Chapter 1 Mankiw/Taylor, Economics

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.

1. When the government redistributes income with taxes and welfare, the economy
becomes more efficient.

2. When economists say, "There is no such thing as a free lunch," they mean that all
economic decisions involve trade-offs.

3. Adam Smith's “invisible hand” concept describes how corporate business reaches
into the pockets of consumers like an “invisible hand.”

4. Rational people act only when the marginal benefit of the action exceeds the
marginal cost.

5. The European Union will benefit economically if we eliminate trade with Asian
countries because its citizens will be forced to produce more of their own cars
and clothes.

6. When a jet flies overhead, the noise it generates is an externality.

7. A tax on alcoholic drinks raises the price of alcoholic drinks and provides an
incentive for consumers to drink more.

8. An unintended consequence of public support for higher education is that low

tuition provides an incentive for many people to attend state universities even if
they have no desire to learn anything.

9. Sue is better at cleaning and Bob is better at cooking. It will take fewer hours to
eat and clean if Bob specializes in cooking and Sue specializes in cleaning than if
they share the household duties evenly.

10. High and persistent inflation is caused by excessive growth in the quantity of
money in the economy.

11. In the short run, a reduction in inflation tends to cause a reduction in

unemployment.

12. A car manufacturer should continue to produce additional cars as long as the firm
is profitable, even if the cost of the additional units exceeds the price received.

13. An individual farmer is likely to have market power in the market for wheat.

14. To a student, the opportunity cost of going to a football match would include the
price of the ticket and the value of the time that could have been spent studying.

15. Workers in the countries of Western Europe have a relatively high standard of
 living because those countries have relatively high minimum wage rates.

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16. Which of the following involve a trade-off?

a. Taking a nap
b. All of these answers involve trade-offs.
c. Watching a football game on Saturday afternoon
d. Going to university
e. Buying a new car

17. Trade-offs are required because wants are unlimited and resources are
a. economical.
b. unlimited.
c. efficient.
d. marginal.
e. scarce.

18. Economics is the study of

a. how society manages its unlimited resources.
b. how to reduce our wants until we are satisfied.
c. how society manages its scarce resources.
d. how to fully satisfy our unlimited wants.
e. how to avoid having to make trade-offs.

19. A rational person does not act unless

a. the action is ethical.
b. the action produces marginal costs that exceed marginal benefits.
c. the action produces marginal benefits that exceed marginal costs.
d. the action makes money for the person.
e. none of these answers.

20. Raising taxes and increasing welfare payments

a. reduces market power.
b. proves that there is such a thing as a free lunch.
c. improves efficiency at the expense of equity.
d. none of these answers
e. improves equity at the expense of efficiency.

21. Suppose you find €20. If you choose to use the €20 to go to a football match,
your opportunity cost of going to the game is
a. nothing, because you found the money.
b. €20 (because you could have used the €20 to buy other things) plus the
value of your time spent at the game.
c. €20 (because you could have used the €20 to buy other things) plus the
value of your time spent at the game, plus the cost of the dinner you
purchased at the game.
d. €20 (because you could have used the €20 to buy other things).
e. none of these answers
22. Foreign trade
a. none of these answers.
b. increases the scarcity of resources.
c. makes a country more equitable.
d. allows a country to have a greater variety of products at a lower cost than
if it tried to produce everything at home.
e. allows a country to avoid trade-offs.

23. Since people respond to incentives, we would expect that, if the average salary of
accountants increases by 50% while the average salary of teachers increases by
20%, then
a. fewer students will take degree courses in accounting and more will take
education courses.
b. fewer students will take degree courses in education and more will take
accounting courses.
c. fewer students will attend university.
d. none of these answers.

24. Which of the following activities is most likely to produce an externality?

a. A student eats a hamburger in the student union.
b. A student reads a novel for pleasure.
c. A student sits at home and watches T.V.
d. A student has a party in her room in the student hall of residence.

25. Which of the following products would be least capable of producing an

externality?
a. inoculations against disease
b. cigarettes
c. food
d. education
e. stereo equipment

26. Which of the following situations describes the greatest market power?
a. Subaru’s impact on the price of cars
b. a farmer's impact on the price of corn
c. Microsoft's impact on the price of desktop operating systems
d. a student's impact on college tuition

27. Which of the following statements is true about a market economy?

a. With a large enough computer, central planners could guide production
more efficiently than markets.
b. Market participants act as if guided by an invisible hand to produce
outcomes that maximize social welfare.
c. The strength of a market system is that it tends to distribute resources
evenly across consumers.
d. Taxes help prices communicate costs and benefits to producers and
consumers.

