Sudi cé than _ Thanh Héa _ TuYEN TAP doo HE HSG LOP 12 CAC TRUCNG TINH THANH HOA a 7 , ae e Than tang cac ban dng hé Otto Channel Teach from not from g with KeyOTTO’S MENU THE BEST RECIPES IN TOWN APPETIZERS 1. A1 General (Thi HSG Lop 4, 5 & Flyers) 2. A2 General (Thi HSG Lop 5, 6 & KET) 3. A2 KET (Giai 10 quyén KET, bé tro HSG lop MAIN COURSES o Gael: én PET, bé tro HSG lp 6, 7) 5. B1 General 7. B2 FCE (Thi HSG Lép 6, 7 & PET) (Giai 10 Q in FCE, bé tro chuyén & HSG) 6. B2 (trir) hi HSG Lop 7, 8 & FCE) the c J Ceri Ok Nuke ae aa e)} 8. B2 General 10.C1_ CAE (Thi HSG Lép 9 & Chuyén) | (Giai 10 Quyé ICE-CREAM 13. C1C2_HSG cép Ill . (Thi HSG Lép 10, 11, 12) DESERTS @ip =«:11.C1_HN (Thi CAE, HSG & Chuyén) 14. Giai dé HSG cap 3 12.C1_HCM (Thi HSG Lép 10, 11, 12) (Thi CAE, HSG & Chuyén)SO GD&DT THANH HOA KY THI KSHSG LOP 12 THANG 9 NAM HQC 2021 - 2022 TRUONG THPT TINH GIA 2 DE THI MON: TIENG ANH . (Dé thi gdm 06 trang) Thai gian thi: 150 phit, khéng ké thai gian giao dé PART I- LISTENING Section 1: You will hear an English woman called Britta talking to an interviewer about her life in Berlin, the capital of Germany. For each question, circle the correct answer. 1, How long has Britta lived in Berlin? A. four years B. six years C. twenty years D. fourteen years 2. What does Britta say about living in Berlin? A. She can’t sleep at night because of the traffic noise. B. She misses the museums and theatres in Bonn. C. She likes living in a big, busy city. D. She doesn’t like living in a big, busy city. 3. The area of Berlin where Britta lives is ‘A. a rather expensive place to live. B. a good place to eat out. C. along way from the city centre. D. a good place to go shopping. 4, Britta says that her nephew, Philippe, likes going ‘A. to the park with her. B. to the shop with his parents. C. toa gallery with her. D. to the cinema with her. 5. Britta has a lot of friends who A.livenearher —B work with her C. are still in England _D. live far from her. Section 2: Listen to the conversation between John and David and circle the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the following sentences. 6. David used to be... A. an international student B. a tutor at the university C. a student at the university D. a lecturer at the university 7. In his department. ‘A. many students came from other countries B. some students came from other countries C. the international students did not like the course D. the international students did not study well 8. David thinks the most important thing for the international students is.. A. not to be shy to talk to other students B. to make an appointment with local students C. to make full use of the tutors and lecturers D not to tell anyone their problems 9. David advises the international students to. at the beginning of the course. A. find out when the tutor is available for tutorial appointments B. make full use of their friends C. share studying experiences with local students D. know as much as they can about the university 10. In order to deal with the long reading lists David advises the international students to. ‘A. read all the items on the reading list B. read the most important items on the reading list C. find out the most important reading listD. ask local students for the most important reading list PART II: PRONUNCIATION: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others: 11: A. booked B. missed C. naked D. pronounced 12: A. mature B. future C. adventure D. figure 13: A. confine B. conceal C.concentrate D. convention ‘Choose the word whose stress position is different from that of the others: 14. A. domestic B. dormitory C. dogmatic D. deliberate 15. A. inevitable B. innovate C. innocent D. insecticide PART IlI- GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 16. Mark Stringly is rarely interviewed as he hates being in the : A. flashlight B. limelight C. headlight D. floodlight 17. [tried to push my way through the standing passengers to get to the door and, failing to keep my about me. A. head B. soul C. wits D. mind 18. On cloudy nights it is not possible to see the stars with eye. A. naked B. bare C. flesh, D. pure 19, We need a more assessment of the chances of ending this war. A. moral B, sober C. plain D. vivid 20. Thick fog across much of the UK has resulted in dozens of flights and many more delayed. ‘A. being cancelled B. to be cancelled C. arecancelled —_D.. cancelled 21. The mobile phone company planned to publicly its latest technology to upgrade its already strong operating system. A. underwrite B. undervalue C. undress D. unveil 22. She has drawn praise for her charitable works. ‘A. abundant B. luxurious C. massive D. lavish 23. When times are good, people can spend freely, but during bad times we have to___ our spending. A. multiple B. disperse C. curtail D. obstinate 24, Ben’s so unlucky in love. Why does he the type of woman who brings trouble? A. catch on B. fall for C. put before D. set out 25, Although there is some truth to the fact that Linux is a huge threat to Microsoft, predictions of the Redmond company’s demise are, . premature, ‘A. saying the most B. to say the least. to say the most _D. to the least degree 26. The vagrant came out of the shop, for about 10 paces before falling against a car. A. stammered B. tripped C. staggered D. skidded 27. After his heavy defeat in the local elections he decided to from the campaign for the Presidency. A. withdraw B. retract C. abandon. D. withhold 28, He claimed from military service as he was a foreign national. A. demobilization B. exception C. exemption D. liability 29. The manager spoke highly of such as loyalty, courage and truthfulness shown by his employees. haracteristics __B. properties C. features D. virtues 30. 1 can't imagine, anywhere except here A. studying B. to study C. study D. that I study 31.When Tet holiday comes, Vietnamese people often feel inclined to their houses. ‘A. do up B. do in C. do through D. do over 32.My director is angry with me . I didn't do all the work I last week, A. should have done B, may have done C. need to have done D. must have done33. the phone rang later that night did Tom remember the appoinment. ‘A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before 34. Our project was successful its practicality. A. in terms of B. witha viewto —_C. regardless D. on behalf of 35. Peter was ejected after committing five personal in water sport game yesterday. A. mistakes B. faults C. fouls D, errors 36. The windows don't fit very well and this makes the room awfully . A. airy B. draughty C. breezy D. ventilated Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences. 37. It was inevitable that the smaller company should merge with the larger. A. urgent B. unavoidable CC. important D. necessary 38. Scientists warn of the impending extinction of many species of plants and animals. A. irrefutable B. imminent C. formidable D. absolute Mark the letter A,B,C or D on your sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined words in each of the following sentences. 39. Jose had a hard time comparing the iPhone to the Samsung phone because to him they were apples and oranges. ‘A. containing too many technical details B. very similar C. completely different D. very complicated 40. I prefer secure jobs because I don’t like keeping on moving and changing all the time. A. challenging B. demanding C. stable D. safe Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following questions. 41. Sam and David are talking about what to do after work. = “Do you fancy going to a movie this evening?” - i A. Not at all. Go ahead. B. I’m sorry. I don’t know that. C. That would be nice. D. Not so bad. And you? 42. Mary and her son are in the kitchen. ~ Mary: “Watch out or you'll hurt yourself!” ~ Son: A. Yes, I won't do that again B. That’s a good idea C. Thank you! D. I totally agree with you. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 43. No longer is scientific discovery a matter of one person alone working. A B ic D 44, A professor of economy and history at our university has developed a new theory of the relationship A B between historical events and financial crises. ce D 45. The professor together with his three students have been called to court. A B c D PART IV: READING 1. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. THE LANGUAGE OF TEARSThe ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that human tears are evidence of an aquatic past - but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we enter this (46) for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (47) they will also ery just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it. ‘The idea that having a good ery can do you (48) is a very old one and now it has scientific (49) since recent research into tears has shown that they contain a natural painkiller called enkaphali By G0) sorrow and pain this chemical helps you to feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (51) Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (52) activity. Because some people still regard it as a (53) of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically. Tears of emotion also help the body (54) itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable - consider the popularity of the highly emotional films which are commonly (55) "weepies". It seems that people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together. 46. A. world B. place C. earth D. space 47. A. evolve B. change C. develop D.alter 48. A. better B. fine C. good D. welll 49. A. validity B. truth C. reality D. reason 50. A. struggling B. fighting C. opposing D. striking 51. A. construct, B. achieve C. provide D. produce 52. A. curing B. treating C. healing D. improving 53. A. hint B. symbol C. feature D. sign 54. A. release B.rid C. loosen D. expel 55. A. named B. entitled C. subtitled D. called IL. Read the following passages carefully, then choose the ONE best answer to each question Water scarcity is fast becoming one of the major limiting factors in world crop production. In many areas, poor agricultural practices have led to increasing desertification and the loss of formerly arable lands. Consequently, those plants species that are well adapted to survival in dry climates are being looked at for an answer in developing more efficient crops to grow on marginally arable lands. Plants uses several mechanisms to ensure their survival in desert environments. Some involve purely ‘mechanical and physical adaptations, such as the shape of the plant’s surface, smaller leaf size, and extensive root systems. Some of the adaptations are related to chemical mechanisms. Many plants, such as cacti, have internal gums and mucilages which give them water-retaining properties. Another chemical mechanism is that of the epicuticular wax layer. This wax layer acts as an impervious cover to protect the plant. It prevents excessive loss of internal moisture. It also protects the plant from external aggression, which can come from inorganic agents such as gases, or organic agents which include bacteria ant plant pets. Researchers have proposed that synthetic waxes with similar protective abilities could be prepared based on knowledge of desert plants. If successfully developed, such a compound could be used to greatly increase a plant’s ability to maintain health in such adverse situations as inadequate water supply, limited fertilizers availability, attacked by pets, and poor storage after harvesting. 56.This passage deals mainly with A. desertification B, decreasing water supply C. factors limiting crop production D. developing efficient plants 57. The word “arable” is closest in meaning to A. fertile B. parched C. barren D. marsh 58. Which of the following is a mechanical or physical mechanism that desert plants use? A. The plant’s shape _B. The small root system C. The vast leaf size. The high water system 59. Which is one of the ways in which the epicuticular wax protects the plant?A. Ithelps the plant to avoid excessive moisture intake _B. It helps the plant to attack aggressors. C. Itreleases gases against plant pets. D. It guards against bacteria. 