heat engine is always lesser
(3) 2.5R (4) 4.2R
than unity.
34. A vessel contains 5 mole of O2 . The system is (iii) It is not possible to transfer heat from lower to
given heat at constant pressure. As a result the higher temperature just by thermal contact
gas expands and does 120J work. Heat given to
(iv) Entropy of the universe may be decrease
the gas is,
(1) (ii, iv) (2) (i, iii)
(1) 310J (2) 390J
(3) 420J (4) 560J (3) (ii, iii) (4) (iii, iv)
(86)
40. The temperature of inside and outside of a refrigerator 44. Heat is supplied to a diatomic gas at constant
are 273K and 303K respectively. Assuming that the pressure. The ratio of Q : U : W is
refrigerator cycle is reversible, for every joule of work
(1) 5 : 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 2 : 3
done, the heat delivered to the surrounding will be
nearly (3) 7 : 5 : 2 (4) 7 : 2 : 5
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J 45. In an adiabatic process, 1 m 3 of an ideal
monoatomic gas expands to 8 m3. The ratio of final
(3) 30 J (4) 50 J
to initial temperature is
41. In the indicator diagram shown for an ideal gas, the
heat exchange between the gas and surrounding is 1
(1) 4 (2)
zero for process OA. The heat exchange will be 4
negative for the process.
P O D 1
• (3) 8 (4)
8
C 46. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a cyclic
process shown by following P–V diagram. The
A
• dotted curves are isotherms. The efficiency of a heat
B engine based on this process is
V 4000K
(1) B (2) C P 2000K
(3) D (4) Both C and D A B
42. V–T graph for a given mass of an ideal gas is 1000K
shown in figure. The corresponding P–V graph is
V
A B D C
V
1 1
(1) (2)
5 2
C
D
2 3
T (3) (4)
13 4
P 47. For an reversible adiabatic expansion of an ideal
P D C C
gas the fractional change in its pressure is equal to
B A (symbols have their usual significance)
(1) A (2) D B
1 dV 1 dV
V
V (1)  (2)
 V  V  1
dV dV
P B C (3)  (4) 
V  1 V
48. For a certain experimental process it is found that -
(3) A (4) None of these
D W = x Q
V where Q = heat energy supplied to the gas
W = work done by gas
43. Work done by the gas in the cyclic process shown
below, is x = constant
P If the gas is known to be CO2, the molar specific
3P0 heat capacity of the gas in the process is (neglect
vibrational modes)
P0
5R 3R
(1) 2 1  x (2) 2 1  x
2V0 5V0 V
   
(1) –6P0V0 (2) 6P0V0 3R 7R
(3) (4) 2 1  x
(3) 2P0V0 (4) –2P0V0   x
1  
(87)
49. On a volume temperature diagram a process 1 – 2 53. A carnot engine is working between temperature
is an upward sloping straight line as shown in T1(source) and T2(sink). The efficiency is 40%. If T2
figure. During the process, the pressure = 300K, then by how much amount T1 must be
2 increased so as to increase the efficiency to 60%
Volume ?
1
(1) 200K (2) 300K
Temperature (3) 250K (4) 100K

(1) Remains constant
54. A container contains n moles of O 2 gas at
(2) Continuously increases
temperature T. Now  fraction of the gas
(3) Continuously decreases
dissociates adiabatically without any change in the
(4) Data insufficient
internal energy. The final temperature is
50. A cyclic process is shown in a V-T diagram. The
corresponding P-V diagram is
5T T
V (1) (2)
C 5 5
B
(   5)T 
A (3) (4) T
T  5
P P 55. If in the process-1 from a to b, heat supplied (Q1)
A B A B = 60 cal and work done by gas (W 1) = 20 cal, find
heat for the process-2 while work for this process
(1) (2)
C C is 30 cal.
V V
P 2
P P b
C C
a
(3) (4)
1
B A A B
V V
V
51. A sample of diatomic gas is supplied heat energy

(1) 70 cal (2) 50 cal
Q at constant pressure. What is the amount of
energy used to increase the internal energy ? (3) 10 cal (4) 60 cal
2 1
(1) Q (2) Q 56. Thermodynamic system of ideal gas is taken from
3 5 initial state A to final state C through B as shown
in the indicator diagram. Select the correct
5 2
(3) Q (4) Q statement
7 7
52. The P-V graphs of adiabatic processes of three
P
different gas samples (monoatomic, diatomic,
polyatomic) are shown in the figure. Which of the A
P1
processes represent the process for monoatomic
gas ? B
P2 C
P
V
(0, 0) V0
3 (1) The process is isochoric

2
1 (2) Work done by the gas in process is negative
V
(3) Work done by the gas in the process is zero
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) Data insufficient (4) Both (1) and (3)
(88)
57. In a cyclic process ABCDA, heat added to gas 63. W hen a monoatomic gas expands at constant
sample in different processes are given below pressure, the percentage of heat supplied that
QAB = 400 J QCD = –200 J increases the internal energy of the gas and that
which is involved in expansion is
QBC = 300 J QDA = –100 J
(1) 75%, 25% (2) 25%, 75%
Efficiency of process is
(3) 60%, 40% (4) 40%, 60%
1 3
(1) (2) 64. Two different masses m and 3m of a perfect gas are
2 7 heated separately in a vessel of constant volume.
4 2 The pressure (P) vs. absolute temperature (T) graph
(3) (4) for these two cases are shown as A and B. The
7 7 ratio of slopes of the curves B to A, is
58. A monoatomic gas contained in a vessel is
subjected to a thermodynamic process such that P
B
its pressure changes with volume as shown in
A
graph. The change in internal energy during this 3m m
process will be
P T
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
2P0
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 9
P0 65. The maximum possible efficiency of an engine that
V absorbs heat at 327°C and exhausts heat at 127°C
V0 2V0 is
(1) Zero (2) 3P0V0
1 1
(1) (2)
3 3 2
(3) P0V0 (4) 5P0V0
2
2 1
59. An ideal refrigerator runs between –23°C and 27°C. (3) (4)
3 4
What will be heat rejected to atmosphere for every
66. The change in entropy of a 1 mole of an ideal gas
joule of work input? which went through an isothermal process from an
(1) 3 J (2) 2 J intial state (P1, V1, T) to the final state (P2, V2, T)
is equal to
(3) 6 J (4) 5 J
(1) Zero (2) RlnT
60. 10 moles of oxygen gas in a closed container is
supplied with a certain amount of heat energy Q (3) RlnV1/V 2 (4) Rln V2/V1
such that 2 moles dissociate into atomic oxygen at 67. If 180 J of heat is added to a system and the work
same temperature T. Find the heat energy supplied done by the system is 220 J, then the change in
to the gas. (R is universal gas constant) internal energy of the system will be
(1) 8RT (2) 4RT (1) 400 J (2) 40 J
(3) 2RT (4) RT (3) – 40 J (4) – 400 J
61. A monoatomic gas undergoes a thermodynamic 68. If the volume of 1 mole of an ideal gas is doubled.
process for which V  T2. The molar specific heat Work done will be maximum, when expansion is
for the process is (1) Isobaric (2) Isothermal
3R 5R (3) Adiabatic (4) Isochoric
(1) (2) 69. During the heating process of an ideal gas from state-
2 2
1 to state-2, volume of the gas
7R P
(3) 3R (4) •
2 2
1 •1
62. A carnot engine, having an efficiency of   as
10
T
heat engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work
done on the system is 10 J, the amount of energy (1) Increases
absorbed from the reservoir at lower temperature is (2) Decreases
(1) 99 J (2) 90 J (3) Remains constant
(3) 1 J (4) 100 J (4) May increase or decrease
(89)
70. Work done by the gas in the cyclic process (a  b 74. The product of the efficiency of an ideal heat engine
 c  a) is working between two temperatures and the
coefficient of performance of a heat pump working
5 2 between the same temperatures is
P (10 N/m )
b c (1) 1
0.3
(2) Greater than 1
(3) Less than 1
0.2 a (4) Depends on the temperatures of source and
sink
2 4 V (litre) 75. Which of the following graph correctly represent the
(1) 20 J (2) –20 J

 dV / dP 
variation   with P for an ideal gas at
V
(3) 10 J (4) 40 J
constant temperature?
71. In adiabatic expansion the product of pressure and
volume  
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases (1) (2)
(3) Remains constant P P
(4) May increase or decrease
72. Heat is supplied to a monoatomic ideal gas which  
expands at constant pressure. Fraction of heat that
is used to do work by gas is (3) (4)
P P
2
(1) 1 (2)
3 76. Choose the correct option
(1) All quick expansions are adiabatic but all
3 2 adiabatic process need not be necessarily
(3) (4) quick.
5 5
(2) quasistatic process is an idealised process in
73. A Carnot engine works between two temperatures
which all changes take place infinitely slowly
27°C and 327°C. Then its efficiency will be
(3) Reversible process must be quasistatic
(1) 60% (2) 30%
(4) All of the above
(3) 20% (4) 50%

(90)
Chapter 12
Kinetic Theory
1. If 2 moles of diatomic gas and 1 mole of 6. A vessel contains diatomic gas. If half of gas
monoatomic gas are mixed, then the ratio of molar dissociated into individual atom, then find new value
specific heats Cp and Cv for the mixture of degree of freedom by ignoring the vibrational
mode and any further dissociation:-
7 5
(1) (2)
3 4 9 11
(1) (2)
7 7
19 15
(3) (4)
13 19
11 13
2. Two containers of equal volume contain the same (3) (4)
3 3
gas at pressures P1, P2 and absolute temperatures
T 1 , T 2 respectively. On joining the vessels, the 7. A box of negligible mass containing one mole of an
gases reach a common pressure P and common ideal monoatomic gas of molar mass M, moves with
constant speed ‘V’ on a smooth horizontal surface.
temperature T. Find the ratio of P and T.
If the box suddenly stops, then change in the
temperature of the gas will be (R  molar gas
P1 P2 P1T1  P2T2
(1)  (2) constant)
T1 T2 T1T2
MV 2 MV 2
(1) (2)
P1T2  P2T1 P1 P 5R 3R
(3) (4)  2
 T1  T2  2T1 2T2
MV 2 MV 2
3. A tube of length 80 cm is submerged vertically (3) (4)
2R R
inside a liquid with lower end 20 cm below the
surface. The upper end is now sealed and taken out 8. When Q amount of heat is given to a gas at constant
gently. It is found that 8 cm of the liquid still Q
remains in the tube. The atmospheric pressure is pressure, it performs amount of work. The average
3
given by h cm of this liquid where h is (Neglect
number of degrees of freedom per molecule of the
surface tension)
gas is
(1) 48 (2) 32
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 60 (4) 52 (3) 5 (4) 6
4. The minimum heat energy required to cause 9. The plot of Maxwell’s distribution of speed of a gas at
complete dissociation of n moles of H 2 gas at different temperatures. Find the correct relation
constant temperature T is between the temperatures
5
(1) nRT (2) nRT
2 f(v)
6 nRT
(3) nRT (4) A B
2 2 C
5. A closed cylindrical vessel contains 10 moles of an

ideal diatomic gas at temperature of 300 K. On v
supplying heat, temperature remains same, but 5
moles get dissociated into atoms. The heat
supplied is :- (1) TA > TB > TC (2) TA = TB = TC
(1) 250R (2) 500R
(3) TA < TB < TC (4) None of these
(3) 750R (4) 1000R
(91)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Kinetic Theory
10. The mean free path of molecules of a gas (radius 18. Given below are the plot of Maxwell’s distribution of
‘r’) is inversely proportional to velocity v of a gas at different temperatures. Identify
(1) r3 (2) r2 the distribution which has the highest temperature
(3) r–2 (4) r

11. If the pressure remains constant then the A B
nv C nv is equal to the number of molecules
temperature at which rms speed of gas molecules with speeds between v and v + dv
is half of its value at 27°C is
(1) –152°C (2) –198°C
v
(3) –200°C (4) –130°C
12. If the mean free path of a molecule of an ideal gas (1) A (2) B
having diameter 10 –8 cm is 10 –4 m, the number (3) C (4) None of these
density of gas is
19. Suppose a container is evacuated to leave just one
(1) 22×1016/cm3 (2) 16×1022/cm3
molecule of a gas in it. Let va and vrms represents
(3) 6×1011/cm3 (4) 12×1012/cm3 the average speed and the rms speed of the gas
13. A vessel contains a non linear triatomic gas. If 50% (1) va > vrms (2) va < vrms
of gas dissociate into individual atom, then new
value of degree of freedom by ignoring the vibrational (3) va = vrms (4) vrms is undefined
mode and any further dissociation 20. A gas is filled in an open vessel at 27°C. To what
(1) 2.15 (2) 3.75 1
(3) 5.25 (4) 6.35 temperature should it be heated in order that rd
3
14. A box of negligible mass containing 4 moles of of the gas may escape out of the vessel ?
ideal gas of molar mass M and adiabatic exponent
 moves with constant speed v on a smooth (1) 450°C (2) 450K
horizontal surface. If the box suddenly stops then (3) 177K (4) None of these
change in temperature of gas will be
21. A diatomic gas is enclosed in a chamber of volume
   1 Mv 2 10 cc at a pressure of 1 atm. The internal energy
Mv 2
(1) (2) of the gas is approximately
8R 2R
(1) 1.5 J (2) 2.5 J
Mv 2    1 Mv 2 (3) 3.5 J (4) 4.5 J
(3) (4)
2    1 R 2R 22. If one mole of monoatomic gas is mixed with two
moles of diatomic gas, then ratio of specific heats
15. Two non reacting gases A and B having the same
temperature T, same pressure P and same volume V CP
of mixture  =
are mixed. If the mixture is at the same temperature CV will be
T and occupies a volume V, the pressure of the
mixture is, 5 7
(1) (2)
(1) 2P (2) P 3 5
(3) P/2 (4) 4P 17 19

(3) (4)
15 13
16. Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the 23. The ratio of the mean energy possessed by hydrogen
masses of the molecules are halved and their speeds and helium gases at identical high temperatures is
doubled, the resulting pressure P will be equal to, (neglect any chances of dissociation of hydrogen gas)
(1) 4P0 (2) 2P0 (1) 5 : 3 (2) 7 : 5

(3) 7 : 3 (4) 5 : 7
P0
(3) P0 (4) 24. If O 2 is kept at pressure 3 atm and 9 atm
2 respectively at the same temperature 300K in two
17. A gas mixture contains 2 moles of oxygen and 4 identical boxes, then the ratio of mean free path of
moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all O2 in the two boxes will be
vibrational modes, the total energy of the mixture is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1: 3
(1) 4 RT (2) 15 RT
(3) 9 RT (4) 11 RT (3) 3 : 1 (4) 3 :1
(92)
Kinetic Theory Medical Q-Bank-2020
25. The ratio of average of translational kinetic energy 27. Two indentical container joined by a small pipe
to average rotational kinetic energy for a O 2 initially contain the same gas at pressure P0 and
molecule at 300K is
absolute temperature T0 . One container is now
(1) 1 : 1
maintained at the same temperature while the other
(2) 3 : 2 is heated to 2T 0 . The common pressure of the
(3) 3 : 5 gases
(4) 1 : 2 3 4
(1) P0 (2) P0
2 3
26. Nitrogen gas is filled in an isolated container. If
 fraction of moles dissociates without exchange of 5
any energy, then the fractional change in its (3) P0 (4) 2P0
3
temperature is
28. If speed of 3 molecules are 0.5, 1 and 2m/s
respectively, then square of ratio of their root mean
–
(1) square speed and the average speed is
5 
6 10
(1) (2)
 7 11
(2)
3  9 10
(3) (4)
7 9
–3
(3) 29. If the pressure of an ideal gas is increased to four
2 times isothermally, its rms speed will become n
times, where n is
5 (1) 4 (2) 2
(4)
2  3
1
(3) (4) 1
2

(93)
Chapter 13
Oscillation
1. A force F = 3x – 3 is acted upon a particle. 6. A particle of mass 2 kg executes SHM under a
Choose the correct option force F = – 50x, where x is in m and F in N. If it
crosses the mean position (x = 0) with a speed 10
(1) Particle will not perform SHM
m/s, its mechanical energy is 75 J. Find potential
(2) Particle will perform SHM about x = 3 energy of particle when it is at x = 1 m.
(3) Particle will perform SHM about x = 1 (1) 0 J (2) 25 J

(3) –25 J (4) 100 J
(4) Particle will perform SHM about x = – 1
7. A uniform rod of mass M and length L is hinged at
2. Two particles undergo SHM along parallel lines with one end and a spring of stiffness constant 2K is
same time period (T) and equal amplitudes. At a attached with rod as shown in the figure. The
particular instant, one particle is at its extreme arrangement is on a smooth horizontal surface.
position while the other is at its mean position. They Calculate the time period of oscillation for a small
move in the same direction. They will cross each angular displacement
other after a further time
T 3T
(1) (2)
8 8
T 4T
(3) (4)
6 3
3. A particle is moving simple harmonically between

two extreme positions x = – 8 and x = 4. Calculate 2K
the phase difference between x = 1 and x = 4
M M
(1) 2 (2) 2
 13 27K 6K
(1) (2)
6 6
2M 2M
(3) 2 (4) 4
 3K 3K
3 8. A small bob attached to a light inextensible thread
4. Two particles execute SHM of same amplitude of length l has periodic time T when allowed to
oscillate as a simple pendulum. The thread is now
15 3 cm with same period along the same line suspended from fixed end O of a vertical rigid wall
about the same equilibrium position. If phase 3l
where the point of suspension is at a distance
 4
difference is then find out the maximum distance from the bottom end of wall (as shown in figure). If
3
now pendulum performs simple harmonic
between these two
oscillations in this arrangement, the periodic time
(1) 45 cm (2) 22.5 cm will be
(3) 15 3 cm (4) Data insufficient O

3l
5. A particle of mass 2 kg is attached with a spring of 4
l
stiffness 72 N/m. W hen block is at x = 1m it
moves with maximum speed. The block moves with
24 m/s while passing through x = 4m. Find out the
x coordinates in m where it’s velocity will be zero
3T T
(1) (2)
(1) –4, 6 (2) –5, 6 4 2
(3) –4, 1 (4) None of these (3) T (4) 2T
(94)
Oscillation Medical Q-Bank-2020
9. A particle undergoes damped oscillation whose 14. The minimum phase difference between two SHMs,
xm 1 3
amplitude becomes after 6 sec. What will be Y1  Sint  Cost
27 2 2
xm Y2  Sint  Cost
the amplitude of oscillation 4 sec before it was
27
if xm represents amplitude at t = 0 7 
(1) (2)
2
12 12
 1  1
(1)   xm (2)  3 xm – 
3  
(3) (4)
12 6
 1 15. A particle starts SHM from the mean position. Its
(3)  3  xm (4) None of these
  amplitude is a and total energy E. At one instant
10. Two independent SHMs along y-axis whose 3E
equations are y1 = 6 + 4 Sin (t) and y2 = 3 Cos its kinetic energy is . Its displacement at that
4
(t) are superimposed on a particle. Find out
instant is:-
amplitude of resultant SHM
(1) 5 (2) 11 a a
(1) (2)
(3) 7 (4) 109 2 2
11. A 1 kg block is executing SHM of amplitude 0.1 m
in vertical plane under restoring force of spring a a
constant 100 N/m. A block of mass 24 kg at rest (3) (4)
3 3
collides inelastically with the oscillating block of 1
kg and stick to it at the instant it passes through 2
the mean position. Find out the frequency of 16. Two identical springs are connected to mass m as
oscillation (in sec–1) of the combined mass shown (K= spring constant). If the period of the
1 5 configuration in (i) is 2 sec, the period of the
(1) (2) configuration in (ii) is,
 
2
(3) (4) Data insufficient

12. A particle moving along x-axis has its position
varying with time given by-
2  
x = 4 Sin  t
2 
where x is in cm and t in sec. With respect to this
motion, identify the correct option M M
(1) Motion is SHM of amplitude 2 cm, time period (i) (ii)
3
2 sec and initial phase of
2
(2) Motion is SHM of amplitude 2 cm, time period
2 sec and initial phase of zero (1) 2 2 sec (2) 1 sec
(3) Motion is SHM of amplitude 4 cm, time period
1 sec and initial phase of zero 1
(3) sec (4) 2 sec
(4) Motion is oscillatory but not SHM 2
13. A particle is executing SHM with a period of T
seconds, and amplitude A meter. The shortest time 17. A simple pendulum has a time period T1, when on
the earth’s surface and T2 when taken to a height
A A 2R above the earth’s surface, where R is the radius
it takes to reach a point at from in
2 2
T1
seconds is:- of earth’s surface. The value of
T2 is
T T
(1) (2)
4 6 1 1
(1) (2)
9 3
T T
(3) (4)
12 24 (3) 3 (4) 9
(95)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Oscillation
18. The two simple harmonic motion are represented by 24. The centre of a solid sphere of mass m and radius
R placed on a rough horizontal plane is connected
 
Y1  5Sin  t   and Y2  –12Cos  t  . The to a spring of stiffness k as shown. An impulse is
 2  provided to the sphere at its mean position and the
resultant amplitude of simple harmonic motion will sphere starts oscillating. Find the period of
be:- oscillation, if there is no slipping anywhere
(1) 7 (2) 13
(3) 12 (4) 5  12 k
19. A mass m is suspended by means of two springs
of same length in unstretched condition as shown
in figure. The force constants of the springs are k1 5m 7m
and k 2 respectively. W hen set into vertical (1) 2 (2) 2
2k 5k
oscillation, the period will be
A B 3m 3m
(3) 2 (4) 2
2k k
k1 k2
25. The amplitude of simple harmonic motion obtained
by combining the motions x 1 =2 sint,
m    
x2 = 4 sin  t   and x3  6 sin  t   is
 6  3
m  k1  k 2   k1  k 2  (x1,x2 and x3 are in cm)
(1) 2 (2) 2 2m  
k1 k 2  k1 k 2  (1) 14.3 cm (2) 12.2 cm
m  k1  k 2  m (3) 11.2 cm (4) 15.3 cm
(3) 2 (4) 2
2k1 k 2 k1  k 2 26. Displacement time equation of a particle executing
20. Displacement time equation of a particle executing  
SHM is x = A sin  t  . Time taken by particle
   6 
Simple harmonic motion is x=4sint+3sin  t  .
 3 
A A
Here x is in cm and t in sec. The amplitude of to go directly from x   to x  is
2 2
oscillation of particle is approximately
(1) 7 cm (2) 5 cm
(3) 6 cm (4) 9 cm  
(1) (2)
21. A particle executes Simple harmonic motion. Then 3 2
what fraction of total energy is kinetic when
displacement is one half of the amplitude 2 
(3) (4)
3 1  
(1) (2)
4 4 27. On a smooth inclined plane a body of mass M is
1 1 attached between two springs. The other ends of
(3) (4) spring are fixed to firm supports. If each spring has
2 3
force constant K, the period of oscillation of body
22. If the displacement (x) and velocity (v) of particle
is (assuming spring is massless)
executing Simple harmonic motion are related
through expression 4v2=25–x2 then its time period
k
is
M
(1)  (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 6 k
23. Time peried of a simple pendulum of length equal
to two times the radius of earth suspended at a
fixed point for its bob oscillating near the surface of 
earth with small amplitude is
R 2R M 2M
(1) 2 (2) 2 (1) 2 (2) 2
g g 2K K
R 2R Msin  2Msin 
(3) 2 (4) 2 (3) 2M (4) 2
3g 3g 2K K
(96)
28. A particle starts oscillating simple harmonically 33. A smooth tunnel is dug in earth along a chord of
from its equilibrium position. The ratio of kinetic length equal to radius of earth. A particle is dropped
T at the beginning of the tunnel. W hat is the
energy and potential energy of particle at time approximate time taken by it in reaching the other
12
is side of the tunnel?
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1 (1) 84.6 minute (2) 42.3 minute
(3) 60 minute (4) 24 minute
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
34. The block is released after stretching the spring by
29. When an oscillator completes 100 oscillations its a distance A from its natural length. The graph
1 which represents the velocity of the block will be
amplitude reduces to of its initial value.
3
K
Calculate its amplitude when it completes 200 m smooth
oscillations. X axis
1 2 v v
(1) (2)
8 3
(1) t (2) t
1 1
(3) (4)
6 9
v v
30. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving along a straight
line due to a force F = 5x 2 + 6, where x is the (3) t (4) t
instantaneous position. The particle will perform
6 35. A particle executing simple harmonic motion has

(1) SHM about x  its potential energy 3 times of the kinetic energy
5
(taking potential energy at equilibrium to be zero
and initially particle starts from equilibrium) at same
5 instants during its oscillation. Then the instant is/
(2) SHM with angular frequency  
2 are
(3) Translational motion with a constant T 2T

(1) (2)
acceleration 6 6
(4) Translational motion with a variable 5T
acceleration (3) (4) All of these
6
31. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion 36. The block m executes vertical oscillations. The
along x axis with a time period T and displacement springs are light and ideal. Then the time period of
amplitude A. Find the time taken by the particle to oscillation is
move from +A/3 to –A/3 through the extreme
position.
T T K 2K
(1) (2)
3 2
T 3T m
(3) (4)
4 2
32. The phase angle of a particle executing SHM when K
it is at  A 2 and moving towards the equilibrium is,

(Here A is displacement amplitude)
5 2 m m
(1) (2) (1) 2 (2) 
6 3 K K
  m m
(3) (4) (3) 3 (4) 4
3 6 K K
(97)
37. A seconds pendulum is suspended from ceiling of 43. A particle moves along a straight line to follow the
a trolley moving horizontally with an acceleration of equation ax 2 + bv 2 = k, where a, b and k are
4 m/s 2 . Its time period of oscillation is constants and x and v are x- co-ordinate and
approximately velocity of the particle respectively. The amplitude
(1) 1.60 sec (2) 1.90 sec is
(3) 2.10 sec (4) 2 sec
38. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes A0 b
(1) b (2)
2 k
to A in 5 oscillations. Then the amplitude after
3 0
k
15 oscillations (from starting) will be (3) a (4)
a
4 8
(1) A0 (2) A0 44. A particle performs SHM on a straight line with
9 27
time period T and amplitude A. The average speed
9 16 of the particle between two successive instants
(3) A0 (4) A0 when potential and kinetic energy become same is,
23 81
39. Three simple harmonic motion along x axis are
A 4 2A
simultaneously superimposed on a particle and (1) (2)
their independent SHM are given as T T
x1 = A sin t
2A 2 2A
(3) (4)

x2 = A sin t   6  T T
45. The spring shown in the figure is unstretched when
x3 = A sin  t   3  a man starts pulling the block. If the man exerts a
constant forces F, the maximum elongation in
Then the resultant amplitude of the oscillation of the spring is
particle will be
(1) 3A (2) 2A
K
F
(3) 1  2  A (4) 1  3  A m
40. A meter stick is made to oscillate in a vertical

plane about a horizontal axis passing through one 4F F
(1) (2)
of its ends for small amplitudes. Its time period will K K
be approximately equal to
(1) 2 sec (2) 1 sec
2F F
(3) (4)
(3) 1.64 sec (4) 3.26 sec K 2K
41. The time period of a particle executing SHM with 46. A simple pendulum of string length L having bob of
amplitude A is T. What is the minimum time taken density ‘’ is immersed inside a liquid of density 
by the particle to move a distance A ? ( > ). The time period of small oscillations is
T T
(1) (2) L L
4 6 (1) 2 (2) 2
   
T T g 1   g   1
(3) (4)    
12 8
42. Two particles are executing SHM along the same
L L
line with same frequency and amplitude A. What is (3) 2 (4) 2
the phase difference between the particles if they g g
A 47. Two linear SHM of equal amplitudes A and

cross each other at position ?
2 frequencies ‘’ are superimposed along x and y-
axes respectively. If the initial phase difference
 5 between them is /2, the resultant path followed by
(1) (2) the particle is,
6 6
(1) Elliptical (2) Circular
 2
(3) (4)
3 3 (3) Parabolic (4) Straight line
(98)
48. The equation y = ACos 3(t) is a combination of 53. If pulley is massless then time period of small
how many SHM’s ? oscillation of the block of mass m which is
(1) 1 (2) 2 suspended from an ideal massless spring of
stiffness constant k is
(3) 3 (4) 4
49. A particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is tied to a
string of length ‘L’ in gravity free space. A uniform
electric field ‘E’ is applied as shown in the figure.
If the particle is slightly displaced perpendicular to
length of string then the time period of small
k
oscillations will be :
m
E
m,q m m
(1) 2 (2) 4 
L k k
1 m 1 m
(3) (4)
mL mL 2 k 4 k
(1) 2 (2) 2
qE 3qE
54. Particle executing simple harmonic motion along y-
axis has its motion described by the equation
3mL mL
(3) 2 (4) 2 y = 2 + 10 sin (5t.) Amplitude of simple harmonic
qE 2qE motion is
50. The minimum time taken by a body executing (1) 2 units (2) 10 units
simple harmonic motion in which its speed
decreases by half its maximum speed will be (T = (3) 12 units (4) 104 units
time period)
55. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion about
T T y = 0 along y-axis. Its position at an instant is given
(1) (2) by y = 7sin(t), where y is in metres. Its average
6 4
speed for a time interval t = 0 to t = 1.5 sec
T T (1) 28 m/s (2) 14 m/s
(3) (4)
12 8
1
51. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion, (3) 7 m/s (4) m/s
then at what percentage of the amplitude is 7
displacement from mean position to have its kinetic 56. Consider a cylinder of mass m, length L, density d1
energy exceeds its potential energy by half its total and area of cross-section A floating in a denser liquid
energy ? of density d2. Let it be pushed downward a little and
(1) 50% (2) 40% released. Choose the correct option.
(3) 20% (4) 25% (1) The cylinder will sink
52. Which of the following equation represents damped
oscillation ? (2) The cylinder will execute simple harmonic
dx 2 Ld2
(1)  kx motion with time period 2
dt 2 d1g
(3) The cylinder will execute simple harmonic

dx 2
(2)  kx  f0 sin 0 t
dt 2 Ld1
motion with time period 2
d2g
d2x dx
(3)  kx  0
dt 2 dt (4) The cylinder will execute simple harmonic
d2x dx k L
(4) 2
  .x  0 motion with time period 2
dt dt m g
(99)
57. Consider one end of an ideal spring with spring 62. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring,
constant K fixed and other end is attached to a block executes SHM with an amplitude A 1 . When the
of mass M placed on a smooth horizontal surface. mass M passes through its mean position, then a
After stretching the spring by length  and releasing smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them
it, the instant the spring regains its natural length, move together with amplitude A2. The ratio of (A1/
A2) is
M
few drops of molten wax of total mass is dropped M M m
3 (1) (2)
M m M
on the block which sticks to it. The maximum
stretching of the spring, hence, will be M M m
(3) (4)
M m M
 3
(1) (2)
3 2
k
63. •
 2
(3) (4) A cylinder of mass ‘m’ radius r is slightly displaced
2 3
and released. Find the frequency of oscillation
assuming the cylinder rolls without slipping
58. In forced oscillations, a particle executes simple
harmonic motion with a frequency equal to 1 2k 1 4k
(1) (2)
(1) Frequency of driving force 2 3m 2 3m
(2) Natural frequency of body 1 3m 1 k

(3) (4)
(3) Difference of frequency of driving force and
2 4k 2 m
natural frequency 64. A uniform rod of length  is suspended by an end
and is made to undergo small oscillations. Find the
(4) Mean of frequency of driving force and natural length of simple pendulum having the time period
frequency equal to that of the rod
59. When a mass undergoes simple harmonic motion, 3 2
there is always a constant ratio between its (1) (2)
2 3
displacement and

(1) Period (2) Acceleration (3) (4) 2
2
(3) Mass (4) Velocity 65. A particle oscillates simple harmonically with time
period T. Time taken by the particle to change its
60. Two particles A and B execute SHM of periods T
A
5T position with respect to mean position from x =
and . They start from mean position. The 2
4
to x = A is (A = amplitude)
phase difference between them when the particle A
completes one oscillation will be. T T
(1) (2)
6 8

(1) (2) 0 T T
2 (3) (4)
4 2 8 2
2  66. A particle moves such that its acceleration a is
(3) (4)
5 4 2
61. The minimum phase difference between the two

given by a     2  2  x, where x is the
displacement from equilibrium position and a, b are

1 3 constants. The period of oscillation is
SHMs y1  Sint  Cost and
2 2
2
y 2  Sin t  Cos t is (1) 2  2  2 (2)
  2
2
(1)  / 6 (2) – / 6
2 
(3)  / 12 (4) 7 / 12 (3) 2 2
(4) 2
    2
2
(100)
67. In figure the block is rigidly joined to spring. Find 72. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of
the time period of oscillations train which moves in a north direction with constant
acceleration a. Then the time period is given by
4 kg
l
T  2 when g is equal to
g
k = 100 N/m
(1) g 2  a2 (2) g + a
ga
(3) g – a (4)
2 2 ga
(1) T  (2) T 
5 10
73. Acceleration (A) versus displacement (x) graph of a
2 particle executing simple harmonic motion is as
(3) T = 2 (4) T  shown in given figure. The time period of its oscillation
6
is
68. What change in mass is required to double the
frequency of a spring mass harmonic oscillator? A (m/s)
2
(1) The mass must be increased to six times its

original value
30° x
(2) The mass must be doubled
(3) The mass must be changed to one fourth of its 1/2
original value (1) 2 (3) (2) 2 3
(4) The mass must be reduced to one sixth of its

(3) 2 6 (4) 6
original value
69. A uniform rod of length l is suspended through one 74. The displacement time equation of a particle
end and is set into oscillation with small amplitude
 
under gravity. The time period of oscillation is executing SHM is x  4 sin t  3 sin  t  
 2 
2l l (x is in cm and t is in second). The amplitude of
(1) 2 (2) 2
3g g oscillation of the particle is
(1) 5 cm (2) 6 cm
3g l (3) 7 cm (4) 5.5 cm
(3) 2 (4) 2
2l 3g
75. A particle executes SHM with a frequency 2 s–1. The
frequency with which its kinetic energy oscillates is
70. The mechanical vibration is represents by the particle
(1) 1 Hz (2) 2 Hz

velocity v = 100 cos(60t + )m/s. The particle (3) 4 Hz (4) 8 Hz
6
displacement amplitude in metre is 76. A particle free to move along the x-axis has
potential energy given by U = K [1 – exp(–x 2 )]
1 5 for –  x  +, where K is a positive constant of
(1) (2) appropriate dimensions. Then
6 3
(1) at points away from the origin, the particle is
(3) 6 (4) 100
in unstable equilibrium
71. Maximum speed and magnitude of maximum
(2) for any finite non zero value of x there is a force
acceleration of a particle executing SHM are directed away from the origin
10 cm s –1 and 20 cm s –2 respectively. Angular
frequency of the particle is K
(3) If its total mechanical energy is , it has
(1) 0.5 rad s–1 (2) 1 rad/s 2
minimum kinetic energy at the origin
20 (4) for small displacements from x = 0, the motion
(3) rad/s (4) 2 rad s–1 is simple harmonic
3
(101)
77. A particle of mass ‘m’ is attached to one end of a 80. Two particles ‘P’ and ‘Q’ describes simple harmonic
mass-less spring of force constant K, lying on a motion of same amplitude a, same frequency ‘f’
frictionless horizontal plane. The particle starts along the same straight line from the mean
moving horizontally from its equilibrium position at position. The maximum distance between the two
time t = 0 with an initial velocity u0 . W hen the particles is a2. The phase difference between the
speed of particle is 0.5u0 it collides elastically with particle is
a rigid wall. After this collision. 
(1) Zero (2)
(1) the instant of time at which the particle passes 2
through the equilibrium position for 1st time is  
(3) (4)
6 3
2 m 81. A particle is executing SHM with time period 12
t
3 K sec. The minimum time taken by particle to reach
from point P to point Q is
(2) the instant of time at which the particle passes
through the equilibrium position for 1st time is Q P
 m y=–A y=0 y=+A

t
3 K A/2 A/2
(1) 2 sec (2) 3 sec
(3) the instant of time at which the particle passes (3) 4 sec (4) 6 sec
through the equilibrium position for 1st time is 82. The displacement time graph for a particle
executing SHM is given as
 m
t y
6 K
(4) the instant of time at which the particle passes
through the equilibrium position for 1st time is t
 m
t
2 K
78. A wooden block performs simple harmonic motion The acceleration-time graph will be
on a frictionless surface with frequency v 0. The
a
block carries a charge +Q on its surface. If now a
uniform electric field E is switched on as shown
the simple harmonic motion of the block will be
t
(1)
E
+Q
a
(1) of the same frequency and with shifted mean
position
(2) of the same frequency and with same mean (2) t
position
(3) of changed frequency and with shifted mean
position a
(4) of changed frequency and with same mean
position
79. If the length of pendulum is equal to radius R of (3) t
the earth then time period of pendulum is
R 2R a
(1) 2 (2) 2
g g
R R (4) t
(3) 2 (4) 2
2g 4g
(102)
83. The potential energy of a particle, oscillating on x- 87. A uniform rod of length L is suspended by an end
axis is given as U = 20 + (x – 2)2. Here, U is in J and is made to undergo small oscillations. The
and x in metre. Total mechanical energy of the length of the simple pendulum having the time
particle is 36 J. The maximum kinetic energy of the period equal to that of rod is
particle is
L 2L
(1) 16 J (2) 32 J (1) (2)
3 3
(3) 64 J (4) 8J 4L
(3) L (4)
84. Figure shows v-x graph of a particle executing 3
SHM. the K.E of the particle at x = 3m will be (the 88. In case of resonance in forced oscillations the
mass of particle is 125 gm) frequency of applied force
(1) Is nearly equal to the natural frequency for
small damping
v (m/s)
(2) Is always equal to natural frequency
+20 (3) Is very less than the natural frequency
(4) May be large or less than the natural
frequency
x(m) 89. Two independent SHMs along Y axis is given by y1
–5 +5 = 10 sin t and y2 = 5 sin (t + ). A particle is
subjected to these SHMs simultaneously. Find the
maximum speed of particle
–20
 102  52    102  52  
(1)   (2)  
   
(1) 9J (2) 8J
(3) 5 (4) 15
(3) 16 J (4) 256 J 90. Two particles are executing SHM of same
frequency and of same amplitude along two closely
85. The block is kept on the smooth surface in given separated straight line with their mean position at
arrangement. The stiffness constant of each spring almost same position. It is observed that maximum
is k. Find the time period of oscillations.
distance between the two is 2 times the
amplitude. Initially, phase difference between the
particle is
 x=–A x= 0 x= +A
(1) 90° (2) 60°
3m m (3) 45° (4) 30°
(1) 2 (2) 2
k 3k 91. The mass m collides elastically with mass M. The
period of oscillation and amplitude of resulting
motion of M are respectively (m <<M)
3m 2m
(3) 2 (4) 2
2k 3k
86. A uniform disc of radius R is to be suspended v

k
through a small hole made in the disc. The M m
minimum possible time period of the disc for small
oscillation will be
smooth
R 2R
(1) 2 (2) 2 M 2mv m m 2mv m
g g (1) 2 , (2) 2 ,
K mM K K mM K
R 2R M 2mv M M mv M
(3) 2 (4) 2 (3) 2 , (4) 2 ,
2g g K mM K K mM K
(103)
92. A particle is free to move on X-axis. The particle will 96. The potential energy of a particle of mass 2 kg
execute oscillation about x = 1 in the case where oscillating on X-axis is given as U = (x–2)2 – 10,
the net force acting on it varies with position as here U is in J and x in m. The total energy of the
oscillation is 26J. The maximum speed of the
(1) F = (x – 1) (2) F = – (x–1)2 particle is
(3) F = – (x–1)3 (4) F = (x–1)3
(1) 4 m/s (2) 8 m/s
93. Two particles executing simple harmonic motion of
same frequency, same amplitude a, about same (3) 13 m/s (4) 6 m/s
a
mean position meet at x = 3 while moving in 97. The block is restricted to move in a smooth groove.
2
It is connected to a spring of spring constant k.
opposite direction. Phase difference between the
Neglecting the effect of gravity find the period of
particles
small oscillation
 2
(1) (2)
3 3 m
K
5  
(3) (4)
6 6
94. In the given figure, the block is moved to compress

the spring by 3 2 cm from the shown natural 2 m
length and released. If the collision with the wall is (1)
cos  k
elastic, the time period of oscillation will be (Here
T is time period if wall would not have been there)
2 m
3 cm (2)
sin  k
K=100 N/m
mcos2 
(3) 2
k
m=0.1 kg
smooth
m
7T 5T (4) 2
(1) (2) k
8 4
98. A simple pendulum of length L is suspended from
3T 3T the ceiling of a cart. The cart is moving down on an
(3) (4)
4 8 inclined plane of inclination  (with horizontal) with
uniform acceleration 2g sin . The time period of
95. For the given velocity time graph for a particle oscillation is
executing simple harmonic motion the maximum
acceleration of the particle (in m/sec2) will be
L
v (m/s) (1) 2
gcos 
+10 L
(2) 2
gsin 
0.1 0.9
t(s)
0.5
L
(3) 2
–10 g
(1) 5 (2) 25  L
(4) 2
(3) 10  (4) 20  2gcos 
(104)
99. A meter stick swinging about its one end oscillates 102. A solid cylinder of density , cross-sectional area
with frequency f0. If the bottom half of the stick were A, height H is hung from a spring of stiffness
cut off then its new oscillation frequency would constant k and lowered inside a liquid of density 
become (<). From equilibrium position, the block is pulled
down by x and released. Find maximum velocity
(1) f0 (2) 2f0 attained by it
f0
(3) (4) 2 2f0
2
100. In a forced sustained oscillation, if the damping air
constant increases, then the frequency of oscillation
liquid
(1) Remains unchanged
(2) Increases
k
(1) x
(3) Decreases AH
(4) Cannot be predicted unless natural frequency
is known g
(2) x
101. Two independent simple harmonic motions y1 = A H
 g
sin (t) and y2 = A sin (t + ) are superimposed (3) x
3 H
on the same particle. The resultant simple
harmonic motion is 1
x
(4) H HA
  
y  3A sin  t   g k
(1)
 3
103. A horizontal spring block system of spring constant
k and block mass M respectively executes simple
  harmonic motion with amplitude A. When the block
(2) y  4A sin  t  
 6 reaches the extreme end an object of mass m is
gently dropped on it and the two move together.
The new amplitude of oscillation will be
 