28. Workers in Western Europe enjoy a high standard of living because

a. the countries of Western Europe have set high minimum wage rates.
 b. unions in Western Europe keep the wage high.
c. none of these answers.
d. the countries of Western Europe have protected their industries from
foreign competition.
e. workers in the United States are highly productive.

29. High and persistent inflation is caused by

a. unions increasing wages too much.
b. OPEC raising the price of oil too much.
c. governments increasing the quantity of money too much.
d. regulations raising the cost of production too much.

30. The Phillips curve shows that

a. the business cycle has been eliminated.
b. an increase in inflation temporarily increases unemployment.
c. inflation and unemployment are unrelated in the short run.
d. a decrease in inflation temporarily increases unemployment.
e. none of these answers.

31. An increase in the price of beef provides information which

a. provides no information because prices in a market system are managed
by planning boards.
b. tells consumers to buy less pork.
c. tells producers to produce more beef.
d. tells consumers to buy more beef.

32. You are planning to run a hot dog stand during a forthcoming fair. You originally
estimated that you will generate sales revenue of €2000 and you have already
spent €1000 building the hot dog stand. The hot dog stand is nearly completed but
now you estimate total sales to be only €800 because the fair clashes with a major
music festival in a nearby location.. You can complete the hot dog stand for
another €300. Should you complete the hot dog stand? (Assume that there are no
other costs - the hot dogs are costless to you.)
a. There is not enough information to answer this question.
b. Yes.
c. No.

33. You are planning to run a hot dog stand during a forthcoming fair. You originally
estimated that you will generate sales revenue of €2000 and you have already
spent €1000 building the hot dog stand. The hot dog stand is nearly completed but
now you estimate total sales to be only €800 because the fair clashes with a major
music festival in a nearby location.. You can complete the hot dog stand for
another €300. Your decision rule should be to complete the hot dog stand as long
as the cost to complete the stand is less than
a. €300
b. €100
c. €500
d. none of these answers.
e. €800

34. Which of the following is not part of the opportunity cost of going on holiday?
 a. the money you spent on a theatre show
b. the money you could have made if you had stayed at home and worked
c. the money you spent on airline tickets
d. the money you spent on food

35. Productivity can be increased by

a. improving the education of workers.
b. raising union wages.
c. raising minimum wages.
d. restricting trade with foreign countries.

Chapter 2 Mankiw/Taylor, Economics

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.

T 1. Economic models must mirror reality or they are of no value.

2. Assumptions make the world easier to understand because they simplify reality
and focus our attention.

3. It is reasonable to assume that the world is composed of only one person when
modelling international trade.

4. When people act as scientists, they must try to be objective.

5. If an economy is operating on its production possibilities frontier, it must be

using its resources efficiently.

6. If an economy is operating on its production possibilities frontier, it must produce

less of one good if it produces more of another.

7. Points outside the production possibilities frontier are attainable but inefficient.

8. If an economy were experiencing substantial unemployment, the economy is

producing inside the production possibilities frontier.

9. The production possibilities frontier is bowed outward because the trade-offs

between the production of any two goods are constant.

10. An advance in production technology would cause the production possibilities

curve to shift outward.

11. Macroeconomics is concerned with the study of how households and firms make
decisions and how they interact in specific markets.
 12. The statement, "An increase in inflation tends to cause unemployment to fall in
the short run," is normative.

13. When economists make positive statements, they are more likely to be acting as
scientists.

14. Normative statements can be refuted with evidence.

15. Most economists believe that tariffs and import quotas usually reduce general
economic welfare.

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16. The scientific method requires that

a. the scientist be objective.
b. the scientist use precision equipment.
c. only correct theories are tested.
d. only incorrect theories are tested.
e. the scientist use test tubes and have a clean lab.

17. Which of the following is most likely to produce scientific evidence about a
theory?
a. A lawyer employed by Renault addressing the impact of air bags on
passenger safety.
b. An economist permanently employed at a leading university analysing the
impact of bank regulations on lending to small businesses.
c. An economist employed by the Trades Union Congress doing research on
the impact of trade policy on workers' wages.
d. A radio talk show host collecting data from listeners on how capital
markets respond to taxation.

18. Which of the following statements regarding the circular-flow diagram is true?
a. If Susan works for BAe Systems and receives a salary payment, the
transaction takes place in the market for goods and services.
b. If BAe Systems sells a military aircraft, the transaction takes place in the
market for factors of production.
c. None of these answers.
d. The factors of production are owned by households.
e. The factors of production are owned by firms.

