XII FB

CHAPTER #14 RESPIRATION

Give short answers of the following questions.

Q1. List any three properties of respiratory tract that help to trap dust particles and
microbes in inhaled air.

1) Hairs: present inside the nostrils.

2) Mucous membrane: inside the nose secretes a sticky substance called mucus.
3) Cilia: originate from internal lining of nasal cavity, filter the air and prevent the
entry of foreign particles such as micro-organisms, dust and particulate matter inside
the respiratory system.
Q2. List the properties of respiratory surface.
Properties of Respiratory surfaces
The area where gaseous exchange with the environment actually takes place is called
the respiratory surface. Gaseous exchange takes place in all organisms by the physical
process of diffusion. For effective diffusion the respiratory surface must have the
following properties.
*It must be permeable so that gases can pass through it.
*It must be thin for efficient diffusion because diffusion is only efficient over distance
of 1mm or less.
*It should possess a large surface area so that sufficient amount of gases are able to be
exchanged according to the organism's need.
*It should possess a good blood supply.
*There should be a good ventilation mechanism to maintain a steep diffusion gradient
across the respiratory surface.

Q3. What organs constitute the respiratory system?

Ans. Respiratory system provides fundamental ability to breath. This system consists
of:
Nose, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli
lungs

Q4. How nose and nasal cavity function in filtering incoming air?
Ans. The structure of a human nose is composed of bones, cartilage and fatty tissues.
Hairs are present inside the nostrils that help in the filtration of air. Hence, nose hairs
serve as a defense mechanism against the harmful pathogens and solid particulate
matter present in the air. Both the nostrils and nasal cavities are lined by mucous
membranes along with cilia. The mucous membrane secretes a sticky substance called
mucus. The mucus and cilia filter the air and prevent the entry of foreign particles
such as microorganisms, dust and particulate matter inside the respiratory system. The
mucus also helps in moistening the air. Cilia move the trapped substances to the
pharynx for their removal.

Q5. How do lungs contract and relax?

Ans. Humans have two lungs, a right and left, which are located in the thoracic cavity.
The lungs neither draw in air nor push it out. The diaphragm, abdominal muscles and
the intercostal muscles provide help in contraction and relaxation of lungs.

Q7. What is chloride shift or Hamburger’s phenomenon?

Ans. The phenomenon of balancing of ions in two opposite directions by the help of
proteins, which result in maintenance of balance of ions on either side is called shifts
or Hamburgers phenomenon.
For example, from inside the erythrocytes (RBC) negatively charged HCO-3 ions
diffuse into plasma. This is balanced by the diffusion of the chloride ions (Cl -), in
opposite direction. This is achieved by special bicarbonate-chloride carrier proteins
that are present in RBC membrane.
Q8. What are the advantages of having millions of alveoli rather than a pair of
simple balloon like lungs?
Ans.
1) The alveoli form the gas exchange surface
2) The wall of each alveolus in only 0.1um thick.
3) On outside the alveoli there is dense network of blood capillaries
4) Lining of each alveolus is moist which increase the absorption ability of
alveolus. It is estimated that there are over 700 million alveoli present in the
lungs, a total surface area of 70-90m.

Q9. Why does the smoker's lung look black?

Ans. In between alveoli gaps/spaces are present alveolar spaces, which contain special
WBC called scavenger cells. These macrophages engulf the foreign material which
enters the lungs through the airways. When smoke with many impurities is inhaled,
the alveolar spaces of smokers containing scavenger cells are filled with engulfed
particles of impurities and debris become grey/black.

Q10. How is CO2 transported as carboxyhemoglobin in blood?

