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NEET 2021 Solved Question Paper Download
NEET 2021 Solved Question Paper Download
NEET 2021 Solved Question Paper Download
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Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
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1. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the
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2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options
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with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions
in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
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(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos – 1 to 35,
51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
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136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out
of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start
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ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
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16. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the
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: in words
3 M4
8. A convex lens ‘A’ of focal length 20 cm and a concave 12. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
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lens ‘B’ of focal length 5 cm are kept along the d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine
same axis with a distance ‘d’ between them. If a becomes constant after some time. If the density
parallel beam of light falling on ‘A’ leaves ‘B’ as a
parallel beam, then the distance ‘d’ in cm will be : of glycerine is d , then the viscous force acting on
2
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(1) 25 the ball will be :
Mg
(2) 15 (1)
S
2
(3) 50
(2) Mg
(4) 30
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Ans. 2 3
(3) Mg
2
9. If force [ F ], acceleration [ A ] and time [ T ] are (4) 2 Mg Ans. 1
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
Find the dimensions of energy. 13. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
C
x-direction, which one of the following combination
(1) [F] [A] [T]
gives the correct possible directions for electric
(2) [ F ] [ A ] [ T2 ] field (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively ?
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(3) [ F ] [ A ] [ T−1 ] ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧
(1) j+k, j +k
(4) [ F ] [ A−1 ] [ T ] ∧ ∧ ∧ ∧
10.
Ans. 2
(3)
− j+k, − j−k
∧ ∧
j +k, − j−k
∧ ∧
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when the room temperature is 208C. The time
∧ ∧ ∧ ∧ Ans. 2
taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 808C (4) − j+k, − j+k
to 608C at a room temperature same at 208C is :
14. Column - I gives certain physical terms associated
13 with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
(1) t
10 Column - II gives some mathematical relations
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10
(3) t
13 m
(A) Drift Velocity (P)
ne2 ρ
Y
5
(4) t
13 Ans. 2 (B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
S
S 3gS is suspended by it is :
(3) ,
2 2 (1) 0.0628 s
(2) 6.28 s
S 3gS Ans. 4
(3) 3.14 s
(4)
Print
4 Less... Save Paper... Save
Ans. Paper... www.easybiologyclass.com
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2 4 (4) 0.628 s
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M4 4
16. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric 20. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
→ capacitance C and a resistor of resistance ‘R’ are
field ‘ E ’ in the space between the plates. If the
connected in series to an ac source of potential
distance between the plates is ‘d’ and the area of
difference ‘V’ volts as shown in figure.
.C
each plate is ‘A’, the energy stored in the capacitor
is : (ε0=permittivity of free space) Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V,
10 V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of
1
(1) ε E2 current flowing through LCR series circuit is
2 0
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10 2 A. The impedance of the circuit is :
(2) ε0EAd
S
1
(3) ε E2 Ad
2 0
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E2 Ad Ans. 3
(4) ε0
C
with a speed of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. (2) 5 2 Ω
The perpendicular distance between the electron
(3) 4Ω
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and the conductor is 20 cm at an instant.
Calculate the magnitude of the force experienced (4) 5Ω Ans. 4
by the electron at that instant.
G 21. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is v.
The escape velocity from the surface of another
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth
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(2) 8π×10−20 N
(3) 4π×10−20 N
22. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
(4) 8×10−20 N used to measure the diameter of a wire
Ans. 4
18. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is Main scale reading : 0 mm
B
(1) a large aperture contributes to the quality 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter
and visibility of the images. of the wire from the above data is :
(2) a large area of the objective ensures better
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(1) 0.52 cm
light gathering power.
(2) 0.026 cm
(3) a large aperture provides a better resolution.
A
ZX
23. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of
decay in the sequence
15 kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
A
X → Z −1B → Z −3C → Z − 2 D , where Z is the frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
Z
much power is generated by the turbine ?
W
5 M4
24. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined 27. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
plane, starting from rest at time t=0. Let Sn be balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another
the distance travelled by the block in the interval cell of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at
Sn what length of the wire, the balance point occurs ?
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t=n−1 to t=n. Then, the ratio is :
Sn+1 (1) 60 cm
2n−1
(1) (2) 21.6 cm
2n
(3) 64 cm
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2n−1
(2) (4) 62 cm
2n+1 Ans. 1
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2n+1 28. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and
(3) 2n−1 R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of
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2n surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is :
(4) 2n−1 Ans. 2
R1
25. Polar molecules are the molecules : (1) R2
(1) having zero dipole moment.