19. In which of the following cases is the assumption most reasonable?

a. To address the impact of taxes on income distribution, an economist
assumes that everyone earns the same income.
b. To address the impact of money growth on inflation, an economist
assumes that money is strictly coins.
c. To model the benefits of trade, an economist assumes that there are two
people and two goods.
d. To estimate the speed at which a beach ball falls, a physicist assumes that
it falls in a vacuum.
20. Economic models are
a. usually made of wood and plastic.
b. built with assumptions.
c. useless if they are simple.
d. created to duplicate reality.

21. Which of the following is not a factor of production?

a. labour
b. land
c. money
d. capital
e. All of these answers are factors of production.

22. Points on the production possibilities frontier are

a. inefficient.
b. normative.
c. unattainable.
d. efficient.
e. none of these answers.

23. Which of the following will not shift a country's production possibilities frontier
outward?
a. an advance in technology
b. an increase in the labour force
c. an increase in the capital stock
d. a reduction in unemployment

24. Economic growth is depicted by

a. a shift in the production possibilities frontier outward.
b. a movement from inside the curve toward the curve.
c. a shift in the production possibilities frontier inward.
d. a movement along a production possibilities frontier toward capital goods.

25. Refer to Exhibit 6. If the economy is operating at point C, the opportunity cost of
producing an additional 15 units of bacon is
 a. 40 units of eggs.
b. 10 units of eggs.
c. 20 units of eggs.
d. 30 units of eggs.
e. 50 units of eggs.

26. Refer to Exhibit 6. If the economy were operating at point E,

a. the opportunity cost of 20 additional units of eggs is 10 units of bacon.

b. the opportunity cost of 20 additional units of eggs is 20 units of bacon.
c. the opportunity cost of 20 additional units of eggs is 30 units of bacon.
d. 20 additional units of eggs can be produced with no impact on bacon
production.

27. Refer to Exhibit 6. Point F represents

a. none of these answers.

b. a combination of production that can be reached if we reduce the
production of eggs by 20 units.
c. a combination of production that can be reached if there is a sufficient
advance in technology.
d. a combination of production that is inefficient because there are
unemployed resources.
28. Refer to Exhibit 6. As we move from point A to point D,

a. the opportunity cost of eggs in terms of bacon falls.

b. the opportunity cost of eggs in terms of bacon rises.
c. the opportunity cost of eggs in terms of bacon is constant.
d. the economy becomes less efficient.
e. the economy becomes more efficient.

29. Which of the following issues is related to microeconomics?

a. the impact of oil prices on car production
b. the impact of money on inflation
c. the impact of technology on economic growth
d. the impact of the deficit on saving

30. Which of the following statements about microeconomics and macroeconomics is

not true?
a. The study of very large industries is a topic within macroeconomics.
b. Macroeconomics is concerned with economy-wide phenomena.
c. Microeconomics is a building block for macroeconomics.
d. Microeconomics and macroeconomics cannot be entirely separated.

31. Which of the following statements is normative?

a. Large government deficits cause an economy to grow more slowly.
b. People work harder if the wage is higher.
c. The unemployment rate should be lower.
d. Printing too much money causes inflation.

32. In making which of the following statements is an economist acting more like a
scientist?
a. A reduction in unemployment benefits will reduce the unemployment rate.
b. The rate of inflation should be reduced because it robs the elderly of their
savings.
c. The unemployment rate should be reduced because unemployment robs
individuals of their dignity.
d. The state should increase subsidies to universities because the future of
our country depends on education.
 33. Positive statements are
a. macroeconomic.
b. microeconomic.
c. statements of description that can be tested.
d. statements of prescription that involve value judgments.

34. Suppose two economists are arguing about policies that deal with unemployment.
One economist says, "The government should fight unemployment because it is
the greatest social evil." The other economist responds, "Nonsense! Inflation is
the greatest social evil." These economists
a. really don't disagree at all. It just appears that they disagree.
b. disagree because they have different values.
c. none of these answers
d. disagree because they have different scientific judgments.

35. Suppose two economists are arguing about policies that deal with unemployment.
One economist says, "The government could lower unemployment by one
percentage point if it would just increase government spending by 50 billion
dollars." The other economist responds, "Nonsense and poppycock! If the
government spent an additional 50 billion dollars, it would reduce unemployment
by only one tenth of one percent, and that effect would only be temporary!" These
economists
a. none of these answers
b. disagree because they have different scientific judgments.
c. really don't disagree at all. It just appears that they disagree.
d. disagree because they have different values.

Chapter 4 Mankiw/Taylor, Economics

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.

1. A perfectly competitive market consists of products that are all slightly different
from one another.

2. An oligopolistic market has only a few sellers.

3. The law of demand states that an increase in the price of a good decreases the
demand for that good.

4. If apples and oranges are substitutes, an increase in the price of apples will
decrease the demand for oranges.

5. If golf clubs and golf balls are complements, an increase in the price of golf clubs
will decrease the demand for golf balls.
 6. If consumers expect the price of shoes to rise, there will be an increase in the
demand for shoes today.