About 23% of CO2 is carried as carboxyhemoglobin. CO2 combines with the globin
part of hemoglobin. The reaction depends upon the partial pressure of CO2. When the
PCO2 is higher in the tissues than blood, formation of carboxyhemoglobin occurs.
When the PCO2 is higher in the blood than tissues as in case of lungs,
carboxyhemoglobin releases it CO2.
Q11. Explain how breathing is controlled?
Control of breathing (Ventilation)
Normally we are not conscious of our breathing because it is controlled involuntarily.
A breathing centre is located in the medulla of the brain carries out involuntary
control of breathing. The ventral portion of the breathing centre acts to increase the
rate and depth of inspiration and is called inspiratory centre. The dorsal and lateral
portions inhibit inspiration and stimulate expiration. These regions form the expiratory
centre.
Through the cerebral cortex it is possible to consciously or unconsciously increase or
decrease the rate and depth of the respiratory movement.
Q12. Describe the structure and functions of pharynx.
Pharynx is a cone-shaped passageway leading from the oral and nasal cavities to the
esophagus and larynx. The human pharynx is conventionally divided into three
sections: the nasopharynx, the oropharynx and the laryngopharynx.
Functions: it is important in vocalization. The pharynx serves as a part of digestive
system and also the respiratory system.
Q13. Describe the various parts of lower respiratory tract.
Larynx, trachea, bronchi and bronchioles, alveolar ducts and alveoli.
Q14. Describe external structure of lungs.
The lungs are the principal organ of respiration. Each lung is conical in shape, with its
base resting on the diaphragm and its apex extends to a point just above the clavicle.
The right and left lungs are separated medially by the heart and mediastinum, which is
the area between the lungs.
The left lung has two lobes, superior and inferior lobe. The right lung has three lobes.
The hilum is a triangular shaped depression of both the lungs where the blood vessels
and airways pass into the lungs. Lungs are spongy due to alveoli.
Q15. Describe inspiration phase of breathing
Inspiration is taking in of air, it is the active phase of breathing. During inspiration,
contraction of the diaphragm causes its dome shape to flatten (less dome shape)
whereas contraction of the external intercostal muscles and relaxation of the internal
intercostal muscles cause the rib cage to move upward and forward. Both these events
result in increase of inner space of thoracic cavity. Consequently, the pressure in the
thorax and hence in the lungs is reduced to less than atmospheric pressure. Air
therefore enter the lungs and alveoli become inflated.
Q 16. Describe expiration phase of breathing.
Expiration is the removal of air out of the lungs. It is passive phase of breathing.
During expiration relaxation of the diaphragm causes it to become more dome shaped
whereas relaxation of the external intercostal muscle and contraction of internal
intercostal muscles cause the rib cage to move downward and backward. Both these
events result in decrease of inner space of thoracic cavity. Consequently, the pressure
in the thorax and hence in the lungs is increased to more than atmospheric pressure,
therefore, air is forced to expel from the lungs.
Q17 Explain briefly:
Vocal cords, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, pleura, diaphragm, hilum,
mediastinum, trachea
Vocal cords: Inside the larynx, two pairs of horizontal folds, in the mucous
membrane extends inward from the lateral walls called vocal cords.
Bronchi: Trachea divide to form smaller tubes called bronchi. The bronchi are the airways
that lead from the trachea into the lungs and then branch off into progressively smaller structures until
they reach the alveoli
Bronchioles: Bronchioles are air passages inside the lungs that branch off like tree branches from the
bronchi—the two main air passages into which air flows from the trachea (windpipe) after being
inhaled through the nose or mouth. The bronchioles deliver air to tiny sacs called alveoli where
oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged.