60. The word “aggression” is closest in meaning to A. attack B. agitation C. conditions D. surroundings 61. What is an example of an inorganic agent that may attack plants? A. Bacteria B. Insects C. Gas D. Pets 62. It can be inferred that synthetic simulated waxes ‘A. have not been developed yet B. have not succeeded C. have been determined to be impervious to organic and inorganic agents. D. have the quality of causing bacteria. IIL. Read the following passage, and then choose the best answer from A, B, C or D. We find that bright children are rarely held back by mixed-ability teaching. On the contrary, both their knowledge and experience are enriched. We feel that there are many disadvantages in streaming pupils. It does not take into account the fact that children develop at different rates. It can have a bad effect on both the bright and the not-so-bright child. Afterall, it can be quite discouraging to be at the bottom of the top grade! Besides, it is rather unreal to grade people just according to their intellectual ability. This is only one aspect of their total personality. We are concerned to develop the abilities of all our pupils to the full, not just their academic ability. We also value personal qualities and social skills, and we find that mixed-ability teaching contributes to all these aspects of learning. In our classrooms, we work in various ways. The pupils often work in groups: this gives them the opportunity to leam to co-operate, to share, and to develop leadership skills. They also learn how to cope with personal problems as well as learning how to think, to make decisions, to analyze and evaluate, and to communicate effectively. The pupils learn from each other as well as from the teachers. Sometimes the pupils work in pairs; sometimes they work on individual tasks and assignments, and they can do this at their own speed. They also have some formal class teaching when this is appropriate. We encourage our pupils to use the library, and we teach them the skills they need in order to do this effectively. An advanced pupil can do advanced work; it does not matter what age the child is. We expect our pupils to do their best, not their least, and we give them every encouragement to attain this goal. 63. In the passage, the author’s attitude towards “mixed-ability teaching” is ‘A. objective B. questioning C. critical D. approving 64. The words “held back” in 1*' paragraph means “ mu A. made to lag behind in study B. forced to study in lower classes C. prevented from advancing D. made to remain in the same classes 65. The author argues that a teacher’s chief concern should be the development of the pupils” ‘A. total personalit B. learning ability and communicative skills C. intellectual abilities D. personal and social skills 66. The author’s purpose of writing this passage is to A. recommend pair work and group work classroom activities B. argue for teaching bright and not-so-bright pupils in the same class CC. emphasize the importance of appropriate formal classroom teaching D. offer advice on the proper use of the school library 67. According to the passage, which of the following is an advantage of mixed-ability teaching? ‘A. Pupils can be hindered from an all-round development. B. Formal class teaching is the important way to give the pupils essential skills such as those to be used in the library. C. A pupil can be at the bottom of a class. D. Pupils as individuals always have the opportunities to work on their own. 68. Which of the following statements can best summaries the main idea of the passage? ‘A. The aim of education is to find out how to teach the bright and not-so-bright pupils. B. Children, in general, develop at different rates. C. Various ways of teaching should be encouraged in class.D. Bright children do benefit from mixed-class teaching. 69. According to the passage, “streaming pupils” A. is the act of putting pupils into classes according to their academic abi B. will help the pupils learn best C. aims at enriching both their knowledge and experience D. is quite discouraging 70. According to the author, mixed-ability teaching is more preferable because A. it doesn’t have disadvantages as in streaming pupils B. children can learn to work with each other to solve personal problems C. formal class teaching is appropriate D. it aims at developing the children’s total personality PART V- WRITING I: Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. 71. I'm sure you're wondering why I haven’t contacted you for so long. (HAS) > 72. The restaurant manager thought that they were (RAN) > ely to lose all their customers if service didn’t improve. 73. Alistair has no chance of being selected for the team because of his poor sprint times. (PAID) > 74. | found the plot of the book too complicated to follow. (HEAD) > 75.Although everything pointed to her having taken the money, she strenuously denied it. (EVIDENCE) > . II. Complete the second sentence so that it has the same meaning as the first one, using the words given. 76. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine. > I cancelled 77. Her success went beyond her expectation. > Never 78. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency. > The more 79. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation. > The operation left 80. Attendances at the exhibition have been down this year. > The exhibition IIL. Write an essay of about 250 words to express your opinion on the following question: Itis important for children to learn difference between right and wrong at an early age. Punishment is necessary to help them to learn this distinction, To what extent do you agree or disagree with this opinion ?a iz PART I- LISTENING 1A [2¢ 3B 4c 5A 6C 7A 8c 9A 10B PART Il: PRONUNCIATION: 11.C, 12A, 13C, 14B, 15A (I6i). PART IIl- GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 16B,17C, 18A, 19B, 20A, 21D, 22D, 23C, 248, 25B, 26C, 27A, 28C, 29D, 30A, 31D, 32A, 33C, 34, 35C, 36B. 378, 38B, 39B, 40A, 41C, 42A, 43D, 44A, 45C. PART IV- READING 1.46.A, 47.C, 48.C, 49. 1.56.0, 57.A, 58.A, 59. 50. B, 51.D, 52. C, 53. D, 54. B, 55.D. 60.A, 61.C, 62.0. ML. 63.D, 64.C, 65.A, 66.B,67.D, 68.D, 69.A, 70.D PART V: WRITING ' 71. You must be wondering why it has been so long since | contacted you. 72. The restaurant manager thought that they ran the risk of losing all their customers if service didn’t improve. 73. Alistair’s poor sprint times (put paid to his chance / put paid to his chances / have put paid to his chance / have put paid to his chances) of being selected for the team. 74, | can’t make head nor tail of the plot of the book. 75. She strenuously denied taking the money despite evidence to the contrary wh 76. | cancelled my subscription to that magazine nine months ago. 77. Never had she expected she was so successful. 78. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.79. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected. 80.The exhibition has not been so well attended this year Ml. 20(ps) ‘The mark given to essay writing is based on the following scheme: 1. Content: (35% of total mark) a. Providing all main ideas and details as required b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively 2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) a. Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity b. The essay is well-structured 3. Language: (30% of total mark) a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students b. Good use and control of grammatical structures 4. Handwriting, punctuation, and spelling: (5% of total mark) a. Intelligible handwriting b. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakesTRUONG THPT TINH GIA 1 DE KIEM TRA CHAT LUQNG DOL TUYEN HSG TO TIENG ANH LOP 12-LAN 1 - Mén thi: Tiéng Anh TT NAM HOC 2021 - 2022 Negay thi: 02 thang 10 nim 2021 ‘Thoi gian: 150 phut (khéng ké thdi gian giao dé) PART A: LISTENING (10points) © Bai nghe gém 3 phan, mdi phan duge nghe 2 lan. Thi sinh c6 3 phiit dé hodn chinh bai sau khi két thie 3 phén nghe. Moi hung dan cho thi sinh da cé trong dé thi. PART 1: You will hear an interview with a teenager called Simon about going to an indoor climbing centre that has a climbing wall. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B,C or D. (5 points) 1. Why did Simon's mum decide to take him to the climbing centre ? A. because she had enjoyed going there. B. because her friend had recommended it. C.. because Simon had been there with his school. D. because he asked his mother to take him there. 2. how did Simon feel before he went to the center? A.. he was worried about going climbing there. _B. he was interested in seeing the climbing wall. C. he was disappointed to hear it was all indoors. _D. he thought it was great. 3. What did Simon think about the climbing wall? A. He thought it looked very high. B. He was afraid he might fall. C. He found the foot holes helpful. D. He thought it was difficult for him to get to the top 4, Why was Simon unhappy with his first climb? A. He was slower than everyone else. B. He found it hurt his arms. C. He didn't get to the top. D. He fell down when he was climbing. 5. What does Simon feel he learnt from climbing at the centre? A. how to improve his fitness B. to think before he does something C. the best way to work with other people D. how to spend time properly. PART 2: . You are going to hear a travel Agent discussing a holiday booking with two customers. Listen to their conversation and answer questions. (Spoints) 6. When will both customers be free to travel? A. The first week of July B. The whole month except for the last five days C. From the first to the twenty-third of July D. From the seventh to the twenty-third of July, 7. Which country did the two customers visit last year? A. Italy B. Sweden . France D. Portugal 8. How long did the customers want for their holiday? A.A week B. Ten days C. Two weeks D. Four weeks 9. Why don’t the customers want to go to Italy? A. Because there are too many young people. B. Because it would be too hot. C. Because they’ve been there D. Because the dates don’t suit them 10. Circle the reason that they don’t like to go to Sweden A. Too expensive. B. Too hot €.No beaches. D. Not enough PART B: PHONETICS (5 points) 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (3 points). 11. A.excursion —_B. further C. surgery D. surprise 12. A. creative B. creation C. creature D. create 13. A. cleared B. hatred C. sacred D. wickedII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions (2 points). 14, A. develop B. reunite C. understand D. recommend 15. A. confide B. divide C. answer D. appeal PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points) 1. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.(21 points) 16. It tumed out that we. to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours. ‘A. mustn't have rushed —_B. can't have rushed C.needn't have rushed _D., shouldn't have rushed 17. Although by the bravery of his fellow soldiers, Bloch had harsh words for the army leadership. A. was impressed B. impressed C. having impressed D. impressing 18. The group’s legal advisers said they were the initiative to tackle online privacy issues. A. doing B. taking C. making D. leading 19, The boy has a collection of A. old valuable Australian postage stamp B. old Australian valuable postage stamp C. valuable Australian old postage stamp D. valuable old Australian postage stamp 20: The online game “Dumb ways to die” quickly ___with young people after being released in 2013. A. took on B. caught up C. caught on D. took up 21. Deep sea diving should always be carried out in pairs. In this way, another source of oxygen is available one system fails, as if B. otherwise C. in case D. only if 22. Rowena for joy when she heard that she’d won the first prize. ‘A. jumped B. cried . screamed D. clapped 23. The improvement has been across the . with all divisions either increasing profits or reducing losses. A bulletin B. board C. company D. newspaper 24, She, a really good impression of the president in order to make everybody laugh. A. did B. made C. built D. caused 25. I think he will join us, 2 A. doesn’t he B. won't he C. will he D. don’t! 26. : Anne was not to think that the best was too difficult. A. among the peopie B. who . the one who D. the only one 27. The more she practices, she becomes. A. the more confident __B. the better confident C. the more confident!