(3) y  4A sin  t   M
 3  (1) A (2)
Mm A
 
(4) y  3Asin t   m mM
 6  (3) A (4) A
mM m

(105)
Chapter 14
Waves
1. y1 = 4 Sin (400 t) and y2 = 3 Sin (404 t) are the 6. Waves of wavelength 4 m is generated in a medium.
equation of displacements of two progressive waves Two points P and Q are chosen in the direction of
interfering at x = 0. The frequency of variation of propagation with P ahead of Q. The instantaneous
amplitude at x = 0 for the interfered wave will be phase of P is 4 rad at a certain instant. Find the
(1) 1 (2) 2 phase of Q at this instant if separation PQ is 6 m
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) 7 (2) 
2. The speed of travelling wave whose equation is given
(3) 3 (4) Both (1) and (3)
2
by y  2 , (all variables are in SI unit) is
 x  3t  1 7. The air column in organ pipe is oscillating in an
excited mode whose consecutive overtones are 550
1 Hz and 770 Hz. So find out the fundamental
(1) 3 m/s (2) m/s frequency and type of organ pipe
3
1 (1) 110 Hz, closed organ pipe

(3) 9 m/s (4) m/s
9
(2) 110 Hz, open organ pipe
3. Both the strings, shown in the figure, are made of
same material and have same cross section. The (3) 220 Hz, closed organ pipe
pulley is light. The wave speed of a transverse wave
in the string AB is v1 and in CD it is v2. Then v2/v1 (4) 220 Hz, open organ pipe
is
D 8. A tuning fork of unknown frequency is vibrating with
string fixed at both end whose frequency is 405 Hz
and produce 5 beat/s with a tuning fork. If string is
B C
slightly tighten then beat frequency reduce to 3 beat/
sec. So find out the frequency of tuning fork and of
m string after tightening
A
(1) 400 Hz, 403 Hz
(1) 1 (2) 2
(2) 410 Hz, 407 Hz
1
(3) 2 (4)
2 (3) 400 Hz, 397 Hz
4. The ratio of speed of sound in He gas to N2 gas
under identical condition is (4) 408 Hz, 405 Hz
5 9. Sources of sound A and C are moving with speed

(1) 1 (2) 10 m/s on a horizontal road while the person B on
3
the line joining A and C is at rest as shown in the
figure. Find out beat frequency heard by B (velocity
21 of sound = 340 m/s)
5
5. A bird is chirping on a tree. At a distance of 100 m 330 Hz 350 Hz
from the tree a person hear this sound of loudness
10 m/s
of 40 dB. By how much distance should a person A B C 10 m/s
move so that loudness becomes 60 dB ?
rest
(1) 10 m towards tree
(2) 90 m towards tree
(1) Zero (2) 10 Hz
(3) 10 m away from tree
(4) 20 m towards tree (3) 20 Hz (4) 5 Hz
(106)
Waves Medical Q-Bank-2020
10. A massless rod of length l is suspended by two 15. A vehicle sounding a whistle of frequency 128 Hz
identical string AB and CD of equal length. A block is moving on a straight road, towards a hill with a
of mass 10 Kg is suspended from point P such velocity of 10 m/s. The number of beats per second
that DP is equal to X. It is also observed that the observed by a person travelling in the vehicle is
frequency of 1st harmonic in AB is equal to 3rd (speed of sound is 330 m/s) :-
harmonic frequency in CD. Then find X
(1) 0 (2) 10
A C (3) 14 (4) 8
16. A uniform string of length L is suspended from a
point on ceiling. A small wave pulse is now
D introduced at its lowest end and start moving up
B P towards ceiling. The acceleration of the moving
pulse will be
10 Kg
(1) 10m/s2 (2) 5m/s 2
(3) 6m/s 2 (4) 8m/s 2
 9
(1) (2) 17. A string of sonometer of length 2m between the
10 10
bridges vibrates in 2nd harmonic. The amplitude of
vibration is maximum at
 4 (1) 1m
(3) (4)
5 5
(2) 0.5m and 1.5m
11. The equation of a travelling wave is given by (3) 0.25m, 0.75m, 1.5m
2 (4) 0.5m, 1.25m, 1.75m
Y , where x and Y are in
5x 2  80t 2  40xt  10
18. The ratio of the length of closed organ pipe and an
metre and t is in second. The velocity of wave is open organ pipe if the second overtone of the open
pipe is in unison with the second overtone of
(1) 4 m/s (2) 2 m/s
closed organ pipe is
(3) 8 m/s (4) 5 m/s
6 5
(1) (2)
12 Oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. Equal 5 6
volume of hydrogen and oxygen are mixed. The
ratio of speed of sound in the mixture to that in 6 7
hydrogen is (3) (4)
7 6
19. A tuning fork produces 3 beats per second when
2
(1) 8 (2) sounded together with a tuning fork of frequency
17 364 Hz. When the first fork is loaded with a little
wax then number of beats becomes two per
1 32 second. The frequency of the first fork is
(3) (4)
8 17 (1) 361 Hz (2) 367 Hz
13. A wave of frequency 500 Hz has a phase velocity (3) 354 Hz (4) 364 Hz
of 200 m/s. How far apart are two points 45° out of 20. Doppler effect does not depend on
phase?
(1) Relative velocity between source and listener
(1) 0.01 m (2) 0.05 m
(2) Distance between source and listener
(3) 0.1 m (4) 0.5 m (3) Intensity of source wave
14. Two strings A and B are slightly out of tune and (4) Both (2) and (3)
produce beats of frequency 5 Hz. Increasing the
tension in B, reduces the beats frequency to 3 Hz. 21. The loudness of source of sound at a given location
If the frequency of string A is 450 Hz, calculate the increases by 10dB. By how many times does its
frequency of string B. intensity increase?
(1) 460 Hz (2) 455 Hz (1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 445 Hz (4) 440 Hz (3) 8 (4) 10
(107)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Waves
22. The equation of travelling wave as given is y = 5 sin 27. If y = 4x2 + 9t2 + 12 xt + 24 represents a wave
10(t – 0.01x) along the x axis. Here all quantities propagating along x axis then its velocity will be (x
are in S.I unit. The phase difference between two and y in meters and t in sec)
points separated by a distance of 10m along x axis
is
3
(1) m–1s along –ve x axis
2

(1) (2) 
2
3
(2) m–1s along +ve x axis
2

(3) 2 (4)
4
2 –1
(3) m s along –ve x axis
23. An open organ pipe of length  is sounded together 3
with another open pipe of length  + x in
fundamental tones. Speed of sound in air is V. The 4 –1
(4) m s along +ve x axis
beat frequency heard will be :  x    3
28. A progressive wave is given by y = 10 Sin [2 (100t

Vx V2 – 0.02x)]. Find the distance of separation between
(1) (2)
4 2 2x two adjacent crests (x, y are in meters and t is in
second)
Vx Vx 2 (1) 25 m (2) 35 m
(3) (4)
2 2 2
(3) 50 m (4) 75 m
24. A train is moving with constant speed along a 29. The equation of a standing wave is given as
circular track. The engine of train emits a sound of
frequency f. The frequency heard by guard at rear  x 
y  4Cos   Cos 40t  . The distance between two
end of train is:- 3
adjacent nodes will be (x, y and t are in SI units)
(1) is less than f
(1) 3 m (2) 1.5 m
(2) is greater than f
(3) 6 m (4) 4.5 m
(3) is equal to f
30. A string is stretched by a block going over a pulley.
(4) may be greater than or equal to f depending on The horizontal string vibrates in fifth harmonic in
factors like speed of train, length of train and unison with a particular tuning fork. When a beaker
radius of circular track containing a liquid of density  is brought under the
block so that it is completely immersed into the
25. The ratio of intensites between two coherent sound
source is 4 : 1. The difference in loudness in liquid, the string vibrates in its seventh harmonic in
decibels (dB) between maximum and minimum unison with the tuning fork. The density of the block
intensities, when they interfere in space is is
(1) 10 log2 (2) 20 log3
(3) 10 log3 (4) 20 log2
26. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its

first harmonic and another pipe P2 open at both
ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in
m
reasonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of
length of P1 and P2 is
24 49
8 3 (1)  (2) 
(1) (2) 23 24
3 8
49 14
1 1 (3)  (4) 
(3) (4) 28 17
6 3
(108)
31. The speed of sound in H2 gas at a temperature T 37. Both source (S) and observer (O) are moving
is v. The speed of sound in an equimolar mixture of
v v
H2 and He at the same temperature will be towards each other with speed and
10 20
respectively where v is the speed of the wave. If 
2 3
(1) v (2) v is the wavelength of the wave emitted from the
5 7 source then the apparent wavelength will be
5 v v
(3) v (4) 4v 20
7 10
32. A column of air at 51°C and a tuning fork produces

4 beats/sec when sounded together. As the O S
temperature of air column is decreased the number
of beats decreases and it becomes 1 beat/sec at 7 9
16°C. Find the frequency of tuning fork (1) (2)
10 10
(1) 40 Hz (2) 28 Hz
3 8
(3) 58 Hz (4) 50 Hz (3) (4)
5 9
33. The ratio of intensities between two coherent sound
source is 4 : 1. The difference of loudness in 38. Which of the given functions is a wave function ?
decibels between maximum and minimum
y  displacement
intensities when they interfere in space is
(1) 20 log 3 (2) 20 log 2 x  position
(3) 20 log 5 (4) 40 log 2 t  time ; A, a, b are constants
34. A sound wave of wavelength 0.40 m enters the tube (1) y = A sin(ax2 – bt)
at S. The smallest radius r of the circular segment
to hear minimum at detector D must be (2) y = A sin(ax2 – bt2)
(3) y = A sin(ax – bt)2
r (4) y = A cos(ax2 – bt2)

S D
39. What is the temperature at which the velocity of
(1) 0.93 m (2) 0.175 m sound in air is double its velocity at 0°C ?
(3) 0.325 m (4) 1.75 m (1) 1092°C (2) 400°C
35. A resonance occurs with a tuning fork and an air (3) 819°C (4) 200°C
column of size 10 cm. The next resonance occurs
with an air column of length 34 cm. Find the 40. A point source of sound is emitting a sound of
frequency of the tuning fork if the speed of sound frequency 40 Hz at a place where speed of sound
is 312 m/s in air is 320 m/s. The phase difference between
direct pressure wave and reflected pressure wave
(1) 650 Hz (2) 450 Hz
reaching the detector is -
(3) 280 Hz (4) 180 Hz
36. Two identical sources S1 and S2 emitting sound of

same frequency f are placed at some distances. An
5m
observer on the midway between the line joining the
5m
two sources S 1 and S 2 move towards S 1 with a

v
speed where v is the speed of the sound. If the
20 Source Detector
6m
observer hears 10 beats per second the frequency
of the sources is (1)  (2) 2
(1) 86 Hz (2) 48 Hz

(3) 3 (4)
(3) 100 Hz (4) 180 Hz 2
(109)
41. A tuning fork produces 2 beats per second with 47. An observer approaches a stationary source with
another tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz. The speed v. Which of the following correctly represents
unknown one is now loaded with a little wax and the variation of fractional change in observed
the beat frequency is found to increases to 4 beats frequency with speed of observer ?
per second. What was the original frequency of the
first tuning fork ? f
f
(1) 256 Hz (2) 260 Hz
(3) 254 Hz (4) 252 Hz
(1)
42. A source of sound wave of frequency 250 Hz is
moving rapidly towards a stationary wall with a
velocity of 5 m/s. If sound travels at a speed of 330 v
m/s, then number of beats per second heard by an
observer between the wall and the source is
f
approximately. f
(1) 4 Hz
(2) 9 Hz (2)
(3) 2 Hz
v
(4) No beat will be heard
43. What will be the beat frequency when three tuning
forks of frequencies 450 Hz, 452 Hz and 454 Hz f
are sounded together by striking them at the same f
instant ?
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3)
(3) 1 (4) 5
v
44. A sound source is moving towards a stationary
1
observer with of the speed of sound. The ratio f
10 f
of apparent (observed by observer) to real
(observed by someone moving with the source)
wavelength of sound is : (4)
11 2 v
 11 
(1) (2)  
10  10  48. A transverse wave in x-y plane along positive x-axis
at t = 0 is represented as
2
 9  y
(3)   (4) 1
 10  A B
45. The temperature at which velocity of sound in D x

oxygen, double its velocity at 0°C, is C
(1) 273 K (2) 273°C A, B, C and D are four particles of the medium.
W hich of the particles has velocity in positive
(3) 819°C (4) 819 K
y direction at t = 0 ?
46. Two points are located at a distance of 10 m and 15 (1) A (2) B
m from the source of oscillation. The wavelength of
oscillation is 15 m. What phase difference is between (3) C (4) D
the oscillation of two points? 49. If the intensity is increased by a factor of 20 in S
units, by how many decibels will the sound level

(1)  (2) increase ? (Take log2 = 0.3 )
3 10
(1) 13 dB (2) 20 dB
2 
(3) (4) (3) 120 dB (4) 7 dB
3 6
(110)
50. A man standing between two cliffs claps his hands 56. Two strings A and B made of same material and
once and hears two echoes after successive intervals same length are stretched by same tension. The
of 2 sec each. Assuming the speed of sound in air is radius of string A is double of the radius B. A
340 m/s, the distance between the cliffs must be transverse wave travels on A with speed vA and B
with speed vB. Then ratio vA/ vB is
(1) 340 m (2) 680 m
1
(3) 1020 m (4) 170 m (1) (2) 2
2
51. A man is watching two trains, one leaving and the
other coming with equal speeds of 4 ms–1. If they 1
(3) (4) 4
sound their whistles each of natural frequency 240 4
Hz, the approximate number of beats heard by the
man will be equal to (speed of sound = 320 m/s) 57. A band playing music at a frequency f is moving
towards a wall at a speed v b . A motorist is
(1) 6 (2) 3 following the band with a speed vm. If v be the speed
of the sound, the expression for beat frequency
(3) 0 (4) 12 heard by motorist is
52. When a damped oscillator completes 100 oscillations,

v  vm v  vm
(1) f (2) f
1 v – vb v  vb
its amplitude reduces to of initial value. What
4
will be its amplitude, when it completes 150 2v b v  v m  2v m  v  v b 
oscillations ? (3) 2 2
f (4) f
v –v b v 2 – v m2
1 2 58. Which of the following gives the equation of a plane

(1) (2)
8 3 progressive wave ?
(1) y  aS in t
1 1
(3) (4)
6 9
(2) y  aS in  t – kr 
53. In a resonance column experiment, a tuning fork of
frequency 400 Hz is used. The first resonance is a
(3) y  Sin  t – kr 
observed when air column has a length of 20cm and r
the second resonance is observed when air column
has a length of 62 cm. How much distance above the
a
open end does the pressure node form ? (4) y  .Sin t – kr 
r
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm
59. Select the correct relation between speed of sound
(3) 3 cm (4) 4 cm in air and elasticity of air
54. Two waves each of frequency 540 Hz travel at a (1) Speed  adiabatic elasticity of air
speed of 330 m/s. If the sources are in phase, in
the beginning, the phase difference of the waves at (2) Speed  adiabatic elasticity of air
a point 4m from one source and 4.4m from the
other is (3) Speed  isothermal elasticity of air
(1) 59º (2) 118º
(4) Speed  isothermal elasticity of air
(3) 177º (4) 236º
55. A person speaking normally produces a sound 60. A uniform string fixed at both ends is vibrating in 3rd
intensity of 40dB at distance of 1m. If the threshold harmonic and equation of vibration is
intensity for reasonable audibility is 20dB, the y = 4 (cm) sin[(0.8 cm–1)x] cos[(400 s–1)t]
maximum distance at which he can be heard
clearly is The length of the vibrating string is
(1) 4m (2) 5m (1) 6.75 cm (2) 12.45 cm
(3) 10m (4) 20m (3) 11.8 cm (4) 18.7 cm
(111)
61. If the speed of sound in air is v, then the minimum 68. Two points are located at a distance 10m and 15m
possible length of the closed end organ pipe which from the source of wave. The period of oscillation is
resonates to frequency f will be 0.05 sec and the velocity of the wave is 300 m/s.
What is the phase difference between the oscillation
v v of two points ?
(1) (2)
2f 4f

v v (1)  (2)
(3) (4) 6
3f f
62. If the distance between consecutive nodes in a
 2
stationary wave is 4 m, then the wavelength of the (3) (4)
wave is 3 3
(1) 2 m (2) 4 m 69. Two vibrating strings of the same material but of
(3) 8 m (4) 16 m lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r respectively.
They are stretched under the same tension. Both
63. If tension in a vibrating string is increased by 69%, the strings vibrate in their fundamental modes. The
then the fundamental frequency will one of length ‘L’ with frequency f1 and the other with
(1) Increase by 30% f1
frequency f2. The ratio f2 is given by
(2) Decrease by 30%
(3) Increase by 10% (1) 2 (3) 4
(4) Decrease by 10%
(3) 8 (4) 1
64. A wave is represented by equation
70. Which of the following travelling wave will produce
  standing wave with node at x = 0 when
y  10 sin 4 t – 0.04 x   superimposed y = Asin(t – kx)
 3
where x is in metre and t is in second. The speed (1) Asin(t + kx) (2) Asin(t + kx + )
of the wave is
(3) Acos(t + kx) (d) Acos(t + kx + )
(1) 314 m/s (2) 628 m/s
71. Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure,
(3) 774 m/s (4) 1042 m/s
in which of the following gases the velocity of sound
65. If two tuning forks have frequencies 250 Hz and 256 will be largest?
Hz respectively, then on sounding together, the
time interval between two successive minimum (1) H2 (2) N2
amplitudes will be
(3) He (4) CO2
(1) 6 s (2) 3 s
72. At t = 0, a transverse wave pulse travelling in the
1 1 positive x direction with a speed of 2m/s in a wire
(3) s (4) s
3 6 6
is described by the function y  given x  0.
66. If in an open organ pipe the fundamental frequency is x2
f, then the only possible other frequencies are
Transverse velocity of particle at x = 2m and t =
(1) 3f, 5f, 7f, ......... (2) 2f, 4f, 6f, ......... 2sec is
(3) 2f, 3f, 4f, ......... (4) 2f, 8f, 16f, .........
(1) 3 m/s (2) –3 m/s
67. A bird is singing on a tree and a man is hearing at a
distance r from the bird. Calculate the displacement (3) 8 m/s (4) –8 m/s
of the man towards the bird so that the loudness
heard by the man increases by 20 dB 73. A tuning fork of 100Hz is in unison with an air
column which is at a temperature of 27°C. If the
9r r temperature is raised by 3°C, find the beat period
(1) (2) detected.
10 10
(1) 1sec (2) 0.5sec
3r 4r
(3) (4) (3) 2sec (4) 0.25sec
5 5
(112)
74. A tuning fork of 512 Hz is used to produce 80. The loop length of a standing wave is 6 cm. What
resonance in a resonance tube experiment. The is the phase difference between the two points
level of water at first resonance is 30.7cm and at separated by a distance of 2 cm.
second resonance is 63.2cm. The error in
(1) 120° (2) 0°
calculating velocity of sound is (Actual speed of
sound is 330 m/s) (3) 180° (4) Either 0° or 180°
(1) 204.1cm/s (2) 110cm/s 81. The loudness of sound coming from a point source
at a distance of 1 m from the source is 10 bel. the
(3) 58cm/s (4) 280cm/s loudness of sound at a distance of 10 m from the
same source will be
75. The amplitude of two waves whose resultant is a
(1) 10 bel (2) 8 bel
standing wave is A. Find the amplitude of oscillation
(3) 12 bel (4) None

of the medium particles located at a distance 82. The velocity of sound in air is 330 m/sec. The
6
from the node, where  is the wavelength of the frequency of 3rd overtone of an open organ pipe of
individual waves length 0.3 m will be
(1) 550 Hz (2) 1100 Hz
(1) A (2) 2 A (3) 2200 Hz (4) 1650 Hz
83. In a resonance tube experiment the 1st resonance
A is obtained for 10 cm of air column and the second
(3) 3A (4)
2 for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is
equal to
76. A wave is represented as
(1) 0.5 cm (2) 1.0 cm
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2 cm
  t x 
y = 4 sin  2     , where y and x are in
  0.02 100   84. A whistle emits sound waves of frequency 2000 Hz.
These sound waves reach a point X through two
cm, t is in sec. The velocity of wave will be different path such that path difference is 20 cm and
(1) 50 cm/sec (2) 50 m/sec there is silence at this point. Y is a successive
point at which also there is silence but the path
(3) 5000 m/sec (4) 100 m/sec difference is 35 cm. Speed of sound is
77. The intensity of a wave of frequency 1 KHz is 10– (1) 340 m/sec (2) 300 m/sec
10 W/m2. If the density of the air is 1.3 kg/m3 and (3) 380 m/sec (4) 332 m/sec
the speed of sound is equal to 330 m/sec then
85 If two tuning forks of frequencies 512 Hz and 532
pressure amplitude of the wave is (approximately)
Hz are sounded together, beats produced and heard
(1) 3 × 10–5 N/m2 (2) 3 × 10–4 N/m2 are respectively
(1) 20, 20 (2) 20, 0
(3) 3 × 10–6 N/m2 (4) 3 × 10–3 N/m2
(3) 0, 20 (4) 0, 0
78. Pressure is increased by 1 atm and temperature
also increased by 1°C for a gas initially at STP 86. Select from the following function of space and time
then velocity of sound in gas that represents a travelling wave
(1) increases by 61 m/sec approx d2 y 1 d2 y

(1)  (2) y=(ax–bt)2
dx 2 2 dt
2
(2) decreases by 61 m/sec approx

(3) y = A sin (kx – t) (4) All of these
(3) increases by 61 cm/sec approx
87. The maximum amplitude in a standing wave is
(4) decreases by 61 cm/sec approx found to be A0. Find the amplitude at a location of
79. A person carrying a whistle emits continuously a L

from a node where L is the loop length
note of 272 Hz and is running towards a reflecting 3
surface with a speed 18 km/hr. Speed of sound in
air is 345 m/sec. Number of beats heard by him 3
every second are (1) 3 A0 (2) A
2 0
(1) 6 (2) 4
A0
(3) 8 (4) 3 (3) A0 (4)
2
(113)
88. For sound wave 91. A length of an open organ pipe is 30 cm. The
distance between any two consecutive node and
(1) Both displacement and pressure waves are in antinode in case of 2nd overtone is
same phase
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm
(2) Pressure wave leads the displacement wave by (3) 15 cm (4) 30 cm
a phase of 90° 92. If the radius of the tube in organ pipe is increased,
it fundamental frequency - (other parameters remain
(3) If the separation of point source of sound is
unchanged)
decreased to half from a detector, intensity
increases by approx 3dB (1) Remains unchanged
(2) Increases
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Decreases
89. The equation of a standing wave in a string of (4) May increase or decrease
length 60 cm fixed at both ends is given as 93. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5 m and 5.5 m
 x  respectively, each propagate in a gas with velocity
y  4sin   cos  96t  . The position of nodes 330 m/sec. W e expect the following number of
 15  beats per second
along string is/are
(1) 12 (2) 0
(1) 0 (2) 15 cm (3) 1 (4) 6
94. A train moves towards a stationary observer with
(3) 30 cm (4) All of these
speed 34 m/sec. The train sounds a whistle and its
90. Two sound waves emerging from a source reach a frequency registered by the observer is f 1. If the
point simultaneously along two path of propagation, train’s speed is reduced to 17 m/sec, the
when the path difference 55 cm, the resultant frequency registered is f2. If the speed of sound is
intensity is zero at that point. As the path f1
difference gradually increases we get zero intensity 340 m/sec then
f2 is
next time when path difference is 77 cm. If the
speed of the sound of the sound is 330 m/sec, the
frequency of the source is 18 18
(1) (2)
19 17
(1) 500 Hz (2) 1000 Hz
17 19
(3) 1500 Hz (4) 2000 Hz (3) (4)
16 18

(114)
Chapter 15
Electric Charges and Fields
1. A bar magnet of magnetic dipole moment 10 Am2 4. An electric dipole is placed in an uniform electric
is in stable equilibrium. The work done to rotate the field with dipole axis making an angle  with the
magnet through 60° in a magnetic field of 0.2T is direction of electric field. For dipole to be in stable
equilibrium,  equals to
1
(1) J (2) 2J
2  
(1) (2)
(3) 1J (4) 4J 6 3
1. Charge q2 of mass m revolves around a stationary

charge q1 in a circular orbit of radius r. The orbital

(3) 0 (4)
2
 1 
periodic time of q2 would be  assume  k 5. W hat is the angle between the electric dipole
 4 o  moment and the electric field due to itself on the
equatorial line ?
1 1
 42mr 3  2
 kq1q2  2
(1) 0° (2) 90°
(1)   (2)  2 3 
 kq1q2   4 mr  (3) 180° (4) None of these
1 1 6. A charge q is placed at the corner of a cube of side

 42mr 4  2
 4 2mr 2  2
a. The electric flux through the cube is :
(3)   (4)  
 kq1q2   kq1q2 
q q
2. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q are (1) (2)
0 3 0
separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, then the number of
electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the q q
(3) (4)
charge on an electron) 60 80
7. An insulating solid sphere of radius R is charged in

40Fd2 4 0Fe2 a non-uniform manner such that volume charge
(1) (2)
e d2
A
density   , where A is positive constant and r
r
4 0Fd2 40Fd2 is the distance from the center. Electric field at any
(3) (4)
e2 e2 inside point at r = r1 is :
3. Distribution of electric field lines due to point

1 4 A 1 A
charges A and B is shown in figure. Which one of (1) (2)
the following is correct statement ? 4 0 r1 40 r1
A A
(3) (4)
0 20
A B
8. An electron moving with the speed 5 × 106 m/s is
projected parallel to the electric field of intensity
1 × 103 N/C. Field is responsible for the retardation
(1) A is positive and B is negative and |A| > |B| of motion of electron. Find the distance travelled by
the electron before coming to rest for an instant (me
(2) A is negative and B is positive |A| = |B| = 9 × 10–31 kg, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
(3) Both are positive but |A| > |B| (1) 7 m (2) 0.7 mm
(4) Both are negative but |A| > |B| (3) 7 cm (4) 0.7 cm
(115)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Electric Charges and Fields
9. Two charges (–q, m) and (+q, m) are connected by 12. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges
a massless rod of length  and released in a region each 0.05C, separated by 30 mm. The dipole
of uniform electric field as shown : is placed in an uniform electric field of 106 N/C. The
maximum torque exerted by the field on the
dipole is :-
-q
E=E (1) 6 × 10–3 Nm (2) 3 × 10–3 Nm
(3) 15 ×10–3 Nm (4) 1.5 × 10–3 Nm

60°
13. The magnitude of electric field due to an short
+q electric dipole at a distance ‘r’ from its centre in
equatorial position is E. If the dipole is rotated
through an angle of 90° about its perpendicular
Find the maximum speed of the charges : axis, the magnetude of electric field at the same
point will be:-
qE 3qE
(1) (2)
2m 2m E
(1) E (2)
4
3qE qE
(3) (4)
m 3m E
(3) (4) 2E
2
10. A short electric dipole is placed along a radial line
of a uniformly charged sphere as shown : 14. Which one of the following graphs represents the
variation of electric field with distance ‘r’ from the
+ centre of a charged spherical conductor of radius
+ R?
+
+Q R 
p
+ + (1)
E
+ +
+ r
r=R r
If the force experienced by dipole at r = 2R and r
F2
= 4R are F1 and F2 respectively, then (2) E
F1 is
1 1
(1) (2)
8 4
r
1 1
(3) (4)
16 32
(3)
E
11. Consider a conducting shell as shown in figure.
Two point charges are inside the shell and two are
outside the shell. Then induced charge on the outer
surface of conducting shell is :
r
q3 (4) E
q4 q1 q2
(1) (q1 + q2) (2) – (q1 + q2)
(3) (q3 + q4) (4) – (q3 + q4) r
(116)
Electric Charges and Fields Medical Q-Bank-2020
15. Three short dipoles identical in nature are arranged 18. Electric field inside the cavity of uniformly charged
as shown below. Find net electric field sphere is
 1  (1) Non uniform

at P.  k  
 4o  (2) Uniform
(3) Zero
–Q +Q (4) Same as that on the surface of charged solid
O O sphere
x
P –Q +Q
O O 19. In the arrangement of concentric shells as shown
x x in the given figure, the ratio of electric field at points
(1), (2) is
O O
–Q +Q
2R
R
kP 2kP r
(1) (2) 1
x3 x3 Q 2r
2
3R 2Q
2 kP 3Q
(3) Zero (4)
x3 (1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 4
(3) 4 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
16. If  is the linear charge density of wire bent in form
of semicircular shape as shown. Then electric field 20. A charged particle of mass m=1 kg and charge
intensity at the centre will be q=2C is thrown from a horizontal ground at an
angle =45° with speed 25 m/s. In space a
+ ++ y axis horizontal electric field E=2×10 7 v/m exist. The
+ +
+ range of charged particle on ground is closest to
(Take g=10m/s2)
CR x axis
(1) 216m (2) 298m
2k  2k    (3) 312.5m (4) 322m
(1) j (2)  j
R R  
21. If four identical charged particles of charge q are
kept at the vertices of regular pentagon, then force
k  k    acting on charge –q kept at centre of polygon (here
(3) j (4)  j r is the distance of vertex from centre of polygon)
R R 
17. Three large non conducting plane sheets of charge kq2 5kq2
with charge densities , 2 and 3 are arranged as (1) 2 (2)
shown. The net electric field in region III will be r r2
+3 6kq2
+ +2 (3) (4) Zero
r2
22. A particle of charge –q and mass m is released at

I II III IV a distance x from axis of ring having charge Q and
radius R. For x << R the time period of oscillation
of charged particle is
3 2 4 0 mR3 4  0 mR3
(1) (towards left) (2) (towards left) (1) 2 (2)
0 0 Qq Qq
3 Qq Qq
(3) 0 (4) (towards right) (3) 2 (4)
0 3
4 0 R3
4 0 mR
(117)
23. Select from the four particles that contribute to the 29. Electric flux through a closed surface area S
electric field at point P on the surface. enclosing charge Q is . If the surface area is
doubled, then the flux is :
q3 q4 (1) 2 (2) /2

q1
P

q2 (3) (4) 
4
(1) q3 and q4 (2) q1, q2, q4 30. The locus of zero potential points for a dipole is -
(3) q1, q2, q3 and q4 (4) q1 and q2 (1) not available (2) a plane
24. Electric field at a distance x from the centre of (3) a straight line (4) a circle
uniformly positively charged ring having radius R is
given by (R>>x) 31. A particle of mass 6.4 × 10–27 kg and charge 3.2
× 10–19C is situated is an uniform electric field of
kQx kQx 1.6 × 105 V/m. The velocity of the particle at the
(1) (2)
2 1/2 R3 end of 2 × 10–2 m path when it starts from rest is
x 2
R 
(1) 2 3  105 m/s (2) 8 × 105 m/s
kQ 4kQ
(3) (4)
x2 3 3 R2
(3) 16 × 105 m/s (4) 4 2  105 m/s
25. Three identical charges are placed at the corners of
an equilateral triangle. If the force between any two 32. The charge q is projected into an uniform electric
charges is F, then the net force on any one charge field E, maximum work done when it moves a
will be : distance y is :
(1) 2F (2) 2F qy
(1) qEy (2)
E
(3) 3F (4) 3F
26. A charge q is placed at the mid point of the line
qE y
joining two equal charges Q. The system of (3) (4)
the three charges will be in equilibrium if q is equal y qE
to :
33. Force of interaction between two small dipoles at
Q Q axial positions of each other is directly proportional
(1)  (2)  to r n, where r is distance between the center of
2 4
dipoles. Value of n is
Q Q (1) –1 (2) –2
(3)  (4) 
4 2
(3) –3 (4) –4
27. The figure shows some of the electric field lines
corresponding to an electric field. The figure 34. Two concentric conducting thin shells of radius R
suggests and 2R carry charges +Q, +3Q respectively. The
magnitude of electric field at a distance x outside
(P) and inside (Q) from the surface of outer sphere
A B C is same. Then the value of x is :
+3Q
(1) EA > EB > EC (2) EA = EB = EC +Q
(3) EA = EC > EB (4) EB > EA = EC R P
2R Q
28. Electric field due to an electric dipole at a distance
r from its center in axial position is E. If the dipole
is rotated through an angle of 90° about its
perpendicular axis, the electric field in magnitude at R 2R
(1) (2)
the same point will be : 3 3
(1) E (2) E/4 R R
(3) (4)
(3) E/2 (4) 2E 4 2
(118)
35. If Ea and Eeq are the magnitude of electric field at 41. Variation of electric field intensity due to charged
the axial and equatorial points due to a short ring along axis with respect to distance measured
electric dipole, then the correct relation is from centre is given as
(1) Eeq = 2Ea (2) 2Eeq = Ea E
(3) Eeq = Ea (4) None of these

(1)
36. In a uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R it is
found that electric field at distances R1 and R2 from x
the centre of the sphere is same. Then the correct
relation is, (R1 < R < R2) E
(1) R23 = R2R1 (2) R13 = R2R2
(3) R3 = R12R2 (4) R3 = R1R22

(2)
37. Two identical small conducting spheres A and B x
have charges +1 mC and –3 mC on them and they
attract each other with a force F. Two other identical
spheres C and D each containing +5 mC are E
touched separately to A and B respectively and
removed. The magnitude of force between sphere A
and B now is
(3)
(1) 12F (2) 4F x
(3) 2F (4) F
E
38. On each of the three corners of an equilateral
triangle of side D three equal charges Q are placed.
The coulombic force experienced by one charge due
to the other two charges is (4)
x
2
2Q
(1) Zero (2)
4  0D 2 42. What is the magnitude of dipole moment of the
system shown in figure?
3 Q2 2Q 2
(3) 2
(4)
4  0 D 4  0D 2 +q
39. If the coulombic force acting between two protons

separated by a distance r is F, what would be the l
force acting between two alpha particles, separated 90°
by a distance 2r?
–2q l +q
(1) F/2 (2) F
(3) 2 F (4) 3 F
(1) q I
40. A charge Q is placed at the corner of a cube of
edge length L. The electric flux linked to one of the (2) 3 (q I)
faces not touching the charge Q is
Q Q (3) 2(q I)
(1) (2)
24 0 6 0
Q ql
(3) (4) Zero (4)
8 0 2
(119)
43. A uncharged solid conducting sphere of radius r is 46. An electric dipole is placed at the origin and is directed
placed at a distance d from a particle having charge along x-axis. At a point P, far away from dipole, the
q. Find electric field at point P just inside the surface electric field is parallel to y-axis. OP makes an angle
due to induced charge appearing on the sphere  with x-axis
(1) tan  3 (2) tan  2

r
q C 1
P (3)   45º (4) tan  
2
47. Four identical charges i.e. q each are placed at the
d corners of a square of side ‘a’. The charge that must
be placed at the centre of the square such that the
whole system of charges is in equilibrium, is
1 q
(1)
4 0 d2 along PC (1) –
q
(2)
q

2 2 1 
4 4
1 q q q
(2) 4 2 along CP
(3) –
4

2 2 1  (4) –
4

3 3 1 
0 d  r 
48. In a uniform electric field,

1 q (1) All points are at the same potential
(3) 4 2 along PC
0 d  r 
(2) No two points can have the same potential
(4) Zero (3) Points separated by the same distance must
have the same difference in potential
44. A long cylindrical wire carries a positive charge of
linear density . An electron (e–) revolves around it in (4) None of the above
circular path of radius r. The speed of the electron is
proportional to the distance (r) 49. Two equal point charges +Q each are kept at the
(1) r 0
(2) r two corners of an equilateral triangle. Another
charge +q is kept at the centre of the triangle as
(3) r2 (4) 1/r2 shown in figure. The distance between the centre
45. Charge is uniformly distributed with volume charge and vertex is r. The resultant force on +q is
density  in a spherical volume of radius R. A cavity
of radius r is made in the charge distribution such
that the centre of the cavity is at distance a from the r
centre of the charge distribution, then the electric +q
field in the cavity is r r
+Q +Q
+
+
+ + a Qq Qq
+ + (1) 2
(2)
+ +  0 r 2 0 r 2
+
2Qq Qq
(3) (4)
(1) Zero 4 0 r 2
4 0 r 2
(2) Non-zero and non-uniform
  50. There are two charges +1 C and +5 C. The ratio

(3) Non zero, uniform and equal to a of the forces acting on one charge dut to the other
20
charge will be
  (1) 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 1
(4) Non-zero, uniform and equal to a
3 0 (3) 5 : 1 (4) 1 : 25
(120)
51. A thin film soap bubble of radius R is given a 54. An electric dipole of dipole moment P is rotated in
uniform negative charge –Q. The radius R a uniform electric field of strength E from position
of stable equilibrium to unstable equilibrium. Then
R work done by external agent in this process is
(1) Becomes (2) Increases
2
(1) Zero (2) PE
R
(3) Decreases (4) Becomes (3) 2PE (4) –2PE

55. A given charge situated at a certain distance from an
52. A point charge q is placed at the centre of a electric dipole in the end-on position experiences a
hemispherical bowl. The electric flux through the force F. If the distance of the charge is doubled, the
bowl is force acting on the charge will be
q q (1) 2F (2) F/2

(1) (2)
60 12  0
(3) F/4 (4) F/8
q q 56. An electric dipole is situated in an electric field of

(3) (4) uniform intensity E whose dipole moment is P and
18  0 20
moment of inertia is I. If the dipole is disturbed slightly
53. Variation of magnitude of electric field intensity due from the equilibrium position, then the angular
to uniformly charged non-conducting solid sphere frequency of its oscillations is
with respect to distance from centre along x-axis,
is best represented by 1 1
 PE  2 1  PE  2
(1)   (2)
E  I  2  I 
1 1
 I 2  PE 2
(3) 2   (4) 2  
(1)  PE   I 
x
x=0 57. Consider the charge configuration shown in the

figure
E
+q +q
x= –a x=0 x=+a
Variation of electric field along x axis is
(2) x
(1) –a a
E x=0
(3)
-a a
x (2) o
(3) –a o a
(4)
x
x=R x=R
(4) None of the above
(121)
58. A small dipole of dipole moment P is kept at the 62. One half of a semicircular ring of radius R has
centre of a ring of radius R and charge Q. The charge -Q while the other half has +Q. The ring is
dipole moment has direction along the axis of ring. placed in xy plane where a uniform electric field
The resultant force on the ring due to dipole is
exists E=E0î
KPQ
(1) Zero (2)
R3
y
2KPQ KPQ
(3) (4) – – +++ E
R3 2R3 ––– +
–– R ++ x
59. Two infinitely large charged planes having uniform
surface charge density + and – are placed along
xy plane and yz plane respectively as shown in
figure. Then the nature of electric field lines is best
represented in Find the work required to be done by external agent
to rotate the ring about z axis by 90° in clockwise
z direction.
–
2 8
x (1)  QER  (2)  QER 
 