Pleura: The pleura consists of a two-layered membrane that covers each lung. The pleura’s role it is
to cushion the lungs and reduce any friction which may develop between the lungs, rib
cage, and chest cavity.
Diaphragm: The diaphragm is a thin sheet of skeletal muscle that sits at the base of
the chest and separates the abdomen from the chest. It contracts and flattens when you
inhale.
Hilum: The hilum is a triangular shaped depression of both the lungs where the blood
vessels and airways pass into the lungs.
Mediastinum: it is the division of thoracic cavity. It serves as an area between the
lungs
Trachea: The trachea or windpipe is a membranous tube and is a part of lower
respiratory tract. It consists of dense regular tissues of smooth muscles reinforced with
15-20 C-shaped pieces of cartilage.

Q18. Differentiate between upper respiratory tract and lower respiratory tract.
Upper respiratory tract Lower respiratory tract
Upper respiratory tract includes nose, Lower respiratory tract includes larynx,
nasal cavity, pharynx trachea, bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli
It is the uppermost section of the It is the lowermost section of the
respiratory tract, which is mainly respiratory tract, which is mainly
involved in the conduction of air involved in the gas exchange.
The parts of upper respiratory tract are The parts of the lower respiratory tract are
situated above the lungs. situated inside the lungs.
CHAPTER # 15 XII FB

HOMEOSTASIS
Give short answers of the following questions
Q1. Name the organs of urinary system and write their major functions.
Ans. Major organs of urinary system are:
Kidneys, Ureter, Urinary bladder, Tubular urethra
i. Kidney: Major organ which separate nitrogenous substances from blood.
ii. Ureter: Tubular organ which transports urine from kidney to urinary bladder.
iii. Urinary bladder: Hollow, distensible, muscular organ. It is located in pelvic
cavity. It serves as a urine reservoir.
iv. Urethra: It is a tube that carries urine from urinary bladder ro outside of the
body.
Q2. Explain different types of nephrons and their location in kidneys.
Ans. Nephron:
It is the structural and functional unit of kidney. A nephron is arranged along two
distinct regions cortex and medulla. The nephrons which are arranged along the cortex
are called cortical nephrons and those nephrons which are arranged along the border
of cortex and medulla with their tubular system looping deep in inner medulla are
called juxtamedullary nephrons that play an important role in the production of
concentrated urine.
Q3. Describe the structure of nephron
Structure of Nephron: Nephron is divided into two main parts: Renal corpuscle and
Renal tubule
 Renal Corpuscle: it is further divided into two parts: Bowman's capsule and
Glomerulus.
The inner end of each nephron forms a cup shaped swelling which is called Bowman's
capsule. The capsule surrounds a ball of capillaries called glomerulus. The blood
enters the glomerulus through afferent and leave it through efferent arteriole. The
blood vessels divide further to form the network of capillaries called peritubular
capillaries.
 Renal tubule: The second part of nephron is a long and narrow tube called loop
of Henle. Bowman's capsule continues as proximal tubule, loop of Henle and
the distal tubule called collecting tubule. Loop of Henle has three parts, first
part is coiled, second is U shaped and third is also coiled.
Q3. Trace the blood supply to the nephron.
Ans. Blood circulation to Nephron: Renal artery brings impure blood within
kidneys which gives rise to branches called inter lobular arteries which enter in the
cortex region of kidney and give rise to afferent arterioles. The afferent arterioles
supply blood to the glomerular capillaries of the renal capsule.
Efferent arterioles arise from the glomeruli, which comes out of nephron and such
arteries surround the upper portion of nephron such plexus of capillaries are called
peritubular capillaries. Some capillaries come down and surround the loop of Henle
called Vasa recta. The peritubular capillaries drain into interlobular veins, which drain
into renal vein. The renal vein exits the kidney and connects to the inferior vena cava

