1. Which of the following enzymes are not involved in galactose metabolism?

(a) Galactokinase

(b) Glucokinase

(c) Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase

(d) UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase

Sol. (b) Glucokinase.

2. Which of the following enzymes leads to a glycogen storage disease known as Tarui’s disease?

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Pyruvate Kinase

(c) Phosphofructokinase

(d) Phosphoglucomutase

Sol. (c) Phosphofructokinase.

3. Which of the following enzymes is defective in galactosemia- a fatal genetic disorder in infants?

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Galactokinase

(c) UDP-Galactose 4- epimerase

(d) Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase

Sol. (d) Galactose-1-Phosphate Uridyltransferase.

4. Which of the following enzyme deficiency leads to hemolytic anaemia?

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Pyruvate Kinase

(c) Phosphoglucomutase

(d) Phosphofructokinase

Sol. (b) Pyruvate Kinase.

5. Which of the following glucose transporters are important in fructose transport in the intestine?

(a) GLUT5

(b) GLUT3

(c) GLUT4

(d) GLUT7
Sol. (a) GLUT5.

6. Which of the following is a tricarboxylic acid?

(a) Acetic acid

(b) Succinic acid

(c) Oxaloacetic acid

(d) Citric acid

Sol.(d) Citric acid.

7. Which of the following enzymes plays an important role in tumour metabolism?

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Pyruvate Kinase M2

(c) Phosphoglucomutase

(d) Phosphofructokinase

Sol. (b) Pyruvate Kinase M2.

8. Which of the following metabolites negatively regulates pyruvate kinase?

1.

(a) Citrate

(b) Alanine

(c) Acetyl CoA

(d) Fructose-1,6-Bisphosphate

Sol. (b) Alanine

9. The glycerol phosphate shuttle functions in___________.

(a) Lipid catabolism

(b) Triglyceride synthesis

(c) Anaerobic glycolysis for the regeneration of NAD

(d) Aerobic glycolysis to transport NADH equivalents resulting from glycolysis into mitochondria.

Sol. (d) Aerobic glycolysis to transport NADH equivalents resulting from glycolysis into mitochondria.

10. In muscles, the pyruvate is converted into lactate. Find the correct statement

(a) During lactate formation, NADH is reconverted into NAD

(b) During the product of lactate two ATP are produced

(c) Lactate is the substrate from the downstream pathway

(d) Lactate acts as the substrate for the formation of amino acid

Sol. (a) During lactate formation, NADH is reconverted into NAD.

11. Which of the following glycolytic enzyme is inhibited by an accumulation of long-chain fatty acid in
the liver?

(a) Glucokinase

(b) Hexokinase

(a) Pyruvate kinase

(d) Phosphofructokinase

Sol. (a) Glucokinase.

12. Which of the following statements is known as the rate-limiting step in glycolysis?

(a) Enolase

(b) Phosphofructokinase

(c) Phosphohexose isomerase

(d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

Sol. (b) Phosphofructokinase.

13. Which of the following hormones decreases blood glucose and increases the uptake of glucose in
various tissues like skeletal muscle, adipose tissues?

(a) Insulin

(b) Cortisol

(a) Glucagon

(d) Epinephrine

Sol. (a) Insulin.

14. What is the net gain of ATP during the conversion of glucose to pyruvate?

(a) 2 ATP

(b) 4 ATP

(c) 6 ATP

(d) 1 ATP +1 GTP

Sol. (a) 2 ATP.

15. Which of the following hormones is responsible for increasing gluconeogenesis in the liver during
prolonged starvation?

(a) TSH

(b) Insulin

(c) Thyroxine

(d) Glucagon

Sol. (d) Glucagon.

https://www.dentaldevotee.com/2019/04/mcqs-on-carbohydrate-metabolism.html

carbohydrate metabolism MCQ

https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/mcqs-on-carbohydrate-metabolism/

https://engineeringinterviewquestions.com/diabetes-objective-questions-and-answers/

1) Diabetes mellitus is a disorder characterized by hyperglycemia.

