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 1 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
LIFE SPAN
Each and every organism can live only for a certain period
of time. The period from birth to the natural death of an
organism represents its life span. Life spans of a few
organisms are given in table. Examine the life spans of
organisms represented in the table. Isn’t it both interesting
and intriguing to note that it may be as short as a few days
or as long as a few thousand years? Between these two
extremes are the life spans of most other living organisms.
You may note that life spans of organisms are not necessarily
correlated with their sizes; the sizes of crows and parrots
are not very different yet their life spans show a wide
difference. Similarly, a mango tree has a much shorter life
span as compared to a peepal tree. Whatever be the life
span, death of every individual organism is a certainty, i.e.,
no individual is immortal, except single-celled organisms.
Life span of an organism usually includes four stages, juvenility,
maturity, ageing and senescence and death.

Life Span of Some Selected Organism

Life span of some organisms are as follows:
S.No. Plant Life span S.No. Animal Life Span
1 Macrozamia 10,000-12,000 years 1 Dog 20-30 years
2 Peepal 2000-3000 years 2 Horse 60 years
3 Banana 25 years 3 Fruitfly 30 days
4 Seqoia 3000-4000 years 4 Tortoise 100-150 years
5 Banyan 200-300 years 5 Elephant 60-90 years
6 Rose 5-7 years 6 Mayfly 1 day
7 Mango 200 years 7 Butterfly 1-2 weeks
8 Rice 3-4 months 8 Crocodile 60 years

REPRODUCTION (iv) There is replication of DNA.

Reproduction means self perpetuation of a race. New young
ones are similar to their parents. The adults which give rise to
young ones are called parents.
Functions
(i) It introduces variations essential for adaptability and
struggle for existence,
(ii) It replaces individuals dying due to senescence or
ageing.
(iii) Individuals removed from population due to predation
or disease are replaced through reproduction.
Basic Features :
(i) Elaboration and development of reproductive units to
form new young individuals.
(ii) Cells undergo division. It may or may not involve one
meiosis.
(iii) Formation of reproductive units.
(v) Growth due to synthesis of more protoplasm.
Types of Reproduction
There is a large diversity in the biological world and each
organism has evolved its own mechanism to multiply and
produce offspring. Habitat and internal physiology of organism
and several other factors are collectively responsible for how
it reproduces. There are two types of reproduction :
(1) Asexual reproduction
(i) Gametic fusion is absent.
(ii) Offspring is produced by a single parent with or
without the involvement of gamete formation.
(2) Sexual reproduction
(i) Gametic fusion is present.
(ii) Offspring is produced by two parents (opposite sex)
with the involvement of gamete formation.
 1.2 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ASEXUAL AND SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
S. No. Asexual Reproduction
New individuals are genetically similar to the
(i) parents.
It involves only mitotic divisions.
(ii)
It does not intorudce variability.
(iii)
Hence, has no evolutionary Importance.
New individual develops from one cell or a
(iv) part of one parent.
It does not require the formation of sex
(v)
organs.
It does not involve the formation and fusion
(vi) of gametes.
1. Asexual Reproduction
It is mode of reproduction in which new individuals
develop directly from specialised or unspecialised parts
of a single parent without involving fusion of gametes
or sex cells. Asexual reproduction occurs both in single-
celled and multicelled individuals. Asexual reproduction
is also called agamogenesis or agamogeny.
In this mode of reproduction somatic cells undergo
divison by mitosis during the formation of a new
individual.
Young ones ‘resulting from the asexual reproduction are
exactly identical with the parent except in size and are
called clones. Each individual of a clone is referred to as
ramet. Members of a clone can, however, differ later on
due to development of different mutations. Fertility is
animal’s actual capability to produce eggs. Fecundity is
animal’s potential capability to produce eggs.
Asexual reproduction occurs by fission, budding and
fragmentation.
Advantages of Asexual Reproduction
(i) Asexual reproduction is simpler than sexual
reproduction.
(ii) It is uniparental.
(iii) The young ones are exact replicas (genetically similar)
of their parent.
(iv) It is a rapid mode of reproduction.
(v) A single parent may reproduce a large number of
offsprings.
Disadvantages of Asexual Reproduction
(i) There is no mixing of genetic material. So no new
combination or variation takes place.
(ii) Due to absence of variations, It has no role in evolution.
(iii) There is no crossing over. New linkages are not formed.
Sexual Reproduction
New individuals or offsprings are generally
different from either of the two parents.
It involves meiosis at one or the other stage.
In higher plants, it occurs at the time of
sporogenesis.
It introduces variability and is, hence of
evolutionary importance.
New individual develops from zygote or
fusion product of two gametes, which may or
may not be produced by two parents.
Formation of sex organs is a pre-requisite for
sexual reproduction.
It involves the formation and fusion of two
gametes, generally distinguished into male
and female.
(iv) Adaptability to changes in environment is low due to
absence of new variations.
(v) As there is rapid multiplication, a large number of young
ones are formed. It causes overcrowding.
Types of Asexual Reproduction
(A) Fission This is division of parent body into two or more
daughter cells. Fission can occur by binary fission,
multiple fission and plasmotomy.
1. Binary Fission
(i) It occurs in Bacteria (Moneran), Amoeba and
Paramecium (Protists).
(ii) In this process, the parent organism divides
into two halves, each half forming an
independent daughter organism. It means, the
parent body as a whole forms the reproductive
unit and the parent continues living as two
daughter individuals. Therefore the organisms
that undergo binary fission are said to be
immortal.
Types of Binary Fission –
Depending upon the plane of division, binary fission
is of the following types :
(i) Simple Binary Fission (Irregular Binary
Fission) : Division can occur through any
plane, e.g., Amoeba.
(ii) Transverse Binary Fission: The plane of this
division runs along the transverse axis of the
individual, e.g., Bacteria, Paramecium, Planaria
Diatoms.
(iii) Longitudinal Binary Fission: The plane of
fission passes along the longitudinal axis of
the organism, e.g., Euglena.
(iv) Oblique Binary Fission – The plane of division
is oblique in Ceratium.
 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.3

2. Multiple Fission –
Several daughter individuals are formed from one
parent. Ex. – Amoeba, Plasmodium & Monocystis.
3. Plasmotomy –
Multinucleate parent forms multinucleate daughter
individuals without division of nuclei. Ex. – Opalina
and Pelomyxa.
(B) Budding
(i) In a small Budding, as outgrowth (Exogenous buds)
is formed from parent, which finally get detached &
develop into new individuals. Identity of parent is
still maintained.Ex. – Hydra, Syllis (Annelid) & Salpa
(Tunicate).
(ii) Budding or sporulation is also shown by oidia of
Rhizopus. (iii) In yeast, the division is unequal and a small bud
(protuberance) is produced that remain attached
initially to the parent cell, later on the bud gets
separated and mature into new yeast organisms
(cells).
(C) Spore Formation (Sprulation)
Members of the kingdom fungi and simple plants
such as algae reproduce through special asexual
reproductive structure called spores. The most commonly
produced structures are conidia (non-motile spores) and
zoospores. (motile spores)
Zoospores
(i) These are motile and flagellated spores produced
inside the zoosporangia under favourable
conditions.
(ii) In Chlamydomonas(n), the protoplast of cell
divides to form 8-16 zoospores. They are pyramid
shaped and anteriorly biflagellated, resembling the
parent cell. The parent cell wall breaks and
the zoospores are liberated in water. They enlarge
and behave as an adult individual.
(iii) Zoospores are also produced in the asexual
life cycle of Achlya, Saprolegnia, Phytophthora
and Ulothrix.
(iv) Zoospores of Cladophora glomerata are diploid.
(D) Fragmentation –
The body may break into two or more fragments and
each fragment develops into complete individual.
Ex. – Filamentous algae (Spirogyra).
(E) By Gemmules –
These are internal buds, formed in fresh water sponges.
Ex. – Spongilla.
SPORULATION :
Spores are formed. Example-Protozoa and Bacteria
1. Conidia
(i) Features of Conidia:
a. Pigmented
b. Uni or multinucleated
1.4 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

c. The conidia in the chain are arranged in
basipetal manner.
d. Conidia are produced by the members of
Ascomycetes (e.g., Aspergillus, Penicillium).
e. The conidiophore with its metulae, sterigmata
and chain of conidia gives the appearance of
a small brush/broom, technically called
penicillus.
(ii) There are two types of conidiophores :
a. Unbranched / monoverticillate
b. Branched / Biverticillate
potato, rhizome of banana and ginger, bulbs, runners,
offsets, stolons, aerial stems etc. Some propagules
carry adventitious buds e.g., normal and storage
roots, leaves.
Natural method of vegetative reproduction occurs
by following means:
(I) Roots
(i) Both tap roots and adventitious roots
takes part in vegetative reproduction due
to the presence of bud, known as radicle
bud.
(ii) Adventitious buds on root detaches and
gives rise to new plant.

(iii) The branches of conidiophores are called rami

and branches of rami are called metulae. Each
metula bears 2-6 flask shaped structures called
sterigmata (phialides). Each sterigma produces a (II) Underground stems : Different types of
chain of conidia. underground stems like tuber, rhizome, bulb
(iv) In Penicillium, these spores are produced at the and corm can take part in vegetative
tips of special hypha I branches called propagation. A portion of underground stem
conidiophores. bearing bud forms a new plant.
2. Vegetative Reproduction
Vegetative reproduction does not involve meiosis and
fusion of gametes, therefore it is considered as a type
of asexual reproduction. New plants or individuals are
produced from vegetative parts of plants and newly
formed individuals are genetically identical to the parent
plant. It is common method of reproduction in the
flowering plants.
There are two types of vegetative reproduction, natural (a) Tuber of Potato
and artificial
(A) Natural methods of Vegetative Reproduction :
These are methods of plant multiplication occurring
naturally in which a somatic part of the plant
detaches from the body of the mother and develops
into a new independent plant under suitable
environmental conditions. The detachable somatic
part that functions in vegetative propagation is
called vegetative propagule. It carries one or more
buds. Natural buds occur over the nodes of the stem.
When placed in contact with damp soil, the buds
sprout, producing roots and new plants. This
potential is exploited by farmers, e.g., tubers of
(b) Rhiozome of Ginger
 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.5

Tuber : It is terminal portion of underground

stem branch which is swollen on account of
accumulation of food. e.g., Potato, Artichoke
Rhizome : It grows or horizontally under soil
surface. It is well branched and bears nodes,
intanodes, buds and scale leaves. e.g., Banana,
Turmeric, Aspidium, Adiantum
Bulb : Stem is unbranched, highly reduced and
disc shaped. The bud is surrounded by many
concentric scale leaves. Leaf bases of inner
ones are fleshy and edible and outer ones are
dry. e.g., Onion, Garlic, Narcissus
Corm : It grows vertically beneath soil surface.
It bears nodes, internodes, buds and scale (ii) Offset : These are one internode long
leaves. runners that occur in some aquatic
e.g., Colocasia, Gladiolus, Freesia, Crocus plants. Breaking of affset takes part in
propagation.
e.g., Eichhornia (Water hyacinth),
Pistia
Base of scape Water hyacinth or ‘terror of Bengal’
was introduced in Bengal because of
its beautiful flowers and shape of
Tunic leaves. However, it turned out to be
Bulb highly invasive aquatic weed that not
only spread to all water bodies of
Bengal but also throughout India. It
drains oxygen from the water, which
leads to death of fishes and other
animals. It is very difficult to get rid
Adventitious roots off them since it can propagate
Bulb of Onion veget a t ivel y by offset at a
phenomenal rate and spread all over
the water body in a short period of
time.
Node
Intemode
Scale leaf

Daughter corm

Adventitious roots

Corm of Colocasia

(III) Subaerial or Creeping stems : Water Hyacinth

(i) Runner : It is elongated, prostrate, sub-
aerial branch with long internodes and
roots at nodes. Breaking of runners take
part in vegetative propagation. e.g.,
Grasses
(iii) Stolon : It is subterranean long lateral branch
arising from base of stem. It first grows obliquely
upward and then bends down to the ground surface.
e.g., Strawberry, Vallisneria
1.6 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

(vi) Leaves : Leaves of several plants

having adventitious buds help in
Leaf lets
vegetative reproduction. In
Bryophyllum adventitious buds arise
from the notches present at margins of
leaves.
Terminal bud e.g., Adiantum (walking fern), Begonia,
Stolon New plant Streptocarpus, Saintpaulia and
Scale leaf Kalanchoe.

Adventitious roots

Stolon of Strawberry

Sucker

Sucker in Chrysanthemum

(iv) Sucker : It arises by axillary bud of

underground part of stem. This lateral
branch creeps below the soil surface
and grows obliquely upward and
produces new shoot. e.g.,
Chrysanthemum, Pineapple
(v) Aerial shoots : Each segment of stem
having at least one node can form a
new plant. e.g., Sugarcane, Opuntia
(fleshy phylloclade)
Bryophyllum
(vii) Bulbils : These are special
modifications of vegetative buds or
floral buds which are meant for
production of new plant, e.g., Agave,
Oxalis, Ananas, Oioscorea, lily,
Chlorophytum

Intemode
Young plant
Bud
Node
Adventitious roots

A B

Propagation from aerial shoot in Sugarcane

Bulbil of Agave

Turion
Utricularia showing turtion
(viii) Turions : Fleshy buds in aquatic plants e.g.,
Potamogeton, Utricularia.
(B) Artificial Methods of Vegetative Reproduction :
Artificial methods are man-made special techniques in
which, part of somatic body of a plant is made to develop
into new independent plant. Artificial methods are used
to propagate desired varieties according to human
requirements. Rainy and spring seasons are the best
periods for vegetative propagation. The various
horticultural methods of vegetative propagation are as
follows :
(I) Cuttings : Cuttings are cut pieces of stem, leaves
and root which are planted in nurseries in natural
polarised fashion. Pre-requisite to successful
cutting is induction of rooting. For this, root
promoting chemicals like IBA, NAA are used.
• Root cuttings, e.g., Lemon, orange, blackberry
• Stem cuttings, e.g., rose, sugarcane, citrus,
Bougainvillea
• Leaf cuttings, e.g., Saintpaulia, Sansevieria
(II) Layering :
It is a type of rooting-cutting method in which
adventitious roots are induced to develop on a
soft stem while it is still attached to the plant. It
is carried out on one year old basal shoot branches
commonly during early spring or early rainy
season. A soft basal branch is defoliated in the
middle where a small injury or cut is also given,
like tongueing (oblique cut), notching (V-shaped
cut), ringing (removal of a ring of bark). The injured
defoliated part is pegged in the soil to develop
adventitious roots. The pegged down branch of
the plant is called layer. Later on as the roots
develop, the layer is separated and planted.
Layering is of following types:
Gootee (Air Layering) :-
It is an ancient horticultural technique for
propagation of tropical and subtropical trees and
shrubs where soft branches do not occur near
the soil. During early monsoon rains, 3-5 cm long
ring of bark is removed from the basal region of
a healthy and woody branch. It is covered by a
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.7
thick plaster of grafting clay. Grafting clay is made
of 1 part cow dung, 1 part finely cut hay or moss
and two parts clay. To it is added water and a
small quantity of root promoting hormones like
1M, IBA or NAA. It is then wrapped in polythene.
After 2-3 months, roots appear. The shoot is now
cut below the covered part and used for planting.
e.g., Litchi, Pomegranate.
Ring of bark or
Covered by Polythene
tissue removed
grafting clay tied over it
Air Layering in Rubber Plant
Soil layering was first discovered by Hartmann.
In drop layering, a plant capable of forming several
branches when it is grown in a deep soil.
e.g., Dwarf Rhododendron.
(III) Grafting:
(i) Grafting is a technique of connecting two
parts, usually a root system and a shoot
system of two different plants in such a
way that they unite and later develop as a
composite plant.
(ii) It is used only in cambium containing eustelic
plants.
(iii) A small shoot of plant with superior traits
is employed. It is called graft or scion. It
should have one to several buds. The root
system of the other plant is allowed to remain
intact. It is called stock (understock). The
shoot of the stock is often cut 10 - 30 cm
above the base of the root. Leaves and buds
present over the stump of stock are removed.
Plant with
superior shoot Plant with
desirable
system
root system
Scion
Stock
1.8 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

(iv) In grafting, scion is fixed over the stock genital chamber by the male phallomeres. Female
in a manner that cambia of the two come cockroach has a pair of ovary, one on either side and
in contact. The union is covered with embedded in fat bodies from 2nd to the 6th abdominal
grafting wax. It is then tied with the help segments. Each ovary consist of 8 ovarioles.
of a bandage, tape, rubber or nail. The Spermatheca stores the sperm received from the male
buds of the stock are not allowed to during copulation.
sprout. They are removed as soon as they It is interesting that most hermaphrodites do not
are noticed. reproduce by self-fertilization. For example, in
e.g., Mango, Apple, Pear, Citrus, Guava, earthworms, two animals copulate and each inseminates
Plum, Peach, Pine etc. the other. In some hermaphrodites, self - ferlitization is
(IV) Micropropagation : Micropropagation is the prevented by development of testes and ovaries at
raising of new plants from a small plant tissue different times.
with the help of tissue culture technique. Tissue Events in Sexual Reproduction
culture is the technique of maintaining and The entire sexual process can be divided into three phases :
growing cells, tissues, etc. and their differentiation
on artificial medium under aseptic conditions 1. Pre-fertilization events,
inside suitable containers. 2. Syngamy or fertilization and
• Gemmae are small, undifferentiated, 3. Post-fertilization events
multicellular green propagules which separate 1. Pre-fertilization events :
from parent plant and forms new plants e.g.,
Pre-fertilization events include two processes :
Marchantia, Funaria.
(i) Formation of gametes or Gametogenesis
• Resting buds are perennating fleshy buds, as
in Selaginella subdiaphana (ii) Gamete transfer
3. Sexual Reproduction (i) Gametogenesis : The process of formation of
gametes is known as Gametogenesis. As you
As mentioned earlier, sexual reproduction is the
know gametes are of two types — male and
production of offsprings by the fusion of specialised
female, and they are always haploid .
male and female cells, called gametes. Gametes are
haploid and provide the link between two generations. In animals the male gametes, called sperms are
The gametes fuse to form the fertilized egg or zygote, produced in the testes whereas the female
which eventually develops into a new organism. In gamete or the egg develops in the ovary. In
comparison to asexual reproduction, it is a slow comparison to male gametes female gametes
process. are always produced in much less number.
In mammals, the reproductive phase comes to an end
as organism grows old. This is accompanied by
slowing down of metabolism and ultimately results in
death.
Phases in life cycle
• Juvenile phase/vegetative phase
• Maturity phase
• Senescent phase
Sexuality in organism : Animals are either unisexual
(ants, wasps, bees, mosquito, cockroach, frog, birds,
rabbit, humans) or bisexual (or hermaphrodite, e. g.,
earthworm, tapeworm, leech etc.)
As already studied in cockroach in XI portion. Male and
female cockroach are separate and exhibit sexual
dimorphism. Male cockroach has two testes occupying
dorsolateral position just beneath the 4th to 6th
abdominal terga. Formation of three layered
spermatophore occurs which is transferred to the female
 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.9

Chromosome Numbers in Somatic Cells (diploid number)

and Gametes (haploid number) of Some Organisms
Chromosome Chromosome
Common Name Scientific Name number in number in
meiocyte (2n) gametes (n)
Rice Oryza sativa 24 12
Housefly Musca domestica 12 6
Butterfly Rhopalocera 380 190
Rat Rattus 42 21
Maize Zea maize 20 10
Cat Felis catus 38 19
Apple Malus domestica 34 17
Onion Allium cepa 16 8
Potato Solanum tuberusm 48 24
Man Homo sapiens 46 23
Dog Canis lupus familiaris 78 39
Fruitfly Drosophila melanogaster 8 4
Ophioglossum (a fern) Ophioglossum 1262 631

(ii) Gamete transfer : together and are in physical contact. The world
• After the formation of gametes, it is essential is full of a variety of organisms and generally
that male and female gametes are brought their males and females go their own way.
1.10 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
• But to reproduce, they have to get together in
right pairs, one male and one female of the
same species and of the right age. me most
primitive mechanisms for correct gametes to
come together are chemical.
• In several lower plants (algae and fungi) both
the gametes are motile, they differ only in
certain surface proteins.
• They are usually released in water and move
towards each other chemotactically. They
however, cannot recognize each other until
they touch.
• In some other groups of plants (bryophytes
and pteridophytes) the male gamete is motile
and the female is stationary. Although only
one male gamete is required to fertilize the egg
(female gamete) but they are produced in very
large numbers to ensure fertilization.
• In seed plants, male gametes develop in the
pollen and female gamete or egg lies in the
embryo sac within ovule (megasporangium).
• To bring male and female gametes together, it
is necessary that pollens from anther are
transferred to the stigma, this process is known
as pollination. If the transfer occurs between
two plants of different genetic make up, the
process is known as cross-pollination.
• If the transfer takes place between flowers of
identical genetic constitution, the process is
self-pollination. It is common to think of self-
pollination occurring within a single flower on
a plant such as garden pea where petals
enclose the stamens in such a way that the
pollen has little chance of escaping.
• However, it (self-pollination) also occurs if
pollen is transferred between different flowers
on the same plant. It is helped by insects
moving from flower to flower collecting nectar.
Pollens are also transferred between flowers
on two different plants which are genetically
identical, this is called cross-pollination.
• In dioecious animals male and female gametes
are formed in different individuals. For
fertilization to occur, sperm and egg must get
together. Animals have evolved different
strategies for this.
• For example, many animals secrete sex
pheromones to attract their partners. Male and
femaleinsectslikethesilkworm moth (Boinbyx
mon) produce tiny amounts of very volatile
pheromones that diffuse very long distances.
• Only male moths of this species are attracted
towards female by a distinctive alcohol
bomykol produced by female. Several marine
invertebrates release their gametes into the
water, there is no need for the parents to make
direct contact. In others Mating, is important
to bring male and female gametes in close
contact.
2. Syngamy and Fertilization :
• The most important step in the process of sexual
reproduction is the fusion of male and female
gametes. Although the terms syngamy and
fertilization are used synonymously, but the actual
act of fusion of gametes is syngamy whereas
fertilization includes all the events that ultimately
lead to syngamy.
• The result of syngamy and fertilization is the
formation of diploid zygote - a cell containing a set
of chromosome from each parent.
External and Internal Fertilization
• Fertilization may occur inside or outside the female
body. Animals with external fertilization may or may
not go for mating but it is essential when fertilization
is internal because the male gametes need to be
placed close to the egg inside the body.
• Many marine invertebrates release their gametes into
the water. The sperms swim to the eggs.
• Frogs have external fertilization, yet a form of mating
takes place. A male clings to a females back for hours,
until she releases eggs.
• Even fish, which cannot easily hold on to one another,
may have courtship leading to pairing of male and
female, before eggs are laid and fertilized.
• Courtship is an important prelude to mating. It gives
females an opportunity to assess the quality of a male.
• Also it allows time for co-ordination of the male and
female reproductive organs.
• Internal fertilization requires direct contact between
the sexes. In most birds, the opening of the
reproductive systems are simply brought together
while sperms are transferred.
• This is a brief encounter, typically a very few
seconds. Snails, insects and mammals have
developed special device for the delivery of sperms.
3. Post- Fertilization Events: These events include
formation of zygote and embryogenesis.
(i) Zygote
• In all sexually reproducing organisms fusion
of male and female gametes results in the
formation of zygote.
• In organisms with external fertilization, zygote
is formed outside the body, usually in water
as in frogs, bony fish etc.
• In organisms exhibiting internal fertilization,
zygote develops inside the body of the
organism.
 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.11

(ii) Embryogenesis • It means the process in which embryo is

• Development of embryo from the diploid formed by meiosis and fertilization is called
zygote is known as embryogenesis. Amphimixis.
Embryonic development is a complex process In angiosperms, double fertilization produces
which involves cell division and cell two structures, a diploid zygote (oospore) and
differentiation. These events proceed a triploid endosperm cell. Zygote forms
according to the genetic information embryo. The triploid primary endosperm cell
contained in the zygote and ultimately led to gives rise to a nutritive tissue called
the formation of mature animals. endosperm. Endosperm provides nourishment
• How amazing it is that from one fertilized to embryo. The fertilized ovule form seed.
zygote, cells as different as liver, muscle, nerve
and skin cells are produced.
• These cells differ from one another in that they
synthesis different enzymes and structural
proteins.
• The developing embryo grows in size at the
expense of food derived from outside. The
mammalian embryo is nourished by the
placenta.
• Depending upon the development of zygote
inside or outside the body of the female parent,
organisms have been classified into oviparous
and viviparous.
• Oviparous organisms lay eggs (e.g., some
species of sharks, skates, bony fishes, frog, Chara (Monoecious)
lizards,: birds), the yolk in the egg supplies
food for the embryo.
Antheridiophore
• In some oviparous organisms (e.g., reptiles
and birds), the fertilized eggs are covered by Archegoniophore
hard calcareous shell or in some cases with a
leathery coal.
• Such eggs are laid in a safe environment where
they are incubated for a certain period and
then” young ones hatch out.
• In viviparous organisms, on the other hand,
development of fertilized eggs into embryo
takes place within the uterus of the female Female thallus Male thallus
parent and the offsprings are born as,
juveniles. The embryo in viviparous,
Marchantia (Dioecious)
organisms receives nourishment from the
mothers blood through placenta.
• Many species of sharks are ovoviviparous.
In such organisms, the eggs are incubated
within modified portion of the oviduct called
uterus and the young ones are born alive
after hatching. During the development,
they depend on stored yolk for th eir
nourishment. Flowering Plant
• In Angiosperms male and female gametes are Parthenogenesis –
formed in male and female sex organs by the
Some organisms show a modified form of sexual reproduction
process of meiosis. Both the gametes fuse
in which the female gamete develops into a new individual
together to form a diploid zygote which gives
without being fertilized by a male gamete. This process is known
rise embryo.
1.12 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
as parthenogenesis and occurs naturally in animals. The
embryos developing from unfertilized haploid egg are naturally
haploid and this is known as haploid or generative
parthenogenesis.
This term was given by Bonnet, he discovered natural
parthenogenesis. It is also called as virgin reproduction. Egg
develops into a complete individual without fertilization. It is
a mode of sexual reproduction. Parthenogenesis is of two main
types, natural and artificial.
(1) Natural Parthenogenesis –
(i) Paedogenesis – Larva produce larva of new
generation by parthenogenesis.
Ex. – Sporocyst & Redia larva of Liver fluke.
(ii) Complete Parthenogenesis – Reproduction is
only by parthenogenesis.
All are females.
No males. Ex. – Lacerta (Lizard) & Typhlina
(Snake).
(iii) Incomplete Parthenogenesis – It includes both
sexual reproduction and parthenogenesis.
Ex. – Honeybee, Aphid, Wasp and Turkey (Bird).
(2) Artificial Parthenogenesis
In this type of partenogenesis, the egg ovum is induced
to develop into a complete individual by artificial stimuli.
Artificial parthenogenesis may be induced by physical
as well as chemical stimuli. Physical stimuli include
changes in temperatures and PH, electric shock and UV
light. Chemical stimuli include changes in the salt
concentration water, application of chloroform, ether,
alcohol etc.

NCERT BASED QUESTIONS
1. Mention two inherent characteristics of Amoeba and
yeast that enable them to reproduce asexually.
2. Why do we refer to offspring formed by asexual method
of reproduction as clones?
3. Although potato tuber is an underground part, it is
considered as a stem. Give two reasons.
4. Between an annual and a perennial plant, which one has
a shorter juvenile phase? Give one reason.
5. Rearrange the following events of sexual reproduction
in the sequence in which they occur in a flowering plant:
embryogenesis, fertilisation, gametogenesis, pollination.
6. The probability of fruit set in a self-pollinated bisexual
flower of a plant is far greater than a dioecious plant.
Explain.
7. Is the presence of large number of chromosomes in an
organism a hindrance to sexual reproduction? Justify
your answer by giving suitable reasons.
8. Is there a relationship between the size of an organism
and its life span? Give two examples in support of your
answer.
9. In the figure given below the plant bears two different
types of flowers marked ‘A’ and ‘B’. Identify the types
of flowers and state the type of pollination that will occur
in them.
A observed in certain plants like Bryophyllum, water
B
10. Give reasons as to why cell division cannot be a type
of reproduction in multicellular organisms.
REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.13
11. In the figure given below, mark the ovule and pericarp :
12. Why do gametes produced in large numbers in
organisms exhibit external fertilisation?
13. In haploid organisms that undergo sexual reproduction,
name the stage in the life cycle when meiosis occurs.
Give reasons for your answer.
14. The number of taxa exhibiting asexual reproduction is
drastically reduced in higher plants (angiosperms) and
higher animals (vertebrates) as compared with lower
groups of plants and animals. Analyse the possible
reasons for this situation.
15. Honeybees produce their young ones only by sexual
reproduction. Inspite of this, in a colony of bees we find
both haploid and diploid individuals. Name the haploid
and diploid individuals in the colony and analyse the
reasons behind their formation.
16. With which type of reproduction do we associate the
reduction division? Analyse the reasons for it.
17. Is it possible to consider vegetative propagation
hyacinth, ginger etc., as a type of asexual reproduction?
Give two/three reasons.
18. ‘Fertilisation is not an obligatory event for fruit
production in certain plants’. Explain the statement. In
a developing embryo, analyse the consequences if cell
divisions are not followed by cell differentiation.
19. List the changes observed in an angiosperm flower
subsequent to pollination and fertilisation.
20. Suggest a possible explanation why the seeds in a pea
pod are arranged in a row, whereas those in tomato are
scattered in the juicy pulp.
21. Draw the sketches of a zoospore and a conidium. Mention
two dissimilarities between them and atleast one feature
common to both structures.
1.14 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
22. Justify the statement ‘Vegetative reproduction is also a
type of asexual reproduction’.
23. Enumerate the differences between asexual and sexual
reproduction. Describe the types of asexual reproduction
exhibited by unicellular organisms.
24. Do all the gametes formed from a parent organism have
the same genetic composition (identical DNA copies of
the parental genome)? Analyse the situation with the
background of gametogenesis and provide or give
suitable explanation.
25. Although sexual reproduction is a long drawn, energy-
intensive complex form of reproduction, many groups of
organisms in Kingdom Animalia and Plantae prefer this
mode of reproduction. Give atleast three reasons for this.
26. Differentiate between (a) oestrus and menstrual cycles;
(b) ovipary and vivipary. Cite an example for each type.
27. Rose plants produce large, attractive bisexual flowers
but they seldom produce fruits. On the other hand a
tomato plant produces plenty of fruits though they have
small flowers. Analyse the reasons for failure of fruit
formation in rose. Both these plants – rose and tomato
– both selected by human beings for different
characteristics, the rose for its flower and tomato for its
fruit. Roses, being vegetatively propagated do not need
to produce seeds.
 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.15

EXERCISE - I
1. Which one is hermaphrodite ? 13. New Banana plants are developed from
(A) Earthworm, Hydra and Leech (A) rhizome (B) suckers
(B) Cockroach, Ascaris and Hydra (C) stolons (D) seed
(C) Earthworm, Ascaris and Leech 14. Tea and Cocoa are propagated by
(D) Ascaris, Cockroach and Hydra. (A) layering (B) stem cuttings
2. Conidia are asexual reproductive structures in. (C) grafting (D) bud grafting
(A) Chlamydomonas (B) Volvox 15. The vegetative propagation where a branch is injured,
(C) Penicillium (D) Spirogyra. defoliated and pegged down in the ground is known as
3. Gemma cups are located on the male and female thalami (A) layering (B) grafting
of Marchantia as (C) cutting (D) bud grafting
(A) they are always attached to thalami 16. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlets by
(B) they are detached from the parent body and germinate tissue culture method is called
to form new individuals (A) plantlet culture
(C) Gemma cups are protective in function (B) organ culture
(D) they produce gametes. (C) micropropagation
4. Diploid chromosome number in meiocytes of fruit fly is (D) macropropagation
(A) 8 (B) 380 17. In which one pair both the plants can be vegetatively
(C) 12 (D) 20 propagated by leaf pieces?
5. After fertilization the ovary develops into (A) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(A) seed (B) fruit (B) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(C) pericarp (D) stamens (C) Agave and Kalanchoe
6. In Lacerta saxicola armaniaca (a lizard), there are (D) Asparagus and Bryophyllum .
(A) females only (B) males only 18. In grafting stock and scion ought to be joined
(C) bisexual only (D) both (A) and (B) (A) phloem to phloem
7. In which type of parthenogenesis, only males are (B) xylem to xylem
produced? (C) pith to pith
(A) Arrhenotoky (D) cambium to cambium
(B) Thelytoky 19. If the plant fails to develop viable seeds, these could
(C) Amphitoky best be grown by
(D) Both (A) and (B) (A) cuttings
8. Vegetative propagation plays a vital role in (B) sexual means
(A) sericulture (B) apiculture (C) grafting
(C) sylviculture (D) horticulture (D) micropropagation
9. Adventitive embryony in Citrus is due to 20. Grafting in sugarcane cannot be performed because
(A) egg (B) nucellus (A) vascular bundles are scattered
(C) embryo (D) integument (B) phloem is internal to xylem
10. Grafting in monocots is rarely successful because (C) sugarcane plant is delicate
(A) monocots have closed vascular bundles (D) it is unable to bear injury
(B) monocots are without cambium 21. In grafted plant, stock has 48 chromosomes and scion
(C) both (A) and (B) 24 chromosomes. The chromosome number for root cells
(D) both wrong and eggs are
11. If you have taken scion of desi mango and stock of dasheri (A) 48 and 24 (B) 24 and 24
mango, what type of mango will be born? (C) 24 and 12 (D) 48 and 12
(A) Dasheri (B) Desi 22. Ramet is
(C) Hybrid (D) None (A) clone
12. In Agave, vegetative reproduction occurs through (B) callus
(A) rhizome (B) stolon (C) cell aggregate
(C) bulbils (D) suckers (D) individual member of a clone
1.16 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

23. Which one group of plants is propagated through (C) flowers once in every year
underground roots ? (D) dies after flowering once in its life cycle.
(A) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe 32. Exponential growth occurs in
(B) Pistia, Chrysanthemum and Pineapple (A) yeast
(C) Ginger, Potato, Onion, Zamikand (B) asexual reproduction
(D) Sweet Potato, Asparagus, Tapioca and Dahlia (C) bacteria
24. A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of fruits (D) all of these
produced will be determined by the genotype of 33. A horizontal underground stem is a
(A) stock (A) corm (B) phylloclade
(B) scion (C) rhizome (D) rhizoid
(C) both stock and scion 34. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by
(D) neither stock nor scion (A) offset (B) rhizome
25. The living organisms can be unexceptionally (C) sucker (D) runner
distinguished from the non-living things on the basis of 35. Micropropagation is a technique
their ability for
(A) for production of true plants
(A) reproduction
(B) for production of haploid plant
(B) growth and movement
(C) for production of somatic hybrids
(C) responsiveness to touch
(D) for production of somaclonal plants.
(D) interaction with the environment and progressive
36. In double fertilization
evolution
(A) two male gametes fuse with two eggs
26. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the division
(B) one male gamete fuses with the egg and the other
of
fuses with the secondary nucleus
(A) vegetative cell
(C) one male gamete fuses with the egg and the other
(B) microspore mother cell
fuses with the antipodal
(C) microspore
(D) one male gamete fuses with the antipodal and the
(D) generative cell other fuses with the diploid nucleus
27. These processes are necessary for the complete 37. Synergids are
development of male gametophyte from pollen mother
(A) haploid (B) diploid
cell.
(C) triploid (D) tetraploid
(A) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions
38. Match the items in column I with column II and choose
(B) One meiotic cell division and one mitotic cell division
the correct option.
(C) Two meiotic cell divisions and one mitotic cell
Column I Column II
division
A. Binary fission 1. Algae
(D) Two mitotic cell divisions
B. Zoospore 2. Amoeba
28. It can regenerate entire alimentary canal.
C. Conidium 3. Hydra
(A) Amphibian
D. Budding 4. Penicillium
(B) Fish
E. Gemmules 5. Sponge
(C) Sea cucumber
(A) A - 1, B - 4, C - 5, 0 - 3, E - 2
(D) Birds
(B) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, 0 - 3, E - 5
29. External fertilization occurs in majority of
(C) A - 1, B - 2 4, C - 3, 0 - 2, E - 5
(A) algae (B) fungi
(D) A - 4, B -1, C - 3, 0 - 5, E - 2
(C) liverworts (D) mosses 39. Which one of the following processes results in the
30. The type of asexual reproduction found in Hydra is formation of clone of bacteria?
(A) multiple fission (A) Binary fission (B) Conjugation
(B) budding (C) Transformation (D) Transduction .
(C) sporulation 40. The egg apparatus of angiosperm comprises
(D) binary fission (A) an egg cell and two antipodals
31. Monocarpic plant (B) an egg cell and two synergids
(A) flowers twice in every year (C) an egg cell and two polar nuclei
(B) bears only one type of flower (D) an egg cell and the central cell .
 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.17

41. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals, vitamins 54. The endosperm cells in angiosperms are
and proteins is called (A) haploid (B) diploid
(A) somatic hybridisation (C) triploid (D) tetraploid
(B) biofortification 55. The fleshy edible part of an apple is
(C) biomagnification (A) thalamus (B) nucellus
(D) micropropagation. (C) ovary (D) endosperm
42. Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs by
56. Why asexual reproduction is sometimes
(A) stolon (B) offset
disadvantageous?
(C) runner (D) sucker.
(A) It allows animals that do not move around to produce
43. Which of the following is pollinated by water?
offspring without finding mates
(A) Viola (B) Yucca
(B) It allows an animal to produce many offspring quickly
(C) Oxalis (D) Zostera
(C) It saves the time and energy of gamete production
44. Find out the wrongly matched pair
(D) It produces genetically uniform populations
(A) tuber - potato; (B) rhizome - ginger ;
57. External syngamy occurs in case of
(C) bulbil – Agave (D) leaf buds - banana;
45. Asexual reproduction in fungi takes place by (A) Reptiles (B) Birds
(A) endospore (B) gametangia (C) Mammals (D) Bony fishes
(C) exospores (D) conidiospore 58. The term ‘parthenogenesis’ was coined by :
46. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of (A) Owen (B) Boveri
(A) Citrus (B) Gossypium (C) Balfour (D) Grobben
(C) Triticum (D) Srassica 59. Natural parthenogenesis occurs in :
47. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents (A) honeybee
(A) endangered species found in the region (B) all insects
(B) the diversity in the organisms living in the region (C) protozoans
(C) genetic diversity in the dominant species of the region (D) earthworm
(D) All of these 60. In oogamy, fertilization involves :
48. Testa of a seed is produced from (A) a large nonmotile female gamete and a small motile
(A) ovary wall male gamete
(B) hilum (B) a large motile female gamete and a small nonmotile
(C) outer integument of ovule male gamete
(D) funicle (C) a small nonomotile female gamete and a large motile
49. The ovule in which the funicle, chalaza and micropyle lie male gamete
in one vertical plane, is called (D) a large nonmotile female gamete and a small nonmotile
(A) campylotropous male gamete
(B) amphitropous 61. Why sometimes, even diploid offspring is produced
(C) orthotropous through parthenogenesis ?
(D) anatropous (A) When offspring is produced without fertilization of
50. Ovule integument gets transformed into diploid egg cell
(A) seed (B) fruit wall (B) When offspring is produced through fertilization of
(C) seed coat (D) cotyledons diploid egg cell
51. Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in (C) When offspring is produced without fertilization of
(A) papaya (B) cucumber haploid egg cell
(C) castor (D) maize (D) When offspring is produced through fertilization of
52. In general, pollen tube enters the ovule through haploid egg cell
(A) micropyle (B) chalaza 62. The process in which haploid embryo is formed from
(C) hilum (D) funicle haploid egg without fertilization is called
53. Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma of another (A) apospory
flower of the same plant is called as (B) apogamy
(A) geitonogamy (B) xenogamy (C) agamospermy
(C) cleistogamy (D) chasmogamy (D) vegetative reproduction
1.18 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

63. Match the following and choose the correct combination (C) Meiosis is never involved as all divisions are mitotic
from the option given. (D) Growth due to synthesis of more protoplasm
Column-I Column-II 69. Binary fission is a form of :
(Organisms) Approximate life span) (A) asexual reproduction
A. Butterfly 1. 60 years (B) sexual reproduction
B. Crow 2. 140 years (C) both of these
C. Parrot 3. 15 years (D) none of these
D. Crocodile 4. 1–2 weeks
70. Fusion of two dissimilar gametes is known as:
(A) A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4
(A) allogamy (B) autogamy
(B) A = 4, B = 3, C = 1, D = 2
(C) anisogamy (D) paedogenesis
(C) A = 2, B =3, C = 4, D = 1
71. Which of the following statement is not correct w.r.t.
(D) A = 4, B = 3, C = 2, D = 1
earthworm?
64. Why asexual reproduction is sometimes
(A) One pair of testis in segment 9
disadvantageous?
(A) It allows animals that do not move around to produce (B) One pair of ovary in segment 13
offspring without finding mates (C) Protandrous condition
(B) It allows an animal to produce many offspring quickly (D) Cross-fertilization
(C) It saves the time and energy of gamete production 72. Which of the following is the longest living animal?
(D) It produces genetically uniform population (A) Whale (B) Giant tortoise
65. Isogamous condition with non-flagellated gametes is (C) Hippopotamus (D) Elephant
found in : 73. Asexual reproduction result in :
(A) Volvos (B) Fucus (A) rapid increase in number
(C) Spirogyra (D) Chlamydomonas (B) little genetic variability
66. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates : (C) production of clones
(A) Large biomass (D) all of these
(B) Prolonged dormancy
74. Multiple fission occurs in :
(C) Longer viability of seeds
(A) Hydra (B) Planaria
(D) new genetic combination leading to variation
(C) Plasmodium (D) All of these
67. Which of the following pair of animals are having almost
similar Maximum life span ? 75. Hydra reproduces by budding. This is an example of :
(A) Ant queen and squirrel (A) parthenocarpy
(B) Toad and house mouse (B) regeneration
(C) Bull frog and house rat (C) asexual reproduction
(D) Carp and guinea-pig (D) sexual reproduction
68. Which one can’t be included under basic feature of 76. Among butterfly, pigeon, horse and goat, which one has
reproduction ? the highest chromosome number in gametes?
(A) DNA replication (A) Butterfly (B) Pigeon
(B) Formation of reproductive units (C) Horse (D) Goat
 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS 1.19

EXERCISE - II
(Previous Year AIPMT Examination Questions)

1. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop 9. Select the wrong statement: (2013)
plants ? (2005) (A) Isogametes are similar in structure, function and
(A) It reduces the vigour of the plant behavior
(B) The seeds exhibit long dormancy (B) Anisogametes differ either in structure, function of
(C) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant behaviour
(D) The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions (C) In Oomycetes female gamete is smaller and
for the next season motile,while male gamete is larger and non-motile
2. In which one pair both the plants can be vegetatively (D) Chlamydomonas exhibits both isogamy and
propagated by leaf pieces ? (2005) anisogamy and Fucus shows oogamy
(A) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe 10. Product of sexual reproduction generally generates:
(B) Agave and Kalanchoe (2013)
(C) Asparaguns and Bryophyllum (A) Longer viability of seeds
(D) Chrysanthemum and Agave (B) Prolonged dormancy
3. Top-shaped multiciliate male gametes, and the mature (C) New genetic combination leading to variation
seed which bears only one embryo with two cotyledons, (D) Large biomass
are characteristic features of: (2005) 11. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Gamopetalous angiosperms (2015)
(B) Conifers Mode of reproduction Example
(C) Polypetalous angiosperms (A) Conidia Penicillium
(D) Cycads (B) Offset Water hyacinth
4. Vegetative propagation in mint occurs by: (2009) (C) Rhizome Banana
(A) Sucker (B) Runner (D) Binary fission Sargassum
(C) Offset (D) Rhizome 12. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants
5. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are: (2011) involves the process of : (2016)
(A) axillary buds (A) Sporulation
(B) root buds (B) Budding
(C) Somatic hybridization
(C) flower buds
(D) Apomixis
(D) shoot buds
13. Which one of the following generates new genetic
6. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
combinations leading to variation ? (2016)
(2012)
(A) Sexual reproduction
(A) Chlamydomonas - Conidia
(B) Nucellar polyembryony
(B) Yeast - Zoospores
(C) Vegetative reproduction
(C) Onion - Bulb
(D) Parthenogenesis
(D) Ginger - Sucker 14. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both : (2017)
7. Meiosis takes place in: (2013) (A) Autogamy and xenogamy.
(A) Meiocyte (B) Conidia (B) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(C) Gemmule (D) Megaspore (C) Geitonogamy and xenogamy.
8. Monoecious plant of Chara shows occurrence of: (D) Cleistogamy and xenogamy.
(2013)
15. Offsets are produced by [NEET-2018]
(A) Antheridiophore and archegoniophore on the same
(A) Parthenocarpy
plant
(B) Stamen and carpel on the same plant (B) Mitotic divisions
(C) Upper antheridium and lower oogonium on the same (C) Meiotic divisions
plant (D) Parthenogenesis
(D) Upper oogonium and lower antheridium on the same
plant
1.20 REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

EXERCISE – III
(Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
In each of the following questions two statements are given. One is assertion (A) and other is reason
(R). Mark the correct answer as
(A) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(B) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) If A is true but R is Wrong.
(D) If both A and R are false.

1. Assertion (A) : Parthenogenesis is a kind of variation
of sexual reproduction.
Reason (R) : In Parthenogenesis, a young one
develop from an ovum but without
fertilization.
2. Assertion (A): All member of bee society are diploid
except the drones.
Reason (R) : Drones are produced
parthenogenetically.
3. Assertion (A): The honey bee queen copulates only
once in her life time.
Reason (R) : Fertilization is not essential for the
development of fruit.
4. Assertion (A) :Grafting is not usually possible in
monocots.
Reason (R) : Successful grafting requires that cambia
of both stock and scion fuse to form
new vascular tissues.
5. Assertion (A): Viviparous animals give better
protection to their offspring’s.
Reason (R) : They lay their egg in sager places in the
environment.

ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE – I

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (B) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (C) 50. (C)
51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (A)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (D) 64. (D) 65. (C) 66. (B) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C) 71. (A)
72. (A) 73. (D) 74. (C) 75. (C) 76. (A)

EXERCISE – II

1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)

11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (B) 15. (2)

EXERCISE – III

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C)

 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
2 FLOWERING PLANTS
Are we not lucky that plants reproduce sexually? The myriads attached on the first lower node are called calyx. The corolla
of flowers that we enjoy gazing at, the scents and the perfumes born on the second node. Androecium are present on the third
that we swoon over, the rich colours that attract us, are all there node and gynoecium on the fourth node in uppermost position.
as an aid to sexual reproduction. Flowers do not exist only for
us to be used for our own selfishness. All flowering plants
show sexual reproduction. A look at the diversity of structures
of the inflorescences, flowers and floral parts, shows an amazing
range of adaptations to ensure formation of the end products
of sexual reproduction, the fruits and seeds. In this chapter, let
us understand the morphology, structure and the processes of
sexual reproduction in flowering plants (angiosperms).
Flower - A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms :
Human beings have had an intimate relationship with flowers
since time immemorial. Flowers are objects of aesthetic,
ornamental, social, religious and cultural value – they have
always been used as symbols for conveying important human
feelings such as love, affection, happiness, grief, mourning,
etc.
Flowers are modified condensed reproductive shoots. The Figure : A diagrammatic representation
whorls present in the flower are the modifications of leaves and
of L.S. of a flower
arranged in four circles on the thalamus. The four nodes are
present on the thalamus, in which first modified leaves are

Anthophore
The length of internode increase which is
present in between Calyx and Corolla.e.g.
Silene, Dianthus.
Gynophore
If the internode elongated between androecium
and gynoecium .e.g. Capparis.
Androphore
The length of internode between the corolla
and androecium increases. It is called e.g. Passiflora.
Gynandrophore or Androgynophore
Both androphore and gynophore are present
e.g. Gynandropsis pentaphylla and Cleome gynandra.

Carpophore
In some flowers; thalamus grows inside the ovary
is called e.g. Coriandrum and Foeniculum.
Calyx is also modified vegetative leaves. Such as
in Mussaenda flower, one sepals of calyx modified
into leaf like bright and attractive yellow colour structure
called "Advertising flag ". It helps in pollination
In Nymphaea Petals like stamens are present.

Male Reproductive Organ – Androecium :
Male reproductive organ is called androecium and their unit is
called stamen.
Stamen is also known as microsporophyll. There are 6 stamens
in Capsella. A typical stamen is differentiates into three parts -a
long, thin structure is called filament which joins the stamen to
the thalamus. The free end of the filament, a swollen spore bearing
structure is called anther. Anther and filament are attached together
with help of small region, called connective. Connective contains
vascular tissues. The main parts of the stamen is the anther .
Each anther generally bilobed structure i.e., anther has two
anther lobes is called dithecous.
Each lobe of anther has two chambers which are called pollen
sacs or pollen chambers.
2.2 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

Figure : (a) A typical stamen

(b) three–dimensional cut section of an anther

T.S. of anther, showing four microsporangia and anther walls

 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.3

Therefore, a typical anther has four pollen sacs is called which is member of the cruciferae or Brassicaceae, anther are
tetrasporangiate. Pollen grains are formed inside the pollen dithecous and tetrasporangiate type.
sac through the meiotic division in pollen mother cells. At the But in Malvaceae, Moringa, Wolffia plants the anther of stamen
maturity of the pollen grains, sterile tissue degenerate which has only one anther lobe. This is called monothecous and it
are present in between the pollen sacs. Both the pollen sac contains only two pollen sacs called Bisporangiate. In
fused together. Because of this reason, only one chamber Arceuthobium where there is only one microsporangium per
appears in each anther lobe at maturity. So two chambers are anther. This condition is called Monosporangiate.
seen in the mature anther at the time of dehiscence. In Capsella,
(A) Structure of Anther :
The development of anther in origin is Eusporangiate type, i.e., it is developed from more then one archesporial cells. In the transverse
section of anther, it is seen almost spherical.
The following structures are present in the anther :-

Epidermis
It is the outermost layer of anther. It is single celled thick
and continuous layer but not archesporial in origin. It
forms the outermost protective layer.In Arceuthobium

in epidermis so it is called exothecium

.

Middle layer
Middle layer consists of parenchymatous cells.This layer is
one to three celled thick structure . Food is stored by
parenchymatous cells in this layer. Middle layer is
ephemeralin nature and absent in a mature anther.
Note: (1) In Holoptelia plant 3 to 4 celled thick middle layer
is present. (2) In Najadaceae & Lemnaceae families middle
layer is absent. (3) In Wol? a middle layer is absent.

T. S. of young anther showing four microsporangia and vascular bundle.

2.4 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

Pollen sacs : Four Pollen sacs are present in the anther. microspores are called pollen grains. At the initial
Pollen sacs are also known as microsporangia. Inside stage, all four microspores are attached together with
the pollen sacs, microspores are formed by the meiotic the help of callose layer. This group of microspores is
division of microspore mother cells. called tetrad. After some time, this callose layer dissolve
(B) Microsporogenesis (Development of Pollen grains): by callase enzyme which is secreted by tapetum.
Each microspore mother cell divide to form four haploid
microspore or pollen grain by meiotic division or
reduction division. During this period spherical bodies
are formed inside the tapetal cells before their
disintegration.
These spherical bodies are known as Ubisch-body. Ubisch
body is made up of a complex substance called
sporopollenin. It is the polymer of carotenoids. After the
formation of ubisch body, the tapetum layer degenerates.
Ubisch bodies participate in the formation of exine of the
microspores inside the pollen sacs. Now thick walled

(a) Enlarged view of a pollen grain tetrad;

(b) stages of a microspore maturing into a pollen grain

Different Type Tetrad of Angiosperm
The common type of tetrads are
(i) Tetrahedral tetrad :-
Four haploid microspores arranged in
tetrahedral form Example:
Dicotyledons- (Capsella) .
(iii) Decussate Tetrad :-
In this two microspores lies at the
right angle of other microspores
Example :- Magnolia
Decussate
(v) Linear tetrad - In this tetrad all four
pollens arranged in linear order.
e.g., Halophylla, Halophia.
(C) Structure of Microspore or Pollen grain : Pollen grain
is the first cell of a male gametophyte.
STRUCTURE OF POLLEN GRAINS
Scanning electron micrographs of a few pollen grains
Pollen grain is termed as immature male gametophyte.
Usually, they are in round shape. Pollen grain surrounded
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.5
(ii) Isobilateral tetrad :- This condition is
found in monocotyledons.
Microspores are arranged at the
lateral side of each other.
Isobilateral
(iv) T-Shaped tetrad :- Two microspores lie
longitudinally and two microspores lie at
transversly in this type of tetrad.
Example :- Aristolochia & Butomopsis .
T-shaped
by two distinct layers. The outer layer (wall) is thick,
rigid and ornamented, called exine. This layer is formed
by cutin and sporopollenin. Sporopollenin is highly
resistent material. It is non-biodegradable.
Due to the presence of sporopollenin, fossils of pollen
grain are always found in good condition. The
presence of fossils of pollen grains can forecast the
presence of natural resources like petroleum, coals
etc. in the earth.
The internal layer is thin, soft and elastic in nature. It
is called intine. It is made up of pectin and cellulose or
pecto- cellulose.
Usually, at few places on outer surface exine is absent
or present in the form of thin layer. These thin places
are called germ pore. The intine comes out through the
any one germ pore during the germination of pollen grain
in the form of pollen tube.
The number of germ pore, structure and ornamentation
of exine is a significant feature of taxonomy.
A detail study of pollen grains is called Palynology.
Three colpus type (slit type) of germpore are present
in pollen grain of most of the dicots (Capsella). This
type of pollen grains are called tricolpate. Only one
germ pore is present in monocots and pollen grain is
called monocolpate.
2.6 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
(D) Micro-Gametogenesis (Structure and Development of
Male gametophyte) :
In flowering plants, pollen grain or microspore considered
as first cell of male gametophyte. Germination or
development of pollen grain takes place before
dehiscence of anther. So it is called as precocious
development. Development of pollen also takes place at
mother place [inside pollensac of anther] is called In-situ
development.
(i) Pre-Pollination development –
In the beginning of the process, only nucleus of
pollen grain divided by unequal mitotic division,
resulting two unequal size of nucleus are formed.
Small nucleus present near the wall is called
generative nucleus and large nucleus present inside
the cytoplasm is called Tube or Vegetative nucleus.
Both the nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm and
it becomes dense, then followed by unequal
cytokinesis, resulting two unequal size of the cells
are formed.
Larger cell in which large nucleus is present known
as Vegetative cell and smaller cell in which small
nucleus is present , called generative cell.
Now pollen grains come in bicelled and
binucleated stage. In Angiosperms pollination of
pollen grains take place in bicelled and binucleated
stage in 60% Angiosperms and in 40%
Angiosperms pollination occurs at 3-celled stage.
In this generative cell divides and form two male
gametes. The development of gametophyte takes
place inside the sporangia is also known as
endosporic development.
This stage of pollen grain is called immature or
partially developed male gametophyte.
Generative cell detached from the wall and
changed into vermiform or spindle shaped
structure and enter inside the vegetative cell.
(ii) Post Pollination development –
Further development of pollen grain [Immature
male gemetophyte] takes place on the stigma
of Carpel after pollination. Pollens absorb
moisture and sugar content from the stigma.
Due to this volume of internal contents of
cytoplasm increased. It exerts pressure on the
both outer layers. Because of this pressure
intine comes out through any one germ pore in
the form of tube like structure called pollen
tube.
First of all vegetative nucleus enter into the
pollen tube and assumes terminal [tips]
position. This spindle shaped generative now
enter into the pollen tube. Inside the pollen
tube, generative cell divides mitotically and to
form a two non motile male gametes. Now male
gametophyte comes in three celled structure
in which one vegetative cell and two male
gametes are present.
This three celled stage represents the mature male
gametophyte of Angiosperm [Capsella also].
Male gametophyte is highly reduced and
completely depends on sporophyte.
First of all pollen tube discovered by G.B. Amici
in Portulaca plant.
Longest pollen tube is found in Zea mays.
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.7

Female Reproductive Organ-Gynoecium : attachment of the funicle with the ovule is called hilum.
Gynoecium is the female reproductive organ. The free unit of The main region of the ovule is composed by mass of
gynoecium is called pistil or carpel. parenchymatous cells called nucellus. Nucellus is the
Carpel is also known as megasporophyll. main part of ovule. The nucellus is covered by one or two
The carpel is differentiated into three distinct region - coats called integuments.
(i) Stigma (ii) Style (iii) Ovary In most of the ovule, funicle is attached to the main body
of ovule for some distance (at lateral side) to form a ridge
The free end of the carpel which receives pollen grains is called
like structure known as Raphe.
stigma. A long, narrow tubular structure is present in between
the stigma and ovary called style. The basal swollen part of the
carpel is called ovary. The ovules is also known as
megasporongia which are borne on a cushion-like tissue called
placenta in the ovary. One or more than one ovules are present
inside the ovary.

Mature ovule

(A) Structure of Ovule or Megasporangium

A ridge or stalk like out growth is formed from the placenta
of the ovary on which body of ovules are present. Each
ovule attached to the placenta by means of a thin stalk
called funicle or funiculus/Funiculum. The point of Embryosac
2.8 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

Vascular tissues are present inside the funiculus
which supply food material from the placenta to the
body of ovule. A place from where funicle and
integuments arise is called Chalaza. Integument is
absent just opposite to the chalaza, so that a narrow
passage (pore) is formed which is called micropyle.
Micropyle in bitegmic ovule has two parts - outer
region which is surrounded by outer integument is
called exostome. The inner part of micropyle which
is surrounded by inner integument called endostome.
In most of the Angiosperms, entire part of the nucellus
is utilized by developing embryo sac but in some of
the Angiosperm some part of the nucellus remain
inside the ovules that remaining part of the nucellus
present inside the seed in the form of a thin layer
known as perisperm. Perisperm is commonly found
in Piperaceae (Piper nigrum) and Zingiberaceae
Families (Turmeric, Ginger). Some filaments are
attached with funicle [some times placenta] are known
as "Obturators". The function of obturators is to
guide the passage of pollen tube towards the
micropyle inside the ovary.
Types of ovules on the basis of Nucellus -
(i) Tenuinucellate - The nucellus is either less
developed or present in the form of single layer.
Example :- Gamopetalae group.
(ii) Crassinucellate :- The nucellus is massive type
i.e., it is made up of many layers.
Example :- Polypetalae group and Monocots
The nucellus degenerates in plants of
Compositae family and integuments becomes
active to form a nucellus like tissue. This is called
endothelium or integumentary tapetum. It is
polyploid structure. The nucellus dissolves in the
members of Podostemaceae family to form a
nutritional cavity. This is termed pseudoembryo-
sac.
(B) Types of Ovules :
There are six different types of ovules are found in
Angiosperms on the basis of relationship of the
micropyle, chalaza, and hilum with body of the ovule
and orientation on the funiculus:

Orthotropous (atropous, erect) Amphitropous

Anatropous (inverted)

Betel, Piper, Polygonum and in Malvoaceae, Cucurbitaceae, Mirabilis , Lemna, Poppy,

Gymnosperms. most primitive Compositae family. Alisma, Butomaceae family.
and most simple type of ovule It is also called resupinate ovule. embryo sac becomes horse
of Angiosperms. most common type of ovule shoe shaped.

Hemiltropous (half inverted)

Campylotropous
Circinotropous
Leguminosae, Capparidaceae, Ranunculus, Primula, Golphimia. Cactaceae family - Opuntia
Cruciferae family [Capsella] ovule bent on funcile at 90° angle
0 body of ovule present on
nucellus is present in curved intermediate type between ortho funicle at 360° body of ovule
0

position but the embryo sac remain and anatropous ovules. inverted and again turned into
straight. straight position
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.9

(C) Megasporogenesis : It divides meiotically to form, four haploid megaspores.

During the development of ovule, in the beginning of
this process, nucellus develops from the placenta in the
form of a small rounded out growth like structure. At this
stage, all the cells of nucellus are undifferentiated,
homogenous and meristematic. This mass of cells
surrounded by single celled thick layer of epidermis.
Any one hypodermal cell of nucellus is differentiated
and increase in size. It becomes different from rest of the
cells due to presence of distinct nucleus. It is called
archesporial cell. Archesporium divides periclinally to
form an outer primary parietal cell and inner Primary
Sporogenous cell. Activity of Primary Parietal cell
depends on type of plants. If plant belongs to
gamopetalae then it forms tenuinucellate type ovule and
if plant belongs to polypetalae then it forms
crassinucellate type of ovule. The primary sporogenous
cell directly act as a megaspore mother cell.
The four haploid megaspores generally arranged in
linear tetrad. Generally the lower most or chalazal
megaspore remains functional out of tetrad of
megaspores and the other three lie towards the micropyle
degenerate. This functional megaspore produces female
gametophyte. In most of Angiosperms [Capsella],
Chalazal megaspore remains functional.
(D) Development of Embryosac or Female gametophyte–
Megagametogenesis :- In a majority of flowering
plants, one of the megaspores is functional while the
oth er t hr ee degen er at e. Onl y th e functional
megaspore develops into the female gametophyte
(embryo sac). This method of embryo sac formation
from a single megaspore is termed monosporic
development.
What will be the ploidy of the cells of the nucellus,
MMC, t he fun ct iona l mega spor e an d fema le
gametophyte?

(a) Parts of the ovule showing a large megaspore mother cell, a dyad and a tetrad of megaspores;
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 8-nucleate stages of embryo sac and a mature embryo sac;
(c) A diagrammatic representation of the mature embryo sac.
2.10 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
Let us study formation of the embryo sac in a little more
detail. The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides
mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the opposite
poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac. Two more
sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation
of the 4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate stages of the
embryo sac. It is of interest to note that these mitotic
divisions are strictly free nuclear, that is, nuclear
divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall
formation. After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid
down leading to the organisation of the typical female
gametophyte or embryo sac. Observe the distribution of
cells inside the embryo sac. Six of the eight nuclei are
surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells; the
remaining two nuclei, called polar nuclei are situated
below the egg apparatus in the large central cell. There
Pollination is of two types :-
1. Self pollination or Autogamy :
If the pollen grain are transferred from an anther to the
stigma of the same flower, or different flowers of the
same plant is called self pollination or autogamy.
is a characteristic distribution of the cells within the
embryo sac. Three cells are grouped together at the
micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus. The
egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and
one egg cell. The synergids have special cellular
thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus,
which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes
into the synergid. Three cells are at the chalazal end and
are called the antipodals. The large central cell, as
mentioned earlier, has two polar nuclei. Thus, a typical
angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate
is 7-celled.
POLLINATION
"Pollination is defined as the process of transfer of pollen grains
from anther to the stigma of the same flower or of different
flower of the same species."
2. Cross pollination or Allogamy :
When the pollen grains are transferred to the stigma of
other flower of the same species is called Cross pollination
or Allogamy. It takes place in between two different flowers.

Cross pollination is of two types :-
Geitonogamy
When, pollination takes place in between the two
flowers of the same plant then it is called
geitonogamy. From the genetical point of view
geitonogamy is self pollination because all
flowers of the same plant are genetically
identical. But ecologically, it is considered as
cross pollination.
Contrivances or Adaptation for Self Pollination
(i)Monocliny (Bisexuality):-It means ? owers are
bisexual.
(ii)Homogamy :- When both the sex Organs of a ? ower
mature at the same time. It is called Homogamy. It
increases chances for self pollination. E.g. Mirabilis,
Catharanthus.
(iii)Cleistogamy :- In some plants bisexual ? ower are and carpels of a ? ower do not mature at the sametime.
formed which never opens throughout the life.Such
? owers are called cleistogamous ? owers, such as
Commelina,Viola,Oxalis, Juncus, Drosera.Commelina
plant have two types of ? owers. One type
of ? owers are cleistogamous and another are
in
is called keel. This keel never opens . So only self Cruciferae and Rosaceae family .
pollination takes place in these plants.
(iv)Bud pollination:-This pollination occurs in budstage floral bud in the form of a flower is called anthesis
before the opening of flowers.e .g. Pisum,Wheat, Rice.
Methods of Cross Pollination
1. Anemophily :
When the pollen grains are transfer from one flower
to the another flower through the air is called
anemophily and flower is known as anemophilous
flowers. Such as Cereal plants :- Maize etc.
Anemophily is also found in all Gymnosperms. The
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.11
Xenogamy
When the pollination takes place in between the
two different flowers of two different plants of
the same species then it is called xenogamy.
This is or true cross pollination. Genetically, as
well as ecologically, it is cross pollination.
Contrivances for Cross Pollination
(i)Dicliny (Unisexuality) :- Presence of unisexual ? owers
con? rm cross pollination. Self pollination never takes place in
these ? owers. It means allogamy becomes compulsory.
Examples – Morus, Palms, Date Palms, Cucumber and
Cucurbita, Carica.
(ii)Dichogamy :-
Dichogamy is of two types –
(a)Protandry :- The anther of a ? ower mature earlier than
pollinated only because of protandrus condition. E.g. Salvia,
Sun? ower, Cotton.
(b)Protogyny :- The carpels of the ? ower mature earlierthan
stamens. It occurs in few plantse.g .
, most of plants of
(iii)Chasmogamy or Anthesis :-Opening [blooming] of the
.
(iv)Herkogamy :- In some plants, morphological barriers are
only cross pollination is possible. e.g. Gloriosa, Calotropis and
caryophyllaceae family.
(v)Heterostyly :-
? laments of stamens and length of stylein ? owers of some plants.
Some of the plants having long stamen andshort style, and in
reason, self pollination can not possible in these plants e.g.
Primrose, Linum, Primula .
(vi) Prepotency:– Growth of its pollen tube of self pollinated
pollen grain is very slow and growth of the pollen tube of cross
pollinated pollen grain is very fast so pollen tube of cross
pollinated pollen grains reach earlier inside the ovule.This is
termed prepotency. e.g, Apple, Grapes
anemophilous plants produce enormous amount of
pollen grains. The pollen grains are very small, light
weight and dry and their stigma is hairy or brushy
and mucilagenous (Sticky).
Yellow clouds are formed in the sky during the wind
pollination in Pinus. These yellow clouds are formed
due to the pollen grains are called "Sulphur Showers".
2.12 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
Anemophilous flowers are neither attractive nor with
fragrance. They do not have nectar glands.
Anemophilous flowers are generally unisexual.
E.g. - Sugar cane, Bamboo, Coconut, Cannabis, Grasses,
Date palms, Typha, Oak, Hazel, Cucumber, Papaya,
Cotton, Tobacco, Eucalyptus.
Potamogeton and Myriophyllum are aquatic plant but
it is anemophilous.
Maximum loss of pollen grains takes place only in this
pollination. It is completely non directional process.
2. Hydrophily :
When the pollination brings by water is known as
hydrophily. It is of two types.
(i) Epihydrophily :- When the pollination takes place
on the surface of water is called epihydrophily
e.g. Vallisneria and Ruppia.
(ii) Hypohydrophily :- When the pollination takes
place inside the water is called hypohydrophily.
e.g. Ceratophyllum, Najas Zostera and Hydrilla.
Specific gravity is found in pollen grains so they
remains suspended in water.
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
3. Zoophily :
When the pollination brings by animals is called zoophily.
Generally in zoophillous plants, flowers are very large,
attractive and maximum number of nectar glands are
present.
(i) Entomophily :
The pollination takes place with the help of insects
is known as entomophily. Most of insect pollination
(80%) occurs only by Honey bees. Most of
entomophilous plants are ornamental plants.
Ornamental plants utilize their maximum energy in
this pollination and develops different types of
adaptation for attraction of insects. These flowers
4 Ornithophily :-
Then process of pollination is taken place by birds is
known as ornithophily. e.g. Sun bird or humming bird
in Bignonia plant and by Honey bird in Strelitzia,
Callistemon (Bottle brush), Bombax [Silk cotton tree,]
Butea monosperma.
2.13
are attractive in colour. They posses special
fragreance. Nectar glands is also present. e.g. Rose,
Lemon. The pollen grains of insect pollinated
flowers become sticky due to presence of pollen
kit. The surface of stigma of flowers is rough. Some
of the plants develop special adaptation for insect
pollination. In Mussaenda plant, advertising flag
is present for attraction of insects.Yucca plant
develops an obligate symbiotic relationship with
an insect- Pronuba moth. The pollination in "Yucca
takes place only by Pronuba moth. This insect lays
eggs in the ovary of flower. Life cycle of both depend
on each other.
5 Chiropterophily :-
If the pollination brings through the bats (Pteropus) is
called chiropterophily. These flowers are big in size
e.g. Anthocephalus kadamba, Bauhinia, Kigelia plants,
Adansonia, Musa.
6 Myrmecophily :-
This pollination brings about by Termites and Ants. e.g.
Prosopis (kikar), Acacia (Mimosoideae family), Mango
and some members of Rubiaceae family.
7 Malacophily or Malmacophily :-
This pollination brings about by Snails e.g., Aspidistra
lurida and Chrysanthemum plants.
Erythrina (Coral tree) plant visited by Crows and
Squirrels.
In Arisaema or Cobra Plant pollination by snake called
"Ophiophily".
Night flowering plants are pollinated by Moths. They
are highly scented.Their flower generally white coloured
Orchids are pollinated by Wasps/Snails. Favourable
colour of Honey bees is yellow, but they are blind to red
 2.14 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
colour. Larger animals such as some primates (lamurs),
arboreal (tree-dwelling) rodents, or even reptiles (gecko
lizard and garden lizard) have also been reported as
pollinators in some species.
Pollen-pistil Interaction :
Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of the right type of
pollen (compatible pollen of the same species as the stigma).
Often, pollen of the wrong type, either from other species or
from the same plant (if it is self-incompatible), also land on the
stigma. The pistil has the ability to recognise the pollen, whether
it is of the right type (compatible) or of the wrong type
(incompatible). If it is of the right type, the pistil accepts the
pollen and promotes post-pollination events that leads to
fertilisation. If the pollen is of the wrong type, the pistil rejects
the pollen by preventing pollen germination on the stigma or
the pollen tube growth in the style. The ability of the pistil to
recognise the pollen followed by its acceptance or rejection is
the result of a continuous dialogue between pollen grain and
the pistil. This dialogue is mediated by chemical components
of the pollen interacting with those of the pistil. It is only in
recent years that botanists have been able to identify some of
the pollen and pistil components and the interactions leading
to the recognition, followed by acceptance or rejection.
Self sterility or self incompatibility or intraspecific incompatibility
:- In this condition the pollen grains of the flower can not
germinates on the stigma of the same flower. This condition is
called self sterility. This is a parental [Genetical] characteristic
feature which is controlled by genes. Such as in Pitunia, Malva,
Thea, Passiflora, Vitis, Apple (Malus).
Incompatibility involves many complex mechanisms associated
with interactions of pollen and stigmatic tissues. If the
incompatibility is due to the genotype of the sporophytic/
stigmatic tissues, it is termed sporophytic incompatibility on
the other hand, if it is due to the genotype of the pollen, it is
termed gametophytic incompatibility. This may be due to
prevention of pollen germination, retardation of growth,
deorientation of pollen tube or even failure of nuclear fusion.
It is controlled by genes with multiple alleles (s-allele). Enlarged
pollen tube turns upwards and degenerates in style.
Fertilization
The fusion of male gamete with female gamete is called
fertilization. First of all, fertilization was discovered by
Strasburger (1884) in Monotrapa plant. This process is
completed in the following steps :-
(A) Germination of pollen grains :
After pollination, pollen grains germinate on the stigma.
They absorb moisture and sugar contents from stigma
and swellup. The intine of pollen grain grows out
through the any one germinal pore of exine, in the form
of tube like out growth is called pollen tube. One pollen
tube develops in Capsella and most of Angiosperms is
called monosiphonous condition, but more than one
pollen tubes develops in Malvaceae and Cucurbitaceae
family. It is called polysiphonous.
When the pollen tube comes down from the stigma into
the style, first of all vegetative nucleus enter, into the
pollen tube then it is followed by generative cell. The
tube nucleus always occupies in terminal position in
pollen tube. The vegetative nucleus controls the growth
of the pollen tube. Mean while, the generative cell divide
mitotically to form two male gametes. Both of the male
gametes are non motile.
Boron and calcium ions (mainly Boron) are essential for
the growth of pollen tube and best temperature for growth
of pollen tubs is 20–300C. Pollen tube shows apical
growth and chemotropic movement.
(B) Entry of pollen tube into ovule :
Finally, the pollen tube enters in the ovary at that
time, ovule becomes mature. Inside the ovary
obturators guides the passage of pollen tube towards
the micropyle. A mature ovule in which embryo sac
also matured, has three paths for the entry of pollen
tube:-
(i) Porogamy :- In this, pollen tube enters into the
ovule through the micropyle. It is known as
porogamy. It is found in most of Angiosperms
[Capsella].
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.15

(ii) Chalazogamy :- In this method, the pollen tube All the remaining cells of embryosac like antipodal cells,
enter into the ovule through the chalaza. This synergids degenerate excluding zygote and primary
method is discovered in Casuarina by Treub endosperm nucleus after the fertilization. At this time,
[1891] e.g. Betula and Juglans (walnut). zygote obtains food from degenerating synergids and
(iii) Mesogamy :- In this method, pollen tube enter antipodal cells.
into the ovule either through integuments - The fertilization in which non motile gametes are carried
Cucurbita or through the funiculus - Pistacia to female gamete through pollen tube is known as
and Populus. "Siphonogamy".
(C) Entry of pollen tube into Embryosac : Entry of more than one pollen tube into the ovule leading
Pollen tube can enter into the ovule through the any to occurence of super numerary male gametes is called
passage but inside embryosac, it enter only through the "Polyspermy."
egg apparatus. After the entrance inside the ovule, it
grows towards the egg apparatus because synergids cells
secrete the chemical (hormones) which attracts the growth
of pollen tube. It means pollen tube shows chemotropic
movement in ovule.
Any one synergid starts degenerating when the pollen
tube comes near egg apparatus. The pollen tube enter
into the embryosac through the degenerating synergids.
When tip of the pollen tube enters into the embryosac
vegetative nucleus degenerates. The tip of the pollen
tube swells and burst [Endosmosis] after reaching inside
the embryosac. The pollen tube released all contents
including both male gametes inside the degenerating
synergids of embryosac.
Two dark granules appears in the region of degenerating
synergids. These are known as X-bodies. They are two
in number and both X-bodies are formed by the
degenerating nucleus of tube cell and synergids.
(D) Fusion of Gametes :
Before or after the entrance of pollen tube into the
embryosac, both polar nuclei of the central cell fused
together to form a diploid nucleus. It is known as
secondary nucleus or definitive nucleus. Out of two,
one male gamete fertilized with egg cell and to form a
diploid zygote. This fusion is known as syngamy. This
is true mechanism of fertilization process. The second
male gamete fused with diploid secondary nucleus which
is formed by the fusion of two polar nuclei. This fusion
is known as triple fusion resulting, a triploid (3n) structure
is formed. It is called primary endosperm nucleus.
Fertilization takes place twice at a time in Angiosperm
is called double fertilization.
Double fertilization was discovered by "Nawaschin" in
Lilium and Fritillaria plants.
Double fertilization and triple fusion is the specific or
universal characteristic of Angiosperm. There are five
nuclei and three gametes participate in double
fertilization.
A zygote is formed by true fertilization (syngamy)
develops into embryo. Triploid primary endosperm
nucleus is formed by triple fusion develops into the
endosperm which is used as nutrition for growing
embryo.
 2.16 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
Development of Endosperm
First of all endosperm develops from the primary endosperm
nucleus after the fertilization which stored food materials. It is
utilized by the embryo during the early development then after
at the time of seed germination. Food is present in the form of
starch in endosperm.
Development of Embryo in Dicot
Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where
the zygote is situated. Most zygotes divide only after certain
amount of endosperm is formed. This is an adaptation to provide
assured nutrition to the developing embryo. Though the seeds
differ greatly, the early stages of embryo development
(embryogeny) are similar in both monocotyledons and
dicotyledons. Depicts the stages of embryogeny in a
dicotyledonous embryo. The zygote gives rise to the proembryo
and subsequently to the globular, heart-shaped and mature
embryo. A typical dicotyledonous embryo, consists of an
(a) Fertilised embryo sac showing zygote and Primary
Endosperm Nucleus (PEN);
(b) Stages in embryo development in a dicot [shown in
reduced size as compared to (a)]
Development of Embryo in Monocotyledon
The Lilium type of embryonic development is found in
monocotyledons. The first division is transverse division in
Oospore. Results two cells are formed the upper cell chalazal is
called embryonal cell and lower micropylar cell is termed as
embryonal axis and two cotyledons. The portion of embryonal
axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which
terminates with the plumule or stem tip. The cylindrical portion
below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at its
lower end in the radical or root tip. The root tip is covered with
a root cap.
Embryos of monocotyledons possess only one cotyledon. In
the grass family the cotyledon is called scutellum that is situated
towards one side (lateral) of the embryonal axis. At its lower
end, the embryonal axis has the radical and root cap enclosed
in an undifferentiated sheath called coleorrhiza. The portion
of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum
is the epicotyl. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia
enclosed in a hollow foliar structure, the coleoptile.
Soak a few seeds in water (say of wheat, maize, peas, chickpeas,
ground nut) overnight. Then split the seeds and observe the
various parts of the embryo and the seed.
basal cell. The basal cell does not divide further and later on
it increases in size and form single celled vesicular suspensor.
Only embryonal cell divides transversly in which terminal cell
is called cotyledon cell and lower (Middle) cell is known as
embryonal axis cell. A transverse division takes place in
embryonal axis cell to gives rise two cells. The one cell out of
two, gives rise to plumule initial and another gives rise to
radicle initial. The plumule initial divides to form a plumule of
the embryo. Radicle initial divides to form radicle. In this both

the initials are responsible to form embryo in Lateral position.
An apical cotyledon is formed by the continuous divisions of
cotyledon cell. In Angiosperms, development of embryo is
meroblastic and endoscopic [towards the chalaza]. In the grass
family the cotyledon is called scutellum that is situated towards
one side (lateral) of the embryonal axis. At its lower end, the
embryonal axis has the radical and root cap enclosed in an
undifferentiated sheath called coleorrhiza. The portion of the
embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum is
the epicotyl. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia
enclosed in a hollow foliar structure, the coleoptile.
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.17
ANGIOSPERMIC SEED
I. Structure of Seed
The whole plant exists in a seed. Plant is the main base
of whole living world. So it can be say that seed is the
most important structure. In angiosperm, after the
fertilization, egg cell changed into embryo, ovary
changed into fruit and ovule change into seed.
Morphologically, ripened ovule is known as seed. In other
words, seed is a mature, integumented megasporangium.
Seeds are characteristic of Spermatophytes
(Gymnosperms and Angiosperms). Typical mature seed
is having three main parts :
1. Seed coat :
Outer, protective covering of the seed is called
seed coat, which develops from integuments of
ovule. In seeds developing from bitegmic ovules,
there are two distinct layers in seed coat. The
outer l ayer is thi c k , hard a nd l e athe r y
(developing from outer integument), called testa,
whereas inner layer is thin and papery or
membranous (developing from inner integument),
called tegmen. In seeds developing from unitegmic
ovules there is single layered seed coat. The seed
coat performs usual protective function.
The seed is attached to the fruit wall or pericarp
by means of a stalk called funicle or funiculus.
The point of attachment of funiculus to the body
of mature seed is called hilum. A small opening
or pore called micropyle is present just near the
2.18 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
hilum, which is the way of entry of water into the
seed. As most of the ovules in angiosperms are
inverted or anatropous, so a ridge called raphe is
present.
2. Embryo :
Embryo is the most important part of the seed, which
represents mini or tiny future plant. Embryo develops
from fertilized egg [zygote].
The embryo is having an embryonal axis or main
axis called tigellum, to which one or two
cotyledons (seed leaves) are attached, depending
upon whether the seed is monocot or dicot. The
portion of embryonal axis or tigellum below the
point of attachement of cotyledons, is called
hypocotyl, which bears radicle or future root at
its tip. Similarly, portion of embryonal axis or
tigellum above the point of attachment of
cotyledons, is called epicotyl, which bears
plumule (future shoot) at its tip.
In some seeds (e.g. legumes), reserve food is
stored in cotyledons, whereas in others (e.g.
cereals), there is special nutritive tissue called
endosperm. The seeds having endosperm are called
endospermic or albuminous seed, e.g., Cereals,
Castor, etc., whereas seeds in which endosperm
is fully consumed by embryo and no endosperm
i s l eft , a r e ca l l ed non-e ndospe r mic or
ex-albuminous seeds, e.g., Gram, Pea, Sem,
Cucumber, Tamarind, etc. The reserve food
materials in seeds may be carbohydrate (e.g.,
Wheat, Rice) or proteins (legumes) or fats (Castor,
Peanut, Sunflower), etc.
Some time, some part of nucellus remains unused
which is present in the form of thin layer around the
endosperm is called perisperm. e.g. Betel nut, Black
pepper, Castor.
In Monocot embryo, there is a single cotyledon called
scutellum. e.g. Grasses like Wheat. [On opposite
side of scutellum is a tongue shaped outgrowth
remains of second cotyledon is present called
epiblast.]
In Dicot albuminous seed-castor (Ricinus
communis), there is a specific outgrowth called
caruncle or strophiole, present over micropyle.
It is formed by proliferation of cells of outer
integument at tip. Caruncle is somewhat spongy
a n d h el ps i n absor pt i on of wa ter duri n g
germination of seed.
On the basis of cotyledon in the seed of angiosperm
are called Monocotyledon [one cotyledon] and
dicotytedons [Two cotyledon].
3. Endosperm :
It is the nutritive tissue which may present or absent
in the seeds. The angiospermic seed classified into
two categories on the basis of presence or absence
of endosperm in seeds -
1. Non Endospermic or Ex-albuminous seed
2. Endospermic or Albuminous seed.
1. Non Endospermic or Ex-albuminous seed :
Such type of seeds do not have an
endosperm at maturity, therefore are
cal l ed non e ndospe r mic or
Ex-albuminous seeds. The endospermic
t i ssues ar e a bsor bed dur i n g t h e
development of embryo. The absorbed
food materials from the endosperm is
stored in cotyledons, that why they
become so large and fleshy e.g. Capsella
and most of dicotyledons. But Castor
seed is endospermic.
Non-endospermic dicot seeds : e.g., Gram,
Bean, Pea, cucumber ,Tamarind.
Non-endospermic monocot seeds : Pothos
(money plant), Vallisneria, Alisma,
Amorphophallus.
2. Endospermic or Albuminous seed :
This type of seeds, food is stored in
endosperm. Such seeds are called
endospermic seed or Albuminous seed. The
endospermic tissue in these seeds utilize
during the germination of seed and their
cotyledons are thin and membranous e.g.
Most of Monocot seeds e.g. Wheat, Rice,
and Maize etc.
Endospermic dicot seeds : e.g., Castor,
Papaya, Cotton.
Endospermic monocot seeds : e.g., Maize,
Rice, Wheat and Coconut.
II. Structure of Bean Seed :
Bean seed is kidney shaped having a concave side
and a convex side. The concave side is slightly
darker and posses a white elongated scar is called
hilum, which marks the point of attachment of the seed
with the funiculus. A small pore lies adjacent to
the hilum, called micropyle, which performs the
function of absorbing water during germination. There
is a short ridge on the other side of hilum. It is called
raphe.
The Bean seed has two seed coats. The outer seed
coat is called testa. It is hard, thick, smooth and
variously coloured. It develops from outer integument
of ovule. The inner coat is white, membranous and
thin. It is called tegmen. It is difficult to separate
tegmen from testa. The seed coats can easily be
removed if the seeds are soaked in water for a few
hours.
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.19

Strucutre of Bean Seed

• Each seed encloses an embryo which can be absorptive in function. It secretes certain hormones into
examined after removing the seed coats. the endosperm which synthesize enzymes. These
• The bulk of embryo consists of two large, white and enzymes are responsible for the decomposition of
kidney-shaped cotyledons (or seed leaves). stored nutrients and convert them into soluble state.
• They store reserve food material in the form of The soluble nutrients are then absorbed by epithelial
carbohydrates and proteins to provide nourishment layer of scutellum and transferred to the growing
to embryo at the time of seed germination and growth embryo.
of young seedling. • The scutellum is attached laterally to the embryonal
• The cotyledons are attached laterally to the curved axis.
embryonal axis at the cotyledonary node. • One end of the embryonal axis points towards the
• The micropylar end of embryonal axis is rod-shaped pointed end of the grain.
and slightly bulged. • It is called radicle.
• It is called radicle (or the embryonic root). The other • The radicle is covered by a protective sheath called
side of embryonal axis lies in between the two coleorhiza.
cotyledons. • The other end of embryonal axis, which faces
• It is called plumule (or the shoot tip). The shoot tip towards the broader end of the grain, is called
remains protected by two small, folded leaves. plumule.
• The portion of embryo axis between the plumule and • The plumule is surrounded by a conical protective
cotyledonary node is called epicotyl. The portion of sheath, called coleoptile. The coleoptile is capable
axis between the radicle and cotyledonary node is in growth and covers the growing shoot tip till it
called hypocotyl. passes through the soil during germination.
Structure of Maize grain [Seed]
• A grain of Maize (Zea mays) is infect a dry one-seeded
indehiscent fruit of caryopsis type in which pericarp
(or fruit wall) is fused with the seed coat. The covering
of grain encloses two major parts endosperm and an
embryo.
• As seen in longitudinal section, the major portion of
grain is occupied by a large starchy endosperm.
• It is surrounded by a special one-celled thick layer, called
aleurone layer.
• The cells of aleurone layer are filled with proteineous
grains which play an important role at the time of
germination.
• The embryo consists of an upper shield-shaped
scutellum which is actually a cotyledon. The scutellum
is closely pressed against the endosperm and helps in
the translocation of nutrients from endosperm to the
growing embryo at the time of germination and seed
growth. The epidermal tissue of scutellum lying in direct
contact with the endosperm is both secretory and A
2.20 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
STRUCTURE OF MAIZE SEED
Germination of seed :
• The process by which the dormant embryo wakes up
[becomes active] and begins to grow is known as
germination of seed.
• The embryo of seed grows in to a sporophyte plant.
• The radicle produces primary root. The plumule develops
short and latter on cotyledons degenerates.
Types of Seed Germination :
Germination is basically of two types, depending upon behaviour
Apomixis and Polyembryony:
of cotyledons but viviparous germination also found:-
1. Epigeal germination :
• Here due to hypocotyl growth or elongation,
cotyledons are pushed out of soil.
• This is called epigeal germination.
• This type of germination occurs in Cotton, Papaya,
Castor, Onion, Cucurbits, Tamarind, French bean,
mustard, etc. In some cases, these above ground
cotyledons become green leaf like (cotyledonary
leaves) and perform photosynthetic function till the
seedling assumes independency (e.g., castor, cotton,
onion, papaya, etc.).
• In other plants, cotyledons do not assume leaf like
shape and fall off (e.g., French bean and Tamarind).
2. Hypogeal germination :
• Here due to growth in epicotyl plumule comes out
of the ground and cotyledons remain underground.
• This is called hypogeal germination.
• This type of germination occurs in most of the
monocotyledons and few dicotyledons, e.g., Maize,
Rice, Wheat, Coconut, Gram, Pea, Peanut and
Mango, etc.
3. Vivipary : It is a special type of seed germination which
is characteristic of Mangrove vegetation, found in muddy,
saline conditions, e.g., Rhizophora, Avicennia, Ceriops,
Breguira, Sonneratia, etc.
• Here there is no resting period of embryo and
germination occurs inside the fruit, while it is
attached to the parent plant, i.e., "in-situ
germination".
• The seedling is separated in the mud with the help
of lateral roots developing from basal end of radicle.
• This is called viviparous germination or vivipary.
• A phenomenon called apomixis is found in some
angiosperms, particularly in grasses and member of
Asteraceae family.
• It results in the formation of seeds without fertilization.
• Although seeds, in general are the products of
fertilizations but sometime seed produced without
fertilization. Apomicts have several advantages in
horticulture and agriculture.
• Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics
sexual reproduction.
• It means apomixis is a type of sexual reproduction with
exception (meiosis and fertilization absent).
• There are several ways of development of apomictic
seeds. In some species, the deploid egg cell is formed
without reduction division and develops into the embryo
without fertilisation.
• It is called diplospory. More often, as in many citrus and
mango varieties some of the nucellar cells surrounding
the embryo sac start dividing and develop into the
embryos.
• In such species each ovule contains many embryos. It
is called Adventive embryony.
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.21

Megaspore
mother cell
2n

New Plant Megaspore

2n n

Seed Embryo sac

n
2n

Embryo
2n Zygote
2n

Megaspore Megaspore
mother cell mother cell
2n 2n

Diplospory New Plant Megaspore New Plant Megaspore Apogamy

2n n n n
E.g. Parthenium,
Taraxacum
Seed Embryo sac Non-vible Embryo sac
2n n
2n n

Embryo Embryo
2n Zygote n Zygote
2n

Megaspore Megaspore
mother nucellus mother nucellus Adventive
Apospory
cell 2n cell 2n Embryony
E.g. Heiracium,
Ranunculus and New Plant Megaspore New Plant Megaspore E.g. Citrus,
2n n 2n n Mangifera,
Rubus
Opuntia,
Embryo sac Embryo sac Mamillaria
Seed Seed
2n
2n
2n
n and Spiranthus
australis
Embryo Embryo
2n Zygote 2n Zygote
2n 2n

Polyembryony
Many embryos are formed inside the single seed is called
polyembryony. First of all, it is observed by Leeuwenhoek
in Citrus (Orange) seeds. Polyembryony is commonly
found in Gymnosperms but it is also found in some of
Angiospermic plants such as Orange, Lemon and
Nicotiana etc.
If polyembryony develops naturally then it is called
spontaneous polyembryony [self]. When it is developed
artificially is called induced polyembryony.
When many embryos are formed from separate-separate
embryosacs [more than one] inside the ovule is called
false or pseudo polyembryony.
When many embryos are formed inside the single embryo
sac of the seed is called "true poly embryony". It is
either develops from :-
(i) Clevage of Zygote or budding - e.g. Cymbidium,
Exocarpus, Nymphaea, Nicotiana, Orchids etc.,
(ii) By the fertilization of synergids – e.g., Anemone,
Aristolochia, Sagittaria etc.
(iii) Fertilization of antipodal cells - e.g., Paspalum,
Ulmus etc.
Note : In Lilium all three types of polyembryony are present.
[Adventive embryony is also example of polyembryony in
which additional number of embryos are formed from
nucellus or integuments]
2.22 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

SOLVED EXAMPLE
1. The most significant value of vegetative propagation is that
(A) It is a means of producing a large population of Sol. (D) 3 and 4; because 3 number is polar nuclei and 4
individuals genetically identical to the parent number is egg cell and they form endosperm and
(B) It ensures that the progeny are safe from attack of zygote respectively after fusion with male nuclei.
diseases and pests 5. Which of the following statement is correct for the pollen
(C) It is an ancient practice tube ?
(D) It enables rapid production of genetic variation (A) It shows chemotactic movement
Sol. (A) The greatest advantage of vegetative propagation (B) It shows only tip growth
is that all the plants develop by these method will (C) It is composed of three non-cellular zones
be genetically similar. (D) It shows radial cytoplasmic streaming
2. The microspore tetrad of angiosperm at the time of Sol. (A) The movement of pollen tube towards embryosac
formation, are surrounded by a callose wall. Breakdown though style is chemotactic as it secrets pectinases
of this wall is brought about by the enzyme callase and other hydrolytic enzymes to create a passage
synthesized by the for its entry into style.
(A) Tetrad cytoplasm 6. After penetrating stigmatic and styler tissues, the pollen
(B) Ribosome of the tetrad tube usually grow down towards the egg because
(C) Spore mother cells (A) The egg cell attracts the pollen tube as they have
(D) Cells of tapetum dissimilar electric charge
Sol. (d) Tapetum, secrete callase enzyme which dissolves (B) The filiform apparatus of synergids is believed to
callose substances by which four pollens of pollen attract the pollen tube
tetrad are united, hence separating microspores or (C) It has no other passage to follow
pollens of a tetrad. (D) It grows under control of nucleus
3. Cotton plug like tissue present at the mouth of the Sol. (B) In porogomy, filiform apparatus of synergids
micropyle responsible for directing the pollen tube is secretes, some chemotropically active substances,
called which direct the pollen tube towards micropyle of
(A) Carpophore (B) Trabaculae ovule.
(C) Obturator (D) Translator 7. The endosperm found in angiospermic seed is different
Sol. (C) Obturator is an occular structure which directs the from that of gymnosperms in the sense that, in the former
growth of pollen tube towards micropyle of ovule. (A) It is formed before fertilization while in the latter it
It acts as a type of bridge for pollen tube. is formed after fertilization
4. The diagram below is a longitudinal section of an ovule (B) It is formed after fertilization while in the latter it is
of an angiosperm formed before fertilization
(C) It is cellular while in the latter it is nuclear
(D) It is nutritive while in the latter it is protective
Sol. (B) The endosperm in gymnosperm is pre-fertilization
tissue and haploid in nature but in angiosperms it is
1 post-fertilization tissue and is generally triploid in
nature.
2 8. Despite high level of heterozygosity, the progeny derived
3 from seed of a cross pollinated plant was found to be
4 completely uniform. One reason for this may the
5 phenomenon of
(A) Parthenocarpy (B) Apomixis
(C) Induced mutation (D) Polyploidy
Sol. (B) Because apomixis is a abnormal kind of sexual
With which of the following structures do the contents
reproduction in which egg or other cells associated
of one pollen tube fuse with
with egg develop into embryo without fertilization
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4 and with or without meiosis.
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.23

9. Which of the following four phases, in the post fertilization. So we can say that antipodal cells are
emergence life of an angiospermic plant, begins just after haploid.
germination of seed and ends when the plant develops 11. If the diploid number of an angiospermic plant is 24, the
the capacity to reproduce number of chromosomes in the pollen grain, endosperm
(A) Death (B) Ageing and integument will be
(C) Maturity (D) Juvenility (A) 12, 36, 12 (B) 12, 24, 36
Sol. (D) Juvenility is the first stage of plant just after (C) 12, 12, 36 (D) 12, 36, 24
germination of seed it is a soft and filamentous stage Sol. (D) 12, 36, 24; because pollen grains are haploid while
of plants. endosperm has triploid chromosome number and
10. For pollinated ovary which is correct ? integument is diploid in nature.
(A) Accessory cells are diploid 12. Secondary nucleus in the middle of an embryo sac of
(B) Antipodal cells are haploid angiosperms is
(C) Egg cell is diploid (A) Diploid (B) Triploid
(D) Ovule cell is haploid (C) Tetraploid (D) Haploid
Sol. (B) Embryo sac have four types of cell, Synergid cells Sol. (A) Secondary nucleus of an embryo sac of angiosperms
are haploid, Antipodal (haploid) and egg is also is diploid because two nucleus comes from each pole
haploid another secondary nucleus is diploid before to the middle and they becomes fuse.
2.24 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

NCERT BASED QUESTIONS

1. Name the component cells of the ‘egg apparatus’ in an 14. Are pollination and fertilisation necessary in apomixis?
embryo sac. Give reasons.
2. Name the part of gynoecium that determines the 15. Identify the type of carpel with the help of diagrams
compatible nature of pollen grain. given below:
3. Name the common function that cotyledons and nucellus
perform.
4. Embryo sacs of some apomictic species appear normal
but contain diploid cells. Suggest a suitable explanation
for the condition.
5. In the diagram given below, show the path of a pollen
tube from the pollen on the stigma into the embryo sac.
Name the components of egg apparatus.