Q4. What general processes are involved in urine formation?

Ans. Ultrafiltration (Glomerular Filtration):
Blood passing through glomerulus is filtered into Bowman’s capsule. The filtrate
appearing in glomerulus is called as glomerular filtrate,
Reabsorption: All the useful constituents of the glomerular filtrate are reabsorbed.
When filtrate reaches the first part of the renal tubules, 2/3rd of the filtrate containing
useful material like glucose and amino acids is reabsorbed in the blood. The waste
materials are not absorbed from the filtrate which becomes dense. Thus when filtrate
leaves proximal tubules in mostly contains nitrogenous wastes.
Secretion: The tubular epithelium also secreteS substances into the lumen, this
secretion is very selective and is mainly of hydrogen ions to balance pH value of the
filtrate passing through tubule.
Urine formation: Passing through the middle part the filtrate is diluted or
concentrated according to the need. When the filtrate is passed through the last part of
the duct it takes the form of urine.
Q5. Why is it suggested that protein intake needs to be limited in kidney failure
patients?
Kidneys separate nitrogenous wastes from blood. Nitrogenous wastes are derived
from protein breakdown. Kidney failure patients are advised not to take proteins
because their kidneys are not working, so nitrogenous wastes due to protein
breakdown is poisonous which bring kidney failure patient at risk of their life.
Q6. Why women are more likely to acquire UTI as compared to men?
Although male can get a urinary tract infection, the condition is fifty times more
common in women. In general, the higher risk in women in mostly due to the
shortness of the female urethra, which is 1.5 inches as compared to 8 inches in men.
Bacteria from fecal matter at anal opening can be easily transferred to the opening of
urethra.
Q7. How reabsorption is a selective process?
Ans. Reabsorption is also called tubular reabsorption. It is a process where certain
substances have been filtered out of the blood during ultrafiltration are reabsorbed
back. These substances include glucose, amino acid, vitamins, inorganic salts and
some water.
Q8. Where are kidneys positioned?
The kidneys are dark red, bean shaped organs. They are placed against the back wall
of abdominal cavity just below the diaphragm, one on either side of the vertebral
column, between the last thoracic vertebra and third lumbar vertebra. The upper parts
of kidneys are partially protected by the eleventh and twelfth ribs. Their position is
slightly asymmetrical, the right kidney being a little lower than the left one because of
a liver lobe above it.
Q9. Explain the structure of kidney.
The kidneys are dark red, slightly flattened, bean shaped organs about 12cm long, 6cm
wide, each weighing about 150gms. The outer surface is convex and the inner surface
is concave. The inner surface has a deep notch called hilus. The renal artery and
nerves enter the kidney, and the renal vein and ureter leave the kidney through hilus.
The kidney is surrounded by tough membrane, tissue the renal capsule.
Q10. Describe the internal anatomy of kidneys.
Transverse section of kidneys shows two distinct regions, an outer cortex and an inner
medulla. The cortex contains renal corpuscles and convoluted tubules of nephrons.
The medulla contains structures called pyramids. All the pyramids project into the
pelvis. The pelvis leads into the ureter.
Q11. What is counter current multiplier mechanism and how it helps in
osmoregulation during dehydration?
The interstitial fluid of kidney is gradually concentrated from cortical to medullary
part, thus inner medulla is highly concentrated with the presence of urea and through a
mechanism of counter current multiplier. This causes gradual osmotic outflow of
water from filtrate back to kidney as it passes downward in the descending loop of
henle. Furthermore, ascending loop of henle does not allow outflow of water from the
filtrate instead actively transport Na+ into kidney interstitium to sustain its high
concentration. Gradually increasing osmotic concentration from cortex to medulla is a
main factor for the production of concentrated urine in mammals during the period of
dehydration. Due to this mechanism, filtrate moving in limbs of loop of henle and the
blood moving in the capillaries of vasa recta, water is greatly reabsorbed.
Q12. Explain the role of hormones in the production of concentrated urine.
As fluid travels up in the ascending limb of loop of henle, sodium chloride is
transported actively out of the limb into the surrounding area. This movement is
controlled by aldosterone. This causes increase in concentration of water in filtrate
and decrease in concentration of water in kidney interstitium. As a result, water passes
out the descending limb by osmosis. This movement of water is also promoted by
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) which is secreted from posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
Q13. What is urethritis?
Urethritis is the infection of urethra.
Q14. What are ammonotelic organisms?
Organisms excreting ammonia as their major nitrogenous wastes are called
ammonotelic organisms. They inhabit aquatic environment because they require
plenty of water for excreting ammonia as their nitrogenous waste. For example, most
fishes, protozoans, sponges, coelentrates are ammonotelic
Q15.What are ureotelic organisms?
Organisms excreting urea as their major nitrogenous wastes are called ureotelic
organisms. They may inhabit aquatic or terrestrial environment. They require
relatively less water as compared to ammonotelic organisms for the removal of urea
nitrogen. Humans and cartilaginous fishes are some major examples of ureotelic
organisms
Q16. What do you know about uricotelic organisms?
Organisms excreting uric acid as their major nitrogenous wastes are called uricotelic
organisms. They purely inhabit harsh terrestrial environment because only 1ml of
water is required for dissolving nitrogen of uric acid to make it non-toxic. Terrestrial
invertebrates (insects) and some egg laying vertebrates(birds) are examples of
uricotelic organisms
Q17. Justify the role of kidney as organ of osmoregulation
Kidney as osmoregulatary organ
Control of water level: When body is deficient in water, hypothalamus detects a fall
in blood solute potential and directs pituitary to release ADH. This hormone increases
permeability of the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts to water. More
water is absorbed, reducing the volume of urine and making it more concentrated.
When there I s a high intake of water ADH release is inhibited. Less water is absorbed
and a large volume of dilute urine is excreted.
Control of blood sodium level: It is done by aldosterone hormone secreted by
adrenal cortex. Aldosterone activates sodium-potassium pumps in the distal
convoluted tubules. Sodium is pumped back to blood from filtrate actively.
Q18. Give comparison of relationship of ammonia, urea and uric acid with
different habitats
Ammonia/aquatic Urea/aquatic & Uric acid/terrestrial
terrestrial
Ammonia is highly toxic Urea is less toxic than Uric acid is least toxic
and tends to rise the Ph of ammonia but more toxic
fluids of body than uric acid. Urea is
100,000 times less toxic
than ammonia
One gram of ammonia One gram of urea requires One gram of uric acid
nitrogen requires 500ml 50ml water to get requires 1ml water to
water to get dissolved to be dissolved to non-toxic become non-toxic.
non-toxic level.
Such plenty of water is Some marine organisms Only some terrestrial
afforded only by many and terrestrial organisms invertebrates and egg
aquatic organisms remove nitrogenous wastes laying vertebrates excrete
in the form of urea uric acid.
Organisms excreting Organisms excreting urea Organisms excreting uric
ammonia as their primary as their primary acid as their primary
nitrogenous wastes are nitrogenous wastes are nitrogenous wastes are
called ammonotelic called ureotelic called uricotelic
Most fishes, protozoa, Cartilaginous fishes, Birds and insects are some
colelentrates are examples humans are examples of major examples of
of ammonotelic organisms. ureotelic organisms uricotelic organisms