Which of the following is not the common characteristic features of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

a) Impaired insulin secretion

b) Increased Insulin resistance

c) Diabetic ketoacidosis

d) Excessive hepatic glucose production

2)Which of the following are the characteristic features of type 1 diabetes mellitus?

a) Type 1 diabetes is caused by an absolute deficiency of insulin.

b) Type 1 diabetes is associated with the autoimmune destruction of beta cells.

c) Patients with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes present with diabetic ketoacidosis

d) All of the above

3) Which of the following serum measurements are not used for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
a) Fasting blood glucose

d) Postprandial blood glucose

c) Insulin

d) Glycated Hemoglobin HbA1c

4) Which of the following are not the criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes?

a) Fasting blood glucose >126 mg/dL

b) 2-hour postprandial glucose >140 mg/dL

c) HbA1C > 6.5%

d) Random blood glucose >200 mg/dL with classical symptoms

5) Which of the following is not auto-antibodies is a biomarker for type 1 diabetes?

a) Antibodies to GAD65

b) Antibodies to tyrosine phosphatase IA-2 and IA-2 beta

c) Zinc transporter 8 (ZnT8)

d) None of the above

6) Prediabetes is the term used for individuals that do not meet the criteria for diabetes but are too
high to be considered normal.

Which of the following statement accurately characterize prediabetes?

a) Fasting blood glucose from 120-180 mg/dL

b) Fasting blood glucose from 126-140 mg/dL

c) Fasting blood glucose from 110-125 mg/dL

d) All of the above

7) Oral hypoglycemic drugs are medications that are taken by mouth to help lower blood glucose
levels in people with type 2 diabetes mellitus.

All of the following drugs are oral hypoglycemic drugs, Except

a) Metformin
b) Sulphonylureas

c) Thiazolidinediones

d) Insulin

8) Which of the following are the pharmacological effect of metformin?

a) Reduced glucose absorption from the gut

b) Facilitation of glucose entry into muscle

c) Inhibition of gluconeogenesis in the liver

d) All of the above

9) Sulphonylureas increase insulin secretion by beta cells. Sulphonylureas acts by binding

sulphonylurea receptor and inhibiting......................................

a) ATP-dependent K+ channel

b) Voltage-gated calcium channel

c) GLUT-2

d) None of the above

10) Glitazones is an oral hypoglycemic drug used to treat hyperglycemia.

Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the mechanism of action of Glitazones drug?

a) Glitazone binds to the peroxisome-proliferating activator receptor gamma,

b) Peroxisome-proliferating activator receptor-gamma is a cell surface receptor found in adipocytes

c) Glitazone increases insulin sensitivity

d) None of the above

11) Acarbose, an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, is a drug used to treat hyperglycemia.

Which of the following is the correct mechanism regarding the Acarbose drug?

a) Acabarose acts in the adipose tissue

b) Acarbose increases insulin sensitivity

c) Acarbose delays absorption of starch and sucrose

d) All of the above

12) Which of the following is not the consequence of insulin deficiency in carbohydrate metabolism?

a) Increased blood glucose concentration

b) Decreased gluconeogenesis

c) Decreased peripheral glucose utilization

d) Increased glycogen breakdown

13) Which of the following is the consequence of insulin deficiency in protein metabolism?

a) Decreased protein breakdown

b) Increased synthesis of amino acids

c) Decreased ureagenesis

d) Increased protein synthesis

14) Which of the following is not the consequence of insulin deficiency in lipid metabolism?

a) Increased lipogenesis

b) Increased level of free fatty acids

c) Increased ketogenesis

d) Increased triglyceride breakdown

15) The acute complications of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus include hyperosmolar coma, diabetic
ketoacidosis, etc.

Which of the following statement is false regarding the hyperglycemia hyperosmolar coma?

a) Severe hyperglycemia shifts fluid from the intracellular to the extracellular space

b) Polyuria increases the volume of extracellular space and decreased renal blood flow

c) The severe loss of intracellular fluid from the brain causes the coma

d) Increased serum osmolality

16) In Diabetic ketoacidosis, the lack of insulin causes increased production of ketone bodies.
Which of the following laboratory results are likely seen in diabetic ketoacidosis?

a) Decreased arterial blood pH, increased blood glucose, decreased bicarbonate ion concentration

b) Decreased arterial blood pH, increased blood glucose, decreased anion gap

c) Increased arterial blood pH, increased blood glucose, decreased bicarbonate ion concentration

d) All of the above

17) The long-term complication of diabetes includes retinopathy, neuropathy, and nephropathy.
Retinopathy (cataract) is caused by the accumulation of sorbitol in the affected tissues.