+
4
(3)  QER  (4) zero

z z
63. A short dipole of dipole moment p is placed with its
axis perpendicular to a long thin uniformly charged
(1) x (2) x
rod with linear charge density  at a distance r.
Find the force acting on the rod due to field of
dipole.
z
p p
(1) 3 (2)
x 2 0 r  0 r 3
(3) (4)
p p
(3) 2 (4)
60. Two equal negative charges ‘–q’ are fixed at points  0 r 2 0 r 2
(0, –a) and (0, a) on y-axis. A positive charge Q is
released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the x-axis. 64. A point charge q is placed at the centre of a non
The charge Q will concentric cavity of a neutral metallic sphere
(1) execute simple harmonic motion
(2) move to the origin and remains at rest
(3) move to infinity
b A
(4) execute oscillatory but not simple harmonic +q
motion
a
61. An uniform electric field of magnitude ‘E’ is set up r
is a region of gravity free space in upward direction. R
An electron of mass me is projected at an angle ‘’
with the field with a speed ‘u’ at time t=0. If the
electron is at same height at ‘t1’ and ‘t2’. The value  1 
of t1+t2 will be Find the electric field at point A. K  
 4 0 
2meusin  meucos 
(1) (2)
eE eE Kq Kq
(1) (2)
r2 R2
meu sin  2meucos 
(3) (4)
eE eE (3) 0 (4) None of these
(122)
65. Horizontal electric field exist as shown in figure. A 68. The locus of points such that electric field due to
mass ‘m’ with charge ‘q’ attached to a massless rod a short dipole is perpendicular to the direction of
of length  is released from the position shown in dipole moment is
figure, find the angular velocity of the rod when it (1) Parabola (2) Circle
 mg  (3) Pair of straight lines (4) Hyperbola
passes through the bottom most position  E  
 q 
69. Force on the short dipole due to the point charge
kept on the equator of the dipole in the
configuration shown in the figure is
45°
+q
E q,m
+Q 2a
g 2g d –q
(1) (2)
l l
3g 5g Qqa
(3) (4) (1) Zero (2)
l l  0 d3
66. Six charges are placed at the corners of a regular

hexagon as shown. If an electron is placed at its Qqa Qqa
centre O, force on it will be (3) (4)
2 0 d3 4 0 d3
–q 3q 70. The total electric flux through a sphere due to a

A F point charge placed at the centre of the sphere is
–2q B E –2q q
O (1) zero (2) greater than
0
C D
–q 2q
q q
(3) (4) lesser than
(1) Zero (2) Along OF 0 2 0
(3) Along DC (4) None of these  

71. Electric field of a region varies as E  bx i NC–1.
67. Six charges are placed at the vertices of a regular
Find the net charge enclosed by the cube as shown
hexagon of side length a as shown in the figure.
in figure
The electric field on the line passing through
centroid O and perpendicular to the plane of the
figure at a distance x (>>a) from O is
y
+Q –Q l
+Q –Q x
O
O
z
+Q –Q
a
bl 3 bl 3
Qa 2Qa (1) (2)
(1) (2) 2 0 3 0
 0 x3  0 x3
bl 3 0
3 Qa (3) bl30 (4)
(3) (4) Zero 2
 0 x3
(123)
Chapter 16
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
1. Two charges of equal magnitude q are placed in air 5. W hich of the following is not true about
at a distance 2a apart and third charge –2q is equipotential surfaces ?
placed at midpoint of the line connecting identical
charges. The potential energy of the system is (1) They do not cross each other
(2) They are concentric spheres for uniform electric
q2 3q2 field
(1)  (2) 
80 a 80 a (3) Rate of change of potential with position on
them is zero
5q2 7q2 (4) They can be spheres
(3)  (4) 
80 a 80 a 6. Two charged conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2
have equal surface charge density. The ratio of
2. The electrical potential on the surface of a uniformly potential at their surfaces is :
charged sphere of radius r due to a charge
3 × 10–6 C on it is 500V. The intensity of electric R1 R2
field on the surface of the sphere is (in N/C) (1) (2)
R2 R1
(1) < 10 (2) > 200
2 2
(3) between 10 and 20 (4) < 5  R2   R1 
(3)   (4)  
 R1   R2 
3. A non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries a total
charge of 1.11 × 10–10 C distributed non-uniformly 7. The work done by battery to charge an uncharged

on its circumference producing an electric field E parallel plate condenser of plate separation d and
everywhere in space. The value of line integral plate area of cross section A such that the uniform
electric field between the plates is E, is
   
 E.d ( = 0 at the center of the ring) in volt
 0 1
 0E 2 0E2
is : (given potential at infinity is zero) (1) 2 (2)
Ad Ad
+Q,R
1
(3) 0E2Ad (4) 0E2 Ad
2
8. A capacitor is charged by a battery and the energy

stored is U. The battery is now removed and the

l separation between the plates is doubled. The
dl
energy stored now is :
U
(1) (2) U
2
(1) + 2 (2) – 1
(3) – 2 (4) 0 (3) 2U (4) 4U
9. The plates in a parallel plate capacitor are separated
4. Charge Q is uniformly distributed throughout the by a distance d with air as the medium between the
volume of a solid hemisphere of radius R. Then the plates. In order to increase the capacity by 66.67%
potential at center O of the hemisphere is : a dielectric slab of dielectric constant 5 is
introduced between the plates. W hat is the
1 3Q 1 3Q thickness of dielectric slab ?
(1) (2)
4 0 2R 4 0 4R d d
(1) (2)
4 2
1 Q 1 Q
(3) (4) 5d
4 0 4R 4 0 8R (3) (4) d
8
(124)
Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance Medical Q-Bank-2020
10. In the figure shown, the equivalent capacitance 14. A charged Q is uniformly distributed over a thin rod
between A and B is AB of length L as shown in the figure. The electric
potential at the point O lying at distance 2L from
10F 10F 3F
A the end A is:-
15F O A B
B 2L L
5F 6F 6F
(1) 3.75 F (2) 5.25 F 3Q

Q 3
(1) n (2)
(3) 6.5 F (4) 10.5 F 4  oL 2 4  oL
11. Equivalence capacitance between the points X and

Y in the circuit is Q Q 2
(3) n 3 (4) n
3  oL 4  oL 3
C C
15. In the arrangement of two concentric conducting
X C Y shell as shown in the figure, charge on the outer
shell is 10C and the inner shell is grounded. Then
the charge q on the inner shell is:-
C
2C 5C 10C
(1) (2)
3 3
O 2m
3C 1m
5
12. A capacitance of 10 F is charged to a potential of

50V with a battery. The battery is now disconnected
(1) Zero (2) q = –10C
and an additional charge 200 C is given to positive
plate of the capacitor. The potential difference (3) q = 20C (4) q = –5C
across the capacitor become :
16. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance
(1) 100V (2) 70 V C. One of them is charged to potential V1 and other
to V2. The negative end is joined with the positive
(3) 80 V (4) 60 V
end of other capacitor. W hen the other two
13. A charge q is placed at the origin O of X – Y axes remaining ends are connected the change in energy
as shown in the figure. The work done by external of combined system is:-
agent in taking a charge Q from A to B along the
curved line A B is 1 2 1 2
(1) C  V1 – V2  (2) C  V1  V2 
4 4
Y
1 1
B (0,b) (3)
4

C V12  V22  (4)
4

C V12 – V2 
X 17. Four capacitors are joined as shown in the figure.

O A (a,0) The capacity of each capacitor is 8F. Equivalent
capacitance between A and B is-
Qq  a – b  Qq  b – a 
(1)   (2)   A
4  o  ab  4 o  ab 
B
Qq  b 1  Qq  a 1  (1) 2F (2) 8F

(3)  –  (4)  – 
4  o  a 2 b  4  o  b 2 b  (3) 16F (4) 32F
(125)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
18. A parallel plate capacitor having a plate separation 22. In the given arrangement the value of equivalent
of 2mm is charged by connecting it to a 400V capacitance between points A and B is
supply. The energy density is:-
(1) 0.09 J/m3 (2) 0.18 J/m3 2F 2F
(3) 0.36 J/m3 (4) 0.72 J/m3 A 4F B

19. A charge is q kept in front of neutral metallic sphere 2F
2F
as shown in the figure. The value of electric field at
the centre of sphere due to induced charge on
surface of sphere is (1) 4F (2) 6F
(3) 2F (4) 3F

R q
d 23. A solid sphere (conducting) is surrounded by metallic
shell of radius 2r. Initial charges on them are 5C
q q and 3C respectively. If both are connected by thin
(1) (2)
4 0 d 2
4  0 R 2 metallic wire then charge appearing on A and B are
q 3q
(3) 2 (4)
4 0 R  d 4  0 R 2
5C 3C
20. Two identical capacitors 1 and 2 are connected in
series. The capacitor 2 contains a dielectric slab of r A
constant k as shown. They are connected to a B
battery of emf v0 volt. The dielectric slab is then 2r
removed. Let Q1 and Q2 be the charge stored in
capacitor before removing the slab and Q1 and Q2
be the values after removing the slab. Then (1) 4C each (2) 0 and 8C
(3) 3C and 5C (4) 2C and 6C

1 24. There are two identical capacitors. The first one is
v0
2 uncharged and filled with dielectric constant K while
the other is charged to potential V having air between
its plates. If two capacitors are joined end to end, the
common potential wire be
Q1 k  1 Q2 k  1
(1)  (2)  V KV
Q1 k Q2 2 (1) (2)
K 1 K 1
Q2 k  1 Q1 k KV V
(3)  (4)  (3) (4)
Q2 2k Q1 2 K 1 K 1
21. In the arrangement the value of each capacitor is 25. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in a
X F. Then the equivalent capacitance between uniform electric field produced by two oppositely
charge large plates. The lines of force appear as
point a and c is (In F)
+ + + + + + + + + +
c (1) (2)
X
– – – – – – – –
a
12X 6X + + + + + + + + +
(1) (2)
7 5
7X 4X (3) (4)
(3) (4)
12 3 – – – – – – – ––
(126)
26. Three charged particles having charges q, – 2q and 30. The electric potential at any point (x, y, z) in
q are placed at points (–a,0),(0,0) and (a,0) metres is given by V = 3x2. The electric field at a
respectively. The expression for electric potenital at point (2, 0, 1) is
 1 
(0,r) is  k   (r>>a) Vˆ Vˆ
 4  0  (1) 12 i (2) 6 i
m m
kqa2 kqa2
(1) 4 (2)  Vˆ Vˆ
r r3 (3) 6 i (4) 12 i
m m
4kqa2 8kqa 2
(3)  2 (4) 31. Three point charges q, –2q and –2q are placed at
r r
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. The
27. Three concentric metallic shells A, B and C of radii work done by some external force to increase their
a, b and c (a<b<c) have surface charge density seperation to 2a slowly, will be
, – and  respectively. If A and C are kept at
same potential then C is equal to
1 2q2 1 q2
ba (1) (2)
4  0 a 4 0 2a
(1) b – a (2)
2
1 8q
b2  a2 (3) (4) Zero
(3) b + a (4) 40 a 2
2
28. The total capacity of the system of capacitors 32. Two concentric shells kept in air have radii R and
shown in figure below between the points A and B
r. They have similar charge and equal surface
is
charge density . The electrical potential at their
common centre is :
2F
A
2F (R  r) (R  r)
1F (1) (2)
1F 0 0
B
2F (R  r) (R  r)
(3) (4)
20 4 0
(1) 1F (2) 2F
33. A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged
(3) 3F (4) 4F such that the potential on it’s surface becomes
80V. The potential at the centre of sphere is :
29. The expression for the capacity of a capacitor
formed by compound dielectric placed between (1) 80V (2) 800V
plates of a parallel plate capacitor as shown in
figure is (Area of each plate is A) (3) 8V (4) Zero
34. A metal sphere A of radius a is charged to potential

d1 d3 V. What will be it’s potential if it is enclosed by a
× × × conducting spherical shell B of radius b and two are
× × ×
× × × connected by a conducting wire ?
k1 × k×2 × k3
× × × B
× × ×
d2 b
A
a
0 A 0 A
(1) (2)
 d1 d2 d3  d1  d2  d3
    k1  k 2  k 3 a
 k1 k 2 k 3  (1) V (2)   V
b
0 A k1k 2k 3  A  k1 k2 k3 
(3) (4) 0     b
d1d2 d3  d1 d2 d3  (3)   V (4) None of these
a
(127)
35. Figure shows three spherical and equipotential 40. Four capacitors of equal capacitance have an
surfaces A, B and C around a point charge q at equivalent capacitance C1 when connected in series
their common centre. The potential difference VA– and an equivalent capacitance C2 when connected
V B = V B – V C . If t 1 and t 2 be the distances C1
between them, then in parallel. The ratio
C2 is
C 1 1
B (1) (2)
A 4 16
t2
t1
1 1
(3) (4)
8 12
41. A charge ‘q’ moves from points A(0, 1) to B(1, 0)
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 > t2
as shown in figure. If |p1| > |p2|, then work done by
(3) t1 < t2 (4) t1  t2 electric force in moving charge ‘q’ from A to B, in
the vicinity of two short dipoles placed at the origin
36. If the energy of a 100 F capacitor charged to 6 kV with their dipole moments as shown, will be
could all be used to lift a 50 kg mass, then what y
would be greatest vertical height through which
mass could be raised ? A
(1) 0.6 mm (2) 3.6 m

p2
x
(3) 1.2 mm (4) 12 m p1 B
37. Energy E is stored in a parallel plate capacitor C1.

An identical uncharged capacitor C2 is connected
to it, kept in contact with it for a while and then (1) Positive
disconnected, the energy stored in C2 is (2) Negative
(3) Zero
E E
(1) (2) (4) Cannot be determined
2 3
42. A conducting sphere of radius R is charged to
potential V. The electric field at a distance r(>R)
E from centre of the sphere is,
(3) (4) Zero
4
V R2 V
(1) (2)
38. The potential energy of a charged parallel plate r r3
capacitor connected to a battery is U0. If a slab of
dielectric constant K is inserted fully between the RV V
plates, then the new potential energy will be : (3) (4)
r2 R3
U0 43. Two concentric conducting thin shells of radius a
(1) (2) UoK and b (a > b) carry charges Q and 3Q respectively.
K
The net charge on the outer surface of the outer
U0 shell is
(3) (4) U02 (1) 4Q (2) 3Q
K2
(3) 2Q (4) Q
39. The charge stored on 4 F capacitor in the given 44. Two conducting large plates P1 and P2 are placed
circuit is parallel to each other at very small separation ‘d’.
12V One side surface area of each plate is A. A charge
+2Q is given to plate P1 and –Q to the plate P2. If
P1 and P2 are now connected by conducting wire,
4F 2F then total amount of heat produced is,
4Q 2 d 9Q 2 d
6F (1) (2)
3 0 A 8 0 A
(1) 6 × 10–6C (2) 12 × 10–6C
3Q2 d
(3) 24 × 10–6C (4) 36 × 10–6C 4 0 A
(128)
45. In the given figure, if each capacitor has 50. In the given circuit, the potential difference between
capacitance c, then the equivalent capacitance points A and B is 18 V and charge on 2 F
between P and Q of the entire circuit is
capacitor is 24 C. The value of C is
2 F
P Q A 6 F B
C
2c 7c
(1) (2) (1) 1 F (2) 2 F
7 2
(3) 3 F (4) 4 F
5c 2c
(3) (4) 51. Initially switch S is open in the given circuit. If it is
2 5
closed then
46. What is the charge flown from P to Q when the
switch is closed ? S
P Q
C C C
3 F
5V
A B V
2 F CV
(1) Charge flows from B to A
(1) 3c (2) 15c 3
(3) 6c (4) 9c (2) There is no flow of charge through switch
47. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm

CV
has a potential V at a point 8 cm from its centre (3) Charge flows from A to B
then the potential at a point 15 cm from its centre 6
will be
CV
(4) Charge flows from B to A
V 2V 6
(1) (2)
3 3
52. If area of each plate is A and separation between the
plates is d, then the reciprocal of capacitance of the
3V arrangement shown in figure will be
(3) (4) 3V
2
d/2
48. If electrostatic potential at a distance r, from the
centre of a small dipole, in axial position is V, then
potential at a distance 2r from the centre on the
K2
same line is
V
(1) (2) 4V
8 K1
V
(3) 8V (4)
4
49. In a region, electrostatic potential varies along x- 20 A(K1  K 2 ) 0 A(K1  K 2 )
(1) (2)
axis according to the equation V = 5x3/2 volt where d (2  K1  K 2 ) d (2  K1  K 2 )
x is in m. Magnitude of electric field at x = 4 m is
(1) 40 V/m (2) 15 V/m K1  1K 2  1 d d d

(3) (4) 
(3) 20 V/m (4) 5 V/m
 1 2
K  K  2K 1 2
K A  0 0 A 0 A(K1  K 2 )
(129)
53. The work done by the battery (in J) in charging the 58. A long string with a charge of  per unit length passes
capacitors to steady state is through an imaginary cube of edge a. The maximum
flux of electric field through cube will be
2 F 3 F
a 2a
(1) (2)
0 0
3 F 2 F
6 a 3 a
(3) (4)
10V 0 0
(1) 240 (2) 1005
59. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by a battery
(3) 250 (4) Zero to a potential difference V. Now it is disconnected
54. A dielectric slab (K = 4) is put between the plates of from this battery and connected to another battery of
a charged parallel plate capacitor. If charge on the potential difference 2V, so that positive plate of
positive plate of the capacitor is Q then the induced capacitor is connected to positive terminal to the
charge on the face of the slab that faces the positive battery and negative plate of the capacitor is
plate will be connected to the negative terminal of the battery. The
heat produced in the circuit is
3Q Q
(1) – (2) –
4 4 1
(1) CV2 (2) CV2
2
3Q Q
(3) (4)
4 4 3
(3) CV2 (4) 2CV2
55. Two conducting plates A and B are placed parallel to 2
each other. A is given a charge Q1 and B a charge Q2.
The surface charge density at the inner surface of 60. A thin rod is bent into a semi-circular arc of radius R.
the plate A is (S = surface area of each face of plate) The rod has a uniform linear charge density . The
potential at the centre of the arc, point P is
Q1  Q2 Q2
(1) (2)
2S 2S
Q1  Q2 Q1
(3) (4)
2S 2S R
56. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged and then
disconnected from battery. When a dielectric material P
is inserted between the plates of the capacitor, then
which of the following does not change?  
(1) Electric field between the plates (1) (2)
20R 4 0
(2) Potential difference across the plates
(3) Ratio of electric field in the region and potential  
difference between plates (3) (4)
20 0
(4) Energy stored in the capacitor
57. Four identical charge particles having charge q are 4F 6F
placed fixed at the vertices of a square of side length A•
61.
a. A negative charge –Q having mass m is situated
at the centre of the square. The minimum velocity 4F 2F 6F
given to –Q so that it can escape from there is
1 1 •
B
 Qq2 2  2
 8Qq 2  2 4F 6F
(1)   (2)  
 40ma   0ma 
Find equivalent capacitance between A and B
1 1
 Qq2 2  2
 Qq 2  2 (1) 2F (2) 4F
(3)   (4)  
 0ma   40ma  (3) 6F (4) 8F
(130)
62. Two conducting spheres each given a charge q are 66. Equipotential surfaces in a region are shown.
kept far apart as shown. The amount of charge that Magnitude of electric field in the region is
crosses the switch s, when it is closed, is
Y (m) 10 V
20 V
q q 30 V
40 V
R 50 V
2R 30°
–20 –10 0 10 20 X (m)
(1) q/3 (2) 2q/3
(3) 3q / 4 (4) Zero
63. An insulator plate is passed through the plates of (1) 2 V/m (2) 10 V/m
a capacitor as shown in the figure below. Then
current outside the capacitor (3) 1 V/m (4) Zero
67. In given circuit, ratio of charge on 2 F capacitor to

the charge on 3 F capacitor will be
A B
1 F 2 F
3 F
(1) First flows from A to B and then from B to A

5V
(2) First flows from B to A and then from A to B (1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) Always flows from B to A (3) 1 : 9 (4) 2 : 9
68. Capacity of an air filled parallel plate capacitor is C. If
(4) Always flows from A to B
d
a metal plate of thickness is symmetrically
64. Find the equivalent capacitance between point a 2
and b in the following arrangement of plates. Each inserted between plates as shown in figure, then the
plate has the area ‘A’ and separation between the new capacity of the capacitor is
plates is ‘d’
a Metal plate
d/2 d
b
(1) C (2) 2C
2 A 0 3 A 0 C C
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 d 2 d 2 4
69. 5 plates each of area A and separation d between
2A 0 3A 0 consecutive plates are arranged as shown. Equivalent
(3) (4) capacitance between points A and B will be
d d
65. A positive charge is moving under the effect of a

uniform electric field alone. It moves from potential A B
zone V1 to potential zone V2 (V2 < V1). Its speed
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases 0 A 3 0 A
(1) (2)
3d d
(3) Remains constant
4 0 A 0 A
(4) Will become zero at V2 (3) (4)
d 4d
(131)
70. In the circuit shown below, to have same potentials 74. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by connecting
of points a and b, a dielectric of constant K = 2 should it to a battery of emf . The capacitor is now
be completely filled in disconnected and reconnected to the same battery
with the polarity reversed. The heat developed in the
C1 = 1 F a C2 = 4 F connecting wires is
1 2
(1) C2 (2) C
C3 = 4 F C4 = 4 F 2
b 3 2
(3) 2C2 (4) C
2
75. Large conducting parallel plates are arranged with
some charges on them as shown. Find the charge
flown through switch after closing the switch
(1) C1 and C3 (2) C1 and C4
+3Q –8Q +Q
(3) C2 and C4 (4) C2 and C3
71. A capacitor of capacitance 400 µF is charged upto a

potential of 100 volt and another capacitor of
capacitance 600 µF is charged upto a potential of
200 volt. The two capacitors are connected in such a
way that the positive plates are connected at one
point and the negative plates are connected at another
point. The loss of energy will be
(1) 24 J (2) 12 J
(1) +4Q towards earth (2) +2Q towards earth
(3) 1.2 J (4) Zero
(3) +4Q towards plate (4) +2Q towards plate
72. n identical capacitors in series are connected to a 76. The ratio of field energy stored inside and outside a
battery and at steady state the total energy stored uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R and volume
by the assembly is w1. If they had been connected charge density  is
in parallel across same source, the total energy would
11 5
w1 (1) (2)
have been w2. Then 5 6
w 2 equals
1 6
(1) 1 : n (2) 1 : n2 (3) (4)
5 5
(3) n : 1 (4) n2 : 1 
77. A dipole of dipole moment P  2iˆ  3ˆj  4kˆ is
73. Three identical charge (Q) are fixed at each corner of placed at point A(2, –3, 1). The electric potential
a equilateral triangle. What should be the minimum due to dipole at point B(4, –1, 0) is equal to (All the
velocity given to charged particle (–q) placed at the parameters specified here are in SI units)
centre of the triangle to escape from the electric field
of identical charges? [m = mass of charge particle at (1) 2 × 109 volts (2) –2 × 109 volts
centre] (3) 3 × 109 volts (4) –3 × 109 volts
Q 78. Consider the situation shown in figure. The work
done in taking a point charge from P to A is W A,
from P to B is W B and from P to C is W C
l l
–q B
Q l Q
R
1 1
 Qq 3  2
 Qq 3  2
C P
(1)   (2)   +Q A
 40lm   20lm  (point R
charge)
1 1
 3Qq 3  2
 3Qq 3  2 (1) W A < W B < W C (2) W A > W B > W C
(3)   (4)  
 20lm   0lm  (3) W A = W B = W C (4) None of these
(132)
79. Two concentric uniformly charged spherical shells 83. Two identical point charges are fixed at x=–a and
of radius 10cm and 20cm having charges 10C and x=+a on the x-axis. Another point charge ‘Q’ is
20C on them are arranged as shown in figure. The placed at the origin. The change in the electric
magnitude of potential difference between the two potential energy of Q, when it is displaced by a
shells is small distance x along the x-axis, is approximately
proportional to
10C
(1) x (2) x 2
20C 1
(3) x 3 (4)
x
20cm
84. Consider a non-spherical conductor shown in figure
(1) 4.5 × 1011V (2) 2.7 × 1011V which is given a certain amount of positive charge.
(3) 0 (4) None of these The charge distributes itself on the surface such
that the charge densities are 1, 2 and 3 at the
80. Two metallic spheres of radii ‘a’ and ‘b’ are placed
region 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Then
away from each other and are connected by a thin
conducting wire. A charge ‘Q’ is given to one of the
sphere. The charge on each sphere at electrostatic 3
equilibrium is
1 2
Qb Qb
(1) q1  2
, q2 
(a  b) (a  b)2 3
Qa Qb (1) 1 > 2 > 3 (2) 2 > 3 > 1

(2) q1  , q2 
(a  b) (a  b)
(3) 3 > 1 > 2 (4) 2 > 1 > 3
Qb Qa 85. Charges are given to three large parallel conducting
(3) q1  , q2 
(a  b) (a  b) plates as shown in figure. Now the switch ‘S’ is
closed. The value of electric field between the
Qa2 Qb2 plates (2) and (3) is (each plate has surface of Area
(4) q1  , q2 
a2  b2 a2  b2 A)
81. A 2µF capacitor is charged as shown in figure. The
percentage of its stored energy, dissipated after the 10C 20C 30C
switch S is turned in position 2, is
1 2
S
2µF 8µF
1 2 3
(1) 0% (2) 20%
(3) 75% (4) 80%
82. A point charge ‘q’ is placed at a point inside a 30C 25C
hollow conducting sphere. Which of the following (1) (2)
electric field lines pattern should be correct? A 0 A 0
20C
(3) (4) zero
A 0
(1) (2)
86. In a regular polygon of ‘n’ sides, each corner is at
a distance ‘r’ from the centre. Identical charges are
placed at (n–1) corners. At the centre, the intensity
is E and the potential is V. The ratio of V/E has
magnitude
(3) (4) (1) rn (2) r(n–1)
(3) (n–1)/r (4) r(n–1)/n
(133)
87. Which of the following statement is correct? 90. Given R1 = 1, R2 = 2, C1 = 2F C2 = 4F The
time constants (in s) for the circuits I, II, III are
(1) The value of electric potential is same at every
respectively
point inside a non-concentric cavity created in
a uniformly charged non-conducting solid
spherical charge distribution
C1
(2) Decreasing the separation between two point
charges always increases their potential C1 C2 C2
energy. R2
V R1
(3) The locus of all such points where the potential
due to a short dipole is zero is a straight line R1
(4) None of these R2

(I) V
88. Three long coaxial conducting cylindrical shells have (II)
radii R, 2R and 2 2 R. Inner and outer shells are

connected to each other. The capacitance across R1 R2
middle and outer shells per unit length is C1 C2
1
0 60
(1) 3 (2) (III)
ln2 ln2
8 8
(1) 18, ,4 (2) 18,4,
0 9 9
(3) (4)  0 ln 2
2ln 2
8 8
89. Four identical plates of surface area A are placed (3) 4, ,18 (4) ,18, 4
9 9
parallel to each other at equal distance ‘d’ as shown
in the figure. The space between 2nd and 3rd is filled 91. Find the equivalent capacitance of the circuit between
with a dielectric of dielectric constant K = 2. The points A and B considering the ladder to be infinitely
capacitance of the system across terminals A and B large
is C 2C 4C 8C
A C C C C B
A C 2C 4C 8C
(1) C (2) 2C
B (3) 4C (4) 8C
92. The heat produced in the circuit shown in figure on

closing the switch ‘S’ is
2 0 A
(1)
d
2F
0 A +20C –20C
(2)
d S
+50C –50C
4 0 A
(3) 5F
d
(1) 2J (2) zero

5 0 A
(4) (3) 100J (4) none of these
3 d
(134)
93. The figure shows electric lines of forces. If EA and 97. Four charges of magnitude q each are placed at
EB are electric field strength at points A and B and the vertices of a square of side length a with origin
VA and VB are the electrostatic potential at these O at centroid. Find the electrostatic potential at
points, then which of the following option is correct. point P, given OP=r, r>>a
y P
A
B +
– 45° +
(1) EA > EB , VA > VB x
O
(2) EA > EB , VB > VA
–
(3) EA < EB , VA > VB
qa qa
(4) EA < EB , VB > VA (1) 2 (2)
4  0 r 2 0 r 2
94. An electron ‘e’ is released from the bottom plate A
as shown in the figure (E=104 NC–1). The velocity
of the electron when it reaches plate B will be qa qa
(3) 2 (4)
equal to  0 r 8  0 r 2
B 98. Two short electric dipoles are placed as shown. The
21cm electrostatic energy of interaction between these
e0 dipoles is
A
(1) 2.72 ×107 m/s (2) 1.0 ×107 m/s
(3) 1.25 ×107 m/s (4) 1.65 ×107 m/s
r p1
95. A uniformly charged soap bubble of radius r is in
equilibrium with air pressure inside and outside
equal. If T is the surface tension of soap solution,
the potential of the soap solution is 
p2
4Tr 8Tr
(1) (2)
0 0
2kP1P2 Cot 2kP1P2 Cos
(1) 3 (2)
2Tr Tr r r3
(3) (4)
0 0
2kP1P2 Sin  4kP1P2C ot 
96. Consider equal and opposite uniformly charged (3) 3 (4)
r r3
large parallel plates with charge density of
magnitude . A small charge q is moved along the 99. The potential difference between points A and B at
rectangular path ABCDA where side AB=x and side the periphery of a spherical cavity of radius r made
BC=y. Then the correct statement is in a solid nonconducting sphere of uniform charge
+ – density  is
D C
+ + +
+ + + +
+
+ + C+ A C+
A B 1 2
+ + + +
+ + a B
+
(1) Work done by electric field along path AB is + +
qx
positive and equal to
0
3 ar 2 ar
(1) (2)
(2) Point A is at lower potential 2 0 0
(3) Work done by electric field along path ABCDA
may or may not be zero 2 ar ar
(3) (4)
(4) All of these 3 0 3 0
(135)
100. A bullet of mass m and charge ‘q’ is fired towards a 103. A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105V/
solid uniformly charged sphere of radius ‘R’ and having m between the plates. If charge on the capacitor is 1
total charge ‘+q’. If it strikes the surface with speed C, then force on each of the plates is
‘u’, then find the minimum speed ‘u’ so that it can
penetrate through the sphere (neglect all resistance (1) 0.5N (2) 0.05N
forces acting on bullet except electrostatic force). (3) 0.005N (4) None
++ + 104. A capacitor of capacitance 1F is charged to 30V.

+ + + + The battery is then disconnected. If the capacitor is
+ + + ++
+ + ++ + + now connected across a 2F uncharged capacitor,
q,m
+ ++ + the energy lost by the system is
+ +
(1) 300 J (2) 450 J
q q
(1) (2) (3) 225 J (4) 150 J
2 0 mR 4 0 mR
105. A parallel plate air cored capacitor has a capacitance
C. When it is half filled with a dielectric of dielectric
q 3q constant 5 as shown in figure, the % increase in the
(3) (4)
8 0 mR 4 0 mR capacitance is
101. A spherical shell with an inner radius ‘a’ and an outer

radius ‘b’ is made of conducting material. A point
charge +Q is placed at the centre of the spherical
shell and a total charge ‘–q’ is placed on the shell.
The charge is distributed on the surfaces as (1) 400% (2) 66.6%
–q
(3) 33.3% (4) 200%
b
a 106. The effective capacitance between A and B is
+Q
23F 7F
(1) –Q on the inner surface, –q on the outer
surface 12F 13F 1F
(2) –Q on the inner surface, –q +Q on the outer B
A
surface
(3) +Q on the inner surface, –q –Q on the outer
surface 10F 1F
(4) The charge –q is spread uniformly between the
inner and outer surface
102. Two large parallel conducting plates are given charges 28 15
(1) F (2) F
Q1 and Q2 respectively as shown in the figure. Find 3 2
the charge flown through the switch after the switch
is closed. (3) 15F (4) None
107. Three capacitors with their respective breakdown

Q1 Q2
voltages have been marked.
6F,5V
4F,20V
A B
3F,10V
(1) Q1+Q2 towards the plate Find the maximum potential difference that can be
applied across terminals A and B to keep each of
(2) Q1 towards ground them safe.
(3) Q2 towards ground (1) 60V (2) 30V
(4) Q1+Q2 towards ground (3) 16.25V (4) 15V
(136)
Chapter 17
Current Electricity
1. The length, area of cross-section and density of a 4. In the given circuit r 1 and r 2 are the internal
metallic wire are respectively 1 m, 10 –6 m2 and resistances of the cells A and B. For what value of
5×103 kg/m3. Assuming that each atom contributes R, the terminal potential difference of cell A is
one free electron, find the drift velocity of electrons zero ?
if a current of 16 A flows through it. Given that the
atomic wt. of the metal is 60 g/mol. A B
a b
(1) 2 m/s (2) 0.2 m/s r1=3 r2=1
1.5V 2V
(3) 2×10–3 m/s (4) 2×10–2 m/s
2. A uniform wire of resistance R is stretched uniformly

R
to n times its original length and then cut to form
five wires of equal length. These wires are arranged (1) 3  (2) 4 
as shown in figure. The effective resistance between
points A and B is (3) 2  (4) 1 
5. Four cells of emf 1V, 2V, 3V and 4V are connected

in parallel as shown. If their internal resistances are
respectively 1, 1, 1 and 2, then the current
A B through the external load resistance R is
1V 1
nR R
(1) (2)
5 5n
2V 1
n2R R 1 3V
(3) (4)
5 5n2
2
3. In the given figure, the potential difference ‘V’ has 4V
been plotted against current ‘I’ for a metallic
conductor at two different temperatures 25°C and R=2 
100°C respectively. The temperature co-efficient of
resistivity of the wire is 7
(1) 2A (2) A
2
V T2=100°C 2 1
(3) A (4) A
7 4
T1=25°C
6. In the circuit shown, determine the magnitude of
30°
60° potential difference between A and D.
I
2 A C
2 1
(1) 16  10 / C 3 4 6
10 V
(2) 8  102 / C B 4V D
20 V
2
(3) 4  10 / C
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V
2
(4) 2  10 / C (3) 20 V (4) 90 V
(137)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Current Electricity
7. An electric bulb is designed to operate with a power 11. A galvanometer has a resistance of 30 ohm and a
of 500 W at 100 V line. It is connected in series current of 2 mA is needed to give a full scale
with a resistor of resistance R. This combination is deflection. What is the resistance needed to convert
connected to 200 V supply as shown. The value of this galvanometer into an ammeter of 3 A range ?
R so that the bulb delivers 500 W is (1) 70  (2) 0.02 
(3) 0.7  (4) 20 
R 12. The current rating of a fuse wire and its radius are
related as
(1) I  r2 (2) I  r3
200V 3
(3) I  r (4) I  r 2
(1) 20  (2) 10 
13. A wire has non-uniform cross-section as shown in
(3) 5  (4) 2.5  figure. A steady current flows through it. The drift
speed of electrons at points P and Q is Vp and VQ
8. If the current in a coil of resistance R decreases is:-
according to (i–t) graph shown in the figure, then
find the total heat produced in the coil, is VP VQ
0
(1) Vp = VQ (2) Vp < VQ
(3) Vp > VQ (4) Data insufficient
14. The length of the resistance wire is increased by
t
t0 30% by stretching it. What is the corresponding
change in resistance of wire?
i02 Rt 0 i02 Rt 0 (1) 30% (2) 55%
(1) (2)
5 4 (3) 44% (4) 69%
15. The magnitude and direction of the current in the
i02 Rt 0 i02 Rt 0 circuit shown will be
(3) (4) 10V 4V
3 2 a 1 c 2 b
9. For what value of the resistance x the total power
developed in the external resistors is maximum ?
6
6
r=1.5
12v 7
(1) A from a to b through c
1 3
x
4 7
(2) A from b to a through c
3
(1) 0.5  (2) 0.7 
(3) 1 A from a to b through c
(3) 0.8  (4) 1.5  (4) 1 A from b to a through c
10. Find the effective resistance between points A and 16. In the network shown, the potential difference
B. between A and B is
(R = r1 = r2= r3 = 1, E1 = 3 V, E2= 2 V, E3 = 1V)
1 1 1 1 1 E1
r1
1 1 1 1 1 1
R r2 E2
1 A B 1 1 A r3 B
1
E3
(1) 3 1 (2) 3 1
(1) 1 V (2) 2 V
(3) 2 3  1 (4) 3 3  1 (3) 3 V (4) 4 V
(138)
Current Electricity Medical Q-Bank-2020
17. The figure below shows current in a part of electric 21. In the meter bridge shown in figure, the length AB
circuit. The current i is:- for null deflection in galvanometer is
R1=15 R2=10
1A
2A
1.3A
2A G
i A B C
E
(1) 1.7A (2) 3.7A

(1) 40 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 1.3A (4) 1A (3) 80 cm (4) 60 cm
18. A prism is made of wire mesh with each side having 22. In the given circuit the heat developed across 6
equal resistance R. A battery of 6 V and zero resistor in 2s will be
internal resistance is connected across E and F as
shown in the figure. The current in the branch AD, 6
if R is equal to 5  is,
3
3 5
E
F
20V
6V
D 32 16
i A (1) J (2) J
3 3
B (3) 24J (4) 40J
C
23. If the radius of cross section of a conductor is
increased by 0.1% keeping the volume constant,
(1) 0.6 A (2) 0.4 A then percentage change in resistance of conductor
is
(3) 0.8 A (4) 2 A
(1) –0.2% (2) –0.1%
19. The resistance of the following carbon resistor will be (3) –0.3% (4) –0.4%
24. Four cells each of emf E and internal resistance r
Yellow Brown are connected in series to form a loop ABCD. Find
the potential difference across AB
Violet Gold A E B
r
(1) (27×10) ± 10% r E
(2) (24×10) ± 6% r
(3) (47×10) ± 5% E
E
(4) (22×15) ± 11% D r C
(1) 2E (2) E
20. In the given figure point B and C are earthed. Then
potential difference between point A and B is (3) Zero (4) 4E
25. The emf and internal resistance of single battery
10V which is the equivalent to the combination of three
batteries as shown in figure are
1
10V 2
B C 6V
A 4 10 5 D
1
4V 2
(1) 4V (2) –5V (1) 2V, 3 (2) 3V, 2
(3) 9V (4) 10V (3) 20V, 2 (4) 2V, 20
(139)
26. In the given circuit shown in figure the potential 31. 3n identical cells each of emf ‘E’ and internal
difference between battery 2 will be resistance ‘r’ are connected in series to form a
closed circuit. If out of 3n cells, n cells are wrongly
E1=10V E2=4V connected, then the terminal voltage across any
one cell which is connected wrongly is
r1=1 r2=1
4E 2E
(1) (2)
3 3
R=2
3E 3E
(1) 5.5 volt (2) 8.5 volt (3) (4)
2 4
(3) 3 volt (4) 3.5 volt
32. The figure shows part of certain circuit. The
27. The maximum power developed across a variable magnitude of potential difference between points C
resistance R in the circuit shown in figure is and B is
10V 3A 2A
1 C 1 2 4 B
12V 3V
5 6
R 4A
10V 1 (1) 8V (2) 10V
(1) 50 W (2) 75 W (3) 12.5V (4) 15V
(3) 25 W (4) 100 W 33. A heater rated for 1000 W at 100 V is used in the
circuit having a 100 V supply. If the heater
28. A current of 8 A flows in a metallic conductor of operates with a power of 62.5W, then the value of
cross-section 1 cm 2 and length 10 km. Free R is
electron density of copper is 5×1028/m3. The time
taken by the electron to travel from one end of the
conductor to the other is HEATER
10
(1) 108 sec (2) 109 sec R
(3) 107 sec (4) 105 sec

100V
29. A wire is stretched by 10% of its original length by
applying a force. The percentage change in the
(1) 2.5 (2) 20
resistance of wire is
(1) 21% (2) 10% (3) 10 (4) 5
(3) 11% (4) 1% 34. If R1 of the given circuit is dipped in 1000 ml of

water at 30°C, then the time after which the water
30. Two resistors are connected in series. At 0°C, the starts boiling is. (take 1 cal = 4.2J)
values of first and second resistor are respectively
R and 2R. The temperature coefficient of
resistances of first and second resistors are  and
2 respectively. The equivalent temperature R2=6
coefficient of the resistor for the combination is R1=4 
R3=3
5 4 12V
(1) (2)
4 3
(1) 1148.4 sec (2) 18375 sec
4 5
(3) (4) (3) 183.75 sec (4) 11.48 sec
5 3
(140)
35. For maximum power developed in the circuit, the 39. When a current ‘I’ flows through a wire, the drift
value of the internal resistance ‘r’ must be, if all the velocity of the electrons is ‘v’. When current 2I flows
cells are identical, each of emf E and the internal through another wire of the same material having
resistance ‘r’. double the length and double the area of cross
section and same temperature the drift velocity of
the electrons will be :
v v
(1) (2)
8 4
v
(3) (4) v
1 2
40. Ohm’s law is true for
R0
(1) Metallic conductors
(2) All conductors
3 3 (3) Electrolytes when current passes through
(1) r   (2) r  
7 7 them
(4) Diode when current flows
3 3 41. A current of 0.9A flows through 2W resistor and
(3) r   (4) r  
7 7 0.3A through 7W resistor when they are separately
conected across a cell. The internal resistance of
36. Eleven identical wire each of resistance R are the cell is
connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent
(1) 0.5W (2) 1.0W
resistance between the points A and B is
(3) 1.2W (4) 2.0W
A 42. What is the current through the 10V battery ?
4 6V
B
10V
7R 5R
(1) (2)
12 6
2 4V
7R 3R
(3) (4)
5 4 (1) 1A (2) 3A
37. A galvanometer can withstand safely a maximum (3) 4A (4) 2A

current of 5 mA. It is converted into voltmeter 43. In the following circuit, what is the resistance
reading upto 20 V by connecting in series an across AB.
external resistance of 3950 . The resistance of
galvanometer is r
(1) 48 (2) 44
r r r r
(3) 36 (4) 50
38. The current capacity of a fuse wire is 5 ampere. If r

A r B
the radius of cross-section of wire is made 4 times,
then the new current capacity of the wire will be
8r 7r
(1) (2)
7 8
(1) 10 A (2) 20 A
3r 2r
(3) 40 A (4) 80 A (3) (4)
2 3
(141)
44. Microscopic form of ohm’s law in usual notation is 49. In an electrostatic machine, a belt of width w, having
    a surface charge density , travels with velocity v. As
(1) J  E (2) J  E the belt passes a certain point, all the charge are
removed and is carried away as an electric current.