___D., the greater confidence 28. Anna often dresses when going to the parties in order to attract her friends’ attention, A. plainly B. properly C. flashily D. soberly 29. The government also supports childhood programmes A. injection Baantidote C. antibiotics D. immunization 30. It’s a long time since you saw her but this photo may your memory. A. jog B, juggle C jostle D. jam 31: Not only in the field of psychology but animal behavior is examined as well. A. is human behavior studied B. is studied human behavior C. human behavior D. human behavior is studied 32: Luckily, the rain 0 we were able to play the match. A. watered down B. gave out CC. got away D. held off 33: Amazon.com, Ine, is an America multinational technology company based in. Seattle, Washington that focuses on. e- commerce, cloud computing, and artificial intelligence. A. the/the B.O/O C. the/ @ D.O/the 34. By the time their baby arrives, the Johnson hope painting and decorating the new nursery.PART D: READING (30 points) I. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 points) WEDDING BELLS love weddings, although I'm not actually planning to get married myself, at least not in the (46) ——- -- future. Marriage, though, is definitely back in fashion. For the last twenty years or so, the trend has been for young people to wait, to (47) -------------- on their education and their career before thinking about settling down and starting a family. But apparently, things are now changing. The reason, it seems, is that so many famous celebrities are getting married relatively young, and (48) ---------—---- a great deal of publicity in the process, and as a result young people are getting (49) -------------- about the idea of marriage again. It could be, (50) that what seems so appealing is not the idea of married life at all, but rather the thought of a big party and (51) ------------- of expensive presents, This seems to me the only advantage of getting married. I mean, how often do you actually manage to gather all your friends and family together in ‘one place, all dressed up and on their (52) —~ ~ behavior, with yourself as the center of attention? But, to tell you the (53) ., when it comes to weddings, I have a lot in (54) — - with a football fan, I know that I don’t actually have to play the game in order to enjoy it. So, as I say I love weddings, but only as (55) as they are other people’s! 46. A. next B. first C. near D. close 47. A. commit B. dedicate C. devote D. concentrate 48. A. catching B. gaining C. earning D. keeping 49, A. excited B. interested C. fascinated D. attracted 50. A. although B. despite C. therefore D. however 51. A. loads B. packs C. crowds D. pots 52. A. top B. best C ideal D. perfect 53. A. fact B. reality C. honesty D. truth 54, A. common B. familiar C. similar D. alike 55. A. long B. well C. soon D. far M1, Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question that follows. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (Spoints) Human beings are plagued by all kinds of diseases and millions of people die from them. Many of these diseases such as diabetes, polio, whooping cough and diphtheria can be fatal and in the past, people used to die from them. However, with modern technology and a lot of research, scientists and doctors have come up with various ways to cure these diseases, and consequently, many lives are saved. In doing the medical research, doctors have come face to face with many problems. One such problem is the opposition that comes from animal activists. They are against the inhuman treatment of animals. They argue that in conducting their medical research, doctors put animals through a very painful process and this should be stopped. According to the fiercest animal activists, nothing justifies the use of animals in medical experiments, even if lives might be saved. To get their message across, animal activists are even willing to resort to the use of violence. Many animal protection groups, like the Animal Liberation Front (ALF), have broken into laboratories illegally to 'rescue’ animals. They take away whatever animals they can find and free them. These people also make their case by threatening the researchers. They vandalize medical equipment, and in the most serious cases, they even use bombs. In stealing the animals, the activists are actually hindering the progress of medicine. In many cases, the animals were part of research for the cure for various diseases and visual defects in babies. Cures for problems that people face, therefore, come slower and in the waiting period, more people die. Researchers have come up with many cures in the process of working with animals and on animals. Organ transplants are so common today, but we forget they became only possible after they were tested on animals. Doctors were able to come up with a cure for river blindness, a disease that affects millions of people in South ‘America and Africa. These are only a few examples, and there are many more. In spite of what animal activists 4 (00 Oc) sumstaet amsssy “I UoRSONOthink, most researches do not treat animals cruelly. In fact, mistreated animals which are in agony will affect the quality of research so that results obtained are not really reliable. Thus, researchers do try to treat animals as well as possible. In the long run, animal activists can cause serious damage to the future of medicine. With their persistent campaigning, much of the public supports their cause. People with AIDS or cancer need doctors to do research to save their lives, and ofien itis a case where animal research is crucial before nay cure can be found. Question 56, The belief of animal activists is that animals : ‘A. should not be sacrificed in experiments B. should experience no pain in experiments C. can be used in experiments to cure human diseases D. must be treated well so that they can do research Question 57. The phrase “resort to “ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. turn to something as another choice B. come to a decision on second thoughts C. refuse to take drastic action D. take full advantage of Question 58, Thanks to tests on animals, doctors succeeded in . ‘A. discovering river blindness B. finding a cure for river blindness C. revealing what animal activists think D, treating animals as well as possible Question 59. Which of the following might NOT be the purpose of doing medical researches? ‘A. Finding the cure for diseases B. Developing medical equipment C. Making better medicine for the rich D. Improving the well-being of humans Question 60. The highlighted word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to A. researchers B. many cures C. organ transplants. animals. Question 61. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage? A. Fatal diseases like diabetes and AIDS are a thing of the past. B. A majority of researchers are against cruelty to animals used in research. C. River blindness is a disease that affects millions of people. D. A result of the campaign by animal activists is getting people's support. Question 62. Which of the following would the author probably agree with? ‘A. With modem technology, doctors can now cure all kinds of disease. B. Animal activists are doing a good job for the community. C. Organ transplants are impossible unless they are carried out on animals. D. Animal research is essential to find a remedy for fatal diseases. IIL. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question that follows. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (Spoints) Buying the house is the single largest financial investment an individual makes. Yet, in India this act is fraught with risk and individuals depend on weak laws for justice. Occasionally, devian promoters are called to account as was the case in the detention of Unitech’s promoters. This incident shows up the fallout of an absence of proper regulation to cover contracts between buyers and real estate promoters. A real estate bill, which presently pending in Rajya Sabha, seeks to fill this gap. It has been debated for over two years and should be passed by Parliament in the budget session. India is in the midst of rapid urbanization and urban population is expected to more than double to about 900 million over the next three decades. Unfortunately, even the current population does not have adequate housing A government estimate in 2012 put the shortage at nearly 19 million units. If this shortage is to be. ted quickly, India’s messy real estate sector needs reforms. The real estate bill seeks to set standards for contracts between the buyers and sellers, Transparency, a rate commodity in real estate, is enforced as promoters have to upload project details on the regulators’ website. Imortantly, standard definitions of terms mean that buyers will not feel cheated after taking possession of a house. In order to protect buyers who pay upfiont, a part of the money collected for a real estate project is ring- fenced in a separate bank account. Also, given the uncertainty, which exists in India on land titles, the real estate bill provides title insurance. This bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees and its passage now brooks no delayThis bill is an important step in cleaning up the real estate market, but the joumey should not end with it. State governments play a significant role in real estate and they are often the source of problems. Some estimates suggest that real estate developers have to seek approvals of as many as 40 central and state departments, which lead to delays and an escalation in the cost of houses. Sensibly, NDA government’s project. to provide universal urban housing forces states to institute reforms to access central funding. Without real estate reforms at the level of states, it will not be possible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for all urban dwellers. ‘Question 63. It can be inferred from the passage that 7 ‘A. buying house is not a single largest individual investment. “UYEN THI ONLINE (Z00M)| B. in India, no one depends on laws for justice OTTO CHANNEL C. the real estate bill does not provide title insurance Chuyén Anh & HSG eée cap D. urbanization in India has increased rapidly zs ee Question 64, According to the passage, which of the following is the pending in Rajya Sabha? ‘A. NDA governments new scheme B. Universal rural housing programme C. Real estate bill D. Universal urban housing programme Question 65. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Current population does not have adequate housing in India. B. India’s real estate sector needs reforms. C. Real state bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees. D. Urban population is expected to more than double to about 850 million over the next three decades. Question 66. According to the passage, what is the source of problem in real estate? ‘A. Buyers and sellers B, Central governments C. Market money makers D, State governments ‘Question 67. The word alleviated in the second paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to A. aggravated B. Deaden C. Diminished D. Relieved Question 68. The word possession in the third paragraph refers to . A. lease B. need C. Proprietary rights. Renting Question 69. The word escalation in the forth paragraph refers to, . A, decrease B. growth C. reduction D. sustainability Question 70. It is impossible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for urban dwellers ‘A. with real estate reforms at state level B. without support of central governmen C. without passing the bill in Rajya Sabha D. without real estate reforms at the level of states PART E: WRITING (30 points) I. Rewrite each of the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (5 points) 71. Our science correspondent sees this new invention as the answer to many of our problems > According to 72. We left quietly so that we didn’t disturb her > So as not to, 73. They will not officially declare independence until next year > No official 74, He not only failed in his exam but also had an accident > Not only 75. It was her determination which enabled her to get better so quickly >If IL Rewrite each of the sentences using the given word so that the new one has a similar meaning as the one preceded. You must not change the given word. (5 points) 76. There was nothing we could do to stop him. POWERLESS 77. If you continue to cause trouble, we shall have no alternative but to dismiss you. PERSIST 678. His generosity was well known to everyone. NOTED 79. Kevin was always level-headed with a sensible and practical attitude towards life. FEET 80. Bruce said that the situation at work was like a family argument. LIKENED IIL. Essay writing (20 points) ‘Some people say that the children’s behaviour is becoming worse because they are influenced by the social network such as facebook, Youtube, ... ‘To what extent do you agree or disagree? Use specific reasons and examples to support your opinion. Write an essay of about 250 words to express your ideas. THE ElTRUONG THPT TINH GIA 1 pAP AN DE KIEM TRA CHAT LUQNG DOI TUYEN TO TIENG ANH HSG LOP 12-LAN 1 - Mén thi: Tiéng Anh a NAM HQC 2021 - 2022 Neay thi: 02 thang 10 nam 2021 Thoi gian: 150 phuit (khong ké thdi gian giao dé) PART A: LISTENING (10 points) PART 1: You will hear an interview with a teenager called Simon about going to an indoor climbing centre that has a climbing wall. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C. 1A 2.€ atG 4A 5.B PART II: You are going to hear a travel Agent discussing a holiday booking with two customers. Listen to their conversation and answer questions. (Spts) 6.D 7.0 8c 9.D 10.4 PART B: PHONETICS (5 points) 11.D 12.C B.A 14.4 15.C PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points) I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions, 16.C 17.B 18B 19D 20.€ 21.C 22A 23.B 224A 25.B 26D 27.A 2%C 29D 302A 31.A 32D 33.B 34B 35.D 368 I. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 37.A 38.:C. IIL. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 39.4 40.B IV. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 41.A 42.D V. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 43.4 44. 45.C PART D: READING (25points) I. Read the following passage then fill in each gap with ONE suitable word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 pts) 46.C = 31.A ____[53.D 34.8 55.A IL. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question that follows. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (Spts) 48.B 49.4 50.D 356A 57.A 58.B 59.C 60.C OLA 62.D. II. Read the passage and choose the best answer to each question that follows. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (Spts)63-D 64-C 65-D 66-D 67-A 68-C 69-B 70-D PART E: WRITING (20 points) I, Rewrite each of the following sentences, beginning as shown, so that the meaning stays the same. (5 pts) 71. According to our science correspondent, this new invention is the answer to many our problems 72. So as not to disturb her, we left quietly 73. No official declaration of independence will be made until next year 74. Not only did he fail the exam but had also an accident 75. If she had been less determined she wouldn’t have been able to get better so quickly. II. Rewrite each of the sentences using the given word so that the new one has a similar meaning as the one preceded. You must not change the given word. 76. We were powerless to stop him 77. If you persist in causing trouble, we shall be forced to dismiss you. 78. He was noted for his generosity. 79. Kevin was always both feet on the ground with a sensible and practical attitude towards life 80. Bruce likened the situation at work to a family argumentTRUONG THPT THACH THANH 2 DE THI KHAO SAT CHAT LUQNG DOI TUYEN HSG DY THI CAP TINH LAN 1 NAM HOC 2021 -2022 MON THI: TIENG ANH Ngiy thi: 28 thang 10 nm 2021 Thoi gian: 150 phiit, khong ké thoi gian phdt dé. MD: HSG121 PART A: LISTENING (10 pts) I -.Listen carefully and choose the correct answer. 1. EEA stands for A. European Economie Area B, European Ecology Area C. European Economic Association D. European Ecology Association 2.How many maximum hours per week do non-EEA citizens whose course lasts more than 6 months can work during term-time? A. 20 hours B. 12 hours C. 22 hours D. 32 hours 3. What is the prohibition on working applying to non-EEA citizens whose course lasts 6 months or less? A. They can work different part-time job. B. They can begin their placement before getting stamp changed C. They are not allowed to work at all. D. They can get permanent full-time position 4, How can the spouse or child of a non-EEA student can work? A. if they have a stamp that does not mention employment. B.iftthey are 16 C. if you have passport stamp D. if you begin your placement before getting stamp changed. 5. These special rules apply to : A. doctors, dentists B. doctors and nurses C. doctors, dentists and nurses D. dentists and nurses Il - You will hear a psychologist being interviewed about friendship. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 6. From three to five years old , children A. Are happy to play alone B. prefer to be with their family C. have rather selfish relationship D. have little idea of ownership 7. From the age of five to eight to ten, children . A. change their friend more often. B. decide who they want to friends with, C. admire people who don’t keep to rules. D. lear to be tolerant of their friends. 8. According to Sarah Browne, adolescents ‘A. may be closer to their friends than to their parents B. develop an interest in friend of the opposite sex C. choose friends with similar personalities to themselves. D. want friends who are dependable. 9. Young married people A. tend to focus on their children B. often lose touch with their friends CC. make close friends less easily D. need fewer friends than single people 10. In middle or old age people generally prefer : ‘A. to stay in touch with old friends B. to see younger friends more often C. to have friends who live nearby D. to spend more time with their friends SECTION B: PHONETICS (05 pts) I- Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. 11, A. disappear B. arrangement C. opponent D. contractual 12, A. respectable B. affectionate C. occasional D. kindergarten i i gdm 06 trang 1Il- Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions. 13. A.curriculum Basurvive C. cireus D. surface 14, A: backed : dogged C: naked D: crooked 15. A. thinoceros B. biologist C. digest D. regerve SECTION C: LEXICO-GRAMMAR. (30 pts) 1- Choose the corect answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions 16. Ican’t tell you much about the subject, I’m afraid. I only have a very knowledge of it myself. A. fundamental B. rudimentary C. elemental D. primary 17. He went to Australia hoping to find a teaching without too much difficulty. A. work B. occupation C. employment D. post 18. The students paid attention to the distinguished professor. A. respectable B. respected C. respectful D. respective 19. The word “friendship” can be applied to a wide variety of relationships. A. lightly B. slightly C. loosely D. sparingly 20. He bought that house, that he would inherit money under his uncle’s will. ‘A. considering . assuming C. estimating D. accounting 21. Financial worries gradually his health and he was obliged to retire early. A. undermined B. disabled C. exhausted D. invalidated 22. If you weren’t satisfied, you to the manager. ‘A. can have complained B. could have complained C. should complain D. would have complained 23. The Man-eating Tiger of Borneo, as itsname___, killed and ate a number of people. A.calls B. rings the bell C. suggests D. shows 24. September Ist, ticket prices for the museum will increase to $6. A. As for B. As of, C. As shown D. As well 25. That's the trouble with the night shift. It your private life too much. A. breaks in on B. breaks into C. breaks through D. breaks up 26. I couldn't decide what to write about, when I suddenly upon the idea of doing something on writer’s block. A. thought B. chanced Chit D. arrived 27. Only three of the students in my class are girls, are all boys . A. others B. other students C. the others D. the other 28. The curriculum at the public school is as good of any private school. A. or better than B. as or better than that C. as or better that D. as or better than those 29, Not until Kentucky's Mammoth Cave had been completely explored in 1972 ‘A. when was its full extent realized B. that its full extent was realized C. was its full extent realized D. the realization of its full extent 30. I know it’s not sunny now; I shall take my sunglasses. A.as though B. even so C. although D. even though 31. As brown as . A. dust B. chocolate C.aberry D. abeetle 32. Didn't you that Martha wasn't with Ashley? A. think it strange B. think strange C. think it strangely D. think strangely 33. The first boy and girl who all the questions is to receive the singer’s new album. A. answer B. would answer C. will answer D. answered 34. Archeologists are constantly searching for an answer the question of what is actually the ground we walk on, A. offalong B. to/beneath C. forlto D. on/for 35. Professional people appreciate when it is necessary to cancel an appointment, A. youto call them B. that you would call them C. your calling them D. that you are calling them DE thi gb 06 trang, 236. The trail of late for easier access. A. used to be widened B. has been widened C. was widened D. was widening I1- Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word{s) in each of the following questions 37. The organization has the authority to manage and regulate new and existing free trade agreements, to supervise world trade practices and to settle trade disputes among member states. ‘A. prolong B. strengthen C. reconcile D. augment 38: After many year of unsuccessfully endeavoring to form his own orchestra, Glenn Miller finally achieved world fame in 1939 as a big band leader. A. requesting B. striving C. offering D. deciding IIL - Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 39.She performed all her duties conscientiously . She gave much care to her work A. insensitively iberally C: irresponsibly D: unresponsively 40: Tom was _ still wet behind the ears to be in charge of such a difficult task. A. full of experience B. lack of responsibility C. without money D. full of sincerity IV - Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the Jollowing exchanges. 41. A: You should never have agreed to help mend her car! B. 2 A. Famous last words B. Well, you live and learn C. It’s a small word D. You can’t win them all 42. A: “I left work early today, dear.” iB ae ‘A. Why was that B. Why did you leave C. How’s that? D. When so? 'V - Choose the option A, B, C, or D to show the underlined part that needs correcting. 43. Full time jobs for men are declining while more women are finding part-time or full-time work. B A ‘The result is declining social status for men so they lose their role as the sole finance provider. c D 44. Good dental hygiene and a proper diet are necessary for maintaining of sound teeth. A B ic D 45. Itis the role of the National Bureau of Standards is to establish accurate measurements for science, industry, A B c D and commerce. SECTION D: READING (25 pts) 1- Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word(s) for each of the numbered blanks Looking for an unforgettable way to celebrate that special occasion? Well, the (46)of options open today's youngster ~ or even “ oldster” for that matter, is a far cry from the traditional party or restaurant visit. No longer is it (47) sufficient to invite your friends round , buy some food and get a barker to produce acake. No, today’s birthday boy or girl is looking for something out of the ordinary, ranging from the (48) expensive to the downright dangerous. Anything goes, as long as it is unusual and impressive. Top of this year ‘s popular (49) are as follows: taking some friends rally driving , helicopter lessons, plane trip and parachuting , and hot air ballooning . Then there is always group bungee jumping or taking your buddies on a stomach — churning , while water rafting (50) down rapids. The desire of adventurous celebration is not restricted to the (51). Irecently met an octogenarian who celebrated (52) the milestone of eighty by having a fly lesson, Of course, if you have money the world is your oyster. A very rich relation of mine flew fifty of his friends to a Caribbean island to mark the passing of his half century. Unfortunately I was only a_ (53) relation. ‘Da thi gh 06 trang EUndoubtedly, the more traditional forms of celebration do continue to (54) the less extravagant or less adventurous among us. However, with my own half century looming on the horizon I would not say no to a weekend in Paris and a meal at the Eiffel Tower. Ian (55)dream. Perhaps by the time I’m eighty I'll be able to afford it, 46. A. scale B. degree C. range D. variance 47. A. hoped B. decided C. marked D. considered 48. A. perfectly B. dearly