Which of the following enzyme is involved in the conversion of glucose to sorbitol?

a) Galactokinase

b) Glucokinase

c) Aldose reductase

b) Aldolase B

18) Which of the following laboratory measurement best indicate the blood glucose control over a
period of weeks to months?

a) Measurement of blood glucose

b) Measurement of HbA1C

c) Measurement of urinary ketone bodies

d) Measurement of insulin

19) Which of the following enzyme would be more active in diabetic patients?

a) Hormone-sensitive lipase

b) Fatty acid synthase

c) Lipoprotein lipase

d) Glucokinase

20) The therapeutic goal of managing and preventing hyperlipidemic complications of diabetes
mellitus includes.............................................

a) LDL <100 mg/dL

b) HDL> 40 mg/dL for men and 50 mg/dL for women

c) Triglycerides <150 mg/dL

d) All of the above

Answers: with explanations

1-c) Diabetic ketoacidosis

2-d) All of the above

3-c) Insulin

4-b) 2-hour postprandial glucose >140 mg/dL

5-d) None of the above

6-c) Fasting blood glucose from 110-125 mg/dL

OGTT is diagnostic of prediabetes. An HbA1c level between 5.7-6.4% is also diagnostic of prediabetes.

7-d) Insulin

8-d) All of the above

Explanation: Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic medication that is commonly used to treat type 2
diabetes mellitus. It works by reducing glucose production in the liver, improving insulin sensitivity,
and decreasing the absorption of glucose from the intestines. Here are some of the pharmacological
effects of metformin:
- Decreases hepatic glucose production: Metformin works by reducing the amount of glucose
produced by the liver. It inhibits gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate
sources) and glycogenolysis (the breakdown of stored glucose).
- Improves insulin sensitivity: Metformin enhances the body's response to insulin, making it easier for
the body to use glucose for energy. It increases the uptake of glucose into muscle cells and reduces
insulin resistance.
- Decreases intestinal glucose absorption: Metformin can reduce the amount of glucose absorbed from
the intestines by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called alpha-glucosidase, which breaks down
complex carbohydrates into glucose.
- Reduces appetite: Metformin has been shown to reduce appetite and promote weight loss in some
people, although the exact mechanism is not fully understood.
Overall, the pharmacological effects of metformin help to lower blood glucose levels and improve
insulin sensitivity in people with type 2 diabetes.

9-a) ATP dependent K+ channel

10-b) Peroxisome-proliferating activator receptor-gamma is a cell surface receptor found in adipocytes

11-c) Acarbose delays absorption of starch and sucrose

12-b) Decreased gluconeogenesis

13-d) Increased protein synthesis

14-a) Increased lipogenesis

15-b) Polyuria increases the volume of extracellular space and decreased renal blood flow

17-c) Aldose reductase

Explanation: The conversion of glucose to sorbitol is catalyzed by the enzyme aldose reductase, which
is present in many tissues of the body, including the liver, kidneys, and eyes. Aldose reductase is
involved in the polyol pathway, which is a metabolic pathway that converts glucose to sorbitol, and
then to fructose.
In normal physiological conditions, the polyol pathway is relatively inactive. However, in conditions of
hyperglycemia, such as diabetes, the activity of aldose reductase is increased, leading to increased
conversion of glucose to sorbitol. This can lead to the accumulation of sorbitol in various tissues,
which can cause cellular damage.

18-b) Measurement of HbA1C

19-a) Hormone-sensitive lipase

20-d) All of the above

The recommended lipid levels for people with diabetes are:

LDL cholesterol: < 100 mg/dL

HDL cholesterol: > 40 mg/dL for men and > 50 mg/dL for women
Triglycerides: < 150 mg/dL
1.Most recent classification of diabetes mellitus is based on ?
A. Pathogenic process leading to hyperglycemia
B. Age of onset
C. Type of therapy
D. All of the above

2. Type of diabetes mellitus resulting from autoimmune beta cell

destruction is ?

A. Type IA

B. Type IB

C. Type II

D. All of the above

3. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by all except ?

A. Insulin resistance

B. Impaired insulin secretion

C. Increased glucose production

D. Anti-insulin receptor antibodies

4. Maturity onset diabetes of the young (MODY) is characterized by

all except ?