   E The magnitude of this current is
(3) J  RE (4) J 
R w
(1) wv (2)
45. In the situation shown, what is the value of resistance v
connected between A and D in addition to 12 
resistance, so that galvanometer shows no deflection? v
(3) wv 2 (4)
w
C
50 50. The potential difference between A and B in the
 
10 following circuit is
I I 4
G
A B
4 5
12 
 20 A B
D
4
(1) 12  (2) 6 
(3) 4  (4) 5  1.2 V
46. The equivalent resistance of the following infinite (1) 1.4 V (2) 0.4 V
network of resistances between A & B is (3) 2.2 V (4) 1.2 V
51. Two primary cells of EMF E 1 and E 2 (E 1 > E 2 )
A connected in series with identical orientation are
2 2 2 balanced in a potentiometer. The balancing point on
2 2 2 the potentiometer is obtained at 500 cm. When
to  polarity of 2nd cell is reversed, the balance point is
B obtained at 100 cm. The ratio of EMF of two cells
2 2 2 (E1/E2) is
(1) Less than 4  (1) 1 : 1 (2) 5 : 1

(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 5
(2) 4 
52. Two rods of electrical conductivities K1 and K2 are
(3) 12  connected as shown in the figure. Find the
equivalent electrical conductivity of the system
(4) More than 4  but less than 12 
K2
47. The current in a conductor varies with time as I = 3t2,
where I is in ampere and t in second. Electric charge R K
1
flowing through section between t = 0 and t = 3 second A B
2R
(1) 10 C (2) 34 C
K1  3K 2
(3) 27 C (4) 9 C (1) K1 + K2 (2)
4
48. Find the effective resistance across A and B in the
given circuit. K1  2K 2 4K 2  K1
(3) (4)
4 4
10  
53. The maximum current that can flow through a
 galvanometer is 5 mA. If the galvanometer has to
A 
20   be converted into an ammeter of range (0 – 10)A,
which of the following would be preferred?
(Resistance of galvanometer = 10)
20   (1) 0.005 in parallel with galvanometer
B
(2) 0.005 in series with galvanometer
(1) 5  (2) 10 
(3) 5000 in parallel with galvanometer
(3) 15  (4) 20  (4) 5000 in series with galvanometer
(142)
54. Two bulbs A and B are connected in series across 59. The mean free path of electrons in a metal is
a 250V supply. Identify the correct statement 4  108 m . The electric field which can give on an
220V, 100W 110V, 60W average 2eV energy to an electron in the metal will
be in (units of V/m).
A B (1) 5  1011 (2) 8  10

11
(3) 5  107 (4) 8  107

250V
60. Three equal resistors connected in series across a
(1) None of the bulb glows source of emf together dissipate 10 watt. If the
(2) Both the bulbs glow with same intensity same resistors are connected in parallel across the
same emf, the power dissipated will be
(3) The potential difference across both the bulbs
are equal (1) 10 watt (2) 30 watt
(4) The bulbs glows with different intensity (3) 10/3 watt (4) 90 watt
55. A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire
61. Charge on capacitor in steady state is
of cross-sectional area 4  106 m2 . If the density of
the charge carriers in the wire is 5  1026 / m3 , the C
R2
drift velocity of the electrons is
1 1 R1
(1) m/s (2) m/s
16 32
E r
1 1
(3) m/s (4) m/s
64 128
CER1 CEr
56. The emf of a cell is  and its internal resistance (1) (2)
is r. Its terminals are connected to resistance R. R1  r R1  r
The potential difference between the terminal is 1.6V
CER1 CEr
for R  4 and 1.8V for R  9 . Then (3) (4)
r R1
(1)   1V , r  1
62. Find the average drift speed of free electrons in a
(2)   2V , r  1 copper wire of area of cross-section 10 –7 m 2
carrying current of 1.5 A and having free electron
(3)   2V , r  2 density 8.5×1028 m–3.
(4)   2.5V , r  0.5  (1) 0.11 mm/s (2) 1.1 mm/s

57. A potentiometer is 100cm long and a constant (3) 11mm/sec (4) 0.13 mm/sec
potential difference is maintained across it. Two
cells are connected in series first to support one 63. A 30 V, 90W lamp is to be operated on a 120V
another and then in opposite direction. The balance D.C. For proper glow, a resistor of ‘____’ R ‘____’
points are obtained at 50cm and 10cm from  should be connected in series with the lamp,
positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio then ‘R’ is
of emf’s is
(1) 40 (2) 10
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 20 (4) 30
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 3 : 4
58. The n rows each containing m cells in series are 64. The potential difference between A and B in the
joined in parrallel. Maximum current is taken from following figure is
this combination across an external resistance of
6 9 5
3  . If the total number of cells used are 24 and A B
internal resistance of each cell is 0.5  then
2A 12V 4V
(1) m  8 , n  3 (2) m  6 , n  4 (1) 32V (2) 48V
(3) m  12 , n  2 (4) m  2 , n  12 (3) 24V (4) 14V

(143)
65. The current flowing is the 10 resistance as shown 69. Two bulbs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are connected as shown.
in the figure is When switch ‘S’ is closed then which among them
will fuse?
P1 (100V~40W)
10 A B
(5V,2) (2V,1)
(100V~50W)
P2
S
200V
(1) 0.27 A, P2 to P1 (2) 0.03 A, P1 to P2
(1) Bulb A
(3) 0.03 A P2 to P1 (4) 0.27A P1 to P2
(2) Bulb B
66. n identical cells are joined correctly in series with
(3) Both A and B will fuse
another two cells ‘A’ and ‘B’ with reverse polarities.
Emf of each cell is E and internal resistance is r. (4) Neighter of them will fuse
Potential difference across cell A is : (n > 4)
70. When a 40 Vm–1 electric field is produced inside
2E 1 a conductor then 2×10 4 A/m 2 current density is

(1) (2) 2E  1  established in it. Resistivity of the conductor is
n  n 
(1) 2×10–3 m (2) 4×10–3 m
4E  2  (3) 2×103 m (4) 4×103 m
(3) (4) 2E  1 
n  n  2 
71. Two electric bulbs rating P1 watt- ‘V’ volt and P2
67. A potentiometer wire of length 10 m and resistance watt-V volt are connected in parallel and V volt are
20  is conneted in series with 15V battery and an applied to it. The total power will be
external resistance 40. A secondary cell of emf E
P1P2
in the secondary circuit is balanced by 240 cm (1) P1P2 watt
long potentiometer wire, the emf E of the cell is P1  P2 watt (2)
(1) 2.4 V (2) 1.2 V P1  P2

(3) (P1+P2)watt (4)
(3) 2.0 V (4) 3.0 V P1P2 watt
68. Calculate the equivalent resistance between points 72. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25
A and B in the following circuit. divisions. A current of 4×10 –4 ampere gives a
deflection of one division. To convert this
galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25
A volts, it should be connected with a resistance of
(1) 2500 (2) 2450

1 (3) 2550 (4) 2400
B 73. The temperature coefficient of resistivity of a
2
2
material is 4×10 –4 /K. When the temperature of
2
2
material is increased by 50°C, its resistivity

2 increases by 2×10 –8m. The initial resistivity of
material (in ohm-meter) is
1 1
(1) 50×10–8 (2) 90×10–8
2
(3) 100×10–8 (4) 200×10–8
7 25 74. In a meter bridge with standard resistance of 5 in

(1)  (2)  the left gap, the ratio of balancing length of meter
5 6 bridge wire is 2 : 3. The unknown resistance is
5 6 (1) 1 (2) 15

(3)  (4) 
7 25 (3) 10 (4) 7.5
(144)
75. A wire is made by the combination of thin and thick 81. In the circuit shown, if a current of 5 A is passing
wire connected in series. The current density from A to B then
(1) In thick wire is more C
(2) In thin wire is more 20  5
(3) Is same in both 5A
(4) Depends upon the voltage of battery A B
76. The effective resistance between A and B is
5  D 20 
R/2 (1) No heating and no current between C and D
A (2) C and D are at the same potential
R
(3) Current of 3 A flows from D to C
R R (4) Both (2) and (3)
82. A heater coil connected across a given potential
B
R/2 difference has power P. Now, the coil is cut into two
equal halves of its length and joined in parallel.
Across the same potential difference, this
R
(1) (2) R combination has power
2
(1) P (2) 4P
3R (3) P/4 (4) 2P
(3) (4) 2R
4 83. On increasing temperature, resistivity of material
77. Colour code in a resistor is given by bands of (1) Always increases
colours orange, yellow, brown. The value of
resistance is (2) Always decreases
(1) 34 × 10  ± 10% (2) 34 × 10  ± 20% (3) May increase or decrease
(3) 24 × 102  ± 10% (4) 24 × 104  ± 10% (4) Remains constant
78. The reading of the ideal ammeter shown in the 84. A galvanometer with a scale divided into 100 equal
network at steady state is divisions has a current sensitivity of 10 divisions per
5 10  mA and voltage sensitivity of 2 divisions per mV.
W hat adaptations are required to read
A 1 division per volt?
4 F 5 30 V (1) A resistance of 9995 in series
(2) A resistance of 10000 in series
(1) 6 A (2) 4 A
(3) 2 A (4) 1 A
85. A wire AB of length 100 cm and resistance 4 is
79. A current i = t flows in a resistance R for time t connected in series to a battery of EMF
seconds. The amount of heat developed during this 5 V and internal resistance 1. Potential gradient
interval will be ( is a constant) along the wire is
(1) 2Rt (2) 2Rt3 (1) 0.4 V/cm (2) 4 V/cm
(3) 0.04 V/cm (4) 0.05 V/cm
2 Rt 3
(3) 2Rt2 (4) 86. If each of the resistances in the network shown in
3
figure is R, what is the resistance between
80. The current drawn by the battery in the situation terminals A and B?
shown in figure is
2 2 2 Q
2 2
P
10 V
(1) 2.5 A (2) 5 A (1) R (2) 2R

(3) 7.5 A (4) 1 A
(3) 3R (4) 4R
(145)
87. n identical bulbs, each designed to draw P power 93. A current is flowing through a cylindrical conductor
from a certain voltage supply are joined in series of radius R such that current density at any cross
and combination is connected across that supply.
r
The power consumed by one bulb will be section is given by J  J0 , where r is the radial
R
(1) nP (2) P distance from the axis of the cylinder. Calculate the
total current through the cross-section.
P P
(3) (4)
n n2 J R2 J0 R 2
(1) 0 (2)
88. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of 2 3
non uniform cross-section. The quantity/quantities
that remain constant along the length of conductor 2 J0 R 2
(3) J0 R2 (4)
is/are 3 6
(1) current, electric field and drift speed 94. Calculate the potential difference across AB as
(2) drift speed only shown in the figure
(3) current and drift speed
30
(4) current only
15
89. In the circuit shown, each resistance is 2 The 30
potential V1 as indicated in the circuit is equal to
A B
30
(3V,5)
5V (1) 2V (2) 3V
12V
V1 (3) 1V (4) 1.5V
(1) 11V (2) –11V 95. If the potential difference across a circuit is
(3) 9V (4) –9V V= 10  0.1 volt and resistance is measured as
90. The resistance of an iron bar when temperature is R=  2  0.04   . Calculate the value of current
raised from 0°C to 100°C is (Initial resistance
flowing in the circuit
= 1.43  & temperature co-efficient of resistivity =
0.00501/°C) (1)  5  0.15  amp (2) (5 ± 0.1)amp
(1) 5.32 (2) 2.16
(3) (5 ± 0.3)amp (4) (5 ± 0.2)amp
(3) 8.2 (4) 15.2
96. The masses of three wires of copper are in ratio of
91. In the circuit shown in figure, the heat produced in 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are is the ratio
the 5 resistor due to the current flowing through 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical resistances is:
it is 10 cal/s. (1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 15 : 3 : 1
4 6
(3) 1 : 15 : 125 (4) 125 : 15 : 1
97. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity [] of
a semi-conductor is given by
5
The heat generated in 4 resistor is


(1) 1cal/s (2) 2cal/s
(3) 3cal/s (4) 4cal/s (1) (2)
92. Two cells of emf E each and internal resistances r1 T T
and r2 (r1 > r2) are connected in series across a
load resistance ‘R’. If potential difference across the
 
first cell (internal resistance = r1) is zero, then the
relation between R, r1, and r2 is
(1) R = r1 + r2 (2) R = r1r2 (3) (4)
(3) R  r12  r22 (4) R   r1  r2  T T
(146)
98. The figure shows 3n cells connected in series to 101. Number of (60W–230V) lamps that may be safely
form a circuit r is the internal resistance of each run on a 230 volt circuit fitted with a 5 amp fuse
cell and e is the emf of each cell. If polarity of n
cells are reversed find the terminal voltage across (1) 2 (2) 19
A.
(3) 20 (4) 4
2n cells n-cells 102. Keeping the mass of the conductor constant, its
A radius of cross section is increased by 0.5%.
Calculate the percentage change in the resistance
(1) lncreases by 4% (2) lncreases by 2%
(3) decreases by 2% (4) decreases by 1%

e
(1) (2) Zero 103. If a battery of fixed emf e and internal resistance r
3 is connected to a variable external resistance R,
then the condition for which the power delivered by
3e 2e the battery to the load will be maximum, is
(3) (4)
2 5
R
99. Thirteen resistances each of resistance R ohm are (1) r  (2) r = R
2
connected is the circuit as shown in the adjoining
figure. The effective resistance between ‘A’ and ‘B’
is R
(3) r = 4R (4) r 
3
104. The arrangement that is correct regarding the

voltmeter and Ammeter connection in a circuit
A B
V
(1)
A
4R
(1) 2R (2) 
3
2R A
(3)  (4) R
3
(2)
V
100. Two batteries along with their internal resistance are
connected as shown. Find the reading of the
voltmeter.
V
V
(18V,2) (3)
A
(12V,1) A V
(1) 30 V (2) 18 V (4)
(3) 15 V (4) 14 V

(147)
Chapter 18
Moving Charges and Magnetism
1. The magnetic field at point P is 4. A square loop made of 4 identical conducting rods
a a each of mass m and length l carry current i.
P The loop is placed in a vertical position on a
frictionless horizontal plane. A uniform horizontal
a magnetic field B0 is in the plane of the loop, then
find the torque due to magnetic field on the loop at
this instant.
a
B0
0 i 0i
(1) (2) 
4 2a 4 2a
x x
 0i 0 i
(3) (4)  (1) Zero (2) il2B0
8 2a 8 2a
2. A current carrying wire carries a current of 2A along il2B0
(3) (4) 2il2B0
the z-axis which is out of the page while, another 2
wire carrying current of 4A in the same direction lies 5. A loop carrying current i lies in x–y plane as shown
parallel to the first as shown in the figure. in the figure. The loop is made of 4 semicircular
Then around which loop linking both wires portions. The magnetic moment of the current loop
  is y
 B.d l will be zero? a
4A
2A 4A
(1) (2) 2A
x
a
2A
4A
(3) (4) None of these  
(1) a2ik (2)  2  1 a2ik
3. Positive like charge of linear charge density 1 is
passed on the outer circumference of an annular   2    2 
disc, having outer radius 2R. Negative like charge of (3)  1  ia k (4)   1  ia k
 2   2 
linear charge density  2 is passed on the inner
circumference of the disc, having inner radius R. The 6. A homogeneous non conducting disc of radius R
disc is rotating with constant angular velocity  carries uniform surface charge density .
about an axis passing through the centre of mass The disc is rotating about an axis through its centre
and perpendicular to its plane. If the net magnetic of mass and perpendicular to the plane with
field at the centre of the disc is 0, then the ratio constant angular velocity . The magnetic dipole
1 moment is
 2 is 
+ +
 + + + +
+ + + + + + + + +
+ +
+
+
+ – – – – ––
––– –
– – – – ––
R 4  R 4 
(1) (2)
4 2
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:1 R 2  R 2 

(3) (4)
(3) 4:1 (4) 1:1 2 4
(148)
Moving Charges and Magnetism Medical Q-Bank-2020
7. Keeping all the parameters constant, the number of

turns in the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is 11. Rank the magnitude of value of  B.dl for the
doubled for the sake of increment in its sensitivity. closed paths shown in figure from the smallest to
Choose the correct alternative. largest
(1) Current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity both
are doubled
(2) Voltage sensitivity is doubled but current b d
sensitivity remains unchanged c 2A
(3) Current sensitivity is doubled but voltage x

2A
sensitivity remains unchanged 3A
a
(4) Current sensitivity is doubled but voltage
sensitivity is halved
8. Two charged particles having the same mass m
and charges q and –q separated by a distance d (1) abcd (2) acdb
enter a uniform magnetic field B directed
perpendicular to the paper inward with speeds v1 (3) adcb (4) acbd
and v2 as shown. The particles will not collide if
(neglect electrostatic force between charges) 12. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a
circular orbit of radius ‘r’ with angular speed . Its
× × × ×
– v1 Gyromagnetic ratio depends upon:-
d × × × × (1)  and q (2) , q and m
× × × ×
+ v2 (3) q and m (4)  and m
2m 13. A proton moving with velocity v is acted upon by

2m  
(1) d   v1  v 2  (2) d   v1  v 2 
Bq qB electric field E and magnetic field B . The proton
will move undeflected with constant speed if
2m 2m
(3) d   v1  v 2  (4) d   v1  v 2  (1) E is perpendicular to B
Bq Bq
9. A charged particle moves in a gravity-free space (2) E is parallel to v and perpendicular to B
 
without change in velocity. If E and B representss (3) E, B and v are mutually perpendicular and
the electric and magnetic field respectively, this
region may have E
v
  B
(1) E = 0; B  0
  (4) E and B both parallel to v
(2) E  0; B  0
14. A circular loop of area 0.01m2 carrying a current of
 
(3) E and B are inclined at 45° with each other 10A is held with its plane perpendicular to a
magnetic field of intensity 0.1T. The torque acting
(4) Both (1) and (2)
on the loop is
10. A wire of length L0 and mass m is suspended by
a pair of springs in a magnetic field of induction B0. (1) Zero (2) 0.01 Nm
The magnitude and direction of the current required
to remove the tension in the supporting springs is (3) 0.001 Nm (4) 0.8 Nm
15. A ring of radius R with charge q uniformly

B0 × distributed over it is rotated with angular speed ‘’
around its axis. Find magnetic field at the centre of
P Q the ring:-
L0
2mg mg  o q  o q
(1) from P to Q (2) from P to Q (1) (2)
L 0B 0 L 0B 0 2r 2r
2mg mg  o q  o q
(3) from Q to P (4) from Q to P (3) (4)
L 0B 0 L 0B 0 4r 4r
(149)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Moving Charges and Magnetism
16. Figure shows a straight wire of length  carrying a 21. If a uniformly charged non-conducting spherical
current i. The magnitude of magnetic field produced body is rotating with angular velocity  the charge
by the current at point P is and mass of body are q and m respectively, then
the magnetic moment is

P 1 2 2 2
(1) qr  (2) qr 
5 5
1 2 2 2
(3) qr  (4) qr 
3 3
20i  0i
(1) (2) 22. A circular loop of radius R is kept in a uniform
l 4 l magnetic field pointing perpendicular to plane of
0i figure when the current  flows in loop the tension
20i
(3) (4) produced in the loop is
8 l 2 2l
× × × × ×
 q × × × × ×
17. A charged particle of specific charge     is
 m × × × R× ×
released from origin at t=0 with velocity
× × × × ×
  
  × × × × ×
v  v 0  i  j  in uniform magnetic field B  B0 i .
 
BIR
 (1) BIR (2)
Coordinates of particle at time t  are 2
B0 
(3) 2BIR (4) Zero
 v0 23. Figure shows, in cross section, several conductors

2v 0  v 0   v 0 
(1)  2B  , B , B   (2)  ,0,0  that carry currents through the plane of figure. The
 0 0 0   2B0   currents have magnitude I1 = 4.0A, I2 = 2.0A and
I3 = 2.0A in direction shown in figure. Find the
 2v 0 v 0    v0  2v 0   
(3)  0, ,  (4)  ,0,  value of line integral  B  d l along the given loop
 B 0  2B0    B0  B0  
18. A solenoid 50cm long has 4 layers of winding of

350 turns each. If the current is 6A then magnetic
× I1
field at the centre of solenoid is I3
(1) 5.3×10–3 T (2) 2.1×10–2 T I2
(3) 3.1×10–4 T (4) 4.1×10–2 T
(1) –5×10–6Tm (2) 2.5×10–6Tm
19. If the electric field and if magnetic field are mutually (3) 0 (4) 5×10–6Tm
perpendicular to each other, then a charged particle
24. A current i flows through a closed loop as shown
would move undeflected if
in the figure. If the part abc is a circular arc of
E B radius R and the part ac is a straight wire, then the
(1) |v| = (2) |v| = magnetic field at the centre O is
B E
(3) |v|=BE (4) |v|=B2E
b
(Here charge particle is moving perpendicular to
both E and B)
20. If the uniform magnetic field exist in a region O
towards north direction then the direction of force R
acting on positively charged particle projected along 2
east direction is a c
(1) Vertically upward  0i  0i
(1)
2R
 tan    (2)
R
     tan 
(2) Vertically downward
(3) Towards south  0i  0i
(4) Towards west
(3)
2R
     tan  (4)
2R
     tan 
(150)
25. Consider six wires coming into or out of the page, 28. The magnitude of magnetic moment of a
all with the same current. Rank the line intergral of rectangular loop ABCD (Fig 1) carrying a current i
the magnetic field (from most positive to most is M. EF is the perpendicular bisector of side AB
negative) taken counter clockwise around each loop and DC. If the loop is folded about EF (Fig 2) to
shown in the figure convert it into two mutually perpendicular planes
AFED and ECBF, then the magnitude of new
× magnetic moment will be
×
× A
A B
loop A
F B
loop B loop D  F
loop C
D
E
D C
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > A > C = D (Fig 1) C
E
(3) B > C = D > A (4) C > B = D > A
(Fig 2)
26. Two coaxial circular loops 1 and 2, which form (1) M

same semi vertical angle  at point O. Same
charges are uniformly distributed along the
M
circumference of both the loops. The loops are (2)
rotating with same angular velocity in same direction 2
about their axis through centre of mass and
perpendicular to their plane. If B 1 and B 2 are M
magnetic field due to the loops 1 and 2 respectively, (3)
then 2
+
  +
+ (4) 2M
+ + +
2 + + +
+ + 29. A homogeneous non conducting rod RS rotates
O + +1 +
+ + 2 about an axis passing through O and perpendicular
x to its length. The length of OR and OS are
++
2x respectively a and b. Charges Q and –2Q are
uniformly distributed on OR and OS respectively. If
B1 B1 1 the magnetic moment is zero, then the relation
(1) 2 (2) 
B2 B2 2 between a and b is
B1 B1
(3) 8 (4) 4 S ––––––– + ++++++++ R
B2 B2 O 
b a
27. A rectangular loop PQRS made from a uniform wire
has length a and breadth b and mass m. It is free
to rotate about the arm PQ, which is hinged about (1) a  2 b
the horizontal axis (y–axis). A uniform magnetic field

B0 i exists in the region. If the loop remains in (2) b  2 a
horizontal position in equilibrium, then the
(3) a = b
magnitude of current in loop is (PQ = SR = b, SP
= QR = a) (4) a = 2b
z
30. A moving coil galvanometer shows deflection of 100
divisions when 20mA current is passed through it.
gravity
If the resistance of the galvanometer coil is 50,
P Q y find the voltage sensitivity of galvanometer
(1) 0.1 division/mV

x S R
mg mg (2) 5 division/mV
(1) (2)
3B0 a 6B0 a
(3) 3 division/mV
mg mg
(3) (4) (4) 10 division/mV
2B0b 6B0 b
(151)
31. A charged particle of charge q and mass m moving 34. Following graphs show the variation of magnetic
along positive x-direction with a velocity v enters a field due to a infinitely long solid straight current
region where there is a uniform magnetic field carrying wire of radius of cross section R, with
distance ‘r’ from the central axis. Which of these is
  correct ? Assume that current density is uniform.
B0   k  , from x=0 to x=d. The particle gets
  R
deflected through an angle  from its initial path.
The specific charge of the particle is B B
(1) (2)
× × r=R r r=R r
B B
× ×
v  mv  (3) (4)
x=0 x=d   
 qB 
r=R r r=R r
35. A triangular current carrying wire loop with current
i is placed in a uniform and transverse magnetic
v cos  v sin  field as shown in the figure
(1) (2)
Bd Bd
C
u tan  u × ×
(3) (4) × 120°
Bd Bd
32. If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region


containing non-zero electric and magnetic field, then × × 30° ×B
30°
A D
 
(1) E must be perpendicular to B and velocity If the magnetic force on the sides AC, CD and DA
  
respectively have a magnitude of F1, F2 and F3
( v ) must be along E B then –
F3
  
(1) F1 =
(2) E must be perpendicular to B and v and 3
   
must be along v × B (2) F1 and F2 have an angle of 120° between them
     (3) F2 = 3 F3
(3) E is parallel to B and v must be along B E
(4) All of these

     36. A region contains uniform electric field E in the
(4) E is parallel to B and v is along E B
positive y-direction. A charge ‘q’ projected along the
33. A square current carrying loop PQRS is placed in x-axis with velocity
 ‘v’ moves undeflected. Then
a uniform magnetic field which is directed along PS. magnetic field B may be -
y

If the magnetic force on QP is F , then the force
on RS is E
Q R x
P S
z
E E ˆ
  (1) ĵ (2) (  j)
(1)  2 F (2) F v v
E ˆ E
  (3) ( k) (4) k̂
(3) 2F (4) F v v
(152)
37. A coil of single turn is wrapped around a sphere of 40. In figure there are two concentric coils in perpendicular
radius ‘r’ and mass ‘m’. The plane of the coil is planes carrying equal currents. Magnetic field at
parallel to the inclined plane and lies in the centre is B. If current in one coil becomes zero, then
equatorial plane of the sphere. If the sphere is in magnitude of new magnetic field will be
rotational equilibrium, the value of strength of
uniform magnetic field in vertically downward
direction is : (current in the coil is I as shown in
figure)
B B
B (1) (2)
2 3
 B
(3) (4) B 2
2
41. If a beam of charged particles moving with speed 3 ×
mg 106 m/s enters normally into a region of uniform
(1)
Ir magnetic field 90 mT and specific charge of each
particle is 108 C/kg, then the radius of the circular
path described by it will be
mgsin 
(2) (1) 0.33 m (2) 0.57 m
Ir
(3) 0.82 m (4) 1.25 m
mg 42. Figure shows a uniform magnetic field B normally
(2)
Ir sin  into the paper. If the charge +q is incident on the
boundary MN at an angle 60º as shown, then the
(3) None of these deviation produced to the path of the charge, on
38. A uniformly charged ring of thickness ‘t’ and emergence is (Region of magnetic field is finite upto
surface charge density ‘’ is rotated about its axis the left boundary MN only)
with angular velocity ‘’. The magnetic field at the
centre is M
x x x x x x
 x x x x x x
x x x x x x
t  x x x x x x
+ + + + + + + + + +++ +q 60ºx x x x x x
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
(1) 0 t N
0 t (1) 60º (2) 240º

(2)
2 (3) 180º (4) 300º

(3) 20 t (4) None of these 43. When a charged particle is fired with a velocity v in

a region containing both electric field E and
39. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current 
carrying circular wire of radius R and at a distance R magnetic field B , it is not deflected from its
from centre on its axis is straight line trajectory. Then
     
(1) v  E  B (2) E  v  B
(1) 2 2 (2) 2
     
(3) 2 (4) 4 (3) B  v  E (4) v  B  E
(153)
44. The graph that depicts the variation of magnetic field 49. In a toroid, the number of turns per unit length is
due to a circular loop of current placed with its
1
centre at origin in x-y plane 1000 and current through it is ampere. The
4
Bz Bz magnetic field produced inside (in Wb/m2) is
(1) 10–2 (2) 10–3
(3) 10–4 (4) 10–7
(1) (2)
50. A rod has a total charge Q uniformly distributed
–z +z –z O +z along its length L. If the rod rotates with angular
velocity  about its end, compute its magnetic
moment
Bz Bz
QL2 QL2
(1) (2)
6 3
(3) (4)
–z O +z –z O +z QL2 QL2
(3) (4)
4 2
45. A semicircular wire of radius r, carrying current I, is
51. The scale of a galvanometer is divided into 150
placed in a magnetic field of magnitude B. The
equal divisions. The galvanometer has the current
force acting on it
sensitivity of 10 divisions per mA and voltage
(1) Can never be zero sensitivity of 2 division per mV. Find the resistance
of the galvanometer.
(2) Can have maximum magnitude 2BIr
(1) 5 (2) 50
(3) Can have the maximum magnitude BIr
(3) 5000 (4) 500
(4) Can have the maximum magnitude BIr
46. A rectangular loop of sides 20 cm and 10 cm 
carries a current of 5.0A. A uniform magnetic field 52. Calculate the value of Magnetic field  B  due to a
of magnitude 2T exists parallel to the longer side of
 
the loop. The torque acting on the loop is current carrying conductor at a location shown in
the figure.
(1) 0.2 Nm (2) 0.3 Nm
(3) 2 Nm (4) 3 Nm
47. A non conducting ring of radius r and mass m has i
a total charge q distributed uniformly on it. The ring
is rotated about its axis with angular speed . Find
the magnetic field at the centre
0q
(1)
4 r 60°
45°
20 q a P
(2)
r
0 q  i  3
(3)

0 1 
2 r (1) B  4a  2  
 2 
0 q
(4)
r 
0  i  3 1 
(2) B  2a  2  
48. If two straight current carrying wires are kept  2 
perpendicular to each other almost touching, then
the wires

0  i  3 1 
(1) Attract each other (3) B  4a  2  
 2 
(2) Repel each other
(3) Remain stationary 
0  i  3 1 
(4) B  2a  2  
(4) Become parallel to each other  2 
(154)
53. The value of Magnetic field at the end of a very long 57. Magnetic field in a region is given by
solenoid carrying a current i will be (n is the 
number of turns per unit length) B  B0 î  2B0 ˆj . Find torque on the loop shown in
figure.
0ni
(1) 0ni (2)
2
0ni
(3) (4) Zero
4
54. A long cylindrical conductor of radius R carries a
current i as shown in figure. The current density ĵ
is a function of distance from the axis (r) according
to j = br where b is a constant. Find an
expression of the magnetic field B at a distance
r2 > R measured from the axis
[Each wire segment is of length L]
i
r2 R (1) iL2B0Kˆ (2) iL2B0Kˆ
(3) 2iL2B0Kˆ (4) 2iL2B0Kˆ

0br2 2 0bR3
(1) (2) 58. An alpha particle and a proton are projected
3 3 r2 normally into uniform magnetic field with same
kinetic energy. Radii of their path is
0bR2
(3) (4) 0br22 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
3
55. A beam of protons with a velocity of 4×10 5 m/s (3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 2 : 1
enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3T. The velocity
59. A flexible wire loop carrying a current I is placed in
makes an angle of 60° with the magnetic field. The 
pitch of the helical path taken by the proton beam a uniform magnetic field B at an instant as shown
is in figure
(1) 44 cm (2) 4.4 cm
(3) 88 cm (4) 8.8 cm
I
56. A negatively charged particle (mass  m, charge
 q) is thrown with speed v along x-axis in a
region of uniform magnetic field B directed along
positive z-axis. If thickness of the region is B
 mv 
d   , find angular deviation in path of the
 qB 
particle as it comes out of the magnetic field.
Which of the following is correct at equilibrium?