C. outrageously D. explicitly 49. A. experiments B. extravagances. C. exposures D. expenses 50. A. ride B. travel C. voyage D. crossing 51. A. adolescents B. teenagers C. youth, D. young 52. A. attaining B. arriving C. reaching D. getting 53. A. distant B. remote C. faraway D. slight 54. A. pacify B satisiy C. distract D. absorb 35. A. however B. but C. nevertheless D. anyway Il - Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question. Which picture do you have of the future? Will life in the future be better, worse or the same as now? What do you hope about the future? Futurologists predict that life will probably be very different in 2050 in all fields of activity, from entertainment to technology. First of all, it seems that T.V channels will have disappeared by 2050. Instead, people will choose a program from a “menu “and a computer will send the program directly to the television, Today, we can use the World Wide Web to read newspapers and see pictures on a computer thousands of kilometers away. By 2050 music, films, programs, newspaper and books will come to us by computer. Then “Holographic Feedback T .V” will have arrived: holograms are pictures that have height, width, and depth .Simple holograms exist today and “virtual reality “games are already popular. By 2050, we will be able to see, smell and touch the things that we see on television. In what concems the environment? Water will have become one of our most serious problems. In many places, agriculture is changing and farmers are growing fruit and vegetables to export. This uses a lot of water. Demand for water will increase ten times between now and 2050 and there could be serious shortages. Some futurologists predict that water could be the cause of war if we don’t act now. In transport, cars will run on new, clean fuels and they will go very fast. Cars will have computers to control the speed of the car and there won't be any accidents. Today, many cars have computers that tell drivers exactly where they are. By 2050, the computer will control the car and drive it to your destination. On the other hand, space planes will take people halfway around the world in two hours. Nowadays, the United States Shuttle can go in to space and land on Earth again. By 2050, spaces planes will fly all over the world and people will fly from Los Angles to Tokyo in just two hours. In the domain of technology, robots will have replaced people in factories. Many factories already use robots. Big companies prefer robots — they do not ask for pay rises or go on strike, and they work 24 hours a day. By 2050, we will see robots everywhere — in factories, schools, offices, hospitals, shops, and homes. Last but not least, medicine technology will have conquered many diseases. Today, there are electronic devices that connect directly to the brain to help people hear. By 2050, we will be able to help blind and deaf people see again and hear again Scientists have discovered how to control genes .They have already produced clones of animals. By 2050, scientists will be able to produce clones of people and decide how they look, how they behave and how much intelligence they have. 56. What can be inferred about the life in 2050 according to the passage? A. Life in 2050 will be much better. B. T. V will be an indispensable means of communication and business. C. People will not be threatened by the shortage of water due to the polar melting. D. The deaf will not have to depend any longer on the electronic hearing devices. 57. What can be inferred from the passage about T.V viewers of the year 2050? A. They will show more interest in virtual games. B. They will become couch potatoes. C. They will be able to check the food before ordering with a T V at home. ‘Da thi gdm 06 trang, 4D. They will have more choices of channels to watch and enjoy. 58. We can conclude from the passage that in 2050 5 A. people will be able to travel around the world in two hours. B. less cars will be used to keep the environment green and clean. C. no one will be injured or will die due to accidents. D. spaces planes will take the place of cars as means of transport. 59. Why do big companies “prefer robots”? A. Robots ask for pay rises B, Robots don’t require salary or stop work C. Robots like to work in big companies D. Companies can’t afford to hire employees 60. It can’t be inferred from the passage EXCEPT A. Cloning will offer babies for the one who won’t get married. B. Clones of people may live forever. C. Cloning is one of the examples of scientist’s controlling human genes. D. Clones of people will produced with the help of the electric devices. 61. The passage mainly discusses LUYEN THI ONLINE (ZOOM), A. the effect of the futurologist’s prediction on our lives. OTTO CHANNEL B. the effect of the telecommunication and technology on our future life. C. changes in our future life compared with our lives today. D. the importance of cloning in the future. 62. What is the author’s attitude in the passage? ‘A. concerned B. explanatory C. outraged D. emotional Chuyén Anh & HSG cdc cp III - Read the following passage and circle the best answer to each of the following questions. The biologist’s role in society as well as his moral and ethical responsibility in the discovery and development ‘of new ideas has led to a reassessment of his social and scientific value systems. A scientist can no longer ignore the consequences of his discoveries; he is as concerned with the possible misuses of his findings as he is with the basic research in which he is involved. This emerging social and political role of the biologist and all other scientists requires a weighing of values that cannot be done with the accuracy or the objectivity of a laboratory balance. As a member of society, it is necessary for a biologist now to redefine his social obligations and his functions, particularly in the realm of making judgments about such ethical problems as man's control of his environment or his manipulation of genes to direct further evolutionary development. As a result of recent discoveries concerning hereditary mechanisms, genetic engineering, by which human traits are made to order, may soon be a reality. As desirable as it may seem to be, such an accomplishment would entail many value judgments. Who would decide, for example, which traits should be selected for change? In cases of genetic deficiencies and disease, the desirability of the change is obvious, but the possibilities for social misuse are so numerous that they may far outweigh the benefits. Probably the greatest biological problem of the future, as it is of the present, will be to find ways to curb environmental pollution without interfering with man’s constant effort to improve the quality of his life. Many scientists believe that underlying the spectre of pollution is the problem of surplus human population. A rise in population necessitates an increase in the operations of modem industry, the waste products of which increase the pollution of air, water, and soil. The question of how many people the resources of the Earth can support is one of critical importance. Although the solutions to these and many other problems are yet to be found, they do indicate the need for biologists to work with social scientists and other members of society in order to determine the requirements necessary for maintaining a healthy and productive planet. For although many of man’s present and future problems may seem to be essentially social, political, or economic in nature, they have biological ramifications that could affect the very existence of life itself. 63. According to the passage, a modern scientist should be more concerned about Ahi basic research B. the development of new ideas C. his manipulation of genes D. the consequences of his discoveries 64. It is implied in the passage that genetic engineering ; ‘A. may do us more harm than good B. is no longer desirable C. is the most desirable for life D. will change all human traits DE thi gdm 06 trang 565. What is probably the most important biological problem mentioned in the passage? ‘A. social and economic deficiencies B. manipulation of genes C. genetic engineering misuse D. environmental pollution 66. The word "which" in paragraph 3 refers to A. activities of an overpopulated society's industry B. the waste products dumped into our environment C. activities of surplus human population D. serious environmental pollution 67. The word "underlying" in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by "__". A. noticing B. causing C. finding D. depriving 68. According to the passage, to save our planet, biologists should work A. harder and harder B. accurately and objectively C. on social and political purposes D. with other social scientists 69. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "ramifications" in paragraph 4? ‘A. useful experiments B. effective techniques C. harmful consequences D. latest developments 70. What is the author's purpose in this passage?” ‘A. To conduct a survey of the biologists role in society B, To urge biologists to solve the problem of surplus human population C. To emphasize the biologist’s role in solving the world's problems D. To advise biologists to carry out extensive research into genetic engineering SECTION E: WRITING (30 pts) L Rewrite the following sentences, using the word in the bracket. The second sentence must be as close as possible in meaning to the first. 71. When Mary was pregnant, all she wanted to eat was jelly (CRAVING) 72. The interview panel thought that Sarah had a very good manner.(IMPRESSION) 73. Organic vegetables are said to be healthy.(WONDERS) 74. Since the advertisement, we have had more applications than we can deal with. (SWAMPED) 75, Pandas need a special diet,without it they perish.(PROVIDED) IL. Rewrite each sentence so that it begins with the words and the meaning stays the same. 76.The statement boils down to making the public aware of the present situation, < The direct aim of the statement 77. It’s not our concern what they do after lessons. @ It’sof, 78. He was so disgusted at the way she behaved that he refused to speak to her. @ Such 79. At this time of year, the area often feels the effecte of violent storms. At this time of year, the area is often 80. The trip is so amazing that we will never forget it, © Itis too IML. Writing an essay Ithas now been observed that many high school students are unprepared to respond in acceptable ways to situations in school, and less so in a wider social environment. Some educators argue that the school curriculum should emphasize the development of students’ life skills rather than knowledge. In what extent do you agree? You can write about 250 words, using reasons and examples to support your opinion. (DE thi gdm 06 trang 6TRUONG THPT THACH THANH 2 DAP AN DE THI KHAO SAT CHAT LUQNG DOI TUYEN HSG DY’ THI CAP TINH NAM HOC 2021 -2022 MON THI: TIENG ANH Ngiy thi: 28 thang 10 nim 2021 Thdi gian: 150 phuit, khong ké thai gian phat dé. PART A: LISTENING (10 pts) 1. Listen carefully and choose the correct answer. LA 2A 3.C 4A 5.C IL - You will hear a psychologist being interviewed about friendship. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. 6.C 7.B 8.D 9c 10. A. Cau Mabe 121 122 123 124 i A D D A 12 D A A D 13. D D A A 14 A A D D 15 D D D D 16 B A B B 17. D B Cc c 18 c Cc B B 19 D B A c 20 B A B B 21 A B Cc c 22 B Cc B A 23 o B c B 24 B B B B 25 A D B Cc 26 B c D B 27 Cc D c B 28 B B D D 29 c B B c 30 B B A D 31 Cc c c B 32 A B A A 33 B c B B 34 B A B c 35. c Cc c B 36 B B B A 37 c c Cc B 38 B c B c 39 c B B Cc 40 A B c B 41 B c fe] c 42 c c A c 43 c B c B 44 c c c c45 B A B A 46 c D D Cc 47 D Cc c D 48 ic io ic c 49 B B B B 50 A @ c A 31 D Cc c D 52 ic A A c 53 A D ic A 34 B A D B 55 B D c B 56 D A B D 57 CG B A c 58 c D D Cc 59 B c iG B 60 c c A fc 61 c ic B @ 62 A D B A ay D c D D 64 A B A A 65 D A D D 66 A D A A 67 B iC B B 68 D A D D. 69 c B ic ic 70 c B c Cc SECTION E: WRITING (30 pts) L Rewrite the following sentences, using the word in the bracket. The second sentence must be as close as possible in meaning to the first. 71 Mary had a craving for jelly when she was pregnant. 72.Sarah made a very good impression on the interview panel. 73.Organic vegetables are said to do wonders for your health. 74. Since the advertisement, we have been swamped with applications. 