A. Autosomal dominant inheritance

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance

C. Early onset hyperglycemia

D. Impairment of insulin secretion

5. All of the following viruses can cause DM except ?

A. Congenital Rubella

B. CMV
C. EBV

D. Coxsackie

6. All of the following drugs can cause DM except ?

A. Diazoxide

B. Pyrantel pamoate

C. Pentamidine

D. Phenytoin

7. Drugs that can cause DM include ?

A. Nicotinic acid

B. Thyroid hormone

C. Beta-adrenergic agonists

D. All of the above

8. Drugs that can cause DM include ?

A. Thiazides

B. Phenytoin

C. Beta blockers

D. All of the above

9. Drugs that can cause DM include ?

A. Alpha-interferon

B. Protease inhibitors

C. Clozapine

D. All of the above

10. Syndromes associated with DM are all except ?

A. Down syndrome

B. Klinefelter syndrome

C. Turner syndrome
D. Cri-du-chat syndrome

11. Out of the following countries, which one has the highest incidence

of type 1 DM ?

A. Japan

B. China

C. Scandinavia

12. In the ADA criteria for diagnosis of DM, what is meant by “fasting

state” ?

A. No oral intake since last 8 hours

B. No oral intake for last 12 hours

C. No caloric intake for last 8 hours

D. No caloric intake for last 12 hours

13. After 2 hours of 75-gram oral glucose load, impaired glucose

tolerance is defined when plasma glucose levels are between ?

A. 100 & 180 mg/dL

B. 126 & 180 mg/dL

C. 140 & 199 mg/dL

D. 160 & 200 mg/dL

15. After 2 hours of 75-gram oral glucose load, impaired fasting

glucose is defined when fasting plasma glucose level are between

A. 80 & 125 mg/dL

B. 100 & 125 mg/dL

C. 125 & 180 mg/dL

D. 125 & 200 mg/dL

16. Individuals with impaired fasting glucose are at increased risk of

developing which of the following condition ?

A. Neuropathy

B. Arthropathy

C. Cardiovascular diseases

D. Renal failure

17. Individuals with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) are at increased

risk of developing ?

A. Type 1 DM

B. Type 2 DM

C. Pancreatitis

D. Hypothyroidism

18. American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommends screening for

DM in which of the following ?

A. >35 yrs – every three years

B. >40 yrs – every three years

C. >45 yrs – every three years

D. >50 yrs – every year

19. 86-amino-acid precursor polypeptide of insulin is called ?

A. C-peptide

B. Preinsulin

C. Proinsulin

D. Preproinsulin
20. Proteolytic processing of “preproinsulin” results in the formation

of ?

A. C peptide

B. Proinsulin

C. Insulin

D. All of the above

21. Which of the following is structurally related to insulin-like growth

factors I and II ?

A. Preproinsulin

B. Proinsulin

C. Insulin

D. Glucagon

22. Cleavage of proinsulin generates which of the following ?

A. C peptide

B. A chain of insulin

C. B chain of insulin

D. All of the above

23. The A and B chains of insulin contain how many amino acids

respectively ?

A. 21 & 30 amino acids

B. 30 & 21 amino acids

C. 21 & 29 amino acids

D. 29 & 21 amino acids

24. The A and B chains of insulin are connected by which of the

following bond ?
A. Hydrogen

B. Amino acid

C. Disulfide

D. Calcium

25. Insulin synthesis is stimulated by glucose levels above ?

A. 30 mg%

B. 40 mg%

C. 50 mg%

D. 70 mg%

26. Word insulin is derived from a Latin word “insula” meaning ?

A. Protected

B. Projected

C. Island

D. High land

1. The probable cause of Erythroblastosis fetalis can be

(a) Bleeding

(b) Haemophilia

(c) Adjoining of RBC

(d) Diapedesis

Answer: (c)

2. This can help on the diagnosis of the genetic basis of a disorder

(a) PCR

(b) ELISA
(c) ABO blood group

(d) NMR

Answer: (a)

3. This measure does not help to prevent diabetes complications

(a) controlling blood lipids and blood pressure

(b) Prompt detection of diabetic eye and kidney disease

(c) Eliminating all carbohydrates from the diet

(d) controlling blood glucose

Answer: (c)