(2) acquire a dipole moment only in the presence R2
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of electric field due to displacement of (2) R1
charges.
(3) acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic
R1
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field is absent. Ans. 4
(3)
(4) having a permanent electric dipole moment. R2
26. A thick current carrying cable of radius ‘R’ carries
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current ‘I’ uniformly distributed across its R12
cross-section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) (4) Ans. 2
due to the cable with the distance ‘r’ from the axis R22
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2m 2
(1) λ= λd
hc
B
2mc 2
(2) λd= λ
h
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(2) 2mc 2
(3) λ= λd
h
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2h 2 Ans. 3
(4) λ= λd
mc
A
(4)
(4) No current will flow in p-type, current will
Ans. 3 only flow in n-type.
Ans. 3
M4 6
31. The number of photons per second on an average Section - B (Physics)
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of
3.3×10−3 watt will be : (h=6.6×10−34 Js)
.C
(1) 1018 36. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2
(2) 1017 are placed in the same plane with their centres
coinciding. If R1> > R2 , the mutual inductance M
(3) 1016
S
between them will be directly proportional to :
(4) 1015 Ans. 3
S
R1
32. If E and G respectively denote energy and (1)
E R2
gravitational constant, then has the dimensions
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G
of :
R2
(1) [ M2 ] [ L−1 ] [ T0 ] (2) R1
(2) [ M ] [ L−1 ] [ T−1 ]
(3) [ M ] [ L0 ] [ T0 ]
C
2
(4) [ M2 ] [ L−2 ] [ T−1 ] R1
Ans. 1 (3)
R2
Y
33. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of 2
cross-section and same material is 0.25 Ω. What R2
G (4)
will be the effective resistance if they are connected R1
in series ? Ans. 4
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(1) 0.25 Ω
(2) 0.5 Ω
37. In the product
(3) 1Ω
Ans. 4
(4) 4Ω
→
( → →
)
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F =q v × B
34. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours.
The fraction of original activity that will remain
after 150 hours would be :
→
( ∧
=q v × B i +B j +B0 k
∧ ∧
)
(1) 1/2
B
→ ∧ ∧ ∧
1 For q=1 and v =2 i +4 j+6 k and
(2)
2 2 → ∧ ∧ ∧
Y
(3) →
3
What will be the complete expression for B ?
2 Ans. 2
A
(4)
3 2 ∧ ∧ ∧
(1) −8 i −8 j−6 k
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7 M4
38. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are 40. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A
be the output at the terminal y ? mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm
and another unknown mass ‘m’ is suspended from
.C
the rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure.
Find the value of ‘m’ such that the rod is in
equilibrium. (g=10 m/s2)
S
S
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1
(1) kg
2
1
(2) kg
C
3
1
(3) kg
Y
6
1
(4) kg Ans. 4
G 12
(2)
B
(3)
(1) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real
image.
Y
42.
transferred to the circuit is half the power at the
At t=4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
resonant angular frequency are likely to be :
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
acceleration of the ball at t=6 s ?
(1) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
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Ans. 3
M4 8
43. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at 47. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
220 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop. revolution.
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(1) 660 V
If this particle were projected with the same speed
(2) 1320 V at an angle ‘θ’ to the horizontal, the maximum
height attained by it equals 4R. The angle of
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(3) 1520 V projection, θ, is then given by :
S
1
−1
gT2 2
(1) θ=cos
π2 R
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44. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and
resistance ‘R’ is wound up as a current carrying
coil in the shape of,
1
π2 R 2
(i) an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’. θ=cos −1
(2) gT2
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(ii) a square of side ‘a’.