75.Provided (that) pandas have a special diet, they survive. IL. Rewrite each sentence so that it begins with the words and the meaning stays the same. 76. The direct aim of the statement is to make the public aware of the present situation. 77. It's of no/little concern to us what they do after lessons. 77. Such was his disgust at the way she behaved that he refused to speak to her 49. At this time of year, the area is often affected by violent storms, 80. Itis too amazing a trip for us to forget. IIL. Essay writing(20pts) Marking scheme: The impression mark should be based on the following scheme 1. Format: 4 pts ( coherence, cohesion , style ) ‘The essay should include 3 parts: a. Introduction: should be put in one paragraph in which students’ points of view are expressed clearly b. Body: should consist of from two to three paragraphs. Each paragraph must have a topic sentence, reasonings and examples. c. Conclusion (summary of the main reasons, students’ comment) Dp dn ghm 03 trang. 22. Content : 10pts A provision of main ideas and details as appropriate to support the argument, Note: - Students can totally agree/ disagree or partly agree. ~ Students can give their opinion right in the introduction or discuss the issue and give his or her own opinion in the conclusion. 3. Language : 6pts (grammatical accuracy, a wide range of vocabulary and structures ) Het ip 4n gbm 03 trang 3SO GD &DT THANH HOA DE KTKS DOL TUYEN HSG LOP 12 TRUONG THPT SAM SON NAM HQC 2021 - 2022 Mon: Tiéng Anh — Lép: 12 Théi gian lam bai: 150 phe SECTION A: LISTENING (10 points) Part A. Choose the best answer which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points) 1. How does Tom feel now about being a writer? A. It is no longer as exciting as it was. _B. He used to get more pleasure from it. C. He is still surprised when it goes well. _D. It is less difficult to do these days. 2. How does Tom feel about the idea for a novel before he begins writing it? A. He lacks confidence in himself, B. He is very secretive about it. C. He likes to get reactions to it. D. He is uncertain how it will develop 3. Tom's behaviour when beginning a new novel can best be described as A. determined. B. enthusiastic. C. impulsive. D. unpredictable. 4. What does Tom admit about his novels? A. They are not completely imaginary. _B, They are open to various interpretations. C. They do not reflect his personal views. _D. They do not make very good films. 5. What did Tom feel about the first film he was involved in making? A. He enjoyed being part of a team. B. He found it much too stressful. C. He eamed too little money from it. D. He was reassured by how easy it was. Part 2. You will hear an interview on a train with two friends, Jane and Chris, chef who both won prizes in the National Railway Chef of the Year competition. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D. You will hear the recording twice. 6. What was Chris's attitude to the competition? ‘A. He was worried about the quality of his dishes. B. He was afraid time might be a bit of a problem. C. He admitted he’d been looking forward to the challenge. D. he said conditions were similar to his routine. 7. Jane admitted that the greatest problem she faced during the competition was having to ‘A. work in a very small space. B. be original when travelling at speed. C. prepare a meal so quickly. D. create a meal with so little money. 8. What do both Chris and Jane feel is unique about their job? ‘A. the close contact with the customers B. the necessary to do everything the same time C. the opportunity to be creative D, the need to be focused on the job 9. What do Chris and Jane feel about what they cook on board the train? A. They approve of the menus created for them, B. They consider themselves more adventurous than other chef’. C. They would like to have more freedom of choice. D. They are happy to adapt their ideas to suit the job. 10. What is often Jane’s initial reaction when things spill over? ‘A. She asks another member of staff to help her clear up. B. She blames the train driver for the accident. C. She feels herself to keep a closer watch next time. D. She says nasty things to the other staff. SECTION B: PHONETICS (points) I, Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. Write your answer in the space provided. 11. A. party B. prety C. car D. guitar 12. A. mayor B. quay . prayer D. layer 13. A. houses_ B. horses_ . sources: D. louses. IL. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the posi your answer in the space provided. 14. A. compensate B. sacrifice C. renovate D. contribute mn of the main stress. Write15. A. famine B. fatigue C. fabricate D. factual SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (39 Points) 1. Choose the correct answer (A, B, C, or D) to each of the following questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. 16. After Mervyn’s accident and his subsequent appearance in court, he was from driving for a year. A. dispossessed _B. forfeited C. disqualified D. invalidated 17. His speech was careful and but his words seemed to make no sense. A. distinguished B. distinct C. distinctive D. distinguishable 18. I know it’s difficult but you'll just have to and bear it, A. laugh B. smile Cerin D. chuckle 19, The old woman, her son’s girlfriend up and down, and then asked her in, A. watched B. observed C. noticed D. eyed 20. We all agreed to cover some of the cost ~ so come on, ! A. dip in B. put aside C. bail out D. cough up 21. “I'll never finish this by five.” “If , 'll work overtime.” A. is needed B. need to be C. needing D. need be 22. Tom’s normally very efficient but he’s been making a lot of mistakes, A. of late B, for now C. ina while D. shortly 23. My little sister listened to everything I said and repeated it word __word to our mum. Ain B. from C. with D. for 24, It stands to reasons that a touch of humor and optimism can work. . A.onall cylinders B. spectacles C. wonders . your fingers to the bone 25. After a while, the flat was silent again. The baby had cried himself’ . His mother sighed with relief. A. sleeping B. to sleeping C. into sleeping D. to sleep 26. Housewives find it easier to do domestic chores thanks to invention of labour saving devices. ‘A. the B.a Can D, some 27. "Education is the process we discover that learning adds quality to our lives. Learning must be experienced." William Glasser. ‘A. about which B. in which C. for which D. by which 28. Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by rocking chair. A. a beautiful old European wooden B. an old beautiful wooden European C. a wooden old beautiful European D. an old wooden European beautiful 29, Since every penny of the grant spent on equipment, we started looking for volunteers to do the cleaning. ‘A. must have been —_-B. would have been C. has been. had to be 30. Many local authorities realize there is a need to make for disabled people in their housing programmes. A. assistance B. conditions C. admittance D. provision 31. I think that it is impossible for him to be financially independent at such an early age,___? A. isn't it B.isit C. doesn't he D. does he 32. Thad a this morning when a tractor trailer unexpectedly swerved into my lane. A. deep end B. dead beat C. close shave D. tight comer 33. Such that we didn’t want to go home. ‘A. was a beautiful flower display B. beautiful flower display was C. a beautiful flower display was D. a beautiful flower display 34. Somehow I managed to my physics exam. The pass mark was 55 and I got 56. A. scrape through B. shake off C. sit through D. slip off 35. The full horror of the war only hit when we started secing the television pictures of it. A. base B. down C. home D. back 36. He didn’t have a of evidence to support his claims. A. sign B. scrap C. sense D. stateI. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.( 2points) 37. Before her death in 1977, Alice Paul helped orchestrate enormous changes in the rights and status of American women. A. far-fetched B. far-flung C. far-reaching —_D.. far-sighted 38. I've been working here for ten years now and I am on first name terms with everyone, even the CEO. A. am proud of everyone B. behave well with everyone C. know everyone well D. feel satisfied with everyone IIL. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.(2points) 39. We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their desks by eight o'clock and take good care of their own business. ‘A. organize things inefficiently B. manage an inflexible system . run faster than others D. Have a good voyage 40. Nowadays, it was rather easy to buy a modern TV, and it does pack a punch to bring to life some really awesome visuals, A. have little effect on something B. make bad things happen C. produce the results that aren’t intended C. prevent something from coming into use IV. Mark the letter A, B, c, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.(2 points) 41. . Paul: * I was late because I got caught in traffic.” Pac Kevin: “ , lateness will not be tolerated in this office.” lg QS) A. Be that as it may B. Ifneed be S 3 By C. Then so be it D. Whatever it may be >Os | 42 Jim invited Helen to visit his gardens: Boz! - Helen: "I love your gardens. The plants are well taken care of!" 2a S - Jim : “Thanks. Yes, I suppose I've always __.” 5 5 = A. had green fingers B. let nature take its couse FBZ C. made it down on my luck D. drawn the short straw = g 5 g is | ig 28] V. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. (3 points) 43. "You didn't need to buy that", sighed my wife on hearing that I had purchased another vase. A B G D 44. Regardless of the homes from which students come, every one of whom usually has at least one person who cares. | (wi A. the homes B. from which C. whom D. cares 45 In a famous experiment conducted at University of Chicago in 1983, rats kept from sleeping died after two and a half weeks. A. conducted B. University of Chicago C. rats kept D. a half weeks SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 points) I. Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to fill in the gaps in the following passage.(10 points) Digitally connected manufacturing, often (46) “Industry 4.0", (47) a wide variety of technologies, ranging from 3D printing to robotics, new materials and production systems. ‘A move towards Industry 4.0 would benefit the private sector. Large, integrated manufacturers would find in it a way to (48) and shorten their supply chain, for example via flexible factories. A more digitalized manufacturing would also open new market (49) for SMEs providing such specialized technologies as sensors, robotics, 3D printing or machine-to-machine communications.For developed nations, Industry 4.0—a term initially (50) in Germany—could be a way to regain manufacturing competitiveness. This is particularly relevant in the case of Wester Europe, which, unlike the US, does not currently enjoy reduced energy costs. As for (51) markets, Industry 4.0 could provide the much-needed route to moving up the value chain, something that has become increasingly important to achieve in the (52) of rising labor costs, For example, China’s new ten-year plan, issued last May and (53) named “Made in China 2025”, targets key sectors such as robotics, information technology and energy (54) turning the country from a “manufacturing giant” into a “world manufacturing power. As promising as it is, much more work remains to be done to make Industry 4.0 a large scale reality. On the regulatory side, for instance, policymakers will have to ensure that data—the (55) of Industry 4.0—can move freely and securely throughout the supply chain, including across borders. This is an effort that is likely to take some time. 46. A. deferred to as B. referred to as C. deferred to D. referred to 47. A. involves B. supports C.encompasses _D. necessitates 48. A. optimize B. maxim C. customize D. legitimize 49. A. chances B. possibilities C. opportunities _D. places 50. A. yielded B. pieced C. lauded D. coined 51. A. novel B. emerging C. premature D. immature 52. A. loop B. teeth C. feat D. wake 53. A. aptly B. particularly C. unwittingly D. distinctively 54. A. inthe interests of _B, in lieu of C. in awe of D. in the hope of 55. A. pins and needles _B. nuts and bolts C.root and branch —_D. part and parcel II, Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the following questions.