7. The law of supply states that an increase in the price of a good increases the
quantity supplied of that good.

8. An increase in the price of steel will shift the supply of cars to the right.

9. When the price of a good is below the equilibrium price, it causes a surplus.

10. The market supply curve is the horizontal summation of the individual supply
curves.

11. If there is a shortage of a good, then the price of that good tends to fall.

12. If pencils and paper are complements, an increase in the price of pencils causes
the demand for paper to decrease or shift to the left.

13. If Coke and Pepsi are substitutes, an increase in the price of Coke will cause an
increase in the equilibrium price and quantity in the market for Pepsi.

14. An advance in the technology employed to manufacture roller blades will result
in a decrease in the equilibrium price and an increase in the equilibrium quantity
in the market for roller blades.

15. If there is an increase in supply accompanied by a decrease in demand for coffee,

then there will be a decrease in both the equilibrium price and quantity in the
market for coffee.

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16. A perfectly competitive market has

a. firms that set their own prices.
b. only one seller.
c. at least a few sellers.
d. many buyers and sellers.
e. none of these answers.

17. If an increase in the price of blue jeans leads to an increase in the demand for
tennis shoes, then blue jeans and tennis shoes are
a. complements.
b. inferior goods.
c. normal goods.
d. none of these answers.
e. substitutes.

18. The law of demand states that an increase in the price of a good
a. increases the supply of that good.
 b. decreases the quantity demanded for that good.
c. decreases the demand for that good.
d. increases the quantity supplied of that good.
e. none of these answers.

19. The law of supply states that an increase in the price of a good
a. none of these answers.
b. increases the quantity supplied of that good.
c. increases the supply of that good.
d. decreases the demand for that good.
e. decreases the quantity demanded for that good.

20. If an increase in consumer incomes leads to a decrease in the demand for

camping equipment, then camping equipment is
a. a normal good.
b. none of these answers.
c. an inferior good.
d. a substitute good.
e. a complementary good.

21. A monopolistic market has

a. many buyers and sellers.
b. none of these answers.
c. firms that are price takers.
d. only one seller.
e. at least a few sellers.

22. Which of the following shifts the demand for watches to the right?
a. an increase in the price of watches
b. none of these answers
c. a decrease in the price of watch batteries if watch batteries and watches
are complements
d. a decrease in consumer incomes if watches are a normal good
e. a decrease in the price of watches

23. All of the following shift the supply of watches to the right except
a. an advance in the technology used to manufacture watches.
b. an increase in the price of watches.
c. All of these answers cause an increase in the supply of watches.
d. a decrease in the wage of workers employed to manufacture watches.
e. manufacturers' expectation of lower watch prices in the future.

24. If the price of a good is above the equilibrium price,

a. there is a surplus and the price will rise.
b. there is a shortage and the price will fall.
c. there is a shortage and the price will rise.
d. the quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied and the price
remains unchanged.
e. there is a surplus and the price will fall.

25. If the price of a good is below the equilibrium price,

 a. there is a shortage and the price will rise.
b. the quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied and the price
remains unchanged.
c. there is a shortage and the price will fall.
d. there is a surplus and the price will rise.
e. there is a surplus and the price will fall.

26. If the price of a good is equal to the equilibrium price,

a. there is a shortage and the price will fall.
b. the quantity demanded is equal to the quantity supplied and the price
remains unchanged.
c. there is a surplus and the price will rise.
d. there is a shortage and the price will rise.
e. there is a surplus and the price will fall.

27. An increase (rightward shift) in the demand for a good will tend to cause
a. an increase in the equilibrium price and quantity.
b. none of these answers.
c. an increase in the equilibrium price and a decrease in the equilibrium
quantity.
d. a decrease in the equilibrium price and an increase in the equilibrium
quantity.
e. a decrease in the equilibrium price and quantity.

28. A decrease (leftward shift) in the supply for a good will tend to cause
a. an increase in the equilibrium price and quantity.
b. a decrease in the equilibrium price and an increase in the equilibrium
quantity.
c. none of these answers.
d. a decrease in the equilibrium price and quantity.
e. an increase in the equilibrium price and a decrease in the equilibrium
quantity.

29. Suppose there is an increase in both the supply and demand for personal
computers. In the market for personal computers, we would expect
a. the equilibrium quantity to rise and the equilibrium price to rise.
b. the equilibrium quantity to rise and the equilibrium price to fall.
c. the equilibrium quantity to rise and the equilibrium price to remain
constant.
d. the change in the equilibrium quantity to be ambiguous and the
equilibrium price to rise.
e. the equilibrium quantity to rise and the change in the equilibrium price to
be ambiguous.