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1
case respectively are : π2 R 2
(3) θ=sin−1
gT2
(1) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2
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(2) 3 Ia2 and Ia2 1
2gT2
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2
−1
(3) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 (4) θ=sin
π2 R
(4) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2
Ans. 4
Ans. 1
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45. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 48. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity
10 m, strikes the ground and rebounds to the same v=kVe(k < 1) from the surface of the earth.
height. The magnitude of impulse imparted to
the ball is (g=10 m/s2) nearly : (Ve=escape velocity)
B
(1) 0 kg m/s
The maximum height above the surface reached
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2
k
(4) 1.4 kg m/s (1) R
1−k
Ans. 2
A
(3) 2A Rk2
(4)
Ans. 1 1−k2 Ans. 4
(4) 4A
9 M4
49. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 Section - A (Chemistry)
are connected as shown in the given circuit. The
i 51. Which one among the following is the correct option
ratio 3 of currents in terms of resistances used for right relationship between CP and CV for one
.C
i1
mole of ideal gas ?
in the circuit is :
(1) CP+CV=R
(2) CP−CV=R
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(3) CP=RCV Ans. 2
(4) CV=RCP
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52. The correct option for the number of body centred
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit
cells is :
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(1) 7
(2) 5
(3) 2
Ans. 4
r1
(1) r2 +r3 (4) 3
C
53. Noble gases are named because of their inertness
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect
r2 statement about them.
Y
(2) r2 +r3 (1) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water.
(2) Noble gases have very high melting and
G boiling points.
r1 (3) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces.
(3) r1+r2 (4) Noble gases have large positive values of
LO
4
central atom, respectively are :
(1) sp3 and 4
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M4 10
58. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, 61. Which one of the following polymers is prepared
one which is covalent and soluble in organic by addition polymerisation ?
solvents is :
.C
(1) Calcium chloride
(2) Strontium chloride (1) Teflon
(3) Magnesium chloride
S
(4) Beryllium chloride Ans. 4 (2) Nylon-66
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59. Which one of the following methods can be used to
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
LA
temperature ? (3) Novolac
(1) Electrolysis
(2) Chromatography
(4) Dacron
(3) Distillation
C
Ans. 1
(4) Zone refining Ans. 3
Y
60. For a reaction A→B, enthalpy of reaction is
−4.2 kJ mol−1 and enthalpy of activation is
9.6 kJ mol−1. The correct potential energy profile
G
for the reaction is shown in option. 62. The major product of the following chemical
reaction is :
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(1)
IO
B
(1)
(2)
Y
S
(2)
A
(3)
.E
(3)
W
W
(4) Ans. 2
(4)
Ans. 1
11 M4
63. Choose the correct option for graphical 66. The maximum temperature that can be achieved
representation of Boyle’s law, which shows a graph in blast furnace is :
of pressure vs. volume of a gas at different (1) upto 1200 K
temperatures : (2) upto 2200 K
.C
(3) upto 1900 K Ans. 2
(4) upto 5000 K
67. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving
S
(1) 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
10 g of sucrose (C 12 H 22 O 11 ) in 250 ml of
S
water (P3). The right option for the decreasing
order of osmotic pressure of these solutions is :
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(1) P2 > P1 > P3
(2) P1 > P2 > P3
(3) P2 > P3 > P1 Ans. 1
(4) P3 > P1 > P2
(2) 68. Zr (Z=40) and Hf (Z=72) have similar atomic and
C
ionic radii because of :
(1) belonging to same group
(2) diagonal relationship
Y
(3) lanthanoid contraction Ans. 3
(4) having similar chemical properties
G 69. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and
CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16
and 91.0 S cm2 mol−1 respectively. The molar
LO
(1) 8, 4
(2) 6, 12
(3) 2, 1
Y
64. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz).
is : The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation
(1) 1208 emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light,
A
(4) 08
(3) 2192 m Ans. 1
65. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon (4) 21.92 cm
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right 72. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
W
option for the empirical formula of this compound (1) Hexadentate ligand with four “O” and two
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] “N” donor atoms
(1) CH (2) Unidentate ligand
(3) Bidentate ligand with two “N” donor atoms
W
(2) CH2
(3) CH3 (4) Tridentate ligand with three “N” donor
atoms
(4) CH4 Ans. 3
Ans. 1
M4 12
73. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of ‘C–X’ bond 78. Statement I :
is : Acid strength increases in the order given as
(1) CH3−F < CH3−Cl < CH3−Br < CH3−I HF << HCl << HBr << HI.
.C
(2) CH3−F > CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I Statement II :
(3) CH3−F < CH3−Cl > CH3−Br > CH3−I As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases
(4) CH3−Cl > CH3−F > CH3−Br > CH3−I down the group, the bond strength of HF, HCl,
Ans. 2 HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
S
74. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid increases.
are 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate In the light of the above statements, choose the
S
solution is : correct answer from the options given below.