(10 points) Forget global terrorism - for most of the world's population, ticking time bombs like earthquakes, supervolcanoes and hurricanes pose a far greater threat. Natural disaster expert Bill McGuire reveals a few of the top catastrophes waiting to happen. With NASA's eminent climate scientist, Jim Hansen, concemed that collapsing polar ice sheets could result in sea levels rising 1-2m this century and several more in the next, prospects for the Earth's coastal zones are A Im rise would threaten one-third of the world's agricultural land, while a 4m rise would maroon Miami 60km offshore. Rising sea levels is not the only threat to coastal regions. The ‘Cumbre Vieja volcano on the Canary Island of La Palma is slowly creeping seawards. During a future eruption, this gigantic landslide will plunge into the ocean, pushing up a bulge of water close to a kilometre high, spawning a mega-tsunami capable of devastating all the coastal areas surrounding the North Atlantic, Coastal regions also face the menace of desertification, By 2030, over half a billion people living around the shores of the Mediterranean will be viewing the encroaching desert with increasing panic. An area bigger than the UK, and home to 16 million people, is threatened - by the end of the century - with transformation from a green and pleasant land to a baking wilderness of sand and rock. However, these disasters seem pale in comparison to the mega-catastrophes waiting to happen like supervoleanoes, for instance. Every 50 millennia or so, a colossal volcanic blast expels sufficient ash and gas to cover a continent and block the Sun's rays for years on end, heralding a bitter volcanic winter. At Yellowstone in Wyoming, US, two such super-eruptions have shattered the crust in the last 2.1 million years and the volcano there remains restless. An asteroid attack is another threat which would have devastating consequences. A total of 713 asteroids with diameters of 1km or more, and the potential to clobber the Earth at some future date, have been identified. A 2km asteroid would load the atmosphere with dust and trigger a sustained global freeze. Harvests would fail and billions would die. Fortunately, such collisions only happen every couple of million years. 56. Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Disasters in Waiting B. Threats to the Earth’s Coastal Zones C. The Mega-catastrophes That Could End the World —_D. Surprising Facts about Supervoleanoes 57. According to the passage, what poses an imminent threat to us? ‘A. the inerease of global terrorism B. the rise in the world's population C. the consequences of climate change and natural disasters 4D. time bombs waiting to go off 58. The word “bleak” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ‘A. auspicious B. promising C.commanding D. gloomy 59. Which aspect of the Cumbre Vieja eruption will have the worst effects? A. the eruption itself B. the subsequent mega-tsunami C. the plunge into the ocean D. the resulting landslide 60. How often does a supervolcano take place? A. once every century B. once every 50 thousand years C. once every couple of million years D. once every 50 million years. 61. The word “there” in paragraph 4 refers to A. the continent B. Yellowstone C. The US D. the crust 62. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? “UYEN ‘A. Terrorism is the most challenging issue facing the world. o ae THI ONLINE (Zoom) B. Rising sea levels wreak greater havoc on coastal regions than volcanoes do, © 'O CH. INEL C. The UK is one ofthe counties most heavily affected by desertification. hUyén Anh & HSG ogg cap D. Both supervoleanoes and asteroid attacks lead to extremely cold weather conditions, III. Read the passage and choose the best option A, B, C or D to answer the following questions.(10 pts) In the course of its history, human inventions have dramatically increased the average amount of energy available for use per person. Primitive peoples in cold regions burned wood and animal dung to heat their caves, cook food, and drive off animals by fire. The first step toward the developing of more efficient fuels was taken when people discovered that they could use vegetable oils and animal fats in lieu of gathered or cut wood. Charcoal gave off more intensive heat than wood and was more easily obtainable than organic fats. The Greeks first began to use coal for metal smelting in the 4" century, but it did not come into extensive use until the Industrial Revolution. In the 1700s, at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution, most energy used in the United States and other nations undergoing industrialization was obtained from perpetual and renewable sources, such as wood, water streams, domesticated animal labor, and wind, These were predominantly locally available supplies. By mid-1800s, 91 percent of all commercial energy consumed in the United States and European countries was obtained from wood. However, at the beginning of the 20" century, coal became a major energy source and replaced wood in industrializing countries. Although in most regions and climate zones wood was more readily accessible than coal, the latter represents a more concentrated source of energy. In 1910, natural gas and oil firmly replaced coal as the main source of fuel because they are lighter and, therefore, cheaper to transport. They bumed more cleanly than coal and polluted less. Unlike coal, oil could be refined to manufacture liquid fuels for vehicles, a very important consideration in the early 1900s, when the automobile arrived on the scene. By 1984, non-renewable fossil fuels, such as oil, coal, and natural gas, provided over 82 percent of the commercial and industrial energy used in the world. Small amounts of energy were derived from nuclear fission, and the remaining 16 percent came from burning direct perpetual and renewable fuels, such as biomass. Between 1700 and 1986, a large number of countries shifted from the use of energy from local sources to a centralized generation of hydropower and solar energy converted to electricity. The energy derived from non-renewable fossil fuels has been increasingly produced in one location and transported to another, as is the case with most automobile fuels. In countries with private, rather than public transportation, the age of non-renewable fuels has created a dependency on a finite resource that will have to be replaced. Alternative fuel sources are numerous, and shale oil and hydrocarbons are just two examples. The extraction of shale oil from large deposits in Asian and European regions has proven to be labor consuming and costly. The resulting product is sulfur-and nitrogen-rich, and large-scale extractions are presently prohibitive. Similarly, the extraction of hydrocarbons from tar sands in Alberta and Utah is complex. Semi-solid hydrocarbons cannot be easily separated from the sandstone and limestone that carry them, and modem technology is not sufficiently versatile for a large-scale removal of the material. However, both sources of fuel may eventually be needed as petroleum prices continue to rise and limitations in fossil fuel availability make alternative deposits more attractive. 63. What is the main topic of the passage?A. Application of various fuels B. Natural resources and fossil fuels C. A history of energy use D. A historical review of energy rates 64, The phrase “per person” in the first paragraph is close in meaning to 5 A. per capita B. per year C. per family D. per day 65. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that ‘A. coal mining was essential for primitive peoples BB. the Greeks used coal in industrial productions C. the development of efficient fuel was a gradual process D. the discovery of efficient fuels was mostly accidental 66. The phrase “in lieu” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to A. in spite B. in place C. in every way D. in charge 67. The author of the passage implies that in the 1700s, sources of energy were ‘A. used for commercial purposes B. used in various combinations C. not derived from mineral deposits D. not always easy to locate 68. The phrase “the latter” in the second paragraph refers to a A. wood B. coal C. most regions D. climate zones 69. According to the passage, what was the greatest advantage of oil as fuel? A. it was a concentrated source of energy. B. it was lighter and cheaper than coal. C. it replaced wood and coal and reduced pollution. D. it could be converted to automobile fuel. 70. It can be inferred from the passage that in the early 20 century, energy was obtained primarily from A. Fossil fuels B. Nuclear fission C. Hydraulic and solar sources D. Burning biomass SECTION E: WRITING (30 points) I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points) 71. The reason they did not give him the job was because he could not use a computer. ->Had it not : 72. In the summer, there are thousands more tourists than locals. ->In the summer, the local are vastly 73. It seems that no one predicted the correct result. ->No one 74. When the minister was asked about the strike, he declined to comment >On 75. As people grow older, they become more and more forgetful. >The IL. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it but using the word given. Do not change the form of the given word. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points) 76. I can’t believe he said that to her face. (CAME) > Ican't believe ; 77. Tom didn’t understand the situation and so made a terrible mistake.. (STICK) > Tom got . 78. Tom teased Alice about her new hairstyle. (POKED) -> Tom 79 I have to write everything out in triplicate and I'm completely fed up with it. (DEATH) > I'm 80. Although everything pointed to her having taken the money, she strenuously denied it. (EVIDENCE) => She strenuously denied the contrary. II. Essay writing (20 points) Some people claim that tourism can help to bridge cultural gaps between peoples of different nationalities and cultures. Do you agree or disagree? Write your essay (approximately 350 words). 6SO GD & DT THANH HOA pAP AN DE THI KHAO SAT HQC SINH GIOI TRUONG THPT SAM SON CAP TINH ces MON: TIENG ANH - KHOI 12- THPT Ngiy this 11/2021 (Dép dn gém 3 trang) PHAN I: DAP AN SECTION A: LISTENING: (10 pts) Part I: 1.D 2D 3A 4A SA Part 2. [6D [7B BA 9.€ 10.B SECTION B: PHONETICS: (5 points) Question 1: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (3 points) 11.8 12.B 13.4 ] Question 2: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (2 points) 14.D 15.B SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) 16.C 17.C 18.C 19.D 20.D 21.D 22.4 23.D 24.C 25.D 26.4 27.B 28.4 20; ee 30.D 3B 32.C 33.4, 34.4 35.C 36.B 37.C 38.C 39.4 40.4 41 A 42.8 43.4 44.C 45.B Page I of 3SECTION D: READING (25 points) Question 1: Read the following passage then choose the most suitable word or phrase that best fits each gap. (10 points) 46.B 47.€ 48. 51.B 52.B 53. 49.C 50. ‘54. 55. A A Question 2: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (7 points) 56.A ‘57.C 58. 59.B [60.8 ] 61.8 2.D Question 3: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. (8 points) 63.C 64. A 65.C 66. B 67.C 68. B 69.D 70. B SECTION E: WRITING (30 points) Question 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as ‘possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 points) 71. Had it not been for his inability to use a computer, they would have given him the job. 72. In the summer, the locals are vastly outnumbered by the tourists. 73. No one seems to have predicted the correct result. 74, On being asked about the strike, he declined to comment 75. The older people grow, the more forgetful they become. Question 2: For each of the sentence below, write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence but using the word given. This word must not be altered in any way. (5 points.) 76. I can't believe he came out with that to her face. 77. Tom got the wrong end of the stick and so made a terrible mistake. Get the wrong end of the stick: misunderstand something 78. Tom poked fun at Alice’s new hairstyle. - (Poke fun at something: make a joke of something) 79. I'm sick to death of having to write everything out in triplicate. ~(Sick to death of someone or something: exceedingly wearied by, bored of or exasperated with someone or something) 80. She strenuously denied taking the money despite evidence to the contrary. Question 3. Essay writing (20 points) “Some people claim that tourism can help to bridge cultural gaps between peoples of different nationalities and cultures. Do you agree or disagree? Write your essay (approximately 250 — 300 words). Write an essay of about 250 - 300 words to express your opinion. 