Q19. What are kidney stones? How are they formed?

Urinary stones are hard, crystalline mineral materials that stick together to form small
‘pebbles’ within the kidney or urinary tract. They can be as small as grains of sand or
as large as golf balls. They may stay in kidneys or travel out of the body through
urinary tract.
Q 20. Briefly explain the following:
Nephrolithiasis, hypercalcemia, hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, hyperurecemia
Nephrolithiasis: The condition of having stones in the kidney is termed
nephrolithiasis.
Hypercalcemia: Kidney stones may be caused by increases calcium level in the blood
which is termed as hypercalcemia.
Hypercalciuria: The condition of having high calcium in urine is called
hypercalciuria.
Hyperoxaluria: Hyperoxaluria is the condition caused by high calcium oxalate type
of kidney stones which are present 70% of kidney stone patients.
Hyperurecemia: It is the increased amount of uric acid in the blood and it causes uric
acid type of kidney stones which are found in 10% of kidney stone patients.
Q21. What minerals/ions/salts cause kidney stones? Explain.
Kidney stones may be caused by increases calcium level in the blood which is termed
as hypercalcemia. The condition of having high calcium in urine is called
hypercalciuria. Hyperoxaluria is the condition caused by high calcium oxalate type of
kidney stones which are present 70% of kidney stone patients. The increased amount
of uric acid in the blood is hyperuricemia and it causes uric acid type of kidney stones
which are found in 10% of kidney stone patients. Furthermore, high concentration of
cystein and phosphates in urine also cause kidney stones. Continuous state of
dehydration increases the chances of kidney stone formation.
Q22. What ESWL stands for? How is ESWL carried out?
ESWL stands for Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy and is a common method for
kidney stone treatment. In ESWL, an instrument called lithotripter is used to generate
shock waves from outside the patient’s body focused on the stone, breaking it into
small pieces. Most of the fragments then pass spontaneously via the urethra.
Q23. What PCNL stands for? How it is carried out?
PCNL stands for Percutaneous nephrolithotripsy. In case of large stones, this method
is preferred in which a tube is inserted from the patient’s back into the kidney to create
a tract. A scope is run through the tract to directly visualize the stone inside the
kidney. Ultrasound equipment can then be inserted to break up the stone. While
watching the stone through the scope, the stone fragments can be grasped with special
equipment and pulled through the tract out from the kidney.
Q24. Explain the following terms briefly:
Urethritis, cystitis, pyelonephritis, urology
Urethritis: Urethritis is the infection of urethra
Cystitis: It involves the infection of the urinary bladder
Pyelonephritis: If the kidneys are infected it is called pyelonephritis
Urology: The branch of medicine which deals with diseases and abnormalities of
urinary tract and their treatment is called urology.
Q25.Write down the names of different bacteria that cause urinary tract
infection along with the diseases they cause.
Bacteria Diseases
1. Escherichia coli UTI
2. Proteus vulgaris UTI
3. Klebsiella pneumoniae UTI
4. Neisseria gonorhoea Urethritis,Gonorrhoea
5. Treponema palladium Syphilis
CH#16 SUPPORT AND LOCOMOTION XII FB

Give short answers of the following questions

Q1. Name three functions of bones.
 Support and Shape: bones support soft tissues and serve as attachment sites for
most muscles and provide shape to the body.
 Protection: Bones protect critical internal organs such as brain, spinal cord,
heart, lungs and reproductive organs
 Movement: Skeletal muscles attached to bones help to move the body.
Q2. Which bones form the pectoral girdle?
Ans. Pectoral girdle is composed of:
i. Ileum
ii. Ischium
iii. Pubis which form coxa

Q3. What changes occur in sarcomere during muscle contraction?

Ans. In muscle fiber there are alternative dark and light bands. Microscopic study
clearly shows that bands are due to regular thick and thin filaments. Traversing the
middle of each I-band is a dark line called Z-line.
The section of myofibril between two Z-lines is called sarcomere which is a
contractile unit. From Z-line actin filaments extend in both directions, whilst in the
centre of sarcomere are found myosin filament.

Q4. How thick and thin myofilaments are arranged in myofibrils?

Ans. Ultra structure of Myofilament: Thick and thin filament combines to form
myofilament. The central thick filament extends the entire length of A band. The thin
filament extends across the I band and partly into A band. The diameter of thick
filament is 16mm. It is composed of myosin. Myosin molecule has tail terminating in
two globular heads. Myosin tail consists of two long polypeptide chain coiled
together. The heads are called cross bridge.
Thin filaments are composed of actin molecules. These are arranged in two chain
which twist around each other like twisted double strand of pearls. Twisting around
the actin chains are two strands of proteins, tropomyosin. The other major protein in
thin filament is troponin.

Q5. You raise your hand to answer a question in class. Example the role played
by your bones and skeletal muscles in this movement.
Ans. As we know that skeletal muscles are attached with bones so as to bring the
movement, when you want to raise your hand, skeletal muscles contract which result
in lifting of bones attached to them. As a result, your arm moves up.
Q6. What is the composition of thick and thin filaments?
Thick Filaments: The thick filament which is about 16mm in diameter is composed
of myosin. Each myosin molecule has tail terminating in two globular heads. Myosin
tail consists of two long polypeptide chain coiled together. The heads are sometimes
called cross bridges because they link the thick and thin myofilaments together during
contraction.
Thin Filaments: Thin filaments are 7-8mm thick and composed of chiefly actin
molecule. The acting molecules are arranged in two chains which twist around each
other, like twisted double strand of pearls. Twisting around the actin chains are two
strands of another protein tropomyosin, the other major protein in thin filament is
troponin. It is actually three polypeptides complex (Troponin-T, Troponin-C &
Troponin-I). One binds to actin, another binds to tropomyosin while third binds to
calcium ions. Each myosin filament is surrounded by six actin filaments on each end.

Q7. List the bones that form the pectoral and pelvic girdle.
Ans. Pectoral girdle: The bones of pectoral girdle consists of:
i. Ventral coracoids, which meets the sternum
ii. A scapula
iii. Clavicle
Lies on ventral side between scapula and sternum
Pelvic girdle: Made up of two coxa. Each of these bones is formed by the
combination of three bones:
a. Ischium
b. Ileum
c. Pubis

Q8. Name the bones of cranium and facial skeleton.