(1) 8.50 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
LA
true.
(2) 5.50
(3) 7.75 (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false.
(4) 6.25 Ans. 3
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II
75. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state is false.
C
and vapour phase, are : (4) Statement I is incorrect but
(1) Chain and dimer, respectively Statement II is true.
Ans. 1
Y
(2) Linear in both
(3) Dimer and Linear, respectively 79. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg’s
reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
(4) Chain in both Ans. 1
G
76. Given below are two statements : (1)
LO
Statement I :
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of
narcotic analgesics. (2)
Statement II :
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. (3)
IO
13 M4
82. The correct structure of 2,6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene Section - B (Chemistry)
is :
.C
(1) 86. Match List - I with List - II.
S
List - I List - II
S
(2) (a) 2SO2(g)+O2(g) → (i) Acid rain
2SO3(g)
LA
(b) hν
HOCl(g) (ii) Smog
→
i i
(3) OH+Cl
C
(c) CaCO3+H2SO4→ (iii) Ozone
CaSO4+H2O+CO2 depletion
Y
(4)
(d) hν
NO2(g) (iv) Tropospheric
Ans. 1 →
G NO(g)+O(g) pollution
83. The incorrect statement among the following
is : Choose the correct answer from the options given
LO
below.
(1) Actinoid contraction is greater for element
to element than Lanthanoid contraction.
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are
colorless in the solid state.
IO
(3) Vitamin B1
(3) CaO
(3) Gamma (γ)
(4) Neutron (n) (4) DIBAL-H Ans. 3
Ans. 1
Lecture Notes
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BIOLOGY EXAMINATIONS
Lecture Notes
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BIOLOGY EXAMINATIONS
M4 14
88. The product formed in the following chemical 91. The reagent ‘R’ in the given sequence of chemical
reaction is : reaction is :
.C
S
(1) H2O
(2) CH3CH2OH
S
(3) HI
(1) (4) CuCN/KCN Ans. 2
LA
92. Choose the correct option for the total pressure
(in atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined
in a total volume of one litre at 08C is :
[Given R=0.082 L atm mol−1K−1, T=273 K]
C
(2) (1) 2.518
(2) 2.602
Y
(3) 25.18
(4) 26.02
Ans. 3
G
(3) 93. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in
nature ?
LO
(1) POCl3
(2) CH2O
(3) SbCl5
Ans. 3
(4) NO2
(4)
IO
Ans. 4
94. In which one of the following arrangements the
given sequence is not strictly according to the
89. Match List - I with List - II. properties indicated against it ?
B
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) of a solution at 458C with benzene to octane in
molar ratio 3 : 2 is :
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
Ans. 4 [At 458C vapour pressure of benzene is
90. From the following pairs of ions which one is not 280 mm Hg and that of octane is 420 mm Hg.
W
15 M4
96. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 99. The intermediate compound ‘X’ in the following
20 S cm 2 mol −1. What is the dissociation chemical reaction is :
constant of acetic acid ? Choose the correct option.
.C
Λ = 350 S cm2 mol −1
H+
Λ 50 S cm 2
mol −1
CH COO− =
S
3
(1)
(1) 1.75×10−4 mol L−1
S
(2) 2.50×10−4 mol L−1
(3) 1.75×10−5 mol L−1
(2)
LA
(4) 2.50×10−5 mol L−1
Ans. 3
1
97. The slope of Arrhenius Plot ln k v/s of first
T
C
order reaction is −5×103 K. The value of Ea of
(3)
the reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
answer.
Y
[Given R=8.314 JK−1mol−1]
(1) 41.5 kJ mol−1
G (4)
(2) 83.0 kJ mol−1
(3) 166 kJ mol−1 Ans. 1
LO
reaction
(2) Retardation factor
(3) Environment factor
Ans. 4
S
2 4
which mechanism the competing species might
(d) R−CH2COOH (iv) Esterification have evolved for their survival ?
.E
(i) X /Red P
(1) Resource partitioning
2 → (2) Competitive release
(ii) H2O
(3) Mutualism
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Predation Ans. 1
W
below.
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) 103. Amensalism can be represented as :
(1) Species A (−) ; Species B (0)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
W
M4 16
104. Match List - I with List - II. 109. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement ?
List - I List - II
(1) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
Cells with active cell Vascular
.C
(a) (i) conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
division capacity tissues
organelles.