(1) Shape of loop remains unchanged and its plane

becomes parallel to B
(2) Shape of loop remains unchanged and its plane
v 
becomes normal to B
d
(3) Shape of the loop becomes circular and its plane
 dqB  
 dqB 
(1)   sin   (2)   sin  
becomes parallel to magnetic field B
 mv   2mv 
(4) Shape of the loop becomes circular and its plane
 dqB 
  dqB  
(3)   sin   (4)   tan   becomes normal to magnetic field B
 mv 2   mv 
(155)
60. The magnetic field at the point O in the given 63. A proton moving with constant velocity passes
figure is through a region without any change in its velocity.
If E and B denote electric and magnetic field
respectively, this region must not have
B
(1) E = 0, B = 0 (2) E  0, B  0
(3) E = 0, B  0 (4) E  0, B = 0
I
64. An electric current of I ampere is flowing in a long
A conductor as shown in figure. The magnetic field at
the centre of coil is
60°
30°
a O
I
r I
0 I
(1) ( 3  1) I
8a
0 I I
(2) ( 3  1)
8a
0 I
(3) ( 3  1)
4a  0I  1   0I  1
(1) 1 (2) 1 
2r  2  2r  
(4) Zero
61. A very long thin strip of metal of width ‘b’ carries a
current ‘I’ along its length as shown. Find the 0I
magnitude of magnetic field in the plane of the strip (3) (4) Zero
2r
at a distance ‘a’ from the edge, nearest to the
point. 65. A square of side 10 m is placed in a magnetic field
of 0.2T. The maximum torque on it when a current
of 10–3A is passed through it, is
I
(1) 2 × 10–2 Nm (2) 2 Nm
b a (3) 2 × 102 Nm (4) Zero
P
66. A hollow conducting pipe of radius 15 cm, is
carrying current of 2 A. Magnetic field due to this
hollow conductor is zero at a distance x from the
axis of conductor. Then x may be
 0 2I  b  (1) 10 cm (2) 16 cm
(1) B  . ln 1 
4 b  a 
(3) 20 cm (4) 15.6 cm
 0 2I  a  67. Magnetic field induction at the centre of the regular
(2) B  . ln 1 
4 b  b  hexagon coil in the given figure is (every arm has
resistance equal to R)
 0 2I  b 
(3) B  . ln 1 
4 a  a 
r
 0 2I  a  I
(4) B  . ln 1  I
4 a  b 
62. A particle of mass m and charge q having kinetic
energy K enters a stationary magnetic field. After
3s its kinetic energy is 0 I 0 I
(1) 6 3 (2) 3 3
(1) 9 K (2) K 4 r 4 r
K 0 I
(3) 3 K (4) (3) Zero (4)
3 4r
(156)
  72. In a moving coil galvanometer, identify the incorrect

68. Ampere circuital law is given by  B.dl  0Iinside option
for a closed loop. Now choose the correct (1) We obtain a non-linear scale since i  tan 
alternative
(2) Increasing the number of turns increases the
(1) Magnetic field is due to all the current element voltage sensitivity proportionally
inside as well as outside the loop
(3) The magnetic torque on the coil is proportional
(2) Magnetic field is only due to the current to cot where  is the deflection in the coil
element outside the loop
(4) All of these
(3) Magnetic field is only due to the current
element inside the loop 73. The magnetic field in a toroid of 600 turns, current
of 0.76A and central line radius = 0.50m is
(4) Magnetic field is only due to the current
element passing through the loop (1) 13.5 × 10–7T (2) 7.8 × 10–2T
69. A particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’ moves in a (3) 1.8 × 10–4T (4) 25 × 10–2T
circular orbit of radius ‘r’ with angular speed ‘’. The 74. An infinitely long wire carrying current I is along y
ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic moment to axis such that its one end is at point A (0, b) while
that of its angular momentum depends on the wire extends upto +. The magnitude of
(1)  and q (2) , q and m magnetic field strength at point (a, 0) is
(3) q and m (4)  and m
70. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form I
of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and b A(0,b)
respectively. When a current I passes through the x
coil, the magnetic field at the centre is (a,0)
0NI 20NI 0I  b  0I  b 

(1) (2) (1)  1  2  (2)  1  2 
b d 4a  a  b2  4a  a  b2 
0NI b 0IN b
(3) ln (4) ln
2 b  a a 2 b  a a 0I  b 
(3)  2  (4) None of these
4a  a  b2 
71. For a positively charged particle moving in a x – y
plane, initially along the x-axis, there is a sudden
change in its path due to the presence of electric q
75. If a charged particle of specific charge   is
and/or magnetic fields beyond P. The curved path m
shown is in the x - y plane and is found to be non entering in a uniform magnetic field of strength B
circular. which is extended upto a distance 4d as shown in
figure at a speed v = (2  d)(B), then which of the
y following is correct?
4d
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
P q = × × × × ×
x m × × × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
Which one of the following combination is (1) angle subtended by path of the charged particle
possible? at the centre of circular path is 6 till it exits out
  of the field.
ˆ B  ckˆ
(1) E  ai, (2) the charge will move on a circular path and will
come out from magnetic field at a distance 4d
  from the point of insertion
(2) E  aiˆ  B  ckˆ  a î
(3) the time for which particle will be in the
  2
(3) E  0, B  cjˆ  bkˆ magnetic field is
B
  (4) the charged particle will subtend an angle of
(4) E  a î B  ckˆ  bjˆ 90° at the centre of circular path till it exits out
of the field
(157)
76. A proton of energy I MeV describes a circular path 81. Calculate the force per unit length acting on
in plane at right angle to a uniform magnetic field conductor ‘2’ carrying a current i2 due to conductor
of 6.28×10–4T. The mass of the proton is 1.7 × 10– 1 carrying a current i 1 in the same direction
27kg. The cyclotron frequency of the proton is very [Magnitude only]. ‘r’ is the separation between the
nearly equal to two
(1) 107Hz (2) 105Hz  0i1i2 0i1i2

(1) (2)
(3) 106Hz (4) 104Hz 4 r 2r
77. Find the ratio of magnetic dipole moment to angular  0i1i2 0i, i2
momentum of an electron in a hydrogen like atom (3) (4)
2r 8r
in ground state
82. A particle of charge q, mass m moving with velocity
e e  
v 0 î  ˆj enters a region of uniform magnetic field
(1) (2)
m 2m
Bo î , from the origin. The displacement of the
e 2e 2m
(3) (4)
3m m particle after time
qB0
78. A straight wire of infinite length carries a current i.
The magnitude of magnetic field at perpendicular mv 0 ˆ
(1)   i  2kˆ 
distance ‘a’ from the wire is– qB  
0 I 0 I mv 0 ˆ
(1)
2a
(2)
4a (2) 2 i
qB
0i mv 0 ˆ 2mv 0
(3) (4) zero (3)   i  2kˆ  (4) ĵ
a qB   qB
79. A current enters a uniform conducting loop of radius 83. The dimensional formula of gyromagnetic ratio is
r at x and leaves at y. Calculate the magnetic field (1) [ATM] (2) [M–1A –1T]
at O due to the portion XAY of the loop (3) [MA–1T] (4) [M–1 AT]
84. A current carrying circular loop of Radius R is
A
placed in a uniform magnetic field B0 tesla in x-y
plane as shown in figure. The loop carries a current
O r i = 1A in the direction shown. The torque acting on
 the loop is
î Y
X
B y
B
0i  2    i 45°
(1) Zero (2) x
2
8 r
0i  2    0i
(3) 2 (4) 
4 r 2r
R 2B0 ˆ ˆ
80. Inside a homogeneous straight wire of circular (1)
2
ij 
cross-section, there is a cylindrical cavity whose
axis is parallel to the conductor axis and displaced
relative to it by a distance L. A direct current of R2B ˆ ˆ
density J flows in the wire. Calculate the magnetic
(2)
2
ij  
field inside the cavity
R 2B0 ˆ ˆ
 
(1) 0  J  L  (2)
0  
J L 
(3)
2
ij  
  2  
0   R2B0 ˆ ˆ
(3) Zero (4)
4  J L  (4)
4
ij  
 
(158)
Chapter 19
Magnetism and Matter
1. A bar magnet of magnetic dipole moment 10 Am2
is in stable equilibrium. The work done to rotate the
Xm
magnet through 60° in a magnetic field of 0.2T is
(2)
T
1
(1) J (2) 2J
2
(3) 1J (4) 4J Xm
2. Time period of a thin bar magnet in uniform (3)

magnetic field is T1. Now the magnet is cut into two T
identical halves so that its length becomes half and
time period of each small magnet in the same
magnetic field is T2. The ratio of T1 and T2 is Xm
(1) 2 (2) 2 (4)

T
(3) 2 2 (4) 4:1
7. A short bar magnet has point A and B along its
3. If 1 and 2 are the apparent angles of dip observed
axis at a distance of 24 cm and 48 cm from centre
in two vertical planes at right angles to each other
on the opposite sides. Ratio of magnitude of
and the true angle of dip is  at that place, then
magnetic fields at these points will be
(1) tan2= tan21 + tan22
(1) 2 (2) 8
(2) tan2= cot21 + cot22
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) cot2 = cot21 + cot22
8. A magnet when suspended at an angle of 30° to
(4) cos2 = cos21 + cos22 magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle
4. Isoclinic lines are 45° with horizontal. The dip angle measured in
magnetic meridian will be
(1) Line joining places of equal angle of dip
(2) Line joining places of zero angle of dip 1
(1) tan1
3
(3) Line joining places of equal angle of declination
(4) Line joining places of zero angle of declination (2) tan–1 3
5. Magnetic field inside substance is B and that in free
space is B0, then for B < B0, the substance is 3
(3) tan1
(1) a paramagnetic 2
(2) a diamagnetic
 2 
(3) a ferromagnetic (4) tan–1  
3
(4) (1) and (2) both are possible
9. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 10 3 Am–1 . It is
6. Magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance desired to demagnetise it by inserting inside a
is plotted against absolute temperature(T). The solenoid 12 cm long and having 60 turns. The
correct graph is current that should be sent through solenoid is
Xm (1) 2A
(2) 4A
(1)
T (3) 6A
(4) 8A
(159)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Magnetism and Matter
10. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (Xm) for a 16. At the magnetic pole of earth, the value of angle of
diamagnetic material with temperature is best dip is
represented by which of the following curve with (1) 0° (2) 30°
respect to temperature variations
(3) 45° (4) 90°
17. A paramagnetic sample shows intensity of
Xm Xm magnetisation of 0.8 A/m, when placed in an
external magnetic field of strength 0.8T at a
temperature 5K. When the same sample is placed
(1) (2) in an external magnetic field of 0.4T at a
T T temperature of 20K, the magnetisation is ;
(1) 0.8 Am–1 (2) 0.8 Am–2
(3) 0.4 Am–1 (4) 0.1 Am–1
Xm Xm 18. A magnet of length L and of pole strength m is cut
into half breadth wise and half lengthwise and thus,
four identical pieces are obtained. Magnetic
(3) (4) moment of each piece will become
T T
mL mL
(1) (2)
8 4
11. A thin magnetic needle oscillate in the horizontal
mL
plane with a time period of 2.0 sec. If the needle is (3) (4) mL
broken in 4 equal parts perpendicular to its length 2
then time-period of each part will be 19. Magnitude Magnetic moment of two magnets are
equal (M) and are placed at an angle of 60° as
(1) 0.5 sec (2) 1.05 sec shown in figure. Then resultant magnetic moment of
combination will be
(3) 1.5 sec (4) 2.0 sec
(1) 2M
12. The magnetic moment produced in a substance of
1g is 6 × 10–7 Am2. If its density is 5g/cm3, then N
the intensity of magnetisation in A/m will be (2) 3M
N
(1) 8.3 × 106 (2) 3.0 60°
M
(3)
(3) 1.2 × 10–7 (4) 3 × 10–6 2
S
13. A short magnetic dipole of magnetic moment 1.44 (4) ( 3  1) M
Am 2 is placed horizontally with its north pole
pointing towards north. The distance of the neutral 20. In tan A position of a deflection magnetometer, a short
point from the dipole, if the horizontal component of magnet placed at 10 cm from the centre produces a
earth’s magnetic field is 18 T, is deflection of 30°. If another short magnet of dipole
moment sixteen times the previous magnet is kept
(1) 20 cm (2) 40 cm at 20 cm from the centre in tan B position, the
(3) 10 cm (4) 50 cm deflection will be
(1) 60° (2) 45°
14. A small bar magnet has a magnetic moment 1.25
Am2. The magnetic field at a distance 0.1m on its (3) 30° (4) 0°
axis will be 21. Two magnets each of dipole moment Pm and length
(1) 1.2 × 10–4 T (2) 2.5 × 10–4 T  are placed perpendicularly as shown in figure.
The magnitude of dipole moment of the combination
(3) 2.5 × 104 T (4) 1.2 × 104 T will be
15. Two magnets placed one above the other oscillates (1) 2P m
with a period of 6 sec. If one of them is reversed, N
the time period becomes 2 sec. The ratio of their (2) 2 Pm
magnetic moment is nearest to
Pm N S
(3)
(1) 7 (2) 5 2
3 4
Pm S
(4)
7 7 2l
(3) 4 (4) 5
(160)
Magnetism and Matter Medical Q-Bank-2020
22. At a place, angle of dip and horizontal component 27. A dip needle vibrates in a vertical plane
of earth’s magnetic field are 30° and 0.5 oersted perpendicular to the geographical meridian. The time
respectively. The total magnetic field of earth at the period of vibration is found to be 2 second. The
place is same needle is then allowed to vibrate in the
horizontal plane and the time period is again found
(1) 3 (2) 1 to be 2 second. If the angle of declination is 60°,
then the true angle of dip is
1 1
(3) (4)
3 2  1 
(1) tan1   (2) tan–1(2)
 2
23. In vibration magnetometer time period of magnet is
2 s. The time period of a magnet whose magnetic  1
moment is four times that of the first and same (3) 45° (4) tan1  
2
moment of inertia is
28. Apparent dips when dip circle is placed in two
(1) 1 s (2) 4 s mutully perpendicular directions are 30° and 45°.
What is the actual dip at that place?
(3) 8 s (4) 0.5 s
24. A bar magnet suspended has a time period of  1

(1) tan–1(2) (2) tan1  
oscillation T. If the magnet is broken into four equal 2
pieces parallel to its length and one of the pieces
is made to oscillate in the same field, then the new (3) tan1  2 (4) 60°
time period is
(1) 4T (2) 2T 29. The variation of magnetic susceptibility(X) with

T temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
(3) T (4) represented by figure
4
25. A magnetising field of 1200Am–1 produces a net X X

magnetic flux 2.4×10–7 weber in a paramagnetic
(1) (2)
bar of cross-sectional area 0.2 cm 2 . The
T T
susceptibility of the bar will be
(1) 17.75 (2) 25 X X

(3) 24 (4) 26 T
(3) (4)
T
26. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A and
B are given below
30. Two short bar magnets of equal dipole moment M
each are fastened perpendicularly at their centres.
B B The magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at a
distance d from the centre on the bisector of the right
H H angle is
(A) (B)
S
(1) Coercivity of A is greater than B but retentivity N S
of B is greater than A ; d
N
(2) Coercivity and retentivity of B is greater than A P
;
(3) A is suitable for making permanent and B is o 2 2M  o 2M

(1) (2)
suitable for making electromagnet 4 d3 4 d3
o M o 2M
(4) Both (2) and (3) (3) (4)
4 d3 4  d3
(161)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Magnetism and Matter
31. The time period of a thin bar magnet in earth’s 37. The magnetic field due to a small bar magnet at
magnetic field is T. If the magnet is cut into four equal end on position is making an angle  with magnetic
parts perpendicular to its length, the time period of moment. The value of angle  is
each part in the same field will be (1) Zero (2) 90°
(1)
T
2
(2)
T
4
(3) 180° (4) tan1  2
38. A bar magnet is cut into three equal parts
(3) 2T (4) 2P perpendicular to its length and each part has
magnetic moment M. The magnetic moment of the
32. When bar magnet is made to vibrate in horizontal bar magnet was
plane, the time preiod of vibration is 3 2s . Angle of
dip is 60°. Find time of vibration when it vibrates in M
(1) M (2)
vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian at the 3
same place
(1) 3s (2) 4s
(3) 3M (4)  M 1/3
39. A magnetised wire of magnetic moment M and
1
(3) sec (4) 3s length l is bent in the form of a semicircle of
3 radius r. The new magnetic moment is
33. At a given place in the earth’s surface, the 2M
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is (1) M (2)

3×10–5 T and resultant magnetic field is 6×10–5T.
Angle of dip at this palce is M M
(3) (4)
(1) 30° (2) 40°  2
(3) 50° (4) 60° 40. A magnetic needle lying parallel to magnetic field
requires W unit of work to turn it through 60°. The
34. Two tangent galvanometers having coils of the same torque needed to maintain the needle in this final
radius are connected in series. A current flowing in position will be
them produces deflections of 60° and 45°
respectively. The ratio of the number of turns in the
coils is (1) 3W (2) W
(1)
4
(2)
 3 1  (3)
3W
(4) 2W
3 1 2
41. If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at

3 1 3
(3) (4) a place is 0.75 times the horizontal component at
3 1 1
same place, then the angle of dip at that place is
35. Two magnetic isolated north poles each of strength
in ampere-meter are placed one at each of two (1) 45° (2) 37°
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. The
resultant magnetic induction at third vertex is (3) 53° (4) 60°
42. W hat should be the deflection of tangent

0 m 0 2m galvanometer, so that the reading obtained through
(1)  (2) 
4  a2 4  a2 it has maximum accuracy?
(1) 45° (2) 30°

0 3m 0 m
(3)  (4) 
4  a2 4  a2 (3) 37° (4) 29.2°
36. If a magnet is suspended at an angle 30° to the 43. In a vertical plane inclined at an angle 60° with
magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle magnetic meridian, the angle of dip is found to be
of 60° with the horizontal. The true value of dip is 45°. If  is true angle of dip at that place, then the
value of tan is
(1) tan1 2  3 (2) tan1 3  2 (1) 0.5 (2) 2
(3) tan–1(3) (4) tan–1(2) (3) 0.75 (4) 1.33
(162)
Magnetism and Matter Medical Q-Bank-2020
44. In tangent galvanometer, the deflection is 30° when 48. Two short magnets of magnetic moment 1000 Am2
2 A current passes through it. What will be the are placed as shown at the corners of square of
current, if deflection is 60°? side 10cm. The net magnetic induction at P is
(1) 2 A (2) 2 3 A
(3) 6 A (4) 1.5 A

S
  N P
45. According to Gauss’ law in magnetism 
 s B.ds is 10cm
equal to S
10cm N
(1) Zero
(2) Positive
(1) 0.1T (2) 0.2T
(3) Negative
(3) 0.3T (4) 0.4T
(4) Positive, negative or zero
49. In a tangent galvanometer a current of 0.1A
46. It is found that when a substance is placed in a produces a deflection of 30°. The current required
magnetic field; field lines passing through it are to produce deflection of 60° is
shown in figure. Then substance may be
(1) 0.2A (2) 0.3A
(3) 0.4A (4) 0.5A
50. A vibration magnetometer consists of two identical

bar magnets placed one over the other such that
they are perpendicular and bisect each other. The
time period of oscillation in a horizontal magnetic
(1) Diamagnetic (2) Paramagnetic
5
field is 2 4 sec. One of the magnets is removed
(3) Superconductor (4) All of these
and if the other magnet oscillates in the same
47. The intensity of magnetisation (I) of paramagnetic field, then the time period in second is
material is related to absolute temperature T as
1 1
(1) I  T (2) I  T2 (1) (2)
24 22
1 1
(3) I  (4) I  (3) 2 (4)
5
T2 T 24

(163)
Chapter 20
Electromagnetic Induction
1. An ideal conducting rod is moving under the 4. The ratio of initial and final (steady state) current of
influence of a constant force between two parallel the circuit is
ideal conducting rails. There is a capacitor
connected between the ends of the two rails. A L
uniform magnetic field exists perpendicular to the
plane of the rails. Neglecting all kinds of dissipative
forces and gravity, identify the correct statement t=0 s R
E (emf) r
x x x
F=constant
C
R r
x x x (1) (2)
r Rr
(1) the velocity of the rod becomes constant after Rr R

(3) (4)
a certain duration r Rr
(2) the acceleration of the rod becomes zero after
certain instant x x x
(3) the acceleration of the rod becomes constant 5. x A x  = 2 rad/s
immediately after the start of motion O B R = 1m
x x x B = 1T
(4) both (1) and (2)
x x
2. The self inductance of a toroid of radius R (>>r) and
total number of turns N is (r = radius of each turn) The e.m.f. induced between points A and B of the
rod which is being rotated with constant angular
0Nr 2 0Nr 2 velocity in uniform magnetic field is (Point A is mid
(1) (2)
R 2R point of rod)
0N2r 2 40Nr 1 3
(3) (4) (1) volt (2) volt
2R R 4 4
3. Two inductors of inductances 9H and 4H are coupled 1

in series. The separation between them and relative (3) 3 volt (4) volt
orientation is fixed and once they are connected in
2
configuration A and then in configuration B as below 6. If the current in long straight current carrying wire
increases with the time then direction of induced
current in circular loop is
(A)
(B)
If the maximum and minimum equivalent inductance

of the combination is found to be 16H and 3H, the
coupling constant is
(1) Clockwise
12 13
(1) (2)
13 12 (2) Anticlockwise
(3) First clockwise and then anticlockwise

13 13
(3) (4) (4) First anticlockwise then clockwise
24 22
(164)
Electromagnetic Induction Medical Q-Bank-2020
7. In the given figure shown below, a conducting 10. A vertical conducting ring of radius R falls vertically
circular loop of radius ‘l’ is placed in a uniform and in horizontal uniform magnetic field of magnitude B.
perpendicular magnetic field B. A metal rod OA is The direction of B is perpendicular to plane inward.
pivoted at centre ‘O’ of the loop. The other end A When speed of ring is v
of rod touches the loop. The rod OA and loop are
resistanceless but a resistance ‘R’ is connected C
between O and fixed point ‘e’ of loop. The rod is
rotated with angular velocity . The current in
resistance R is A B D
A E
(1) Current flows in the ring
(2) A and D are at the same potential

O
R (3) C and E are different potential
e
(4) The potential difference between A and D is
2BRV, with D at a higher potential
11. Figure shows the top view of a rod that can slide
Bl2 Bl2 without friction. The resistor is 6.0 and a 2.5T
(1) (2)
R 2R uniform magnetic field is directed perpendicularly
downward into paper. If length of moving rod is 1.2m
and it moves with a constant speed of 2 m/s then
B 2l B 2l2 the rate at which energy is delivered to the resistor
(3) (4)
R 2R is
8. Keeping number of turns constant, self inductance B

‘L’ of solenoid varies with its length ‘l’ is (Cross-
sectional area remains unchanged)
 R F
1
(1) L  l (2) L
l
(1) 12 W (2) 6 W
1 (3) 3 W (4) 20 W
(3) L  l2 (4) L
l2
12. A pair of coils of turns n1 and n2 are kept close
9. In the following circuit, the magnetic energy stored together. Current passing through the first is
reducing at rate r, and e.m.f 3 mV is developed
in inductor in steady state is
across the other coil. If the second coil carries
current which is then reduced at the rate 2r, the
V R1 emf produced across the first coil will be
R2
6n1 6n2
(1) mV (2) mV
n2 n1
3
(3) 6 mV (4) mV
L 2
13. Two coils of self inductance 4mH and 9mH are

2 2 placed such that flux of one coil is partially linked
1  V  1  V with other coil. If mutual inductance of the system
(1) L (2) L
2  R1  R2  2  R1  is 3mH, then coefficient of coupling of the two
circuits is
2 2 (1) 0.25 (2) 0.5
1  V 1 2  R1  R2 
(3) L (4) V L
2  R2  2  R1R2  (3) 0.75 (4) .90
(165)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Electromagnetic Induction
14. A rod of length  m moves in x-y plane with a 17. Two inductors having self inductance ‘L1’ and ‘L2’ are
 arranged as shown in the given figure. If ‘M’ be the
velocity v  2i  3j
  m/s in a magnetic field mutual inductance for the given pair of coils, then
find the equivalent inductance between

B  i  j  k T. The magnitude of induced e.m.f.
  A and B (assume that the sense of coiling is same
for both)
along the rod is
B
y L1 L2
(0,4m) A
rod
(3m,0)
x (1) L1 + L2 – M (2) L1 + L2 + 2M
(1) 12 V (2) 15 V L1  L2 

(3) L1 + L2 – 2M (4) M
2
(3) 17 V (4) 1 V
15. The magnetic flux  decreases linearly with time 18. A current carrying straight conductor of infinite
according to the given  - t graph. Which of the length is placed at distance ‘x’ from a rectangular
conducting loop having side length ‘a’ and ‘b’. The
following graphs represents variation of emf
mutual inductance of the given system is
induced(E) against time (t) ?
i b
t x
t0
a
E E
(1) (2) o a a x

t (1) ln  
t0 t0
t 2  a 
o b  x  a 
(2) ln  
2  x 
E E
to o b xa
(3) (4) (3) ln  
t t 2  a 
to
o a a x
16. Two conducting rings of radii r and 2r are moving in (4) ln  
2  x 
opposite direction with velocities 2v and v
respectively, as shown in figure on a conducting
19. For the given R–L circuit, the time constant is
surface S. There is a uniform magnetic field of
magnitude B existing perpendicular to the plane of R 2R
the rings. The potential difference between the
highest points of the two rings is L
2R R
B×
2v v
L 3L
S (1) (2)
4R 4R
(1) Zero (2) 2Bvr

L L
(3) (4)
(3) 4rvB (4) 8rvB 3R R
(166)
20. For the given R–L circuits the current through the 23. Consider a thin metallic sheet perpendicular to the
cell just after switch is closed plane of the paper moving with speed ‘v’ in a
uniform magnetic field ‘B’ going into the plane of
3R 3R the paper (see fig.). If charge densities 1 and 2
are induced on the left and right surfaces,
S
M N respectively of the sheet then (Ignore fringe effects)
E (emf)
6R 3R
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
L x x x1 x

x x
x x x x2 x x
The current through cell at t = 0 is o vB o vB
(1) 1 = , 2 =
2 2
E
(1) (2) 1 = ovB, 2 = –ovB
18R
 o vB  o vB
(3) 1 = , 2 =
10E 2 2
(2)
18R (4) 1 = 2 = ovB
24. In a solenoid, when number of turns is doubled

5E
(3) within same length and cross-section of solenoid,
18R then inductance becomes
(1) 4 times (2) 2 times

2E
(4)
9R (3) 8 times (4) No change
21. A circular ring of radius 1m is placed in a time 25. In an L-R circuit with dc source of emf, the rate at
 which energy is stored in the inductor is plotted
dB against time during the growth of the current in the
varying magnetic field,  2T/s. The potential
dt cirucit, which of the following best represent the
resulting curve ?
difference between P and Q is [where POQ = 90°]
Rate
x x
x x x dB (1)
O = 2T/S time
dt
x x
x
P Q
x Rate
x
1
(1) 1 volt (2) volt (2)
2
time
(3) 2 volt (4) 2 2 volt

Rate
22. Two similar coaxial circular loops carry equal current
in the same direction. On moving loops further
(3)
apart, the electric current will
time
(1) Increase in both
Rate
(2) decrease in both
(3) remain unaltered

(4)
time
(4) Increase in one and decrease in second
(167)
26. Magnetic field in a cylindrical region is given by 30. The maximum mutual inductance of the two coils is
B = t. A positive charge +q of mass m is 8 H. One of the coil has a self inductance of 16 H.
projected from point P as shown Then the self inductance of the other coil is
(1) 8 H (2) 16 H
(3) 4 H (4) 2 H
v
31. A magnetic flux of 500 Wb per turn passing through
P a 200 turns coil is reversed in direction in
R 20 × 10–3 second. The average emf induced in the
coil is
(1) 2.5 V (2) 5 V

The deBroglie wavelength of the charge
(3) 10 V (4) 75 V
(1) increases
32. A straight conductor of length 2.0 m is moving with
(2) decreases speed 2 m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field
of induction 1.0 T. The induced emf across the ends
(3) remains unchanged
of the conductor is
(4) remains unchanged irrespective of direction of
(1) 2 volt (2) 4 volt
projection
27. A closed conducting loop is moved with acceleration (3) 8 volt (4) Zero
as shown in the figure. The induced current in the
33. The circular wire loop of radius R is placed in the
loop will be
x–z plane with the centre at the origin. Another
circular loop of radius r (r<<R) having 32 turns is

placed with its centre at y= 3 R . The plane of the
second loop makes an angle of 60° with the y-axis.
The mutual inductance between the loop is
i
– y
60° n
(1) Clockwise and increasing with time 3R
(2) Clockwise and decreasing with time

x
(3) Anti-clockwise and increasing with time R
(4) Anti-clockwise and decreasing with time

z
28. The magnetic flux through a coil of resistance 10 
t3 3 2
varies as  (in weber) =  t  10t  5 . The  0 r 2
3 2 (1)
current in the circuit is zero at R
(1) t = 2 unit (2) t = 5 unit

0 r 2
(2)
(3) t = 4 unit (4) t = 0 unit R
29. When a bar magnet falls through a long hollow metal
cylinder fixed with its axis vertical, then acceleration 0r 2
of the magnet, when it is accelerating will be (3)
R
(1) Zero (2) More than g
 0 2r 2
(3) Less than g (4) Equal to g (4)
R
(168)
34. The periphery of an insulating disc of radius R and 36. In an A.C. generator initially (at t=0) the plane of
mass M is charged uniformly and has linear charge the coil is parallel to the magnetic field. Which
density . The disc is rotating freely with constant graph best represents the variation of induced emf
angular velocity 0 about a vertical axis as shown. E with time?
Uniform magnetic field B 0 extends over entire
circular region of disc, pointing downward. If the E E
magnetic field is switched off, then find the value of
B0 for which the disc stops. (1) t (2) t
0
E E
+ + + +
+ (3) t (4) t
+
+ +
+ + + +
37. A conducting wire frame is placed in a magnetic
B0 field which is directed into the plane of the paper.
The magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate.
The directions of induced currents in wires AB and
CD are
40M
(1)
R x x
x x x x x
C
20M xAx x x x x x
(2)
R x x x x x x x
B
D
0M x x x x x x x
(3)
R
(1) B to A and D to C
0M (2) A to B and C to D
(4)
2R
(3) A to B and D to C
35. A conducting rod of length l, mass m and of
(4) B to A and C to D
negligible resistance slides without friction on two
parallel vertical conducting rails, connected at the 38. Two parallel wires AL and BM placed horizontally at
top through a resistor of resistace R. The rails are a distance W are connected by a resistor R and
also of negligible resistance. A uniform magnetic placed in a magnetic field B which is perpendicular
field B0 exists, perpendicular to the plane of the to the plane containing the wire. Another wire CD
rails, pointing inward. After a long time, the heat now connects the two wires perpendicularly and
dissipated in the resistor per second is made to slide with constant velocity v. Find power
supplied by external agent while moving rod with
constant velocity V(Friction is absent)
R
A C
L
R X w
B0 B v
B M
D
m2 g2 m2 g2R
(1) (2)
2B2l 2R B2 l 2 B2 w B2 w 2 v
(1) v (2)
R R
2m2 g2R m2 g2 BWv B2 W 2 v 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
B2 l 2 RB2l 2 R R
(169)
39. A circular coil of 500 turns of wire has an enclosed 44. The armature coil of a generator has 20 turns and
area of 0.1m2 per turn. It is kept with its plane its area is 0.127m2. How fast should it be rotated
perpendicular to a magnetic field of induction 0.2T in magnetic field of 0.2 wb/m2 so that the peak
and rotated by 180° about a diameter perpendicular value of emf induced in it is 160 Volt
to the field in 0.1s. How much charge will pass
when the coil is connected to a galvanometer with (1) 60 rps (2) 100 rps
a combined resistance of 50 ?
(3) 50 rps (4) 120 rps
(1) 0.1C (2) 0.4C
45. The self inductance of a coil is L. Keeping the
(3) 0.3C (4) 0.56C length and area same, the number of turn in coil is
40. Bulb 1 and Bulb 2 are identical. Key is closed at increased to four times. The self inductance of the
t=0 and after the bulbs start glowing with their full coil will now be
intensities, the key is opened. W hich of the L
(1) 16 L (2)
following is correct ? 4
1
2 (3) 4L (4) L
key 46. A small square loop of wires of side b is placed
inside a large square loop of wire of side a > > b
(1) At t=0, both bulbs glows with equal intensities as shown in figure, the loops are coplanar and their
centres coincide. The mutual inductance of the
(2) At t=0, no bulb glows
system is proportional to
(3) At t=0, only bulb 1 glows a
(4) After key is opened, both bulb glows with equal
b
intensities any time
41. The current in a coil is changed from 5A to 10A in
10–2s. An emf of 50 mV is induced in another coil
near by it. The mutual inductance of two coils is
(1) 100 H (2) 200 H
b b2
(3) 300 H (4) 400 H (1) (2)
a a
42. At an instant current in this network is 5A. Find
potential difference between points A and B if the a a2
(3) (4)
current is increasing at 1A/sec b b
47. As shown in figure a conducting circular loop of
A B radius a placed in a uniform perpendicular magnetic
5A 1 15V 5H field B. A metal rod OA is pivoted at centre O of the
loop. The other end A of the rod touches the loop.
(1) 15V (2) 25V
The rod OA and the loop are resistanceless but a
(3) 1V (4) 10V resistor having resistance R is connected between
O and a fixed point C on the loop. The rod OA
43. Consider the circuit shown. The switch is closed at
made to rotate anticlockwise at a small but uniform
t = 0, currents in various branches are marked.
angular speed  by an external force. The current
Which of the following is correct ?
in the resistance R is
1
2
3 × × ×
 R 2R
R L C O 
× × ×
S
R A
 
(1) At t = 0, 1 = , 3 =
3R 3R C
 
× × ×
(2) At t = 0, 1 = , 3 = Ba 2
B22a2
4R 3R (1)  (2) 
2R 2R
 
(3) At t = , 1 = ,  =
2R 2 2R Ba2 B22a2
(3)  (4) 
(4) Both 1 and 3 R 2R
(170)
48. A uniform but time varying magnetic field B(t) exist 51. A semicircular loop of radius R is located on the
in a cylindrical region of radius a and is directed boundary of a uniform magnetic field B. The loop is
into in the plane of the paper, as shown. The set into rotation with a constant angular
magnitude of the induced electric field at point P at acceleration  about an axis O at t=0. Which of
distance r from the centre of the circular region the following graph is between emf induced vs time
x x x
B
× × × P x x x
× × × ×
× × × × x x x
× × × × x x x
× × a× ×
×× ×
 
(1) t (2) t
(1) is zero (2) decreases as 1/r
(3) increases as r (4) decreases as 1/r2

 
49. A loop ABCD containing two resistors is placed in
a uniform magnetic field B directed outwards to the (3) (4)
t
plane of page. A sliding conductor EF of length  t
and of negligible resistance moves to right with
uniform velocity V. Find potential difference across
B and C 52. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin
insulated wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area A
= 10 cm2 and length 20 cm. If one of the solenoids
A E B has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual
B inductance is
V B
R1 R2 (1) 1.2 × 10–4 H (2) 5 × 10–4 H
D F C (3) 2.4 × 10–4 H (4) 1.3 × 10–4 H
53. A line charge of linear density  is pasted uniformly

BVR 2 on the rim of a wheel of mass M and radius R. The
(1) (2) Zero wheel has light non conducting spokes and is free
R1
to rotate about a vertical axis. A uniform magnetic
field extends over a circular region centered at the
BV 
(3) R2  R1  (4) BV centre of wheel given by B   Bo k for r < a, and
R1  
B  O for r > a
50. A long conducting wire AH is moved over a o
conducting triangular wire CDE with a constant Z
 + + +
velocity V in a uniform magnetic field B directed xx x xx
into the plane of the paper. Resistance per unit + +
a
length of each wire is . Then, + +
D R
X B
F G
A H What is angular velocity acquired by the wheel as
V
the field is suddenly switched off
C E
(1) Induced emf in the loop remains constant aB a2B

(1) (2)
(2) Induced emf increases with time
MR MR
(3) Induced emf decreases linearly with time

a2B 2a2B
(3) (4)
(4) May increase or decrease 2MR MR
(171)
54. A closed conducting loop is moved towards right 57. A wooden stick of length 3l is rotated about an end
with retardation as shown in the figure. The induced with constant angular velocity  in a uniform
current in the loop will be magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of
1
 motion. If the upper of its length is coated with
3
copper, the potential difference across the coated
length of the stick is
i
l 
–
3l
(1) Clockwise and increasing with time
(2) Clockwise and decreasing with time 9B l2 4B l2

(1) (2)
(3) Anti-clockwise and increasing with time 2 2
(4) Anti-clockwise and decreasing with time

5B l2 B l2
(3) (4)
55. The magnetic flux through a coil kept in a 2 2
magnetic field perpendicular to its plane and
directed into the paper is varying according to the 58. The network shown in the figure is a part of a
relation  = 5t2 + 10t + 5 milliweber. What is the complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current
emf induced in the loop at t = 5 second? i is 5A and is decreasing at rate of 103A/s the VA
– VB is
(1) 0.06 V (2) 0.03 V
(3) 0.04 V (4) 0.05 V

A 1 5mH B
15V
56. A rod of length l and resistance r rotates about one
end as shown in figure. Its other end touches a (1) –5V (2) –10V
conducting ring of negligible resistance. A resistance
R is connected between centre and periphery. Find (3) –15V (4) –20V

current through the resistance R. [as shown B = 59. A rectangular loop with a side wire of length l is
uniform magnetic field in figure) kept in uniform magnetic field as shown in figure.
The Resistance of slider is R. Neglecting self-
B inductance of the loop, find current through the
conductor during its motion with velocity v

O P
R ×B
R v R
Bl2 B2l
(1) I (2)
2(R  r) 2(R  r)
2Blv 3Blv
(1) (2)
B2  l 2
B l 3R 2R
(3) (4)
2(R  r) 2R
Blv Blv
(3) (4)
2R R

(172)
Chapter 21
Alternating Current
1. The impedence of a series LCR circuit varies with 4. The value of C if circuit becomes resonant after
frequency of applied voltage source as below closing the key is
L
z C
C
3z0 R K
z0
V = Vosint

1 0 2
Identify the correct option 1
(1) C (2) (C+C)
L

(1) At  = 1 current lags the source emf by
3 1 2
(3) C (4) C
radians 2L 2L
 5. A series LCR circuit is in resonance at a frequency

(2) At  = 2 current leads the source emf by o
6
 =  o . At  = , the best phasor diagram
radians 2
representing the relation between current and
(3) o = 12 voltage phasor is
(4) All of these
VC VR
io
Q
2. (1)
4
t VL
O 2
The graph between charge Q in coulomb and time
t in second is parabolic. The average current in the VR
interval 0 to 4 second is VC io
(1) 2 amp. (2) 1 amp.
(3) 16 amp. (4) 4 amp. (2)
3. The r.m.s. value of current for one teric period in the
VL
above diagram which is plotted between i and t is
(A)
i
4 VR
VL io
2
10 (3)
t
0 4 (s)
VC
–4
1 VL VR
(1) 2A (2) A io
2
(4)
1
(3) 2 2 A (4) A VC
2 2
(173)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Alternating Current
10. In an AC LCR series, R = 100 . W hen

R C L capacitance ‘C’ is removed the current lags behind
6. 
the voltage by . When inductance L is removed,
3

the current leads the voltage by . The impedance
If current consider the following ac circuit, from the 3
source is plotted against frequency of voltage of the series combination circuit is
source, the graph is best respected by (1) 50  (2) 100 
i
(3) 200  (4) 400 
11. An inductor of inductance 10 mH and capacitor of
(1) capacitance 5F are in LC oscillation. If maximum

0 energy stored in capacitor is 2J, the maximum
current in the circuit is
i (1) 0.2A (2) 2A
(2) (3) 20A (4) 5A

12. The peak value of alternating e.m.f E is given by E
= Eocost, is 20 volt and frequency is 50 Hz. The
i average value of e.m.f is (The average is taken over
first half of time period)
(3)

20  2 10  2
(1) volt (2) volt
 
i
10
(3) volt (4) Zero
(4) 
0  13. In the circuit shown, rms current is 11 A. The
potential difference across the inductor is
7. A transformer has NP = 30 turns in primary and NS
= 2500 turns in the secondary. If the input voltage V = 200 volt
is V = 200Sin(t), then the r.m.s. voltage across V
the secondary coil is approximately L R = 20
(1) 1000 volt (2) 1100 volt C
(3) 1200 volt (4) 11786.9 volt
8. In an L-C circuit consisting of 20 mH inductor and ~

0.1 F capacitor, the maximum current in the 220V, 50Hz
circuit is 0.15A. The maximum voltage across the
capacitor is approximately
(1) 220 volt (2) 300 volt
(1) 60 volt (2) 75 volt (3) 200 volt (4) Zero
(3) 67 volt (4) 57 volt 14. In the circuit shown below what will be the reading
of voltmeter (V1) and ammeter ?
9. An ac is given by I = I0 Sin (t) + 2 . The ratio
100
of average to rms current in the circuit in one full
cycle is V1
V V
A
300V 300V
1 2
(1) 2I0 (2) 2
I 4
0 ~
220V, 50Hz
2 I02  4 (1) 200V, 1A (2) 800V, 2A

(3) (4)
I0  2 2 (3) 220V, 2A (4) 220V, 2.2A
(174)
Alternating Current Medical Q-Bank-2020
15. In an oscillating LC circuit, maximum current in 20. In an LC circuit, the capacitor has maximum
inductor is I o . The current in inductor when the
energy is stored equally between the electric and  d 
charge q0. The value of   is
magnetic field is  dt max
Io Io
(1) (2) L C
2 2
Io Io
(3) (4)
4 2 2
16. An Alternating Current circuit consists of a qo qo
resistance and an ideal choke coil in series. The (1) (2)
LC LC
resistance is of 220 and choke coil is of 0.7H.
The power absorbed from 220V and 50Hz source
connected with the circuit is
qo qo
(3) 1 (4) 1
LC LC
(1) 55 W (2) 220 W
(3) 110 W (4) 440 W 21. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to an
a.c. mains. Some activity is done and the bulb glows
17. An R–L–C circuit containing a 52 resistor, a 230 brighter. The activity may be
mH inductor and a 8.8 F capacitor is driven by an
A.C voltage source that has an amplitude of 150V (1) That the frequency of source was increased
and frequency  = 80 Hz. How much average power (2) That the frequency of source was decreased
is dissipated by this circuit ?
(3) That the locations of bulb and capacitor were
(1) Zero (2) 78.6 W interchanged
(3) 39.3 W (4) 19.6 W (4) That the plates of capacitor were pulled apart using
18. The rms value of current given by the equation  = insulating handles
a+bcost is 22. In a circuit, current lags the emf by 53º. The power
factor of the circuit is
b 2a 2  b 2 (1) 0.8 (2) 0.6
(1) a (2)
2 2 (3) Zero (4) 1
23. An inductor and a resistor are joined in series in an
a2  b2 ac circuit. If voltage across inductor is 80 V and
(3) (4) a2  b2
2 across resistor is 60 V, then the applied voltage is
19. In the circuit shown, the readings of voltmeter V1, (1) 140 V (2) 20 V
V2 and V3 at resonance are given by (3) 100 V (4) 4800 V
24. The readings of voltmeter and ammeter for LCR series
V1 V2 circuit are respectively
XL = 5  XC = 5  R = 10 
R L C
V3
V
A
=osint,  = 1
LC 40 V
(1) 20 V, 1 A (2) 20 V, 2 A
(1) V1 = V2 = V3 = o
(3) 40 V, 4 A (4) 40 V, 2 A
o
(2) V1 = V3 = , V2 = 0 25. In a transformer the input voltage and input current
2 are 11 kV and 10 A respectively. If the output voltage
is 450 V and the output current is 220 A, then
(3) V1 = V3 = o, V2 = 0 efficiency of the transformer is approximately
o (1) 9% (2) 900%

(4) V1 = , V2 = V3 = 0
2 (3) 90% (4) 80%
(175)
1 32. A current passing through a hot wire ammeter, is

26. In a dc LR circuit current grows to th of its steady made of two components, a dc component i1 = 3A
4
state value in 2 s. The time constant of LR circuit is and an ac component i 2 = 4 2 sin t. Find the
2 2 reading of the ammeter
(1) (2) (1) 1A (2) 5A
4 3
ln ln
3 4 (3) 3A (4) 6A
2 2 33. In the given LCR series circuit find the source
(3) (4) frequency which drives the circuit at resonance
1 ln 4
ln
4 L=5H
27. In an LCR circuit, inductance is changed from L to
L C = 80F
to keep the same resonance frequency. C should R = 40
2
be changed to
C V = 200V
(1) 2C (2)
4
C 25
(3) (4) 4C (1) 25 Hz (2) Hz
2 
28. A resistor, an ideal capacitor and an ideal inductor 50
are connected in parallel to a source of alternating (3) 50 Hz (4) Hz

250
voltage of 800V at a frequency of Hz . A current 34. In the given LC circuit, charge (q) on capacitor is

of 3A flows through resistor, a current of 1A flows given by graph as shown in the figure
through the inductor and the total current through
the circuit is 5A. If IC>IL, then the capacity of the
capacitor is C L
(1) 12.5 F (2) 10 F
q
(3) 9.2 F (4) 8.2 F qo
29. A transformer is used to light 140W, 24V lamp from
240V a.c. mains. The current in the mains cable is time
0.7A. The efficiency of transformer is
(1) 63.8% (2) 48% W hich of the following graphs best represents
(3) 83.3% (4) 34% current in circuit ?
30. An L–R circuit is connected to an AC source of i
50V(rms) and frequency 50Hz. If the power
io
consumed in the resistor is 150W and the wattless
component of the current is 4A, then the (1) time
voltage(rms) across the inductor will be
(1) 10V (2) 20V
i
(3) 30V (4) 40V
io
31. A series R–C circuit is connected across a source
(2) time
of emf, V= 100 2 sin(1000t) where R=1000 and
C=1F. The equation of current in the circuit is
i