30. Suppose there is an increase in both the supply and demand for personal
computers. Further, suppose the supply of personal computers increases more
than demand for personal computers. In the market for personal computers, we
would expect
a. the change in the equilibrium quantity to be ambiguous and the
equilibrium price to fall.
b. the equilibrium quantity to rise and the equilibrium price to rise.
 c. the equilibrium quantity to rise and the change in the equilibrium price to
be ambiguous.
d. the equilibrium quantity to rise and the equilibrium price to fall.
e. the equilibrium quantity to rise and the equilibrium price to remain
constant.

31. Which of the following statements is true about the impact of an increase in the
price of lettuce?
a. Both the demand for lettuce will decrease and the equilibrium price and
quantity of salad dressing will fall.
b. The supply of lettuce will decrease.
c. The demand for lettuce will decrease.
d. The equilibrium price and quantity of salad dressing will fall.
e. The equilibrium price and quantity of salad dressing will rise.

32. Suppose a frost destroys much of the Florida orange crop. At the same time,
suppose consumer tastes shift toward orange juice. What would we expect to
happen to the equilibrium price and quantity in the market for orange juice?
a. Price will decrease; quantity is ambiguous.
b. The impact on both price and quantity is ambiguous.
c. Price will increase; quantity will increase.
d. Price will increase; quantity will decrease.
e. Price will increase; quantity is ambiguous.

33. Suppose consumer tastes shift toward the consumption of apples. Which of the
following statements is an accurate description of the impact of this event on the
market for apples?
a. There is an increase in the quantity demanded of apples and in the supply
for apples.
b. There is an increase in the demand and supply of apples.
c. There is an increase in the demand for apples and a decrease in the supply
of apples.
d. There is a decrease in the quantity demanded of apples and an increase in
the supply for apples.
e. There is an increase in the demand for apples and an increase in the
quantity supplied of apples.

34. Suppose both buyers and sellers of wheat expect the price of wheat to rise in the
near future. What would we expect to happen to the equilibrium price and
quantity in the market for wheat today?
a. The impact on both price and quantity is ambiguous.
b. Price will decrease; quantity is ambiguous.
c. Price will increase; quantity will decrease.
d. Price will increase; quantity is ambiguous.
e. Price will increase; quantity will increase.

35. An inferior good is one for which an increase in income causes a(n)
a. decrease in supply.
b. increase in demand.
c. increase in supply.
d. decrease in demand.
Chapter 6 Mankiw/Taylor, Economics

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.

1. If the equilibrium price of petrol is €1.00 per litre and the government places a
price ceiling on petrol of €1.50 per litre, the result will be a shortage of petrol.

2. A price ceiling set below the equilibrium price causes a surplus.

3. A price floor set above the equilibrium price is a binding constraint.

4. The shortage of housing caused by a binding rent control is likely to be more

severe in the long run when compared to the short run.

5. The minimum wage helps all teenagers because they receive higher wages than
they would otherwise.

6. A 10 per cent increase in the minimum wage is more likely to raise

unemployment among teenage workers than among mid-career professional
workers

7. A price ceiling that is not a binding constraint today could cause a shortage in the
future if demand were to increase and raise the equilibrium price above the fixed
price ceiling.

8. A price floor in a market always creates a surplus in that market.

9. A €10 tax on football boots will always raise the price that the buyers pay for
football boots by €10.

10. The ultimate burden of a tax falls most heavily on the side of the market that is
less elastic.

11. If medicine is a necessity, the burden of a tax on medicine will probably fall more
heavily on the buyers of medicine.

12. When we use the model of supply and demand to analyse a tax collected from the
buyers, we shift the demand curve upward by the size of the tax.

13. A tax collected from buyers has an equivalent impact to a same size tax collected
from sellers.

14. A tax creates a tax wedge between a buyer and a seller. This causes the price paid
by the buyer to rise, the price received by the seller to fall, and the quantity sold
 to fall.

15. The government can choose to place the burden of a tax on the buyers in a market
by collecting the tax from the buyers rather than the sellers.

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16. For a price ceiling to be a binding constraint on the market, the government must
set it
a. above the equilibrium price.
b. below the equilibrium price.
c. precisely at the equilibrium price.
d. at any price because all price ceilings are binding constraints.

17. A binding price ceiling creates

a. a shortage or a surplus depending on whether the price ceiling is set above
or below the equilibrium price.
b. a surplus.
c. a shortage.
d. an equilibrium.