Tissue having all cells
Meristematic (2) Microbodies are present both in plant and
(b) similar in structure (ii)
tissue animal cells.
and function
S
(3) The perinuclear space forms a barrier
Tissue having
(c) (iii) Sclereids between the materials present inside the
different types of cells
nucleus and that of the cytoplasm.
S
Dead cells with highly
(4) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins
(d) thickened walls and (iv) Simple tissue
and RNA molecules in both directions
LA
narrow lumen
between nucleus and cytoplasm. Ans. 1
Select the correct answer from the options given
below. 110. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is :
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
C
(3) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) 8-nucleate and 8-celled Ans. 1
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Y
(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) Ans. 1 111. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field
is :
105. The production of gametes by the parents,
G (1) IAA
formation of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be (2) NAA
understood from a diagram called :
(3) 2, 4-D
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106. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium (3) Red algae
Ans. 3
bromide when viewed under UV radiation, appear (4) Blue-green algae
as :
113. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by :
B
107. Gemmae are present in : 114. Match List - I with List - II.
(1) Mosses List - I List - II
A
below.
kinds of structures. This ability is called :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) Elasticity
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) Flexibility
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17 M4
115. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves 122. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
division of centromere ?
(1) Metaphase I
(1) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
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(2) Metaphase II
(c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
(3) Anaphase II
(2) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;
(4) Telophase II Ans. 3 (c)-Transcription; (d)-Transduction
116. Match List - I with List - II. (3) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
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(c)-Translation; (d)-Protein
List - I List - II (4) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; Ans. 3
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen
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(c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition 123. Which of the following statements is not correct ?
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases (1) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
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(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm inverted.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
below. upright.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (4) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
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(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) ecosystem is upright. Ans. 2
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 124. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
Ans. 2
Y
(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) reserve food material ?
(1) Ectocarpus
117. The site of perception of light in plants during (2) Gracilaria
photoperiodism is :
G (3) Volvox
(1) Shoot apex (4) Ulothrix Ans. 1
(2) Stem 125. During the purification process for recombinant
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More attraction in
(4) Acrocentric Ans. 1 (a) Cohesion (i)
liquid phase
120. Which of the following is not an application of PCR Mutual attraction
A
121. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two Choose the correct answer from the options given
kinds of spores. Such plants are known as : below.
(1) Homosorus (a) (b) (c) (d)
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M4 18
128. Diadelphous stamens are found in : 134. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
(1) China rose phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
(2) Citrus given time, is referred as :
(1) Climax
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(3) Pea
(4) China rose and citrus Ans. 3 (2) Climax community
(3) Standing state
129. Which of the following are not secondary Ans. 3
(4) Standing crop
metabolites in plants ?
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(1) Morphine, codeine 135. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum
(2) Amino acids, glucose is :
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(3) Vinblastin, curcumin (1) Pyruvic acid
(4) Rubber, gums Ans. 2 (2) Oxaloacetic acid
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(3) Succinic acid
130. Match List - I with List - II. Ans. 2
(4) Phosphoglyceric acid
List - I List - II
Primary constriction in Section - B (Biology : Botany)
(a) Cristae (i)
chromosome
C
Disc-shaped sacs in 136. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(b) Thylakoids (ii)
Golgi apparatus (1) Both ATP and NADPH+H + are
Infoldings in synthesized during non-cyclic
Y
(c) Centromere (iii) photophosphorylation.
mitochondria
Flattened membranous (2) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack
NADP reductase.
(d) Cisternae (iv) sacs in stroma of
G
plastids (3) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II.
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both
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(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) Ans. 3 terminate the process of transcription in
bacteria.
131. When gene targetting involving gene amplification
(3) The coding strand in a transcription unit is
is attempted in an individual’s tissue to treat
copied to an mRNA.