16. How is pollination carried out in water plants?

17. What is the function of the two male gametes produced
by each pollen grain in angiosperms
18. List three strategies that a bisexual chasmogamous flower
can evolve to prevent self pollination (autogamy).
19. Vivipary automatically limits the number of offsprings in
a litter. How?
20. Does self incompatibility impose any restrictions on
autogamy? Reasons and suggest the method of
pollnation in such plants.
21. In the given diagram, write the names of parts shown
with lines.

6. Name the parts of pistil which develop into fruit and

seeds.
7. In case of polyembryony, if an embryo develops from
the synergid and another from the nucellus which is
haploid and which is diploid?
8. Can an unfertilised, apomictic embryo sac give rise to a
diploid embryo? If yes, then how?
9. Which are the three cells found in a pollen grain when
it is shed at the three celled stage?
10. What is self-incompatibility?
11. Name the type of pollination in self-incompatible plants. 22. What is polyembryony and how can it be commercially
12. Draw the diagram of a mature embryo sac and show its exploited?
8-nucleate, 7-celled nature. Show the following parts: 23. Are parthenocarpy and apomixis different phenomena?
antipodals, synergids, egg, central cell, polar nuclei. Discuss their benefits. Hint: Yes, they are different.
13. Which is the triploid tissue in a fertilised ovule? How is Parthenocarpy leads to development of seedless fruits.
the triploid condition achieved? Apomixis leads to embryo development.

24. Why does the zygote begin to divide only after the
division of Primary endosperm cell (PEC)?
25. The generative cell of a two-celled pollen divides in the
pollen tube but not in a three-celled pollen. Give reasons.
26. In the figure given below label the following parts: male
gametes, egg cell, polar nuclei, synergid and pollen tube
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.25
27. Starting with the zygote, draw the diagrams of the different
stages of embryo development in a dicot. What are the
possible types of pollinations in chasmogamous flowers.
Give reasons.
28. With a neat, labelled diagram, describe the parts of a
mature angiosperm embryo sac. Mention the role of
synergids.
29. Draw the diagram of a microsporangium and label its
wall layers. Write briefly on the role of the endothecium.
2.26 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

EXERCISE - I
1. Plants identical to mother plants can be had obtained 11. Development of embryo from the cells of the nucellus is
from called
(A) Seeds (B) Stem cutting (A) Parthenocarpy (B) Apocarpy
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these (C) Adventive embryony (D) Apospory
2. A clone is a group of individuals obtained through 12. The development of gametophyte from the vegetative
(A) Self-pollination parts of the sporophyte without the intervention of
(B) Hybridization spores is called
(C) Vegetative propagation (A) Parthenocarpy (B) Parthenogenesis
(D) Cross-pollination (C) Apogamy (D) Apospory
3. Among the following which one is not a method of 13. To get haploid callus, one can culture
vegetative propagation ? (A) Embryo (B) Leaf tissue
(A) Budding (B) Layering (C) Stigma (D) Pollen grain
(C) Sowing (D) Tissue culture 14. The reason of formation of embryoid from pollen grain
4. After culturing the anther of a plant, a few diploid plants in a tissue culture medium is
were found along with haploid plants. The diploid plants
(A) Organogenesis (B) Double fertilization
could have arisen from
(C) Test tube culture (D) Cellular totipotency
(A) Generative cell of pollen
15. Which of the following propagates through leaf-tip ?
(B) Cells of anther wall
(C) Vegetative cell of pollen (A) Marchantia (B) Moss
(D) Exine of pollen wall (C) Walking fern (D) Sprout-leaf plant
5. Reproducing new plants by cells instead of seeds is 16. Grafting of tissue or organ between individuals of
known as different species is called
(A) Biofertilizer (B) Mutation (A) Autograft (B) Isograft
(C) Tissue culture (D) Antibiotics (C) Xenograft (D) Allograft
6. The development of a sporophyte without fertilization (E) Intergraft
from the vegetative cells of the gametophyte is called 17. One of the plants using ‘Foliar adventitious buds’ as
(A) Zygospory (B) Aplanospory method for vegetative propagation is
(C) Apospory (D) Apogamy (A) Banana (B) Ginger
7. Genetically identical progeny is produced when an (C) Bryophyllum (D) Calocasia
individual 18. In which one pair both the plants can be vegetatively
(A) Practices self-fertilization propagated by leaf pieces ?
(B) Produces identical gametes (A) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe
(C) Practices reproduction (B) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(D) Practices by breeding without meiosis (C) Agave and Kalanchoe
8. Vegetative reproduction by layering is found in (D) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
(A) Jasmine (B) Mango 19. In a type of apomixis known as adventive embryony,
embryos develop directly from the
(C) Rose (D) All of these
(A) Nucellus or integuments
9. Formation of a sporophyte from gametophyte and vice
versa is termed as (B) Synergids or antipodals in a embryo sac
(A) Sexual reproduction (C) Accessary embryo sacs in the ovule
(B) Asexual reproduction (D) Zygote
(C) Alternation of generation 20. Stem cuttings are commonly used for the propagation of
(D) Transformation (A) Banana (B) Rose
10. The plant material which is widely used in the preparation (C) Mango (D) Cotton
of culture medium is 21. Branched type of pollen tube is formed in
(A) Cycas revoluta (B) Cocos nucifera (A) Cucurbita (B) Salvia
(C) Pinus longifolia (D) Borassus flabellifer (C) China rose (D) Solanum
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.27

22. Endothecium layer of anther lobes is present 33. How many microspore mother cells will give rise to 256
(A) Outside the epidermis microspores after reduction division
(B) Just inside the epidermis (A) 512 (B) 128
(C) In the innermost layer (C) 64 (D) 96
(D) In the middle region 34. The type of fossil pollen grains present in the area may
23. If the leaf cell has 8 chromosomes, it is most likely that be helpful in the exploration of
(A) Zygote will have 4 chromosomes (A) Coal (B) Petroleum
(B) Gametes will have 8 chromosomes (C) Fossil pteridophytes (D) All the above
(C) Gametes will have 4 chromosomes 35. The pollen grain is
(D) Zygote will have 16 chromosomes (A) An immature male gametophyte
24. During meiosis in pollen mother cell the daughter cells (B) A mature male gametophyte
are interconnected by passages. The whole structure is (C) Partially developed male gametophyte
called (D) Last stage of male gametophyte
(A) Symplast (B) Plasmodesmata 36. How many meiotic divisions are necessary to produce
(C) Syncytium (D) Coenocyte 100 pollen grains
25. Before dehiscence of anther (A) 100 (B) 25
(A) Middle layers enlarge (C) 50 (D) 20
(B) Endothecium develops fibrous thickenings 37. Which part of the reproductive structure produces both
(C) Tapetum develops fibrous thickenings enzymes and hormones
(D) Epidermis degenerates (A) Archegonium (B) Middle layer
26. Pollinia are sac like structures (C) Tapetum (D) Endothecium
(A) Which secrete yellow substance called pollen kit 38. In a flowering plant the largest number of haploid cells
(B) Which are found in megasporangia occur in
(C) In which anther lobes are present (A) Ovule (B) Microsporangia
(D) In which pollen grains are present in mass (C) Root tip (D) Cambium
27. Tectum, baculum, foot layer are the different parts of 39. The tapetal nuclei in anthers of many angiosperm flowers
are
(A) Microspore wall
(A) Mostly aneuploid
(B) Microspore mother cell wall
(B) Mostly polyploid
(C) Megaspore wall
(C) Mostly haploid
(D) Megaspore mother cell wall
(D) Not having complete haploid genome
28. A schematic illustration of the pollen grain is called
40. Occurrence of more than four spores from a spore mother
(A) Pollenogram (B) Palenogram
cell is called
(C) Histogram (D) Parallelogram
(A) Polyspermy (B) Polyspory
29. If the developing microspore mother cells draw
(C) Polyembryony (D) Polysiphony
nourishment by contacting the tapetal cells, the type of
tapetum is called 41. The function of innermost layer of pollen sac,
tapetum is
(A) Plasmodial tapetum (B) Secretory tapetum
(A) Dehiscence (B) Mechanical
(C) Amoeboid tapetum (D) Endothelium
(C) Protective (D) Nutritive
30. The function of endothecium is
42. Endothecium and tapetum in anther are derived from
(A) Nutritional (B) Mechanical support
(A) Primary sporogenous layer
(C) Dehiscence (D) Protection (B) Primary parietal layer
31. One pollen mother cell may produce four germinating (C) Both (A) and (B)
pollen grains, each with two male nuclei and one tube (D) None of the above
nucleus. How many meiotic divisions are necessary to
43. In a pollen grain, larger nucleus is
bring this about
(A) Generative nucleus (B) Tube nucleus
(A) Two (B) One
(C) Vegetative nucleus (D) None of these
(C) Three (D) Four
44. Development and formation of pollen grains in anther of
32. The germpores on the pollen grains are found on the the stamen is known as
(A) Exine only (B) Intine only (A) Pollination (B) Fertilization
(C) Both exine and intine (D) Vegetative cell (C) Microsporogenesis (D) Megasporogenesis
2.28 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

45. Which of the following is correct statement ? 57. Tapetum is a part of

(A) Gametes are diploid (A) Male gametophyte (B) Female gametophyte
(B) Spores are invariably haploid (C) Ovary wall (D) Anther wall
(C) Spores and gametes are invariably haploid 58. Haploids can be obtained from
(D) Gametes are invariably haploid (A) A pollen grains (B) Root apex
46. In anther culture, some diploid plants were reported with (C) Shoot apex (D) Embryo
haploids. They have evolved from 59. Pollinia is found in which of the following plant family?
(A) Prothallial cell of pollen grain (A) Asteraceae (B) Myrtaceae
(B) Generative cell of pollen grain (C) Malvaceae (D) Asclepiadaceae
(C) Cell of anther wall 60. In angiosperm, all 4 microspores of tetrad are covered by
(D) Exine of pollen grain a layer which is formed by
47. The anther wall consists of four wall layers where (A) Callose (B) Cellulose
(A) Endothecium lies inner to middle layers (C) Sporopollenin (D) Pectocellulose
(B) Tapetum lies just inner to endothecium 61. If the number of chromosomes in root cells is 14, what
(C) Tapetum lies next to epidermis will be the number of chromosomes in synergids cells of
(D) Middle layers lie between endothecium and tapetum an ovule of that parent
48. A typical anther wall has (A) 7 (B) 14
(A) Ekothecium and endothecium (C) 21 (D) Incomplete information
(B) Endothecium and tapetum 62. A Drusa type of embryo sac is
(C) Exothecium, endothecium and tapetum (A) 16 celled and 16 nucleate
(D) Exothecium and tapetum (B) 15 celled and 15 nucleate
49. In flowering plants, a mature ‘male gametophyte’ is (C) 15 celled and 16 nucleate
derived from a ‘pollen mother cell’ by (D) 14 celled and 15 nucleate
(A) Three mitotic divisions 63. In which of the following types of embryo sac the
(B) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions megaspore nuclei do not fuse to form a triploid nucleus
(C) Two meiotic divisions at chalazal end ?
(D) A single meiotic division (A) Fritillaria type (B) Plumbagella type
50. Palynology deals with the study of (C) Adoxa type (D) None of the above
(A) Pollen grains (B) Chromosomes 64. A linear tetrad of 4 cells lying in an axial row is formed
during the development of
(C) DNA (D) Genes
(A) Embryo sac (B) Pollen grains
51. Mature male gametophyte is made up of
(C) Ovary (D) Ovule
(A) One cell (B) Two cells
65. The megaspore mother cell divides meiotically forming
(C) Three cells (D) Four cells haploid embryo sac and the plants thus formed are
52. Ubisch bodies found in tapetal cell help in formation of usually sterile in
(A) Pollen kit and pollinia (B) Exine (A) Recurrent apomixis
(C) Sporopollenin (D) Intine and pollen kit (B) Non-recurrent apomixis
53. Germpore is the region where the exine is (C) Adventive embryony
(A) Thick (B) Uniform (D) Vegetative reproduction
(C) Thick and uniform (D) Absent 66. If the endosperm mother cell of an angiosperm plant has
54. How many pollen grains are formed from 10 microspore 24 chromosomes, the same in the MMC will be
mother cells by meiosis ? (A) 12 (B) 48
(A) 80 (B) 40 (C) 16 (D) 24
(C) 20 (D) 10 67. Caruncle is derived from
55. In an young anther the four rows of cells which later (A) Cotyledons (B) Integument
produce pollen are called (C) Peduncle (D) None of the above
(A) Antheridium (B) Archesporium 68. Perisperm is
(C) Tapetum (D) Zoosporangium (A) Degenerate part of synergids
56. If a sporangium is derived from a single cell, it is called (B) Peripheral part of endosperm
(A) Leptosporangiate (B) Eusporangiate (C) Degenerate part of secondary nucleus
(C) Heterosporangiate (D) Homosporangiate (D) Remnant of nucellus
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.29

69. The stalk of the ovule is called 80. The functional megaspore undergoes
(A) Pedicel (B) Petiole (A) 2 meiotic divisions to form mature embryo sac
(C) Funicle (D) Hilum (B) 3 mitotic divisions to form mature embryo sac
70. When the ovule is curved and embryo sac becomes horse- (C) 2 mitotic divisions to form mature embryo sac
shoe shaped, such an ovule is called (D) 3 meiotic divisions to form mature embryo sac
(A) Amphitropous (B) Circinotropous 81. In anatropous ovule, the micropyle is
(C) Campylotropous (D) Orthotropous
(A) In straight line with funicle
71. Generally archesporium in an ovule is
(B) At right angle with funicle
(A) Single celled and hypodermal in origin
(C) At 45o with funicle
(B) Single celled and lies in the centre of the ovule
(D) Side by side with funicle
(C) Single celled and terminal in origin
82. Which of the following is not functionally analogous
(D) Many celled and lie in the centre
with others in the group
72. Embryo sac is
(A) Archegonium (B) Oogonium
(A) Megasporangium (B) Megaspore
(C) Antheridium (D) Ovule
(C) Female gametophyte (D) Female gamete
73. Generally number of integuments in the ovule of 83. The microscopic structure in flower that contains polar
angiosperms and gymnosperms is nuclei is
(A) One and two (B) One and one (A) Only gametophyte (B) Pollen tube
(C) Two and one (D) Two and two (C) Embryo sac (D) None of the above
74. Which of the following pairs of plant parts are both 84. Collar like outgrowth arising from the base of ovule and
haploid ? forming a sort of third integument is known as
(A) Antipodal cells and egg cells (A) Coma (B) Caruncle
(B) Nucellus and primary endosperm nucleus (C) Aril (D) Operculum
(C) Nucellus and antipodal cells 85. Filiform apparatus is found in which part of angiosperms?
(D) Antipodal cells and megaspore mother cells (A) Sperm (B) Antipodal
75. Tegmen develops from (C) Egg (D) Synergid
(A) Outer integument (B) Inner integument 86. In Capsella meiosis takes place during
(C) Chalaza (D) Funicle (A) Development of pollen grains
76. Crassinucellate ovule shows (B) Development of egg
(A) Absence of nucellus (C) Germination of zygote
(B) Well developed nucellus (D) Development of embryo sac
(C) Partially developed nucellus 87. Ovule of Capsella is
(D) Ill developed nucellus (A) Orthotropus (B) Anatropus
77. In angiosperms, the functional megaspore of a linear (C) Campylotropus (D) Amphitropus
tetrad is the 88. The formation of embryo sac is called
(A) First nearest to the micropyle (A) Megasporogenesis
(B) Second from micropyle (B) Megagametogenesis
(C) Third from micropyle (C) Micro gametogenesis
(D) Fourth from micropyle (D) None of these
78. The normal or Polygonum type of embryo sac is 89. Mature Polygonum type embryo sac has got
(A) Bisporic eight nucleate (A) Seven cells and eight nuclei
(B) Monosporic four nucleate (B) Seven nuclei and eight cells
(C) Tetrasporic sixteen nucleate (C) Eight cells and eight nuclei
(D) Monosporic eight nucleate (D) Seven cells and seven nuclei
79. The ovule of angiosperms might be evolved from 90. If diploid chromosome number in a flowering plant is 12,
(A) Megagametangium then which one of the following will have only 6
(B) Integumented megasporangium chromosomes ?
(C) Megasporangium (A) Endosperm (B) Leaf cells
(D) Microgametangium (C) Cotyledons (D) Synergids
2.30 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

91. Egg apparatus of angiosperm consists of 103. Pollination occurs when a pollen grain
(A) One egg cell and two synergids (A) Matures and has three nuclei
(B) One egg cell 2 synergids 3 antipodals (B) Lands on a stigma
(C) 3 antipodals only (C) Releases its sperm nuclei
(D) Secondary nucleus and egg cell (D) Releases its pollen tube nucleus
92. The point of attachment of funicle with chalazal end is 104. In which type of flowers, stigma is rough and sticky?
called (A) Insect pollinated (B) Wind pollinated
(A) Placenta (B) Integument (C) Water pollinated (D) All the above
(C) Nucellus (D) Hilum 105. Pollination by wind is called
93. The haploid cell which divides by mitosis to form (A) Geitnogamy (B) Anemophily
embryosac is (C) Autogamy (D) None of the above
(A) Megaspore mother cell 106. When pollen grains of a flower pollinate the stigma of
(B) Microspore mother cell another flower of the same plant, it is called
(C) Functional megaspore (A) Dichogamy (B) Herkogamy
(D) Non-functional megaspore (C) Geitnogamy (D) Autogamy
94. What is the direction of micropyle in anatropous ovule? 107. Pollination by slug and snails is called
(A) Left (B) Right (A) Ornithophilous
(C) Upward (D) Inverted (B) Malacophilous
95. Synergids of the polygonum type embryo sac are (C) Anemophilous
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid (D) Chiropterophilous
(C) Triploid (D) Polyploid 108. Dichogamy which helps in cross pollination is a floral
96. For the formation of tetrasporic embryosac, how many mechanism in which
megaspore mother cells are required? (A) Pollen sac and stigma are at different heights
(A) 1 (B) 2 (B) Anther and stigma mature at different times
(C) 3 (D) 4
(C) Structure of pollen sac and stigma functions as
97. In angiosperms embryosac is developed from hurdles
(A) Megaspore mother cell (D) Pollen grain is unable to germinate on the stigma of
(B) Secondary nucleus the same flower
(C) Endothecium 109. Correct definition of pollination is
(D) Microspore mother cell (A) Transfer of pollen grain from anther to stigma
98. An ovule which becomes curved so that the nucellus (B) Germination of pollen grain
and embryo sac lie at right angles to the funicle is
(C) Growth of pollen tube in ovule
(A) Anatropous (B) Orthotropous
(D) Visits of insects in flower
(C) Hemitropous (D) Campylotropous
110. Self pollination means
99. Female gametophyte of angiosperm is generally
(A) 7 celled and 7 nucleate (A) Occurrence of male and female sex organs in the same
flower
(B) 8 celled and 8 nucleate
(B) Germination of pollens within the anther
(C) 7 celled and 8 nucleate
(C) Transference of pollens from anther to the stigma
(D) 8 celled and 7 nucleate
within the same flower
100. Ovule with funiculus lying close to micropyle is known as
(D) Transference of pollens from one flower to another
(A) Anatropous (B) Campylotropous
on the same plant
(C) Atropous (D) Cytokinin
111. Which prevents self pollination?
101. In Ficus (Peepal) pollination is affected by
(A) Self sterility (B) Herkogamy
(A) Air (B) Water
(C) Insects (D) Birds (C) Dichogamy (D) All of the above
102. Pollen kit is present in 112. Fig is pollinated by
(A) Anemophilous flowers (A) Wind
(B) Entomophilous flowers (B) Self
(C) Ornithophilous flowers (C) Water
(D) Hydrophilous flowers (D) Insects (Blastophaga grossorum)
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.31

113. In plants, in nature, autogamy is avoided since the seeds (C) Has recessive characters
produced (D) Is homozygous with phenotypic uniformity
(A) Are fewer in number 126. Which of the following type of gynoecium is associated
(B) Do not germinate successfully by wind pollination ?
(C) Do not produce healthy plants
(D) All the above
114. In bisexual flowers when the gynoecium matures earlier
than the androecium, it is called
(A) Protandry (B) Protogyny
(B (C
(C) Heterogamy (D) Autogamy
115. The insect Blastophaga grossorum is associated with
the pollination of
(A) Mango (B) Paddy
(C) Beans (D) Ficus (A
116. Pollination by water is seen in
(A) Nelumbium (B) Vallisneria
(C) Eichornia (D) Nymphaea
117. In which of the following pollination takes place by lever
mechanism ? (D
(A) Salvia (B) Ficus
(C) Antirhinum (D) Ocimum
118. In sausage tree (Kigelia africana) the pollination takes
place by
(A) Birds (B) Bats 127. The pollination by the birds is called
(C) Wind (D) Insects (A) Ornithophily
119. Part of the gynoecium which receives the pollen is called (B) Chiropterophily
(A) Ovary (B) Ovule (C) Entomophily
(C) Style (D) Stigma (D) Malacophily
120. The allogamy is best favoured by
128. Feathery stigma is present in
(A) Homogamy (B) Cleistogamy
(A) Wheat (B) Pea
(C) Dicliny (D) All of the above
(C) Ceasalpinia (D) Datura
121. The pollination which occurs in one plant is
129. The maturation of male (anthers) and female (stigma)
(A) Herkogamy (B) Cleistogamy
structures at different times in the same flower (in order
(C) Dichogamy (D) Dicliny
to reduce the possibility of self pollination) is called
122. A close relation between flower and pollinating agent is
(A) Dichogamy (B) Dichotomy
best exhibited by
(C) Dicliny (D) Dioecy
(A) Cocos (B) Salvia
130. Pollination which occurs in closed flowers is known as
(C) Yucca (D) Avena
(A) Allogamy (B) Cleistogamy
123. Pollination characteristically occurs in
(C) Dicliny (D) Protogyny
(A) Angiosperms and fungi
131. Pollination is best defined as
(B) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
(A) Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma
(C) Pteridophytes and angiosperms
(B) Germination of pollen grains
(D) Bryophytes and angiosperms
(C) Growth of pollen tube in ovule
124. The transfer of pollen grain from the stamen to the stigma
of the same flower is (D) Visiting flowers by insects
(A) Autogamy (B) Allogamy 132. Cross pollination in crop plant is known as
(C) Geitnogamy (D) Xerogamy (A) Autogamy (B) Allogamy
125. Progeny produced as a result of cross pollination (C) Cleistogamy (D) Chasmogamy
(A) Shows high degree of variability and is evolutionary 133. Flowers preventing self-pollination is called
important (A) Dichogamy (B) Protanary
(B) Is sterile (C) Herkogamy (D) Protogyny
2.32 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

134. The mature stigma is either rough or sticky in 146. The process of fusion between male nucleus and egg
(A) All types of flowers nucleus is called as
(B) Water pollinated flowers (A) Syngamy (B) Triple fusion
(C) Wind pollinated flowers (C) Double fertilization (D) Conjugation
(D) Insect pollinated flowers 147. Double fertilization was first discovered by Nawaschin
135. Pollination by insects is called (1898) in
(A) Entomophily (B) Chirepterophily (A) Lilium and Fritillaria
(C) Anemophilly (D) Zoophilly (B) Mango and sugarcane
136. Syngamy means (C) Papaya and pea
(A) Fusion of similar spores (D) Brassica and Candytuft
(B) Fusion of dissimilar spores 148. The phenomenon of syngamy (fertilization) in
(C) Fusion of cytoplasm angiosperms was discovered by
(D) Fusion of gametes (A) Svedberg
137. Double fertilization was discovered by (B) Strasburger
(A) Karl Schnarf (C) Nawaschin
(B) P. Maheshwari (D) Coulter and Chamberlin
(C) S.G. Nawaschin 149. Germination of pollen grain on the stigma is
(D) B.G.L. Swamy (A) Autogamy (B) In vivo germination
138. When pollen tube enters by integuments, then the (C) In vitro germination (D) None of these
process is called 150. In angiosperm, triple fusion is necessary for the
(A) Mesogamy (B) Porogamy formation of
(C) Chalazogamy (D) Pseudogamy (A) Seed coat (B) Fruit wall
139. Double fertilization is a characteristic of (C) Embryo (D) Endosperm
(A) Gymnosperms (B) Bryophytes 151. In an angiospermic plant, endosperm is formed due to
fertilization of secondary nucleus but it is absent in some
(C) Angiosperms (D) Pteridophytes
of the seeds viz. pea, bean, phaseolus (moong) etc. It is
140. Fertilization of egg takes place inside
due to lack of
(A) Anther (B) Stigma
(A) Certain enzymes
(C) Pollen tube (D) Embryo sac
(B) Dicotyledonous hormone
141. Pollen tube at the time of entering embryo sac has
(C) Growth hormone
(A) Four gametes (D) None of the above
(B) Three male gametes
152. Growth of pollen tube towards embryo sac is
(C) Two male gametes
(A) Geotropism (B) Thigmotaxis
(D) One gametic nucleus
(C) Chemotaxis (D) Phototaxis
142. When pollen tube enters through the funiculus or the
153. Through which route the pollen tube enters the ovule
base of the ovule, it is called as
(A) Chalaza (B) Micropyle
(A) Chalazogamy (B) Mesogamy
(C) Funiculus (D) All of these
(C) Isogamy (D) Porogamy
154. The cell that divides to form two male nuclei in
143. The nuclei of the sperm and egg fuse as a result of angiosperms is
(A) Base pair relation of DNA and RNA
(A) Vegetative cell (B) Generative cell
(B) Formation of hydrogen bonds
(C) Tube cell (D) Antheridial cell
(C) Mutual attraction caused by differences in electrical
155. Which of the following is without exception in
charges
angiosperms ?
(D) Attraction of protoplasts of egg and sperm (A) Secondary growth
144. Number of nuclei taking part in double fertilization is (B) Presence of vessels
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) Double fertilization
(C) 4 (D) 5 (D) Autotrophic nutrition
145. Fusion of two dissimilar gametes is called 156. Pollen tube discharge its gametes in
(A) Fertilization (B) Pollination (A) Synergids (B) Antipodals
(C) Self pollination (D) Self fertilization (C) Central cell (D) None of these
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.33

157. The formation of embryo without fusion of gametes is 168. Fusion product of polar nuclei and male gamete is
termed, as (A) Triple fusion
(A) Apospory (B) Isogamy (B) Primary endosperm nucleus
(C) Apogamy (D) Syngamy (C) Zygote
158. Triple fusion in angiosperm is the fusion of second sperm (D) Secondary nucleus
with 169. Proteinaceous endosperm of maize is called
(A) Antipodal cell and one synergid cell (A) Apophysis (B) Scutellum
(B) Two antipodal cells (C) Aleurone layer (D) None of the above
(C) Two synergid cells 170. Ruminate endosperm is commonly found in seeds of
(D) Two polar nuclei (A) Cruciferae
159. After fertilization the outer integument forms (B) Compositae
(A) Testa (B) Tegmen (C) Euphorbiaceae
(C) Perisperm (D) Pericarp (D) Anonaceae (Areca nut)
160. Triple fusion is characteristic of 171. Dicot embryo consists of
(A) Thallophytes (B) Bryophytes (A) Radicle and plumule
(C) Pteridophytes (D) Gymnosperms (B) Radicle, plumule, cotyledons and sometimes
(E) Angiosperms endosperm
161. Which one is an example of triploid tissue ? (C) Radicle, plumule, cotyledons and tegmen
(A) Onion root (D) Radicle, plumule, cotyledons, tegmen and testa
(B) Fern prothallus 172. Triploid plants can be obtained from culture of
(C) Maize and lily endosperm (A) Pollen (B) Endosperm
(D) None of the above (C) Ovule (D) Megaspore
162. In angiosperms, free nuclear divisions occurs during 173. The sequence of development of embryo sac is
(A) Gamete formation (A) Archesporium  megaspore mother cell 
(B) Embryo formation megaspore  embryo sac
(C) Endosperm formation (B) Archesporium  megaspore  megaspore mother
(D) Flower formation cell  embryo sac
163. Formation, growth and development of a new individual (C) Archesporium  megaspore  megasporophyte 
beginning from egg is known as embryo sac
(A) Embryology (B) Cytology (D) None of the above
(C) Genetics (D) Ethnobotany 174. The outermost layer of endosperm of maize grain is called
164. The best example of polyembryony is (A) Epidermis (B) Tunica
(A) Cocos (B) Pea (C) Aleurone (D) Pericarp
(C) Capsicum (D) Pinus 175. If the number of chromosomes in endosperm of a dicot
165. Milky water of green coconut is plant is 36, the root cells will contain
(A) Liquid nucellus (A) 72 chromosomes (B) 28 chromosomes
(B) Liquid of female gametophyte (C) 24 chromosomes (D) 48 chromosomes
(C) Liquid endosperm 176. Which of the following is a non-endospermic monocot
(D) Liquid embryo seed
(E) Liquid gametes (A) Plumbago (B) Castor
166. Nucellar embryo is (C) Linseed (D) Alisma
(A) Apomictic embryo 177. The endosperm of Brassica is
(B) Amphimictic haploid (A) Haploid (B) Diploid
(C) Adventitive embryony (C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid
(D) Amphimictic diploid 178. In angiosperms endosperm is formed by
167. In coconut, black covering (thin layer) adherent to the (A) Free nuclear divisions of megaspore
kernel around the endosperm is (B) Division of fused polar nuclei
(A) Mesocarp (B) Endocarp (C) Division of fused polar nuclei and male gamete
(C) Seed coat (D) None of these (D) Division of fused synergids and male gamete
2.34 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

179. Endospermic nucleus is usually 191. Nuclear polyembryony is found in

(A) Haploid (B) Diploid (A) Citrus (B) Mango
(C) Triploid (D) Tetraploid (C) Banana (D) Sugarcane
180. If an angiospermic male plant is diploid and female plant 192. The endosperm in angiosperms develops from
tetraploid, the ploidy level of endosperm will be (A) Micropylar polar nucleus
(A) Haploid (B) Triploid (B) Chalazal polar nucleus
(C) Tetraploid (D) Pentaploid (C) Secondary nucleus
181. Endosperm in Angiosperm is (D) Zygote
(A) Haploid (B) Diploid 193. Xenia and metaxenia terms are related with
(C) Triploid (D) Polyploid (A) Pollen culture
182. The role of double fertilization in angiosperms is to (B) Only endosperm
produce (C) Xylem and phloem
(A) Endosperm (B) Integuments (D) Pollen and endosperm
(C) Cotyledons (D) Endocarp 194. Which of the following workers are related as ecologist,
183. The embryo in sunflower has palaeobotanist and embryologist ?
(A) No cotyledon (B) One cotyledon (A) B. Sahni, R. Mishra, P. Maheshwari
(C) Two cotyledons (D) Many cotyledons (B) R. Mishra, B. Sahni, P. Maheshwari
184. In agamospermy, the embryo sac is diploid because it is (C) B. Sahni, P. Maheshwari, R. Mishra
formed without meiosis. Such embryo sac may develop (D) P. Maheshwari, R. Mishra, B. Sahni
from 195. Aleurone layer in Maize is present towards
(A) Megaspore mother cell (A) Periphery of endosperm
(B) Microspore mother cell (B) Periphery of scutellum
(C) Megaspores (C) Periphery of coleoptile
(D) Microspores (D) Periphery of coleorhiza
185. When vegetative cell of zygote form embryo, it is called 196. Seedless fruits in Vitis are formed due to
(A) Apospory (A) Sterility (B) Double fertilization
(B) Apomixis (C) Syngamy (D) Parthenocarpy
(C) Diploid polyembryony 197. Which of the following is parthenocarpic fruits ?
(D) Adventive polyembryony (A) Orange (B) Papaya
186. Presence of many embryos (Polyembryony) is a (C) Pomegranate (D) Apple
characteristic feature of
198. Which plant will lose its economic value, if its fruits are
(A) Citrus (B) Mango produced by induced parthenocarpy ?
(C) Banana (D) None of these (A) Grape (B) Pomegranate
187. Xenia is a effect of pollen grains on (C) Orange (D) Banana
(A) Embryo (B) Endosperm 199. Parthenogenesis is a term of
(C) Embryo sac (D) Nucellus (A) Sexual reproduction
188. Endosperm of angiosperms results after fertilization from (B) Asexual reproduction
(A) Antipodal cells (B) Zygote (C) Budding
(C) Synergids (D) Secondary nucleus (D) Regeneration
189. Fat is present in large quantities in the tissues of which 200. Seedless grapes are produced due to
of the following ?
(A) Parthenocarpy (B) Crossing over
(A) Cotton fibre (B) Tuber of potato
(C) Parthenogenesis (D) None of these
(C) Coconut endosperm (D) Embryo of pea
190. In angiosperms, the oospore on development produces
(A) Seed (B) Embryo
(C) Protonema (D) Endosperm
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.35

EXERCISE - II
(Previous Year AIPMT Examination Questions)

1. Which one of the following represents an ovule, where 10. The fleshy receptacle of syconus of fig encloses a
the embryo sac becomes horse-shoe shaped and the number of: (2008)
funiculus and micropyle are close to each other: (A) berries (B) mericarps
(2005) (C) achenes (D) samaras
(A) Amphitropous (B) Anatropous 11. Dry indehiscent single-seeded fruit formed from
(C) Circinotropous (D) Atropous bicarpellary, syncarpous, inferior ovary is: (2008)
2. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen (A) berry (B) cremocarp
tube enter the embryo sac: (2005) (C) caryopsis (D) cypsela
(A) Persistant synergid (B) Egg cell 12. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the
(C) Central cell (D) Degenerated synergid seed of: (2008)
3. What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells (A) pea (B) maize
of the aleurone layer in a plant species with (C) coconut (D) castor
8 chromosomes in its synergids? (2006) 13. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has
(A) 16 (B) 24 haploid number of chromosomes? (2008)
(C) 32 (D) 8 (A) Nucellus and antipodal cells
4. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryo sac (B) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
in the dicot plants is: (2006) (C) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells
(A) 2 + 4 + 2 (B) 3 + 2 + 3 (D) Egg cell and antipodal cells
(C) 2 + 3 + 3 (D) 3 + 3 + 2 14. An example of a seed with endosperm, perisperm and
5. Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by the caruncle is: (2009)
division of: (2007) (A) Castor (B) Cotton
(A) Microspore mother cell (C) Coffee (D) Lily
(B) Microspore 15. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in:
(C) Generative cell (2009)
(D) Vegetative cell (A) Cashew nut and litchi
6. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose (B) Groundnut and pomegranate
wall? (2007) (C) Walnut and tamarind
(A) Pollen grain (D) French bean and coconut
(B) Microspore mother cell 16. A fruit developed from hypanthodium inflorescence is
(C) Male gamete called: (2009)
(D) Egg (A) Caryopsis (B) Hesperidium
7. The fruit is chambered, developed from inferior ovary (C) Sorosis (D) Syconus
and has seeds with succulent testa in: (2008) 17. Wind pollinated flowers are: (2010)
(A) guava (B) cucumber (A) small, brightly coloured, producing large number of
(C) pomegranate (D) orange pollen grains
8. What does the filiform apparatus do at the entrance into (B) small, proudcing large number of dry pollen grains
ovule? (2008) (C) large producing abundant nectar and pollen
(A) It brings about opening of the pollen tube (D) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
(B) It guides pollen tube from a synergid to egg 18. The scutellum observed in a grain of wheat or maize is
(C) It helps in the entry of pollen tube into a synergid comparable to which part of the seed in other
(D) It prevents entry of more than one pollen tube into monocotyledons? (2010)
the embryo sac (A) Cotyledon (B) Endosperm
9. Unisexuality of flowers prevents: (2008) (C) Aleurone layer (D) Plumule
(A) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy 19. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
(B) autogamy and geitonogamy of another flower of the same plant is called: (2010)
(C) autogamy, but not geitonogamy (A) Xenogamy (B) Geitonogamy
(D) both geitonogamy and xenogamy (C) Karyogamy (D) Autogamy
2.36 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

20. Apomictic embryos in citrus arise from (2010) 30. Advantage of cleistogamy is: (2013)
(A) Synergids (A) Higher genetic variability
(B) Maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule (B) More vigorous offspring
(C) Antipodal cells (C) No dependence on pollinators
(D) Diploid egg (D) Vivipary
21. A drupe develops in: (2011) 31. Seed coat is not thin membranous in: (2013)
(A) Tomato (B) Mango (A) Maize (B) Coconut
(C) Wheat (D) Pea (C) Groundnut (D) Gram
22. Wind pollination is common in: (2011) 32. Megasporangium is equivalent to: (2013)
(A) Orchids (B) Legumes (A) Embryo sac
(C) Lilies (D) Grasses (B) Fruit
23. In which one of the following pollination is autogamous? (C) Nucellus
(2011) (D) Ovule
(A) Cleistogamy (B) Geitonogamy 33. Perisperm differs from endosperm in: (2013)
(C) Xenogamy (D) Chasmogamy (A) Being a haploid tissue
24. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of: (B) Having no reserve food
(2011)
(C) Being a diploid tissue
(A) Brassica (B) Citrus
(D) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with
(C) Gossypium (D) Triticum several sperms
25. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of: 34. Function of filiform apparatus is to: (2014)
(2011)
(A) Recognize the suitable pollen at stigma
(A) Zygote (B) Suspensor
(B) Stimulate division of generative cell
(C) Egg (D) Synergid
(C) Producer nectar
26. Even in absence of pollinating agents seed seting is
(D) Guide the entry of pollen tube
assured in: (2012)
35. Geitonogamy involves: (2014)
(A) Salvia (B) Fig
(A) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another
(C) Commellina (D) Zostera
flower of the same plant
27. An organic substance that can withstand environmental
(B) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from another
extremes and cannot be degraded by any enzyme is:
same flower.
(2012)
(C) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower
(A) Lignin (B) Cellulose
of another plant in the same population
(C) Cuticle (D) Sporopollenin
(D) Fertilization of a flower by the pollen from a flower
28. Both, autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented in: of another plant belonging to a distant population
(2012)
36. Pollen tablets are available in the market for: (2014)
(A) Cas tor
(A) In vitro fertilization
(B) Maize
(B) Breeding programmes
(C) Papaya
(C) Supplementing food
(D) Cucumber
(D) Ex situ conservation
29. Which one of the following statements is correct?
37. Which of the following are the important flora rewards
(2013)
to the animal pollinators? (2015)
(A) Hard outer layer of pollen is called intine
(A) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
(B) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
(B) Colour and large size of flower
(C) Endothecium produces the microspores
(C) Nectar and pollen grains
(D) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
(D) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.37

38. The hilum is a scar on the: (2015) 47. Transmission tissue is characteristic feature of
(A) Seed, where micropyle was present (2015)
(B) Seed, where funicle was attached (A) Wet stigma (B) Hollow style
(C) Fruit, where it was attached to pedicel (C) Solid style (D) Dry stigma
(D) Fruit, where style was present 48. The coconut water from tender coconut represents:-
(2016)
39. Which one of the following statements in not true?
(2015) (A) Endocarp
(A) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected (B) Fleshy mesocarp
from flowers (C) Free nuclear proembryo
(B) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients, and they are used (D) Free nuclear endosperm
in the form of tablets and syrups 49. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(C) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies (2016)
and bronchial afflictions in some people (A) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther
(D) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul (B) Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
odour to attract them
(C) Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
40. Which one of the following may require pollinators, but
(D) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the
is genetically similar to autogamy? (2015)
crop breeding programmes
(A) Cleistogamy (B) Geitonogamy
50. Cotyledon of maize grain is called :- (2016)
(C) Xenogamy (D) Apogamy
(A) plumule (B) coleorhiza
41. Male gametophyte in angiosperms produces: (2015)
(C) coleoptile (D) scutellum
(A) Three sperms
51. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(B) Two sperms and a vegetative cell
(2016)
(C) Single sperm and a vegetative cell
(A) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the
(D) Single sperm and two vegetative cells
stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the
42. Coconut water from a tender coconut is: (2015) same species grows into the style.
(A) Degenerated nucellus (B) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without
(B) Immature embryo bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar
(C) Free nuclear endosperm robbers.
(D) Innermost layers of the seed coat (C) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are
43. Filiform apparatus is characteristic feature of: (2015) regulated by chemical components of pollen
(A) Synergids (B) Generative cell interacting with those of the pistil.
(C) Nucellar embryo (D) Aleurone cell (D) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators
44. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield- in some plant species.
shaped cotyledon known as: (2015) 52. In majority of angiosperms : (2016)
(A) Coleoptile (B) Epiblast (A) reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother
(C) Coleorrhiza (D) Scutellum cells
45. Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic? (B) a small central cell is present in the embryo sac
(2015) (C) egg has a filiform apparatus
(A) Banana (B) Brinjal (D) there are numerous antipodal cells
(C) Apple (D) Jackfruit 53. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought
46. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and about by the agency of : (2016)
megasporogenesis: (2015) (A) birds
(A) occur in ovule (B) bats
(B) occur in anther (C) water
(C) form gametes without furthers divisions (D) insects or wind
(D) involve meiosis
2.38 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

54. The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to: 64. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving
(2016) pollen as fossils? [NEET-2018]
(A) megaspore mother cell (A) Oil content (B) Cellulosic intine
(B) megaspore (C) Pollenkitt (D) Sporopollenin
(C) megasporangium 65. Extrusion of second polar body from egg nucleus occurs:
(D) megasporophyll [NEET-2019]
55. Attractants and rewards are requirued for : (2017) (A) after fertilization
(A) Anemophhily (B) Entomophily (B) before entry of sperm into over
(C) Hydrophily (D) Cleistrogamy (C) simultaneously with first cleavage
56. A dioecious flowereing plant prevents both : (2017) (D) after entry of sperm but before fertilization
(A) Autogamy and xenogamy. 66. What is the fate of the male gametes discharged in the
synergid? [NEET-2019]
(B) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(A) All fuse with the egg.
(C) Geitonogamy and xenogamy.
(B) One fuses with the egg, other(s) fuse(s) with
(D) Cleistogamy and xenogamy.
synergid nucleus.
57. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into:
(C) One fuses with the egg and other fuses with central
(2017)
cell nuclei.
(A) Ovule (B) Endosperm
(D) One fuses with the egg. other(s) degenerate(s) in
(C) Embryo sac (D) Embryo the synergid.
58. The morphological nature of the edible part of 67. Which one of the following statements regarding post-
coconut is : (2017) fertilization development in flowering plants is incorrect?
(A) Perisperm (B) Cotyledon [NEET-2019]
(C) Endosperm (D) Pericarp (A) Zygote develops into embryo
59. Attractants and rewards are required for: (2017) (B) Central cell develops into endosperm
(A) Anemophily (B) Entomophily (C) Ovules develop into embryo sac
(C) Hydrophily (D) Cleistogmy (D) Ovary develops into fruit
60. Double fertilization in exhibited by : (2017) 68. Persistent nucellus in the seed is known as:
(A) Gymnosperms (B) Algae [NEET-2019]
(C) Fungi (D) Angiosperms (A) Perisperm
61. Double fertilization is [NEET-2018] (B) Hilum
(A) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg (C) Tegmen
(B) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei (D) Chalaza
(C) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with 69. In some plants, the female gamete develops into embryo
two different eggs without fertilization. This phenomenon is known as:
(D) Syngamy and triple fusion [NEET-2019]

62. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid (A) Parthenocarpy
nitrogen having a temperature of [NEET-2018] (B) Syngamy
(A) –196°C (B) –80°C (C) Parthenogenesis
(C) –120°C (D) –160°C (D) Autogamy
63. Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time?
[NEET-2018]
(A) Mango (B) Jackfruit
(C) Bamboo species (D) Papaya
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.39

EXERCISE – III
(Previous Year AIIMS Questions)

1. Which part of embryo comes out first during seed 8. The plant part which consists of two generations one
germination? [2001] within the other, is [2008]
(A) Radicle (B) Plumule (A) germinated pollen grain
(C) Hypocotyl (D) Epicotyl (B) embryo
2. Xenia refers to [2002] (C) unfertilized ovule
(A) effect of pollen on endosperm (D) seed
(B) effect of pollen on stems 9. Chasmogamy refers to the condition where [2012]
(C) effect of pollen on taste of fruits (A) Flowers remain closed
(D) effect of pollen on vascular tissue (B) Flowers are absent
3. Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of (C) Flowers are open
temperature and dessication because their exine is (D) Flower are gamopetalous
composed of [2003] 10. What is common between vegetative reproduction and
(A) cutin (B) suberin apomixis? [2013]
(C) sporopollenin (D) callose (A) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
4. The pollen tube usually enters the embryo sac [2004] (B) Both bypass the flowering phase
(A) between the egg cell and synergid (C) Both occur round the year
(B) by directly penetrating the egg (D) Both produces progeny identical to the parent
(C) between one synergid and antipodal cell 11. Emasculation is not required when flowers are [2013]
(D) by knocking off the antipodal cells (A) bisexual (B) intersexual
5. Double fertilization involves [2005] (C) unisexual (D) either (A) or (B)
(A) fertilization of egg by two male gametes 12. How many haploid nuclei are present in amature pollen
(B) fertilization of two eggs in the same embryo sac by grain? (2014)
two sperms brought by one pollen tube (A) One (B) Two
(C) fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two (C) Three (D) Four
sperms brought by different pollen tubes 13. What is the correct sequence of the formation of female
(D) fertilization of the egg and the central cell by two gametophyte in angiosperms? [2015]
sperms brought by the same pollen tube (A) Nucellus, megapore tetrad, megaspore mother cell,
6. In which one of the following combinations (a–d) the megaspore, female gametophyte
number of chromosomes of the present day hexaploid (B) Megaspore tetrad, nucellus, megaspore mother cell,
wheat is correctly represented? [2006] megaspore, female gametophyte
(C) Nucellus, megaspore mother cell, megaspore tetrad,
Combi- Mono- Haploid Nullisomic Trisomic megaspore, female gametophyte
nation somic (D) Megaspore mother cell, megaspore tetrad,
(A) 21 28 42 43 megaspore, nucellus, female gametophyte
14. Primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is formed by the
(B) 7 28 40 42 fusion of [2015]
(C) 21 7 42 43 (A) 2 polar nuclei + 1 synergid cell nucleus
(B) 1 polar nucleus + 1 antipodal cell nucleus +1synergid
(D) 41 21 40 43
cell nucleus
(C) 2 polar nuclei + 1 male gamete nucleus
7. A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of fruits
produced will be determined by the genotype of (D) 2 antipodal cell nuclei + 1 male gamete Nucleus
[2006] 15. Apomixis is [2015]
(A) stock (A) formation of seeds by fusion of gametes
(B) scion (B) formation of seeds without syngamy and meiosis
(C) both stock and scion (C) formation of seeds with syngamy but no meiosis
(D) neither stock nor scion (D) none of the above
2.40 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

16. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D in the given (A) A - (iv), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (i)
figure and select the correct option. [2016] (B) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
(C) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)
(D) A - (ii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (iii)
18. The following is the diagram of T.S. of anther. Identify
the parts labelled A, B and C. [2016]

A B C D
(A) Scutellum Epiblast Coleoptile Coleorhiza
(B) Scutellum Coleorhiza Coleoptile Epiblast
(C) Scutellum Coleoptile Coleorhiza Epiblast
(D) Epiblast Coleoptile Coleorhiza Scutellum
17. Match column I with column II and select the correct (A) A-Connective tissue, B-Pollen grains,
option from the given codes. [2016] C- Endothecium
Column I Column II (B) A-Endothecium, B-Connective tissue,
A. Parthenocarpy (i) Seed formation C-Pollen grains
without Fertilization (C) A-Pollen grains, B-Connective tissue,
B. Polyembryony (ii) More than one embryo in C- Endothecium
same seed (D) A-Endothecium, B-Pollen grains,
C. Apomixis (iii) Seedless fruits without C-Connective tissue
fertilization
D. Somatic (iv) Embryo develops
embryogenesis from a
somatic cell
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.41

EXERCISE - IV
(Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both the assertion and reason are false.