18. Suppose the equilibrium price for apartments is €500 per month and the
government imposes rent controls of €250. Which of the following is unlikely to
occur as a result of the rent controls?
a. There may be long lines of buyers waiting for apartments.
b. Landlords may discriminate among apartment renters.
c. Landlords may be offered bribes to rent apartments.
d. There will be a shortage of housing.
e. The quality of apartments will improve.

19. A price floor

a. always determines the price at which a good must be sold.
b. sets a legal maximum on the price at which a good can be sold.
c. is not a binding constraint if it is set above the equilibrium price.
d. sets a legal minimum on the price at which a good can be sold.

20. Which of the following statements about a binding price ceiling is true?
a. The shortage created by the price ceiling is greater in the short run than in
the long run.
b. The surplus created by the price ceiling is greater in the short run than in
the long run.
c. The surplus created by the price ceiling is greater in the long run than in
the short run.
d. The shortage created by the price ceiling is greater in the long run than in
the short run.

21. Which side of the market is more likely to lobby government for a price floor?
a. the buyers
b. Neither buyers nor sellers desire a price floor.
 c. the sellers
d. Both buyers and sellers desire a price floor.

22. The surplus caused by a binding price floor will be greatest if

a. demand is inelastic and supply is elastic.
b. supply is inelastic and demand is elastic.
c. both supply and demand are elastic.
d. both supply and demand are inelastic.

23. Which of the following is an example of a price floor?

a. the minimum wage
b. rent controls
c. restricting petrol prices to €1.00 per litre when the equilibrium price is
€1.50 per litre
d. All of these answers are price floors.

24. Which of the following statements is true if the government places a price ceiling
on petrol at €1.50 per litre and the equilibrium price is €1.00 per litre?
a. A significant increase in the demand for petrol could cause the price
ceiling to become a binding constraint.
b. A significant increase in the supply of petrol could cause the price ceiling
to become a binding constraint.
c. There will be a shortage of petrol.
d. There will be a surplus of petrol.

25. Which of the following workers would be most likely to find it more difficult to
get a job after a rise in the minimum wage rate?
a. A teenage worker with few qualifications.
b. A manual worker with fifteen years of work experience.
c. A professional worker with a university degree.
d. All three are equally likely to find it difficult to get a job.

26. Within the supply and demand model, a tax collected from the buyers of a good
shifts the
a. supply curve downward by the size of the tax per unit.
b. supply curve upward by the size of the tax per unit.
c. demand curve upward by the size of the tax per unit.
d. demand curve downward by the size of the tax per unit.

27. Within the supply and demand model, a tax collected from the sellers of a good
shifts the
a. demand curve downward by the size of the tax per unit.
b. supply curve downward by the size of the tax per unit.
c. demand curve upward by the size of the tax per unit.
d. supply curve upward by the size of the tax per unit.

28. Which of the following takes place when a tax is placed a good?
a. a decrease in the price buyers pay, an increase in the price sellers receive,
and a decrease in the quantity sold
b. an increase in the price buyers pay, a decrease in the price sellers receive,
and an increase in the quantity sold
 c. a decrease in the price buyers pay, an increase in the price sellers receive,
and an increase in the quantity sold
d. an increase in the price buyers pay, a decrease in the price sellers receive,
and a decrease in the quantity sold

29. When a tax is collected from the buyers in a market,

a. the tax burden falls most heavily on the buyers.
b. the buyers bear the burden of the tax.
c. the sellers bear the burden of the tax.
d. the tax burden on the buyers and sellers is the same as an equivalent tax
collected from the sellers.

30. A tax of €1.00 per litre on petrol

a. places a tax wedge of €1.00 between the price the buyers pay and the price
the sellers receive.
b. decreases the price the sellers receive by €1.00 per litre.
c. increases the price the buyers pay by €1.00 per litre.
d. increases the price the buyers pay by precisely €0.50 and reduces the price
received by sellers by precisely €0.50.

31. The burden of a tax falls more heavily on the sellers in a market when
a. both supply and demand are elastic.
b. both supply and demand are inelastic.
c. demand is inelastic and supply is elastic.
d. demand is elastic and supply is inelastic.

32. A tax placed on a good that is a necessity for consumers will likely generate a tax
burden that
a. falls more heavily on sellers.
b. falls entirely on sellers.
c. falls more heavily on buyers.
d. is evenly distributed between buyers and sellers.

33. The burden of a tax falls more heavily on the buyers in a market when
a. both supply and demand are inelastic.
b. demand is elastic and supply is inelastic.
c. both supply and demand are elastic.
d. demand is inelastic and supply is elastic.