4. The disease as a result of prolonged clotting is due to lack of plasma thromboplastin

component (PTC) necessary to the formation of thromboplastin, is

(a) Haemophilia

(b) Hypoprothrombinemia

(c) Christmas disease

(d) Stuart disease

Answer: (c)

5. This diabetes drug acts by decreasing the amount of glucose produced by the liver

(a) Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

(b) Sulfonylureas

(c) Biguanides

(d) Meglitinides

Answer: (c)
6. Presence of RBC in urine is known as

(a) Proteinuria

(b) Hematuria

(c) Urolithiasis

(d) Nephritis

Answer: (b)

7. The disease characterized by extreme muscle weakness and brownish pigmentation of

the buccal cavity and skin is

(a) Grave’s disease

(b) Myxoedema

(c) Addison’s disease

(d) Cushing’s disease

Answer: (c)

8. This statement regarding Angina is true

(a) blood flow is unaffected

(b) most common in children

(c) inadequate supply of oxygen to the heart muscles

(d) heart stops beating

Answer: (c)

9. Pick the wrongly matched pair

(a) heart failure – not enough blood supply to the body

(b) angina pectoris – acute chest pain

(c) cardiac arrest – narrowing of the lumen

(d) heart attack – not enough blood supply to cardiac muscles

Answer: (c)

10. This disease is not related to the circulatory system

(a) Diabetes mellitus

(b) Hypertension

(c) Diphtheria

(d) Coronary thrombosis

Answer: (c)

2. DQB1*0302 gene is associated with which haplotype ?

A. DR3
B. DR4
C. Both DR3 & DR4
D. None of the above
3. Which of the following gene is considered “protective” for type
1A diabetes mellitus ?
A. DQB1*0302
B. DQB1*0402
C. DQB1*0502
D. DQB1*0602
4. Molecular mimicry between microbial proteins & host tissues has
been reported in ?
A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. All of the above
5. In type 2 DM, which of the following is true ?
A. Insulin resistance precedes insulin secretory defects
B. Insulin secretory defects precede insulin resistance
C. Insulin resistance occur simultaneously with insulin secretory
defects
D. Any of the above
6. Concordance of type 2 DM in identical twins is between ?
A. 10 – 30 %
B. 30 – 50 %
C. 50 – 70 %
D. 70 – 90 %
7. If both parents have type 2 DM, risk of developing diabetes is ?
A. ~ 10 %
B. ~ 20 %
C. ~ 30 %
D. ~ 40 %
8. Adipocytes secrete which of the following ?
A. Leptin
B. Resistin
C. Adiponectin
D. All of the above
7. In type 2 DM, increased fasting plasma glucose is predominantly
due to ?
A. Increased hepatic glucose output
B. Decreased peripheral utilization of glucose
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
8. In type 2 DM, increased postprandial plasma glucose is
predominantly due to ?
A. Increased hepatic glucose output
B. Decreased peripheral utilization of glucose
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
9. Which of the following play predominant role in insulin
resistance ?
A. Prereceptor defects
B. Receptor defects
C.` Postreceptor defects
D. All of the above
10. Elevated levels of free fatty acids can cause which of the following
?
A. Impair glucose utilization in skeletal muscle
B. Promote glucose production by liver
C. Impair beta cell function
D. All of the above
11. Other than insulin,  cells also secrete ?
A. Ptyalin
B. Amylin
C. Amylase
D. Lipase
12. “Glucose toxicity” refers to ?
A. Acute hyperglycemia impairing islet function
B. Chronic hyperglycemia impairing islet function
C. Seizures in hyperglycemia
D. All of the above

13. All can cause islet cell dysfunction except ?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Hyperlipidemia
D. Islet cell autoantibodies
14. Which of the following can worsen islet function ?
A. Chronic hyperglycemia
B. Elevation of free fatty acid levels
C. Dietary fat
D. All of the above
15. Which of the following is a feature of Polycystic ovary syndrome
(PCOS) ?
A. Affects premenopausal women
B. Chronic anovulation
C. Hyperandrogenism
D. All of the above
16. All are proved to delay or prevent DM except ?
A. Life style modification
B. Metformin
C. Ramipril
D. Atorvastatin
17. All are proved to delay or prevent DM except ?
A. Acarbose
B. Metformin
C. NSAIDs
D. Pravastatin
18. All are risk factors for type 2 DM except ?
A. Hypertension
B. Acanthosis nigricans
C. PCOD
D. Ataxia telangiectasia