Ans. Skull (cranium) Bones: In cranium there are total 8 bones. Two bones are
paired while 4 are unpaired.
Paired:
i. Parietal
ii. Temporal
Unpaired:
i. Frontal
ii. Occipital
iii. Sphenoid
iv.Ethmoid
Facial bones: There are 14 bones, 2 are paired while 6 are unpaired.
Paired:
 i. Maxilla
ii. Zygomatic
iii. Lacrimal
iv. Nasal
v. Inferior concha
vi. Palatine
Unpaired:
i. Mandible
ii. Vomer

Q9. Name the bones of thoracic cage.

Ans. Rib cage or Thoracic cage:
In man there are 12 pairs of ribs, one pair articulating with each of the thoracic
vertebrae forming the cage that encloses the heart and lungs. 10 pairs of ribs are
connected anteriorly with the sternum. 7 pairs out of these 10 are directly connected
with the sternum and are known as true ribs, while the other 3 pairs are indirectly
connected with the sternum through costal arch and are known as false ribs. The
lower 2 pairs of ribs are not attached in front and are known as floating ribs.

Q10. Name the bones of upper and lower limb.

Ans. Hind limbs:
Each hind limb consists of thigh, shank, ankle and foot. In the hind limb there is a
femur in the thigh, a pair of bones, the tibia and fibula, in the shank, 8 ankle bones,
followed by 5 longer metatarsals in the foot and finally 5 rows of 14 phalanges in the
toe.
Forelimbs:
The forelimbs consist of a humerus in the upper arm region, a Radius and an Ulna in
the lower arm region, 8 carpals in the wrist and 5 metacarpals in palm of the hand and
14 phalanges.

Q11. What are the parts of the vertebral column and what are its curvatures?
Ans. Vertebral column:
Vertebral column extends from skull to the pelvis to form backbone which protects
the spinal cord. Normally the vertebral column has 4 curvatures which provide more
strenght than the straight column. The vertebral column consists of 33 vertebrae. The
vertebrae are named according to their location in the body, viz, cervical, thoracic,
lumbar and pelvic.
Cervical vertebrae: These are 7 vertebrae which lie in the neck region. The first two
are Atlas vertebra and Axis vertebra.
Thoracic vertebrae: There are 12 thoracic vertebrae located in the thoracic region.
Lumbar vertebrae: There are 5 vertebrae in the lumbar regions.
Sacrum: Sacrum is formed by the fusion of anterior 5 vertebrae present in the pelvic
region.
Coccyx: Coccyx is formed by the fusion of 4 vertebrae present in the pelvic region.

Q12. Define Muscle and name its 3 types.

Muscles: Many multicellular animals have evolved specialized cells for movement.
These cells contain numerous filaments of special proteins, actin and myosin. The
vertebrates possess 3 kinds of muscles cells; smooth muscles, skeletal muscles,
cardiac muscles.

Q13. What are skeletal muscles?

These muscles are attached to the bone and are responsible for movement of bone and
whole body movements (locomotion). They are composed of spindle or cylinder
shaped muscle fiber or muscle cell and have many nuclei per cell. They show regular
dark and light striations under microscope. They are under voluntary control.

Q14. What are smooth muscles?

Ans. Smooth muscles were the earliest form of muscles to evolve and it is found
throughout animal kingdom. Smooth muscles are long and spindle shaped with each
containing a single nucleus. It has no striations. It is not under the voluntary control.
We describe smooth muscle tissue most precisely as visceral, non-striated and
involuntary. These muscles are found in the blood vessels, digestive tract and many
other organs.

Q15. Describe the structure of skeletal muscles?

Skeletal muscles show alternate light and dark regions. They are composed of muscle
fibres. Each skeletal muscle fibre is a single cylinidrical cell, enclosed by a plasma
membrane like structure called sarcolemma and has several nuclei. The sarcolemma of
muscle fibre cell penetrates deep into the cell to form a hollow elongated tube the
transverse tubule (T –tubule). Within the muscle fibres are numerous thin myofibrils
which possess characteristic cross striations. The myofibrils run in parallel fashion and
extend the entire length of the cell. Each myofibril is composed of two types of
myofilaments, actin and myosin. The cytoplasm of myofibril is sarcoplasm and has
sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Q16. What are cardiac muscles?

Ans. These are muscles of the heart. They constitute most of the mass of the heart
walls. Heart muscles is composed of chains of single cells, each with its own nucleus.
The chain of the cell is organized into fibers that are branched and interconnected. The
cardiac muscles are striated and involuntary.

Q17. Why do sprinters generally run on their toes?

Ans. Many sprinters feel they have to keep low and pull to run fast. The human body
is built to push, not pull. If you stay relaxed and upright and push against ground, you
will run faster. So this pushing action on can easily be done by toes.