B
disease, it is known as :
(4) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
(1) Biopiracy
prokaryotes. Ans. 2
(2) Gene therapy
Y
132. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from (a) (i) Brassicaceae
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant
A
(2) Geitonogamy
(3) Chasmogamy (d) (iv) Solanaceae
(4) Cleistogamy Ans. 1 Select the correct answer from the options given
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19 M4
139. Select the correct pair. 143. Match List - I with List - II.
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of grass leaves (a) S phase (i)
synthesized
(2) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive (b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
bundles are surrounded tissue
Interval between
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by large thick-walled
cells (c) Quiescent stage (iii) mitosis and initiation
of DNA replication
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(3) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
that form part of cambium (d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
cambial ring
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Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy below.
rupturing the epidermis parenchyma (a) (b) (c) (d)
and forming a lens-
shaped opening in bark (1) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
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Ans. 3 (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
140. In the exponential growth equation (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
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(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Nt=Noert, e represents : Ans. 3
(1) The base of number logarithms
G 144. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(2) The base of exponential logarithms (1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
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(3) The base of natural logarithms (2) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile
on non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy.
(4) The base of geometric logarithms
(3) Organisms that depend on living plants are
Ans. 3 called saprophytes.
141. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the (4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
IO
(3) Transcribes precursor of mRNA (1) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
limited to the terminal stage.
Y
142. Plasmid pBR322 has PstI restriction enzyme site 2 ATP molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise
within gene amp R that confers ampicillin to 3 ATP molecules.
resistance. If this enzyme is used for inserting a
A
(4) it will be able to produce a novel protein with (3) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
dual ability. (4) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae Ans. 4
Ans. 1
M4 20
147. Match Column - I with Column - II. Section - A (Biology : Zoology)
Column - I Column - II
151. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
(a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
and pneumatic long bones ?
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Conversion of
(b) Rhizobium (ii) (1) Neophron
ammonia to nitrite
Conversion of nitrite (2) Hemidactylus
(c) Thiobacillus (iii)
to nitrate (3) Macropus
Ans. 1
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Conversion of (4) Ornithorhynchus
(d) Nitrobacter (iv) atmospheric nitrogen
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to ammonia 152. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro
Choose the correct answer from options given muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening
below. and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as :
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(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Arthritis
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) Muscular dystrophy
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Myasthenia gravis
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Ans. 1 (4) Gout Ans. 3
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C
148. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated 153. Which one of the following is an example of
gene causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe Hormone releasing IUD ?
Y
to hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of (1) CuT
cells, followed by its detection using
(2) LNG 20
autoradiography because :
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(1) mutated gene partially appears on a (3) Cu 7
photographic film. (4) Multiload 375
Ans. 2
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(4)
as : a pair of anal cerci. Ans. 1
(1) Satellite DNA
Y
(2) Repetitive DNA 155. Select the favourable conditions required for the
(3) Single nucleotides formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
(4) Polymorphic DNA (1) High pO 2 , low pCO 2 , less H + , lower
Ans. 2
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temperature
150. Match List - I with List - II.
(2) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher
List - I List - II
A
temperature
(a) Protein (i) C=C double bonds
(3) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher
Unsaturated
(b) (ii) Phosphodiester bonds temperature
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fatty acid
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds (4) Low pO2 , low pCO2, more H +, higher
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds temperature Ans. 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given
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21 M4
157. The organelles that are included in the 162. Which of the following statements wrongly
endomembrane system are : represents the nature of smooth muscle ?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria, (1) These muscle have no striations
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Ribosomes and Lysosomes (2) They are involuntary muscles
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, (3) Communication among the cells is
Lysosomes and Vacuoles performed by intercalated discs
(3) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
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(4) These muscles are present in the wall of
Lysosomes blood vessels
Ans. 3
(4) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
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Mitochondria and Lysosomes Ans. 2 163. Match the following :
List - I List - II
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158. Match List - I with List - II.
(a) Physalia (i) Pearl oyster
List - I List - II (b) Limulus (ii) Portuguese Man of War
(a) Metamerism (i) Coelenterata (c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
(b) Canal system (ii) Ctenophora (d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
C
(c) Comb plates (iii) Annelida Choose the correct answer from the options given
(d) Cnidoblasts (iv) Porifera below.
Y
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
G
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) Ans. 3
(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
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Ans. 3
(3) Improve vitamin content
160. Which of the following RNAs is not required for
(4) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
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M4 22
167. With regard to insulin choose correct options. 173. Read the following statements.
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin. (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
has C-peptide.
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animals.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide. (c) Round worms have organ-system level of
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are body organization.
interconnected by disulphide bridges. (d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
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Choose the correct answer from the options given digestion.
below. (e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
(1) (b) and (d) only Echinoderms.
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(2) (b) and (c) only Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only below.