1. Assertion : Angiospermic flowers perform the function 9. Assertion : The embryo sac is 7– celled, 7 – nucleated
of sexual reproduction. [AIIMS 1994] structure.
Reason : The male and female reproductive Reason : All cells are haploid.
structures are found in the flowers. 10. Assertion : Most com m on t ype of ovul e i s
2. Assertion : Endosperm is a nutritive tissue and it is anatropous.
triploid. [AIIMS 1998] Reason : Anatropous ovule is horse – shoe shaped.
Reason : Endosperm is formed by fusion of 11. Assertion : Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiotic
secondary nucleus to second male gamete. division.
It is used by developing embryo.
Reason : All four megaspores form female
3. Assertion : Many plants are propagated vegetatively gametophyte.
even though they bear seeds.
12. Assertion : The chalazal cells of the embryo sac is
[AIIMS 2001]
central cell.
Reason : Potatos multiply by tubers, apple by
Reason : They play nutritive role for embryo sac.
cutting.
13. Assertion : The largest cell of the embryo sac is central
4. Assertion : The two cotyledons in seed are embryonic
cell.
leaves. [AIIMS 2002]
Reason : It consists of a fused nuclei.
Reason : The embryo contains radicle and plumule.
14. Assertion : Unisexual flowers have separate male and
5. Assertion : The embryo which is capable to germinate
female flowers.
should have well-developed radicle
plumule and one or two cotyledons. Reason : Both monoecious or dioecious plants have
unisexual flowers.
Reason : In the Orobanchaceae and Orchidaceae the
embryo never differentiates a true radicle, 15. Assertion : The ovary forms fruit after fertilization.
plumule and cotyledons, but can Reason : The ovary forms parthenocarpic fruits
germinate. without fertilization.
6. Assertion : Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating 16. Assertion : Piper nigrum shows the presence of
agents. perisperm.
Reason : Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their Reason : The persistent nucellus is called perisperm.
sex organs.
17. Assertion : Cellular endosperm is formed by both
7. Assertion : Nuclear endosperm is formed by nuclear division and wall formation.
subsequent nuclear division without wall
Reason : It lacks haustoria.
formation.
18. Assertion : Polynology is the study about pollen grain.
Reason : Coconut is an example of such endosperm,
where the endosperm remains nuclear Reason : It is also useful in plant taxonomy.
throughout the development of the fruit. 19. Assertion : Insects visit flowers together honey.
8. Assertion : Tapetum helps in the liberation of [AIIMS 2004]
microspores from tetrad. Reason : Attraction of flowers prevents the insects
Reason : Tapetum shows callose activity. from damaging other parts of the plant.
2.42 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
20. Assertion : Photomodulation of flowering is a
phytochrome regulated process. [2004]
Reason : Active form of phytochrome (PFR) directly
induces floral induction in shoot buds.
21. Assertion : Insects visit flower to gather honey.
[2004]
Reason : Attraction of flowers prevents the insects
from damaging other parts of the plant
22. Assertion : Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating
agents. [2012]
Reason : Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their
sex organs.
23. Assertion : Endothecium layer of anther wall plays an
important role in dehiscence of anther.
[2016]
Reason : The presence of fibrous bands and
differential expansion of inner and outer
tangential walls of endothecial cells cause
dehiscence of anther.
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.43

ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE – I

1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (C) 16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (A) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (A) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (B)
41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (B) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (A)
51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (D) 58. (A) 59. (D) 60. (A)
61. (A) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (B) 76. (B) 77. (D) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (B)
81. (D) 82. (C) 83. (C) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (D) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (D)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (C) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (A) 98. (C) 99. (C) 100. (A)
101. (C) 102. (B) 103. (B) 104. (B) 105. (B) 106. (C) 107. (B) 108. (B) 109. (A) 110. (C)
111. (D) 112. (D) 113. (D) 114. (B) 115. (D) 116. (B) 117. (A) 118. (B) 119. (D) 120. (C)
121. (B) 122. (B) 123. (B) 124. (A) 125. (A) 126. (B) 127. (A) 128. (A) 129. (A) 130. (B)
131. (A) 132. (B) 133. (C) 134. (C) 135. (A) 136. (D) 137. (C) 138. (A) 139. (C) 140. (D)
141. (C) 142. (B) 143. (D) 144. (D) 145. (A) 146. (A) 147. (A) 148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (D)
151. (D) 152. (C) 153. (D) 154. (B) 155. (C) 156. (A) 157. (C) 158. (D) 159. (A) 160. (E)
161. (C) 162. (C) 163. (A) 164. (D) 165. (C) 166. (C) 167. (C) 168. (B) 169. (C) 170. (D)
171. (B) 172. (B) 173. (A) 174. (C) 175. (C) 176. (D) 177. (C) 178. (C) 179. (C) 180. (D)
181. (C) 182. (A) 183. (C) 184. (A) 185. (D) 186. (A) 187. (B) 188. (D) 189. (C) 190. (B)
191. (A) 192. (C) 193. (D) 194. (B) 195. (A) 196. (D) 197. (B) 198. (B) 199. (A) 200. (A)

EXERCISE – II

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (C) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (C)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (C) 37. (C) 38. (B) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (A) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (B) 56. (B) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (C) 64. (D) 65. (D) 66. (C) 67. (C) 68. (A) 69. (C)

EXERCISE – III

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (B) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A)

EXERCISE – IV

1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (A)
2.44 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
EXPLANATIONS
EXERCISE - I
2. (C) In clone vegetative reproducing structures e.g., corn,
bulb, tuber (potato) etc.
3. (C) Sowing is related with sexual reproduction.
8. (A) Jasmine is example of mound layering.
9. (C) Formation of sporophyte (embryo) directly from
gametophyte (synergid or antipodal cell) with fusion
of male gamete.
10. (B) Culture medium contains minerals, vitamin, 2-4%
sucrose, amino acid glycine and growth regulators
(or banana pulp/coconut milk/yeast extract).
11. (C) In adventive embryony embryo arises from diploid
sporophytic cells such as nucellus or integuments
(other egg) e.g., citrus.
15. (C) Walking fern (Adiantum caudatum) because its leaf
tips when come in contact with soil, form new plants
as adventitious buds develop at leaf tips.
17. (C) Foliar (on the leaf) adventitious buds are formed at
place other than nodes.
20. (B) Stem cutting of atleast one year old stem are
employed in case of rose.
22. (B) Inner to epidermis is single layered endothecium.
27. (A) Extexine is further made up of a continuous foot layer,
a discontinuous baculate (baculium) layer tectum.
30. (C) Endothecium is hygroscopic and helps in the
dehiscence of pollen sacs.
32. (A) At certain places, exine remains unthickened or
missing and these places are known as germ pores.
33. (C) Since one MMC forms four microspore after meiosis,
therefore 64 MMC will give rise to 256 microspores.
35. (C) Pollen grain is partially developed male gametophyte
because the rest development completes on stigma
when pollen grains start to germinate and produce
pollen tube having two male nuclei.
36. (B) Four pollen grains are formed by one pollen mother
cell by meiosis.
37. (C) Its chief function is the production of enzymes
hormones (IAA) and secretion of nutrients for
developing pollens.
39. (B) Tapetum cells are multinucleate (undergo endopoly-
ploidy).
42. (B) The primary parietal cell divides to form 3-5 walls
layer i.e., endothecium, middle layers and tapetum.
43. (B) Tube has a large nucleus which is surrounded by
thin sheath of cytoplasm.
49. (B) The mature male gametophyte of angiosperm is
3-celled, 3 nucleated and formed by one meiosis and
two mitosis.
50. (A) Study of pollen grains or microspore is called
palynology, a term given by Hyde and Williams
52. (A) Ubisch bodies secreted by tapetum help in external
thickening of exine as these bodies get coated with
sporopollenin.
56. (A) When the sporangium is derived from a single parent
cell and the wall is one layered it is called
leptosporangiate type.
57. (D) The cells between middle layer and
microsporogenous cells develop into tapetum.
Tapetum plays an important role in pollen
development by providing nutrition. It is a part of
anther wall.
58. (A) Haploids can be obtained by culturing pollen grains.
Only pollen grains are haploids. Root apex, shoot
apex and embryo are diploid.
59. (D) In asclepiadaceae family all microspores of a
sporangium form a single body called pollinium.
60. (A) It is outer most covering of tetrad microspores in
microsporangium.
61. (A) 7; the number of chromosomes in root cells is 2n
while it is n in synergids because it develops by
reductional division.
66. (C) Endosperm is triploid structure and MMC are diploid
structures.
67. (B) In Asphodelus, the outer integument is curved so
that this curved structure is known as caruncle.
68. (D) After double fertilization the remnants of nucleus of
ovule in mature seed is called perisperm.
72. (C) Female gametophyte embryo sac of ovule develops
from megaspore.
73. (C) In angiosperms, two integuments are found in ovule
while in gymnosperms only one integument is found.
74. (A) Antipodal cells and egg cells are formed by
megaspore.
75. (B) Tegmen develops from inner integument.
84. (C) Aril is a collar like outgrowth from the base of the
ovule and forms third integument. It is present
sometimes as in Litchi and Asphodelus or in the form
of caruncle in Ricinus (Castor).
85. (D) Synergids show a filiform apparatus attached to their
upper wall. It is known to attract and guide the pollen
tube.
87. (C) In campylotropus the body of ovule is curved but
the embryo sac is straight e.g., Capsella, Capparis.
88. (B) The nucleus of megaspore undergoes divisions and
give rise to embryo sac or female gametophyte, which
is called megagametogenesis.
89. (A) A Polygonum type of embryo is 7 celled and
8 nucleate where these are 3 antipodals, 2 synergids,
one egg cell and one secondary nucleus which is
binucleated.

90. (D) Synergids are formed by megaspore which is a
haploid structure. Thus synergids are haploid and
possess 6 chromosomes.
91. (A) Egg apparatus of angiosperm is 3 celled. It has one
egg cell and two synergids on either side of egg cell.
3 antipodal are present on chalazal side. The
secondary nucleus is binucleate is present in the
centre of embryo sac.
93. (C) After meiotic division four haploid megaspores are
formed. Only one megaspore (haploid) divides
mitotically to form embryo sac and other three become
disappear or disintegrated.
94. (D) When the funicle lies parallel to the body of the ovule
and micropyle. The body of the ovule has rotated by
180°, the ovule is called anatropous.
95. (A) All cells in the ovule (integument, nucellus, funicle,
hilum) are diploid (2x) but embryo sac (synergids,
antipodal cells, egg cell) is haploid.
97. (A) Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to form
four megaspores, on the basis of participation of
megaspore nuclei, the development of embryo sac
may be monosporic, bisporic, or tetrasporic.
100. (A) Ovule with funiculus lying close to micropyle is called
anatropus. In camphylotropus and amphitropous
funiculus micropyle make an angle of 120° and in
atropous they fall in one line.
101. (C) Blastophage (gall wasp) is completely dependent
upon Ficus carioca (Fig) for survival. The fig is
dependent upon this wasp for pollination.
102. (B) Entomophilous flowers produces a small amount of
pollen which has a spinous and sticky exine due to
presence of pollen kit.
104. (B) In wind pollination stigmas are exserted, sticky, hairy
or feathery (plumose) or branched to increase
receptive area for catching wind borne pollen grains
e.g., cereals.
106. (C) Geitonogamy is the transfer for pollen grains from
anthers of one flower to another flower of either the
same plant or genetically similar plant or between
two clones.
107. (B) Malacophily is cross pollination brought about by
the agency of snails, slugs e.g., Arisaema (cobra
plant).
108. (B) Dichogamy is the maturation of anther and stigmas
of a flower at different times, e.g., sunflower.
111. (D) Self sterility, herkogamy and dichogamy are
adaptation for cross pollination.
116. (B) Vallisneria is sub merged, dioecius, fresh water plant.
117. (A) Saliva has turn pipe or lever mechanism for
pollination by honey bee.
118. (B) Chiropterophily is pollination by bats, e.g., Kigelia
africana. Adansonia etc.
121. (B) Cleistogamy is the process of self pollination.
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.45
122. (B) In Salvia (Sage plant), a member of family Labiatae,
pollination occurs by bees and there is a special
mechanism called ‘Turn pipe mechanism’ or Lever
mechanism of pollination.
126. (B) Stigmas are exserted, sticky, hairy, feathery or
branched to capture the pollen grains.
128. (A) Feathery stigma is characteristic of wind pollination.
130. (B) Cleistogamy (kleisto-closed, gamous marriage).
133. (C) Herkogamy are mechanical devices that prevent self
pollination and favour cross pollination even in
homogamous flowers.
136. (D) Syngamy is fusion of one of the two male gametes
with egg to produces diploid zygote (oospore).
137. (C) Double fertilization was discovered by Nawaschin,
(1898) in Fritillaria and Lilium.
138. (A) In mesogamy pollen tube penetrates laterally through
integuments (Cucurbita) and funiculus (e.g.,
Pistacia).
139. (C) Because in gymnosperms, bryophytes and
pteridophytes single fertilization is found.
140. (D) Because egg is the part of embryo sac.
141. (C) Pollen tube contains two male gametes, a
degenerating tube nucleus and some cytoplasm.
144. (D) 5 i.e., 2 sperm nuclei, 2 pollen nuclei and one egg
nucleus.
148. (B) In angiosperms, male gametes reach the female
gamete with the help of pollen tube. (Strasburger,
1884).
149. (B) Germination of pollen grains completes on stigma
i.e., in vivo. It means in natural conditions or with in
the cell.
151. (D) Pea, bean and Phaseolus seeds are non-endospermic
because endosperm is fully consumed during their
embryo development. It is an advance character of
angiosperm.
152. (C) Growth of pollen tube towards the embryo sac is
chemotaxis because this movement is induced by
chemicals like auxin hormone and carbohydrate.
153. (D) All three types can be route of the pollen tube enters
in the ovule as chalazogamy mesogamy and
porogamy.
154. (B) Generative cell divides into two male gametes, If it
has not divided already.
155. (C) Double fertilization is found only in angiosperms. In
which secondary nucleus form to triploid cell and
egg convert into diploid zygote. Triploid cell to form
endosperm and diploid zygote to form embryo.
156. (A) The pollen tube releases two male gametes, which
migrate towards the chalazal end of the degenerated
synergid by an unknown mechanism. Gametes
discharge at synergid cells.
157. (C) The formation of sporophyte from gametophytic cell
without fertilization is called apogamy.
2.46 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
159. (A) After fertilization the outer integument forms testa,
inner integument forms tegmen and ovary wall forms
pericarp.
161. (C) Because maize and lily are angiosperm plants, in
which endosperm is formed by fusion of one diploid
polar nucleus and haploid male gamete, thus this
tissue is triploid.
164. (D) In Pinus, both cleavage and simple polyembryony
is present.
165. (C) In Cocos nucifera (coconut) milky endosperm is
found in which many nuclei, vitamins and growth
hormone e.g., cytokinins, auxin, AG and induced
cytokinin is found.
168. (B) Primary endosperm nucleus is triploid structure which
forms endosperm.
169. (C) Aleurone proteinaceous layer is found in maize,
wheat, rice etc.
170. (D) The endosperm that shows irregular or uneven
surface contour is called ruminate endosperm.
Ruminate or convoluted endosperm occurs in Areca
(Batelnut) and Passiflora.
174. (C) In maize the outermost layer of endosperm is rich in
protein and constitutes the aleurone layer.
175. (C) Endosperm (result of triple fusion) = 3n = 36
36
n  12
3 without fertilization is called parthenogenesis.
Number of chromosome in root cells is 2n = 24
(sprophytic).
177. (C) Brassica is a angiosperm plant.
EXERCISE – II
(Previous Year AIPMT Examination Questions)
61. (D) Double Fertilization  64. (D) Sporopollenin is biologically most resistant plant
 fusion of male &
 Sungamy 
 female gainetes (egg cell)
 fusion of male gamete with
Tripple fusion 
 two polar nuclei
62. (A) Liquid Nitrogen is used in Cryopreservation of pollen
grain temperature is kept at –196°C.
63. (C) Bamboo species flower generally only once in its life
time after 50-100 years.
183. (C) Since sunflower is a dicotyledonous plants, so the
number of cotyledons in sunflower will be two.
184. (A) In Agamospermy megaspore mother cells no meiosis
persists so all the megaspores remain diploid and
later on they develop in diploid embryo sacs.
185. (D) Growth of diploid nuclear or integument cells into
embryos (adventive polyembryony) e.g., Mango.
186. (A) In angiosperms (citrus) have two or more than two
embryos in one seed. It is called polyembryony.
187. (B) Xenia : The genetical, paternal effect on endosperm
of seeds is called as xenia.
190. (B) Embryogeny is the development of mature embryo
from zygote or oospore.
192. (C) Secondary nucleus form to endosperm in
angiosperms. After double fertilization secondary
nucleus become triploid and this triploid cell form
endosperm.
193. (D) Xenia means direct effect of the pollen grains on the
seeds and fruits, outside the embryo is called xenia.
Metaxenia is the effect of pollen grain on the testa
and fruit wall. Maize is the classical example of xenia
and date palm is an example of metaxenia.
198. (B) In pomegranate, succulent testa is the edible part.
Parthenocarpy will make the fruit seedless and thus
useless.
199. (A) Development of the individual from single gamete
200. (A) Stimulative parthenocarpy occurs with stimulus of
pollination e.g., grapes.
material, hence its helpful in preserving pollen in
fossils.
65. Ovum is arrested in metaphase II after ovulation.
Pronuclear formation occurs only after entry of sperm
but before fertilization.
67. Ovule develop into seed post fertilization.
68. The remain of nucellus in seed called perisperm.
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.47

EXERCISE – III
(Previous Year AIIMS Solutions)

1. (A) During seed germination the radicle comes outfirst
due to gravitational force and furthermore it results
in a differential growth.
2. (A) Xenia is the effect of pollen genes on the
development of the fruit or seed.
3. (C) Sporopollenin, which is the hardest substance, helps
the pollen grains to withstand extremesof
temperatures. It avoids transpiration or water loss.
This hard proteinaceous substance presentin the
exine makes it also spinous in nature.
4. (A) The synergids direct the growth of pollen tube
bysecreting some chemical substances. The tip
ofpollen tube enters into one synergid.
5. (D) Double fertilization involves fertilization of the egg/
oosphere (2n) and that of secondary nucleus (3N)
by two different sperms produced in the same pollen
tube.
6. (D) ln = 21; monosomic (2n – l) = 42 – l = 41; nullisomic
(2n – 2) = 42 – 2 = 40. Trisomic (2n +l) = 42 + l = 43.
7. (B) The quality of food produced by the grafted plant is
determined by the genotype of scion.
8. (B) Once the embryo begins to germinate—grow outfrom
the seed—it is called a seedling. Plants that do not
produce seeds, but do produce an embryo,include
the bryophytes and ferns. In these plants, the embryo
is a young plant that grows attached to a parental
gametophyte.
9. (C) Chasmogamous flowers are always open.
10. (D)
11. (C) In unisexual flowers, the female flower buds are
bagged before the flowers open. When the
stigmabecomes receptive, pollination is carried
outusing the desired pollen and the flower rebagged.
Hence, there is no need of emasculation in these
flowers.
12. (B)
13. (C)
14. (C) During the event of double fertilization in
angiosperms, the second male gamete fuses with the
two haploid polar nuclei or diploid secondary nucleus
of the central cell to form a triploid primary
endosperm nucleus (PEN). This second fertilisation
is called vegetative fertilisation.
15. (B)
16. (C)
17. (D)
18. (A)
2.48 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
EXERCISE - IV
1. (A) Angiospermic flowers possess male and female sex
organs and perform the sexual reproduction.
2. (A) In angiosperm, triploid endosperm is formed by
fusion of secondary nucleus and second male
gamete. This tissue is used by developing embryo.
3. (A) Vegetative reproduction is asexual type of
reproduction Potato, Sugarcane, Apple, etc., are
multiplied by asexual means.
4. (B) In angiosperms, cotyledons are embryonic leaves.
Embryo also has radicle and plumule which gives
rise to root and shoot respectively.
5. (B) Irrespective of its mode of development a nature
embryo generally possesses an embryonic root
(radicle) an embryonic shoot (plumule) and one or
two cotyledons. However, some groups of plants
are characterised by the presence of reduced
embryos, lacking the differentiation of these organs,
for example, the plants of Balanophoraceae,
Orchidaceae, Orobanchaceae.
6. (B) The majority of angiosperms bear chasmogamous
flowers, which means the flowers expose their mature
anthers and stigma to the pollinating agents. There
is another group of plants which set seeds without
exposing their sex organs. Such flowers are called
cleistogamous and the phenomenon cleistogamy.
7. (C) In nucellar type of endosperm the division of the
primary endosperm nucleus and a few subsequent
nuclear division are not accompanied by wall
formation. So numerous nuclei freely suspended in
its sap. In coconut, the primary endosperm nucleus
undergoes a number of free nuclear divisions. When
the fruit is about 50 mm long before the embryo sac
gets filled with a clear fluid in which float numerous
nuclei of various sizes. At a later stage (about
100 mm long fruit) the suspension shows in addition
to free nuclei, several cells each enclosing variable
number of nuclei. Gradually these cells and free
nuclei start setting at the periphery of the cavity and
layers of cellular endosperm start appearing. This
forms the coconut meat. In mature coconuts the
liquid endosperm becomes milky and it does not
contain free nuclei or cell.
8. (A) Mepham and Lane have demonstrated that in
Tradescantia bracteata the plasmodial cytoplasm
derived from the tapetum has callose activity. Shortly
before callose degradation starts the cytoplasm of
tapetal cells show certain vesicles which are probably
associated with callose activity. This suggests that
sporophytic tissue, presumably tapetum, is involved
in the synthesis of callose enzyme for the release of
microspores in a tetrad by degrading the callose wall.
9. (D) The female gametophyte, also called embryo sac is
mostly a 7-called structure. There is a large central
cell with two polar nuclei which later fuse to form
secondary nucleus. The micropylar end of central
cell is occupied by the egg apparatus, comprising an
egg cell and two synergids, and at its chalazal end
three antipodal cells are present. Cell of the egg
apparatus and the antipodal cells are uninucleate
and haploid where as the central cell is binucleate or
diploid. Thus embryo sac is 7 - celled, 8 – nucleated
structure.
10. (C) The ovules where micropyle comes to lie close to
the funiculus due to unilateral growth of the ovule
are called anatropous. This is the most common type
of ovule in angiosperms. Where the curvature of the
ovule also affects the nucellus so that the later
becomes horse shoe-shaped the ovule is called
amphitropous.
11. (C) One hypodermal nucellar cell of the micropylar region
differentiates the sporogenous cell. It forms a diploid
megaspore mother cell or megasporocyte. The
megaspore mother cells undergo meiosis and forms
a row of four haploid megaspores. Only the chalazal
megaspore remains functional megaspore enlarges
and gives rise to female gametophyte, also called
embryo sac.
12. (B) The three chalazal cells of the embryo sac are called
antipodal cells. They are the vegetative cells of the
embryo sac which may degenerate soon or take part
in absorbing nourishment from the surrounding
nucellar cells. Internally they are connected with the
central cell by means of plasmodesmata.
13. (B) The central cell is the largest cell of the embryo sac.
It has a highly vacuolate cytoplasm which is rich in
reserve food and Golgi bodies. In the middle the cell
contains two polar nuclei which have large nucleoli.
The polar nuclei fuse to form a single diploid
secondary or fusion nucleus.
14. (B) Unisexual or diclinous flowers means separate male
and female flowers. When they are borne by one
and the same plant, such a plant is said to be
monoecious. When they are borne by two separate
plants, they are called dioecious.
15. (B) After fertilization the ovary begins to grow and
gradually matures into the fruit. In some cultivated
varieties of oranges, banana, grapes, apples,
pineapples and some other fruits the ovary may grow
into the fruit without fertilization. Such a fruit is
seedless or with immature seeds and is known as the
parthenocarpic fruits.
16. (B) The nucellus is usually consumed by the developing
endosperm. However, in certain families, such as
Amaranthaceae, Cannaceae, Capparidaceae,
Piperaceae, Portulaceae and Zingiberaceae, the
nucellar tissue surrounding the embryo sac persists
 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS 2.49
in the seed and becomes densely packed with food 20. (A) Active form of PFR is responsible for inducing
materials. The persistent nucellus is called perisperm. flowering. Phytochrome and protein pigment exist in
Ninety – five percent of Piper nigrum seed is two inter convertible forms.
perisperm.
17. (C) The cellular endosperm is characterized by the
absence of free nuclear stage. The division of the
primary endosperm nucleus and a few subsequent
nuclear division are followed regularly by wall
formation. The occurrence of haustoria is a common
feature of this type of endosperm the haustoria may
be micropylar or chalazal. Occasionally, both types
of haustoria are present in the same plant. 21. (D) Honey bees visit flowers to gather nectar and turn it
18. (B) The study of external morphological features of into honey. Visiting of insects for nectar helps in
mature pollen grains is referred to as polynology. A pollination.
schematic illustraion of a pollen grain is called 22. (B) The majority of angiosperms bear chasmogamous
“palynogram”. Different sculpturing patterns on the flowers, which means the flowers expose their mature
exine of pollen have proved of much taxonomic value. anthers and stigma to the pollinatingagents. There
They usually permit the assignment of an individual is another group of plants which set seeds without
grain to the family, often to genus and rarely even to exposing their sex organs. Such flowers are called
species. cleistogamous and the phenomenon is cleistogamy.
19. (D) Insect visit flowers to get nectar. The attraction of 23. (A)
flower in plants is not to diverge the insect from
damaging other part, but to bring about pollination
(i.e., transfer of pollen to the stigma).
 3 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM IN HUMAN SECONDARY SEXUAL CHARACTERS
• Sexual Reproduction: It is the mode of reproduction • Male:- Beard, moustaches, body hairs on shoulder &
which involve fusion of gametes. It is commonly chest, pubic hair on both lateral and vertical directions,
biparental and variations appear in offsprings. comparatively more weight with muscular body, larynx
 Human beings are unisexual (dioecious). They apparently external, voice low pitched with breathing
reproduce by sexual means only. more by means of diaphragm.
• Primary sex organs  Involve in gametes formation. • Female:- High pitched voice, breast, broader pelvic,
lateral pubic hair, rounded body contour with more
e.g. Testes (in male) and Ovaries (in female).
subcutaneous fat in thighs, buttocks and face and sternal
• Secondary sex organs  Ducts, glands or organs which breathing.
do not form gametes, but help in sexual reproduction.
MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
• Secondary / Accessory sex characters:- These
• It includes :-
characters do not have any direct role in sexual
reproduction but give distinct morphology to male and 1. One pair of testes 2. Scrotum
female individuals. 3. One pair epididymis 4. One pair vas deferens
5. One pair seminal vesicles
SECONDARY SEXUAL ORGAN 6. One pair ejaculatory duct
• Male:- Vasa efferentia, epididymies, Vasa deferentia, 7. One prostate gland
ejaculatory ducts, Urethra, Prostate glands, Cowper’s 8. One pair of cowper’s gland
gland, seminal vesicle, penis. 9. Penis and urethra
• Female:- Fallopian tubes, uterus, vagina, external Testes:-
genitalia, Bartholin’s gland, mammary glands. • Shape – Oval Size - 5 × 3 × 2.5 cm Colour – Pinkish

Diagrammatic sectional view of male pelvies showing reproductive system

Internal Structure of Testes:-
• Each testes is divided in two half by a vertical partition
called mediastinum. Half part is divided into 200 – 300
lobules by number of septa. Each lobule have connective
tissue and 1 – 4 seminiferous tubule.
• Total 900 – 1000 seminiferous tubules are present in each
testes. Length of each tubule is 70 – 80 cm in length and
2 mm in diameter.
• In between seminiferous tubules, interstitial cells / cells
of leydig are present which secrete testesteron. Leydig
3.2 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
cells were described by German anatomist Freenz von
Leydig.
• Seminiferous tubules are blind at one end while other
end becomes straight and form network called rete testes
(Tubuli recti). From rete testes 10 – 20 fine tubules, vasa
efferentia or ductuli efferentia arise which carry sperm to
epididymis.
• Tubuli recti, rete testes and ductuli efferentia
connectively form intratesticular genital duct system.
Each testes consist of three layers.
(i) Tunica vaginalis:- Outermost covering of testes.
It is double layered peritonial covering which
covers half of each testes with narrow coelomic
cavity having fluid called coelomic fluid.
Increased amount of this fluid can cause swelling
of scrotum called, hydrocoel.
Diagrammatic view of male reproductive system (Part of testis is open to show inner details)
Diagrammatic sectional view of seminiferous tubule
(ii) Tunica albugina:- Actual covering of testes. Also
called capsule of testes. It is bluish with fibrous
connective tissue. It invaginates and forms vertical
partition called mediastinum. Hundreds of septa
also divide testes into lobules.
(iii) Tunica vasculosa:- Innermost layer which form
inner lining of lobules.
• Orchitis- Inflammation of testes.
• Orchidectomy - Surgical removal of testes, also called
castration and such person is called eunuch.
Castrated cattle – steers
Castrated horse – geldinga
Castrated fowls – capons
Castrated bull – docile ox.
• Anarchism- absence of testes.
• Monarchism- single testes.

Scrotum:-
• Loose pouch hang out below from lower abdominal
wall, between thighs. Scrotum is divided into two
scrotal sacs by septum scroti (internally) and raphy
(externally). Dartos & cremaster (can be voluntry)
keep testes in proper position in scrotum, to maintain
temperature. Gubernaculum is thick band which
connect testes to scrot um poster iarly (el astic
ligament)
• Testes descends in scrotum through inguinal canal
during 7th month of foetal life. If it fails to descends in
scrotum, it is called Anarchidism / Cryptorchidism. Such
person remain sterile.
• In seasonal breeders like Otter, Bat, testes descends
in scrotum only during breeding season. While in
whale, elephant, dolphin, Seacow and Echidna testes
are intra abdominal because their body tempreture
is low.
• In Kangaroo, scrotum is in front of penis.
ACCESSORY SEX GLANDS
Seminal vesicles (Uterus musculinus):-
• One pair lobulated musculo glandular coiled sac of 5 cm
(uncoiled 10 – 15 cm) present between urinary bladder
and rectum. Its secretion form major part of semen (about
70%). Its secretion contains proteins like fibrinogen,
fructose (for nourishment), citrate, inositol and
prostaglandin (for lubrication).
Prostate glands:-
• Single large pyramidal gland, 4 × 3 cm, secrete thin,
milky & slighty alkaline fluid, contain albumin,
calcium, phosphate, citrate, clott ing enzyme,
fibrolysin, fibrogenases and profibrolysin. It make
20-30% of semen. It neutralise acidity of vagina and
make the sperm more active. Its removal can cause
sterility in man.
Cowper’s / Bulbourethralgland:-
• One pair of glands present beneath bladder & behind
urethra. It secrete an alkaline fluid during sexual
excitment which lubricate glands & neutralise acidity
of urine.
Semen:-
• pH = 7.5, slightly alkaline, 3 - 4 ml per ejaculate have 400
million sperms. It has chemicals for nourishing sperms
(fructose), neutralise acidity of vagina & urethra (calcium,
bicarbonate), stimulating movement in female tract
(prostaglandin), clotting enzyme from prostate gland act
on fibrinogen of seminal vesicle, change semen into
coagulate in vagina. After 15 – 30 minute profibrolysin
of prostate change coagulate into fibrinolysin, so sperm
becomes highly motile. Sperm can live for many weeks
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.3
in male tract and after ejaculation can live 24 – 48 hrs. in
female tract. However they can be stored for years
at – 100°C.
• It develops from wolffian duct of embryo.
• About 10% part of semen consist of sperms.
• If sperms are immobile, structurally abnormal or poor in
number (Less than 60 million) it causes sterility in male.
Epididymis:-
• About 6 m long highly coiled tube where sperms are
stored untill ejaculation. If not ejaculated, sperms are
reabsorbed. It is divided into three parts-caput, corpus
(body) and cauda epididymis. Sperm gain maturity &
motility in epididymes
• Testes + Epididymis = Testicles.
Vasa deferentia:-
• Also called ductus deferense, is about 30 – 35 cm, arise
from cauda epididymis, ascend to abdomen, pass over
the urinary bladder receive duct from seminal vesicle to
form ejaculatory duct. Vas deferens store, nourish and
transport sperm.
Vasectomy :-
• Surgical removal of vas diferens. It is a contraceptive
device.
Ejaculatory duct:-
• Short 2 cm long, straight muscular duct formed by union
of vas deferens and a duct from seminal vesicle.
Ejaculatory duct carry sperm and secretion of seminal
vesicles.
Urethra:-
• Tube carries urine from bladder as well as sperms from
the vas deferentia. It is divided into urinary, prostatic,
membranous and penial urethra.
• Urinary urethra carries urine only while rest part of urethra
in male is urinogenital.
Penis:-
• Male copulatory organ. It is vascular, spongy & erectile
structure. Tip is called glans penis which is covered by
fold of skin called prepuce, having modified oil glands
called Tyson glands which secrete smegma. Circumcisim
is removal of prepuce.
• Penis is made up of three longitudinal column of
erectile tissue. Two dorsolateral carpora covernosa
& one median ventral corpora spongiosa. Glans is
made up of spongiosa only. Urethra is present in
spongiosa.
• In rat, bat & whale, ossification occurs in penis, called
ospenis.
 3.4 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

Wall
of
uterus

Diagrammatic sectional view of the female reproductive system

It includes:- 4. Accessory sex glands:- One pair Bartholin glands, one

1. Primary sex organs:- One pair ovaries. pair perineal glands.
2. Secondry sex organs:- One pair fallopian-tubes, uterus, 5. Accessory sex organ:- Breast
vagina.
3. External genitalia:- Clitoris, Labia majora, Labia minora,
vestibule.

Diagrammatic sectional view of female pelvis showing reproductive system


Ovary:-
• 3 cm × 2 cm × 1 cm
• One pair pink coloured ovaries are present in abdominal
cavity. Each ovary is covered by a fold of peritonium
called mesovarium on dorsal side. Ovarian ligaments
attach ovaries to the uterus.
• Inflammation of ovary is called oophritis.
• Surgical removal of ovary is called oophorectomy.
Fallopian tubes:-
• Also called uterine tube / oviduct. One pair muscular
tube, each about 10 - 12 cm in length. It is divided into
following parts.
(i) Infundibulum:- Funnel shaped part near ovary,
having an aperture called ostium. Its terminal part
have finger like processes called Fimbriae.
(ii) Ampulla:- Curved swollen part behind
infundibulum. Fertilization takes place here.
(iii) Isthmus:- Narrow straight part.
(iv) Uterine part:- It passes into uterine wall.
• In birds only left ovary and left oviduct is functional.
• Ectopic pregnancy / Tubic pregnancy:- Sometime
implantation & development of embryo occurs in
fallopian tube. By sixth week, it can cause rupture of
fallopian tube so immediate surgical removal is required.
Uterus:- (Womb)
• 7.5 cm × 5 cm × 2.5 cm
• Inverted pear shaped, behind bladder.
• Implantation and development of foetus takes place here.
• It is attached to the body wall by double fold of
peritonium, the broad ligament (Myometrium).
• Uterus can be divided into 3 parts:
 Fundus :- Dome shaped upper part which receive
fallopian tubes.
 Body:- Main part, broad above and narrow towards
lower side.
 Cervix :- About 2.5 cm long narrow part which
protrudes into vagina. It is connected to the body by
opening called internal os and vagina by external os.
• Uterus is of following types:
 Duplex uterus:- Simplest type, both the uterus
completely seperate from each other and open
seperately in vagina. eg. Rat.
 Bipartite uterus:- Proximal end of both the uterus
are seperate but distal ends are fused. A vertical
partition line is present between both the uterus.
eg. Carnivorous.
 Bicornuate uterus:- It is similar to bipartite type
but partition line is absent. eg. Rabbit
 Simplex uterus:- Most advanced type, formed by
fusion of both uteri during embryonic development.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.5
Vagina
• Uterus open into the vagina. Vagina have non keratinized
stratified squamous epithelium. Its pH is acidic. Vagina
have Doderlein bacilia like lactobacillus & lactoneustoc.
These bacilia produce lactic acid from glycogen. In
presence of lactic acid the vagina pH is acidic which
prevent growth of other micro organism.
• Vaginal opening is called vulva. It have a membrane called
hymen.
• In women the length of vagina is 7 – 9 cm.
• Paired vagina are present in monotrematans.
External genitalia of woman:-
• Consist of mons pubis on upperside, perinium on lower
side & central vestibule.
Labia majora :
• They are outer & larger folds. Their outer surface is hairy
and inner surface is hairless. They are thick and muscular.
They are homologous to scrotal sacs.
• Labia majora & minora both have sebaceous glands.
Labia minora :
• They are inner & smaller folds. They are hairless.
• Labia majora & minora both have sebaceous gland.
Clitoris:
• The urinary & vaginal orifices are commonly called vulva.
• There is cliltoris anterior to the vulva which is a small,
muscular, highly sensory & knob - like structure. It is
homologous to the glans penis.
Vestibules:
• They have four openings.
(i) One - Urethral openings
(ii) One - Vaginal orifice
(iii) Two - Bartholin duct opening
Accessory sex gland
(i) Bartholin gland / Vestibular glands/Bulbourethral
glands- One pair tubuloacinar glands.
• The posterior part of the vagina receives a pair of
Bartholin glands.
• Their secretions make the vagina alkaline before
copulation.
• They are homologous to the cowper’s glands.
(ii) Perineal glands
• There is one pair perineal glands which are found in
the perineal part.
• They open into the posterior part of the vestibule.
• They secrete pheromone which attract opposite sex
for copulation.
Accessory sex organ
• Breast (Mammary gland):- Breast is developed due to
secondary sexual characters. It is modified sweat gland.
It has tubuloacinar glands.
 3.6 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
A diagrammatic sectional view of Mammary gland
• In prototherians mammary glands are functional in both
male and female.
• Gynaecomastia - Development of breast in male due to
female hormones.
For development of breast four hormones work:
(i) Oestrogen:- For growth of tubules of breast glands.
(ii) Progesteron:- For growth of follicles of breast glands.
(iii) Prolactin:- Milk synthesizing hormone in breast
glands.
(iv) Oxytocin:- Help in milk ejection.
GAMETOGENESIS
• Formation of eggs & sperm from germ cells is known as
Gametogenesis.
Diagrammatic sectional view of a seminiferous tubule (enlarged)
• FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) of pituatary gland
stimulate gametogenesis.
• Vitamin - E (Fertility vitamin) is essential for
gametogenesis and deficiency of vitamin - E causes
sterility.
• Healthy gametes are produced by vitamin - A. Due to
deficiency of vitamin - A, gametes are less active.
1. SPERMATOGENESIS
Formation of sperms :
• In most animals, spermatogenesis occurs in testes.
• Mammalian testes contains seminiferous tubules.
Seminiferous tubules are made up of germinal epithelium.

• Some special type of cells are found in germinal epithelium
known as primordial germ cells. These cells divide &
produce sperms.
• Sertoli cells are also found in germinal epithelium.
Presence of sertoli cells is the unique character of
mammalian testes.
• Sertoli cells provide nutrition to developing sperms.
Developing sperm is attached with sertoli cells & gets
nutrition.
• Sperms are stored in epididymis.
• Release of mature sperms from setroli cells is known as
spermiation.
• Release of sperm from testes is known as semination.
• Release of sperms from penis is known as ejaculation.
Schematic representation of (a) Spermatogenesis ; (b) Oogenesis
3. Spermiogenesis or Spermateliosis - Metamorphosis
of spermatids.
• Formation of sperm from spermatids is called
Spermiogenesis.
• Nucleus of spermatid move towards end pole. And
rest of the structure are released (except chromatin)
and degenerates. And nucleus becomes light & small.
• Many golgi vesicle collects on the nucleus. Some
vesicles developes a granule inside them, this granule
is known as proacrosomal granules & proacroblast.
• Later all proacroblasts are fused & form a large vesicle,
which is known as acroblast. Granule of acroblast is
called as Acrosomal granules.
• Acroblast collects above the nucleus, rest vesicles
are known as golgi rest.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.7
• Entry of sperms into female vagina is known as
insemination. Sertoli cells form Blood Testes Barrier.
This protects sperms from body immune system.
Two types of hormones are secreted by sertoli cells -
1. AMH (Anti mularian hormone) - This hormone inhibits
formation of female genital organs in male embryo. Although
some vestigeal female gential organs are found in male.
Eg.
(i) Seminal vesicle / uterus masculinus -
It is the vestigeal part of oviduct (mularian duct).
(ii) Prostatic utricle /vagina masculinus -
It is the vestigeal part of vagina.
2. Inhibin hormone - It inhibits the secretion of FSH, and
controls the productions of sperms.
• These golgi rest dissolve into cytoplasm.
• Cytoplasm of spermatid moves backward, so plasma
membrane shrinks & attach with acroblast & nucleus
and head of sperm is formed.
• Two centrioles of spermatid arrange in perpendicular
manner, just below nucleus.
• Distal centriole produces axonema. All mitochondria
of spermatid arrange spirally around the axonema.
This arrangement form the middle part of sperm.
• Axonema elongates & tail of sperm is formed.
• Backward movement of cytoplasm occurs & at the
end cytoplasm contracts at base & separates from
the sperm.
• The separated cytoplasm is absorbed by sertoli cells
by phagocytosis.
 3.8 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
STRUCTURE OF SPERM
Structure of a sperm
Sperm has three parts:
1. Head- Head contains two structures .
(a) Acrosome & (b) Nucleus.
• Acrosome is a vesicle like structure which has
hydrolytic enzymes. These are combinely known
as sperm lysin.
• These enzymes help in penetration of egg.
• Mammalian acrosome has mainly hyaluronidase
& proacrosine enzyme. Both are combinely known
as acrosomine.
• Proacrosine is an inactive enzyme, but when it comes
in contact with egg, it converts into active acrosine.
• Acrosome is surrounded by double unit membranes.
Acrosome with membranes is called Galea capitis.
• A space between acrosome & nucleus is known as
perforatorium.
• Nucleoplasm, nucleolus & histone protein are absent
in nucleus of sperm.
• Histones are replaced by protamines in sperm nucleus.
These are the alkaline protein.
2. Middle piece- Its anterior part is narrow & known as neck
of sperm.
• It has two centrioles.
(i) Proximal centriole or anterior knob.
(ii) Distal centriole or posterior knob.
• Proximal centriole is situated in the base of nucleus
in a pit.
• Both centrioles have different functions.
• Proximal centriole stimulate the cleavage in fertilized
egg.
• Distal centriole acts as a basal granule & produces
axonema filament.
• Axonema is surrounded by 9 solid protein fibres in
middle piece of sperm.
• In middle piece, many mitochondria are arranged
spirally around axonema. This spiral sheath of
mitochondria around axonema is known as
Nebenkern sheath.
• Sometime at the end part of middle piece sperm has
another centriole which is known ring centrioles. The
function of ring centriole is unknown.
• Basal part of head & middle piece has a thin layer
of cytoplasm which is called as Manchette.
3. Tail- It is a long flagellum. Tail is divided into two parts-
(a) Main piece (b) End piece
• Main piece of axonema is surrounded by two solid
protein fibres. A thin layer of cytoplasm is present
in main piece of the tail.
• End piece of tail consist of only axonema and 9 + 2
arrangement.
Shape of sperm Head
(1) Spherical head e.g. Teleost fishes
(2) Lanceolate e.g. Amphibia & Reptilia
(3) Cork screw (Spiral) e.g. Birds
(4) Spoon shaped e.g. Mammals (man)
(5) Hook shaped e.g. Rat
Tailless sperm (Non flagellated sperm)
e.g. (1) Ascaris - Amoeboid
(2) Cray fish (Astacus) - Star shaped
(3) Crab & lobster - Small, rod like, apex has three hooks.
• Toad fish-biflagellated.
• In Opossum and Grasshopper – Heads of many
sperms combine to form a sperm boat. After
reaching egg, the sperms separate.
• In Pila-Two types of sperms
(1) Eupyrene (one tail)
(2) Oligopyrene (4 – 6 tail)
Size of Sperms
• Sperms are microscopic.
• Smallest sperm-Crocodile and Amphioxus (.02 mm).
• Largest sperms of chordata are present in Discoglossus
(2 mm).
• Largest sperm of Animal kingdom present in Drosophila
bifurca (5.8 cm).
2. OOGENESIS
• Formation of ova in ovary is called oogenesis.
• In most animals, in females multiplication phase of
oogenesis completes in embryonal stage.
• Four lakhs oogonia are found in female at the time
of birth and oogenesis complete at the adult stage.
• Life span of egg is 48 hours.