Q18. Give a comparison of fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints and synovial joints

Q19. What are joints? How are they classified on the basis of structure or types
of tissue?
‘A joint is a place where two bones or bone and cartilage come together’. They are
classified into
Fibrous joints: when the adjacent bones are directly connected to each other by
fibrous connective tissue consisting of collagen. Examples: the root of a tooth and
socket in mandibles
Cartilaginous joints: The adjacent bones are united by cartilage (a tough but flexible
connective tissue) at cartilaginous joint. Example: costal cartilages that attach ribs to
sternum
Synovial joints: They are freely movable joints. The ends of bones are covered by
hyaline cartilage and held together by tube like capsule of dense fibrous tissue.
Synovial fluid is secreted by synovial membrane. Example: Hinge joint
Q20. Give a comparison of smooth muscles, skeletal muscles and cardiac muscles

Property Smooth muscles Skeletal muscles Cardiac muscles

Muscle Unstriped Regular striped Irregular striped
appearance
Cell shape Spindle Spindle/Cylindrical branched
Number of nuclei One/cell Many per cell One per cell
Speed of Slow Slow to rapid Intermediate
contraction
Contraction Controls Move skeleton Pumps blood
caused by movement of
substances through
hollow organs
Voluntary control Usually no control Have control Usually no control
Chapter# 16 XII FB

Nervous Coordination

Q1. Why is nervous coordination important?

All organisms respond to stimuli. These stimuli may be internal or external, at
molecular. sub-cellular. cellular or organism level to which these organisms respond.
The activities of different body parts in response to these stimuli must be coordinated.
The coordination makes possible the integration of functions essential to organismic
behavior. Coordination is a must for any organism to survive.

Q2. What is the basic organization of a nervous system?

In nervous system the basic organization comprises of
• Reception of stimulus
• Processing / analysis of information
• Response to stimulus

Q3. Name different types of neurons and also write their functions
Sensory Neurons: These neurons carry impulses from receptors to the CNS. Unlike
other neutrons, these are mono polar i.e. they have only one fiber originating from cell
body There is no clear difference between dendrite and axon except for its terminal
portions.
Associative/Interneuron: These neurons are found in brain and spinal cord (CNS).
They are involved in processing and interpretation of information coming from
receptors. Associative neurons are multipolar and unlike other neurons have highly
branching network of dendrites, giving the cell a tree like appearance.
Motor Neuron: These neurons carry impulses from CNS to the effectors. Motor
neurons are also multipolar but have long axons that run from the CNS to the
effectors.
Q4. Draw and label the three functional types of neurons.

Q5. How does the structure of a motor neuron suit its function?
Motor neurons get command from central nervous system or spinal cord for
appropriate response according to stimulus. This message is taken towards the
effectors for response by means of motor neuron. Motor neurons are myelinated for
speedy movement of nervous impulse. So message moves in the form of jumping
movement from node to node. Such movement of nerve impulse is called saltatory
conduction.
Q6. How impulse conduction differs in myelinated and non-myelinated nerve
fibers?
Myelin sheath is a fatty covering produced by Schwann cells. These Schwann cells
and fibers of neurons are covered by this sheath that acts as an insulator. While
non-myelinated fibers of nerve are not covered by sheath. In myelinated neurons
between two Schwann cells exposed area is called node of Ranvier. Conduction of
action potentials from one node of Ranvier to another is called saltatory conduction.

Q7. What is the function of a neurotransmitter?

Neurotransmitters are chemical substances which are released from the terminal ends
of neurons used to pass on the message in the form of impulse from one to next
neuron.
08. What characteristics do the brain and spinal cord have in common?
 Together brain and spinal cord form the central nervous system.
 Both are involved with our senses seeing, hearing, touching. tasting, and
smelling.
 Both are protected by cerebrospinal fluid.
 Both are having grey (bundles of cells bodies and white matter (bundles of
myelinated fibers).
 Both combinely constitute peripheral nervous system.

Q9. Distinguish between Myelinated and non-myelinated nerve fibers

Myelinated Nerve Fibers Non-myelinated Nerve Fibers

 The nerve fibers which are covered
by fatty substances produced by
Schwann cells are myelinated
nerve fibers
 Nerve impulse travels faster in
myelinated nerve fibers.
 These nerve fibers which are not
covered by fatty sheath arc called
non-myelinated nerve fibers.
 Nerve impulse travel slower in
non-myelinated nerve fiber.

Q10. Distinguish between cranial nerves and spinal nerves

Cranial Nerves Spinal Nerves
 The nerves which originate from  Those nerves which originate from
brain are called cranial nerves spinal cord are called spinal
nerves.
 These arc 12 pairs of cranial  There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves
nerves
 Some of these are sensory nerves,  They are all mixed nerves
some are motor nerves and others
are mixed nerves.
 They provide two way  Spinal nerve emerges from spinal
communication bw the spinal cord cord by two short branches or
and parts of the arms, legs, neck, roots called dorsal root and ventral
and trunk. root

Q11. Distinguish between axon and dendrites

Axon Dendrites
Neuron fiber which send/directs nerve Cytoplasmic projection extension which
impulse away from cell body are branched and directs nerve impulses
 towards cell body
There is only one axon per neuron Usually many dendrites are found per
neuron
Axon is comparatively long Dendrites are comparatively shorter