1. Completion: (2 pt.) 2. Content: (6 pts) Provide relevant and convincing ideas about the topic, supported by specific example and/or reasonable justification. Page 2 of 33. Organisation: (4 pts) = Ideas are well organized and presented with unity, cohesion and coherence. 4, Language: (6 pts) ~ Demonstrate of a wide range of vocabulary and structures. ~ Good use of grammatical structures. = Present the ideas with clarity. 5. Punctuations and spelling. (2 pts) PHAN II: HUGNG DAN CHAM: Téng diém toan bai: 100 diém ‘Thang diém: 20 Diém bai thi: Téng diém cau ding/5 Diém bai thi duge lam tron dén 0,25 THE El Page 3 of 3SO GD & DT THANH HOA DAP AN VA HUONG DAN CHAM DE KHAO SAT TRUONG THPT QUANG XUONG 4 CHAT LUQNG DOI TUYEN HQC SINH GIOL 7 ; CAP TINH- LAN 1 (DAP AN CHINH THUC) NAM HOC 2021 ~ 2022 MON THI: TIENG ANH ‘Thoi gian : 150 phiit (Khéng ké thdi gian giao dé) SECTION A: LISTENING( 10 pts) PARTI. [a B __ [2 _] PARTI. 6.B [nA 9B ~ Toc CTION B: PHONETICS (Spts) 14.4 15.D ] AND GRAMMAR@O0pts) . Papert SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION(25pts) 1: Read the following passage and choose the best option(A, B, C or D) to complete the blank.(10 pts) [46.D 47.8 | 48.B 50.A [51.B 52. 53.C 155.C J PART II; Read the passage and close the best answers to question below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (7 pts) _ a [56a |57.B | 58B i [2B | PART If: Read the passage and close the best answers to question below. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (8pts) [63.c SECTION Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before it. (5 pts) 71. As long as you keep calm, you can pass your driving test. 72. What amazes me is the mistakes he makes. 73. Had it not been for his help, we would not have been successful. 74. It crossed his mind that he might have misunderstood her. 75. The boy was on the point of crying when his mother reprimanded him/ he was reprimanded by his mother. Question II. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the sentence printed before I but using the word given. Do not change the form of the given word. (5 pts) 76. Only when he took off his hat did I recognize Mike, 77. [have no objection to you filming my wedding speech. 78. She was under the assumption/ impression that the tribe wouldn’t understand her. 79. She will be showered with congratulations if she wins. 80. I didn’t take sides during their disagreement because | liked both of them. PART IIL. Essay writing (20pts) + Task completion (8p) + Gramamartical accuracy and spelling: (6p) + Coherence and cohesion: ( Tinh mach Ige va sy lign két ee eu) (6p)SO GD & DT THANH HOA KY THI KHAO SAT CHAT LUQNG DOI TUYEN HQC TRUONG THPT QUANG XUONG 4 SINH GIOI CAP TINH- LAN 1 Dé thi gdm 06 trang NAM HQC 2021 - 2022 MON THI: TIENG ANH ‘Tho gian lam bai: 150 phat ( Khéng ké thai gian phat 4d) SECTION A: LISTENING (10 pts) A. LISTENING (10pt) Part 1. Questions 1 to 5. You will hear an announcement about whi question, put a tick in the correct box, 1. The Railway Princess is on television from . 's on television tomorrow. For each A. 9.00 to 10.00. B. 9.00 to 10.30. C.. 9.30 to 11.00. 2. There is a music program for teenagers . A. early in the moming. B. before lunch. C. at lunchtime. 3. You can see a football match between 5) ‘A. Ireland and Spain. B. Brazil and Ireland. C. Spain and Italy. 4. If the weather is bad, there will be no A. cycling. B. skiing. C. tennis. 5. In the quiz programme, teams have to guess i A. the year. B. the person. C. the place. Part 2. You will hear a radio interview with someone who has been having a ballet lessons and then choose the correct answer A. B. C or D that best fits according to what you hear. Write your answers on the answer sheet. (pts) 6. What does Rupert say about the fact that he is doing ballet classes? A. Other people have ridiculed him for it. B. He expects to be mocked for it. C. It is not as unusual as people might think. D. People may think it isn’t really true. Rupert says that before he started doing ballet lessons. . he had been doing routine physical fitness training. . his knowledge of ballet had been growing . ballet had taken over from football as his greatest interest. he had been considering doing ballroom dancing again. Rupert says that when the idea of ballet lesson was suggested to him . he thought it was a joke. he was sure exactly what would be involved. . he began to have unrealistic expectations of what he could achieve, . he initially lacked the confidence to do it. One of the advantages of ballet that Rupert mentions is that it leads to fewer injuries than other physical activities. . it has both physical and mental effects. . it is particularly good for certain parts of the body. . it is more interesting than other forms of exercises. 10. What does Rupert say about his progress at ballet? A. It has been much more rapid than he expected. B. It has made him consider giving up his other training C. Ithas given him greater appreciation of the skills of professionals. D. Ithas led him to enroll for certain exams, SECTION B : PHONETICS ( Spts). Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. Write the answers on your answer sheet. ( 3pts ) por -onmp*onomp> 11. A.gliminate —_‘B. expedition C. separate D. preparation 12. A. condition —_B, policeman C. intreduction D. product 13. A. discuss B. pressure C. pessimist D. impossible Question II. Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (pts) 114, A. complicated B. community C.employment _D. extended 15. A. eternal B. essential C. immoral D. practical SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points) ‘Question I. Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (10 points) 16.Thank you very much. I haven’t been to party for ages. A. aso enjoyable B. the so enjoyable C.so enjoyable a —_D. so enjoyable 17. All the lights are on. You ___to turn the lights off before going to bed last night. A.can have forgotten B, musthave forgotten _C. must forget D. had forgotten 18. The troop were thoroughly by this set-back. A. interdependent B. dependent C.independent —_D, depended 19. Lisa confessed ___ all the cookies. A.eat B. eating C. to eat D. to eating 20. “A special feature of the room is the huge picture window which __a splendid view of the Quantock hill.” A. allows B. affords C. enables D. presents 21. _ is that a chicken stands up to lay its eggs. ‘A. Many people don’t realize CC. What many people don’t realize B. It is that many people don’t realize _D. Because many people don’ realize 22. The factory is said ina fire two years ago. A. being destroyed B. to destroy C. to have destroyed D. to have been destroyed 23, Jane has just bought ‘A. an impressive reddish French wood coffee table. B. a reddish impressive wood French coffee table. C. an impressive French wood reddish coffee table. D. an impressive wood French reddish coffee table. 24. [haven't had an accident yet, but I've had a number of, shaves. ‘A. narrow B. near C. close D. tiny 25. Deep sea diving should always be carried out in pairs. In this way, another source of oxygen is available one system fails. Aasif B. otherwise C. in case D. only if 26. advised on what and how to prepare for the interview, he might have got the job. A. Had he been B.Ifhe had C. Unless he had been D. Were he to be 27.___through a telescope, Venus appears to go through changes in size and shape. A. Itis seen B. Seeing C. When seen D. Ithas seen 28. Race relations in this country are unlikely to improve until people overcome their feelings of hostility towards foreigners. A. interior B. internal C. inverted D. innate 29. On the frst days ofthe year, Vietnamese people not only the table for meals, but they also put food on the altar for their ancestors. A. lay B. lie C. book D. clear 30. Doctors advise people who are deficient _ vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables. A. from B. of Cin D. for 31. After the football match the crowds out of the stadium into the nearest bars and café. A. poured Bileaked Catricked Dadripped 32. There’s no lead in this kind of petrol. It is petrol. A.leadless B. unleaded C.de-leaded D. non-lead 33. I'd like to buy the radio, but I haven’t got any money on me at the moment.Could you ___for me for a day or two? A. bring it round Bay it in C. put it on one side D.take it in 34.Not a word since the exam started. A.has she written _B. she wrote C. did she write —_D. she has written 35. You've lived in the city for most of your life, so you're used to the noise. ‘A. apparently B. presumably C. allegedly D. predictably 36. We can expect to treble our turnover once the January sales get into full .A. force B. flight C. speed D. swing Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 37. Since the death of Laura's father, her mother has become a breadwinner to support the family. ‘A. a person who bakes bread every morning B. a bakery-owner C. a person who delivers bread to make money —_D. a person who goes out to work to eam money. 38: My sisters will all tell you that when I was in charge I was such a real slave driver. A. worked excessively hard B. was slave to work C. made other people work too hard D. worked overtime Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 39: The US troops are using much more sophisticated weapons in the Far East. A. expensive B. complicated C. difficult to operate. simple and easy to use 40: Every time he opens his mouth, he immediately regrets what he said. He’s always putting his foot in his mouth. A. speaking indirectly B, saying something upsetting C. doing things in the wrong order D. talking too much Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 41. Tommy and Peter are talking about the dinner that they have enjoyed together. - Tommy ~ Peter: "I'm glad you enjoyed it. Hope to see you again soon.” ‘A. My uncle is coming soon. Would you like to come to our dinner? B. I highly appreciate for the houses you've rebuilt for our village. C. I don’t mind going to the party sometimes but when I know everybody there then I enjoy it. D. That’s a great dinner. Thanks a lot. You'll have to come to our place sometime. 42, Linda and Mary are talking about what they like doing in their free time. -Linda: "What kinds of music do you like, Mary?" = Mary ccc” A. Hmm, no, I don't really like Westerns. B. Concert C. You really guess so. D. Well, I guess I'm really into jazz. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 43.1t is important that cancer is diagnosed and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure. to assure B. as early as possible C. treated D. is diagnosed 44, With the development of information technology, we can now hold long-distance meetings which the participants can see each other on a screen. A. which B. information technology _C. long-distance D. can see 45.What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from spreading easily among the population. ‘A. from spreading —_B. among C. What we know about. are SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 points) I: Read the following passage and choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the blank. (10points) A Night Out In Bristol EXAMPLE: 0 A wish B hope Cfancy Dream If you're in Bristol on a weekday evening and (jm. lively, boozy night out without getting too badly (46).. off you could do worse than to try Fandangos, the new nightclub complex on Lower Guzzlemore Street. Before eleven o'clock, prices are quite (47). and you can get @ (48)annemnn0f four drinks for around a tenner. If like me, you're a bit of a (49), it could even set you back less than that. But for the heavyweights, more often than (50).mun: they run some kind of drinking competition at some point in the evening. On the evening | visited they were offering a free pint to anyone who could (51)...0«mtheir first pint in one ~ guaranteed to leave even the most hardened heavyweight with a (S2).........he next day. On most nights, the dress (53)... is fairly relaxed although they do seem to draw the line at torn jeans. If, on the other hand, you're looking to (54) yway from it all and enjoy a quiet beer or two in 3