• In oogenesis longest phase is growth phase and
continues till many years.
• During growth phase egg increases in size.
• Karyoplasmic index decreases during growth phase.
• In frog, primary oocyte is 25000 to 30000 times larger
than oogonium.
• Many changes occurs during growth phase in egg.
All the changes are divided into two substages by
Raven.
(1) Previtellogenesis (2) Vitellogenesis
(1) Previtellogenesis - This sub-stage involves two
types of changes -
(a) Changes in Nucleus-
• Increases the amount of karyoplasm in
nucleus. Increase in number of
nucleolus in nucleus.
• Increase activity of DNA & DNA rapidly
forms different types of RNA.
• The increase in activity of DNA is
known as Gene amplification or Gene
Redundency.
• Due to these changes nucleus of egg
become larger in size. The large nucleus
of egg is known as Germinal vesicle.
(b) Changes in cytoplasm-
• The rate of protein synthesis in
cytoplasm increases and different types
of proteins and enzymes are formed, so
new protoplasm is formed, so egg
increases in size.
• Increase in number of cells organelles
especially golgi bodies, E.R., and
mitochondria.
• The mitochondria increase in number
and they form a group which is known
as mitochondrial clouds.
• Later the mitochondria, golgi bodies
and ER arrange in a ring which
surrounds the nucleus. This ring is
known as Balbiani vitelline ring.
• Vitelline membrane is formed by
golgibody. Golgi bodies are modified
into cortical granules. These are
covered with unit membrane. At the time
of fertilization cortical granules form the
fertilization membrane.
• The cortical granules are absent in the
eggs of rats, insects, birds & guinea pig.
• A space is found between the plasma
membrane and vitelline membrane
known as perivitelline space. A fluid is
filled in this space which is known as
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.9
Perivitelline fluid. The E.R. disappear
at the end of Pre-vitellogenesis.
(2) Vitellogenesis -
• Yolk is stored in this phase.
• Small part of yolk is formed by egg and most
part of yolk is formed by liver.
• The yolk which is formed by liver is soluble
and liquid. This type of yolk cannot be stored,
because the soluble food is used in metabolic
activity.
• The mitochondria of eggs converts it into
insoluble and viscous form with the help of
kinase enzymes for long time storage.
• Due to this reaction mitochondria of egg are
known as yolk nuclei.
TWO TYPES OF YOLK IS FOUND IN ANIMALS
(a) Granular yolk - Formed of microgranules. Eg- most
protostomia (Invertebrates) animals.
(b) Yolk platelets - In most of the chordates, the yolk is
found in the form of large granules and disc like granules.
e.g. Deuterostomia animals (Vertebrates)
VARIOUS STORED SUBSTANCES IN YOLK
(1) Phospholipid -This is present in large amount (mainly
lecithin)
(2) Proteins - Different types of proteins are found in yolk.
Eg. (i) Simple proteins - Albumins, Globin, Globulin
(Albumin maximum)
(ii) Phosphoproteins - Ovovitellin
(iii) Lipoprotein- Lipovitellin
(3) Carbohydrate - It is present in least amount in yolk (1%).
• The most common carbohydrate which is present
in yolk is Mannose.
• The percentage of substances is variable in
different animals
Eg., In yolk of frog’s egg- Phospholipid -
32-33%, Protein -16-17%, Carbohydrate -1%,
Water- 48-49%
CLASSIFICATION OF EGGS
EGGS CAN BE CLASSIFIED ON THE THREE BASIS
(1) ON THE BASIS OFAMOUNT OFYOLK
(a) Alecithal eggs - Yolk is present in very low amount
e.g. Man
(b) Microlecithal or oligolecithal or Meiolecithal egg-
Yolk is present in low amount e.g. Metatheria,
Protochordata, Echinodermata
(c) Mesolecithal - Yolk is present in moderate amount.
e.g. Amphibia, Petromyzon, Dipnoi-lung fishes
(d) Megalecithal or Polylecithal - Yolk is present in large
amount e.g. Insects, Reptiles, Birds, Prototheria
(Monotremata), Egg laying mammals.
3.10 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

(2) ON THE BASIS OF DISTRIBUTION OF YOLK • Central & peripheral cytoplasm is having yolk in
(a) Isolecithal - Yolk is distributed uniformally in eggs. between these layers.
e.g. Alecithal and microlecithal eggs (2) Frog Egg- Mesolecithal & telolecithal
(b) Moderately telolecithal - Yolk is concentrated in • Two egg membranes
lower part of egg and cytoplasm in upper part • Primary – inner – Vitelline membrane
e.g. Mesolecithal eggs. • Tertiary – Outer – jelly coat
(c) Discoidal egg or Highly telolecithal- Yolk is found • Eggs laid at a time are held together by jelly coat to
in large amount and cytoplasm is found in the form form spawn & are fertilized together.
of disc known as germinal disc. e.g. Reptilia, Birds, • Spawn formation is necessary because of amplexus
Prototheria. (false copulation)
(d) Centrolecithal - Yolk is concentrated in centre of
egg and cytoplasm is found in the form of a thin
layer surrounding yolk (Peripheral cytoplasm)
e.g. Insect.
(3) ON THE BASIS OF SHELL - Two types
(a) Cleidoic eggs
(b) Non-cleidoic egg
(a) Cleidoic egg - These eggs contain a thick and hard
outermost membrane. This hard shell is permeable
for gases.
• Yolk, salts and water are present in large amount
in cleidoic eggs.
• Cleidoic eggs is a terrestrial adaptation.
• These types of eggs are present in oviparous
animals which lays eggs on land e.g. Birds &
Reptiles.
(b) Non cleidoic egg – Egg membranes are soft in these
eggs e.g. All viviparous animals and in oviparous
animals which lays eggs in water.
EGG MEMBRANES
Functions of jellycoat
• All membranes (covering) which are present outside
• Protection from mechanical injury.
plasma membrane of oocyte or ovum are known as egg
• It is tasteless so prevent from being eaten away.
membranes. Membrane containing oocyte or ovum is
known as egg. • Protects from bacterial & fungal infection.
• Egg membranes on the basis of origin are three types. • Reflects sun rays
(1) Primary egg membrane – These are secreted by • Keep eggs warmer
egg. e.g. Vitelline membrane (Zona pellucida & Zona • Frog egg is differentiated into two poles
Reticulata) (i) Animal – contain cytoplasm, nucleus & melanin
(2) Secondary egg membrane – These are secreted by (ii) Vegetal – white yolk (heavy)
ovary. e.g. Chorion • Melanin protect from harmful radiation & helps in
(3) Tertiary egg membrane – These are secreted by camouflage.
oviduct. e.g.- Jelly coat • Sperm enter through animal pole & form anterior part of
EXAMPLES OF EGG embryo, determine the future polarity & plane of cleavage.
(1) Insect Egg- Megalecithal & centrolecithal • 1st cleavage is at right angle to sperm entrance path.
• Two egg membranes are present • Melanin granules move towards sperms from opposite
• Primary  inner  vitelline membrane direction of its entry & form a clear region between animal
& vegetal pole called Grey Crescent.
• Secondary  outer  chorion – thick, hard &
ornamented. • Grey Crescent – site of formation of future archenteron.
• Ornamentation of chorion is taxonomically important (3) Egg of Chick – Megalecithal,
• Micropyle – place where egg membranes are absent, • Cytoplasm is in form of a disc called Germinal disc.
for entry of sperms • Two types of yolk is present in alternate, concentric
• Acrosome is absent in sperm of insect. layers

(i) Yellow - formed during night, contain more lipid,
form innermost and outermost layers of egg
(ii) white - formed during day
• Latebra  stalk like structure of white yolk just below
germinal disc.
• Isthmus of Pander - upper part of latebra.
• Two primary egg membranes are present.
• Vitelline-inner-membrane formed in ovary
• Outer – formed in oviduct before fertilization.
• Tertiary membranes are secreted after fertilization by
oviduct.
• Liquid albumin called white of egg is present.
Two shell membranes of keratin are found. Air pocket
is present in between these membranes in broader
part of egg for respiration.
• chalaza  solid albumin fibres that join egg to shell
membranes
• Keep ovum upward.
• Outermost shell is porous & made up of CaCO3.
• 3 parts of oviduct of birds.
(i) Anterior called Magnum
• site of fertilization
• secret liquid albumen
MENSTRUAL CYCLE
Diagrammatic presentation of various events during a menstrual cycle
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.11
(ii) Middle Isthmus
• Secret shell membranes
(iii) Posterios Nidamental
• secret shell of CaCO3
(4) Egg of eutherian mammals – microlecithal & isolecithal
Two membranes are present
• Inner – Zona, when it is Pellucida linear it is called
Zona radiata
• Outer – corona radiata – formed of follicular cells of
ovary. Follicular cells are attached with egg surface
by hyaluronic and sperm contain hyaluronidase
enzyme which dissolves this acid & corona radiata
separates from egg.
• Now, the sperm attaches with this surface.
• On the basis of ovulation, animals are of two types
(i) Induced or Reflex ovulators– Animals in which
ovulation is induced by copulation.
e.g. All Animals which have a fix breeding period.
• The chances of fertilization is 100% in it, e.g.,
Rabbit
(ii) Spontaneous ovulators – Ovulation is not
depended upon copulation. Egg passes out in
oviduct from ovary after fix period.
• The chances of fertilization are very low in these
animals.
3.12 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

FERTILIZATION
• Fusion of a haploid male gamete and a female gamete to
form a diploid cell, the zygote
• Also called syngamy
• Newport first studied entry of sperm into egg of frog.
• O. Hertwig – fusion of egg nucleus and sperm
(amphimixis) in sea urchin.
• Fertilization completes in three steps -
(A) APPROACH OF SPERM TO EGG- Sperms combine with
egg by chance, because they move irregularly. The
movement of sperms is not induced.
• The movement of sperms is spontaneous.
• Sperm of some animals shows chemotactic
movement, e.g., In Sea urchin the eggs secretes some
proteins in water. Sperms moves towards this protein.
• Some adaptations are found in animals to increase
the chances of fusion of sperms and egg.
These are-
(i) Sperms are present in large amount– In man
100 million sperm/ml of semen are present. In
female’s vagina 3 to 5 ml of semen are introduced
at a time. 400 Million sperms are liberated in
vagina.
(ii) Size of egg is very large as compared to sperms
• To increase possiblity of fusion of sperm with egg.
The size of egg is about 0.1 mm while the sperm of
man is of 60 m.
• Some special types of glycoproteins are found on
the surface of eggs and sperms which are helpful in
fertilization.
• Fertilizin is found on the surface of egg. Fertilization (ii) Androgamones IInd – Dissolves the viscous
was discovered by R.R. Lillie. layers of egg and forms rough surface on the
• Antifertilizin is present on the surface of sperms. egg.
This is a type of acidic protein and it was discovered • Gyanogamones are of two types-
by Ballinsky. (i) Gyanogamones - Ist (ii) Gyanogamones IInd
• Fertilizin and antifertilizin are specific for each species (I) Gyanogamones Ist – When sperm reach the
in animals (species specificity). surface of egg then the Gyanogamones I st
• By the reaction of both sperm and egg, both combine neutrilize the androgamone Ist.
with each other, this reaction is known as • By this reaction sperm becomes more active.
agglutination. (ii) Gyanogamones IInd – This hormone makes the
• On the surface of egg and ova some hormones are head of sperm viscous. And viscous sperm head
also present. These hormones are known as attaches strongly with rough surface of egg.
Gamones. • Gamones are hypothetical hormones because these
• Androgamones are found on surface of the sperms hormone cannot be seperated till now, so the chemical
and nature of these hormones is unknown.
• Gyanogamones are found on the surface of eggs. • The enzymes of acrosome dissolves the egg
• Androgamones are of two types - membranes and head of sperm attaches with plasma
(i) Androgamones Ist (ii) Androgamones IInd membrane of egg.
(i) Androgamones Ist – Conserves the energy of • After it, the inner membrane of acrosome spread out
sperms and form a simple tube. This tube is known as

Acrosomal filament.
• This filament stimulates the plasma membrane of egg.
• In mammals the acrosomal filament is not formed
because of hyperactivity of sperm, so that the sperm
can stimulate the plasma membrane of egg without
the aid of any filament.
(B) Activation of sperm – Secretion of vagina makes sperms
highly active.
• By this process sperms become capable of
fertilization, this capability of sperm is known as
capacitation.
(C) Activation of egg – The stimulus of sperm induces the
formation of adenyl cyclase enzyme in plasma membrane
of egg. This enzyme helps in synthesis of c–AMP.
lst Messenger in fertilization – Sperm
llnd Messenger in fertilization – c–AMP.
• c– AMP gets informations from sperm in plasma
membrane.
• This message is carried by c–AMP from plasma
membrane to cytoplasm. c–AMP induces responses
in cytoplasm of egg.
• All responses of eggs with respect to sperm are
combinely known as Gynogenesis.
• lst Response of egg – The plasma membrane of
egg extends outside at the contact place of sperm
and forms a reception cone. Later the sperm is
drawn into cytoplasm of egg with reception cone.
The process of entry of sperm into egg is a type
of phagocytosis.
• llnd Response of egg – The stimulation of sperm
induces 2nd maturation division in egg and egg
form a polar body and the ova becomes mature.
• lIlrd response of egg – Along with entry of sperm
cortical granules are released and form a membrane
which surrounds the egg which is known as
Fertilization membrane.
• This membrane form inner surface of vitelline
membrane. Along with this the perivitelline space
becomes broad and amount of fluid increases in it.
The fertilization membrane and liquid in perivitelline
space prevent the entry of another sperm into the
egg.
• Generally only one sperm enters into a egg, this
phenomenon is known as Monospermy.
• Rarely more than one sperm enters into a egg, this
phenomenon is known as polyspermy.
• Polyspermy is of two types–
(a) Pathological Polyspermy – All the nuclei of
sperms fuse with nucleus of egg. Egg
degenerates and embryo is not developed.
(b) Physiological polyspermy – Nucleus of only one
sperm fuse with nucleus of egg and all the other
sperms die in cytoplasm of egg.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.13
• The dead sperms in cytoplasm of egg are known as
“merocyte”.
• Embryo develops normally.
• The plasma membrane becomes more permeable for
merocytes.
• IVth Response– Due to stimulus of sperms the
plasma membrane of egg becomes more permeable
specially for K+ and Ca++ ions.
• The Ca++ ions neutralize the cytostatic factor. This
factor inhibit the cleavage to start in unfertilized egg.
• Ca ++ ions by neutralizing the cytostatic factor
prepare the egg for cleavage.
• Vth Response – By the stimulation of cytostatic
factor sperm induces H+ – Na+ pump in plasma
membrane of egg.
• This is a pump of active transport.
• It pump out Na+ ions from egg and pump the H+ ions
inside from outside. Due to influx of H+ ions medium
become acidic. Proteolytic enzymes becomes active
in this medium.
• These enzyme releases the RNA from informosomes.
m–RNA quickly synthesizes different types of
enzymes thus the activity of egg increases.
• VI Response – The stimulus of sperm induces the
NAD kinase enzyme and this enzyme converts
NAD into NADP and due to availability of high
NADP the respiratory rate of egg increases.
• Rapid oxidation of stored food occurs and energy is
released and egg becomes active.
• Final step of fertilization – Fate of sperm in egg
– In most animals only head and middle part of
sperm enters into egg and tail remain outside but
in some animals only head part of sperm enters
into egg e.g. Hydra, Nereis.
In mammals the whole sperm enters into egg and
after entry the sperm rotates at 180°. Thus middle
part of sperm comes into anterior position and
head comes into posterior position.
Only three stuctures of sperm remain alive in
cytoplasm of egg –
(i) Mitochondria (ii) Proximal centriole
(iii) Nucleus
• All other structures of sperms get dissolved into
cytoplasm of egg.
• The mitochondria of sperms become a part of
cytoplasm of egg.
• Proximal centriole and daughter centrioles reach
opposite poles of egg and start forming spindle fibres,
as the mammalian egg lacks centrioles of its own.
The centrioles of egg degenerates during second
maturation division. The cleavage of egg start, before
completion of fertilization. The nucleus of sperm
enlarge by absorbing water from cytoplasm of egg.
 3.14 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
Now this nucleus of sperm is known as male
pronucleus.
• After II maturation division the egg nucleus disperse
in the form of follicles. These follicles are known as
karyosomes. Later all the karyosomes combine
together and form a female pronucleus.
• Both pronucleus move at definite places. These paths
are combinely known as Fertilization path.
• Many paths are included in fertilization path–
(i) Sperm penetration path– The movement of male
pronucleus towards median line from entry site
of it for some distance into egg.
(ii) Sperm copulation path – The movement of male
pronucleus towards female pronucleus.
(iii) Egg copulation path – The movement of female
pronucleus towards male pronucleus.
(iv) Cleavage path – The movement of both
pronucleus towards animal pole.
• The nuclear membranes of both pronucleus
degenerate and chromosomes form pairs with each
others.
• And along with the fusion of both pronucleus
process completes, this is known as amphimixis.
• Amphimixis is last and most important event in
fertilization.
Primates :–
(i) Human (ii) Apes
(iii) Old world monkey (Rhesus monkey)
• Cyclical change that occur in fallopian tube and uterus
at the average duration of 28 days.
• Menarche - Starting of menstrual cycle. Menarche occur
from 11 – 13 years.
• Menopause - Stopping of menstrual cycle is called as
menopause which occur in female after 45 years FSH
secreated with urine.
• Amenorrhea - In which menstrual cycle is absent.
• Polymenorrhea - Duration of menstrual cycle less than
22 days
• Olligomenorrhea - Duration of menstrual cycle more
than 35 days.
• Dysmenorrhoea - Painfull menses.
• Condition of amenorrhea are:
(i) Before puberty
(ii) Menopause
(iii) Pregnancy
During pregnancy progesterone and oestrogen are
present in more amount in blood so menses does not
occur.
High level of progesterone and oestrogen decrease the
secretions of gonadotropins (FSH + LH)
Female Reproductive Cycle / Menstrual cycle:-
• It occurs in primates like human, apes, old world monkey,
lemeloris, tarsiers, etc.
• It is series of cyclic changes that occur in reproductive
tract with average duration of 28 days. It is divided into
following 4 phases:
1. Menstrual phase:- It occurs due to decreased level
of estrogen and progesterone.
• It is represented by discharge of menstrual flow,
also called menses, which contain blood cells (with
high amount of leucocytes), clots, debris, mucous,
unfertilized ovum. etc. It last for 3 to 5 days, with
total 50 -100 ml of fluid loss.
2. Proliferative phase:- During this phase, FSH from
anterior pitutary stimulate primary follicle to develop
into mature graffian follicle which secretes estrogen,
which maintain female reproductive structure, like
ovarian follicle, lining of uterus & breast.
Endometrium thickens and its cells multiplies. This
phase lasts from 6 - 13th day.
3. Ovulatory phase:- At 14th day of cycle, level of LH
increase which causes ovulation, in which egg is
released from mature graffian follicle in to abdominal
cavity.
4. Leutial phase / Secretory phase:- The remaining part
of empty follicle is converted into yellow coloured
body called corpus luteum or yellow body. It plays
an important role in the preparation of endometrium
for implantation of fertilized egg by secreting
estrogen and progestron, progestron speed up the
thickening of endometrium and increase blood
supply.
• If egg remain unfertilized corpus luteum
degenerate and stop producing estrogen and
progestron hormone, so endometrial lining shed
off and causes menses.
Composition of oral pills
• It increases level of oestrogen and progesterone
which prevent ovulation. Started from 5th days
of menstrual cycle and upto 23rd day of
menstrual cycle.
Oestrous cycle
• Occur in non primates at breeding season. In
this cycle heat period is found. During this period,
sexual desire develop in female and attract the
male for copulation.
• Heat period of cow - 17 hour due to high level
of oestrogen. Heat period found near the
ovulation.
• On the basis of number of oestrous cycle in
breeding season, animals are divided into III group.

(i) Monestrous- Only one oestrus cycle is
present during breeding season. eg. Deer,
Sheep, Camel.
(ii) Biestrous- Two oestrous cycle present
during breeding season. e.g. Cat, Dog.
(iii) Polyestrous- More than two oestrous cycle
present during breeding season. e.g. Rat (5 days),
Rabbit, Guinea pig (15 days), Cow (12 days).
• Rabbit is reflex ovulator or induced ovulator
because ovulation occur after 10½ to 12 hours
of copulation. Human being are spontaneous
ovulater, coitus is not necessary for ovulation.
Estrous cycle can be divided into following phases -
1. Proestrous :– ‘Building up phase’ during which ovarian
follicle enlarges, uterus and vagina becomes congested
and secrete a fluid. Copulation is not permitted during
this period.
2. Estrous (Heat period) :– Copulation is allowed only
during this period. vaginal epithelium thickens and
superficial layer get keratinised.
• Ovulation occur if coitus is there (induced ovulation).
If coitus does not occur at proper time follicle with
enclosed ovum regresses. a sterile mating occur
frequently followed by pseudo-pregnancy
3. Metestrous :– Post ovulatory phase in which
development of corpus luteum occurs. Estrogen
decreases and progesterone increases. In the absence
of pregnancy, corpus luteum degenerates.
4. Diestrous and Anestrous :– It is a short resting period
between estrous cycles in polyestrous animals.
• Anestrous is resting asexual period. In monoestrous,
it may extend upto next season.
• Rute cycle :– Occurs in non-primates male in which
a period of asexual activity occurs at the same time
when female is in heat period.
DEVELOPMENT OF EMBRYO & FOETUS IN HUMANS
Ovum surrounded by few sperms
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.15
Week 1
Fertilization, Cleavage to form a blastocyst 4-5 days after
fertilization. More than 100 cells. Implantation 6-9 days after
fertilization.
Transport of ovum, fertilization and passage of growing
embryo through fallopian tube
Week 2
The three basic layers of the embryo develop, namely ectoderm,
mesoderm and endoderm. No research allowed on human
embryos beyond this stage.
Week 3
Woman will not have a period. This may be the first sign that
she is pregnant. Beginnings of the backbone. Neutral tube
develops, the beginning of the brain and spinal cord (first
organs). Embryo about 2 mm long.
Week 4
Heart, blood vessels, blood and gut start forming. Umbilical cord
developing. Embryo about 5 mm long.
Week 5
Brain developing. ‘Limb buds’, small swellings which are the
beginnings of the arms and legs. Heart is a large tube and starts
to beat, pumping blood. This can be seen on an ultrasound
scan. Embryo about 8 mm long.
Week 6
Eyes and ears start to form.
Week 7
All major internal organs developing. Face forming. Eyes have
some colour. Mouth and tongue. Beginnings of hands and feet.
Foetus is 17 mm long.
By week 12
Foetus fully formed, with all organs, muscles, bones, toes and
fingers. Sex organs well developed. Foetus is moving. For the
rest of the gestation period, it is mainly growing in size. Foetus
is 56 mm long from head to bottom. Pregnancy may be beginning
to show.
3.16 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
By week 20
Hair beginning to grow, including eyebrows and eyelashes.
Fingerprints developed. Fingernails and toe nails growing. Firm
hand grip. Between 16 and 20 weeks baby usually felt moving
for first time. Baby is 160 mm long from head to bottom.
Week 24
Eyelids open. Legal limit for abortion in most circumstances.
By week 26
Has a good chance of survival if born prematurely.
By week 28
Baby moving vigorously. Responds to touch and loud noises.
Swallowing amniotic fluid and urinating.
By week 30
Usually lying head down ready for birth. Baby is 240 mm from
head to bottom.
40 weeks (9 months)
Birth
The human foetus within the uterus
PARTURITION
• The gestation period of the human is about 38 weeks/
256 days followed by birth.
• The process of giving birth to a baby is called parturition.
It starts with rise in estrogen/progesterone ratio, increase
in the level of oxytocin secretion by both, mother and
foetus.
• It includes 3 stages.
(a) Dilation Stage : This stage lasts 6-12 hours. The
uterine contraction starts from top and occur at long
intervals (once every thirty minutes). This forces the
baby, pushing its head against cervix. As a result,
cervix gets dilated with vagina also showing similar
dilation. Dilation of cervix increases the stimulus for
oxytocin secretion, further increasing the strength
and frequency of contractions (1-3 every minute).
With continued powerful contractions, the amnion
ruptures and the amniotic fluid flows out through
vagina.
(b) Expulsion Stage : With further increase in the
intensity of uterine and abdominal contraction, the
baby comes out through cervix and vagina with head
coming out first. It may take 20-60 min. Umbilical
cord is cut. The infant’s lungs expand and it begins
breathing. This requires a major switchover in the
circulatory system. Blood flow through the umbilical
cord ductus arteriosus and foramen ovale ceases;
the adult pattern of blood flow through the heart,
aorta and pulmonary arteries begins. In some infants,
the switchover is incomplete, and blood flow through
the pulmonary arteries is inadequate. Failure to
synthesise enough nitric oxide (NO) is one cause.
(c) After Birth : Within 10-15 minutes after delivery, the
placenta and the remains of the umbilical cord which
is called ‘after birth’ is expelled out.
• Progesterone is called pregnancy hormone
because it is required continually during entire
period of gestation or pregnancy.
• Term Paras is used for the fertile women which
can have pregnancy.
• Term Nulliparas is used for the women with no
children.
• The most common method by which a baby comes
out at parturition is left anterior oblique with head
coming out first.
• The first milk which comes out from the mother’s
mammary glands just after child birth is known as
colostrum.
• Colostrum is rich in proteins and energy along
with antibodies that provides passive immunity
for the new born infant.
• Milk synthesis is stimulated by pituitary hormone
Prolactin.
• The release of milk is stimulated by a rise in the
level of oxytocin when the baby begins nourshing.
• Milk contains inhibitory peptide which
accumulates and inhibits milk production, if the
breasts are not fully emptied.
PARTHENOGENESIS OR VIRGINAL DEVELOPMENT
• Greek word Parthenos = Without marriage ; genesis =
Development
• Development of embryo without fertilization is known
as parthenogenesis.
• The animal produced by parthenogenesis is known as
parthenote (Parthenote = Without father)
• C. Bonnet discovered parthenogenesis in Sea urchin.
• Parthenogenesis is of two types–
(A) Natural Parthenogenesis – e.g. Honey bee, Termites,

Wasp, Aphids, Grasshoppers, Sea urchin, Daphnia,
Cyclops etc.
• Natural parthenogenesis is of two types–
(1) Haploid Parthenogenesis or Arrhenotoky
• Eggs are formed by meiosis, so eggs are
haploid.
• These eggs have power of fertilization
but these haploid eggs develop into male
animals without fertilization.
• The development of male from
unfertilized egg and development of
female from fertilized egg is known as
arrhenotoky. E.g., Honey bee
• The queen bee lays two types of eggs –
fertilized or diploid and unfertilized or
haploid.
• Fertilized egg forms female.
• Workers are sterile females. Queen is
(B) Artificial Parthenogenesis – In this method the
fertile female.
• Drones are formed by unfertilized eggs.
In drones, sperms forms without meiotic
division.
(2) Diploid Parthenogenesis or thelytoky
• In this, eggs are formed without meiosis
thus the eggs are diploid.
• These eggs do not have power of
fertilization.
• These diploid eggs develops into female
without fertilization.
• This process is known as Thelytoky.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.17
E.g. (i) Lacerta sexicola armeniaca – A lizard
(ii) Carassius auratus gibelia – A fish
• In some animals parthenogenesis occurs
along with sexual reproduction.
• Fertilization also occurs in life cycle of
these animals and embryo can also
develop without fertilization. This type
of parthenogenesis is known as cyclic
parthenogenesis.
• Cyclic parthenogenesis occurs in most
animals. In some animals only
parthenogenesis occur. It is known as
complete parthenogenesis. Fertilization
is not found in life cycle of these animals.
• Animals in which complete
parthenogenesis occur do not have
males, they have only females.
e.g. (1) Lacerta (2) Carassius
development of embryo from unfertilized egg is
induced by artificial methods.
(1) Dipping the eggs in sea water for some time.
(2) Irradiation of eggs
(3) Shaking the eggs
(4) Electric shock
(5) Temperature Shock – In this method eggs are
first kept on 70°C temp. and suddenly on
0°C temp.
(6) By injecting blood containing needle in egg
(same species).
• All these methods are used in frog and fishes.
3.18 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. In most of the mammals the testes are situated outside
the abdominal cavity because
(A) Sperms produced in scrotal sac are more in number
(B) Sperms produced in abdominal cavity are provided
with less motility
(C) Sperms producd in scrotal sac require lesser
temperature for their best fertilization capacity
(D) Sperms produced in scrotal sac are bigger
Sol. (C) Testes in mammals are present out side the abdominal
cavity because maturation of sperm needs low
temperature. The temperature of scrotum is below
(2 to 4°C) than abdominal cavity.
2. Failure of descending testis into scrotum is known as
(A) Impotency (B) Cryptorchidism
(C) Castration (D) Paedogenesis
Sol. (B) Cryptorchidism is nondescent of testes in scrotum,
person becomes sterile.
3. Which of the following cells are present in mammalian
testes and help to nourish sperms ?
(A) Leydig cells (B) Oxyntic cells
(C) Interstitial cells (D) Sertoli cells
Sol. (D) Sertoli cells are non-gametic cells in the seminiferous
tubules which provide nourishment for developing
sperms.
4. Cumulus covers
(A) Ovary (B) Ovum
(C) Embryo (D) All of these
Sol. (B) A mass of cells of the membrana granulosa which
covers the ovum is called cumulus ovaricus.
5. Clitoris in mammals is
(A) Homologous to penis
(B) Analogous to penis
(C) Functional penis in female
(D) Non-functional penis in male
Sol. (A) Clitoris is small organ consisting of erectile tissue
and is homologous to the penis of the male.
6. If ovaries of a pregnant mammal are removed
(A) The embryonic development will stop
(B) Embryo will regenerate
(C) Development remains unaffected
(D) Ovaries will regenerate
Sol. (A) Corpus luteum which secretes progesterone is
responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy.
7. Implantation or uterine attachment of the blastocyst
presumably occurs between
(A) 2nd and 5th days after ovulation
(B) 5th and 7th days after ovulation
(C) 7th and 19th days after ovulation
(D) 9th and 11th days after ovulation
Sol. (C) Implantation is attachment of early embryo with the
wall of uterus. It occurs after 7 days of fertilization.
8. Atretic follicles are found in the
(A) Liver (B) Testis
(C) Thymus (D) Ovary
Sol. (D) Degeneration and reabsorption of an ovarian
follicles before its fully matures and ruptures are
called atretic follicles.
9. Secretion of progesterone by corpus luteum is initiated
by
(A) LH (B) MSH
(C) Testosterone (D) Thyroxine
Sol. (A) Progesteron is secreted by corpus luteum and
formation of corpus luteum is stimulated by LH.
10. Onset of menstruation is due to
(A) Fall in level of progesterone
(B) Increase in level of progesterone
(C) Increase in level of FSH
(D) None of these
Sol. (A) The uterine lining dies due to the deficiency or
reduced level of progesterone in blood and is
sloughed off. Blood vessels rupture, causing
bleeding.
11. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that last for
7-8 days is
(A) Follicular phase (B) Ovulatory phase
(C) Luteal phase (D) Menstruation
Sol. (B) Menstrual cycle consists of menstrual phase, the
pre-ovulatory phase, ovulation and post ovulatory
phase.
12. The region where sperm enters the egg is called
(A) Equator (B) Receptor cone
(C) Animal pole (D) Vegetal pole
Sol. (B) When the acrosome of the spermetozoa touches the
surface of the egg, the cytoplasm of the egg bulges
forward forming receptive cone or fertilization cone.
13. Fraternal twins in man are produced when
(A) Two sperms fertilize an ovum and the first two
blastomeres separate from each other
(B) One sperm fertilizes an ovum and first two
blastomeres separate from each other
(C) Egg develops parthenogenetically and first two
blastomeres separate from each other
(D) Two ova are fertilized simultaneously
Sol. (D) Dizygotic twins are also called fraternal or
nonidentical twins, formed by simultaneous
fertilization of two different ova by two different
sperms.
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.19

14. The chemical substance found in the surface layer of 20. Embryologists can presume the future organs of the
cytoplasm of spermatozoa is embryo in
(A) Fertilizin (B) Agglutinin (A) Blastula (B) Early gastrula
(C) Antifertilizin (D) Hyaluronidase (C) Morula (D) Post gastrula
Sol. (C) It is a protein (Mol. wt. 1000) consisting of acidic Sol. (A) Presumptive areas are evident in blastula. In gastrula
amino acids. Due to its presence sperm is attracted germ layers are formed. In post gastrula
towards egg of same species by chemotaxis. organogenesis starts.
15. Which of the following statement is not correct ? 21. The fluid filled in the blastocoel cavity of blastula is
(A) Fertilizin of one species of animal will react with (A) Acidic (B) Albuminous
antifertilizin of another species (C) Saline (D) Pure water
(B) Fertilizin of one species of animal will react with the Sol. (B) Blastocoel is filled with an albuminous fluid secreted
antifertilizin of the same species by surrounding cells.
(C) Fertilizin is a glycoprotein and antifertilizins are acid 22. In a mesolecithal egg, one would expect
proteins (A) Meroblastic cleavage
(D) Molecular weight of fertilizin is about 3,00,000 and (B) Unequal holoblastic cleavage
antifertilizin 10,000 (C) Equal holoblastic cleavage
Sol. (A) A sort of compound is formed between fertilizin and (D) None of these
antifertilizin of same species i.e. it is species specific. Sol. (B) Unequal holoblastic cleavage occurs in mesolecithal
16. External stimulus which induces cleavage in an or telolecithal type of eggs. This produces unequal
unfertilized ovum is called sized blastomeres called micromeres and macromeres.
(A) Fertilization (B) Chemotaxis 23. What is true about cells during cleavage ?
(C) Paedogenesis (D) Neoteny (A) They move from animal pole to vegetal pole
Sol. (A) It makes the cell metabolically active and acts as a (B) They do not grow in size
stimulus for the egg to undergo cleavage. (C) They consume little
17. Which one of the following is the effect of higher on the (D) Their divisions resemble ordinary mitosis
sperms? Sol. (B) No growth of the embryo occurs during cleavage
(A) Sperms become sluggish with longer life because there is an increase in the number of cells
(B) Sperms become less active with short life and progressively they decrease in size.
(C) Sperms become highly active with longer life 24. The solid mass of cells formed at the end of cleavage of
(D) No effect mammalian egg is
Sol. (A) Acidic pH kills the sperm or reduces their activity. (A) Blastula (B) Morula
18. Which distinguishes a morula from a blastula? (C) Blastocyst (D) Blastodisc
(A) Presence of more yolk Sol. (B) A solid ball of cells showing resemblance with
(B) Absence of yolk mulberry is formed by the cleavage of zygote. This
is known as ‘morula’.
(C) Presence of a cavity
25. The type of blastula formed in birds is
(D) Absence of a cavity
(A) Teloblastula
Sol. (D) In microlecithal eggs or alecithal eggs, the cleavage
results in the production of closely packed (B) Holoblastula
blastomeres. The stage in which solid mass of (C) Coeloblastula
blastomeres appears is said to be morula, whereas (D) Discoblastula
blastula is hollow with a cavity known as blastocoel. Sol. (D) Discoblastula is disc shaped blastula which is formed
19. Holoblastic cleavage may occur in eggs which are by meroblastic discoidal cleavage as in fishes,
(A) Oligolecithal only reptiles, birds and egg laying mammals.
(B) Mesolecithal only 26. Spiral cleavage is found in
(C) Macrolecithal only (A) Synapta (B) Amphibia
(D) Oligolecithal and mesolecithal both (C) Nematoda, annelida and rotifera etc.
Sol. (D) In oligolecithal eggs viz. Amphioxus, holoblastic (D) None of the above
cleavage takes place and in mesolecithal eggs viz. Sol. (C) In patterns of spiral clevage, blastomeres are arranged
fishes and amphibians, unequal holoblastic cleavage in a spiral manner e.g., platyhelminthes, Annelida
(except I and II) is found. and most mollusca.
3.20 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

27. Cleavage is a unique form of mitotic cell division in which
(A) The nucleus does not participate
(B) There is no growth of cells
(C) No spindle develops to guide the cells
(D) The plasma membranes of daughter cells do not
separate
Sol. (B) Cleavage is a series of rapid mitotic divisions of the
zygote which convert the single celled zygote into
multicellular structure in which no any growth occurs
in cells.

NCERT BASED QUESTIONS
1. A human female experiences two major changes,
menarche and menopause during her life. Mention the
significance of both the events.
2. a. How many spermatozoa are formed from one
secondary spermatocyte?
b. Where does the first cleavage division of zygote
take place?
3. Corpus luteum in pregnancy has a long life. However, if
fertilisation does not take place, it remains active only
for 10-12 days. Explain.
4. What is foetal ejection reflex? Explain how it leads to
parturition?
5. Except endocrine function, what are the other functions
of placenta.
6. Why doctors recommend breast feeding during initial
period of infant growth?
7. What are the events that take place in the ovary and
uterus during follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.
8. Given below is a flow chart showing ovarian changes
during menstrual cycle. Fill in the spaces giving the name
of the hormones responsible for the events shown.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.21
9. Give a schematic labelled diagram to represent oögenesis
(without descriptions).
10. What are the changes in the oogonia during the transition
of a primary follicle to Graafian follicle?
11. What role does pituitary gonadotropins play during
follicular and ovulatory phases of menstrual cycle?
Explain the shifts in steroidal secretions.
12. Meiotic division during oogenesis is different from that
in spermatogenesis. Explain how and why?
13. The zygote passes through several developmental stages
till implantation, Describe each stage briefly with suitable
diagrams.
14. Draw a neat diagram of the female reproductive system
and label the parts associated with the following
(a) production of gamete,
(b) site of fertilisation
(c) site of implantation and,
(d) birth canal.
15. With a suitable diagram, describe the organisation of
mammary gland.
3.22 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

EXERCISE - I
1. Which represents Mullerian duct in male rabbit ? 12. Which is mode of reproduction in Amoeba ?
(A) Prostatic utricle (B) Seminal vesicle (A) Binary fission only
(C) Cowpers gland (D) Urethra (B) Binary fission and multiple fission
2. Testes are permanently retained in abdominal cavity in (C) Binary fission and conjugation
(A) Elephant (B) Whale (D) Multiple fission only
(C) Armadillo (D) All the above 13. Which of the following shows the sexual dimorphism?
3. Temperature of scrotum as compared to abdominal cavity (A) Hydra and Ascaris
is less by (B) Hydra and Oryctolagus
(A) 10°C (B) 50°C (C) Ascaris and Pheretima
(C) 30°C (D) 100°C (D) Ascaris and Oryctolagus
4. Outer coat of seminiferous tubules is composed of fibrous 14. Drones in a colony of honey bees originate by
connective tissue called (A) Thelytoky
(A) Tunica propria (B) Lamina propria (B) Arrhenotoky
(C) Plica semilunaris (D) Tunica albuginea (C) Cyclic parthenogenesis
5. Vasa deferens is cut for (D) Diploid parthenogenesis
(A) Female sterilization 15. Arrhenotoky is related to
(B) Male sterilization (A) Parthenogenesis (B) Wax formation
(C) Both of the above (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of these
(D) Temporary sterilization 16. Binary fission is found in
6. An alternation of asexual and sexual generations where (A) Amoeba (B) Paramecium
both the generations are diploid and the haploid stage
(C) Euglena (D) All of these
is represented only by the gametes is called
17. Eutherian mammals are
(A) Alternation of generation
(A) Oviparous (B) Viviparous
(B) Metagenesis
(C) Ovoviviparous (D) Both (A) and (C)
(C) Paedogenesis
18. In Earthworms, self fertilization does not occur due to
(D) Parthenogenesis
(A) Hypogyny (B) Protogyny
7. Differentiation in morphology of the two sexes of the
same species is called (C) Protandry (D) Epigyny
(A) Hermaphrodite (B) Heteromorphosis 19. In some species parthenogenesis may alternate with
sexual reproduction this process is called
(C) Sexual dimorphism (D) Unisexual
(A) Complete parthenogenesis
8. Fertilization is internal in
(B) Incomplete or cyclic parthenogenesis
(A) Toads (B) Frogs
(C) Both the above
(C) Dog fish (D) Cat fish
(D) None of the above
9. The croaking sounds made by frogs is
20. Haploid parthenogenesis among insects is shown by
(A) Hunger call order
(B) Just a musical note (A) Hymenoptera (B) Homoptera
(C) Signaling call of danger (C) Coleoptera (D) All the above
(D) Sex call for female partner 21. At the time of sexual excitation, muscles in penis
10. Which type of reproduction is found in Hydra ? (A) Relaxed (B) Contracted
(A) Polyembryony (B) Sexual and asexual (C) cCollapsed (D) None
(C) Parthenogenesis (D) Encystment 22. Which acid occur in semen?
11. Gemmule formation in sponges is helpful in (A) Citric acid (B) Mallic acid
(A) Parthenogenesis (D) Oxalo acetic acid (D) Succinic acid
(B) Sexual reproduction 23. Secretion of which gland has high percentage of fructose?
(C) Only dissemination (A) Prostate gland (B) Cowper’s gland
(D) Asexual reproduction (C) Seminal vesicle (D) Tyson
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.23

24. If testes of a male rabbit are not transferred from 35. Testes in rabbit are
abdominal cavity to testes sac then - (A) Inside the body
(A) Rabbit dies (B) On the sides of the kidneys
(B) Absence of male characters (C) In scrotal sacs
(C) Development of male reproductive system will not (D) On either side of dorsal aorta
occur 36. Supporting cells found in between the germinal epithelium
(D) Sperms will not form of testes are called
25. Function of seminal fluid is - (A) Interstitial cells of Leydig
(A) Sexual attraction (B) Sertoli cells
(B) To provide stability to egg (C) Granular cells
(C) To provide a medium for movement of sperms (D) Phagocytes
(D) To provide acidic medium 37. The testes of a great majority of mammals are typically
26. Gubernaculum cordis is a contractile structure that enclosed in an extra abdominal sac, the scrotum. The
(A) Pulls down the testis during breeding season into temperature inside the scrotum is lower than that in the
the scrotal sac abdomen. What will happen if the temperature of the
(B) Allows daily migration of the testis from the scrotum is artificially maintained to the level of abdominal
abdominal cavity into the scrotum temperature.
(C) Facilitates ejaculation of spermatozoa from the testis (A) The germinal epithelium will produce a large quantity
(D) Keeps the testis in position of androgen secretion
27. In man the two vasa deferentia open into (B) The germinal epithelium of the testes will divide
(A) Urinary bladder (B) Rectum faster, thus producing more sperms
(C) Urethra (D) Penis (C) The germinal epithelium of the testes will degenerate,
28. Testicular degeneration and other disorders of resulting in sterility
reproductive system in mammals are due to the deficiency (D) The germinal epithelium will carry out normal
of spermatogenesis
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin B 38. From the seminiferous tubules the spermatozoa pass into
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin E (A) Epididymis (B) Vas deferens
29. Cowper’s gland is present in (C) Seminal vesicle (D) Rete testis
(A) Cockroach (B) Rabbit 39. Seminiferous tubules are found in
(C) Earthworm (D) Frog (A) Testis (B) Ovary
30. Testis and ovary lie (C) Kidney (D) Lung
(A) Dorsal to kidney 40. Cells of leydig are found in
(B) Ventral to kidney (A) Kidney of rabbit
(C) Lateral to kidney
(B) Kidney of frog
(D) Diagonal to kidney
(C) Testis of frog
31. In which animal the testes are abdominal during
(D) Testis of rabbit
embryonic stages but migrate to scrotum just before birth
where they remain throughout life 41. Bidder’s canal is found in
(A) Elephants (B) Men (A) Testes of frog (B) Kidney of frog
(C) Rats (D) Whales (C) Ovary of mammal (D) Kidney of mammal
32. Ducts leading from the testes of rabbit are called 42. Sertoli cells are found in
(A) Genital ducts (B) Spermatic ducts (A) Kidney of rabbit (B) Ovary of frog
(C) Urinary ducts (D) Vasa efferentia (C) Testes of rabbit (D) Ovary of rabbit
33. The scrotal sac of a male mammal is homologous to 43. In rabbit, head of the epididymis present at the head of
(A) Clitoris (B) Labia majora the testis is called
(C) Vagina (D) Uterus (A) Vas deferens (B) Cauda epididymis
34. Which of the following is similar in function to Cowper’s (C) Gubernaculum (D) Caput epididymis
gland ? 44. Which of the following is the endocrine tissue of testes ?
(A) Bartholin’s gland (B) Perineal gland (A) Epidermis (B) Inguinal canal
(C) Prostate gland (D) Rectal gland (C) Leydig cells (D) Spermatic cord
3.24 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