(1) i=0.1 sin(1000t – )
4 (3) time
 –io
(2) i=10 sin(1000t + )
4
i

(3) i=10 sin(1000t – )
4
(4) time

(4) i=0.1 sin(1000t + )
4
(176)
35. A series AC circuit has a resistance of 4 and a 40. In a step-up transformer, the Leclanche cell (Emf
reactance of 3. The impedance of the circuit is 1.5 Volt) is connected across primary. The voltage
(1) 5 (2) 7 developed in secondary would be:
(1) 3.0 Volt (2) 0.75 Volt
12 7
(3)  (4)  (3) Zero (4) 1.5 Volt
7 12 41. The electric current in a circuit is given by
36. Consider a circuit which contains only pure inductor
or a pure capacitor connected to an ac source and i  i0 t   for some time. Calculate the r.m.s
resistor is absent. Choose the correct statement current for the period t = 0 to t = 
(1) Power dissipated in the circuit is maximum
i0 i0
(2) Current leads to no power dissipation and is (1) irms  (2) irms 
called wattless current 3 2
(3) Power is dissipated due to wattless current i0
i0 irms 
(4) The phase difference between source emf and (3) irms  (4)
2 3
curent is 0° 42. An inductance L having a resistance R is
37. A power transmission line feeds input power at connected to an alternating source of angular
2300V to a step-down transformer, with its primary frequency . The quality factor ‘Q’ of the inductance
windings having 4000 turns. What should be the is
number of turns in the secondary winding in order 2
to get output power at 230V ? L  L 
(1) (2)  
(1) 300 (2) 250
R  R 
2
(3) 400 (4) 450  R  R
(3)   (4)
38. The natural frequency of the circuit shown in the  L  L
figure is: 43. The reading of voltmeter and ammeter in the
following figure will respectively be
C C
A
xc = 4 V 90V
L L
xL = 4 R = 45
(1) 0V and 2A (2) 2A and 0V
(3) 2V and 2A (4) 0V and 0A
1 1 44. An alternating voltage is given by e = e1sint +
(1) (2) e 2 cost. Then the root mean square value of
2 2LC 2 LC
voltage is given by
1 (1) e12  e22 (2) e1 e 2
2 LC
(3) (4) 2
2 3LC 2 e1e2 e12  e22
(3) (4)
2 2
39. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current
through the inductor is 0.9 A while the current 45. An alternating voltage at different frequencies is
through the condenser is 0.4 A. Hence current applied across a capacitance C. W hich of the
drawn from the generator is following graphs correctly depicts the variation of
current with frequency ?
ic
A
C
ii L
A.C. generator
 
(1) (2)
i  
 
(1) 1.3 A (2) 0.9 A
(3) (4)
(3) 0.6 A (4) 0.5 A  
(177)
46. In the series LCR circuit , find the reading of 52. Equation for instantaneous current in the circuit is
ammeter
XL = 60 
400V 400V 40  XC = 20 
V V V
R=50
A
100V, 50Hz
E = 80 2 sin(314t)volt
(1) 1A (2) 2A
 
(3) 0A (4) 5A (1) I  2sin  314t  
 4
47. The potential difference across a 2H inductor as a
function of time is given in figure. At time t = 0,  
current is zero. Current at t = 2 is (2) I  2sin  314t  
 4
v(volt)  
(3) I  2cos  314t  
10  4
 
2
t(s) (4) I  2cos  314t  
4  4
(1) 1A (2) 2A 53. In the circuit shown, the voltage leads the current by
(3) 4A (4) 5A 
. The resistance R of the circuit is
48. An electric bulb has a rated power of 50W at 100V. 4
If it is used on an AC source of 200V, 50Hz, a L=0.8 H R
choke has to be used in series with it. This choke
should have an inductance of
(1) 5H (2) 2H
(3) 1.1H (4) 1.35H
V = 100 sin 50t
49. In a series L-C-R circuit R = 200 and the voltage (V is in volt and t is in second)
and the frequency of the main supply is 220V and (1) 13.5  (2) 25.2 
50Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance
(3) 21  (4) 40 
from the circuit, the current lags behind the voltage
by 30°. On taking out the inductor from the circuit 54. Impedance of LCR series circuit in alternating current
the current leads the voltage by 30°. The power of increasing frequency is best represented by
dissipated in the L-C-R circuit is Z Z
(1) 305W (2) 210W
(3) Zero (4) 121W
(1) (2)
60. The direct current of 5 A is superimposed on an
f f
alternating current I = (10 A) sin t flowing through a fr fr
wire. The effective value of the resulting current will Z Z
be
 15 
(1)  A (2) 5 3 A (3) (4)
 2  f f
fr fr
(3) 5 5 A (4) 15 A 55. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
series resonance circuit?
51. In an ac circuit V and I are given by
(1) We can have resonance in a RL and a RC circuit
  (2) Resonance in a circuit occurs when L and C both
V = 100 V sin 100 t and I = 100 mA sin  100  t  . are present in the circuit
 2 
(3) At resonance, voltage across the L and C are
The power dissipated in the circuit is
180º out of phase
(1) 5000 W (2) 5 W (4) At resonance, the total source voltage appears
(3) 2.5 W (4) Zero across R
(178)
56. If the ratio of number of turns in the primary and 58. A resistance R draws power P, when connected
secondary coil of a transformer is 1 : 5 and an to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed
alternating emf e = 100 V sin 100t is applied across in series with the resistance, such that the
primary, then the rms value of secondary voltage is impedance of the circuit becomes Z, the power
(1) 100 V (2) 500 V drawn will be
(3) 500 2 V (4) 250 2 V R R

(1) P (2) P 
57. The mean value of AC for full wave rectifier in half Z Z
T
cycle [from t1=0 to t 2  ] 2
2 R
(3) P (4) P  
Z
i sinecurve
i0 59. An alternating current is given by i = I1sint +
I2cost. Then the rms current is given by
t
0 T T
2 I1  I2 I12  I22
(1) (2)
2 2
l0 2l0
(1) (2)
  I12  I22 I12  I22
(3) (4)
l0 2 2
2

(179)
Chapter 22
Electromagnetic Waves
1. A perfectly reflecting mirror of mass m and exposed 4. In an electromagnetic wave, the effective value of
surface area A is exposed to electromagnetic electric field is 100V/m. The intensity of the wave is
radiation of intensity  on a rough horizontal surface (1) 26.5 W/m2 (2) 36.5 W/m2
1 (3) 46.7 W/m2 (4) 76.5 W/m2
with friction co-efficient   as shown
3 5. A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular
plates each of radius 2 cm separated by distance
of 0.1 m. If voltage across the plate is varying at
rate of 5 × 10 13 V/s then value of displacement
current is
m F
(1) 7.60 A (2) 5.56 × 102A
(3) 5.56 A (4) 2.28 × 104 A
The minimum value of pulling force required to exert
6. The energy of a photon of EM radiation is of order
mg of 15 KeV. To which part of spectrum does it
on mirror to move the mirror is . The value of
2 belong?
mgc (1) -ray (2) x-ray

(where c is speed of light) is
A (3) Infra-red rays (4) U-V rays
7. For an electromagnetic wave travelling along y-axis,
1
(1) 4 (2) the electric field component is known to be along
4
2 3
 3i  4k  at an instant. The direction of magnetic
(3) (4) field at this instant is along
3 2
2. If in a region, there is a time varying electric field,
then which of the following Maxwell’s equation will
(1)  3i  4k  (2)  3i  4k 
be most suitable ?
   dE 
(3)  4i  3k  (4)  4i  3k 
(1) 
 B  dl  i  0 dt  8. A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular
plates of radius R = 0.1m. They are separated by
 
(2)  B  dl   i0
a distance 1mm. If rate of change of electric field
between the capacitor plates is
   d  dE v
(3)   dl  0 dtE 
B  5  1013 , the displacement current
dt m s
between the plates is
(4)
(1) 13.9A (2) 0.39A
   dE 
 B  dl  0 i  0 dt  (3) 23.9A (4) 2.39A
9. The electric field amplitude in an electromagnetic
3. The amplitude of electric field in an electromagnetic wave radiated by a 200W bulb at a distance 2m
wave at a distance r from a point source of power is(assuming efficiency of bulb is 10% in converting
P is (taking efficiency 100%) electrical energy into light energy and bulb is a
point source)
P P
(1) (2) 25
2r 2 0 c 4r 2 0 c (1) V/m (2) 10 3 V/m
2
P P 5 30
(3) (4) (3) V/m (4) V/m
8r 2 0 c 2r 2 0 c 2 7
(180)
Electromagnetic Medical Q-Bank-2020
10. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to 60 C. The 15. A parallel plate capacitor consists of two circular
plate losses charge at the rate of 1.8×10 –8 plates of radius 10 cm. If the conduction current is
Cs–1. The magnitude of displacement current is 2 ampere, then the magnetic field at 8 cm from
the axis of plates due to displacement current is
(1) 1.8×10–8 Cs–1 (2) 3.6×10–8 Cs–1

10cm 8cm
(3) 4.1×10–11 Cs–1 (4) 5.7×10–12 Cs–1
11. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in the x-

direction has wavelength of 6.0 mm. The electric
field is in the y-direction and its maximum (1) 10×10–6 T (2) 5×10–6 T
magnitude of 33 Vm–1. The equation for the electric
(3) 15×10–6 T (4) 2.5×10–6 T
field as a function of x and t may be represented
as (t is in sec, x is in m, c is speed of light) 16. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a plane
surface of area A perpendicularly. If the surface
absorbs the radiation falling on it completely, and if
  x  E is the energy that strikes the surface in time ‘t’
(1) 11 sin    t   
  c  then the average radiation pressure exerted on the
surface is [where, c = speed of light]
 11  x 
(2) 33 sin    10  t   
  c  2E E
(1) (2)
Atc c
  x 
(3) 33 sin    t   
  c  E Et
(3) (4)
Atc Ac
 11  x 
(4) 11 sin    10  t    17. In a wave E 0 = 100 v/m. Find the magnitude of
  c 
poynting’s vector
12. A capacitor is connected across a battery for
charging. Current through the battery at an instant W W
(1) 13.25 (2) 26.5
is 3 A. Displacement current through the capacitor m2 m2
at that instant is
(3) 18.25
W (4) 19.7
W
(1) 3 A (2) 1.5 A m2 m2
(3) 2 A (4) 2.5 A 18. The average energy density of an electromagnetic
wave given by E = (50N/C) sin(t – kx) will be nearly
13. An em wave transports energy along y-axis. If at any
instant, magnetic field vector is along x-axis, the (1) 1.1×10–8 J/m3 (2) 10–7 J/m3
electric field vector at this instant is along
(3) 10–6 J/m3 (4) 10–5 J/m3
(1) z-axis (2) –z-axis
(3) –x-axis (4) x-axis 19. The intensity of a plane electromagnetic wave is 5
14. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is given W/m2. It is incident on a perfectly reflecting surface.
by E = 100 cos(2 × 106 t – 5x) Vm–1. The average Find the radiation pressure
energy density of E.M. wave is (in S.I. unit)
(1) 3.33 × 10–9 N/m2 (2) 3.33 × 10–8 N/m2
105
(1) (3) 8.0 × 10–8 N/m2 (4) 8.0 × 10–9 N/m2
36
105 20. The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave in

(2) vaccum is represented by Ex = 0,
72
 8 x 
105 Ey = 0.5cos 2  10  t    ,Ez = 0. What is the
(3)   c 
36
direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave ?
105
(4) (1) +ve x–axis (2) +ve y–axis
72
(3) –ve z–axis (4) +ve z–axis
(181)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Electromagnetic
21. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming 23. A 100 resistance and a capacitor of 100
from the sun is 720 N/C. Find average total energy reactance are connected in series across a 220V
density of electromagnetic waves source. The peak value of the displacement current
is
(1) 5.6×10–6 J/m3 (2) 4.58×10–6 J/m3
(1) 4A
(3) 1.3×10–6 J/m3 (4) 1.56×10–6 J/m3
22. If E0 and B0 are amplitudes of electric and magnetic (2) 11 2A
field vectors in an electromagnetic wave, then the
(3) 2.2A
B0 (4) 11A
value of
E0 is (c = speed of the electromagnetic 24. The pressure exerted by an electromagnetic wave
wave) of intensity I(w/m2) on a non-reflecting surface is [C
= speed of light]
1
(1) c (2) (1) IC (2) IC2
c
I I
1 (3) (4)
(3) c 2 (4) 2 C C2
c

(182)
Chapter 23
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
1. A person is unable to see an object beyond 30cm. 7. An object ‘O’ is kept in air in front of a thin plano-
Find the power of lens in dioptre to correct the convex lens of radius of curvature 10cm. It’s
vision.
3
10 10 refractive index is and medium towards right of
 2
(1) (2)
3 3
4
plane surface is water of refractive index . What
20 20 3
(3) (4) 
3 3 should be the distance x of the object so that the
2. In a compound microscope the focal length of rays become parallel finally ?
objective lens is 1.2cm and focal length of eyepiece
is 3.0cm. When the object is kept at 1.25cm in front
x
of objective, the final image is formed at infinity.
Magnifying power of compound microscope should
be nearest to [Use D = 25cm]
O
(1) 200 (2) 100
(3) 400 (4) 150
3. An astronomical telescope consists of two convex
lenses. If focal length of objective is 1.0m and (1) 5cm (2) 10cm
angular magnification is 10, find the length of the
tube between objective and eyepiece such that final (3) 20cm (4) None of these
image is formed at infinity.
(1) 1.2m (2) 1.1m 1
8. Ratio of dispersive power of lens for achromatic
(3) 1.4m (4) 1.5m 2
4. An object is placed at a distance of 15cm from a combination of lenses is
convex lens of focal length 10cm. Find the distance
at which a convex mirror of focal length 10cm f1 f1
should be placed on the other side from the lens so (1) (2) 
f2 f2
that final image coincide with the object itself.
(1) 20cm (2) 10cm
f2 f2
(3) 15cm (4) 30cm (3) (4) 
f1 f1
5. Focal length of plano-convex glass lens of refractive
index 1.5 is 15cm. A small object is placed at A as
shown. The plane surface is silvered. The image 9. A point object ‘O’ is placed at distance of 15cm from
will be formed at concave morror between a concave and a plane
mirror separated by 25cm. Considering 1st
A reflection from concave mirror position of image after
3rd reflection will be [Radius of curvature of concave
mirror is 20cm.]
20cm
(1) 60cm to the left of lens
(3) 60cm to the right of lens P O
6. A lens made of glass of refractive index 1.5 has
focal length 25cm in air. It’s focal length in water of 15cm 10cm
4
refractive index will be
3 (1) At 20cm from P (2) At 30cm from P
(1) 25cm (2) 35cm
(3) 68cm (4) 100cm (3) At 25cm from P (4) At 40cm from P
(183)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
10. Find the deviation caused by a prism having 15. A ray of light travelling from air towards glass of
refractive index µ is incident normally. This ray
3
refracting angle 4° and refractive index µ  starts rotating at constant angular velocity 1 about
2 the point of incidence. The angular velocity of
(1) 4° (2) 3° refracted ray is 2, then
(3) 2° (4) 1° 1 1 1
(1)  (2) 
11. From the graph of angle of deviation  versus angle 2 2 µ
of incidence i, find the prism angle.  
(3) 1 2  0 (4) Both (2) and (3)

16. A ray of light travelling in a transparent medium falls
30° on a surface separating the medium from air at an
angle of incidence of 45°. The ray undergoes total
internal reflection. If n is the refractive index of the
medium with respect to air, select the possible
i
30° 60° value of n from the following
(1) 30° (2) 70° (1) 1.2 (2) 4/3
(3) 60° (4) 75° (3) 1.4 (4) 1.5
17. A point object O is placed in front of a concave
12. What should be the value of refractive index n of a mirror of focal length 10 cm. A glass slab of
glass rod placed in air, so that the light entering refractive index  = 3/2 and thickness 6 cm is
through the flat surface of the rod does not cross inserted between object and mirror. The position of
the curved surface of the rod irrespective of the final image when the distance x is 5 cm as shown
angle of incidence i ? in figure is
air
6cm
glass
O•
32cm
x
(1) n 2 (2) n 2
(1) 15 cm (2) 17 cm
(3) n 2 (4) n 5 (3) 2 cm (4) 13 cm
13. A thin glass slab of thickness ‘t’ and refractive 18. The magnifying power of a microscope with an
index µ2 is inserted between an object ‘O’ and an objective of 5 mm focal length is 400. The length of
observer both of which are in a medium of refractive its tube is 20 cm. The focal length of eye piece is
index µ1. Calculate the shift for the given object. _____ (final image formed at infinity)
(1) 200 cm (2) 150 cm
µ1 (3) 2.5 cm (4) 0.15 cm
O µ2
u 19. A cylindrical lens is required to correct
(eye)
t
(1) Myopia (2) Presbyopia
(3) Hypermetropia (4) Astigmatism
 µ   µ  20. W hen light of wavelength  is incident on an
(1) t 1  1  (2) t 1  2  equilateral prism kept in its minimum deviation
 µ2   µ1 
position, it is found that the angle of deviation
(3) t(1 – µ2) (4) t(1 – µ1) equals the angle of prism itself. The refractive index
of the material of the prism for the wavelength  is
14. A convex lens forms a real image on the screen
with magnification m1. If lens is moved a distance 3
x, again a real image is formed with magnification (1) 3 (2)
2
m2. Then focal length of the lens is
(3) 2 (4) 2
x x 21. The focal length of a thin convex lens for red and blue
(1) (2)
m1m2 m1m2 colours is 100.5 cm and 99.5 cm. The dispersive
power of the lens is
x (1) 0.02 (2) 1.005
(3) x|m1 – m2| (4) m1  m 2 (3) 0.995 (4) 0.01
(184)
Ray Optics and Optical Instruments Medical Q-Bank-2020
22. A luminous object and a screen are fixed distance D 27. In an astronomical telescope using objective and
apart. A converging lens of focal length capable of eyepiece of focal length 50cm and 5cm, length of
forming a real image of the object on the screen will telescope obtained is 54.5cm, when the final image
do so for two positions of the lens that are separated of a star was at distance x cm from the eyepiece.
by distance d such that Find x.
(1) 35 (2) 45
(1) d  D(D  4f) (2) d  D(D  f)
(3) 25 (4) 15
(3) d  D(D  4f) (4) d  D(2D  f ) 28. An object P is placed at a distance of 15cm from
a convex lens of focal length 10cm. On the other
23. A liquid of Refractive index 1.6 is contained in the side of the lens a convex mirror is placed at its
cavity thin of a glass specimen of refractive index 1.5 focus such that the final image formed by the
as shown in the figure. If each of the curved surface combination coincides with the object itself. The
has radius of curvature of 0.20 m then the arrangement focal length of convex mirror is -
behaves as a
• 15cm
•• •
10cm
• •••• • • Glass
• •
• •• •• •• •
• • • •• P
• • • •• • Liquid
•• • •• • ••
• •• •• • •• (1) 20cm (2) 10cm
• •
•• (3) 15cm (4) 30cm
(1) Converging lens of focal length 0.25 m 29. A plano convex lens of focal length 10cm and
(2) Diverging lens of focal length 0.23m 3
µ is silvered at it’s plane face. The distance d
(3) Diverging lens of focal length 0.17m 2
(4) Converging lens of focal length 0.72m at which an object O must be placed in order to get
24. In the figure, an air lens of radii of curvature 10 cm it’s image on itself is -
(R1 = R2 = 10 cm) is cut in a cylinder of glass (
= 3/2). The focal length and the nature of the lens
is
O
Air
d
(1) 5cm (2) 20cm

(1) 15 cm, convex
(3) 10cm (4) 2.5cm
(2) 15 cm, concave
30. Two plano – convex lenses each of focal length
(3) , neither concave nor convex
(4) 0, concave 3
10cm and refractive index are placed as shown.
25. A presbyopic old patient has near point 30cm. The 2
optical power for the corrective lens for seeing  4
object placed at normal near point (25cm) is - Water    is filled in the space between the
 3 
5 2 two lenses. The whole arrangement is in air. The
(1) D (2) D
2 5 optical power of the system in diopters is -
2 3
(3) D (4) D 4
3 2 
3
26. A compound microscope uses an objective lens of
focal length 4cm and eyepiece of focal length 3
10cm. An object is placed 6cm from the objective 
3 2
lens. Calculate the maximum magnifying power of 
2
the compound microscope. (Assume normal near
point is at 25cm)
(1) 6.67 (2) – 6.67
(1) –2 (2) –7
(3) 33.3 (4) 20
(3) –4 (4) –8
(185)
31. A mark M placed on the surface of a glass sphere 36. A ray enters a medium of variable refractive index
is viewed through glass from diametrically opposite at origin such that the refractive index varies with y
end. If diameter of sphere is 10cm and refractive co-ordinate as -
index of glass 1.5, find position of image from
centre of sphere.  a 
µ  µ0   , where µ0 and a are positive constants
ay
y
M
(1) 15cm (2) 20cm

x
(3) 10cm (4) 25cm 60°
32. To produce an achromatic combination, convex lens

of focal length 42cm and dispersive power 0.14 is
placed in contact with a concave lens of dispersive
Find the y co-ordinate of the point after which the
power 0.21. The focal length of concave lens is -
ray becomes parallel to x - axis.
(1) 60cm (2) 63cm
(1) a (2) 2a
(3) 50cm (4) 80cm
33. There is a point object placed in front of a plane a  2 
(3) (4)   1 a
mirror. If the mirror is displaced by 10cm away 2  3 
from the object, find the distance by which image
will get displaced ? 37. Find the apparent depth of an object O placed at
the bottom of a beaker as shown, in which two
(1) 10cm (2) 5cm layers of transparent liquids are filled
(3) 15cm (4) 20cm
34. A ray of light incident at an angle  on the refracting

face of a prism emerges from the other face h1=25cm µ1=1.5
normally. If angle of the prism is 5° and it’s µ2=2.5
h2=15cm
refractive index is 1.5, the angle of incidence is
nearly O
(1) 7.5° (2) 5° (1) 20cm (2) 24.60cm

(3) 15° (4) 2.5° (3) 22.67cm (4) 26.82cm
35. What should be the maximum value of  such that 38. The distance between a real object and its real
light entering normally through the surface A C of a image formed by a convex lens is d. If the
 3 magnification is m, the focal length is
prism µ  2  does not cross the second
 
md md
refracting surface A B ? (1) 2 (2)
 m  1 m 1
A
 md md
(3) 2 (4)
m  1 m  1

C B 39. A compound microscope has a magnifying power of
400 when the image is formed at infinity. The
objective has a focal length of 0.5 cm and the tube
 1  1 length is 18 cm. The focal length of eye piece is
(1) cos1   (2) cos1  
4 (Normal near point is 25 cm)
3
(1) 5.5 cm (2) 9.5 cm
21  1
1
(3) cos   (4) cos   (3) 15.5 cm (4) 2.25 cm
3 5
(186)
40. An astronomical telescope is to be designed to 45. Two plane mirror are inclined at angle  as shown
have a magnifying power of 50 in normal in figure. If a ray parallel to OB strikes the other
adjustment. If the length of the tube is 102 cm, then mirror at P and finally emerges parallel to OA after
power of the objective and the eyepiece two reflections, then ‘’ is equal to
respectively is
A
(1) 1D, 40D (2) 1D, 50D P
(3) 50D, 1D (4) 2D, 50D

41. An equiconvex lens is prepared from glass ( = 1.5) O B
having radius of curvature 25 cm. One of the (1) 90° (2) 60°
surface is silvered from outside. Where should an
object be placed before this lens so that image is (3) 45° (4) 30°
formed on the object itself 46. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass
(1) 12.5 cm (2) 25 cm prism in such a manner that the angle of incidence
is equal to the angle of emergence and each of
(3) 100 cm (4) 125 cm
th
42. A convex lens and a concave mirror having equal 3
these angle is equal to   of the angle of prism.
focal length are placed at a distance d apart. A 4
point source of light is placed at a distance of 2f The angle of deviation is
from the lens on the other side. The seperation
between lens and mirror is in such a way that final (1) 45° (2) 70°
image of the source is on the source itself. The (3) 39° (4) 30°
value of d is
47. Critical angle of glass air interface is 1 and that of
(1) 2f water air interface is 2. The critical angle for glass
(2) 4f  3 4
and water interface would be   g  , w  
(3) f  2 3
(4) both (1) and (2) are possible (1) less than 2 (2) between 1 and 2
43. A convex lens, made of a material of refractive (3) greater than 2 (4) less than 1
index 1.5 and having a focal length of 10 cm, is
immersed in a liquid of refractive index 3.0. The lens 48. A tank contains a transparent liquid of refractive
will behave as a index . The bottom of the tank is a plane mirror
as shown. A person at P looks at an object O and
(1) Converging lens of focal length 10 cm its image in the mirror. The distance between the
(2) Diverging lens of focal length 10 cm object and its image in the mirror as perceived by
the person is
10
(3) Converging lens of focal length cm P
3
(4) Diverging lens of focal length 30 cm
44. In a spherical paper weight (R = 10 cm) made of O H
glass of refractive index  = 1.5 and object is d
embedded at a distance 5 cm from its centre.
What is the apparent position of the object when
seen from the opposite side ? 2d
(1) 2d (2)

R
2    d d
O C (3) (4)
 
5 cm = 3
2 49. Minimum distance between object and screen in
(1) 10 cm behind centre lens displacement method to form the real image
on screen is (‘f’ is the focal length of lens)
(2) 10 cm behind P
(1) 2f (2) 3f
(3) 15 cm behind centre
(3) 4f (4) 5f
(4) 5 cm behind P
(187)
50. A thin rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal 55. A glass lens ( = 1.5) of focal length 20 cm in air
axis of a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20
 4
cm in such a way that the end closer to the pole is dipped in water     . Now focal length of the
of mirror is at distance 20 cm away from it. The  3
length of the image of the rod will be lens is
(1) 10 cm (2) 5 cm (1) 80 cm (2) 60 cm
(3) 8 cm (4) 15 cm (3) 40 cm (4) 20 cm
51. An object is placed at a distance x from the focus 56. An combination of a concave and convex lens has
of a concave mirror of focal length f. Find the power 5 D. If the magnitude of focal length of
distance of image formed from the focus concave lens is 100 cm, the power of convex lens
is
f2 x2 (1) 1 D (2) 2 D
(1) (2)
x f (3) 4 D (4) 6 D
57. An isotropic point source of light is placed at a
fx depth h below the water surface. A floating opaque
(3) fx (4)
x f disc is placed on the surface of water, so that the
source is not visible from the surface. The minimum
52. An object and a screen are kept at a distance of radius of the disc is (R.I. of water = )
120 cm. A lens is kept between them so that a real
image is formed on the screen for two different h h
positions of the lens. Difference between the (1) 2 (2)
positions of the lens is 60 cm. The focal length of  1 1  2
the lens is
h h
(1) 22.5 cm (2) 45 cm (3) 2 (4) 2
 1  1
(3) 20 cm (4) 20.5 cm
58. In an equilateral prism, minimum deviation occurs
53. White light is incident on the interface of glass and
for an angle of incidence 60°. The refractive index
air as shown in the figure. If green light just
of the prism is
undergoes total internal reflection, then the
emerging ray in air contains
(1) 2 (2) 3
2 3
Air Green (3) (4)
3 2
Glass
59. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image
White formed is
(1) Virtual, erect and magnified
(1) Yellow, orange, red
(2) Real, inverted and diminished
(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours (3) Virtual, erect and diminished
(4) All colours except green (4) Real, inverted and magnified
54. In a vessel two insoluble liquids are filled as shown 60. The focal length of eye piece of a telescope is 3
in the figure. The effective refractive index of the cm. To obtain the magnification of 20, the focal
combination for normal view is length of objective may be
(1) 10 cm (2) 30 cm
9 (3) 50 cm (4) 60 cm
= 10 cm
7
61. An astronomical telescope for normal adjustment
has magnitude of magnifying power 24 and tube
5
= 10 cm length 150 cm. The focal lengths of eye piece and
4
objective lens are respectively
(1) 1.33 (2) 1.26 (1) 144 cm and 6 cm (2) 120 cm and 30 cm
(3) 1.45 (4) 1.58 (3) 6 cm and 144 cm (4) 30 cm and 120 cm
(188)
62. A point object is placed in front of a concave mirror 67. A glass slab of refracctive index 2 is sandwiched
between F and 2F and m is the magnification. Now between two transparent slabs of refractive indices
the mirror is split into two parts and are displaced 2  and 3  respectively as shown in the figure.
in transverse direction by a distance y opposite to
What should be the minimum angle of incidence (i)
each other. Distance between two images formed is for which light once entered into it will not leave it
(1) m y (2) (m–1) y through the lateral faces ?
2
(3) (m+1) y (4) m  1 y
air
2
63. In a simple microscope (f=6 cm), the final image is
produced at infinity. Eye is placed at a distance of
r ay
1 cm behind the lens. D=25 cm. Magnification nt
e
produced is cid
in 3
(1) 6 (2) 5.5


(3) 5.0 (4) 4 (1) sin1  
2
64. To get four images of an object placed
symmetrically between two plane mirrors, the angle
between the mirrors must be (2) sin1  3 
(1) 90° (2) 36°
(3) sin1  2 
(3) 72° (4) 120°
65. ABC is a right angled prism of transparent material (4) sin1   

of refractive index , such that B is smaller than
A, as shown in figure. A ray of light incident 68. The focal lengths of the lenses of an astronomical
normally on the face AB emerges parallel to the telescope are 50 cm and 5 cm. If the image is
incident ray after two internal reflections, then the formed at the least distance of clear vision, then the
minimum value of  is length of the telescope is
275 325
(1) cm (2) cm
6 6
A B (3) 55 cm (4) 45 cm
69. In displacement method, there are two positions of

a lens for which two distinct images are formed on
C a screen. First position of the lens is at a distance
of x from the object and second is at a distance
2x, the focal length of the lens is
1 1
(1) (2)
sin A sinB
sin A
(3) (4) sin A sin B O
sinB (object)
66. The radius of the objective lens of a telescope is 5 x
cm and wavelength of light is 5000Å. The telescope 2x
is situated at a distance of 1 km from two objects.
The minimum distance between the two objects,
which can be resolved by the telescope is x
(1) (2) 2x
approximately 3
(1) 0.6 m (2) 6 m

2x
(3) 6 mm (4) 6 cm (3) (4) 6x
3
(189)
70. The bottom of the beaker is silvered which contains 73. A convex lens makes a real image 4 cm long on
a screen. W hen the lens is shifted to a new
4 position without disturbing the object or the screen,
water of refractive index upto a height 2H.
3 we again get a real image on the screen which is
A fish is at a height H from the bottom of the 9cm long. The length of object must be
beaker. At what distances from him, of the fish its (1) 2.25 cm (2) 6 cm
image appear to a man whose eyes are at a (3) 10 cm (4) 12 cm
height H from the surface of water.
74. In the figure shown, For an angle of incidence 45°C,
at the top surface, what is the minimum refractive
eye of man index needed so that no light will emerge from
vertical face AD?
H
45°
A B
2H
D C
2 1 1
10H 4H (1) (2)
(1) , 5H (2) , 4H 2 2
3 3
3
(3) (4) 2
3H 9H 7H 13H 2
(3) , (4) ,
4 4 4 4
75. The plane face of a Plano convex lens of glass (
71. A convex lens of focal length 15 cm and a concave
=3/2) having focal length 20 cm is silvered. What
mirror of focal length 10 cm are placed with their
type of mirror will it become and of what focal
common principal axis. A point source S is placed length f?
on the principal axis at a distance of 30 cm from
the lens as shown. If the final rays are parallel to (1) Convex, f = 20cm
the principal axis, then the separation between the (2) Concave f = 20cm
mirror and lens is (no virtual image is formed
anywhere). (3) Convex, f = 10cm
(4) Concave, f = 10cm
76. A small pin fixed on a table top is viewed from
S above from a distance of 50cm. By what distance
would the pin appear to be raised if it is viewed from
the same point through a 15cm thick glass slab
3
held parallel to table? (R.I of glass = )
(1) 10 cm (2) 15 cm 2
(3) 30 cm (4) 45 cm (1) 15cm (2) 10cm

(3) 5cm (4) 35cm
72. An achromatic convergent lens of focal length +20
cm is made of two lenses (in contact) of materials 77. A luminious point is moving with speed V0 towards
having dispersive powers in the ratio of 1 : 2 and a spherical mirror, along its axis, then the speed at
having focal lengths f1 and f2 respectively. Which of which the image of this point object is moving is
the following is true? given by
(1) f1 = 10 cm, f2 = –20 cm R 

(1) Vi = –V0 (2) Vi   V0  
(2) f1 = 20 cm, f2 = 10 cm  R 
2u
(3) f1 = –10 cm, f2 = –20 cm 2

(3)
 2u  R   R 
(4) f1 = 20 cm f2 = –10 cm
Vi   V0   (4) Vi   V0  
 R   2u  R 
(190)
78. For an astronomical telescope magnification 84. For the given figure the possible value of  for which
produced in normal adjustment is 10 and length of image is formed on the right of sphere at a distance
telescope is 1.1m. The magnification produced R from the sphere is
when image formed at least distance of distinct
vision is (object) 
O
(1) 14 (2) 18 R
R
(3) 16 (4) 6
(1) 1.5 (2) 1.33
79. A long sighted person has a minimum distance of
distinct vision of 50 cm. He wants to reduce it to (3) 2 (4) 2.5
25 cm. He should use a
85. A convex lens of focal length f 1 and dispersive
(1) Convex lens of focal length 50 cm power 1 is combined with a concave lens of focal
length f 2 and dispersive power 2 is such a way
(2) Convex lens of focal length 25 cm that an achromatic doublet of focal length 40 cm is
(3) Concave lens of focal length 50 cm 1 2
obtained. If 
2 3 then f 1 and f 2 in cm are
(4) Concave lens of focal length 25 cm
respectively
80. In compound microscope, the magnification is 95
to least distance of ditinct vision, and the distance
40 40
1 (1)  , 20 (2) 20, 
3 3
of object from objective lens is cm and focal
3.8
1 40 40
length of objective is cm. W hat is the (3) , –20 (4) –20,
4 3 3
magnification of eye-piece when final image is
86. An object and a concave mirror of focal length 20
formed at least distance of distinct vision
cm approach each other with a speed of 1 cm/s
(1) 5 (2) 10 and 2 cm/sec respectively. At the instant when the
object is at a distance of 15 cm from the mirror the
(3) 100 (4) None of these speed of image is
81. An astronomical telescope has an angular (1) 50 cm/sec (2) 18 cm/sec

magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects.
The focal length of objective and the eye piece are (3) 16 cm/sec (4) 8 cm/sec
30 cm and 6 cm respectively. Then the length of
87. In a thin prism of glass (g = 1.5) which of the
the tube of telescope will be
following relations between the angle of minimum
(1) 36 cm (2) 30 cm deviation m and angle of prism r will be correct
(3) 5 cm (4) 150 cm (1) m = r (2) m = 1.5r
82. The distance between an object and a screen in r

lens displacement method is 96 cm. The ratio of (3) m = 2r (4) m =
2
length of two images formed by a convex lens
placed between them is 4.84. The focal length of 88. A ray is incident on face PQ at an angle of 45°. The
the lens is refracted ray undergoes reflection on face PR and
(1) 24 cm (2) 20.6 cm retraces it’s path. The refractive index of the prism
is
(3) 22 cm (4) 14.4 cm P
83. The focal length of a biconvex lens in air is 10 cm. 30°
If it is dipped in water then it’s focal length will be
Q R
4
(L = 1.5,  = )
3 3
(1) 2 (2)
(1) 10 cm (2) –10 cm 2
(3) 40 cm (4) –40 cm (3) 1.5 (4) 1.33
(191)
89. A vessel having perfectly reflecting plane bottom is 96. Spherical aberration in a thin lens can be reduced
by
 4
filled with water    to a depth d. A point
 3  (1) Using monochromatic light
source of light is placed at a height h above the (2) Using a doublet combination
surface of water. The distance of final image from (3) Using a circular annular mask over the lens
water surface is
(4) Increasing the size of lens
d
(1) h+d (2) h 
2  4
97. In a tank a 4 cm thick layer of water   
 3 
3 3
(3) h  d (4) h  d floats on a 6 cm thick layer of an organic liquid (
4 2 = 1.50). Viewing at normal incidence, how far below
90. The total number of images formed by the two plane the water surface does the bottom of tank appear
mirrors as shown will be to be
(1) 4 cm (2) 5 cm
36° O (3) 6 cm (4) 7 cm
36°
98. If the core and cladding of an optical fibre have
(1) 4 (2) 5 refractive indexes 1.39 and 1.3, it’s numerical
(3) 6 (4) 7 aperture will be approx
91. A far sighted person has his near point 50 cm. Find (1) 0.5 (2) 0.6
the power of lens he should use to see at 25 cm
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.7
clearly
(1) +1D (2) +2D 99. At what angle a ray of light should incident on face
AB so that it retraces it’s path after reflection from
(3) –2D (4) –1D silvered face AC
92. A microscope has an objective of 5 mm focal A
length and eye-piece of 30 mm focal length and the
magnification is 250. Then the length of the
microscope for normal adjustment will be 30°
(1) 150 mm (2) 50 mm C

= 2
(3) 100 mm (4) 75 mm
93. A telescope has an objective lens of focal length B
200 cm and eye-piece with focal length 2 cm. If this (1) 30° (2) 45°
telescope is used to see a 50m tall building at a (3) 60° (4) 90°
distance of 2 km, what is the height of the image
of the building formed by the objective lens for 100. A bulb is placed at a depth of 2 7 m inside water
normal adjustment ? and a floating opaque disc is placed over the bulb
(1) 5 cm (2) 10 cm so that the bulb is not visible from the surface. The
minimum diameter of the disc is (Refractive index
(3) 1 cm (4) 2 cm
of water is 4/3)
94. An equiconvex lens of focal length f is cut into two
(1) 6m (2) 9m
equal parts. In 1st case it is cut perpendicular to
principal axis and in 2nd case it is cut parallel to (3) 12m (4) 14m
principal axis. Then the focal length of both piece 101. An object and a plane mirror are approaching each
in the two cases will be respectively other with a speed of 2m/sec and 1m/sec
respectively. The velocity of image will be
(1) 2f, f (2) 2f, 2f
(1) 4m/sec (2) 2m/sec
f f (3) 3m/sec (4) 6m/sec
(3) , (4) f, 2f
2 2 102. An object is placed at 50 cm from a concave mirror
95. A small object is stuck on the surface of a glass of focal length 25 cm. The image is
sphere ( = 1.5) of radius 20 cm. It is viewed from (1) Real, inverted and diminished
the diametrically opposite position. The position of
image from centre will be (2) Real, inverted and same in size
(1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm (3) Virtual, erect and diminished

(3) 20 cm (4) 80 cm (4) Virtual, erect and enlarged
(192)
103. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. An