34. Which of the following statements about the burden of a tax is correct?
a. The tax burden generated from a tax placed on a good consumers perceive
to be a necessity will fall most heavily on the sellers of the good.
b. The burden of a tax falls on the side of the market (buyers or sellers) from
which it is collected.
c. The distribution of the burden of a tax is determined by the relative
elasticities of supply and demand and is not determined by legislation.
d. The tax burden falls most heavily on the side of the market (buyers or
sellers) that is most willing to leave the market when price movements are
unfavourable to them.

35. For which of the following products would the burden of a tax likely fall more
 heavily on the sellers?
a. clothing
b. food
c. housing
d. entertainment

Chapter 7 Mankiw/Taylor, Economics

True/False
Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false.

1. Consumer surplus is the buyer's willingness to pay minus the seller's cost.

2. If the demand curve in a market is stationary, consumer surplus decreases when

the price in that market increases.

3. If your willingness to pay for a hamburger is €3.00 and the price is €2.00, your
consumer surplus is €5.00.

4. Producer surplus is a measure of the unsold inventories of suppliers in a market.

5. Consumer surplus is a good measure of buyers' benefits if buyers are rational.

6. Cost to the seller includes the opportunity cost of the seller's time.

7. The height of the supply curve is the marginal seller's cost.

8. Total surplus is the seller's cost minus the buyer's willingness to pay.

9. Free markets are efficient because they allocate output to buyers who have a
willingness to pay that is below the price.

10. Producer surplus is the area above the supply curve and below the price.

11. The major advantage of allowing free markets to allocate resources is that the
outcome of the allocation is efficient.

12. Equilibrium in a competitive market maximizes total surplus.

13. The two main types of market failure are market power and externalities.

14. Externalities are side effects, such as pollution, that are not taken into account by
the buyers and sellers in a market.

15. Producing more of a product always adds to total surplus.

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

16. Consumer surplus is the area

a. below the demand curve and above the price.
b. above the supply curve and below the price.
c. above the demand curve and below the price.
d. below the supply curve and above the price.
e. below the demand curve and above the supply curve.

17. A buyer's willingness to pay is that buyer's

a. minimum amount they are willing to pay for a good.
b. producer surplus.
c. consumer surplus.
d. maximum amount they are willing to pay for a good.
e. none of these answers.

18. If a buyer's willingness to pay for a new Honda is €20,000 and she is able to
actually buy it for €18,000, her consumer surplus is
a. €18,000.
b. €20,000.
c. €2,000.
d. €0.
e. €38,000.

19. An increase in the price of a good along a stationary demand curve

a. improves the material welfare of the buyers.
b. decreases consumer surplus.
c. improves market efficiency.
d. increases consumer surplus.

20. Suppose there are three identical vases available to be purchased. Buyer 1 is
willing to pay €30 for one, buyer 2 is willing to pay €25 for one, and buyer 3 is
willing to pay €20 for one. If the price is €25, how many vases will be sold and
what is the value of consumer surplus in this market?
a. Three vases will be sold and consumer surplus is €80.
b. One vase will be sold and consumer surplus is €5.
c. One vase will be sold and consumer surplus is €30.
d. Three vases will be sold and consumer surplus is €0.
e. Two vases will be sold and consumer surplus is €5.

21. Producer surplus is the area

a. below the supply curve and above the price.
b. below the demand curve and above the supply curve.
c. below the demand curve and above the price.
d. above the demand curve and below the price.
e. above the supply curve and below the price.

22. If a benevolent social planner chooses to produce less than the equilibrium
quantity of a good, then
 a. total surplus is maximized.
b. the value placed on the last unit of production by buyers exceeds the cost
of production.
c. producer surplus is maximized.
d. the cost of production on the last unit produced exceeds the value placed
on it by buyers.
e. consumer surplus is maximized.

23. If a benevolent social planner chooses to produce more than the equilibrium
quantity of a good, then
a. the value placed on the last unit of production by buyers exceeds the cost
of production.
b. the cost of production on the last unit produced exceeds the value placed
on it by buyers.
c. consumer surplus is maximized.
d. total surplus is maximized.
e. producer surplus is maximized.

24. The seller's cost of production is

a. none of these answers.
b. the minimum amount the seller is willing to accept for a good.
c. the seller's producer surplus.
d. the maximum amount the seller is willing to accept for a good.
e. the seller's consumer surplus.

25. Total surplus is the area

a. above the supply curve and below the price.
b. below the demand curve and above the price.
c. below the demand curve and above the supply curve.
d. below the supply curve and above the price.
e. above the demand curve and below the price.

26. An increase in the price of a good along a stationary supply curve

a. increases producer surplus.
b. does all of the things described in these answers.
c. decreases producer surplus.
d. improves market equity.

27. Adam Smith's "invisible hand" concept suggests that a competitive market
outcome
a. maximizes total surplus.
b. generates equality among the members of society.
c. minimizes total surplus.
d. both maximizes total surplus and generates equality among the members
of society.