19. All of the following are true about MODY except ?

A. Monogenic
B. Autosomal dominant
C. MODY 4 is due to mutation in IPF-1
D. MODY 1 is due to mutation in glucokinase gene
20. Hepatocyte nuclear transcription factor (HNF) is expressed in ?
A. Liver
B. Pancreatic islets
C. Kidney
D. All of the above

21. MODY 1 is caused by mutations in ?

A. HNF-4 alpha
B. HNF-1 alpha
C. HNF-1 beta
D. All of the above
22. Cerebral edema in DKA is seen most frequently in ?
A. Children
B. Adults
C. Elderly
D. All of the above

23. In liver, decreased ratio of insulin to glucagon promotes which of

the following ?
A. Gluconeogenesis
 B. Glycogenolysis
C. Ketone body formation
D. All of the above

Question 1

Which of the following confirmed values meet the diagnostic threshold for diabetes?

a) fasting blood glucose ? 140 mg/dl

b) random glucose > 160 mg/dl
c) 2 hour post prandial glucose ≥ to 126 mg/dl
 d) fasting blood glucose ≥ 126 mg/dl
Question 2

Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Insulin suppresses the activity of glycogen synthase

b) Insulin mediates glucose uptake in the brain
c) "Prediabetes" is a condition characterized by an increased risk for the future
development of type 2 diabetes
d) The rise in insulin concentration after meal ingestion is reduced in type 1 but not in
type 2 diabetes
Question 3

Insulin deficiency is associated with

a) Reduced lipolysis
b) Increased ketogenesis
c) Reduced gluconeogenesis
d) Reduced proteolysis
Question 4

The risk factors for type 2 diabetes mellitus include:

a) family history
b) being overweight
c) high intake of dietary fat
d) All of the options listed are correct
Question 5

The pathogenesis of hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes includes all the following mechanisms
except for:

a) Increased glucose production by the liver

b) Impaired insulin secretion
c) Decreased glucose uptake from the skeletal muscle
d) All of the options given are correct
Question 6

The test for checking mean plasma glucose concentration over the previous 8-10 weeks is:
a) Hemoglobin A1c
b) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
 c) Fructosamine test
d) Fasting plasma glucose concentration
Question 7

Which statement best describes the differences between the characteristics of type 1 and type
2 diabetes:

a) persons with type 2 diabetes usually require lower doses of insulin than person with
type 1 diabetes because they have a milder form of diabetes
b) persons with type 1 diabetes rapidly develop chronic complications
c) autoimmune factors are involved in the pathogenesis of type 1 but not type 2
diabetes
d) persons with type 1 diabetes can increase endogenous insulin production by taking
oral hypoglycemic agents
Question 8

Which of the following is not a beneficial effect of exercise in people with diabetes:

a) Reduction of triglycerides
b) Hypoglycaemia
c) increase of insulin sensitivity
d) help controlling hypertension
Question 9

According to trials on diabetes prevention, high-risk individuals can reduce their risk to
develop diabetes by doing the following:

a) Eating a very low carbohydrate diet

b) Consuming a diet high in monounsaturated fats
c) Losing 5-7% of body weight through a hypocaloric low fat diet and 30 minutes
of daily activity
d) Initiating metformin 850 mg BID and practicing daily vigorous exercise
Question 10

Which of the following are the recommended blood pressure and lipid goals for the
prevention of cardiovascular disease in adults with diabetes?

a) BP < 140/90, Trig <150, LDL < 100

b) BP < 130/85, Trig < 300, LDL < 100
c) BP < 135/80, Trig < 200, LDL < 130
 d) BP < 130/80, Trig <150, LDL < 100
Question 11

What is the first-line drug for patients with type 2 diabetes and obesity?

a) Acarbose
b) Metformin
c) Sulphonylureas
d) Insulin
Question 12

According to the recommendations for the nutritional management of patients with diabetes,
the consumption of saturated fat should be:

a) <10% of total daily energy

b) <12%
c) <15%
d) <16%

https://www.csun.edu/~cjh78264/diabetes/pages/quiz.html

Question 1
Which of the following requires a hyperglycaemic state to permit entry of glucose into the cell?