109. The refractive index of a prism is 2 . If the angle
object is placed at a distance 30 cm from its focal
of prism is 60°, at what angle a ray must be
point. The ratio of the size of the real image to the
incident on it so that it suffers minimum deviation?
object is
(1) 30° (2) 45°
2 2
(1) (2) (3) 90° (4) 60°
3 9
110. In a compound microscope, the lateral
4 magnifications of objective lens is 5 and magnifying
3
(3) (4) power of eyepiece is 2, then magnifying power for
3 2 compound microscope for normal adjustment will be
104. Value of  21  32   43  54  15 will be– (symbols (1) 2.5 (2) 10
have their usual meaning) (3) 2 (4) 5
(1) 2 (2) 1 111. The minimum magnifying power of a telescope is
100. If the focal length of eye piece becomes one-
(3) 1 (4) 21
third, the minimum magnifying power will becomes
105. When a lens of power P0 and refractive index  is
kept in a medium of refractive index 0, its power (1) 300 (2) 100 3
will be
100
P0  (3) (4) 900
(1) P0 (2) 3
0
112. If tube length of astronomical telescope is 95 cm
P0  P0 (  0 ) and magnifying power is 18 for normal adjustment,
(3) (4) the focal length of eyepiece is
(  1) 0 (  1)(0 )
(1) 90 cm (2) 5 cm
106. A person having near point 40 cm uses a reading
lens of focal length 10 cm. The maximum (3) 20 cm (4) 25 cm
magnification he can obtain is
113. W hich of the following pair can produce erect,
(1) 4 (2) 5 diminished and virtual image?
(3) 3.5 (4) Infinity
(1) Convex mirror and concave lens
107. A system of two concavo-convex glass system as
shown in the figure of radius of curvature 50 cm (2) Convex lens and convex mirror
3 4 (3) Convex lens and concave mirror

each and respective refractive indices and .
2 3 (4) Concave lens and concave mirror
The focal length of the system is 114. In a compound microscope, the focal length of two
3 lenses are 1.5cm and 6.25 cm. If an object is
=
2 placed at 2cm from objective and final image is
4 formed at 25cm from eye lens, the distance
= between the two lenses is
3
(1) 6cm (2) 7.75cm
(3) 9.25cm (4) 11cm
115. A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-
(1) 25 cm (2) 100 cm concave lens. Their plane surface are parallel to
(3) Zero (4) Infinite each other. If lenses are made of different materials
of refractive index µ 1 and µ 2 and R is radius of
108. One of the refracting surfaces of a prism of angle
curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then
30º is silvered. A ray of light incident at certain
focal length of the combination is
angle retraces its path. If the refractive index of the
material of the prism is 3 , the angle of incidence R R
of the ray is (1) 2 µ1  µ2  (2)
µ1  µ2 
(1) 30º (2) 45º
1 2R R
(3) 60º (4) 22 º (3) (4)
2 µ1  µ2  2 µ1  µ2 
(193)
116. Two lenses in contact form an achromatic lens and 120. The optical fibres have an inner core of refractive
their focal lengths are in the ratio 2:3. Their index n1 and a cladding of refractive index n2,
dispersive powers must be in the ratio of such that
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 2 : 3
(1) n1 = n2 (2) n1  n2
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 1
117. A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and (3) n1 < n2 (4) n1 > n2
radius of curvature 30cm is silvered at the curved
surface. Now this lens has been used to form the 121. A prism ABC of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in
image of an object. At what distance from this lens 4
an object be placed in order to have a real image water of refractive index as shown in figure. A
3
of the size of the object?
ray of light incident normally on face AB is totally
(1) 20 cm (2) 30 cm
reflected at face AC if
(3) 60 cm (4) 80 cm
118. Let the transverse magnification poduced by
spherical mirror be m. Then the same position of
small object along principal axis and mirror the B A
longitudinal magnification will be 
(1) m (2) m
C
1
(3) m 2 (4)
m
119. An object is placed at 15 cm from a convex lens 8 2
(1) sin   (2) sin  
of focal length 10 cm. At what distance from lens 9 3
another convex mirror of radius 12 cm be placed
such that final image will coincide with object?
3 2 8
(1) 18cm (2) 17cm (3) sin   (4)  sin  
(3) 14cm (4) 20cm 2 3 9

(194)
Chapter 24
Wave Optics
1. The light waves having wave equations y 1 = 8. In a YDSE how many maxima can be obtained on
10Sin(t – kx) and y2 = 5Sin(kx – t + ) interfere. screen (excluding central maxima) on both sides of
The ratio of maximum to the minimum intensity of central fringe if  = 2000Å and d = 7000Å?
light in the interference pattern is
(1) 12 (2) 6
(1) 9 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 18 (4) 9
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 81 : 1
9. In the far field diffraction pattern of a single slit under
2. First diffraction minima due to slit of width 1.0 × 10–
5cm polychromatic illumination, the first dark fringe of
is at 30°. Then wavelength of light used is
wavelength 1 is found to be coincident with the
(1) 400Å (2) 500Å third bright fringe of 2. Which of the following is
correct?
(3) 600Å (4) 700Å
3. When white light is incident normally on an oil film (1) 31 = 0.32 (2) 61 = 2
of thickness 10–4cm and refractive index 1.4 then (3) 1 = 3.52 (4) 62 = 1
the wavelength which will be seen in the reflected
system of light 10. A light has amplitude A after coming out from
polariser. Angle between transmission axis of
(1) 7000Å (2) 8000Å
analyser and polariser is 60°. Light passing through
(3) 5600Å (4) All of these analyser has amplitude
4. For what distance is ray optics a good

approximation when a plane light wave is incident
A
(1) 2A (2)
on a slit aperture of width 2mm having wavelength 2
600nm ?
(1) 6m (2) 8m 3A A
(3) (4)
2 2
(3) 6.7m (4) 4m
5. What is the approximate radius of the central bright 11. The diameter of the objective lens of a telescope is
diffraction spot of light of wavelength  = 0.5µm, if 5.0 m and wavelength of light is 6000Å. The limit of
focal length of the lens is 20cm and radius of resolution of this telescope will be (1° = 3600)
aperture of the lens is 5cm?
(1) 0.03 (2) 3.03
(1) 1.22µm (2) 2.30µm
(3) 0.06 (4) 0.15
(3) 4.22µm (4) 6.23µm
12. Huygens’ principle of secondary wavelets may not
6. An unpolarized light passes through 2 polarizer. If be used to
the intensity of the transmitted light is 20% that of
the original light, what is the angle between the (1) Find the new position of a wavefront
transmission axes of the 2 polarizing sheets ? (2) Explain Snell’s law
(1) Cos1 0.3 (2) Cos1 0.4 (3) Explain laws of reflection
(4) Explain particle behaviour of light

(3) Cos1 0.6 (4) Cos1 0.7
13. It is found that when waves from two identical
7. In Youngs double slit experiment, if the widths of coherent sources superpose at certain point with
the slit are in the ratio 4:9, ratio of intensity of same individual intensity, then the resultant intensity
maxima to intensity of minima will be (width of slit is equal to the intensity of one wave only. This
is directly proportional to amplitude of interfering means that phase difference between the two waves
waves) at that point is
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 9 : 4 (1) Zero (2) /3
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 81 : 16 (3) 2/3 (4) 
(195)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Waves Optics
14. Two slits are separated by a distance of 1 mm are 20. In Young’s double slit experiment, interference
illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 10–7 pattern is found to have an intensity ratio between
metre. The interference fringes are observed on a bright and dark fringes as 9. Then amplitude ratio
screen placed 1 metre away from the slits. The of the wave reaching the screen from two sources
distance between 3rd dark fringe and fifth bright is -
fringe is equal to
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 0.65 mm (2) 1.63 mm (3) 9 (4) 3
(3) 3.23 m (4) 4.68 mm 21. A beam of monochromatic green light is diffracted
by a slit of width 0.550mm. The diffraction pattern
15 When a thin transparent plate of thickness t and forms on a wall 2.06m beyond the slit. The distance
refractive index  is placed in the path of one of the between the positions of zero intensity on both
two interfering beam of light, then path difference sides of central bright fringe is 4.10mm. Wavelength
between two waves at the position central maxima of the light used is
is
(1) 400nm (2) 525nm
(1) ( + 1)t (2) ( – 1)t
(3) 642nm (4) 547nm
22. A soap bubble 250nm thick is illuminated by white
   1 light. The index of refraction of the soap bubble is
(3) (4) t
t 1.36. W hich wavelength is missing in range of
visible light for reflected rays ?
16. The minimum thickness of a soap bubble film ( =
1.33) that results in constructive interference in the (1) 300nm (2) 600nm
reflected light if the film is illuminated with light (3) 400nm (4) 680nm
whose wavelength in free space is  = 600 nm is
23. Maximum distance from diffraction slit of slit width
(1) 112.50 nm (2) 225.26 nm a upto which ray optics holds for wavelength  is-
(3) 400 nm (4) 176.5 nm a2 3

(1) (2)
17. The light of wavelength 6328Å is incident on a slit  a2
of width 0.2 mm perpendicularly, the angular fringe
width of central maxima will be a3 2
(3) (4)
(1) 0.36° (2) 0.18° 2 a
(3) 0.72° (4) 0.09° 24. A light of wavelength 5000Å is coming from distant
star. What is the limit of resolution of a telescope
18. The diameter of the objective of a telescope is a, whose objective has a diameter of 200cm ?
its magnifying power is m and wavelength of light (1) 3.05 × 10–7rad (2) 6.6 × 10–7rad
is . The resolving power of the telescope is
(3) 8 × 10–7rad (4) 2.23 × 10–7rad
1.22 a 25. A poloroid sheet and an analyzer are placed such
(1) (2) that their transmission axes are parallel. The
a 1.22
analyzer is then rotated by 22.5°. W hat is the
intensity of the transmitted light as a fraction of
m a
(3) (4) intensity of light incident on analyser ?
1.22a 1.22m
(1) 0.45 (2) 0.68
19. A beam of unpolarised light passes through a (3) 0.41 (4) 0.87
tourmaline crystal A and then it passes through a
second tourmaline crystal B oriented so that its 26. The observed wavelength of light coming from a
principal is parallel to that of A. The intensity of the distant galaxy is found to increase by 0.5% as
emergent light is Io. Now B is rotated by 45° about compared with that coming from a terrestrial source.
the ray. The emergent light have intensity The galaxy is
(1) Stationary with respect to earth
Io Io (2) Approaching earth with a velocity of 1.5 ×
(1) (2)
4 2 106m/s
(3) Receding from earth with velocity of light
Io Io
(3) (4) (4) Receding from earth with a velocity equal to 1.5
2 2 2 × 106 m/s
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Waves Optics Medical Q-Bank-2020
27. In young double slit experiment, D equals the 33. Young’s double slit experiment is performed with
distance of screen from slits and d is the separation light of wavelength 5000 Å. If a glass plate of
between the slits. The distance of the nearest point thickness 1 m and refractive index 1.5 is kept in
to the central maxima where intensity is same as front of one of the slits, then number of fringes that
that due to a single slit, is equal to passes through the field of view, is
(1) 1 (2) 2
D D
(1) (2) (3) 3 (4) 4
d 2d
34. In YDSE, distance between two slits is 4 mm, D
D 2D = 1 m and  = 12000 Å. If intensity of coherent
(3) (4) light from two slits are I 0 and 16 I 0 , then find
3d d
intensity at y = 0.1 mm, on the screen
28. Consider the arrangement shown in figure. The
(1) 7 I0 (2) 10 I0
distance D is large compared to the seperation d
between the slits. A monochromatic beam of light (3) 13 I0 (4) 16 I0
of wavelength ‘’ falls on the slit as shown. Find the 35. Two polarising sheets are placed with their planes
distance x at which the first order bright fringe is parallel, so that light intensity transmitted is
formed maximum. Through what angle must either sheet
P be turned so that light intensity drops to half the
x maximum value?
Incident d (1) 30° (2) 45°
O
ray (3) 60° (4) 90°
 I1 
D screen
D 36. The intensity ratio   of the two interfering waves
 I2 
D 2D
(1) (2)
d d  Imax 
in a Young’s experiment is 4. The ratio   in
 Imin 
3 D D  d2
(3) (4) resulting wave is
2 d d
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
29. Angular width of central maximum in the
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
Fraunhoffer’s diffraction pattern is measured. Slit is
illuminated by the light of wavelength 6000 Å. If slit 37. When angle of incidence on a material is 60°, the
is illuminated by light of another wavelength angular reflected light is completely polarized. The velocity
width decreases by 30% wavelength of light used of the refracted ray inside the material is,
is
(1) 3 × 108 m/s (2) 3 × 108 m/s
(1) 3500 Å (2) 4200 Å
(3) 4700 Å (4) 6000 Å 3
30. A person with normal vision can just resolve two (3) 1.5 × 108 m/s (4) × 108 m/s
2
poles separated by a distance of 10m. If the limit
of resolution be 1, then the distance of the poles 38. Light from n incoherent sources of intensity I, 2I, 3I
from the person is .... nI are super imposed in a region. Resultant
(1) 34 km (2) 3.4 km intensity at a point in the region of superposition
(3) 34 m (4) 3.4 m will be
31. A ray of light is incident on the surface of a glass (1) Zero
plate of refractive index 3 at the polarising angle. (2) nI
The angle of refraction is
(1) 60° (2) 30°
n  n  1
(3) I
(3) 45° (4) 50° 2
32. When a thin film is illuminated by a parallel beam (4) Can not be determined
of light of wavelength 6000 Å,
39. A spaceship is moving with a velocity 10 8 m/s
7 fringes are observed in a certain region of the
film. How many fringes will be observed in the towards a star that emits radiations of wavelength
same region of the film if light of wavelength 4200 6000 A°. The wavelength of radiation received by the
Å is used? crew in the spaceship will be
(1) 6 (2) 10 (1) 4000 A° (2) 4500 A°
(3) 14 (4) 18 (3) 5500 A° (4) 6500 A°
(197)
40. Two polariser have polarising directions parallel to 44. Between two coherent waves phase difference at a
each other so as to transmit maximum intensity. particular position is:
By keeping one of the polariser fixed, other is
(1)   x     t 
rotated through different angles(). The graph which
represents the variation of transmitted intensity
(2)   t   cons tan t
versus  is
(3)   x     t   cons tan t
I I
(1)  (2)  (4)   x   cons tan t

45. Two coherent waves of intensities I and 4I
superpose, then the maximum and minimum
I I intensities produced are
(1) 5I and 3I (2) 9I and I
(3)  (4)  (3) 9I and 3I (4) 5I and I
46. In young’s double slit experiment the y-co-
41. A star is emitting radiation of wavelength 5000Å. ordinates of central maxima and 10th maxima are
The star is approaching the earth with a velocity of 2cm and 5cm respectively. W hen the YDSE
1.5×105 m/s. The change in the wavelength of the apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index
radiation as received on the earth is 1.5 the corresponding y co-ordinates will be
(1) 2cm, 7.5cm (2) 2cm, 4cm
(1) 25 Å (2) 100 Å
(3) 3cm, 6cm (4) 3cm, 7.5cm
(3) 2.5 Å (4) Zero 47. In young’s double slit experiment the two slits are
42. When light of particular wavelength falls on a plane d distance apart. Interference pattern is observed
surface at an angle of incidence of 60°, the on a screen at a distance D from the slits. A dark
fringe is observed on the screen directly opposite to
reflected light becomes completely plane polarised.
one of the slit. The wavelength of light may be
The refractive index and the critical angle of the
material are respectively D2 d2
(1) (2)
2d 2D
1  1 
(1) 3,sin1  3 (2)
3
,sin1 
 3

D2 d2
(3) (4)
d D
1  1 
(3)
3
,sin1  3 (4) 3,sin1 
 3
 48. A parallel beam of mono chromatic light of
wavelength 5000 A° is incident normally on a single
narrow slit of width 0.001 mm. The light is focused
43. In a double slit experiment, n fringes are observed by a convex lens on a screen placed on the focal
to be formed on a screen, placed at a distance D plane. The first minimum will be formed for the
from the slits, when light of wavelength  is used. angle of diffraction equal to
Now the screen starts moving from rest with (1) 30° (2) 60°
constant acceleration a. Then the time after which
(3) 15° (4) 0°
the first maxima disappears from screen and the
49. A telescope, whose objective lens has an aperture
direction of motion of screen are respectively
of 1mm for the wavelength of light 500A°, then limit
of resolution of the telescope is:
2D  n  1 (1) 2.1 × 10–4 rad (2) 4.1 × 10–4 rad
(1) , away from slits
a (3) 5.1 × 10–4 rad (4) 6.1 × 10–4 rad
50. A ray of light is incident on a glass plate at the
2D  n  1 polarising angle 57°. Then (Given  = tan57°)
(2) , towards slits
a (1) The reflected ray and transmitted ray both will
be completely polarised
(2) The reflected ray will be completely polarised
2D  n  1 and the transmitted ray will be partially
(3) , away from slits
a polarised
(3) The reflected ray will be partially polarised and
the transmitted ray will be completely polarised.
2D  n  1
(4) , towards slits (4) The reflected and transmitted both rays will be
a partially polarised
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Waves Optics Medical Q-Bank-2020
51. Which of the following phenomena is not explained 58. A star is going away from the earth. Then it shows
by Huygen’s construction of wavefront.
(1) Red shift (2) Blue shift
(1) Refraction (2) Reflection
(3) Yellow shift (4) Green shift
(3) Diffraction (4) Origin of spectrum
59. Two light sources are coherent when
52. The equivalent path length in air for thickness t of
a medium of refractive index  is (1) Their amplitudes are equal
(1) t (2) (–1)t (2) Their frequencies are equal
t    1 t (3) Their wavelengths are equal

(3) (4)
 1  (4) Their frequencies are equal and their phase
difference is constant
53. When a YDSE is performed using a monochromatic
source of light, fringe width is found to be 1.2 mm. 60. In a Young’s double slit experiment using a
The minimum distance above central maxima at which monochromatic light the fringe width is 4 mm. Now
3  4
the whole arrangement is dipped in water    .
intensity is
4
th of the maximum value is  3 
Then the fringe width will be now
(1) 0.1 mm (2) 0.2 mm
(1) 4 mm (2) 2 mm
(3) 0.3 mm (4) 0.4 mm
(3) 3 mm (4) 6 mm
54. The intensity ratio for the two interfering beams of
61. Two slits are separated by a distance of 1 mm are
  min illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5×10–7 m.
light is . What is the value of max
max  min The interference fringes are observed on a screen
placed 1m from the slits. The distance between the
2  third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringe is equal to
(1) (2) 2 
1  (1) 0.65 mm (2) 1.63 mm
(3) 3.25 mm (4) 4.88 mm

2 1 
(3) (4)
1  2  62. If the screen (in YDSE) is perpendicular to y-axis
(line joining the sources), i.e., x–z plane, the fringes
55. Light from a sodium lamp  = 590 nm is diffracted by will be
a slit of width d = 0.30 mm. The distance from the slit
to the screen is D = 0.87 m. The width of central (1) Hyperbolic (2) Straight
maxima will be (3) Circular (4) Parabolic
(1) 3.9 mm (2) 3.4 mm
63. Choose the correct statement
(3) 3.0 mm (4) 4 mm
(1) In interference and diffraction the width of all
56. In an electron microscope if the potential is increased maximas are equal
from 20 KV to 80 KV, the resolving power of the
(2) In interference width of all maximas are equal
microscope will change from R to
but the width of central maxima is triple the
R width of secondary maixma in diffraction
(1) (2) 4R
4 (3) In interference width of all maixmas are same
and in diffraction width of central maxima is
R double of the width of secondary maixma
(3) 2R (4)
2 (4) None of these
57. A beam of light strikes a piece of glass at an angle of
64. The resolving power of a telescope depends upon
incidence 60° and the refracted beam is completely
plane polarised. The refractive index of the glass is (1) Length of telescope
(1) 1.5 (2) 3 (2) Focal length of objective

(3) Diameter of objective
3
(3) 2 (4)
2 (4) Focal length of eye-piece
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65. Two nicol prisms are first crossed and then one of 73. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of
them is rotated through 60°. The percentage of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm and
incident light transmitted is refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How
should the microscope be moved to get the mark
(1) 1.25 (2) 25 again in focus?
(3) 37.5 (4) 50 (1) 1 cm downward (2) 1 cm upward
(3) 2 cm upward (4) 4.5 cm upward
66. A light source emitting a light of frequency 6×1015
74. When a film of transparent material of thickness
Hz, is moving away from an observer with a speed
2.5×10–3 cm is placed over one of the slit in YDSE.
of 4 m/sec. Then the apparent change in the
The fringe pattern shifts by a distance equal to 20
frequency of light as observed by the observer will fringes widths. The R.I of material of the film is
be (=5000 A°)
(1) 8×107 Hz (2) 4×107 Hz (1) 1.25 (2) 1.35
(3) 2×107 Hz (4) 8×108 Hz (3) 1.40 (4) 1.50
75. In YDSE with light of wavelength =5000 A°, the
67. In a YDSE, the fringe width obtained in air is 5 distance between the slits is 0.2 mm and distance
mm. W hen the whole experimental setup is between the plane of slits and screen is 2m. The
5 central maximum is at y=0. The fourth maximum will
immersed in oil having refractive index , then the appear at y equal to
2
(1) 1.75 cm (2) 2 cm
fringe width will become
(3) 1.5 cm (4) 2.5 cm
(1) 2 mm (2) 4 mm 76. In Young’s double slit experiment two slit are d
(3) 12.5 mm (4) 6 mm distance apart. Interference pattern is observed on
screen at a distance D from the plane of slit. A
  bright is observed on the screen directly opposite
68. If two waves y1  3 sin  t  and y2 = 3cos
 3  to one of the slits. The wavelength of light is
t interfere at a point, then the amplitude of D2 d2

resulting wave will be (1) (2)
2d 2D
(1) 5.8 (2) 2.7
(3) 4.6 (4) 6.8 D2 d2
(3) (4)
d D
69. A single slit of width 12 × 10–5 cm is illuminated
with light of wavelength 6000 Å. Angular width of 77. A plate of thickness t made of a material of
central maxima is refractive index µ is placed infront of one of the slit
in a double slit experiment. What should be the
(1) 2 rad (2) 3 rad
minimum thickness t which will make the intensity
(3) 1 rad (4) 8 rad at the centre of fringe pattern zero.
70. An ordinary light has amplitude A and angle (  1)

between the axes of polariser and analyser is 60°. (1) (2) (µ – 1)
2
Light emerging from the analyser has amplitude of
 
A A (3) (4)
(1) (2) 2    1    1
2 2
78. When the light is incident at the polarizing angle on
A 3A the transparent medium then the completely
(3) (4) polarized light is
2 2 2
(1) Refracted light
71. Which of the following produces coherent sources?
(2) Reflected light
(1) Ordinary prism (2) Biprism
(3) Refracted and reflected light
(3) Nicol prism (4) Achromatic prism (4) Neither Reflected nor Refracted light
72. For what approximate distance is the ray optics a 79. The first diffraction minimum due to a single slit
good approximation, when the aperture is 4 mm diffraction is at angle  = 30° for a light of
wide and wavelength of the light used is 400 nm? wavelenth 5000A°. The width of the slit is
(1) 10 m (2) 80 m (1) 5 × 10–5cm (2) 1 × 10–4cm
(3) 40 m (4) 4 m (3) 2.5 × 10–4cm (4) 1.25 × 10–5cm
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Chapter 25
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
1. A photon of energy h strikes an electron of a metal 6. When a metallic surface is illuminated with a light
of work function (< h). The correct statement is of wavelength , the stopping potential is V volt.
(1) The electron is sure to come out with a kinetic When the same surface is illuminated by a light of
energy in the range 0 to h –  wavelength 2, the stopping potential is V/3 volt.
Threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
(2) The electron is sure to come out with a kinetic
energy h – 
4
(3) Either the electron does not come out or if it (1) (2) 4
3
comes out, it has a kinetic energy h – 
(4) The electron may come out with a kinetic 8
energy in the range 0 to h –  (3) 6 (4)
3
2. The energy that should be added to an electrons
kinetic energy so that its de-Broglie wavelength 7. Ultraviolet light of wavelength 2000Å causes
changes from 2×10–9 m to 0.5 × 10–9 m is photoemission from a surface. The stopping
potential is 2 V. The maximum speed of
(1) 1.1 eV (2) 0.56 eV
photoelectron is (nearly)
(3) 8.56 eV (4) 5.67 eV
(1) 10.4 × 105 m/s (2) 8.4 × 105 m/s
3. A proton has kinetic energy equal to that of a
photon of energy E. If  1 is the de-Broglie (3) 6.4 × 105 m/s (4) 4.4 × 105 m/s
wavelength of proton and 2 is the wavelength of the 8. Minimum de-Broglie wavelength of photo electron
1 from a metal surface whose stopping potential is V0
photon, the
 2 is proportional to is (given ‘m’ is mass of e – and ‘h’ is planks
constant)
1
(1) E (2) h hC
E (1) (2)
2meV0 eV0
1
(3) E (4)
E hC hC
(3) 2mV0 (4) 2meV0
4. The maximum Compton’s shift in wavelength of the
scattered x-ray beam is almost
9. A proton and a -particle are accelerated through
(1) 0.248Å (2) 0.048 Å same potential difference. The ratio of their de-
(3) 0.024 Å (4) 0.122 Å Broglie wavelength is
5. In a photoelectric experiment anode potential with
respect to cathode is plotted against photocurrent (1) 2 (2) 2
from graph we can conclude that
 (3) 2 2 (4) 4 2
10. A photon and an electron have equal energy E.
 photon
C is proportional to
A  electron
B
V
(1) E
(1) A and B will have equal photon flux while B and
C will have different frequencies 1
(2) B and C will have different photon flux while A (2)
E
and C will have different frequencies
(3) A and B will have different photon flux while A 1
and C will have equal frequencies (3)
E
(4) B and C will have equal photon flux while A and
B will have same frequencies (4) Does not depend upon E
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Medical Q-Bank-2020 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
11. The cut off wavelength for a metal is 5000Å. When 16. Figure shown below is the plot of the stopping
light of wavelength 3000 Å falls on it, the maximum potential versus the frequency of the light used in
kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectron is E. an experiment on photoelectric effect. The value of
When light of wavelength 2000 Å falls on it, the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons will h 14 
 e  10  is
be  
(1) 4E (2) 3E V (in volts)
(3) 2.5E (4) 2.25E 3
12. Monochromatic light of wavelength 3000 Å is 2
emitted from a point source and falls on a
1
photoelectric cell perpendicular to its surface 0.75
metres away from the source. The photocurrent is
1 2 3 4 5
stopped by applying a suitable negative potential to 14
the anode with respect to the cathode. The point (in 10 Hz)
source is now moved to a distance of 1.5m from
1
the photoelectric cell (light from source continues to (1) V.s (2) 2 V.s
fall on the photoelectric cell perpendicular to its 2
surface). Then
1 5
(1) The photocurrent will be stopped again by the (3) V.s (4) V.s
5 2
same stopping potential applied earlier
17. The de Broglie wavelength of neutron in thermal
(2) If the stopping potential is made to be 0 in both equilibrium is . If temperature increases to four
cases (before and after displacing the point times of initial value then new wavelength will be
source) the photocurrent is halved
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) The photocurrent will be stopped again by half
the stopping potential applied earlier  
(3) (4)
(4) If the stopping potential is made to be 0 in both 4 2
cases (before and after displacing the point 18. In compton effect wavelength of x-rays or y-rays
source) the photocurrent remains the same (gamma rays) after scattering is
13. The ratio of kinetic energy of an electron and the (1) More than the incident wavelength
energy of a photon, both having the same (2) Less than the incident wavelength
wavelength is
(3) Same as the incident wavelength
(1) Proportional to the wavelength of the photon
(4) Half of the incident wavelength
(2) Proportional to the energy of the photon 19. The work function of a photosensitive metal is 6.2
(3) Proportional to the kinetic energy of the eV. EM radiations of wavelength 3000Å is incident
electron on this metal. The maximum kinetic energy of the
(4) Proportional to the magnitude of velocity of the ejected photoelectrons is -
electron (1) 2.1 eV
14. Maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron is E (2) 1.2 eV
when the wavelength of incident light is . The (3) Zero
energy becomes four times when wavelength is
(4) Photo electrons will not be emitted
reduced to one third, then work function of the
metal is 20. In a standard photoelectric emission set up, the
metal has threshold wavelength 2 where  is the
3hc hc wavelength of incident radiation. The accelerating
(1) (2)
 3 potential is such that it increases the kinetic
energy of the photoelectrons by 200% before
hc hc striking the anode. The de-Brogie wavelength of the
(3) (4)
2 4 fastest electrons before striking anode is - (h =
15. If the frequency of light in photoelectric experiment Planks constant, m = mass of electron, c = speed
is doubled and intensity reduced to half of initial of light)
value, the stopping potential will
h h
(1) be doubled (1) (2)
2mc 3mc
(2) be halved
(3) become more than double 2h h
(3) (4)
(4) become less than double 3mc 6mc
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Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Medical Q-Bank-2020
21. For an electron moving with speed v, it is known 27. Compton scattering experiment confirmed
that its de-Broglie wavelength matches with the
wavelength of electromagnetic radiation, then the (1) Dual nature of particles
ratio of the kinetic energy of electron to that of the (2) Wave nature of light
photon of the radiation, is -
(3) Particle nature of light
v 2v
(1) (2) (4) X-ray is an electromagnetic wave
c c
28. In de-Broglie hypothesis the momentum is inversely
v 4v proportional to
(3) (4)
2c c
1
22. Compton’s shift in wavelength of scattered X-rays (1)  (2)

was obtained from -
(1) Principle of conservation of linear momentum (3)  (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) Principle of conservation of energy 29. Davisson-Germer experiment establishes wave

nature of electron by which phenomenon?
(3) Wave character of X-rays
(4) both (1) and (2) (1) Polarization
23. In a photoemissive cell, with exciting wavelength 1, (2) Diffraction

the maximum kinetic energy of electron is k. If the
(3) Photoelectric effect
exciting wavelength is changed to 2, the maximum
kinetic energy of electron is 2k. Then (4) Uncertainty principle
(1) 1 = 22 (2) 1 > 22 30. A photon of energy 5 eV is incident on a metal having
work function 3 eV. The minimum kinetic energy of
2 photoelectron is
(3) 1 < 22 (4) 1 =
2
(1) 8 eV (2) 2 eV
24. Minimum de-Broglie wavelength of photo electrons
(3) Zero (4) 15 eV
emitted from a metal surface whose work function
is  and frequency of light incident on it is  (given 31. If wavelength of incident radiation is 0 then no
‘m’ is mass of electron and ‘h’ is plank’s constant photoelectron emission take place. It means that
and h > ) is
(1) 0 is threshold wavelength
h h (2) 0 is more than threshold wavelength
(1) 2m  h    (2) m  h    (3) 0 is less than threshold wavelength
c
hc h (4)
(3) (4)  0 is more than threshold frequency
  
h 2m  h   
32. The work function of a metal is 1.82 eV, the
25. What is the de-broglie wavelength of the -particle corresponding threshold wavelength is nearly
accelerated through a potential difference ‘V’ ?
(1) 5000 Å (2) 5800 Å
0.287 12.27  (3) 6000 Å (4) 6800 Å
(1) A (2) A
V V
33. When a point source of monochromatic light is at
a distance of 2m from a photoelectric cell, the
0.101  0.202  stopping potential and saturation current are 2V and
(3) A (4) A
V V 32mA respectively. If the same source is placed at
a distance of 8m from the photocell, then the new
26. The kinetic energy of an electron with de-broglie stopping potential and saturation current are
wavelength of 0.3 nanometer is respectively
(1) 0.168 eV (2) 16.8 eV (1) 2 mA ; 2V (2) 8 mA ; 2V
(3) 1.68 eV (4) 2.5 eV (3) 1 mA ; 1V (4) 2 mA ; 0.5V

(203)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter
34. An electron microscope and a proton microscope 39. A proton accelerated through a potential difference
use electrons and protons respectively as particles of 100volt, has de-Broglie wavelength  0 . The
and are accelerated by the same potential de-Broglie wavelength of an -particle accelerated
difference. The ratio of resolving power of proton through 800 V is
microscope to electron microscope is
(1) 1836 (2) 43 0 0
(1) (2)
(3) 105 (4) 500 4 8
35. The de-Broglie wavelength of electron is same as
that of photon, then the ratio of the kinetic energy 0 0
(3) (4)
of electron to the energy of photon is 2 2
v v 40. Photon and electron have same de-Broglie
(1) (2)
C 2C wavelength. The ratio of their energy is
2v C
(3) (4) 2mc 2mc
C v (1) (2)
h2 h
36. When 10 milimetre thick surface is illuminated with
light of wavelength , the stopping potential is V.
W hen same surface is illuminated by light of mc n2
(3) (4)
V 2h 2m 2
wavelength 2, the stopping potential is .
3 41. Radiations of frequency  are incident on a
Thereshold wavelength for metallic surface is photosensitive metal. The maximum kinetic energy
4 of photo electrons is E. When the frequency of
(1) (2) 4 incident radiations is doubled. W hat is the
3 maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons ?
8 (1) 2E (2) 4E
(3) 6 (4)
3
(3) E + hv (4) E – hv
37. The figure shows the variation of photo current with
anode potential for a photosensitive surface for three 42. Two electrons are ejected by two photons striking
different radiations. Let I a , I b , and I C be the the same metal surface with kinetic energies of 3
intensities and fa and fb and fc be the frequencies eV and 4 eV respectively. The electrons then enter
for curves a, b and c respectively. a region of uniform magnetic field with their
photo current velocities at right angles to the direction of the
magnetic field. If the work function of the metal is
b 2 eV, then the ratio of the radii of the circular orbits
of these two electron will be in the ratio
a
c
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1: 2
o
Anode potential (3) 1 : 4 (4) 2 : 1
(1) fa = fb and Ia  Ib (2) fa = fc and Ia = Ic
43. A young’s double slit interference experiment is
(3) fa = fb and Ia = Ib (4) fb = fc and b = c
performed twice, once with a parallel beam of
38. Two identical photocathodes receive light of
electron and next with a parallel beam of protons,
frequencies  1 and  2 If maximum velocities of
both using the same set up. Given that the electron
photoelectrons (of mass m) coming out are v1 and
and proton have same kinetic energy, the ratio of
v2 respectively then
the inference fringe widths for electrons and protons
1/2 respectively will be
 2h 
(1) v1  v 2    1   2  
m  [M p , M e : masses of one proton, one electron
respectively]
2h
(2) v12  v 22   1  2 
m Mp Me
(1) (2) M
1/2 Me p
 2h 
(3) v1  v 2    1  2  
m 
mp me
2h (3) (4) mp
(4) v12  v2 2
  1   2  me
m
(204)
Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter Medical Q-Bank-2020
44. A monochromatic light source of intensity 5 mW 48. Maximum speed of the photoelectrons emitted is
emits 8 × 10 15 photons per second. This light proportional to
ejects photoelectrons from a metal surface. Given
the work function of this metal is 1.9 eV, the
(1)  – 0 (2)  – 0
stopping potential for this set up is
(1) 2.0 V (2) 2.5 V (3) ( – 0)2 (4) 
(3) 1.5 V (4) 1.0 V
49. A photon of energy E ejects a photo electron from
45. The wavelength associated with a proton a metal surface whose work function is W 0. If this
accelerated from rest by potential V is given by electron enters into a uniform magnetic field of
induction B in a direction perpendicular to the field
0.202 and describes a circular path of radius r then the
12.27
(1) Å (2) Å radius r is given by
V V
m E  W0 
0.286 0.101 (1)
(3) Å (4) Å eB
V V
46. In photoelectric effect, for a given metal and same (2) 2m E  W0  eB

frequency of incident radiation, if we use the light
of different intensities I 1 > I 2 > I 3 such that the
2e E  W0 
stopping potentials are V01, V02 and V03, then (3)
mB
(1) V01 > V02 > V03
(2) V01 < V02 < V03 2m E  W0 

(4)
eB
(3) V01 = V02 = V03
50. An electron of mass m when accelerated through
(4) In the given condition, relation between V01, V02
a potential difference V has de-Broglie wavelength
and V03 cannot be determined
. The de-Broglie wavelength, associated with a
47. The slope and y-intercept, of stopping potential proton of mass M accelerated through the same
versus frequency graph gives potential difference, will be
0 h m m
(1) h, (2) , – 0 (1) (2) 
e e M M
h – 0 M M
(3) , (4) h, –0 (3) (4) 
e e m m

(205)
Chapter 26
Atoms and Nuclei
1. The kinetic energy of a particle varies according to 7. A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts, which
have their velocity ratio equal to 2:1. What will be
Av 2 the ratio of their nuclear size (nuclear radius) ?
relation K  . Here x is the distance and v
B  x  2
(1) 8 : 1 (2) 1 : 8
is the velocity. The dimensional formula of AB is
1 1
(1) [ML3T0] (2) [ML4T0] (3) 2 3
:1 (4) 1: 2 3
(3) [ML4T1] (4) [M2L3T0]

8. The radioactive decay of an element X is
1. Find the numerical value of de-Broglie wavelength of sequentially shown
an electron in the 1st orbit of hydrogen atom
A A A–4 A–4
assuming Bohr’s atomic model applicable ZX z+1Y Z–1K Z–1K
(1) 1.058Å (2) 2.223Å The sequence of emission is

(3) 2.116Å (4) 2.12Å (1) , +,  (2) –, , 
2. If in the 1st orbit of a hydrogen atom, the total
(3) , ,  (4) +, , 
energy of the electron is –21.76 × 10–19 J, then its
electric potential energy will be 9. Graphite and heavy water are two common
(1) –43.52 × 10–19 J (2) –21.76 × 10–19 J moderators used in a nuclear reactor. The function
of the moderator is
(3) –10.88×10–19 J (4) –13.6×10–19 J
(1) to slow down the neutrons
3. The wavelength of the characteristics X-ray k line
emitted from zinc (Z=30) is 1.415Å. Find the (2) to absorb neutrons and stop the chain reaction
wavelength of the k line emitted from molybdenum
(Z=42) (3) to cool the reactor
(1) 2.83 Å (2) 0.708 Å (4) to control the energy released in reactor
(3) 0.538 Å (4) 0.621 Å 10. Two radioactive elements X anad Y have half lives
4. A hydrogen atom initially at rest and free to move of 50 minutes and 100 minutes respectively.
in the second excited state. It comes to ground Samples X and Y initially contained equal number
state by emitting a photon, then the momentum of of nuclei. After 200 minutes, the ratio of number of
hydrogen atom due to recoil is nuclei of X and Y will become
(1) 12.1 × 10–27 Kg ms–1 (1) 4 (2) 2
(2) 6.45 × 10–27 Kg ms–1 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.25
(3) 3 × 10–27 Kg ms–1
11. Kinetic energy of electron in the first orbit of H-like
(4) 1.5 × 10-27 Kg ms–1 atom, if total energy in first orbit is –13.6 eV is
5. How many  and  particles are emitted when (1) 13.6 eV
238 decays into 206 ?
92U 82Pb
(2) 27.2 eV
(1) 8, 2 (2) 7, 2
(3) 8, 6 (4) 7, 1 (3) Independent of choice of zero potential energy
6. 23 23.
10Na being unstable, decay into stable 11Na If (4) Both (1) and (3)
the nuclear mass are
12. Magnetic dipole moment of an electron in H-like
m(10Na23) = 22.994466 amu atom having atomic number ‘Z’ in (n–1)th excited
m(11Na23) = 22.989770 amu and mass of electron state is proportional to
= 0.000545 amu then find the approximate kinetic
energy of the emitted electron (1) n (2) (n – 1)
(1) 2.236 MeV (2) 4.022 MeV