45. Phallic organs in cockroach are related to 56. What is the female counterpart of prostate gland in the
(A) Male excretory system male (man) ?
(B) Male reproductive system (A) Bartholin’s gland (B) Uterus
(C) Female excretory system (C) Clitoris (D) None of these
(D) Female reproductive system 57. Corpus luteum in mammals is present in
46. Vasa-efferentia connect the (A) Heart and initiates atrial contraction
(A) Testes with epididymis (B) Brain and connects the two cerebral hemispheres
(B) Kidneys with cloaca (C) Ovaries and produces progesterone
(C) Testes with urinogenital duct (D) Skin and acts as a pain receptor
(D) None 58. The female rabbit is
47. Uterus-masculinus in mammals is derived from (A) Spontaneous ovulator
(A) Inguinal canal (B) Wolfian’s duct (B) Seasonal ovulator
(C) Mullerian duct (D) Ejeculatory duct (C) Natural ovulator
48. In mammals, failure of testes to descend into scrotum is (D) Induced ovulator
known as 59. The endometrium is the lining of
(A) Paedogenesis (B) Castration (A) Bladder (B) Vagina
(C) Cryptorchidism (D) Impotency (C) Uterus (D) Oviduct
49. Clupein protein occurs in 60. In ladies, the oviducts are cutted or removed surgically
(A) Human sperms (B) Avian sperms to avoid the chances of fertilization. This is called
(C) Human ova (D) All the above (A) Vasectomy
50. Partitions of testis develop from (B) Ovariodectomy
(A) Tunica albuginea (B) Tunica vasculosa (C) Sterilization
(C) Tunica vaginalis (D) Rete testis (D) Tubectomy (Salpingectomy)
51. The structure which attaches the ovaries with the dorsal 61. The structure formed after release of ova from graafian
wall is known as follicles and secretory in nature, is
(A) Wolffian body (B) Mesovarium (A) Corpus callosum (B) Corpus luteum
(C) Mesorchium (D) Fimbricated body (C) Corpus albicans (D) Corpus striatum
52. Ovulation in mammals is caused by 62. Corpus luteum is formed in
(A) FSH and TSH (B) FSH and LH (A) Ovary (B) Testes
(C) FSH and LTH (D) LTH and LH (C) Brain (D) Kidney
53. Which one of the following statement is correct ? 63. Ovulation does not occur during pregnancy in the human
female because
(A) Albumen covering eggs of frog swells and forms
(A) The follicles are not influenced by the level of
protective jelly after coming in contact with water
progesterone in the blood
(B) Fertilization in rabbit is helped by hyaluronidase
(B) The corpus luteum and later the placenta produce
which is present in eggs
large amounts of progesterone
(C) During fertilization in rabbit the entire sperm including
(C) The corpus luteum generates as luteinising hormone
tail enters egg
is no longer produced
(D) In case of toad, fertilization takes place in moist soil
(D) The embryo produces hormones which retard the
54. In the ovum of rabbit, graafian follicle is production of maternal follicle stimulating hormones
(A) Oogonial cells 64. When pregnancy does not occur, the life of corpus
(B) Corpus luteum luteum is about
(C) Corpus albicans (A) 10 days
(D) Theca externa, theca interna, oocyte and follicle cells (B) 14 days
55. Stroma is a term applied to (C) 28 days
(A) Gall stone (D) Corpus luteum is not found
(B) Ovarian follicles 65. Ripe ova are shed by ovaries into
(C) Connective tissue in which graffian follicles are (A) Oviducal funnel
embedded (B) Coelom
(D) Connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous (C) Oviduct
tubules (D) Collecting tubules of kidney
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.25

66. The changes that occurs in female at the onset of 76. The menstrual cycle in normal adult woman is of
puberty are (A) 48 days (B) 38 days
(A) The enlargement of breasts (C) 18 days (D) 28 days
(B) Beginning of menstrual cycle 77. Fimbriated funnel is
(C) Stoppage of growth of long bone and height (A) Proximal part of oviduct
(D) All the above (B) Uterus part
67. Transformation of a young follicle into graafian follicle (C) Urinary bladder part
is controlled by (D) Ureter part
(A) Progesterone 78. Fallopian tube is the part of
(B) Lactogenic hormone (A) Uterus (B) Ureter
(C) Follicular stimulating hormone (C) Oviduct (D) Vas deferens
(D) Luteinising hormone 79. Prepuberal period refers to a stage of
68. Note the relationship between the first two words and (A) Growth enlargement of organ systems and maturation
suggest a suitable word for the fourth place of reproductive mechanisms
Mesovarium : Ovary :: Mesometrium : ............. (B) Initiation of gonads
(A) Clitoris (B) Uterus (C) Initiation of organs
(C) Testis (D) Penis (D) Maturation of gonads alone
69. In woman cessation of menstruation occurs at the 80. The substance secreted by the corpus luteum is
age of (A) Hormone (B) Enzyme
(A) 12–14 years (C) Pheromone (D) Bile
(B) 45–58 years 81. In the 28 days human ovarian cycle, the ovulation takes
(C) 60 years place typically on
(D) Does not occur at all (A) Day 1 of the cycle (B) Day 5 of the cycle
70. In rabbit, the uterus is (C) Day 14 of the cycle (D) Day 28 of the cycle
(A) Bicornute (B) Multicornute 82. The cyclic period of sexual activity in non-human female
(C) Unicornute (D) Acornute mammals is called
71. In human beings the median tube where the uterus opens (A) Menstruation (B) Luteinization
independently is called
(C) Oogenesis (D) Estrous
(A) Cervix (B) Clitoris
83. In mammals the estrogens are secreted by the Graafian
(C) Vagina (D) Cloaca follicle from its
72. Menstruation cycle occurs (A) External theca (B) Internal theca
(A) In all mammals
(C) Zona Pellucida (D) Corona radiata
(B) In eutherian animals
84. In human females at the time of birth there are two million
(C) In metatherian animals ova: how many of them normally reach maturity in the
(D) In all primates course of normal reproductive life
73. Cessation of menstrual cycle in the human female is (A) 500 (B) 1,000
known as
(C) 2,000 (D) 5,000
(A) Ovulation (B) Puberty
85. Parturition duct in female is called
(C) Menopause (D) Maturation
(A) Uterus (B) Oviduct
74. Which one of the following is least present in the
endometrium during the proliferative phase of the (C) Vagina (D) Cervix
menstrual cycle 86. In human female which of the following is incorrect
(A) Cork screw-shaped uterine glands (A) Menstrual cycle takes 28 days
(B) Ciliated cells (B) Menopause occur at 45-55 years
(C) Mitosis of stomal cells (C) The ovulated egg released during pregnancy die
(D) Straight arteries (D) Menstruation takes 4 days
75. The rupture of the graafian follicle and the release of 87. If both ovaries are removed from a rat, then which
ovum occurs under the influence of hormone is decreased in blood
(A) LH (B) FSH (A) Oxytocin (B) Estrogen
(C) MSH (D) G H (C) Prolactin (D) Gonadotrophic
3.26 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

88. Bartholin’ s glands are situated (D) A = Theca externa

(A) On either side of vas deferens in humans B = Theca interna
(B) On the sides of the head of frog C = Ovum
(C) At the reduced tail end of birds D = Membrana granulosa
(D) On either side of vagina in humans E = Anturum
89. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are F = Cumulus oophorus
(A) Found in human ovaries 95. The estrous cycle occurs in
(B) A source of hormones (A) Mouse
(C) Characterized by a yellow colour (B) Gorilla
(D) Contributory in maintaining pregnancy (C) Chimpanzee
90. In mammals the female secondary sexual characters are (D) Money
developed by the hormone 96. In frog chromosome number is reduced to half
(A) Relaxin (B) Estrogens (A) When 2nd polar body is separated
(C) Progesterone (D) Gonadotropins (B) When 2nd polar body is divided
91. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place (C) When 3rd polar body is separated
during the menstrual cycle (D) When 1st polar body is separated
(A) At the beginning of the proliferative phase 97. Nebenkern is a part of
(B) At the end of the proliferative phase (A) Foetus (B) Graafian follicle
(C) At the mid secretory phase (C) Human ovum (D) Human sperm
(D) Just before the end of the secretory phase 98. In mammalian sperm, spirally arranged mitochondria are
92. Sequence of hormones during menstrual cycle is present in
(A) Oestrogen, progesterone and FSH (A) Head portion
(B) Progesterone, oestrogen and FSH (B) Middle piece
(C) FSH, oestrogen and progesterone (C) End piece of the tail
(D) FSH, progesterone and oestrogen (D) Principal piece of tail
93. Proliferation of endometrium of uterus is controlled by 99. Acrosome of sperm is formed from
(A) Relaxin (B) Oxytocin (A) Nucleus of spermatid
(C) Progesterone (D) Luteinizing (B) Mitochondria of spermatid
94. In the diagram of section of Graafian follicle, different (C) Golgi complex of spermatid
parts are indicated by alphabets; choose the answer in (D) Centrosome of spermatid
which these alphabets have been correctly matched with 100. Sperm’s acrosome has
the parts they indicate........
(A) Hyaluronic acid and proacrosine
(A) A = Theca externa
(B) Hyaluronic acid and fertilizin
B = Theca interna
(C) Hyaluronidase and proacrosin
C = Ovum
(D) Fertilizin and proacrosin
D = Cumulus oophorus
101. Vasa-efferentia posses
E = Antrum
(A) Peristalsis
F = Membrana granulosa
(B) secretory cells
(B) A = Membrana granulosa
(C) Ciliated cells
B = Theca externa
C (D) Opening for seminal vesicle
C = Ovum D
D = Cumulus oophorus E 102. Vas-deferens arises from
A
E = Antrum B (A) Cauda-epididymis
F (B) Caput epididymis
F = Theca interno
(C) A = Membrana granulosa (C) Corpus-epididymis
B = Theca interna (D) Rete testis
C = Ovum 103. Common duct formed by union of vas-deferens and duct
D = Cumulus oophorus from seminal vesicle is
E = Anturm (A) Urethra (B) Tunica-vasculosa
F = Theca externa (C) Ejaculatory duct (D) Spermatic duct
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.27

104. Mesorchium is peritoneal covering of 115. The rule of embryonic development was given by
(A) Ovary (B) Testis (A) Von baer (B) Haeckel
(C) Kidney (D) Liver (C) Wallace (D) Morgan
105. Scrotum communicates with abdominal cavity through 116. In mammals, the testes are located in
(A) Urethra (B) Inguinal canal (A) Abdominal cavity
(C) Vas-deferens (D) Epididymis (B) Thoracic cavity
106. Tunica albuginea is the covering around (C) Extra-abdominal cavity
(A) Ovary (B) Testis (D) Pericardial cavity
117. Sustentacular cells are found in
(C) Kidney (D) Heart
(A) Testis of mammal
107. The functional unit of testis of man is
(B) Ovary of mammal
(A) Uriniferous tubules
(C) Testis of Ascaris
(B) Malpighian tubules
(D) Pancrease of frog
(C) Seminiferous tubules
118. Bundles of muscles in penis are
(D) Acini or lobules (A) Corpus cavernosa
108. Testosterone is secreted by (B) Corpus spongiasum
(A) Leydig’s cells (B) Sertoli cells (C) Both
(C) Pituitary (D) Testis (D) None
109. Penile urethra traverses through 119. Glans penis is covered by
(A) Corpora cavernosa (A) Areomembrana (B) Prepuce
(B) Corpus spongiosum (C) Metrium (D) None
(C) Corpus callosum 120. Lutein cells are found in
(D) Corpus striatum (A) Primary follicle (B) Corpus albicans
110. Seminiferous tubules are composed of (C) Corpus luteum (D) All
(A) Spermatogonia 121. Amphimixis means
(B) Glandular epithelium (A) Fusion of male and female gametes
(B) Fusion of male and female pronuclei
(C) Sensory epithelium
(C) Movement of the sperm towards ovum
(D) Germinal epithelium
(D) Movement of the ovum towards sperm
111. The process by which ova are formed is knwon as
122. During fertilization, which centriole of the sperm gives
(A) Oogenesis (B) Ovulation rise to a spindle system inside the egg
(C) Oviposition (D) Oviparity (A) Proximal centriole (B) Distal centriole
112. How many ova and sperms would be produced from (C) Ring centriole (D) None of the above
100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary 123. The fertilization membrane during fertilization is
spermatocytes during gametogenesis in human synthesized by
(A) 100 ova, 100 sperms (A) Mitochondria
(B) 100 ova, 200 sperms (B) Golgi bodies
(C) 50 ova, 100 sperms (C) Acid mucopolysaccharides of cortical granules
(D) 200 ova, 200 sperms (D) All the above
113. Embryonic body form stage is characterised by 124. The function of egg cell is/are
(A) Basic body plan emerging (A) It supplies a haploid set of chromosomes to the future
(B) Miniature adult features embryo
(C) Stage of development resembling other species (B) It provides most of the cytoplasm to the embryo
(D) Tissues not fully formed (C) It supplies food reserves to the embryo
114. The period of preparation with reference to (D) All the above
developmental phenomena in vertebrates means 125. The size of the egg chiefly depends upon the
(A) Formation of gastrula (A) Size of the animal
(B) Formation of germ layers (B) Amount of yolk reserves in it
(C) Tissue differentiation (C) Amount of food taken by the mother
(D) Parents preparation and elaboration of gametes (D) All the above
3.28 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

126. When more than one sperm establish contact and 136. The chemical fertilizer is present in
penetrate into the egg, then it is called (A) Ovum (B) Sperm
(A) Monospermy (B) Polyspermy (C) Immature ovum (D) Fertilized ovum
(C) (A) and (B) both (D) None of these 137. Which one of the following events immediately follows
127. The disadvantage of parthenogenesis is the entry of a spermatozoan into an oocyte ?
(A) Establishment of polyploid generation (A) An increase in the permeability of the oocyte
(B) Elimination of variety in population membrane
(B) An increase in activity of proteolytic enzymes
(C) Means of reproduction
(C) A decrease in the metabolic rate of the oocyte
(D) Does not encourage the appearance of new and
advantageous combinations of genes (D) Thickening of the vitelline membrane
138. The animals which lay fertilized or unfertilized eggs and
128. Repressor theory of activation of fertilization was
whole development takes place outside the body of
given by
mother are called
(A) Heilbrunn (B) Runnstrom
(A) Oviparous (B) Viviparous
(C) Monray and Tyler (D) Batallion
(C) Ovo-viviparous (D) Herbivorous
129. The hormones of the sperm are called 139. In eggs which have very thick and resistant membrane
(A) Gynogamones–I (B) Androgamones e.g., fishes and insects sperm penetrate through a special
(C) Gynogamones–II (D) None of these canal called
130. Function of fertilizin is/are (A) Vitelline membrane (B) Jelly coat
(A) Makes the sperm sticky (C) Polar body (D) Micropyle
(B) Clumping of sperms 140. Who demonstrated the acrosome reaction in
(C) Makes sperm to adhere the surface of egg Saccoglossus ?
(D) All the above (A) F.R. Lillie (1919)
131. Which type of stimulus is used to achieve parthenogenic (B) Colwin and Colwin (1967)
development ? (C) (A) and (B) both
(A) Chemical (D) None of the above
(B) Change in pH 141. A layer of cortical granules is found beneath the
(C) Pricking with microneedle (A) Vitelline membrane (B) Fertilization cone
(D) All the above (C) Plasma membrane (D) Hyaline layer
132. The primordial germ cells make their appearance from 142. Female rabbit is
wall of (A) Monoestrus (B) Diestrus
(A) Amnion (B) Chorion (C) Polyestrus (D) None of the above
(C) Allantois (D) Gonad 143. Function of gynogamone–I is
133. Gyanogamones are secretions from (A) Conserves sperm activity
(A) Ovum or unfertilized egg (B) Dissolves vitelline membrane
(B) Spermatids (C) Neutralizes androgamone–I thereby increasing sperm
activity
(C) Cells of Graafian follicle
(D) Makes sperm head sticky to facilitate attachment of
(D) Ovary
sperm to egg surface
134. Antifertilizins are contained in
144. To reduce the weight of spermatozoan and enhance its
(A) Spermatozoa motility nucleus undergoes which of the following
(B) Ovary change ?
(C) Testis (A) Shrinks by losing water from nuclear sap
(D) Germinal epithelium (B) Chromosomes are closely packed
135. In sperm bank the sperms are stored in test tubes for the (C) RNA is removed
purpose of artificial insemination (D) All the above
(A) Due to addition of certain chemicals 145. Normally the number of chromosomes in the nuclei of
(B) Under extraordinary cold condition gametes that fuse at fertilization are
(C) Under normal laboratory condition (A) Innumerable (B) Dissimilar
(D) After washing with distilled water (C) Similar (D) None of the above
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.29

146. Greater development of sperms in rabbit takes place in 158. Epiboly is the process of
(A) Testes (B) Vasa-efferentia (A) Mass migration of cells from the animal hemisphere
(C) Epididymis (D) Spermatic cord so that upper micromeres begin to migrate over the
147. The testis are abdominal in edge of the dorsal lip and roll inside and are tucked
(A) Elephant (B) shrew beneath the outer layer
(C) both (A) & (B) (D) None (B) Over growth when the micromeres divide rapidly and
begin to spread downwards over the megameres
148. Number of prostate glands in rabbit
except at the yolk plug
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Rotation of gastrula within the vitelline membrane
(C) Many (D) None
so that the animal pole becomes anterior
149. Scrotal sacs of man and rabbit are connected with the
(D) Formation of a small slit like invagination occuring
abdominal cavity by-
on the gray crescent
(A) Inguinal canal (B) Haversian canal
159. Coelom derived from blastocoel is known as
(C) Vagina cavity (D) Spermatic canal
(A) Pseudocoelom (B) Enterocoelom
150. Cryptorchidism is a condition of testes
(C) Haemocoel (D) Schizocoel
(A) Unable to descend in scrotal sacs
160. Human eggs are
(B) Unable to produce sperms
(A) Microlecithal (B) Alecithal
(C) Having been surgically removed
(C) Macrolecithal (D) Mesolecithal
(D) Having remained undeveloped
161. Eggs of reptiles and birds are
151. Cleidoic eggs are found in
(A) Alecithal (B) Isolecithal
(A) Birds (B) Mammals
(C) Telolecithal (D) Homolecithal
(C) Annelids (D) Molluscs
162. Cleavage divisions differ from normal mitotic divisions
152. In some eggs, future organs can be demarcated even in that
before cleavage begins. This type of development is
(A) There is no nuclear division during cleavage
called
(B) There is no division of the cytoplasm during cleavage
(A) Mosaic development
(B) Regulatory development (C) There is no period of growth in between the divisions
(C) Gynogenesis (D) The division of the cytoplasm follows nuclear
(D) None of the above divisions
153. Periblastula is found in 163. The eggs of elephant are
(A) Man (B) Insects (A) Macrolecithal and centrolecithal
(C) Sycon (D) Reptiles (B) Microlecithal and telolecithal
154. The cleavage is such method of divisions of fertilized (C) Mesolecithal and homolecithal
egg in which the egg (D) Microlecithal and isolecithal
(A) Does not divide but only increase in size 164. A blastula which is solid, is known as
(B) Divides repeatedly but without growth (A) Stereoblastula (B) Coeloblastula
(C) Divides repeatedly and grows (C) Superficial blastula (D) Discoblastula
(D) None of these 165. Which one of the following statements with regard to
155. What is true about cleavage in the fertilised egg in embryonic development in humans is correct ?
humans ? (A) Cleavage division bring about considerable increase
(A) It is meroblastic in the mass of protoplasm
(B) It starts while the egg is in fallopian tube (B) In the second cleavage division, one of the two
(C) It is identical to the normal mitosis blastomeres usually divides a little sooner than the
(D) It starts when the egg reaches in uterus second
156. Meridional cleavage results in blastomeres numbering (C) With more cleavage divisions, the resultant
(A) 8 (B) 4 blastomeres become larger and larger
(C) 10 (D) 16 (D) Cleavage division results in a hollow ball of cells
157. Mammalian eggs have called morula
(A) No yolk at all 166. Blastodisc or germinal disc refers to the protoplasm of
(B) Small amount of yolk egg, this is restricted to small area in
(C) Large amount of yolk (A) Amphibian egg (B) Avian egg
(D) Large amount of yolk concentrated at one pole (C) Ascidian egg (D) Mammalian egg
3.30 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

167. When the cleavage furrow extends from animal pole to 179. Blastula lacks
vegetal pole and does not bisects the egg equally into (A) Blastomeres (B) Blastoderm
two blastomeres the plane of cleavage is (C) Blastocoel (D) Blastopore
(A) Meridional (B) Equatorial 180. Cleavage in bird’s egg is
(C) Latitudinal (D) Vertical (A) Equal and holoblastic
168. As a result of cleavages, if blastomeres are symmetrically (B) Unequal and holoblastic
placed around the polar axis the type of cleavage is (C) Discoidal meroblastic
known as
(D) Superficial meroblastic
(A) Spiral (B) Discoidal
181. The term blastocyst is applied to the blastula of which
(C) Biradial (D) Radial one of the following ?
169. Calcium deficiency results in the formation of an egg (A) Kangaroo
with
(B) Platypus
(A) Lesser amount of yolk
(C) Monkey
(B) Lesser amount of albumen
(D) Both kangaroo and monkey
(C) Soft shell
182. The outer layer of the blastocyst which forms the
(D) Non porous shell ectoderm is called
170. A phenomenon of embryonic induction was first (A) Cnidoblast (B) Germinal vesicle
described in amphibia by
(C) Trophoblast (D) Amnion
(A) Aristotle (B) Spemann
183. The cleavage having incomplete division of egg is
(C) Von Baer (D) Spallanzani known as
171. The rate of cleavage is inversely proportional to the (A) Holoblastic (B) Meroblastic
duration of
(C) Meridional (D) Spiral
(A) Anaphase (B) Metaphase
184. Cockroach egg is called as
(C) Interphase (D) Telophase
(A) Microlecithal (B) Macrolecithal
172. Cleavage was first observed by
(C) Isolecithal (D) Centrolecithal
(A) Swammerdam (B) Spallanzani
185. Which of the following statement is wrong as regards
(C) F.R. Lillie (D) Leeuwenhoek to man ?
173. Tertiary egg membrane is (A) All eggs are alike
(A) Vitelline membrane (B) Zona radiata (B) Eggs are of two types
(C) Albumen (D) Corona radiata (C) Sperms are of two types
174. Zona pellucida of mammalian egg serves which of the (D) None of the above
following purpose ?
186. Meroblastic cleavage is
(A) Maintains normal cleavage of the egg
(A) Partial cleavage (B) Spiral cleavage
(B) Prevents egg fusion
(C) Equal cleavage (D) Complete cleavage
(C) Prevents polyspermy
187. The third phase in the development of a mammal is
(D) All the above
(A) Cleavage (B) Gastrulation
175. Cleavage is found in
(C) Gametogenesis (D) Fertilization
(A) Zygote (B) Eggs
188. The fifth cleavage of the fertilized egg of frog results in
(C) Undivided cell (D) After gastrula stage the formation of
176. Egg undergoes cleavage and forms (A) 16 cells (B) 48 cells
(A) Morula (B) Blastula (C) 64 cells (D) 32 cells
(C) Gastrula (D) All the above 189. The egg of frog is
177. Egg which contains very little amount of yolk are called as (A) Isolecithal (B) Mesolecithal
(A) Alecithal (B) Microlecithal (C) Telolecithal (D) Centrolecithal
(C) Mesolecithal (D) Polylecithal 190. The egg found in monotremata is
178. Telolecithal eggs have (A) Microlecithal (B) Mesolecithal
(A) Equal distribution of yolk (C) Macrolecithal (D) None of these
(B) Average amount of yolk 191. Cleavage of frog is
(C) Yolk present at a distance from nucleus (A) Holoblastic (B) Meroblastic
(D) No yolk (C) Superficial (D) None of them
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.31

192. Pattern of cleavage in frog’s egg is 203. Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Holoblastic (A) Mesoderm produces brain
(B) Holoblastic and unequal (B) Ectoderm produces liver
(C) Holoblastic and equal (C) Mesoderm produces skeleton
(D) All of the above (D) Endoderm produces heart
193. Pregnancy begins with implantation of 204. Blastopore is found in
(A) Embryo (B) Fertilised ovum (A) Gastrula (B) Blastula
(C) Blastopore (D) Blastocyst (C) Morula (D) Neurula
194. Eggs having yolk in their centre of cytoplasm in peripheral 205. The skeleton and muscles originate in the development
layer are called from or During embryonic development endoskeleton
(A) Isolecithal (B) Microlecithal and muscles develop from which germinal layer ?
(C) Centrolecithal (D) Telolecithal (A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm
195. Which is the correct sequence in the development of man? (C) Mesoderm (D) Yolk plug
(A) Fertilization, zygote, cleavage, morula, blastula, 206. Which one of the following is derived from ectoderm?
gastrula (A) Enamel of teeth (B) Dentine
(B) Zygote, morula, blastula, differentiation (C) Skull (D) Axial skeleton
(C) Fertilization, cleavage, gastrula, morula, blastula 207. The cavity of gastrula is called
(D) Cleavage, zygote, blastula, morula, gastrula (A) Blastocoel (B) Coelom
196. In mammals, the testes occur in scrotal sacs, outside the (C) Archenteron (D) Haemocoel
viscera becasue of the 208. Gonads are derived from embryonic
(A) Presence of urinary baldder (A) Mesoderm
(B) Presence of rectum (B) Endoderm
(C) Long vas-deferens (C) Ectoderm
(D) Requirement of low temperature for spermatogenesis (D) Mesoderm and endoderm
197. In between spermatogonia are found 209. Archenteron is lined with
(A) Germinal cells (B) Sertoli cells (A) Ectoderm
(C) Epithelial cells (D) Lymph space (B) Mesoderm
198. Sertoli cells are found in (C) Endoderm
(A) Testis of cockroach
(D) Mesoderm and endoderm
(B) Liver of mammals
210. During the development of an embryo, migration and
(C) Testis of mammals
rearrangement of cells lead to a pattern formation
(D) Testis of frog known as
199. Placenta is the region where
(A) Epiboly (B) Emboly
(A) Foetus is attached to mother by spermatic cord
(C) Involution (D) Gastrulation
(B) Foetus is provided with mother’s blood
211. The mammalian primitive streak gives rise to
(C) Foetus receives nourishment from mother ’s
blood (A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm
(D) Foetus is covered by membranes. (C) Endoderm (D) Germ layers
200. Cells of Leydig occur in 212. Pasteels (1945) described gastrulation takes place in
(A) Liver (B) Ovary aves by
(C) Testis (D) Spleen (A) Infiltration (B) Delamination
201. Vascular system and excretory organs are developed from (C) Concrescence (D) Polyinvagination
(A) Mesoderm (B) Ectoderm 213. During gastrulation the dorsal lip of blastopore (1 external
(C) Endoderm (D) None of the above sign of gastrulation) appears
202. Gastrulation is the process which involves the (A) Anteriorly in the pigmented area of egg
differentiation of the following layers in a vertebrate (B) Posteriorly in the yolky cytoplasmic area
embryo (C) In the centre of the egg
(A) Ectoderm and mesoderm (D) Behind the grey crescent area
(B) Ectoderm and endoderm 214. Brain originates from which germ layer
(C) Endoderm and mesoderm (A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm
(D) Ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm (C) Endoderm (D) Ectomesoderm
3.32 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

215. In the first phase of gastrulation of amphibians there D. Organogenesis 4. Pattern depends on the
occurs the separation of amount and distribution
(A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm of yolk
(C) Endoderm (D) Mesoectoderm (A) 4, 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1, 4
216. In vertebrates the central nervous system devlops under (C) 4, 2, 3, 1 (D) 3, 1, 2, 4
the influence of 225. Spleen develops from
(A) Pituitary hormones (A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm
(B) Phospholipids (C) Endoderm (D) None of the above
(C) Glycolipids 226. Which cavity arises by the invagination of endoderm
(D) Phospholipids and glycolipids and mesoderm ?
217. The development of eye in vertebrate embryology is (A) Coelenteron (B) Archenteron
studied under
(C) Pseudocoel (D) Coelom
(A) Notogenesis (B) Neurogenesis
227. In Pheretima mouth develops from which of the
(C) Mesogenesis (D) Organogenesis
following ?
218. Development of structure and shape of an organism is (A) Mesoderm (B) Ectoderm
(A) Morphology (B) Multiplication (C) Blastopore (D) Endoderm
(C) Morphogenesis (D) Budding 228. The yolk plug of gastrula represents in the later
219. At the end of first meiotic division, the male germ cells stage its
differentiate into (A) Anterior end (B) Posterior end
(A) Spermatogonium (C) Dorsal side (D) Ventral side
(B) Primary spermatocyte
229. From which layer of the embryo do the liver and pancreas
(C) Secondary spermatocyte develop ?
(D) Spermatid (A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm
220. From which embryonic structure develops the vertebral (C) Endoderm (D) Both (A) and (C)
column ?
230. Eye is developed from
(A) Neural canal (B) Archenteron
(A) Ectoderm (B) Mesoderm
(C) Notochord (D) Blastocoel
(C) Endoderm (D) Ecto–endoderm
221. Internal ear develops from
(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm 231. The respiratory function of embryo is performed by
(C) Mesoderm (D) None of the above (A) Chorion (B) Amnion
222. In the embryonic development of chordate the animal (C) Allantois (D) Yolk sac
pole forms one of the following of the adult 232. Urinary bladder of the embryo is or Which is the urinary
(A) Dorsal side (B) Ventral side bladder of child placed in the womb ?
(C) Head (D) Tail (A) Yolk sac
223. Which of the following is correct statement ? (B) Allantois
(A) In blastulation major presumptive and organ forming (C) Amnion
areas are segregated into definite points of the
(D) Chorion and allantois both
blastoderm
233. The shock absorber fluid of the developing embryo is
(B) Blastulation establishes the three germinal layers
known as
(C) Blastulation of frog is known as discoblastula
(D) Fluid filled space in blastula is known as archenteron (A) Chorionic fluid (B) Amniotic fluid
224. Match the items ABCD of table ‘A’ with that of items in (C) Allantoic fluid (D) Coelomic fluid
table ‘B’ then the correct pairing sequence of ABCD 234. Allantois develops from the embryonic
will be (A) Fore gut (B) Mid gut
‘A’ ‘B’ (C) Hind gut (D) Tail region
A. Cleavage 1. Formation of 3 germ 235. In man the foetal membrane which forms the intimate
layers connection with the uterine tissue is
B. Gastrulation 2. Formation of embryo
(A) Amnion only
spinal cord
(B) Chorion only
C. Neurulation 3. Results in formation of
skeleton and muscles (C) Allantois only
from mesoderm (D) Allanto–chorionic structure
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.33

236. The main function of tropho ectoderm in mammalian 247. The eutherian placenta is derived from or In mammals
embryo is placenta is formed by
(A) Protection of the developing cells (A) Yolk sac (B) Amnion
(B) Drawing food for the developing cells (C) Allantois (D) Chorion allantois
(C) Formation of yolksac 248. Placenta is formed from
(D) Formation of body of developing embryo (A) Maternal part only
237. Foetal membranes provide (B) Embryonic part only
(A) Protection to embryo (C) Maternal and foetal portions both
(B) Nutrition to embryo (D) None of the above
(C) Protection and nutrition to embryo 249. Zonary placenta is found in
(D) None of these (A) Carnivore mammals
238. Amnion helps in (B) Herbivore mammals
(A) Respiration (C) Both (A) and (B)
(B) Excretion (D) None of the above
(C) Nutrition 250. Placenta has an outer layer which is selectively permeable
(D) Protection from shocks and hormone secreting which is known as
239. The amniotic fluid is taken out with the help of surgical (A) Trophoblast (B) Chorion
needle and separation of the embryo cells present in this (C) Amnion (D) Mesoderm
fluid is done by 251. In man developing embryo remains in
(A) Amniotic fluid study (B) Amniocentesis (A) Vagina (B) Uterus
(C) Centrifugation (D) None of these (C) Fallopian tube (D) Ovaries
240. Amniotic fluid is found in 252. Placenta is the region, where
(A) Uterus (B) Scrotal sac (A) Foetus is supplied by maternal blood
(C) Kidney (D) Liver (B) Embryo is attached to mother by umbilical cord
241. Chorion is composed of (C) Foetus receives maternal blood and nutrition
(A) Cytotrophoderm (D) Embryo is enclosed by membranes
(B) Syncytial trophoblast 253. In which of the following the placenta forms an important
(C) Outer ectoderm and somatic mesoderm structure in development ?
(D) All the above (A) Amphibian (B) Reptiles
242. The foetal membrane which is the source of first blood (C) Birds (D) Mammals
corpuscle to enter the circulation of the embryo is called 254. Which of the following substances can pass through
(A) Amnion (B) Chorion the placenta from the mother into foetus ?
(C) Trophoblast (D) Yolk sac (A) Proteins
243. Function of allantois in mammal is (B) Viruses of small pox
(A) Respiration only (C) WBCs
(B) Excretion (D) RBCs
(C) Nutrition, excretion and respiration 255. In a simplest type of placenta the foetal blood is separated
(D) Protection from shocks from the maternal blood by six barriers. How many barriers
244. The function of amniotic cavity is are lost in human placenta ?
(A) Respiraiton (A) One (B) Two
(B) Protection from desiccation and shocks (C) Three (D) Four
(C) Protection from desiccation 256. The animals in which complete embryo develops in the
(D) Protection from shocks mother’s body through placenta are
245. The extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian (A) Oviparous (B) Viviparous
embryo are derived from (C) Ovo-viviparous (D) Herbivorous
(A) Formative cells (B) Follicle cells 257. Blood flowing in umbilical cord is
(C) Trophoblast (D) Inner cell mass (A) 50% maternal and 50% foetal
246. Placenta produced which hormone (B) 100% foetal
(A) ACTH (B) Progesterone (C) 100% maternal
(C) G H (D) Gastrin (D) 75% maternal and 25% foetal
3.34 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

258. Placenta acts like a (C) Secreted by the egg

(A) Semipermeable membrane (D) Tertiary membrane
(B) Fully permeable membrane 268. The structure which remains unchanged during
(C) Impermeable membrane metamorphosis of frog’s tadpole is
(D) None of the above (A) Lung (B) Heart
259. Which of the following structure is lacking from the (C) Intestine (D) Nervous system
placenta ? 269. Beginning of archenteron formation in frog’s
(A) Arteries (B) Veins development represents the stage
(C) Smooth muscles (D) Nerves (A) Morula (B) Early blastula
260. Endometrium is found in (C) Early gastrula (D) Late gastrula
(A) Placenta of mammals (B) Nipple of mammals 270. In the development of a frog, the gastrulation process
(C) Uterus of mammals (D) None of these involves
261. The gestation period of elephants is about (A) Epiboly (B) Emboly
(A) 11 months (B) 10 months (C) Invagination (D) All of these
(C) 15 months (D) 22 months 271. In the adult phase of frog which of the character become
262. The shortest gestation period is seen in degenerate ?
(A) Man (B) Elephant (A) Tail (B) Legs
(C) Cat (D) Mouse (C) Skin (D) Eyes
263. The layer of uterus which becomes much eroded due to 272. Blastula of frog has
placental villi is known as (A) Blastopore (B) Blastocoel
(A) Endothelium (B) Endometrium (C) Archenteron (D) Gastropore
(C) Endoderm (D) Trophoblast 273. Third cleavage of frog’s development is
264. The longest gestation period is found in (A) Equatorial (B) Vertical
(A) Elephant (B) Gorilla (C) Latitudinal (D) None of these
(C) Chimpanzee (D) Man 274. Correct sequence in embryonic development of frog is
265. The gestation period of rabbit is (A) Zygotes  Cleavage  Blastula  Gastrula
(A) 28–32 days (B) 20–25 days (B) Zygotes  Cleavage  Gastrula  Blastula
(C) 60–70 days (D) 80–90 days (C) Cleavage  Zygotes  Blastula  Gastrula
266. Which of the drug inhibits metamorphosis in frog? (D) Zygotes  Blastula  Cleavage  Gastrula
(A) Paracetamol (B) Penicillin 275. Neoteny refers to
(C) Thiourea (D) Barbiturates (A) Development of gonads
267. Jelly layer of frog is (B) Pre-adult animal
(A) Primary membrane (C) Metamorphosis
(B) Secondary membrane (D) Retention of Larval or embryonic trait in adult body
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.35

EXERCISE - II
(Previous Year AIPMT Examination Questions)

1. Grey crescent is the area: (2005) 9. A change in the amount of yolk and its distribution in
(A) At the point of entry of sperm into ovum the egg will effect: (2009)
(B) Just opposite to the site of entry of sperm into ovum (A) Fertilization
(C) At the animal pole (B) Formation of zygote
(D) At the vegetal pole (C) Pattern of cleavage
2. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of (D) Number of blastomeres produced
the following is unlikely: (2005) 10. Which one of the following is the most likely root cause
(A) Estrogen secretion further decreases why menstruation is not taking place in regularly cycling
(B) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines human female? (2009)
(C) Corpus luteum will disintegrate (A) Retention of well-developed corpus luteum
(D) Primary follicle starts developing (B) Fertilization of the ovum
3. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone (C) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endometrial lining
known as: (2006) (D) Maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones
(A) FSH (B) GH in the blood stream
(C) Prolactin (D) LH 11. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading
4. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is:
the administration of: (2007) (2009)
(A) FSH only (A) Spermatogonia-spermatid-Spermatocyte sperms
(B) LH only (B) Spermatocyte-spermatogonia-spermatid sperms
(C) Combination of FSH and LH (C) Spermatogonia-spermatocyte-spermatid sperms
(D) Combination of estrogen and progesterone (D) Spermatid-spermatocyte-spermatogonia sperms
5. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about 12. Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by:
menstruation? (2008) (2009)
(A) At menopause in the female, there is especially (A) Differentiation of mammary glands
abrupt increase in gonadotropic hormones (B) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid
(B) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called (C) Release of oxytocin from pituitary
menarche (D) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(C) During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is 13. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch for a portion of
lost human male reproductive system. Select the correct set
(D) The menstrual fluid can easily clot of the names of the parts labelled A, B, C, D. (2009)
6. Which extra embryonic membrane in humans prevents
desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus? (2008)
(A) Yolk sac (B) Amnion
(C) Chorion (D) Allantois
7. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the
male germ cells differentiate into the: (2008)
(A) spermatids
(B) spermatogonia
(C) primary spermatocytes
(D) secondary spermatocytes (A) Ureter, Seminal vesicle, Prostate, Bulbourethral gland
8. The haemoglobin of a human foetus: (2008) (B) Ureter, Prostate, Seminal vesicle, Bulbouretharal
(A) has only 2 protein subunits instead of 4 gland
(B) has a higher affinity for oxygen than that of an adult (C) Vas deferens, Seminal vesicle, Prostate, Bulbourethral
(C) has a lower affinity for oxygen than that of an adult gland
(D) its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult (D) Vas deferens, Seminal vesicle, Bulbourethral gland,
Prostate
3.36 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
14. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in: (2009)
(A) Fructose and certain enzymes but poor calcium
(B) Fructose and calcium but has no enzyme
(C) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(D) Glucose and certain enzymes but has no Calcium
15. Which of the following is the correct matching of the
events occurring during menstrual cycle? (2009)
(A) Menstruation : Breakdown of myometrium and ovum
not fertilized
(B) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp
fall in the secretion of progesterone
(C) Proliferative phase : Rapid regeneration of
myometrium and maturation of Grafian follicle
(D) Development of corpus : Luteum secretory phase
and increased secretion of progesterone.
16. The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is:
(2010)
(A) Isthmus (B) Infundibulum
(C) Cervix (D) Ampulla
17. Which one of the following statements about morula in
humans is correct ? (2010)
(A) It has almost equal quantity of cytoplasm as an
uncleaved zygote but much more DNA
(B) It has far less cytoplasm as well as less DNA than
in an uncleaved zygote
(C) It has more or less equal quantity of cytoplasm and
DNA as in uncleaved zygote
(D) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA than an
uncleaved zygote
18. Which one of the following statements about human
sperm is correct ? (2010)
(A) Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for
piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in
fertilisation
(B) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg
envelope facilitating fertilisation
(C) Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the
sperm towards the ovum
(D) Acrosome serves no particular function
19. The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum
occurs: (2010)
(A) Shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry
into the Fallopian tube
(B) Until after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
(C) Until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that
of the ovum
(D) In the Grafian follicle following the first maturation
division
20. The first movements of the foetus and appearance of
hair on its head are usually observed during which month
of pregnancy? (2010)
(A) Fourth month (B) Fifth month
(C) Sixth month (D) Third month
21. The signals for parturition originate from? (2010)
(A) placenta only
(B) placenta as well as fully developed foetus
(C) oxytocin released from maternal pituitary
(D) fully developed foetus only
22. The permissible use of the technique aminocentesis
is for: (2010)
(A) detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(B) artificial insemination
(C) transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate
mother
(D) Detecting any genetic abnormality
23. Seminal plasma in human males is rich in (2010)
(A) fructose and calcium
(B) glucose and calcium
(C) DNA and testosterone
(D) ribose and potassium
24. Vasa efferentia are the ductules leading from: (2010)
(A) Testicular lobules to rete testis
(B) Rete testis to vas deferens
(C) Vas deferens to epididymis
(D) Epididymis to urethra
25. Sertoli cells are found in: (2010)
(A) ovaries and secrete progesterone
(B) adrenal cortex and secrete adrenaline
(C) seminiferous tubules and provide nutrition to germ
cells
(D) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin
26. In vitro fertilization is a technique that involves transfer
of which one of the following into the fallopian tube?
(2010)
(A) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(B) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(C) Embryo of 32 cell stage
(D) Zygote only
27. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic sectional
view of the female reproductive system of humans.
Which one set of three parts out of I-VI have been
correctly identified? (2011)
(A) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) Fallopian tube
(B) (II) Endometrium, (III)Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriage
(C) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) Cervix
(D) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus (VI) Cervix
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.37

28. The testes in humans are situated outside the abdominal (C) Facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste
cavity inside a pouch called scrotum. The purpose served material from embryo
is for (2011) (D) Secretes oxytocin during parturition
(A) providing a secondary sexual feature for 35. What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
exhibiting the male sex (2013)
(B) maintaining the scrotal temperature lower than the (A) Spermatid, spermatocyte, spermatogonia,
internal body temperature spermatozoa
(C) escaping any possible compression by the visceral (B) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatozoa,
organs spermatid
(D) providing more space for the growth of Epididymis (C) Spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatocyte,
29. If for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human spermatid
reproductive system get blocked, the gametes will not (D) Spermatogonia, spermatocyte, spermatid,
be transported from: (2011) spermatozoa
(A) Vagina to uterus 36. Menstrual flow occurs due to lack of : (2013)
(B) Testes to epididymis (A) Progesterone
(C) Epididymis to vas deferens (B) FSH
(D) Ovary to uterus (C) Oxytocin
30. The leydig cell as found in the human body are the (D) Vasopressin
secretory source of: (2012) 37. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin
(A) Glucagon activity in a normal pregnant female: (2014)
(B) Androgens (A) High level of FSH and LH stimulates the thickening
(C) Progesterone of endometrium
(D) Intestinal mucus (B) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of
31. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total the embryo.
gonadotropin activity was assessed. The results (C) high level of hCG stimulates the synthesize of
expected was: (2012) estrogen and progesterone
(A) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate (D) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of
endometrial thickening endometrium
(B) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate estrogen 38. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to
and progesterone synthesis produce: (2014)
(C) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus (A) estrogen only
to stimulate implantation of the embryo (B) progesterone
(D) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate endometrial (C) human chorionic gonadotropin
thickening (D) relaxin only
32. Signals for parturition originate from: (2012)
39. The shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary
(A) Placenta only system in the human male is: (2014)
(B) Fully developed foetus only (A) Urethra (B) Ureter
(C) Both placenta as well as fully developed foetus (C) Vas deferens (D) Vasa efferentia
(D) Oxytocin released from maternal pituitary 40. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is
33. Which one of the following statements is false in respect normally diploid? (2015)
of viability of mammalian sperm? (2012) (A) Secondary polar body
(A) Viability of sperm is determined by its motility (B) Primary polar body
(B) Sperms must be concentrated in a thick suspension (C) Spermatid
(C) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hours (D) Spermatogonia
(D) Survival of sperm depends on the pH of the medium
41. Capacitation refers to changes in the: (2015)
and is more active in alkaline medium
34. Which one of the following is not the function of (A) sperm after fertilization
placenta? it: (2013) (B) sperm before fertilization
(A) acilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo (C) ovum before fertilization
(B) secretes estrogen (D) ovum after fertilization
3.38 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