A GLUT1
B GLUT2
C GLUT3
D GLUT4
Question 2
Where is GLUT5 preferentially upregulated?

A Hepatocyte
B Sinusoids
C Enterocyte
D Islets of Langerhan
Question 3
Autoimmunity to beta cells in the islets of Langerhans would result in what physiological state?

A Arousal
B Hyperreflexia
C Polydipsia
D Increase of transmembrane ATPase activity
Question 4
Which of the following is utilised in fast twitch muscles during long-distance running?

A Glycerol catabolism
B Glutamine anabolism
C Alanine catabolism
D Cori cycle
Question 5
Which of the following is increased by insulin?

A Inhibition of glycogen synthase

B Proteolysis
C Lipolysis
D Mitogenesis
Question 6
In which state is ketone formation predominant?
A When insulin:glucagon ratio is high
B Primarily anabolic state of basal metabolic rate
C Immediately post-prandial
D During unrestrained lipolysis and proteolysis
Question 7
Beta cell destruction is directly responsible for

A Hyperglycaemia
B Polyuria
C Polydipsia
D Weight loss
Question 8
Which of the following are ketone bodies?

A Acetone
B Acetoacetate
C Beta-hydroxybutyrate
D All of the above
Question 9
What change would you expect to see in the serum levels of the hormone released from alpha cells in the type
2 diabetic patient?

A Significantly increased
B Slightly increased
C Decreased
D No change
Question 10
DPP4 inhibitors

A Reduce insulin resistance

B Promote glycosuria
C Prevent GLP breakdown
D Decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis
Question 11
Which type of cell is targeted by sulfonyureas?

A L-cell
B D-cell
C Alpha cell (islet)
D Beta cell (islet)
Question 12
SGLT2 inhibitors...

A Prevent breakdown of GLP

B Act preferentially on enterocytes of the ileum
C Increase secretion of insulin directly
D Reduce proximal convoluted tubular reabsorpative capacity.
Question 13
STEM 1 - QUESTION 1
A 12 year old male is brought by their concerned parents to see the advanced nurse practitioner
(ANP). On general examination the patient has recent unexplained weight loss, confusion and
polyuria.
Which is the best-fit diagnosis?

A Type one diabetes

B Insulin insensitive diabetes
C Gestational diabetes
D DKA
Question 14
STEM 1 - QUESTION 2
The sudden onset of this condition occurs after how much of the beta cells are destroyed?
A Half
B 60%
C 90%
D 100%
Question 15
STEM 1 - QUESTION 3
What accounts for the patient’s weight loss?

A Cancer
B Infection
C Pancreatic insufficiency
D Decreased carbohydrate utilisation
Question 16
STEM 1 - QUESTION 4
The patient also appears to have a goitre. The ANP explains to the family that autoimmune conditions often
cluster together. Which concomitant condition may this patient also have?

A Calcitonin-deficiency
B Crohn’s disease
C Graves’ disease
D Pott’s disease
Question 17
STEM 2 - QUESTION 1
A 59 year old female, Julia, presents to her GP frustrated that she is “peeing more than usual”
at work. On examination she has an obese BMI, is hypertensive and has significantly elevated
blood glucose. Other than the given symptom she states she feels fit and well.
How is BMI calculated?

A Weight (g) / height (m2)

B Weight (kg) / height (m2)
C Height (m2) / weight (kg)
D Height (cm2) / weight (kg)
Question 18
STEM 2 - QUESTION 2
The patient is diagnosed with diabetes. Which HLA subtype is linked to this form of diabetes?

A DR1
B DR2
C DR3
D None
Question 19
STEM 2 - QUESTION 3
On further examination, the patient is found to have reduced visual acuity and a “blind spot” in
her centre of vision. This is best described as?

A Amaurosis fugax
B Macrovascular retinopathy
C IHD
D Microvascular retinopathy
Question 20
STEM 4 - QUESTION 4
The patient’s urine is positive for nitrites. Why is this the case?

A Hypertension
B Chronic kidney disease
C Effect of glycosuria
D Alpha islet cell insufficiency

https://www.medicinenet.com/diabetes_quiz/quiz.htm