Z n
(3) 4.374 MeV (4) 3.863 MeV (3) (4)
n Z
(206)
Atoms and Nuclei Medical Q-Bank-2020
13. Some amount of a radioactive substance (half 19. Given that the shortest wavelength of radiation in
life = 10 days) is spread inside a room and the Balmer Series is 365×10 –9 m, the longest
consequently the level of radiation becomes 50 wavelength of radiation in Balmer series will be
times the permissible level for safe occupancy of (1) 812 × 10–9 m (2) 766 × 10–9 m
the room. After how many days, the room will be
safe for occupation? (3) 657 × 10–9 m (4) 545 × 10–9 m
(1) 95.45 days (2) 113.90 days 20. The distance of closest approach of an alpha
particle with velocity V approaching a gold nucleus
(3) 56.45 days (4) 200 years is d. Then the distance of closest approach when
14. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the velocity becomes 2V is
-radiations? d
d
(1) It has energies above 100 KeV (1) (2)
2 2
(2) The decay of an atomic nucleus from a high
energy state to a lower energy state gives
d d
(3) (4)
gamma decay 2 2 4
(3) It has least ionisation power among all nuclear 21. The excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion in its
decay particles second excited state is 8.14 eV. The energy
needed to remove the electron from the ion is close
(4) Wavelength is greater than 100 picometer to
15. A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different (1) 75.25 eV (2) 80.50 eV
processes. The mean value period for the first (3) 73.26 eV (4) 71.45 eV
process is t1 and that of the second process is t2.
The effective mean value period for the two 22. For a tungsten target the K  line wavelength is
processes is approximately more than K  line wavelength by
percentage
t1  t 2 (1) 15.6 (2) 18.5
(1) (2) t1  t 2
2 (3) 12.9 (4) 11.9
(3) t1t 2 23. A -ray source shows a count rate of 320 per
second when placed before a geiger counter. If the
t1t 2 half life of the source nuclei is 30 minutes, then
(4) after 2 hours the count rate per second will be
t1  t 2
(1) 25 (2) 30
16. An incident beam of X-rays of wavelength 100 pm
is incident on a carbon target. The scattered (3) 20 (4) 35
radiation is viewed at 90° to the incident beam and
40
it is observed that the scattered beam has a 24. 19 K
decays by  – emission, the Q value for this
wavelength of 97.57 pm. If the scattered radiation is reaction will be (approximately)
viewed at 60° to the incident beam, the wavelength
of the scattered beam will be close to [Atomic mass of 40
= 39.9640 u and 40
=
19 K 20 K
(1) 98.78 pm (2) 96.75 pm 39.9626 u
(3) 97.82 pm (4) 96.46 pm (1) 2.30 MeV (2) 1.30 MeV
17. In a hydrogen atom the ratio of de-Broglie’s (3) 3.25 MeV (4) 2.15 MeV
wavelength of the orbiting electron in the orbit n =
25. Among the following, a wrong description of binding
2 and that in the orbit n = 5 is
energy of a nucleus is
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.4
(1) It is the energy required to break a nucleus into
(3) 0.6 (4) 0.8 its constituent nucleus
18. The ratio of magnetic dipole moment and angular (2) It is the energy made available when free
momentum of the electron in a Li++ ion is nucleus combine to form a nucleus
(1) Proportional to the quantum number n (3) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of its
nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the
(2) Half the specific charge of an electron
nucleus
(3) Proportional to n2 (n is the quantum number)
(4) It is the sum of the kinetic energy of all the
(4) Twice the specific charge of an electron nucleons in the nucleus
(207)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Atoms and Nuclei
26. The decay constant for the radio active isotope 33. When the electron in hydrogen atom jumps from
57Co is 3×10–8 S–1. The number of disintegrations the second orbit to the first orbit, the wavelength of
taking place in a milligram of pure 57 Co per the radiation emitted is . When the electron jumps
second is (approximately) from the third to the first orbit, the wavelength of
(1) 1016 (2) 3×1011 radiation emitted is
(3) 3×106 (4) 3×107 9 4
27. Heavy water is used in nuclear reactor to (1) (2)
4 9
(1) Slow down fast neutrons
(2) Absorb neutrons 27 32
(3) (4)
(3) Reflect neutrons 32 27
(4) To catalyse the production of thermal neutrons 34. If frequency of K x-ray emitted from the element
28. n alpha particles per second are emitted from N with atomic number 31 is f, then the frequency of
atoms of a radioactive element. Half life of the K  x-ray emitted from the element with atomic
number 51 would be
radioactive element is
n N 5f 51f
(1) sec (2) sec (1) (2)
N n 3 31
0.693N 0.693n 9f 25f

(3) sec (4) sec (3) (4)
n N 25 9
29. Two identical samples (same material and same 35. In nth Bohr’s orbit, the number of de-Broglie wave
amount) P and Q of a radioactive substance having pulses of electron are -
mean life T are observed to have activities Ap and Aq
(1) may have any value of n
respectively at the time of observation. If P is older
than Q, then the difference in their age is (2) integral multiple of n
(3)odd multiple of n
A   Ap 
(1) Tn  q  (2) Tn   (4) even multiple of n
 Ap   Aq 
   
36. If the potential energy of electron is chosen to be
zero in the 1st orbit of hydrogen atom, then the
 Aq   Ap  total energy of electron in 2nd orbit, is -
(3) T   (4) T  
 Ap   Aq 
    (1) 23.8 eV (2) 3.4 eV
30. In Bohr Model, the atomic radius of first orbit of (3) 17 eV (4) 18 eV
He+ is ro. Then radius of 3rd orbit is
37. Two elements of atomic numbers Z1 and Z2 are
2ro separately used as target anode in a standard X-ray
(1) 9ro (2) production experiment. The plot of their intensity of
9
X-rays is plotted as below :
3ro 4ro
(3) (4)
4 9 I
31. If  is the angular speed of electron in the nth orbit
hydrogen atom, then
Z1
(1)  n½ (2)  1/n Z2
(3)   1/n2 (4)   1/n3
32. The magnetic field at the centre of a hydrogen
atom due to the motion of the electron in the first 
Bohr orbit is B. The magnetic field at the centre due
to the motion of electron in the second Bohr orbit The thermions were accelerated with accelerating
will be potential of V1 and V2 for element of atomic number
Z1 and Z2 respectively. The peaks represent the K
B B
(1) (2) radiation of respective element. The correct relation
4 32 is -
B B (1) V1 > V2 ; Z1 > Z2 (2) V1 > V2 ; Z1 < Z2
(3) (4)
8 64 (3) V1 < V2 ; Z1 > Z2 (4) V1 < V2 ; Z1 < Z2
(208)
38. Electromagnetic radiations of wavelength 240Å is 44. Unstable radioactive nuclei of A are being formed at
incident on a sample of hydrogen like atoms and as the rate of r atoms per second which have a
a consequence we obtain six different wavelengths disintegration constant of  per second. At t = 0,
in the emission spectrum, then the element is- there were no elements of A

(1) Helium (2) Lithium A   B
unstable stable
(3) Berillium (4) Boron At radioactive equilibrium for A, the number of

elements of A is found to be N0. Hence the average
39. There is a stream of radioactive sample with life of A is –
velocity of 8 × 103 m/s. If the half life of radioactive
1 N0
sample is 1 sec, then the fraction of sample which (1) (2)
will decay before they travel a distance of 16000 m  r
is -
r
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4)
N0
1 1
(1) (2)
4 2 45. If potential energy of electron in ground state in
hydrogen atom is assumed to be zero then total
3 1 energy in n = 2 is
(3) (4)
4 2 (1) –24.3 eV (2) –27.2 eV
(3) 20.9 eV (4) 23.8 eV
40. The atomic weight of carbon from a sample is
obtained as 12.2 amu. Assuming isotopes C12 and 46. Ratio of the wavelength of first line of Lyman series
C14 to be present, the ratio of C12 : C14 is - and first line of Balmer series is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 27 : 15
(1) 9 : 1 (2) 8 : 2
(3) 5 : 27 (4) 4 : 9
(3) 6 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 47. If T is the half-life of a radioactive material, then the
fraction that would remain after a time T/2 is
41. If the binding energy per nucleon of Li7 and He4
1 3
nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, then Q-value of (1) (2)
the reaction below is – 2 4
1 2 1
Li7  H1 
 2He4  Q (3) (4)
2 2
(1) 19.6 MeV (2) 2.4 MeV 48. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(3) 8.4 MeV (4) 17.3 MeV (1) By emission of + particles atomic number
decreases by 1
42. -decay takes place (2) By emission of -radiation only energy of
parent nucleus of -decay is decreased
(1) after -decay
(3) After emission of -ray, + particle must be
(2) after -decay emitted
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) to bring the excited daughter nucleus to ground 49. A certain radioactive material can undergo three
state, after any nuclear disintegration different decay, each with a different decay constant
, 2 and 3. Then, the effective decay constant is
(4) All of these
given by
43. A sample of an unstable nucleus A decays B1
simultaneously into two stable products B and C

via separate disintegrations of decay constant 1 2
and 2 where 1 = 0.693 per hour and 2 = 0.346 A B2
per hour. At t = 0 number of elements of A, B and 3
C were respectively N0, 0 and 0. The time interval B3
after which the number of elements of A changes 1 1 1 1
from 20% decayed to 20% undecayed, is - (1)    (2) eff =  + 2 + 3
 eff  2 3
(1) 0.512 hours (2) 0.346 hours
  2  3  1 1 1 1 1 
(3) eff = (4)    
(3) 1.333 hours (4) 0.231 hours 3  eff 3   2 3 
(209)
50. The orbital speed of electron in He+ atom in ground 56. The potential energy of an electron in Hydrogen atom
state is in an excited state is – 1.088 eV, the energy of photon
emitted when this electron makes transition to first
C 2C excited state is
(1) (2)
137 137 (1) 2.312 eV (2) 2.856 eV
(3) 3.944 eV (4) 4.488 eV

3C 4C
(3) (4)
137 137 57. The wavelength of second line of Lyman series for
hydrogen atom is same as that of fourth line of Balmer
51. If a0 is the Bohr’s radius, then orbital radius of H- series for X. The X is
like ions is
(1) He+ (2) Li++
n Z2 (3) H (4) Be+++
(1) a0 (2) a0
Z n
58. The activity of radioactive material in a sample is A1
at time t = t1 and A2 at time t = t2. If t2 > t1 then
n2 n mean life of the radioactive material is
(3) a0 (4) a0
Z Z2
A1t1  A2t 2 A1  A2
(1) (2)
52. If T, K and U represent the total energy, kinetic A1  A2 t 2  t1
energy and potential energy of an electron in a
given orbit then
t2  t1
(3) (4) Infinite
(1) T = U (2) T = 2U A
loge 1
A2
(3) U = 2T (4) T = K
59. Consider the nuclear endothermic reaction
53. Arrange the ,  particles and -ray on the basis of
their increasing penetrating power A + B  C + D
(1)  <  <  (2)  <  <  mass : mA mB mC mD
(3)  >  >  (4)  >  >  speed : U O O V
Find the Q-value of reaction ?

54. Isotopes are atoms having
(1) Same number of protons but different number of m2A U2  1 1  m2A V 2  1 1 

neutrons (1)    (2)   
2  mA mB  2  mA mB 
(2) Same number of neutrons but different number
of protons m2A U2  1 1  m2A V 2  1 1 
(3)    (4)   
(3) Same number of protons and neutrons 2  mA mB  2  mA mB 
(4) None of the above 60. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way
1
55. The curve between frequency () and atomic number that potential energy U=– m22r2 where  is a
(Z) according to Mosley’s law 2
constant and r is the distance of the particle from
Z Z the origin. Assuming the Bohr ’s model of
quantization of angular momentum and circular
orbits, the wavelength of the particle in the nth orbit
(1) (2) is
  1 1
 h  2  h 2
Z (1)   (2)  
Z  m n   m n 
1 1
(3) (4)  4h  2  h  2

(3)   (4)  
 m n   4m n 
 
(210)
61. The ratio of shortest wavelength of Balmer series 68. Electric current produced due motion of electron in
and that of longest wavelength of Paschen series is an orbit is proportional to
(1) n2 (2) n3/2
7 36
(1) (2) (3) n (4) n–3
36 7
69. Magnetic moment of an electron in n th orbit of
4 5 hydrogen atom is
(3) (4)
5 4 neh neh
(1) (2)
62. The activity of a radioactive sample falls from m 4m
2000s–1 to 500s–1 in 40 minutes. Then the half life
of the sample is meh neh
(3) (4)
(1) 20 min (2) 15 min 4n 2n
(3) 10 min (4) 5 min 70. The energy of kphotons obtained in x-ray from two
metal targets of atomic number z1 and z2 is
63. A geologist analyses the wood in a prehistoric
structure and finds that C14 (Half life = 5700 years) 2
z1  z1 
to C12 is only one third of that found in the cells (1) (2)
z2  
buried plants. The age of the wood is about  z2 
(1) 22,800 yrs. (2) 2850 yrs.
2
(3) 5700 yrs. (4) 11,400 yrs.  z1  1  z1  1
(3)   (4)
64. Consider the following radioactive equilibrium  z2  1  z2  1
A  B  C
71. The half life of a sample of a radio active substance
If KA is decay constant of parant element and KB is 1h. If 8×1010 atoms are present at t = 0. Then
is decay constant of dauguter element and KA<KB, the number of atoms decayed in the duration t = 2
what will be the value of the ratio of the number of hr to t = 4 hr will be
molecules of A to B ?
(1) 2 × 1010 (2) 1.5 × 1010
KB KA (3) 4 × 1010 (4) 1 × 1010
(1) (2)
KB  K A KB  K A
72. The probability of survival of a radioactive nucleus
KA KB for one mean life is
(3) (4)
K A  KB K A  KB 1 ln 2
(1) (2) 1
65. For hydrogen atom electron in nth Bohr orbit, the e e
ratio of radius of orbit to its de-Broglie wavelength
is ln2
(3) (4) 1 1
e e
2
n n
(1) (2) 73. The ratio of de-broglie wavelength of an electron in
2 2
the ground state and the first excited state of a
1 1 hydrogen atom is
(3) (4) (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
2n 2n2
(3) 1: 2 (4) 2 : 1
66. The velocity of an electron in the first orbit of H-
atom is v. The velocity of an electron in the 2nd 74. The ratio of the two highest wavelengths (arranged
orbit of He+ is in ascending order of wavelengths) of the radiation
emitted when hydrogen atoms make transition from
v higher state to n = 2 will be
(1) (2) v
4
(1) 23 : 12 (2) 22 : 19
v (3) 20 : 27 (4) 15 : 13
(3) (4) 2v
2 75. The K x-ray of argon has a wavelength of 0.36 nm.
67. In hydrogen atom, if the difference in the energy of The minimum energy needed to ionize an argon
the electron in n = 2 and n = 3 orbits is E, the atom is 16 eV. The energy needed to knock out an
ionization energy of hydrogen atom is (from ground electron from the k shell of an argon atom (atomic
state) number = 18) is :
(1) 13.2 E (2) 7.2 E (1) 3.90 keV (2) 4.12 keV
(3) 5.6 E (4) 3.2 E (3) 3.49 keV (4) 4.20 keV
(211)
76. In hydrogen and hydrogen like atom, the ratio 82. Analysis of potassium and argon atoms in a moon
difference of energies E4n – E2n respectively varies rock sample by a mass spectrometer shows that
with atomic number Z and principal quantum the ratio of the number of stable Ar40 atoms to the
number n as number of radioactive K40 atoms is 7 : 1. Assuming
that all the argon atoms were produced by the
Z2 Z2 decay of K40 atoms, with a half life of 1.25 × 109
(1) (2) year, the rock is
n2 n
(1) 1.25 × 109 years old
2
n 1 (2) 3.75 × 109 years old
(3) (4)
Z2 Z2 (3) 8.75 × 109 years old
77. For an ion having a single electron, the following (4) 1.00 × 1010 years old
wavelengths are observed as shown below. Then
83. A radioactive isotope is being produced at a
the value of x is (in nano meters)
constant rate of 5 × 103 sec–1. The isotope has a
half life of 10 hours. At time t = 0 the number of
n3 orbit nuclei of the isotope is 0. Then for any time t >>
40nm xnm 10 hours the number of nuclei of the isotope will be
n2 orbit
60nm 1.8  108
n1 orbit (1) (2) 1.8 × 108
n2
(1) 20 (2) 40 (3) 1.9 × 109 (4) 2 × 107
(3) 60 (4) 120 84. The energy of electron in n = 4 state of He+ ion is
78. The angular speed of an electron orbiting the (1) –1.51 eV (2) –3.4 eV
hydrogen nucleus is proportional to
(3) –13.6 eV (4) –0.75 eV
1 1 85. The minimum wavelength of the X-rays emitted by
(1) (2) 3/2 an X-ray tube operating at 40 kV is
r r
(1) 0.62 Å (2) 1.24 Å
1 (3) 0.31 Å (4) 0.93 Å
(3) (4) r3/2
r2 86. The de Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 27°C is
. Calculate wavelengths at 927°C
238
79. When the nucleus of 92 U disintegrates to give one
206
 
nucleus of 82 Pb , the number of  and  particles (1) (2)
2 3
emitted are respectively :
 
(1) 4 and 8 (2) 6 and 8 (3) (4)
4 9
(3) 8 and 6 (4) 8 and 10
87. The shortest wavelength is for
235
80. In a fission reactor using 92 U , cadmium rods are (1) -rays (2) X-rays
used (3) Ultra violet rays (4) Micro rays
(1) To slow down neutrons generated by fission 88. The binding energy of 2He4, 26Fe56 and 92U235
nuclei are 28.3, 492 and 1786 MeV respectively.
(2) To absorb neutrons generated by fission Which one of the following is the most stable nucleus?
(3) To reflect neutrons generated by fission (1) 2He4
(4) To be used as moderator (2) 26Fe56
81. A radioactive sample at any instant has its (3) 92U235
disintegration rate of 5000 disintegration per (4) All are equally stable
minute. After 5 minutes, the rate becomes 1250
disintegration per minute. The decay constant per 89. If the radius of nucleus of 13Al27 is 3.9 fermi, then
minute is : the radius of nucleus having atomic mass number 64
is
(1) 0.4 n2 (2) 0.2 n2
(1) 6.5 fm (2) 4.8 fm
(3) 0.1 n2 (4) 0.8 n2 (3) 5.2 fm (4) 3.9 fm
(212)
90. A radioactive nucleus A disintegrates into B. Half life 93. A radio active decay chain starts from Np237 and
93
of decay is 10 days. Initially only A is present but
after some time t, the ratio of nuclides of A and B is 1 produces 90 Th229 by successive emission. The
: 31. Time t is equal to emitted particles can be
(1) 20 days (2) 2 days (1) three +– particles
(2) one  – particle and two +– particles
(3) 50 days (4) 40 days
(3) one  – particle and two –– particles
91. A nucleus m
X emits one -particle and two  –
n
(4) two  – particles and one –– particle
particle. The resulting nuclei is 94. The electron is present in the – 1.5IeV energy state
for H-atom. Find the angular momentum of the
(1) m 4
Y (2) m6
Z electron
n 2 n
m6 m 4
2h
(3) Z (4) X (1)
n 4 n
2
92. When a beam of accelerated electron hits a target,
h
a continuous x-ray spectrum is emitted from the (2)
target. Which one of the following wave length, is 2
absent in the x-ray spectrum if the x-ray tube is
operating at 40,000 volt 3h
(3)
2
(1) 1.5 A° (2) 0.5 A°
4h
(3) 0.25 A° (4) 1.0 A° (4)
2

(213)
Chapter 27
Semiconductor
1. The correct order of extent of doping in an npn 5. Which of the following is true with regards to Zener
transistor is diode ?
(1) emitter > base > collector (1) It can act as a voltage regulator
(2) emitter > collector > base (2) Breakdown in it takes place due to collision of
(3) collector > emitter > base the energetic free electron with the bonded pair
of electrons within the depletion region
(4) collector > base > emitter
(3) A Zener diode can never be forward biased
2. Which of the following is a correct statement with
regards to semiconductor devices ? (4) All of these
(1) Doping a semiconductor decreases its carrier C  

concentration 6. If  x , C  y and E  z then identify the
B E B
(2) Doping with pentavalent atoms makes the correct relation, assuming E, C and B represent
semiconductor negatively charged the emitter, collector and base current respectively
(3) A n-type semicoductor will have more in a transistor -
conductivity compared to p-type for same
extent of doping 1
(1) z = x + 1 (2) y  1 
z
(4) n e n n = ni2 is true only for intrinsic
semiconductor 1 1
(3)  1 (4) All of these
3. The current gain of the amplifier is x y x
(+15V)
7. Find the current flowing through R1 in the circuit
5K below, assuming the diodes to be ideal
R3
2K
Vs=10V R2 R1= 10K

10V R2= 5K
R1 R3= 5K
The transconductance of the amplifier is

(1) Zero (2) 0.5mA
x x (3) 1mA (4) 2mA
(1)  103  –1 (2)  10 3  –1
2 5 8. A pure semi-conductor has equal electron and hole
concentration of n e = n h = 10 16 m –3 . Doping by
x indium increases nh to 4.5 × 1022 m–3. What is ne
(3)  103 –1 (4) x  103  –1
4 in the doped semi-conductor?
4. The output of the following circuit can be (1) 106m–3 (2) 1022m–3
summarised as (3) 2.2 × 109 m–3 (4) 4.5 × 109 m–3
9. When N-type semiconductor is heated
A (1) Number of electrons increases while that of
holes decreases
(2) Number of holes increases while that of
electrons decreases
B (3) Number of electron and holes remains same
(1) OR (2) AND (4) Number of electrons and holes increases
(3) XOR (4) XNOR equally
(214)
Semiconductor Medical Q-Bank-2020
10. In the following common emitter circuit if =100, 13. In a half wave rectified sinusoidal output, the peak
VCE = 7 V, VBE is negligible, RC = 2 k then find value of voltage is V0. The rms value of the output
base current is
V0 V0
Ic (1) (2)
Rc 2 2
Rb C
15 V 2V0 V0
(3) (4)
B  
E 14. Two identical p-n junction diodes are connected in
series with a battery in 3 ways as shown
p n n p p n p n
(1) 0.01 mA (2) 0.04 mA
(3) 0.02 mA (4) 0.03 mA (i) (ii)

n p n p
11. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as
shown in figure
(iii)
A The potential difference across the two p-n junctions
are equal in
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
Y
(3) (iii) and (i) (4) (i) only
15. During a zener breakdown in a p-n junction diode
B (1) Minority carriers acquire sufficient kinetic
energy from the electric field and collide with a
valence electron, the bond will be broken and
A B Y A B Y the valence electron will be taken to the
conduction band
0 0 0 0 0 1
0 1 0 0 1 1 (2) Once a zener breakdown occurs, the potential
(1) (2) difference across the diode increases
1 0 1 1 0 0
1 1 1 significantly with the increase in the applied
1 1 0
battery potential
(3) Zener breakdown occurs in the forward bias
A B Y A B Y mode
0 0 1 0 0 0 (4) Breakdown is produced by direct breaking of
0 1 0 0 1 1 covalent bonds due to the high electric field
(3) (4)
1 0 0 1 0 1
16. A change of 8.0 mA in the emitter current brings a
1 1 1 1 1 0 change of 7.9 mA in the collector current. The values
for  and  will be
12. In the given circuit, the current through the resistor
2 k is (Vz = 12 Volts) (1) 0.9875, 79 (2) 0.99, 99
(3) 0.95, 19 (4) 0.98, 49
1 k
2k Inputs Output

+ 17.
20 V
–
The above circuit is equivalent to a single
(1) NAND gate (2) AND gate
(1) 2 mA (2) 4 mA
(3) 6 mA (4) 1 mA (3) OR gate (4) XOR gate
(215)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Semiconductor
18. In a light emitting diode (LED) 23. In the diagram, the input is across the terminal A
and C and the output is across B and D. Then the
(1) Light is emitted when the diode is reverse output is
biased
(2) The p-n junction is lightly doped B

(3) Has an advantage of the emitted light being
nearly monochromatic
(4) Has a long warm up time A
C
RB B C
C
B E RC
VBB Vo
19. Vi VCC D
E
(1) Zero (2) Same as the input
In the above figure 0  VBB  5.0 V, dc = 250 and RB (3) Full wave rectified (4) Half wave rectified
= 100 k. RC = 1 k, VCC = 5.0V. Assume, when
24. In a given circuit as shown the two inputs waveform
the transistor is saturated, VCE = 0V and VBE = A and B applied simultaneously
0.8V. The minimum base current, for which the
transistor will reach saturation will be
A A•
(1) 20 A (2) 30 A
Y
(3) 40 A (4) 25 A B•
B
20. A transistor is used in common emitter mode in an
amplifier circuit. When a signal of 20 mV is added The resultant waveform Y is
to the base-emitter voltage, the base current
changes by 20 A and the collecter current
changes by 2 mA. The load resistance is 5 k. (1)
The transconductance (gm) is
(1) 0.1  –1 (2) 0.2  –1

(2)
(3) 0.5  –1 (4) 0.01  –1
21. In an oscillator
(1) The frequency can be varied by varying L but (3)

not C
(2) The frequency can be varied by varying C but

not L
(4)
(3) The function is to produce a sinusoidal
waveform of desired frequency 25. The intrinsic concentration of electrons and holes
are 2 × 1013 cm–3 at 300 K in germanium. If the
(4) External input is needed for its operation
germanium is doped with phosphorus atoms with
22. In a transistor dopant concentration of 1016 cm–3, find the hole
concentration in the doped semiconductor.
(1) Both the emitter and the collector are equally
doped (1) 4 ×1010 cm–3
(2) Base is more heavily doped than the collector (2) 2 ×1010 cm–3
(3) Collector is more heavily doped than emitter (3) 5 ×109 cm–3
(4) The base is made very thin and lightly doped (4) 5 ×1011 cm–3
(216)
26. The following four options have side-by-side 28.

comparison of energy levels in intrinsic
A
semiconductor and n-type semiconductor. Where is
the depiction correct?
B
D
C
E E
CB CB For input values of A, B and C, the output is 1 if -
donor level
(1) (1) A = 0, B = 0, C = 1
VB VB
(2) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(3) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0
E E
(4) Both (2) and (3)
CB CB
donor level 29. A Zener diode has a breakdown potential of 15 V
(2) and is a part of a circuit shown in figure below –
VB VB
3k
E E 2k
25V
CB CB
Acceptor
(3) level
VB VB
Find the current through the 3 K resistor
(1) 5 mA (2) 3.33 mA

E E (3) 6.33 mA (4) 3.67 mA
CB CB
30. For an npn transistor the current gain in common
Acceptor base configuration is x and in common emitter
(4) configuration is y. Identify the correct relation –
VB VB level
(1) x < 1 but close to 1 and y >> 1
(2) x << 1 and y >> 1

27. For the given transistor, the current gain is  =
200. (3) x > 1 but close to 1 and y < 1
(4) x >>1 and y << 1

(+20 V)
31. Which of the following logic gate combination will
360 k 1 k result in an output of  A B.C 

IIc=2.5 mA A
(1) B Y
C
(2) B
Y
The potential difference across base collector C
Junction, VCB is -
(1) 1 V (2) 13 V
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 4 V (4) 2 V (4) None of these
(217)
32. If a junction diode is forward biased, energy is 38. If the voltage between the terminals A and B is 17V
released at the junction due to recombination of and Zener breakdown voltage is 9V, then the
electrons and holes. In the junction diode made of potential voltage across R is
a certain material, the energy released has
wavelength in visible region. This type of diode is
A
LED. The material is –
R=3k
(1) Galllium Arsenide (2) Indium phosphide
(3) Germanium (4) Both (1) and (2)
RL=5k
33. A transistor used in CE configuration acts as a
switch in B
(1) active region (2) cut-off region (1) 6V (2) 8V
(3) saturation region (4) both (2) and (3) (3) 9V (4) 17V
34. A silicon specimen is made a p-type semi- 39. Relation between transistor parameters ‘’ and ‘’
conductor by doping which is on an average, one is given by
indium atom per 5×107 silicon atoms. If the number
density of atoms in the silicon specimen is 5×1028
1 1 1 1
atoms/m3, then the number of acceptor atoms in (1)  1 (2)  2
silicon per cm3 will be    
(1) 2.5 × 1030 (2) 1.0 × 1013

1 1 1 1
(3)  1 (4)  2
(3) 1.0 × 1015 (4) 2.5 × 1036    
35. In semiconductor at a room temperature
40. When p-n junction diode is forward biased, then
(1) The valence bond is partially empty and the
(1) The depletion region is reduced and barrier
conduction bond is partially filled
height is increased
(2) The valence bond is completely filled and the
conduction bond is partially filled (2) The depletion region is widened and barrier
height is reduced
(3) Valence bond is completely filled
(3) Both the depletion region and barrier height are
(4) The valence bond is completely empty reduced
36. For the transistor circuit shown below, if  = 100, (4) Both the depletion region and barrier height are
voltage drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V increased
then value of VCE will be
41. What is the output of combination of the gates
shown in figure?
100
C 18V
8.6k A
Y
B E
B
5V
(1) 10V (2) 5V (1) A + A·B 
(2) ( A  B ) A  B 
(3) 13V (4) 0V
(3) A ·B  A ·B (4) ( A  B )·( A ·B )
37. The combination of gates shown below yields
42. A pure semiconductor is known to have an electron
A concentration of 7.07×1015 m–3. Doping by indium,
x increases the concentration of holes to 5×1022 m–
3. Find the concentration of conduction electrons in
B the doped semiconductor ?
(1) OR gate (2) NOT gate (1) 7×1015 m–3 (2) 1×109 m–3
(3) XOR gate (4) NAND gate (3) 5×1022 m–3 (4) 12×1015 m–3
(218)
43. In a zener regulated power supply, a zener diode 46. The current through an ideal p-n junction shown in
having a zener breakdown voltage equal to V is the circuit diagram will be
used as shown in the figure. If the current through
the diode is 5 mA, then the breakdown voltage of p n 100
diode is
250 1V 2V
1000
20V (1) Zero (2) 1 mA
5mA
(3) 10 mA (4) 30 mA
(1) 10 V (2) 15 V 47. Which logic gate is represented by the following

combination of logic gates?
(3) 5 V (4) 0
A
44. Using the given inputs A and B for the logic circuit y
shown below, the output waveform x is
B
A A (1) OR (2) NAND

x
B B (3) AND (4) NOR
48. A npn transistor in a common emitter mode is used

as a simple voltage amplifier with a collector current
(1) x of 4 mA. A terminal of a 8V battery is connected to
the collector through a load resistance RL and to the
base through a resistance RB. The collector to emitter
voltage is 4V and the base emitter voltage is 0.6V
and dc = 100. Then the ratio RL : RB is
(2) x
(1) 1 : 185 (2) 3 : 200
(3) 5 : 407 (4) 4 : 305
49. A feedback amplier

(3) x
(1) Has an RC network connected to the amplifier
(2) Has external input fed to the amplifying section

(4) x
(3) Is a self sustaining device
(4) Generates a square wave form as output
45. With an AC input from 50Hz power line, the ripple
frequency is
50. A
(1) 50 Hz in the D.C output of half wave as well
as full wave rectifier C
(2) 100 Hz in the D.C out put of half wave as well B

as full wave rectifier
In the circuit above C =
(3) 50 Hz in the D.C output of half wave and 100
Hz in D.C output of full wave rectifier
(1) AB  AB (2) A  B
(4) 100 Hz in the D.C output of half wave and 50
Hz in the D.C output of full wave rectifier (3) AB (4) AA  BB
(219)
51. If e and h are electron and hole mobility, E be the 55. Write the truth table for the following logic gate
applied electric field, then the current density for circuit
intrinsic semiconductor is A
(1) ni e(e  h )E (2) ni e(e  h )E Y
B
ni e(e  h ) E
(3) (4) n e(   )
E i e h A B Y
A B Y
(1) (2)
0 0 0 0 0 0
52. A transistor operating in a common base configuration
1 0 0 1 0 0
has forward current gain factor,  = 0.99. If the emitter
current changes by 1mA, then the change in the base 0 1 0
0 1 0
current will be : 1 1 1
1 1 0
(1) 100 mA (2) 0.01 mA
(3) 0.99 mA (4) 99 mA

(3) A B Y (4) A B Y
53. The input resistance of a common emitter transistor 0 0 0 0 0 0
amplifier, if the output resistance is 500 k, the 1 0 1 1 0 0
current gain  = 0.98 and power gain is 6.0625 ×
0 1 1 0 1 1
106, will be :
1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) 198  (2) 300 
(3) 100  (4) 400 

56. A zener diode having break down voltage equal to
54. In case of a p-n junction diode at high value of 15V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown in
reverse bias, current rises sharply. The value of figure. The current through the diode is
reverse bias is called
+
(1) cut off voltage 250
1K
20V 15V
(2) inverse voltage
(3) junction zener voltage –

(1) 5 mA (2) 10 mA
(4) critical voltage
(3) 15 mA (4) 20 mA

(220)
Answers Medical Q-Bank-2020
ANSWERS
PHYSICS
Chapter 1 : Units and Measurement
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (4)
Chapter 2 : Motion in a Straight Line
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (3)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (2)
43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (2)
Chapter 3 : Motion in a Plane
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (2)

8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (1)
50. (2) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (4)
57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (2) 65. (3) 66. (2) 67. (3) 68. (4)
(221)
Medical Q-Bank-2020 Answers
Chapter 4 : Laws of Motion
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (3)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (1)
64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (1) 70. (3)
Chapter 5 : Work, Energy and Power
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (4)
57. (1) 58. (4) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (3) 62. (2) 63. (4)
64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (1) 77. (3)
78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (4)
85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (2) 91. (2)
92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (4) 98. (1)
99. (2) 100. (1) 101. (1) 102. (2)
Chapter 6 : System of Particle and Rotational Motion
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (3) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (1)
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36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (3)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (1)
57. (4) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (2)
64. (4) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (1) 75. (1) 76. (2) 77. (4)
78. (1) 79. (4) 80. (3) 81. (2) 82. (4) 83. (1) 84. (2)
85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (3)
92. (1) 93. (4) 94. (4) 95. (1) 96. (3) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (4) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (3) 103. (4) 104. (4) 105. (3)
106. (3) 107. (3) 108. (3) 109. (3) 110. (3) 111. (1) 112. (2)
113. (2) 114. (4) 115. (4)
Chapter 7 : Gravitation
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (2)

8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (3) 28. (3)
29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (4)
57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (3) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (2)
64. (4) 65. (3) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (2) 69. (2) 70. (3)
Chapter 8 : Mechanical Properties of Solids
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4)

8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (3)
29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (3)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (4) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (1) 58. (1)
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Chapter 9 : Mechanical Properties of Fluids
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (4)
29. (4) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (1)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (3) 56. (1)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (2)
64. (1) 65. (3) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (3)
71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (2) 76. (1) 77. (3)
78. (1) 89. (2) 80. (3) 81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (2) 84. (3)
85. (3) 86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90. (1) 91. (3)
92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (1) 97. (3) 98. (1)
99. (3) 100. (1)
Chapter 10 : Thermal Properties of Matter
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (2)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (2)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (3) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (1)
57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (1) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (1)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (2) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (4)
71. (2) 72. (4)
Chapter 11 : Thermodynamics
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (1) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (1)
29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (3) 35. (3)
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36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (3) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (3) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (4) 62. (2) 63. (3)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (4) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (3)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (1) 75. (1) 76. (4)
Chapter 12 : Kinetic Theory
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (2)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (2)
22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (4)
Chapter 13 : Oscillation
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (4) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (3) 23. (4) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (4) 30. (4) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (4)
36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (4)
43. (4) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (1) 52. (4) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (1)
64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (1) 70. (2)
71. (4) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (1) 75. (3) 76. (4) 77. (1)
78. (1) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (1) 82. (3) 83. (1) 84. (3)
85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (1) 89. (3) 90. (1) 91. (3)
92. (3) 93. (1) 94. (3) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3)
99. (2) 100. (1) 101. (4) 102. (1) 103. (2)
Chapter 14 : Waves
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (3)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (4)
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22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (1)
57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (1)
64. (1) 65. (4) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (4) 70. (2)
71. (1) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (3) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (3) 79. (3) 80. (4) 81. (2) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (2)
85. (2) 86. (4) 87. (2) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (3) 91. (1)
92. (3) 93. (4) 94. (4)
Chapter 15 : Electric Charges and Fields
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (4) 14. (3)
15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (1)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (4) 62. (3) 63. (4)
64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (3)
71. (3)
Chapter 16 : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (2) 61. (2) 62. (1) 63. (2)
64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (2)
71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (2)
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78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (4)
85. (1) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (2) 90. (4) 91. (1)
92. (2) 93. (1) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (2)
99. (4) 100. (2) 101. (2) 102. (4) 103. (2) 104. (1) 105. (2)
106. (2) 107. (3)
Chapter 17 : Current Electricity
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2)
29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (4)
64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (1)
71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (2)
78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (3) 84. (1)
85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (2) 91. (2)
92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (4) 97. (3) 98. (2)
99. (3) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (1)
Chapter 18 : Moving Charges and Magnetism
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (3)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (2)
43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (3)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (4)
64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (3)
71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (2)
78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (2) 81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (3)
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Chapter 19 : Magnetism and Matter

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (3)
Chapter 20 : Electromagnetic Induction
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (4) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (2)
43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (3) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (1)
57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (1)
Chapter 21 : Alternating Current
1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1)
29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (1)
36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (4)
57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (2)
Chapter 22 : Electromagnetic Waves
1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3)
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Chapter 23 : Ray Optics and Optical Instruments
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (4)
22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (2)
29. (3) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (1) 35. (3)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (3)
50. (2) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (4)
57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (4) 60. (4) 61. (3) 62. (3) 63. (4)
64. (3) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (4)
71. (4) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (4) 76. (3) 77. (4)
78. (1) 79. (1) 80. (1) 81. (1) 82. (2) 83. (3) 84. (3)
85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (1) 91. (2)
92. (1) 93. (1) 94. (1) 95. (2) 96. (3) 97. (4) 98. (1)
99. (2) 100. (3) 101. (1) 102. (2) 103. (1) 104. (2) 105. (4)
106. (2) 107. (4) 108. (3) 109. (2) 110. (2) 111. (1) 112. (2)
113. (1) 114. (4) 115. (2) 116. (2) 117. (1) 118. (3) 119. (1)
120. (4) 121. (1)
Chapter 24 : Wave Optics
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (4) 11. (1) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (2) 21. (4)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (4) 26. (4) 27. (3) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (2)
36. (4) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (3) 42. (4)
43. (1) 44. (2) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (3) 63. (3)
64. (3) 65. (3) 66. (1) 67. (1) 68. (3) 69. (3) 70. (3)
71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3)
78. (2) 79. (2)
(229)
Chapter 25 : Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (3) 16. (1) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (3) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (2) 41. (3) 42. (2)
43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (2)
Chapter 26 : Atoms and Nuclei

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)
8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (4) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (2)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (4)
64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (4) 69. (2) 70. (3)
71. (2) 72. (1) 73. (1) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (4) 77. (4)
78. (2) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (1) 82. (2) 83. (1) 84. (2)
85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (3) 90. (3) 91. (4)
92. (3) 93. (4) 94. (3)
Chapter 27 : Semiconductor
1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (1) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (2)
15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (3)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (2)
43. (2) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (3)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (1)

(230)

Question Bank Physics (PG 1 To 236)

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1. Units and Measurement .............................................................................. 1 - 3

(3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.2 mm (3) [–1a–4f6] (4) [–1a–4f –1]

(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) 6.00 mm (2) 6.00 cm

(3) 4 (4) None of these (3) 6.00 m (4) 6.00 km

2.5 3.0 22. The velocity of a particle is given by

v = A cos(t –kx), where x is position and t is

(1) [ML0T2] (2) [ML0T–2] a2b3

(3) 0.01mm (4) 1cm 1 1

(3) 6.67% (4) 9% (3) 8.9x10-9m (4) 8.3x10-9m

1 2 6. The acceleration time graph of a particle moving

40m (3) 9 2 units (4) 5 2 units

6. If magnitude of change in velocity of particle

10. A man can swim at a speed of 5 km/h w.r.t. water.

20. A ball is moving in a circular path of radius 5 m. If

(1) (2) particle has a velocity –5.0 j m/s. Determine

(3) 50 s (4) 60 s (3) 6.25 j m/s2 (4) 6.25(– j ) m/s2

(1) 4 m/s2 (2) 6 m/s2

(1) Zero (2) R2 R

(3) 2 N and 6 N (4) 2 N and 8 N y  3 x  5 x 2 . The ratio of maximum height

53. A ball rolls from the top of a stair way with a

(3) A2B Sin  (4) A2B Cos 

(1) 250 5 N , tan–1(2) West of North 3u

(3) Zero (4) Zero

60. A bullet is to be fired from ground with a speed 2000

56. The angular velocity of a particle moving in a circle

(2) 15 cm above the target

(1) y5 = x 2 (1) 8 m/s

(2) y2 = x 5 (2) 6 m/s

(3) y3 = x 2 (3) 10 m/s

(4) y2 = x 3 (4) Zero

(1) 100 (2) 200 (1) 4.8 min (2) 6 min

(3) 400 (4) 800 (3) 12 min (4) 9 min

(3) 2.7m/s 2 (4) 3.8m/s 2 (1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 30° or 60° (4) None of these

(1) Gravitational force

(3) Strong nuclear force

(3) 10 kg m/s (4) 60 kg m/s g

6. A block of mass m is placed over the rough

(3) 0.5 sec (4) block will never fall

x M, L 7. Calculate the force of friction acting on the body of

(3) mg + Mg (4) Zero (3) mg (4) Zero

(1) 1.5 m/s2 (2) 3 m/s2 (1) 0° (2) 30°

15. The acceleration of block of mass M as shown in

(3) 12 m/s (4) Zero

11. A ball weighing 10 g hits a hard surface vertically

(3) 1 N (4) 0.1 N 2g 2g

18. The coefficient of static friction between A and B is a

• (1) m2g (2) g(m1 + m2)

31. Calculate the contact force of the inclined plane

36. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m

(3) a1 = a2, a2 > a3

(4) a1 > a2, a2 = a3

34. A car is moving in a circular horizontal track of

(1) Zero (2) 30°

(3) 45° (4) 60°