42. Which of these is not an important component of initiation (A) estrogen and progesterone
of parturition in humans? (2015) (B) estrogen and inhibin
(A) Release of prolactin (C) progesterone only
(B) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio (D) progesterone and inhibin
(C) Synthesis of prostaglandins 50. Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’ (2016)
(D) Release of oxytocin (A) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.
43. Ectopic pregnancies are referred to as: (2015) (B) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits
(A) Pregnancies terminated due to hormonal imbalance the secretion of FSH.
(B) Pregnancies with genetic abnormality. (C) Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits
(C) Implantation of embryo at site other than uterus. the secretion of LH.
(D) Implantation of defective embryo in the uterus (D) Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the
44. Which of the following events is not associated with secretion of LH.
ovulation in human female? (2015) 51. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of
(A) LH surge transport of sperms ? (2016)
(B) Decrease in estradiol (A) Rete testis  Vas deferens  Efferent ductules 
Epididymis
(C) Full development of Graafian follicle
(B) Efferent ductules  Rete testis  Vas deferens 
(D) Release of secondary oocyte
Epididymis
45. In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until?
(C) Rete testis  Efferent ductules  Epididymis 
(2015)
Vas deferens
(A) birth
(D) Rete testis  Epididymis  Efferent ductules 
(B) puberty Vas deferens
(C) fertilization 52. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct
(D) uterine implantation option using the codes given below:- (2016)
46. Which of the following layers in an antral follicle is
acellular? (2015)
(A) Zona pellucida
(B) Granulosa
(C) Theca interna
(D) Stroma
47. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:-
(2016)
(A) the sperms are transported into vagina just after the
release of ovum in fallopian tube Codes :
(B) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously a b c d
to ampullary isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
(A) iii i iv ii
(C) the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously
(B) i iv iii ii
to ampullary - isthmic junction of the cervix
(C) iii iv ii i
(D) the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs
of release of ovum in uterus (D) iii iv i ii
48. Select the incorrect statement : (2016) 53. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone
are produced by : - (2016)
(A) FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in
spermiogenesis (A) Fallopian tube
(B) LH triggers ovulation in ovary (B) Pituitary
(C) LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular (C) Ovary
phase (D) Placenta
(D) LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig 54. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in
cells vitro fertilization is transferred into :- (2016)
49. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled (A) Fimbriae (B) Cervix
by circulating levels of :- (2016) (C) Uterus (D) Fallopian tube
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.39

55. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is : 59. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
(2017) pregnancy are [NEET-2018]
(A) Pineal gland (A) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(B) Corpus cardiacum (B) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(C) Corpus luteum (C) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(D) Corpus allatum (D) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, glucocorticoids
56. Capacitation occurs in : (2017) 60. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is [NEET-2018]
(A) Rete testis
(A) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are
(B) Epididymis
released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while
(C) Vas deferens. in spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
(D) Female Reproudctive tract. (B) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in
57. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, spermiation spermatids are formed.
acts on : (2017) (C) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in
(A) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secreation of spermiation spermatozoa are formed.
LH and oxytocin. (D) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in
(B) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates seceration of spermination spermatozoa are released from sertoli
LH and FSH cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules.
(C) posterior pituitary gland an stimulates secretion of 61. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from
oxytocin and FSH [NEET-2018]
(D) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secreation (A) mesoderm and trophoblast
of LH and relaxin (B) endoderm and mesoderm
58. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column (C) ectoderm and mesoderm
II and select the correct option given below: (D) ectoderm and endoderm
[NEET-2018] 62. Select the correct sequence for transport of sperm cells
Column I Column II in male reproductive system. [NEET-2019]
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of (A) Seminiferous tubules  Rete testis  Vasa efferentia
endometrial lining  Epididymis  Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase  Urethra  Urethra meatus
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase (B) Seminiferous tubules  Vasa efferentia 
a b c Epididymis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
(A) ii iii i (C) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
(B) i iii ii Vas deferens  Ejaculatory duct ® Inguinal canal
(C) iii ii i  Urethra  Urethra meatus
(D) iii i ii (D) Testis  Epididymis  Vasa efferentia 
Rete testis  Inguinal canal  Urethra
3.40 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

EXERCISE – III
(Previous Year AIIMS Questions)

1. Cessation of menstrual cycle in women is called (C) Morphallaxis—Healing up of a wound in the skin.
[2001] (D) Epimorphosis—Regeneration of crushed and filtered
(A) menopause (B) lactation out pieces of a Planaria into as many new Planarians.
(C) ovulation (D) parturition 9. A cross section at the mid point of the middle piece of
2. Meroblastic cleavage refers to which type of division of a human sperm will show [2005]
egg? [2001] (A) centriole, mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of
(A) Complete (B) Spiral microtubules
(C) Incomplete (D) Horizontal (B) centriole and mitochondria
3. Both corpus luteum and macula lutea are [2003] (C) mitochondria and 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
(A) found in human ovaries (D) 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules only
(B) a source of hormones 10. Which one of the following events is correctly matched
(C) characterized by a yellow colour with the time period in a normal menstrual cycle?
(D) contributory in maintaining pregnancy [2005]
4. The early human embryo distinctly possesses [2003] (A) Release of egg: 5th day
(A) gills (B) gill slits (B) Endometrium regenerates: 5–10 days
(C) external ear (pinna) (D) eyebrows (C) Endometrium secretes nutrients for implantation:
11–18 days
5. The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that lasts for
7–8 days, is [2003] (D) Rise in progesterone level: 1–15 days
(A) follicular phase (B) ovulatory phase 11. Tadpoles of frog can be made to grow as giant sized
tadpoles, if they are [2006]
(C) luteal phase (D) menstruation
(A) administered antithyroid substance like thiourea
6. Which one of the following statements with regard to
embryonic development in humans is correct? [2003] (B) administered large amounts of thyroxine
(A) Cleavage divisions bring about considerable increase (C) reared on a diet rich in egg yolk
in the mass of protoplasm. (D) reared on a diet rich in both egg yolk and glucose
(B) In the second cleavage division, one of the two 12. Which of the following is true regarding sperm?
blastomeres usually divides a little sooner than the [2007]
second. (A) Fertilizin: For penetrating egg membrane
(C) With more cleavage divisions, the resultant (B) Hyalurodinase: For penetrating egg membrane
blastomeres become larger and larger. (C) Acrosin: Dissolves corona radiata
(D) Cleavage division results in a hollow ball of cells (D) Capacitation: Takes place in penis
called morula. 13. Which reproductive adaptation is characteristic of
7. Women who consumed the drug thalidomide for relief most terrestrial vertebrates but not of most aquatic
from vomiting during early months of pregnancy gave vertebrates? [2009]
birth to children with [2004] (A) External fertilization
(A) no spleen (B) Internal fertilization
(B) harelip (C) Motile gametes
(C) extra fingers and toes (D) External development
(D) under developed limbs 14. In humans, what is the ratio of the number of gametes
8. Based on cellular mechanisms there are two major types produced from one male primary sex cell to the number
of regeneration found in the animals. Which one of the of gametes produced from one female primary sex cell?
following is the correct example of the type mentioned? [2009]
[2005] (A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4
(A) Morphallaxis—Regeneration of two transversely cut (C) 3 : 1 (D) 4 : 1
equal pieces of a Hydra into two small Hydras. 15. Corpus luteum is a mass of cells found in [2010]
(B) Epimorphosis—Replacement of old and dead (A) brain (B) ovary
erythrocytes by the new ones. (C) pancreas (D) spleen
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.41

16. Cells of leydig are found in [2011] 22. Hormones for the menstrual cycle are produced by
(A) Testes of frog (B) Testes of rabbit [2015]
(C) Kidney of frog (D) Kidney of rabbit (A) ovaries only
17. Which of the following organ is differentiated first during (B) uterus only
development? [2012] (C) ovaries and uterus
(A) Heart (B) Skin (D) ovaries and anterior pituitary.
(C) Brain (D) Neural tube 23. Select the correct explanation for the labels A, B, C
18. The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stages leading and D. [2015]
to the formation of sperms in a mature human testis is
[2013]
(A) spermatogonia — spermatid —spermatocyte —
sperms
(B) spermatocyte — spermatogonia —spermatid —
sperms
(C) spermatogonia — spermatocyte —spermatid—
sperms
(D) spermatid — spermatocyte —spermatogonia —
sperms
19. Select the correct option describing gonadotropin
activity in a normal pregnant female: [2014]
(A) High level of FSH and LH stimulate the thickening
of endometrium.
(B) High level of FSH and LH facilitate implantation of
the embryo.
(A) A represents the fertilised zygote.
(C) High level of hCG stimulates the synthesis of estrogen
and progesterone. (B) B represents the stage of morula formation.
(D) High level of hCG stimulates the thickening of (C) C represents the blastocyst.
endometrium. (D) D represents the blastocyst implantation.
20. During menstrual cycle, levels of LH and estrogen are 24. Which of the following statements is correct regarding
highest around [2014] menstrual cycle?
(A) 14th day (B) 21st day (A) LH induces rupturing of Graafian follicle.
(C) 7th day (D) 28th day (B) Proliferative phase is characterised by the increased
21. Choose the correct pair. [2014] production of progesterone.
(A) Coconut, cucurbits – dioecious (C) Corpus luteum secretes large amount of estrogen.
(B) Honeybee, Rotifers – parthenogenesis (D) Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in secretory
phase.
(C) Ornithorhyncus, Whale – viviparity
(D) Frog, Peacock - external fertilization
3.42 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

EXERCISE - IV
(Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both the assertion and reason are false.

1. Assertion : Death is one of the important regulatory Reason : This happens because of the presence of
process on earth. [2002] hCG in the blood of females.
Reason : It avoids over-crowding caused by 11. Assertion : Parturition is induced by neural signal in
continuous reproduction. maternal pituitary. [2015]
2. Assertion : Old age is not an illness. It is a continuation Reason : At the end of gestation period, the maternal
of life with decreasing capacity for pituitary releases prolactin which causes
adaptation. [2003] uterine contractions.
Reason : Cessation of mitosis is a normal genetically 12. Assertion : Foetal disorders can be diagnosed by
programmed event. chorionic villi sampling.
3. Assertion : In humans, the gamete contributed by the Reason : Karyotyping can be done for mitotically
male determines whether the child dividing cells of chorionic villi.
produced will be male or female. [2005] 13. Assertion : Nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio decreases in
Reason : Sex in humans is a polygenic trait cleavage.
depending upon a cumulative effect of Reason : During cleavage, cytoplasmic synthesis is
some genes on X-chromosome and some faster than DNA synthesis.
on Y-chromosome. 14. Assertion : Implantation is the process of attachment
4. Assertion : Senescence is the time when age associated of blastocyst on uterine endometrium.
defects are manifested. [2005] Reason : Implantation is controlled by trophoblast
Reason : Certain genes may be undergoing and occurs by decidual cell reaction.
sequential switching on and off during 15. Assertion : Gastrular movements are morphogenetic.
one’s life. Reason : During gastrulation, cells move in masses
5. Assertion : Corpus luteum degenerates in the absence and towards definite direction.
of fertilization. [2009] 16. Assertion : Asexual reproduction is also called
blastogenesis.
Reason : Progesterone level decreases.
Reason : In asexual reproduction, there is no
6. Assertion : Clitoris is not remnant of penis in females.
formation and fusion of gametes.
[2009]
17. Assertion : Individuals produced by asexual
Reason : It also have high blood supply and erectile
reproduction are genetically simillar to
tissue.
parents.
7. Assertion : Mammalian ova produces hyaluronidase. Reason : Asexual reproduction involves only
[2009] mitotic divisions.
Reason : The eggs of mammal are microlecithal and 18. Assertion : Penis of male is homologous to clitoris of
telolecithal. human female.
8. Assertion : Cu-T and Cu-7 do not suppress sperm Reason : Both are highly sensitive and both
motility. [2009] supported by corpora cavernosa.
Reason : Hormones released by them affect sperm 19. Assertion : At puberty, human male develops
motility. secondary sexual characters.
9. Assertion : Head of sperm consists of acrosome and Reason : At puberty, there is decreased secretion of
mitochondria. [2014] testosterone in male.
Reason : Acrosome contains spiral row of 20. Assertion : Fallopian funnel of oviduct is with finger-
mitochondria. like fimbriae.
10. Assertion : Females have less stature than males after Reason : Graafian follicle of ovary is with secondary
puberty. [2014] oocyte hanging in cavity called antrum.
 HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.43

21. Assertion : Corpus luteum degenerates if the ovum 24. Assertion : Claspers of cartilage fishes are analogous
remains unfertilized. to penis of human male.
Reason : Corpus luteum secretes progesterone Reason : Both act as copulatory organs and transfer
which maintains the pregnancy. the sperms into female.
22. Assertion : Size of breasts increases at puberty in 25. Assertion : In human male, there are perianal glands
human female. near the anus.
Reason : Prolactin secretion starts at puberty. Reason : Perianal glands secretes sex-attractant
23. Assertion : Vagina acts as copulation canal and pheromone which initiates sexual desire in
fertilization canal. human female.
Reason : Both insemination and fusion of gametes
occur in vagina of female.

ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE – I

1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (B) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (C) 38. (D) 39. (A) 40. (D)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (C) 45. (A) 46. (A) 47. (B) 48. (D) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (B) 52. (B) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (D) 57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (D)
61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (A) 66. (D) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (B) 70. (A)
71. (C) 72. (D) 73. (C) 74. (A) 75. (A) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (A)
81. (C) 82. (D) 83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (C) 87. (B) 88. (D) 89. (C) 90. (B)
91. (B) 92. (C) 93. (D) 94. (C) 95. (A) 96. (D) 97. (D) 98. (B) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (C) 104. (B) 105. (B) 106. (A) 107. (C) 108. (C) 109. (C) 110. (D)
111. (A) 112. (C) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (A) 118. (C) 119. (B) 120. (C)
121. (B) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (D) 125. (B) 126. (B) 127. (D) 128. (C) 129. (B) 130. (D)
131. (D) 132. (D) 133. (A) 134. (A) 135. (B) 136. (A) 137. (D) 138. (A) 139. (D) 140. (B)
141. (C) 142. (C) 143. (C) 144. (D) 145. (C) 146. (C) 147. (C) 148. (A) 149. (A) 150. (A)
151. (A) 152. (A) 153. (B) 154. (B) 155. (B) 156. (B) 157. (A) 158. (B) 159. (A) 160. (B)
161. (C) 162. (C) 163. (D) 164. (A) 165. (B) 166. (B) 167. (D) 168. (D) 169. (C) 170. (B)
171. (C) 172. (A) 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (A) 176. (A) 177. (B) 178. (C) 179. (D) 180. (C)
181. (C) 182. (C) 183. (B) 184. (D) 185. (B) 186. (A) 187. (A) 188. (D) 189. (C) 190. (C)
191. (A) 192. (B) 193. (D) 194. (C) 195. (A) 196. (D) 197. (B) 198. (C) 199. (C) 200. (C)
201. (A) 202. (D) 203. (C) 204. (A) 205. (C) 206. (A) 207. (C) 208. (A) 209. (C) 210. (D)
211. (A) 212. (C) 213. (D) 214. (A) 215. (C) 216. (C) 217. (D) 218. (C) 219. (C) 220. (C)
221. (A) 222. (A) 223. (A) 224. (A) 225. (B) 226. (B) 227. (C) 228. (B) 229. (C) 230. (A)
231. (C) 232. (B) 233. (B) 234. (C) 235. (B) 236. (B) 237. (C) 238. (D) 239. (C) 240. (A)
241. (C) 242. (D) 243. (C) 244. (B) 245. (C) 246. (B) 247. (D) 248. (C) 249. (C) 250. (A)
251. (B) 252. (C) 253. (D) 254. (B) 255. (C) 256. (B) 257. (B) 258. (A) 259. (D) 260. (C)
261. (D) 262. (D) 263. (B) 264. (A) 265. (A) 266. (C) 267. (D) 268. (B) 269. (C) 270. (D)
271. (A) 272. (B) 273. (C) 274. (A) 275. (D)
3.44 HUMAN REPRODUCTION

EXERCISE – II

1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (B) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (D) 32. (C) 33. (B) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (D)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (C) 46. (A) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (B)
51. (C) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (C) 55. (C) 56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (A) 59. (A) 60. (D)
61. (C) 62. (A)

EXERCISE – III

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (A)

EXERCISE – IV

1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (D)

EXPLANATIONS
EXERCISE - I
10. (B) Both sexual and asexual type of reproduction are
found in Hydra.
12. (B) Binary fission may be longitudinal or transverse.
During multiple fission, the parental body divides
into many daughter organisms.
14. (B) Arrhenotoky is a type of parthenogenesis, in which
the unfertilized eggs develop into males with haploid
cells.
15. (A) Parthenogenesis can be classified into arrhenotoky
and thelytoky.
16. (D) Binary fission occurs in Amoeba, paramecium, and
Euglena.
17. (B) Eutherian mammals are viviparous placental mammals
without marsupium. Eutherians constitute the vast
majority of living mammals arranged in 16 orders.
18. (C) Earthworms are bisexual but self fertilization does
not occur because their testes ripes first. They are
protandrous.
19. (B) Incomplete or cyclic parthenogenesis is found in
those animals in which both sexual reproduction and
parthenogenesis occur.
26. (D) Each testis is held in its position within its scrotal
sac and is supported from posterior scrotal wall by
means of a small cord of fibro muscular mesodermal
tissue called Gubernaculum.
28. (D) Also known as antisterility vitamin.
29. (B) Cowper’s gland are present in male Rabbit these are
yellow in colour their secretion is slightly alkaline
and is produced during sexual stimulation.
30. (B) Testes are located in the extra-abdominal scrotal sacs
and ovary remains attached to the abdominal wall
by a ligament (mesovarium). Both are ventral to
kidney.
33. (B) The scrotal sacs of a male mammals are homologous
to labia majora of female. The clitoris which is
homologous to penis.
34. (A) It is homologous to Cowper ’s gland and has
lubricating action by neutralising the acidity.
35. (C) In most of the mammals, testes are extra-abdominal
as spermatogenesis requires a lower temperature for
its normal completion.
36. (B) The germinal epithelium lining of the seminiferous
tubules is made of two kinds of cell. A few larger cell
columnar supporting cells are called sertoli cells or
sustentacular cells on nurse cells.
37. (C) The germinal epithelium of testes requires a low
temperature for their normal functioning.
38. (D) All the seminiferous tubules in each testis open into
a network called rete testis leading to fine ductules
called vasa efferentia.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.45
39. (A) Each testicular lobules of testis contains two to three
seminiferous tubules. Wall of each seminiferous
tubules is formed of a single layered germinal
epithelium.
40. (D) Cells of leydig are found in interstitial connective
tissue of testes they secrete male hormone
testosterone.
41. (B) At the medial side of frog’s kidney, Bidder’s canal is
present into which the vasa efferentia open.
42. (C) Sertoli cells are located in seminiferous tubules in
testes of rabbit which nourish spermatozoa.
44. (C) Leydig’s cells are endocrine in nature and secrete
male sex hormones-androgens.
51. (B) Each ovary is surrounded by mesovarium or fold of
peritoneum for suspending it to dorsal body wall.
52. (B) Graafian follicle develops under influence of FSH of
anterior pituitary. Its follicular cells secrete estrogen.
Rising level of estrogen decreases production of FSH
and stimulates secretion of LH. The two cause the
mature graafian follicle to rise to the ovarian surface
and burst open releasing ovum.
58. (D) In rabbit, ovulation does not occur in the absence of
copulation. So copulation induces the ovulation.
Copulation provides neural stimulus for ovulation.
59. (C) Lining layer of uterus called endometrium (mucous
membrane) is richly supplied with blood vesseles
and tubular gland. Actual wall of uterus is
myometrium. It is covered on outside by perimetrium.
61. (B) The ruptured follicle show proliferation of cells of
membrana grenulosa, deposition of yellow pigment
or lutein and formation of yellow body called corpus
luteum. Corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
Ultimately corpus luteum loses its yellow colour
becomes changed to corpus albicans and then
degenerated.
62. (A) Corpus luteum is formed after release of ova from
graafian follicles and secretory in nature.
66. (D) Collectively called as secondary sexual characters.
68. (B) The ovary remains attached to the abdominal wall
by a ligament called mesovarium. The uterus is lie in
the fold of peritoneum called mesometrium.
69. (B) Cessation of menstrual cycle is called menopause.
Menopause occurs in females at the age of 45-50
years.
70. (A) There are two uteri in rabbit. So uterus is bicornuate
type.
71. (C) Uterus opens into an elastic muscular tube called
vagina. Vagina is lined by a stratified squamous
epithelium without any glands.
3.46 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
72. (D) The mammals other than primates show oestrous
cycle while primates only show menstrual cycle.
74. (A) In the proliferative phase of menstrual cycle uterus
have straight ducts they become coiled in luteal
phase.
75. (A) Ovulation occurs under the influence of LH from
pituitary gland.
77. (A) Fimbriated funnel is the modified proximal end of an
oviduct as in frog. The oviduct of rabbit are short
and less convoluted than those of frog. These are
called fallopian or uterine tubes.
80. (A) The corpus luteum secretes progesterone hormone
under the influence of LH.
82. (D) Oestrus comprises cyclic changes in female
reproductive system of non-primate mammals.
85. (C) Vagina serves as birth canal during parturition.
87. (B) Since estrogen is secreted by the Graafian follicles
from their internal theca.
88. (D) Bartholin’s glands are located in the female vagina,
one on each side of the vaginal orifice.
89. (C) Corpus luteum is a yellow body formed from empty
Graafian follicle. Macula lutea is a yellow spot on
the retina lying exactly opposite to the centre of
cornea.
90. (B) Estrogens are produced by the theca interna cells of
graafian follicles. Estrogens regulate growth and
development of female accessory reproductive
organs. Secondary sexual characters and sexual
behaviour.
91. (B) The ovum is ejected from the follicle near the end of
proliferative phase i.e. 14th day or midway during
menstrual cycle.
96. (D) In the first, meiotic division of the frog oogenesis,
the diploid primary oocyte divides into two unequal
haploid daughter cell a large secondary oocyte and
small first polar body.
111. (A) The process of formation of haploid ova from diploid
germinal cells (2n) of the ovary called oogenesis.
115. (A) Von baer is called fathers of modern embryology who
gave the rule of embryonic development of an
organism.
125. (B) In vertebrates they vary in size from 0.07 mm. The
size of the egg chiefly depends upon the amounts of
yolk reserves in it. Sharks and rays among fishes,
reptiles and birds generally lay eggs of larger
dimension. The egg of mammals are minute with very
little yolk.
127. (D) The gametic fusion does not takes place, thus the
genome of the ovum remains unaltered.
134. (A) Antifertilizin molecules present on the surface of
spermatozoa. The antifertilizin are acid proteins with
a fairly smaller molecule.
135. (B) Low temperature keeps the sperms alive for a fairly
long period.
138. (A) These are egg laying animals in which most of the
embryonic development of fertilized egg occurs out
side the body of the mother, e.g., Insects, fishes,
amphibians, reptiles birds etc.
139. (D) Such eggs are not directly penetrated by the sperm.
Here in such cases the sperm must penetrate through
as special canal called micropyle or outgrowth left in
the egg membrane the receptor cone.
141. (C) Cortical granules (Gulyas 1980) are extruded after
fertilization to modify both plasma membrane and
zona pellucida.
151. (A) Cleidoic egg are the egg of reptiles and birds that are
insulated from the environment by albumen
membranes and shell. The calcareous shell present
around the eggs of bird is porous and allows diffusion
of O2 and CO2.
152. (A) Determinate cleavage which produces a complete
embryo only if all the blastomere remain together.
Each blastomere has its characteristic position and
unalterable fate. This is also called mosaic
development e.g., Nematoda, Mollusca.
153. (B) Superficial blastula this is also called periblastula
formed by meroblastic superficial cleavage as in
insect. Centrolecithal eggs develop to superficial
blastula. It consist of a single layer of epithelial cells
surrounding the centrally placed yolk. There is no
blastocoel e.g., insect.
155. (B) Cleavage in the fertilised egg in humans occurs in
the fallopian tube (oviduct) during the conduction
of zygote towards uterus.
156. (B) The second cleavage is right angle to first one
again meridional result in four blastomeres,
identical with respect to cytoplasm pigment and
yolk gradient.
157. (A) Mammalian eggs are alecithal. Eggs containing a
small amount of yolk or without yolk is called
alecithal, e.g., eutherians mammals.
158. (B) Migration and spreading of micromeres over the
embryo is known as epiboly.
159. (A) Pseudocoelom is a persistent blastocoel lacking a
definite mesoderm lining.
161. (C) The yolk is concentrated on vegetal pole.
164. (A) Stereoblastula is a solid blastula with no
blastocoel composed of densely packed large sized
cells. e.g., Cnidaria, Annelida (Nereis) and some
molluscs.
169. (C) At least 94% of shell is made of calcium carbonate.
Calcium deficiency results in the formation of an egg
with soft shell.
170. (B) The theory of organizer (inductor) in amphibia was
introduced by Spemann is 1938. He was awarded
nobel prize for this work.
172. (A) Swammerdam (1738) observed the first cleavage of
frog.

173. (C) The albumen, shell membranes and outermost
calcareous shell of reptiles and birds are the best
examples of tertiary egg membranes.
Cleavage Blastulation 
175. (A) Zygote  Morulla 
Gastrulation  Gastrula
Blastulla 
176. (A) Cleavage division result in formation of a 32 to 64
celled solid morula or hollow blastula in some cases.
177. (B) Microlecithal or oligolecithal eggs are small sized
eggs with very small amount of yolk e.g. in Hydra.
Sea urchin, Amphioxus, marsupials, eutherians.
178. (C) In telolecithal egg, yolk is concentrated towards
vegetal pole, the nucleus and major part of cytoplasm
is displaced to animal pole as in mesolecithal and
macrolecithal eggs of vertibrates.
179. (D) Blastopore occurs in gastrula and open into
archentron.
180. (C) Discoidal cleavage found in macrolecithal and highly
telolecithal eggs of reptiles, birds, and monotreme
mammals.
181. (C) As the amount of nutritive fluid increases in
blastocoel, morula enlarges and takes the form of a
cyst and is now called blastocyst e.g., man, monkey.
183. (B) Meroblastic is also called partial or incomplete
cleavage occurs in macrolecithal and telolcithal egg.
The cleavage furrow divides the small amount of
active cytoplasm of animal pole most of yolky portion
of vegetal pole or central area of egg remains
undivided.
184. (D) The egg of cockroach is centrolecithal type i.e., yolk
present in the centre.
185. (B) All eggs are haploid and carry XX as genotype.
188. (D) The fifth cleavage involves two simultaneous
latitudinal divisions resulting in the formation of 32
blastomeres.
189. (C) The egg of frog is telolecithal. In this type of egg,
yolk is aggregated at one pole.
190. (C) Macrolecithal or polylecithal eggs contain very large
amount of yolk e.g. monotremata (Prototherian
mammals) reptiles birds etc.
191. (A) Cleavage of frog is unequal holoblastic occurs in
mesolecithal or telolecithal type of eggs. This
produces unequal sized blastomeres called
micromeres and megameres e.g. amphibians (Frog).
192. (B) Pattern of cleavage in frog’s egg is holoblastic and
unequal because this produces unequal sized
blastomeres called micromeres and macromeres.
194. (C) Yolk is concentrated in the centre of the ovum with
cytoplasm surrounding it as in macrolecithal eggs of
arthropoda.
202. (D) Gastrulation is the process of the embryonic
development during which cell movements establish
the three primary germinal layers namely ectoderm,
mesoderm and endoderm.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.47
203. (C) Connective tissue, bone and cartilage, heart, blood,
muscles and gonads are formed from mesoderm.
209. (C) The archenteron is primitive gut lined by the
endoderm.
210. (D) Transformation of the blastocyst into the gastrula
with primary germ layer by the rearrangement of the
cells is called gastrulation.
213. (D) During gastrulation the dorsal lip of blastopore
appears behind the grey crescent area.
214. (A) Brain is derived from ectodermal layer.
219. (C) The first maturation decision is reductional or
meiotic. Hence, the primary spermatocyte divides into
two haploid daughter cells called secondary
spermatocytes.
220. (C) In vertebrate vertebral column develops from
embryonic notochord.
221. (A) Internal ear develops from embryonic ectoderm layer.
228. (B) Posterior side of future tadepole is represented by
the side of frog’s embryo bearing the yolk plug.
230. (A) Eye (ratina, lens and cornea) derived from embryonic
ectoderm.
231. (C) Allantois acts as an extraembryonic lung by
supplying the embryo with oxygen.
232. (B) The original function of the allantois as a urinary
bladder becomes altogether lost.
234. (C) Allantois is a fold of splanchnopleure developed
from the hind gut of the embryo.
235. (B) In primates including human beings only chorion
forms the placenta (chorionic placenta)
236. (B) Trophoectoderm form placenta which help to draw
food for the developing cells.
237. (C) Extra embryonic membranes (foetal membranes) are
concerned with protection, respiration, excretion, and
nutrition of developing embryo.
238. (D) Amnion provides a kind of private aquarium to the
embryo and protects it from mechanical shock and
desiccation.
241. (C) Chorion is the outermost extra embryonic membrane
of amniotes enclosing the embryo and all its other
membranes.
243. (C) The main function of allantois of mammalian embryo
is nutrition. It is also helps in respiration and
excretion.
245. (C) Peripheral cells of morula become the trophoblast
(trophoectoderm) cells which later produce the four
extra embryonic membranes.
247. (D) Placenta is formed from allantois and chorion e.g.,
Eutherian mammals (Rabbits)
248. (C) Placenta is formed by interlocking of both foetal as
well as maternal tissue.
249. (C) Zonary placenta - villi occur in one or two transverse
bands e.g. Tiger, Lion, Cat, Dog, Elephant.
253. (C) Placenta is the region where foetus receives
nourishment from mother’s blood.
3.48 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
254. (B) Viruses have less molecular weight than plasma
proteins and blood cells.
255. (C) Uterine epithelium, uterine connective tissue and
endothelium of maternal blood vessells are absent
in haemochorial placenta found in human being.
258. (A) Placenta is the special semipermeable structure
through which the exchange of materials between
foetal and maternal circulation occurs.
259. (D) Nerves are not found in placenta.
260. (C) Word endometrium is composed of endo and metra
which in Greek language means within and uterus
respectively i.e., within uterus. Endometrium is the
glandular lining of the uterus in mammals. It
thickens in response to progesterone secretion
duri n g ovul a t ion a nd i s sl oughed off i n
menstruation.
261. (D) About 669 days.
EXERCISE – II
(Previous Year AIPMT Examination Questions)
58. (A) Proliferative phase = follicular phase
Secretory = Luteal phase
Menstruation = Breakdown of uterus line
59. (A) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogen
relaxin, oxytocin = Helps in relaxing muscle &
Parturition Contraction
60. (D) Spermatid  Spermiogenesis sperm
262. (D) Mouse has a gestation period of about 19–20 days.
266. (C) Thiourea is an antithyroid drug, it inhibits
metamorphosis of frog.
269. (C) Archenteron formation begins in early gastrula stage.
271. (A) Tail is present in larval stage of frog but it becomes
degenerated in adult frog.
272. (B) During early embryonic development of frog a
blastula stage comes after morula stage which
contain a small irregular excentric space or cavity
called blastocoel or segmentation cavity apper in
the animal hemisphere.
273. (C) The third cleavage is horizontal (latitudinal or
transverse) but not equatorial it is decidedly nearer
the animal pole and consequently this division results
in the formation of 8 cells.
275. (D) Neoteny refers to retention of a larval or embryonic
trait in the adult body.

EXERCISE – III
(Previous Year AIIMS Solutions)
1. (A) Cessation is the period when ovulation and
menstrual cycle stop in human females. This is
collect menopause
2. (C) In meroblastic cleavage, the line of segmentation
does not completely pass through the egg and
remains confined to a part of the egg.
3. (C) Corpus luteum is found in the ovary and macula lutea
is the yellow spot present in the eyes.
4. (B) All chrodate gill slit in their very early embryo
development.
7. (D) Women give birth to children with severe birth
defects such as missing or underdeveloped limbs.
8. (A) Morphallaxis is the production of an entire animal
from a small fragment whereas epimorphosis is the
replacement of the lost part.
10. (B)
11. (B) Thyroxine helps in the metamorphosis of tadpole.
12. (B) Sperm release some enzymes particularly hyaluronidase
that facilitate the penetration of sperm into ovum.
14. (D) Four sperm cells are produced from one primary sex
cell, whereby only one egg cell is produced, due to
the unequal division of cytoplasm and the formation
of three polar bodies.
HUMAN REPRODUCTION 3.49
16. (B) Leydig cells are the characteristic of mammalian
testis.
17. (A) After one month of pregnancy, the embryo’s heart is
formed.
20. (A) The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH)
increases gradually during the follicular phase and
stimulates follicular development as well as secretion
of estrogens by the growing follicles. Both LH and
FSH attain a peak level in the middle of the cycle
(about 14th day). Rapid secretion of LH leading to its
maximum level during mid-cycle called LH surge
induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby the
release of ovum (ovulation). Concentration of
estrogen in blood is also high around 14th day and
reaches its peak.
21. (B) Coconut and cucurbits are monoecious plants.
Ornithorhynchus is an egg-laying mammal. Whale
is a viviparous mammal. Frog shows external
fertilisation. It takes place in water. Peacock shows
internal fertilisation.
22. (D) It can be explained as Gonadotropin releasing
hormone (GnRH) also called Gonadotropin releasing
Factor (GnRF), is secreted by the hypothalamus of
the brain, which stimulates the anterior lobe, of
pituitary to release follicle stimulating hormone
(FSFJ) and luteinising hormone (LH). FSH stimulates
the ovarian follicles to produce estrogens during
proliferative phase. LH stimulates the corpus luteum
of the ovary to secrete progesterone.
23. (D) In the given figure A represents fusion of male and
female gametes, B is 4 celled blastomere. C shows
the morula stage, i.e., an embryo with 8 blastomeres
and D is the blastocyst which gets implanted in the
uterus.
24. (A) During follicular phase (proliferative phase),
follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) secreted by
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland stimulates the
ovarian follicle to secrete estrogens. Corpus
luteum secretes large amount of progesterone in
secretory phase. Both LH and FSH attain a peak
level in the ovulatory phase.
3.50 HUMAN REPRODUCTION
EXERCISE - IV
1. (A) Death is the ultimate goal of every organism. This is
caused by the wear and tear of organs which
constitute the body of a living being.
2. (C) Old age is the progressive deterioration in the
structure and functioning of cells, tissues and organs
and cessation of immune system.
4. (A) According to programmed senescence theory of
ageing, ageing is a result of switching on and off of
certain genes. B and T-lymphocytes undergo
programmed cell death called Apoptosis.
5. (B) In the absence of fertilization, corpus luteum
degenerates and forms corpus albicans and there is
decrease in progesterone level also.
6. (C) Clitoris is a female reproductive organ. It is
homologous to penis of males. It is not remnant of
penis. It is devoid of erectile tissue and high blood
supply as present in penis. Penis is the copulatory
organ of males.
7. (D) Hyaluronidase is an acrosomal content in mammalian
sperm. It helps at the time of fertilization during the
penetration of sperm into ovum. Mammalian eggs
are alecithal means egg without yolk.
8. (C) Their mode of action is different. Cu-T and Cu-7
discharge 50–75 micrograms of ionic copper into the
uterus daily. These copper ions interfere with life-
sustaining functions that regulate implantation in
the uterus. No any hormone is released by them.
11. (D) The process of delivery of the foetus (childbirth) is
called parturition. Parturition is induced by a complex
neuroendocrine mechanism. The signals for
parturition originate from the fully developed foetus
and the placenta which induce mild uteri
contractions called foetal ejection reflex
13. (D) The nuclear-cytoplasmic ratio goes on increasing as
the cleavage progress. DNA synthesis occurs very
rapidly during cleavage but there is no cytoplasmic
synthesis. The cytoplasmic material are rapidly used
in DNA replication.
14. (B) The process of attachment of the blastocyst
(mammalian blastula) on the endometrium of uterus
is called implantation.
15. (A) Gastrulation is a process by which blastocyst is
changed into a gastrula larva with three primary germ
layers. In this cells of blastodermic vesicle visibly
move in small masses to their final and predetermined
positions. These movements are interdependent and
are called morphogenetic movements.
16. (B) Development of an organism from non-sexual
reproductive units like buds fragments etc. is called
blastogenesis. In asexual reproduction there is no
formation and fusion of gametes.
17. (A) New individuals produced are genetically similar to
the parent and also to each other as mitotic divisions
produce no variations. The trophoblast is developed
from the superficial layer of morula stage with control
implantation and endometrium around the embryo
shows the first sign of a decidual cell reaction.
18. (A) Labia minora fuse anteriorly to form a skin fold called
prepuce infront of a small erectile organ the clitoris
which is homologous to penis, and both are
supported by corpora cavernosa and highly senstive.
19. (C) At puberty in human male is controlled by male sex
hormone testosterone which is secreted by
interstitial or leydig’s cells of testes so secondary
sexual characters develops and at puberty secretion
of testosterone is increase.
20. (B) Infundibulum is funnel shaped end fallopian or
oviduct. The funnel is called oviducal funnel or
fallopian funnel. Its free end bears a number of finger
like processes called fimbriae, but graafian follicle of
ovary is with secondary oocyte hanging in cavity,
called antrum.
21. (B) After ovulation, a raptured follicle turns into a
yellowish solid mass of cells called corpus luteum,
these secretes the female sex hormone progesterone
which maintains the pregnancy.
22. (B) In the female breasts size increases after puberty
under the stimulation of estrogens. Size of breasts is
further increased during pregnancy and after
childbirth under the stimulation of prolaction
hormone.
23. (D) Vegina is tubular female copulatory organ. Passageway
for menstrual flow as well as birth canal. Vegina receives
semen from male during mating but fertilization (fusion
of gametes) in occurs in fallopian tube.
24. (A) Claspers of cartilaginous fishes (sharks) is one pair
between the pelvic fins. Claspers are analogous to
penis of human male both act as copulatory organ
and transfer the sperm into female.
25. (D) Perinial gland are found in rabbit not in human beings.
These are a pair of dark elongated scent glands lying
behind the cowper’s glands. These are sex attractant
secreting glands, its smell serves as sex attractant
for the female.
 4 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
• It refers to health of reproductive organs with normal Barrier Methods
functions and also includes the emotional and social (i) Condom : Male and Female condoms prevent semen from
aspects of reproduction. being deposited in vagina, latex condoms also help STDs.
• According to WHO, reproductive health means a total
well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e. physical,
emotional, behavioural and social.
• India was the first nation in the world to initiate various
action plans at national level towards attaining a
reproductively healthy society.
• 'Family Planning Programmes' were initiated in 1951.
• Reproductive and Child Health Care (RCH) is currently
in operation.
• Its main aspect is to provide medical facilities and care
to the problems like menstrual irregularities, pregnancy
related aspects, delivery, medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP), STD's, birth control, infertility, post Female and Male condoms
natal child and maternal management.
• Counselling and creating awareness among people about
reproductive organs, adolescence and associated
changes, safe and hygienic sexual practices, sexually
transmitted diseases (STD's) including AIDS etc. is the
primary step towards reproductive health.
BIRTH CONTROL:
Improved health facilities and better living conditions has
promoted an explosive growth of population and this has
necessitated intense propagation of contraceptive methods.
Contraception:
Prevention of conception, that is preventing the fusion of male Diaphragm and Cervica Cap
gamete with female gamete.
(ii) Diaphragm and Cervical Caps : These are flexible, dome-
Birth Control: shaped device that are positioned over the cervix before
Includes contraception and any measures taken after fertilization intercourse. These are effective birth control methods
which are designed to prevent birth. filled when filled with spermicide.
• An ideal contraceptive should be user friendly, easily (iii) Vaults Cap : It is hemispheric dome like rubber or plastic
available, effective and reversible with no or least side cap with a thick rim which is meant for fitting over the
effects. vaginal vault over the cervix.
It should in no way interfere with the sexual drive, desire • IUD's : Very effective and popular method. These
of the user. devices are inserted by doctors or nurses in the
• A wide range of contraceptive methods are presently uterus through vagina.
available which can be broadly grouped into different IUDs affect motility of sperms.
categories: (a) Non-medicated (Lippes loop)
Natural/Traditional, Barrier, IUD's, Oral contraceptives, (b) Copper releasing (CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375) : The
Injectables, implants and surgical methods. copper ions suppress the motility and fertilization
• Natural methods : Work on the principle of avoiding capacity of sperms.
chances of ovum and sperms meeting. (c) Hormone releasing (Progestasert, LNG-20): make
• Barrier methods: Common barrier methods are condoms, the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the
diaphragm, and cervical cap. cervix hostile to the sperms.
4.2 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

• Oral contraceptives: Oral administration of small
doses of either progesterones or progestogen–
estrogen combinations.
• Oral contraceptives inhibit the release of LH and
FSH from the anterior pituatory, they prevent
maturation of the developing follicle and thereby
block ovulation.
• Surgical methods/Sterilization– Terminal method to
prevent any more pregnancies. Surgical intervention
blokes gamete transport and thereby conception.

