Infinite Well

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Question: calculate the energy eigenvalues and energy eigen states of a

particle in a one-dimensional infinite square potential well.

Answer: Let's suppose that,

0 𝑖𝑓 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑎
𝑉(𝑥) = (1)
∞ otherwise

(Figure 1), A particle in this potential is


completely free, except at the two ends (x = 0
and x= a), where an infinite force prevents it
from escaping.

Figure 1: The infinite square well potential (equation_1)

Outside the well, ψ(𝑥) = 0 (the probability of finding the particle there is
zero). Inside the well, where V = 0, the time independent Schrödinger equation
reads,

−ℏ2 𝑑 2 𝜓
= 𝐸𝜓(𝑥) (1)
2𝑚 𝑑𝑥 2

𝑑2𝜓
Or, = −𝑘 2 𝜓 (2)
𝑑𝑥 2

Where,
√2𝑚𝐸
𝑘≡ (3)

(By writing it in this way, I have tacitly assumed that 𝐸 ≥ 0)


Equation_2 is the classical simple harmonic oscillator equation; the general
solution is,

ψ(𝑥) = 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑘𝑥 + 𝐵 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑘𝑥 (4)

Where A and B are arbitrary constants.

Continuity of ψ(𝑥) requires that,

𝜓 ( 0) = 𝜓 (𝑎 ) = 0 (5)

so as to join onto the solution outside the well.

Therefore,
𝜓(0) = 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 0 + 𝐵 𝑐𝑜𝑠 0 = 𝐵

So, B = 0, and hence


𝜓(𝑥) = 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑘𝑥 (6)

Then 𝜓(𝑎) = 𝐴 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑘𝑎, so either A = 0 (in which case we’re left with the trivial
non-normalizable solution ψ(𝑥) = 0), or else 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑘𝑎 = 0, which means that,

𝑘𝑎 = 0, ±𝜋, ±2𝜋, ±3𝜋, … (7)

But k = 0 is no good (again, that would imply 𝜓(𝑥) = 0), and negative solutions
give nothing new, since 𝑠𝑖𝑛(−θ) = −𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃 and we can absorb the minus sign
into A. So, the distinct solutions are,

𝑛π
𝑘𝑛 = with n = 1, 2, 3, … (8)
𝑎

Hence the possible values of E:

ℏ2 𝑘𝑛
2 𝑛 2 𝜋 2 ℏ2
𝐸𝑛 = = with n = 1, 2, 3, … (9)
2𝑚 2𝑚𝑎2
To find A, we normalize 𝜓:

𝑎
𝑎
∫ |𝐴|2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑘𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = |𝐴|2 =1
0 2

2
So, |𝐴 |2 =
𝑎

This only determines the magnitude of A, but it is simplest to pick the positive
real root:
2
A=√
a

Inside the well, the solutions are,

2 𝑛π
ψ𝑛 (𝑥) = √ 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑥) (10)
𝑎 𝑎

The stationary states of the finite square well are evidently,

𝑛2 π2 ℏ
2 𝑛π −𝑖( )𝑡
Ψ𝑛 (𝑥, 𝑡) = √𝑎 sin ( 𝑎 𝑥) 𝑒 2𝑚𝑎2 (11)

The most general solution to the (time dependent) Schrödinger equation is a


linear combination of stationary states:

𝑛2 π2 ℏ
2 𝑛𝜋 −𝑖( )𝑡
Ψ(𝑥, 𝑡) = ∑∞ 𝑐 √
𝑛=1 𝑛 𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑥) 𝑒 2𝑚𝑎2 (12)
𝑎

It remains only for us to demonstrate that we can fit any prescribed initial wave
function,Ψ(𝑥, 0), by appropriate choice of the coefficients 𝑐𝑛 :

Ψ(𝑥, 0) = ∑∞
𝑛=1 𝑐𝑛 ψ𝑛 (𝑥 ) (13)

The completeness of the 𝜓’s (confirmed in this case by Dirichlet’s theorem)


guarantees that we can always express Ψ(𝑥, 0) in this way, and their
orthonormality licenses the use of Fourier’s trick to determine the actual
coefficients:

2 𝑎 𝑛π
𝑐𝑛 = √𝑎 ∫0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑎 𝑥) Ψ(𝑥, 0) 𝑑𝑥 (14)

Given the initial wave function, Ψ(𝑥, 0), we first compute the expansion
coefficients 𝑐𝑛 , using equation_14, and then plug these into equation_12 to
obtain, Ψ(𝑥, 𝑡).

Problem: A particle of mass m in the infinite square well (of width a) starts
out in the left half of the well, and is (at t = 0) equally likely to be found at an
point in that region.

a. What is its initial wave function. 𝜳(𝒙, 𝟎)? (Assume it is real. Don't
forget to normalize it)

b. What is the probability that a measurement of the energy would yield


𝝅𝟐 ℏ𝟐
the value ?
𝟐𝒎𝒂𝟐

Solution:
a.
𝑎
A, 0≤𝑥≤ 2
Ψ(𝑥, 0) =
0, otherwise.

Normalizing the equation,


𝑎
𝑎
1 = 𝐴2 ∫02 𝑑𝑥 = 𝐴2 (2 )

2
𝐴 = √𝑎
b. Using,
2 𝑎 𝑛𝜋
𝑐𝑛 = √ ∫0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑥) Ψ(𝑥, 0) 𝑑𝑥
𝑎 𝑎

we get,
𝑎
2 𝜋
𝑐1 = 𝐴√𝑎 ∫02 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝑎 𝑥) 𝑑𝑥

𝑎
2 𝑎 𝜋 2
= 𝑎 [− 𝜋 𝑐𝑜𝑠 (𝑎 𝑥)]
0

2 π
= − π [𝑐𝑜𝑠 (2 ) − 𝑐𝑜𝑠0]

2
=
π

So,
2 2
𝑃1 = |𝑐1 |2 = (π) = 0.4053

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