28. In general, if a benevolent social planner wanted to maximize the total benefits
received by buyers and sellers in a market, the planner should
a. choose a price below the market equilibrium price.
b. allow the market to seek equilibrium on its own.
c. choose any price the planner wants because the losses to the sellers
 (buyers) from any change in price are exactly offset by the gains to the
buyers (sellers).
d. choose a price above the market equilibrium price.

29. If buyers are rational and there is no market failure,

a. free market solutions are efficient.
b. free market solutions maximize total surplus.
c. all of these answers.
d. free market solutions are equitable.
e. free market solutions are efficient and free market solutions maximize
total surplus.

30. If a producer has market power (can influence the price of the product in the
market) then free market solutions
a. are equitable.
b. are efficient.
c. maximize consumer surplus.
d. are inefficient.

31. If a market is efficient, then

a. the market allocates buyers to the sellers who can produce the good at
least cost.
b. all of these answers.
c. none of these answers.
d. the quantity produced in the market maximizes the sum of consumer and
producer surplus.
e. the market allocates output to the buyers that value it the most.

32. If a market generates a side effect or externality, then free market solutions
a. maximize producer surplus.
b. are efficient.
c. are inefficient.
d. are equitable.

33. Medical care clearly enhances people’s lives. Therefore, we should consume
medical care until
a. everyone has as much as they would like.
b. the benefit buyers place on medical care is equal to the cost of producing
it.
c. buyers receive no benefit from another unit of medical care.
d. we must cut back on the consumption of other goods.

34. Joe has ten pairs of football boots and Sue has none. A pair of football boots costs
€50 to produce. If Joe values an additional pair of boots at €100 and Sue values a
pair of boots at €40, then to maximize
a. efficiency Sue should receive the glove.
b. efficiency Joe should receive the glove.
c. equity, Joe should receive the glove.
d. consumer surplus both should receive a glove.

35. Suppose that the price of a new bicycle is €300. Natalie values a new bicycle at
 €400. It costs €200 for the seller to produce the new bicycle. What is the value of
total surplus if Natalie buys a new bike?
a. €500
b. €300
c. €200
d. €400
e. €100

SOLUTIONS TO QUESTIONS

CHAPTER ONE
1. FALSE 9. TRUE 17. E 25. C 33. E

2. TRUE 10. TRUE 18. C 26. C 34. D

3. FALSE 11.FALSE 19. C 27. B 35. A

4. TRUE 12. FALSE 20. E 28. E

5. FALSE 13. FALSE 21. B 29. C

6. TRUE 14. TRUE 22. D 30. D

7. FALSE 15. FALSE 23. B 31. C

8. TRUE 16. B 24. D 32. B

CHAPTER TWO
1. FALSE 9. FALSE 17. B 25. C 33. C

2. TRUE 10. TRUE 18. D 26. D 34. B

3. FALSE 11. FALSE 19. C 27. C 35. B

4. TRUE 12. FALSE 20. B 28. B

5. TRUE 13. TRUE 21. C 29. A

6. TRUE 14. FALSE 22. D 30. A

7. FALSE 15. TRUE 23. D 31. C

8. TRUE 16. A 24. A 32. A

CHAPTER FOUR
1. FALSE 9. FALSE 17. E 25. A 33. E

2. TRUE 10. TRUE 18. B 26. B 34. D

3. FALSE 11. FALSE 19. B 27. A 35. D

4. FALSE 12. TRUE 20. C 28. E

5. TRUE 13. TRUE 21. D 29. E

6. TRUE 14. TRUE 22. C 30. D

7. TRUE 15. FALSE 23. B 31.D

8. FALSE 16. D 24. E 32. E

CHAPTER SIX
1. FALSE 9. FALSE 17. C 25. A 33. D

2. FALSE 10. TRUE 18. E 26. D 34. C

3. TRUE 11. TRUE 19. D 27. D 35. D

4. TRUE 12. FALSE 20. D 28. D

5. FALSE 13. TRUE 21. C 29. D

6. TRUE 14. TRUE 22. C 30. A

7. TRUE 15. FALSE 23. A 31. D

8. FALSE 16. B 24. A 32. C

CHAPTER SEVEN
1. FALSE 9. FALSE 17. D 25. C 33. B

2. TRUE 10. TRUE 18. C 26. A 34. B

3. FALSE 11. TRUE 19. B 27. A 35. C

4. FALSE 12. TRUE 20. E 28. B

5. TRUE 13. TRUE 21. E 29. E

6. TRUE 14. TRUE 22. B 30. D

7. TRUE 15. FALSE 23. B 31. B

8. FALSE 16. A 24. B 32. C