(i) Vasectomy (Cut in vasa deferntia)

(ii) Tubectomy (Cut in Fallopian tubes)

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.3
 4.4 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
• Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before
full term is called medicle termination of pregnancy.
• It has been legalised in our country.
• It is generally performed to get rid of unwanted
pregnancy due to rapes, casual realtionship, etc. as also
in cases when the continuation of pregnancy could be
harmful or even fatal to either the mother, or the foetus
or both.
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD's)
• Diseases or infections transmitted through sexual
intercourse are called Sexually Transmitted Diseases
(STD's) or Venereal Diseases (VD) or Reproductive Tract
Infections (RTI).
eg. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis,
genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis–B, AIDS.
• Many of these are transmitted by sharing of injection
needles, surgical instruments, etc. with injected persons,
blood transfusion or from injected mother to the foetus.
• Their early symptoms includes minor or major itching,
fluid discharge, slight pain, swelling etc. in genital region.
• These can lead to complications like Pelvic Inflammatory
Disease (PID's), still birth, infertility, ectopic pregnancies etc.
Infertility
• Inability to conceive or produce children even after
2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called
infertility.
• The reasons for infertility could be physical, congenital
diseases, drugs, immunological.
• Specialised health care units (like infertility clinics) help
in diagnosis and corrective treatment of some of these
disorders and enable these couples to have children .
• Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) are special
techniques that assist to have children where above
mentioned corrections are not possible.
Some of these techniques are
• In vitro fertilization followed by transfer of embryo into
the female genital tract. It is commonly called Test Tube
Baby Programme. In this method, ova from the wife /
donor (female) and sperms from husband/donor (male)
are collected and are induced to form zygote under
simulated conditions in the laboratory.
• ZIFT-Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer - the zygote or
ea rly em bryos (upto 8 blastom eres) could be
transferred into the fallopian tube and embryos with
more than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT - Intra
Uter i ne Tr ansfe r ), t o com pl ete i t s fur th er
development.
• Embryos formed by in-vivo fertilisation (fusion of
gametes within the female) also could be used for
such transfer to assist those females who cannot
conceive.
• GIFT - Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer- An ovum
collected from a donor can be transferred into the
fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce
one, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation
and further development.
• Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) is another
specialised procedure to form an embryo in the
laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into
the ovum.
• Artificial Insemination (AI) - In this technque the
semen collected either from the husband or a healthy
donor is artificial introduced either into the vagina or
into the uterus (IUI - Intra-Uterine Insemination) of
the female. Infertility cases either due to inability of
the male partner to inseminate the female or due to
very low sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be
corrected by this technique.
• All these techniques require extremely high precision
handling by specialised professionals and expensive
instrumentation.
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.5

SOLVED EXAMPLES
1. When births are equal to deaths. It is called (C) Total count of individuals
(A) Plateau stage (D) Fertility rate
(B) Exponential growth stage Sol. (A) The percentage ratio of natality over mortality is
(C) Early growth stage known as vital index i.e., natality/mortality × 100. It
(D) Acceleration stage determines the growth of a population.
Sol. (A) Stationary (Plateau) phase – Finally, growth rate 8. The term population explosion means
becomes stable because mortality and natality rates (A) Migration of human population from one place to
become equal to each other. So there is zero growth another
rate. (B) Tremendous rate of growth in human population
2. For better survival of the human population which of the (C) (A) and (B) both
following steps is most important?
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(A) Reduction in the use of various resources
Sol. (B) The high rate of growth is often referred to as
(B) Afforestation
“population explosion”. The word “explosion may
(C) Conservation of wild life be defined as a rapid and expansive change of state.
(D) Ban on mining activity 9. July 11 is observed as
Sol. (C) Conservation of wild life conserves the ecosystem
(A) World population day
in its natural form. Future of man depends on
ecological balance. (B) No tobacco day
3. ‘Essay on population’ was published by (C) World environment day
(A) Malthus (B) Lamarck (D) World health day
(C) Darwin (D) Mendel Sol. (A) The five billionth baby was born on July 11, 1987,
Sol. (A) Thomas R.Malthus (1778 A.D.). it has been observed as world population day.
4. The study of human population statistically is known as 10. Legally acceptable term of abortion is
(A) Chromology (A) MTP
(B) Demography (B) MMTP
(C) Population science (C) MTTP
(D) Sinography (D) None
Sol. (B) The scientific study of human population is called Sol. (A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy.
demography. It deals with 11. The most important component of the oral contraceptive
(i) Change in population pills is
(ii) Composition of population (A) Progesterone
(iii) Distribution of population in space. (B) Growth hormone
5. Most literate state of India is (C) Thyroxin
(A) Kerala (B) Goa (D) Luteinizing hormone
(C) U.P. (D) Sikkim Sol. (A) Progesterone hormone suspends ovulation in female
Sol. (A) Literacy rate of Kerala is 90.59% as per 1991 census. by which pregnancy can be avoided.
6. Closely related, morphologically similar sympatric 12. Generally there was population growth rate increase in
populations, but reproductively isolated, are designated India, but in which of the following year there was
as decrease in population growth rate?
(A) Clones (B) Demes (A) 1921 (B) 1941
(C) Clines (D) Sibling species (C) 1951 (D) 1971
Sol. (D) Sibling species are those pairs or groups of species Sol. (A) 1921 census was the only one till date which showed
in which specific difference only appear in a single a negative growth rate 0.31%.
sex, members of the opposite sex being apparently 13. Amniocentesis is the withdrawl of amniotic fluid in
all alike. (A) Menopause (B) Lactation
7. The percentage ratio of natality over mortality is called (C) Gestation (D) Pregnancy
(A) Vital index Sol. (D) Aminiotic fluid is secreted by amnion of foetus during
(B) Population density pregnancy.
4.6 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
14. According to 1991, census, the minimum percent of
population increase is in the state
(A) Kerala (B) Tamilnadu
(C) West Bengal (D) Madhya Pradesh
Sol. (A) In last census (1991), Kerala registered the lowest
growth rate of 13.98% but according to census 2001
lowest decenial population growth Kerala (9.42%).
NCERT BASED QUESTIONS
1. Reproductive health refers only to healthy reproductive
functions. Comment.
2. Comment on the Reproductive and Child Health Care
programme of the government to improve the
reproductive health of the people.
3. The present population growth rate in India is alarming.
Suggest ways to check it.
4. STDs can be considered as self-invited diseases.
Comment.
5. Suggest the reproduction-related aspects in which
counselling should be provided at the school level.
6. Mention the primary aim of the “Assisted Reproductive
Technology” (ART) programme.
7. What is the significance of progesterone-estrogen
combination as a contraceptive measure?
8. Strict conditions are to be followed in medical termination
of pregnancy (MTP) procedures. Mention two reasons.
9. Males in whom testes fail to descend to the scrotum are
generally infertile. Why?
10. Mention two advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a
contraceptive method.
11. Suggest some important steps that you would
recommend to be taken to improve the reproductive
health standards in India.
12. The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female
gamete to the fallopian tube. Can gametes be transferred
to the uterus to achieve the same result? Explain.
15. According to 1991 census, the number of females per
1000 males is
(A) 941 (B) 932
(C) 936 (D) 929
Sol. (A) According to 1991 census the number of females per
1000 males is 929 but according to 2001 census
933 F : 1000 M.
13. Copper ions-releasing IUDs are more efficient than non-
medicated methods. Why?
14. What are the probable factors that contributed to
population explosion in India?
15. Briefly explain IVF and ET what are the conditions in
which these methods are advised?
16. What are the advantages of natural methods of
contraception over artificial methods?
17. What are the conditions in which medical termination of
pregnancy is advised?
18. Comment on the essential features required for an ideal
contraceptive.
19. All reproductive tract infections RTIs are STDs, but all
STDs are not RTIs. Justify with example.
20. What are the Assisted Reproductive Techniques
practised to help infertile couples? Describe any three
techniques.
21. Discuss the mode of action and advantages/
disadvantages of hormonal contraceptives.
22. STDs are a threat to reproductive health. Describe
any two such diseases and suggest preventive
measures.
23. Do you justify the statutory ban on aminocentesis in our
country? Give reasons.
24. Enumerate and describe any five reasons for introducing
sex education to school-going children.
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.7

EXERCISE - I
1. Slow growth was due to high birth and high death rate 11. Population surge 230 years ago was due to
which was at the time of stage of (A) Industrial revolution
(A) Agriculture and lower economic status (B) Agricultural revolution
(B) Agriculture and medium economic status (C) Cultural revolution
(C) Partial industrialised status (D) Intellectual revolution
(D) Undeveloped ancient economic status 12. The minimum death rate of a population is called
2. Which of the following is not a part/component of (A) Actual death rate (B) Mortality potential
population? (C) Population decline (D) Received mortality
(A) Mortality 13. The rate of natural increase in human population refers to
(B) Natality (A) Birth rate
(C) Biotic factors (B) Mortality
(D) Psychological factors (C) Natality minus death rate
3. In a specific area, the negros, aryans, smartians and (D) Birth rate plus death rate
mongolians are living. They constitute 14. As a country becomes industrialised its population
(A) A group growth
(B) Monospecific population (A) Gradually increases (B) Gradually decreases
(C) Polyspecific population (C) Rapidly comes down (D) Becomes stable
(D) Heterogenous population 15. The abundance of a species population within its habitat
4. Distribution of population on earth is is called
(A) Uniform (B) Random (A) Niche density (B) Absolute density
(C) Congregative (D) Unequal (C) Relative density (D) Regional density
5. Which of the following is not included under barrier 16. In case of a person suffering from syphilis, the chancre
methods of birth control? formation occurs during
(A) Vaginal pouch (B) Diaphragm (A) Primary stage (B) Secondary stage
(C) Tertiary stage (D) Neurosyphilis stage
(C) Cervical cap (D) Implant
17. Which of the following stage of syphilis is characterised
6. Sexually transmitted diseases can get transmitted easily
by a skin rash, fever and aches in the joints and muscles?
during use of
(A) Primary stage (B) Secondary stage
(A) Diaphragm (B) Cervical cap
(C) Tertiary stage (D) Neurosyphilis stage
(C) Birth control pills (D) All of these
18. The ‘symptomless’ period or latent period in case of
7. The diaphragm is rubber dome shape structure and stops
syphilis may last for
the sperms from entering into.
(A) 1-5 weeks (B) 6.24 weeks
(A) Vstibule (B) Vagina
(C) 4-12 weeks (D) 20 years
(C) Cervix (D) Both (A) & (B)
19. Which of the following STD and its causative agent is
8. In the rhythm method of birth control, the couple refrains not correctly matched?
from intercourse
(A) Genital warts : Haemophilus ducreyi
(A) One day before and after ovulation
(B) Syphilis : Treponema pallidum
(B) Two days before and after ovulation
(C) Genital herpes : Type II Herpes simplex
(C) Three days before and after ovulation virus (HSV-2)
(D) One week before and after ovulation, (D) Trichomoniasis : Trichomonas vaginalis
9. Which of the following method is used during abortion? 20. Which of the following cells are infected in a person
(A) Vacuum aspiration suffering from AIDS?
(B) Infusion of a saline solution (A) CD4 receptor cells (B) CD8 receptor cells
(C) Scraping (C) Macrophages (D) Germ cells
(D) All of these 21. The growth of population is determined by
10. Action of which of the following hormone is blocked (A) Biotic potential only
during use of RU 486 (mifepristone)? (B) Environmental resistance only
(A) FSH (B) LH (C) Emigration only
(C) Progesterone (D) hCG (D) (A) and (B) both
4.8 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

22. “In the absence of environmental resistance the 32. The socio-religious cause of growth in population is
population grows in geometrical ratio when the food is (A) Early marriages only
given in arithmetical ratio’’. This is (B) Non-adoption of family planning methods only
(A) Kenze theory of population (C) Desire to have male heir only
(B) Malthus theory of human population (D) All of the above
(C) Kenze theory modified by malthus 33. Appropriate and better investment is essential for the
(D) None of the above direct
23. The process by which individuals are included into a (A) Solution of problems of the world
population is known as (B) Solution of the personnel problems
(A) Immigration (B) Emigration (C) Development of the country
(C) Migration (D) (A) and (B) both (D) All of the above
24. The natural growth rate of population is checked by 34. The cause of zero growth of population is
certain factors. These are known as (A) No individual is added
(A) Population growth control (B) Natality is zero
(B) Environmental resistance (C) No growth
(C) Natural resistance of healthy population (D) Additions and deletions are equal
(D) None of the above 35. How many persons are added to the Indian population
25. In India, if the marriage age is changed to 21 years then per year?
(A) Population growth rate will be unaffected (A) 13.6 million (B) 36 million
(B) Population growth rate will decrease (C) 80 million (D) 137 million
(C) Population growth rate will increase 36. Accumulation of national resources and saving is
(D) None of the above known as
26. The capacity of an environment to pull on a limited (A) Society betterment (B) National saving
number of individuals is known as (C) National production (D) (A) and (C) both
(A) Bearing capacity
37. The apex of age pyramid of a stationary population is
(B) Limited capacity
(A) Very narrow (B) Broad
(C) Environmental resistance
(C) Not much difference (D) Equal to base
(D) Carrying capacity
38. Population growth is reduced by the environmental
27. Main factor in increasing the population is
resistance. This phase is
(A) More reproductive capacity
(B) Early marriage (A) Steady phase (B) Exponential phase
(C) Higher natality and lower mortality (C) Lag phase (D) All of the above
(D) Suitable and favourable environment 39. Housing problems, health problems, pollution problems
28. The standard of living is very badly affected by etc. are created by the
(A) Pollution (A) Low working capabilities of persons
(B) Housing problem (B) Non-availability of national resources
(C) Population growth rate (C) Higher population growth rate
(D) (A) and (B) both (D) (A) and (B) both
29. When environmental conditions are favourable, then 40. The primary cause behind rapidly growing population
population growth curve will be of the world in recent times is
(A) Sigmoid (B) ‘J’ Shaped
(A) Improvement in the standard of living
(C) ‘S’ shaped (D) (A) and (C) both
(B) Decrease in death rate
30. The graph in exponential growth will be
(A) Sigmoid (B) ‘J’ shaped (C) Increase in birth rate
(C) ‘S’ shaped (D) (A) and (C) both (D) Heating of earth
31. Which one of the following is not the consequences of 41. In the population curve of India, nowadays the
the population explosion? number of
(A) Unemployment and poverty (A) N = M
(B) Pollution and housing problem (B) M > N
(C) Low natality and high mortality (C) M < N
(D) Scarcity of food available (D) Deaths and births both are more
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.9

42. Number of death and birth in the last stage of plateau 53. Cause of decline of population in 1927 was
growth curve of a population will be (A) First world war (B) Flood
(A) Equal unlike of middle stage (C) Lack of food (D) Second world war
(B) Unequal with more deaths 54. The bio–index number means
(C) Unequal with less deaths (A) Natality – Mortality (B) Natality × Mortality
(D) Equal like of middle stage (C) Mortality – Natality (D) Natality/Mortality
43. Main cause of population explosion in the world is 55. Carrying capacity of earth is
(A) Excellent job facilities (A) 5000 millions (B) 50,000 millions
(B) Increase in agricultural production (C) 5,00,000 millions (D) 50,00,000 millions
(C) Excellent health care 56. Population density means
(D) Fewer battles and wars (A) The number of human per unit area
44. Happiness, health and prosperity of the population of (B) The number of human in a unit area at a specific time
a place depends upon (C) The concentration of human population at a place
(A) Environment (B) High birth rate (D) None of above
(C) Social status (D) Availability of work 57. Capacity of the environment in which a species can get
45. There is a continuous increase in the growth rate maximum nutrition is called
(population) of the world. It is due to (A) Carrying capacity (B) Growth capacity
(A) Increase in the fertility (C) Population density (D) Death rate
(B) Supply of more food 58. If the age pyramid of a population is bell shaped, it
(C) Industrialization will show
(D) Decrease in the death of children (A) Low percentage of children
46. Human population growth curve of today is (B) High percentage of children
(A) Of ‘J’ shape (C) High percentage of olds
(B) Of ‘S’ shape changed from `J’ shape (D) None of these
(C) Of ‘S’ shape 59. When there is an exponential growth in a population,
(D) Of parabolic shape then it will be called as
47. High growth at the time of exponential phase of human (A) Carrying capacity
population growth curve is due to (B) Log stage
(A) High birth and death rates (C) Negative acceleration phase
(B) High birth and low death rate (D) Positive acceleration phase
(C) Low birth and high death rate 60. Human population after 17th century A.D. is thought to
be in
(D) Low birth and death rates
(A) Lag phase (B) Exponential phase
48. Exponential growth in human population was done in
(C) Stationary phase (D) None of these
(A) Lag phase (B) Log phase
61. The impact of human population is directly related to
(C) Plateau stage (D) First stage (A) Standard of living
49. The stationary phase of a population occurs when (B) Food supply and housing
(A) Natality > Mortality (B) Natality = Mortality (C) Health and medical care
(C) Mortality > Natality (D) Natality = 0 (D) All of the above
50. Which type of curve will be for the coming century? 62. Rate of human population growth is
(A) Circular (B) Parabolic (A) Directly proportional to good weather
(C) Triangular (D) Trapezium (B) Directly proportional to industrial development
51. The declining phase of a population occurs when (C) Inversely proportional to education
(A) Mortality > Natality (D) Directly proportional to the use of drugs
(B) Natality > Mortality 63. Which of the following does not help in the control of
(C) Mortality = Natality population growth?
(D) Natality = Mortality = 0 (A) Decreased birth rate
52. The different age group in a population is classified by (B) Increased contraceptive use
(A) Reproduction rate (B) Death rate (C) Decreased death rate
(C) Age of marriage (D) Sex ratio (D) Increased literacy
4.10 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

64. Hereditary diseases constitute an important factor in 73. Information on birth-rate, death-rate, sex-ratio, age
checking the growth of population of a small distribution of a population can be got from
community if (A) Natality table
(A) They marry only within the community (B) Mortality table
(B) They encourage marriage outside the community (C) Age distribution table
(C) They adopt birth control measures (D) Life table
(D) They do not adopt birth control measures 74. The measure of maximum rate of reproduction under
65. During the lag phase of population growth curve there optimal conditions is known as
was very less growth due to (A) Population growth
(A) High birth and death rate (B) Biotic potential
(B) Low birth and death rate (C) Carrying capacity
(C) High birth and low death rate (D) None of these
(D) Low birth and high death rate 75. Which of the following factors regulate human life with
66. Pertaining to human population if there is a decrease in reference to population density?
competition, it would be the result of (A) Availability of blood, housing and health facilities
(A) High population density (B) Urbanization
(B) Explosion of population density (C) Climatic conditions
(C) Stable but high population density (D) All the above
(D) Low population density 76. Environmental resistance includes factor
67. According to which theory will be the human population (A) Shortage of food
out-run food supply? (B) Diseases and predation
(A) Altrusian theory (B) Malthusian theory (C) Limited space
(C) Eltons theory (D) Kalthusian theory (D) All the above
68. A force which acts against the achievement of highest 77. The environmental resistance means
possible level to population growth is known as
(A) The environmental factors which tend to maintain
(A) Population pressure homoeostasis by regulating emigration
(B) Saturation level
(B) Factors imposing check on population size
(C) Carrying capacity
(C) Resistance of a species to the environmental factors
(D) Environmental resistance which impose a check on population size
69. Density of human population is determined predominatly by
(D) Physiological capacity of a species to resist changes
(A) Socio-cultural factors in the environment
(B) Cold temperature of the environment 78. Exponential phase of human growth started about
(C) Availability of plenty of water (A) 1 A.D. (B) 1600 A.D.
(D) Availability of good food
(C) 1750 A.D. (D) 1975 A.D.
70. In the population having high growth rate, the age
79. The concept that “Population tends to increase
pyramid is shown by
geometrically while food supply increases arithmetically’’
(A) Straight pyramid shaped
was put forward by
(B) Bell shaped
(A) Thomas Malthus
(C) Parabola shaped
(D) None (B) Adam Smith
71. Which of the following is not a controlling factor of (C) Stuart Mill
population density? (D) Charles Darwin
(A) Psychological factor 80. In India, the population growth
(B) Geographical factor (A) Like some animal species, human population is likely
(C) Socioeconomic factor to reach zero population growth level
(D) Demographic factor (B) Can be reduced by natural calamities and birth
72. In a population where competition between individuals control methods
is severe, then the distribution is said to be (C) Like many animal species, it is also going to take
(A) Random (B) Uniform sigmoid curve
(C) Irregular (D) Non-random (D) Can be controlled by adopting national family welfare
programmes
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.11

81. Two opposite forces operate in the growth and 93. Population of India in early 21st century may be
development of every population. One of them related (A) 105 crores (B) 125 crores
to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force (C) 95 crores (D) 155 crores
opposite to it is called 94. Explosion of population in India is due to
(A) Biotic control (A) Climate (B) Limited education
(B) Mortality (C) Increased natality (D) All of the above
(C) Fecundity
95. Average ratio of men and women in human population is
(D) Environmental resistances
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 1 : 1
82. Population termed r-strategists
(C) 3 : 4 (D) 1 : 4
(A) Have J-shaped growth curves
96. The Netherlands is a small country still it has a high
(B) Have type III survivorship curves
population. Reason you conclude is, can be
(C) Are usually pioneer species
(A) All places are equally inhabitable
(D) All of these
(B) Low death rate
83. Zero growth means :
(C) High birth rate
(A) Natality balances mortality
(D) Environmental conditions are very favourable
(B) Natality is more than mortality
97. The 20th century has witnessed a remarkable increase in
(C) Natality is less than mortality
the population of the world and specially so in India.
(D) Natality is zero One major factor for this is that
84. Population growth curve in most animals, except
(A) Older people have began to live longer
humans is
(B) More children are born in each family
(A) S–shaped (B) J–shaped
(C) More children per family have began to reach the
(C) J–shaped with tail (D) S–shaped with tail
reproductive age
85. The best solution to population problem in India is to
(D) More people are marrying in younger age group
(A) Conserve natural resources
98. Which of the following state has the highest population
(B) Increase medical facilities
density?
(C) Reduce the birth rate
(A) West Bengal
(D) Increase food production
(B) Madhya Pradesh
86. What percentage of the world population lives in India?
(C) Nagaland
(A) 14.8% (B) 16.2%
(D) Maharashtra
(C) 21.2% (D) 21.4%
99. The centre of WHO is at
87. Per year growth in India’s population according to 1991
census is (A) Geneva (B) Paris
(A) 2.22% (B) 2.23% (C) Delhi (D) New York
(C) 2.11% (D) 2.13% 100. The least densely populated state of India is
88. Developing country having high death rate is (A) Kerala (B) Sikkim
(A) India (B) Bangladesh (C) Mizoram (D) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Pakistan (D) Nepal 101. Higher human population in cities is mainly due to
89. At present total population of the world is about (A) Lot of opportunity for education
(B) Availability of clean drinking water
(A) 4.5 billions (B) 5.2 billions
(C) 6.2 billions (D) None of the above (C) Better sanitation
(D) Higher income resources
90. Highest and lowest population in India is in
(A) M.P. and Tripura 102. The minimum number of females per 1000 males are
found in
(B) U.P. and Sikkim
(A) Sikkim (B) Goa
(C) Maharashtra and Nagaland
(C) Andaman (D) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh and Assam
103. In India the number of females per thousands males had
91. Ratio of birth and death rates according to 1991 census is
been constantly decreasing but in which of the following
(A) 29 : 12 (B) 33 : 14 years, the number had been increased?
(C) 36 : 15 (D) 37 : 9 (A) 1971–1981
92. Number of females is more than males in (B) 1981–1991
(A) Gujrat (B) Orissa (C) 1951–1961
(C) Tamilnadu (D) Kerala (D) 1961–1971
4.12 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

104. According to 1991 census, the maximum percent of 118. Presently, the world population doubles after every
population increase is in the state (A) 15 years (B) 20 years
(A) Assam (B) Punjab (C) 30 years (D) 35 years
(C) Nagaland (D) Goa 119. Sex ratio in a species indicates the numerical relation
105. According to 1991 census, the population density of between the number of
Madhya Pradesh is (A) Male and female producing gametes
(A) 159 persons/sq. km (B) 168 persons/sq. km (B) Blacks and whites
(C) 149 persons/sq. km (D) 126 persons/sq. km (C) Unisexual and bisexual
106. The percentage of population of India living in M.P. at (D) None of the above
present is 120. According to 1991 census, rural population of India is
(A) 7.60% (B) 7.84% (A) 70 % (B) 76 %
(C) 7.67% (D) 7.77% (C) 41 % (D) 57 %
107. Population density of India is 121. The present population of the world is about
(A) 215/sq. km (B) 200/sq. km (A) 500 million (B) 100 million
(C) 400/sq. km (D) None of the above (C) 15 trillion (D) 6 billion
108. According to the population of world, India is placed at 122. In which one of the following the birth rate is high and
(A) First (B) Second death rate is normal?
(C) Third (D) Fourth (A) India and Morocco (B) America and Spain
109. In the population of world, how many persons are added (C) Sweden (D) Indonesia
per year? 123. Certain characteristic demographic features of
(A) 4.11 crores (B) 5.5 crores developing countries are
(C) 8 crores (D) 10 crores (A) High infant mortality, low fertility uneven population
110. The country having negative population growth rate is growth and a very young age distribution.
(A) Germany (B) France (B) High mortality, high density, uneven population
(C) Sweden (D) America growth and a very old age distribution.
111. The population of India at the time of Christ was (C) High fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality rate,
approximately rapid population growth and a very young age
(A) 10 – 14 crores (B) 2 – 3 lakhs distribution.
(C) 2 – 3 millions (D) 10 – 15 lakhs (D) High fertility, high density, rapidly rising mortality
112. The population growth of India from 1981 to 1991 is rate and a very young age distribution.
(A) 24.75% (B) 23.41% 124. Which of the following is the most sparsely populated
state of India?
(C) 23.75% (D) 24.41%
(A) Manipur (B) Rajasthan
113. The population growth rate is maximum in
(C) Meghalaya (D) Arunachal Pradesh
(A) Singapore (B) India
125. MTP means
(C) Pakistan (D) Bangladesh
(A) Many transferable pregnancies
114. The most densely populated city in India is
(B) Medically temporary pregnancy
(A) Calcutta (B) Delhi
(C) Medical termination of pregnancy
(C) Bombay (D) Bangalore
(D) Multiple temporary pregnancy
115. According to the population of different states of India,
Madhya Pradesh is placed at which position? 126. Action of jelly and cream is
(A) Fourth (B) Fifth (A) Spermicidal and immovalizing the sperms also
(C) Sixth (D) Seventh (B) Entangles the sperms
116. Total population of the world till the end of 20th century (C) Preventing the ova to be released
will become (D) Enables the sperms to reach towards ovum speedly
(A) 5 × 109 (B) 5.35 × 109 127. Action of contraceptive is
(C) 7.5 × 109 (D) 6 × 109 (A) Prevent the ovulation only
117. According to population every ...... person of the world (B) Prevention of ovulation and fertilization only
is an Indian. (C) Prevention of ovulation, fertilization and implantation
(A) Fifth (B) Sixth only
(C) Seventh (D) Eighth (D) Prevent the rapid passing of eggs in oviduct
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.13

128. What is the function of copper -T? (C) Vasectomy

(A) Checks mutation (D) Acceptability of the above by the people
(B) Stops fertilization 139. Trade name of weekly oral contraceptive pill is
(C) Stops zygote formation (A) Mala (B) Saheli
(D) Stops oblituation of blastocoel (C) Mala A (D) Mala D
129. Action of vaginal diaphragm is 140. Daily oral contraceptive pill is
(A) Prevent the ova to come in the uterus (A) Mala C (B) Mala N and Mala D
(B) Prevent the sperm to come in contact with ova (C) Mala A (D) Mala D
(C) Spermicidal 141. Test tube babies are produced by
(D) Anti–implantational (A) Fertilising the egg removed from the body of the
130. Surgical removal or cutting and ligation of the ends of female with the husband’s sperm outside in vitro
oviduct is known as culture. The zygote is transferred back
(A) Tubectomy (B) Oviductomy (B) External fertilisation and development in vitro culture
(C) Vasectomy (D) Ovarioctomy till 32 cells stage before putting the embryo back
131. Surgical removal of testes is known as into mother’s uterus
(A) Testectomy (B) Gonadectomy (C) Complete development of a baby in vitro
(C) Castration (D) None (D) Development upto 32 cells stage and transplanting
embryo in the uterus of a surrogate mother
132. Removal of a segment surgically and ligation of cut ends
of vas deferens is known as 142. Which one of the following is tested by the technique
of amniocentesis?
(A) Tubectomy (B) Vasectomy
(A) Biochemical abnormalities in the foetus
(C) Gonadectomy (D) Castration
(B) Errors of metabolism in the foetus
133. Test tube baby means a baby born when
(C) Chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus
(A) It develops from a non-fertilized egg
(D) All of the above
(B) It developed in a test tube
143. Foetal sex can be determined by examining cells from the
(C) It is developed through tissue culture method amniotic fluid by looking for
(D) The ovum is fertilised externally and thereafter (A) Barr bodies (B) Autosomes
implanted in the uterus (C) Chiasmata (D) Kinetochore
134. The latest technique to produce the child is GIFT. The 144. Amniocentesis is a process to
full form is (A) Determine any disease in heart
(A) Gametic internal fertilization and transfer (B) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(B) Gametic intra-fallopian transfer (C) Know about the disease of brain
(C) Gametic internal fallopian transplant (D) All of these
(D) General internal fallopian transfer 145. Which of the following is a method for birth control?
135. The mechanical measure of population control includes (A) IUDS (B) GIFT
(A) Condom only (B) Diaphragm only (C) HTF (D) IVE-ET
(C) IUD only (D) All of the above 146. Which of the following STDs is caused by the human
136. The chemical method of contraception includes papilloma virus (HPV) and are transmitted through
(A) Jellies only intimate contact with infected person?
(B) Creams and foams only (A) Genital’ herpes (B) Genital warts
(C) Oral contraceptives only (C) AIDS (D) Chlamydia
147. Norplant is
(D) All of the above
(A) A kind of plant (B) A fertilizer factory
137. Through amniocentesis foetal cells can be cultured and
(C) A contraceptive
tested for detecting various diseases of foetus by
(D) A power generation plant
(A) Karyotype (B) Enzyme production
148. At what stage of the ovarian cycle are mammalian eggs
(C) DNA analysis (D) All of them most likely to become fertilized?
138. The success of birth control programmes in controlling (A) At the beginning of proliferative phase
population growth is dependent on (B) Immediately after ovulation
(A) Use of contraceptives (C) During the middle of the secretory phase
(B) Tubectomy (D) During the menstrual phase
4.14 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

149. Which of the following is an important detection 155. Amniocentesis is used for determining
technique for syphilis? (A) Heart disease
(A) Gram staining of the discharge (B) Brain disease
(B) Nucleic acid hybridisation, PCR (C) Hereditary disease of the embryo
(C) Antibody detection e.g., VDRL (D) All of the above
(D) Microscopic examination of culture 156. Surrogate mother is used for
150. World Population Day is celebrated on (A) Induction of lactation
(A) 11th July (B) 21st September (B) Artificially inseminated female
(C) 7th April (D) 1st July (C) Future mother with transplanted embryo
151. Which of the following cannot protect the user from (D) Artificial insemination
contracting STDs and AlDs? 157. A contraceptive pill contains
(A) Diaphragm (B) Cervical caps (A) Progesterone and ostrogen
(C) Vaults (D) All of these (B) Spermicidal salts
152. MTPs are considered relatively safe up to ____ weeks (C) Chemicals that cause automatic abortion
of pregnancy? (D) Chemicals that prevents fertilization of ovum
(A) 12 weeks (B) 20 weeks 158. Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not
(C) 25 weeks (D) 18 weeks allowing.
153. In amniocentesis, the fluid is taken from (A) Ova formation (B) Fertilization
(A) Foetal blood (C) Implantation (D) None of these
(B) Mother’s blood 159. The method of sterilisation is
(C) Body fluid of mother (A) Loop (B) IUD
(D) Fluid surrounding foetus (C) Diaphragm (D) Tubectomy
154. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of 160. Surgical removal of uterus is called
(A) Amnion (A) Vasectomy (B) Tubectomy
(B) Body fluid of amniotes (C) Hysterectomy (D) Anatomy
(C) Amino acids of protein
(D) Amniotic fluid
EXERCISE - II
(Previous Year AIPMT Examination Questions)
1. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes of (C) suppress sperm motility
action (1-4) in achieving contraception. Select their correct (D) prevent ovulation
matching from the four options that follow: 3. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered
(2008) safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy? (2011)
Method Mode of Action (A) Six weeks
(1) The pill (a) Prevents sperms (B) Eight weeks
reaching cervix (C) Twelve weeks
(2) Condom (b) Prevents implantation (D) Eighteen weeks
(3) Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation 4. Which one of the following is the most wide accepted
(4) Copper-T (d) Semen contains no method of contraception in India, as at present? (2011)
sperms (A) IUDs’ (Intra uterine devices)
Answer codes: (B) Cervical caps
(A) 1 = (c), 2 = (d), 3 = (a), 4 = (b) (C) Tubectomy
(B) 1 = (b), 2 = (c), 3 = (a), 4 = (d) (D) Diaphragms
(C) 1 = (c), 2 = (a), 3 = (d), 4 = (b) 5. The test-tube baby programme employs which one of
(D) 1 = (d), 2 = (a), 3 = (b), 4 = (c) the following techniques? (2012)
2. Cu ions released from copper-releasing Intra Uterine (A) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
Devices (IUDs): (B) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(2010) (C) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(A) make uterus unsuitable for implantation (D) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(B) increase phagocytosis of sperms
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.15

6. What is the figure given below showing in particular? 14. A childless couple can be assisted to have a child through
(2012) a technique called GIFT. The full form of this technique
is: (2015)
(A) Germ cell internal fallopian transfer
(B) Gamete inseminated fallopian transfer
(C) Gamete intra fallopian transfer
(D) Gamete internal fertilization and transfer
15. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following
statement is incorrect ? (2016)
(A) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16
(A) Tubectomy (B) Vasectomy
weeks pregnant.
(C) Ovarian cancer (D) Uterine cancer
(B) It is used for prenatal sex determination
7. Artificial insemination means: (2013)
(C) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
(A) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube
(D) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
containing ova
16. Which of the following approaches does not give the
(B) transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube
defined action of contraceptive? (2016)
containing ova
(A) Barrier methods prevent fertilization
(C) artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor
(B) Intra uterine increase phagocytosis devices of
into the vagina
sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing
(D) introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly
capacity of sperms
into the ovary
(C) Hormonal prevent/retard entry of contraceptives
8. One of the legal methods of birth control is: (2013)
sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
(A) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(D) Vasectomy prevents spermatogenesis
(B) by abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
17. Which of the following is hormone releasing
menstrual cycle
IUD ? (2016)
(C) by having coitus at the time of day break
(A) Lippes loop
(D) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
(B) Cu7
9. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
(C) LNG-20
developing foetus by amniocentesis? (2013)
(D) Multiload 375
(A) Klinefelter syndrome (B) Sex of the foetus
18. Which of the following is incorrect regarding
(C) Down syndrome (D) Jaundice
vasectomy ? (2016)
10. Hysterectomy is surgical removal of: (2015)
(A) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
(A) Mammary glands (B) Uterus
(B) Irreversible sterility
(C) Prostate gland (D) Vas-deference
(C) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
11. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer
(D) No sperm occurs in epididymis
of: (2015)
19. Match the following sexully transmitted diseases
(A) Ovum into the fallopian tube.
(Column –I) with their caustive ager (Column –II) and
(B) Zygote into the fallopian tube.
select the correct option . (2017)
(C) Zygote into the uterus
Column –I Column – II
(D) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.
(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
12. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra
(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
Uterine Device (IUD)? (2015)
(c) Genital warts (iii) Treponemia
(A) Multiload 375 (B) LNG-20
(C) Cervical cap (D) Vault (d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma - Virus
13. Tubectomy is method of sterilization in which: (2015) Options :
(A) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up. (a) (b) (c) (d)
(B) ovaries are removed surgically (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(C) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up. (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(D) uterus is removed surgically (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4.16 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

20. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low 23. Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.
sperm count, which technique will be suitable for [NEET-2019]
fertilisation ? (2017) (1) Multiload 375, Progestasert
(A) Intrauterine transfer (2) Progestasert, LNG-20
(B) Gamete intrcytoplasmic fallopian transfer (3) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
(C) Artificial Insemination (4) Vaults, LNG-20
(D) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection 24. Which of the following contraceptive methods do
21. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s involve a role of hormone ? [NEET-2019]
is (2017) (1) Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills
(A) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity (2) CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptives
of sperms. (3) Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods
(B) They inhibit gametogenesis (4) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency
(C) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation contraceptives
(D) They inhibit ovulation 25. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases in
not completely curable? [NEET-2019]
22. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ [NEET-2018]
(1) Genital warts (2) Genital herpes
(1) is an IUD
(3) Chlamydiasis (4) Gonorrhoea
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen and
prevents ovulation in females.
(3) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing
eggs from getting implanted.
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive

EXERCISE – III
(Previous Year AIIMS Questions)

1. GIFT is [2009] 3. Progestasert and LNG-20 are

(A) transfer of a sperm in fallopian tube of a female with [2013]
the help of injections (A) Implants
(B) transfer of a zygote fertilized in vitro in the fallopian (B) Copper releasing IUDs
tube of female incapable to conceive (C) Non-medicated IUDs
(C) transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into (D) Hormone releasing IUDs
another females fallopian tube who cannot produce 4. What is the figure given below showing in particular?
an ovum but can provide a good environment for [2014]
further development
(D) embryo is developed in vitro and then transferred
into female’s tract
2. What is the function of copper-T? [2012]
(A) Checks mutation
(B) Stops fertilization
(C) Stops zygote formation
(D) Stops oblituation of blastocoel
(A) Ovarian cancer (B) Uterine cancer
(C) Tubectomy (D) Vasectomy
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.17

EXERCISE - IV
(Assertion & Reason Type Questions)
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both the assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion : Copper-T is an effective contraceptive 6. Assertion : Biologically, woman is superior to man.
device in human females. [2011] Reason : A woman provides nutrition to developing
Reason : Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from foetus during gestation and also nourishes
vagina upwards into fallopian tubes. the baby on her milk after its birth.
2. Assertion : HIV infection can be avoided by use of 7. Assertion : Test tube baby has raised several legal
condoms. [2014] problems.
Reason : Condoms secrete anti-viral interferons. Reason : It involves in vitro fertilization followed
3. Assertion : Copper-T is an effective contraceptive by embryo transfer.
device in human females. 8. Assertion : Overpopulation causes a number of socio-
Reason : Copper-T prevents passage of sperms from economic problems.
vagina upwards into Fallopian tubes. Reason : A number of bacterial and viral diseases
4. Assertion : Natality rate increases the population size have been controlled.
and population density both. 9. Assertion : Indo-Gangetic plains have high population
Reason : Natality increases the number of density.
individuals in an area by births. Reason : These have favourable climate and fertile soil.
5. Assertion : In sigmoid growth curve, population finally 10. Assertion : Lemmings of Tundra follow population
stabilizes itself. fluctuations.
Reason : Finally, the death rate increases than the Reason : These show sudden increase in population
birth rate. in short time followed by population crash.

ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE – I

1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (A) 16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (B) 26. (D) 27. (C) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (B)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (D) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (B) 42. (A) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (D) 46. (C) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (B)
51. (A) 52. (A) 53. (C) 54. (D) 55. (B) 56. (B) 57. (A) 58. (A) 59. (B) 60. (B)
61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (C) 64. (A) 65. (A) 66. (D) 67. (B) 68. (D) 69. (D) 70. (A)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (D) 74. (B) 75. (D) 76. (D) 77. (B) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (D)
81. (D) 82. (A) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (B) 88. (A) 89. (C) 90. (B)
91. (B) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (D) 95. (B) 96. (D) 97. (D) 98. (A) 99. (A) 100. (C)
101. (D) 102. (C) 103. (A) 104. (C) 105. (C) 106. (B) 107. (D) 108. (B) 109. (C) 110. (A)
111. (A) 112. (B) 113. (C) 114. (B) 115. (D) 116. (C) 117. (B) 118. (D) 119. (D) 120. (B)
121. (D) 122. (A) 123. (C) 124. (D) 125. (C) 126. (A) 127. (B) 128. (B) 129. (B) 130. (A)
131. (C) 132. (B) 133. (D) 134. (B) 135. (D) 136. (D) 137. (A) 138. (D) 139. (B) 140. (B)
141. (B) 142. (C) 143. (A) 144. (B) 145. (A) 146. (B) 147. (C) 148. (B) 149. (C) 150. (A)
151. (D) 152. (A) 153. (D) 154. (D) 155. (C) 156. (C) 157. (A) 158. (A) 159. (D) 160. (C)
4.18 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

EXERCISE – II

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (D) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (4) 25. (2)

EXERCISE – III

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (C)

EXERCISE – IV

1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (C) 6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (D)

EXPLANATIONS
EXERCISE - I

11. (A) Industrial revolution caused a spurt in human
population and a third phase of growth began in the
18th century.
12. (B) Lowest death rate for a given species in most
favourable condition is called potential mortality.
15. (A) A population of each species within community has
a separate ecological niche.
22.(B) British political economist Thomus Malthus in his
“Essay on the principle of population” (1798) pointed
out that population tend.
23. (A) Individuals can enter the population by either birth
or immigration.
24. (B) A force which acts against the achievement of the
highest possible level of population growth is known
as environmental resistance.
26. (D) Carrying capacity refers to the size of population
that can be maintained indefinitely.
27. (C) The excess of birth over deaths in a year per 1000
in the population is called the growth rate. It is
decrease in death rate and increase in birth rate
which are two primary factor for the increase in
human population.
29. (B) J-sha ped gr owth cur ve is shown by sm al l
population of Reindeer experimentally reared in a
natural environment with plenty of food but no
predator.
30. (B) The J-shaped curve shows three stages-lag phase,
exponential phase and crash phase.
34. (D) If the number of individuals gained from births and
immigration is exactly equal to the number lost due
to death and emigration, then the population shows
zero population growth.
35. (A) According to 2001 census, 17 millions person are
added to the Indian population per year.
37. (D) Stationary or stable population has equal birth and
death rates. So population shows zero population
growth. The pyramid of this type of population is
bell shaped.
40. (B) Factor favouring population growth is decrease in
death rate, increase in life span, better medical
facilities.’
42. (A) In middle stage growth rate is very high due to lack
of environmental resistance, but in last stage growth
rate is very low due to high environmental resistance.
In this phase both natality and mortality is equal to
each other.
43. (C) The main cause of population explosion in the world
is excellent health care as a better medical facilities
control of insect vectors of fatal disease and
epidemics and proper care of new born children and
their mothers.
46. (C) The S-shaped curve (sigmoid curve) is generated
when a population approaches the environment’s
carrying capacity.
48. (B) Log phase or exponential phase is geometrical
increase in population size owing to abundance of
food and other favourable conditions.

49. (B) Stationary phase (zero growth or plateau rate) of
population occurs when birth and death rates are
equal, the population stabilizes around the carrying
capacity of the environment.
51. (A) The declining population has higher death rate than
birth rate. So the population of young members is
lower than that of old members e.g. Japan.
52. (A) The different age group of in a population is
classified by reproduction rate. Human population
has three age groups
(i) Pre reproductive
(ii) Reproductive
(iii) Post reproductive.
54. (D) The percentage ratio of natality over mortality is
known as vital index. i.e. natality/mortality × 100. It
determines the growth of a population.
55. (B) The carrying capacity of earth for human population
is considered to be about 50 billions.
56. (B) Population density of a species is the number of
individual of a species per unit area or volume e.g.,
number of animals per square km. Population density
N(number)
can be calculated as PD 
S(space)
57. (A) Carrying capacity is defined as “feeding capacity of
an environment of an ecosystem for a population of
a species under provided set of conditions”
59. (B) In log stage rapid growth or exponential growth takes
place.
60. (B) Main reason of this rapid decline in doubling rate
was that the exponential phase of human population
growth started in 1750 AD.
67. (B) The human population may outrun food supply
according to Malthusian theory.
74. (B) The reproductive capacity of any population, when
it is unrestricted, is called its biotic potential.
76. (D) Environmental resistances includes those factors in
the environment that act to reduce a populations
increase like food storage, diseases and predation.
79. (A) It was an essay on the priniciples of population by
R.T. Malthus which made Darwin realise that under
intense competition, natural selection operates.
81. (D) Environmental resistance is sum of all the inhibitory
factors of the environment to decrease the
population.
82. (A) During short period of time, some population produce
many offsprings which require little care. Therefore,
these populations usually have a survivorship curve
similar to type III. These tend to have J-shaped
growth curves until some environmental change
causes them to decline usually with in a short time.
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.19
From an evolutionary point of view, such species
have undergone selection to maximize their rate of
natural increase and for this reason they are termed
as r-trategies.
83. (A) Zero growth rate means natality (i.e. birth rate)
balances the mortality (i.e. death rate)
84. (A) Population growth curve in most animals except
human is S-shaped while in humans it is J-shaped.
86. (B) India with a population of 1027 million as 2001 census
stands second in the world. India has only 2.42% of
the world’s land area but supports over 15.5% of the
world population.
87. (B) Annual population growth rate according to 1991
census is 2.23% and according to 2001 census is
2.13%.
88. (A) High death rate in India, according to 2001 census
death rate in India is 8 per 1000.
89. (C) The population of the world has steadily increased
to 5 billion on July 11, 1987 and 6 billion on
October 12, 1999 and 6.2 billion on 2001.
90. (B) According to 2001 census the highest population
state in India is Uttar Pradesh (166 millions) 18.17%
and lowest population in India is Sikkim (5.40 lakh).
91. (B) Ratio of birth and death rates according to 1991
census is 33 : 14 and according to 2001 census
is 26 : 8.
92. (D) In Kerala, there are 1058 females for every 1000 males.
94. (D) Population explosion in India is due to climate,
Limited education, increased natality, early marrige,
religious beliefs and better health care decreased
mortality.
98. (A) According to 2001 census, among the Indian states,
West Bengal had maximum population density of
904 persons per sq.km.
100. (C) Among Indian states, Mizoram has the lowest
population density of 33 persons per sq.km.
104. (C) According to 1991 census, Nagaland registered the
highest growth rate of 56.86% and according to 2001
census is 64.41%.
105. (C) According to 1991 census the population density of
Madhya Pradesh is 149 persons per sq.km. and
according to 2001 census is 196 persons per sq.km.
107. (D) According to 2001 census, India had a population
density of 324 persons per sq. km.
108. (B) According to the population of world, India is placed
at second and China first.
112. (B) The population growth of India from 1981 to 1991 is
23.41% and 1991 to 2001 is 21.34%(–2.52%).
114. (B) The most densely populated city in India is Delhi
(9,294 person per sq. km.)
4.20 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
115. (D) Madhya Pradesh is the 7th largest state population-
wise whereas it is 2nd in term of its geographical
spread.
116. (C) Total population of the world till the end of 20th
century will become 7.5 × 109 = 750 crores.
119. (D) Sex ratio is the ratio between males and females in a
given population. It is generally expressed as number
of females per 1000 males.
121. (D) Fatima is world’s 6 billion child, a female infant born
in Sarajivo (Kosovo) on October 14,1999, and 6.2
billion on 2001.
124. (D) The population density of Arunachal Pradesh is
minimum i.e., 13/km 2 (2001 census) and the
population density of West Bengal is maximum in
Indian states i.e. 904/km 2. Therefore Arunachal
Pradesh is the sparsely populated state of India.
125. (C) Abortion, Technically called MTP-Medical
Termination of Pregnancy. It is termination of
pregnancy before the foetus becomes viable.
128. (B) The copper -T is also known as intra-uterine device.
It is a loop which is placed in the uterus and prevents
fertilization and implantation.
129. (B) Diaphragm and cervical cap are dom-shaped rubber
plastic covers that are fitted on the cervix in the
females vagina and check the entry of sperms into
the uterus.
130. (A) Sterilization provides a permanent and sure birth
control. It is called vasectomy in man and tubectomy
in woman.
131. (C) Permanent method of birth control in which either
testes are surgically removed, called castration.
133. (D) Test tube baby means ovum fertilised outside the
mother body and then implanted in uterus for growth
and development.
EXERCISE – III
(Previous Year AIIMS Solutions)
1. (C) GIFT is an ovum donation programme and its purpose
is to provide ovum to the women who suffer from
infertility
135. (D) The mechanical measure of population control
includes is condom (Nirodh), Diaphragm and cervical
cap and Intra uterine devices (IUDs).
142. (C) Amniocentesis is a technique use for determining
the sex of the foetus and a process to determine any
heriditary disease in the embryo.
143. (A) Amniotic fluid contains foetal skin cells that stained
to determine the presence of sex chromatin (barr
body). The presence of barr body indicates that the
developing foetus is female with 2X chromosome.
144. (B) Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique to
determine the sex and condition of the foetus. In the
early stage of pregnancy, small amount of amniotic
fluid is drawn by surgical needle and then cultured
for study.
145. (A) Intra uterine device (Copper MIT) inhibit fertilization
and help in birth control.
153. (D) In amniocentesis the fluid is taken from aminotic
fluid, which is immediate surrounding of foetus.
154. (D) Amniocentesis involves the analysis of Amniotic
fluid is withdrawn. It contains foetal skin cells and a
number of proteins especially enzymes. The cells
can be cultured in vitro for further examination.
156. (C) Surrogate mother is woman who bears a baby for
another couple.
157. (A) A constraceptive pill contains progesterone and
ostrogen hormone, which prevents ovulation and
helps in birth control.
159. (D) The method of sterilization is tubectomy (female) or
vasectomy (male). While loop, IUD and diaphragm
are temporary way to keep time gap between two
children.
160. (C) Sergical removal of uterus is called hysterectomy.
Vasectomy is surgery of seminal tube or tubectomy
is surgery of fallopian tube. Anatomy is the internal
structure.
2. (B) Copper-T is copper releasing intra uterine devices
(IUD). It increases phagocytosis of sperms within
the uterus and suppress sperm motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms.

EXERCISE - IV
1. (C) Copper-T prevents the fertilization of the egg or
implantation of the embryo.
3. (C) Intrauterine device (IUD) Copper-T is plastic or metal
object placed in the uterus by a doctor. Copper-T
prevents the fertilization of the egg or implantation
of the embryo. Their presence perhaps acts as a
minor irritant and this makes the egg to move down
the fallopian tubes and uterus rather quickly before
fertilization or implantation.
4. (A) Natality is generally expressed as number of births
per 1,000 individuals of a population per year. Crude
birth rate is the number of births per 1,000 persons in
the middle of a given year, i.e., on July 07, It increases
the population size (total number of individuals of a
population) and population density.
5. (C) In sigmoid growth curve, finally, growth rate becomes
stable because mortality and natality rates become
equal to each other and finally the population shows
zero growth rate as birth rate equals death rate.
6. (A) Woman plays an important role in the continuity of
the family and human race. She provides nutrition to
the foetus in her womb for about nine months (280
days) through placenta. Even after birth, she
nourishes the infant on her milk. Hence, biologically
woman is superior to man.
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH 4.21
7. (B) In very rare cases, a surrogate mother may have to
be used to bring up in vitro fertilized ovum to
maturity. Though biological realization of a test tube
baby is a remarkable achievement, it has raised
several ethical and legal problems like the right over
the child.
The technique of in-vitro fertilization followed by
the embryo-transfer in the uterus of the normal female
to start the development and finally leading to normal
birth, is called test tube baby.
8. (B) Uncontrolled growth of population decreases the
growth of any country and also causes many
socio-economic disturbances. Overpopulation
leads to a number of not only national but also
individual’s family problems. Due to bacterial and
viral disease in human have been controlled
population.
9. (A) Soils of Indo-Gangetic plains and the Indus valley
are highly fertile and suitable for agriculture, so these
areas have high population density. Favourable
climate increases population density of a
geographical area because it favours increase in
population growth. High soil fertility favours
population density.
10. (D) Population cycles are regular changes in the
population size. In these, population size is nearly
constant over long period of time. These are caused
by seasonal changes in environment e.g., population
cycles (of 3 to 4 years) of lemmings of Tundras (Elton,
1942). Population crash is rapid decline in population
size and its density is an area due to sudden increase
in mortality.