Ans. 3
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(4) (a) and (d) only (1) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
168. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell. (3) (a), (d) and (e) are correct
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of (4) (b), (c) and (e) are correct Ans. 4
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
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number of chromosomes after S phase ? 174. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of :
(1) 8 (1) CFCs
(2) 16 (2) Stratosphere
Y
(3) 4 (3) Ozone
Ans. 3
(4) 32 Ans. 1 (4) Troposphere
G
169. Which is the “Only enzyme” that has “Capability” 175. During the process of gene amplification using
to catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination PCR, if very high temperature is not maintained
in the process of transcription in prokaryotes ? in the beginning, then which of the following steps
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(2) 75%
(3) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(3) 25%
(4) Drugs - Ricin Ans. 4
(4) 100% Ans. 3
Y
171. For effective treatment of the disease, early 177. Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are called as
diagnosis and understanding its pathophysiology “Universal recipients”. This is due to :
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is very important. Which of the following (1) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface
molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for of RBCs
early detection ?
A
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diakinesis (3) Cockroach
(4) Pachytene Ans. 3 (4) House fly Ans. 4
23 M4
179. The centriole undergoes duplication during : 184. Match List - I with List - II.
(1) S-phase List - I List - II
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(2) Prophase Entry of sperm through
(a) Vaults (i)
Cervix is blocked
(3) Metaphase
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas deferens
(4) G2 phase
Ans. 1
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Phagocytosis of sperms
(c) Vasectomy (iii)
within the Uterus
180. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are
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present on : (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
(1) Corona radiata Choose the correct answer from the options given
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(2) Vitelline membrane below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Perivitelline space
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(4) Zona pellucida
Ans. 4 (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
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(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
181. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins ? (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Ans. 2
(1) Thrombin
Y
185. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what
(2) Renin
G will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and
Cytosine in it ?
(3) Epinephrine
(1) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
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(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid relaxin, during the later phase of pregnancy ?
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Graafian follicle
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respectively.
(3) The cells of bone marrow
(4) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
(4) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney respectively.
Ans. 4 Ans. 2
M4 24
188. Which one of the following statements about 192. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple
Histones is wrong ? Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology
(1) Histones are organized to form a unit of (MOET) ?
8 molecules.
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(1) Cow is administered hormone having LH
(2) The pH of histones is slightly acidic. like activity for super ovulation
(3) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine (2) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time
and Arginine. (3) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
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(4) Histones carry positive charge in the side
(4) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
chain. Ans. 2 mothers at 8-32 cell stage
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189. Which of these is not an important component of Ans. 1
initiation of parturition in humans ? 193. Statement I :
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(1) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio The codon ‘AUG’ codes for methionine and
(2) Synthesis of prostaglandins phenylalanine.
(3) Release of Oxytocin Statement II :
(4) Release of Prolactin Ans. 4 ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both codons code for the amino
acid lysine.
C
190. Match List - I with List - II. In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
Y
List - I List - II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(a) Allen's Rule (i) Kangaroo rat true
Physiological
(b) (ii) Desert lizard
G (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
adaptation
false
Behavioural
(c) (iii) Marine fish at depth (3) Statement I is correct but Statement II
adaptation
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Biochemical
is false
(d) (iv) Polar seal
adaptation (4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true
Choose the correct answer from the options given Ans. 4
below.
194. Match List - I with List - II.
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25 M4
196. Assertion (A) : 199. During muscular contraction which of the
A person goes to high altitude and experiences following events occur ?
‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like breathing (a) ‘H’ zone disappears
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difficulty and heart palpitations.
(b) ‘A’ band widens
Reason (R) :
(c) ‘I’ band reduces in width
Due to low atmospheric pressure at high altitude,
the body does not get sufficient oxygen. (d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP
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In the light of the above statements, choose the and Pi
correct answer from the options given below. (e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards
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(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Choose the correct answer from the options given
correct explanation of (A) below.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
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(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true Ans. 1 (3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
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List - I List - II 200. Following are the statements about prostomium
Selection of resistant of earthworm.
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Adaptive varieties due to excessive (a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
(a) (i)
radiation use of herbicides and
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which
pesticides
G
it can crawl.
Convergent Bones of forelimbs in Man
(b) (ii) (c) It is one of the sensory structures.
evolution and Whale
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‘lipids’.
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
unsaturated fatty acids.
A
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