Q12. Define the following:

Neuron, neuroglial cell, Nissl’s bodies, Schwann cells, axoplasm, axolemma, node
of Ranvier, autonomic nervous system, somatic nervous system, nerve impulse
 Neuron: A structural and functional unit of nenous system, which is used in
transmission of nerve impulse from receptors to central neneus system and from
C.N.S to effectors for accomplishing a function in an accurate way and in a
coordinated manner.
 Neuroglial cell: Nervous system also consists of neuroglial or glial cells, which
support, protect and nourish the neurons.
 Nissl’s bodies: They are group of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum
associated with protein synthesis and are found in cell body of a neuron.
 Schwann cells: Schwann cells or neurolemmocyte are neuroglial cells in
peripheral nervous sytem. They are stip like cells around axon fibres. They are also
covered by a fatty substance called myelin sheath
 Node of Ranvier: A non-myelinated axon between two schwann cells is called
node of Ranvier.
 Axoplasm: The cytoplasm of axon is called axoplams
 Axolemma: The cell membrane of axon is called axolemma.
 Somatic nervous system: Motor neurons form somatic nervous system, which
controls voluntary movements, which are under the conscious control of the body
involving skeletal muscles.
 Autonomic nervous system: Motor neurons also form autonomic nervous system,
which controls involuntary responses by influencing organs, glands and smooth
muscles.
 Nerve impulse can be defined as a wave of electrochemical changes that travel
along the length of neuron, from one end to the other.

Q13. How is autonomic nervous system classified?

The autonomic nervous system is further divided into sympathetic nervous system and
parasympathetic nervous system. Both of these systems function automatically,
innervate all internal organs. utilize two neurons and one ganglion for each impulse.
i) Sympathetic Nervous System: A few cranial nerves including the vagus nerve
together with fibres from the bottom portion of spinal cord, from the middle portion of
the spinal cord and almost terminate in ganglia that lie near the cord. This system is
important during emergency situations and is associated with "fight or flight". This
system accelerates the heart beat and dilates and inhibits the digestive tract.
ii) Parasympathetic Nervous System: Cranial nerves including the vagus nerve
together with fibres from the bottom portion of spinal cord form the parasympathetic
nervous system. It promotes all the internal responses which are associated with the
relaxed state i.e., contracts the pupils, promotes digestion of food, retards heartbeat.

Q14. What are the advantages of saltatory conduction?

In myelinated axon at the nodes of ravier the action potential jumps from node to
node and passes along myelinated axon faster than the action potential in a
non-myelinated axon. This type of conduction is called saltatory conduction and can
lead to conduction speeds of up to 120 ms-1

Q15. How is nerve impulse transmitted across synapse?

The axon terminals of pre synaptic neurons have expanded tips called synaptic knobs.
It contains spherical sacs called synaptic vesicles. These vesicles have as many as
10,000 molecules of neurotransmitters. Arrival of action potential at the pre synaptic
terminal depolarizes the plasma membrane, opening voltage gated channels that allow
Ca' to diffuse into the synaptic knob. The resulting rise in Ca' concentration in the
synaptic knob causes some of the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the pre synaptic
membrane, releasing the neurotransmitters. The neurotransmitters then diffuse across
the synaptic cleft, and bind to the receptors on post synaptic membrane. This opens
some channels and allows Na ions to diffuse across the post synaptic membrane as a
result post synaptic membrane depolarizes and an action potential is generated. Since
this depolarization brings the membrane potential towards threshold level, it is called
Excitatory post-synaptic Potential (EPSP).

Q16. Contrast the functions of CNS with those of PNS.

PNS comprises of sensory neurons and motor neurons. There may be sensory, mixed
or motor nerves depending upon the direction of impulse they conduct. In human there
are 12 pairs of cranial and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. The main function of PNS is to
interlink the body parts with C.N.S.
PNS is divided into: I) Somatic nervous system It includes sensory and motor
pathways. These control voluntary movements which are under conscious control of
body invading skeletal muscles. ii) Autonomic nervous system (ANS) is essentially a
motor system. This means that is carries impulses from brain and spinal cord to organs
it serves.
Whereas Central Nervous System: It mainly consists of brain and spinal cord. C.N.S
issues appropriate response of stimuli and is composed of only intermediate relay
neurons
Q17.Compare the functions of somatic and autonomic nervous system.
1) Somatic System It includes sensory pathway and motor pathways. These
control voluntary movements which are under the conscious control of body
invading skeletal muscles.
2) Autonomic Nervous System: It is essentially a motor system. This means that it
carries impulses from brain and spinal cord to organs it serves.
Division of Autonomic nervous system: i) Sympathetic system: It is generally
active during emergency or threatening conditions. It is often referred to as the
fight or flight system.
ii) Parasympathetic system: A few cranial nerves including the vagus nerve
together with fiber from the bottom portion of spinal cord form the
parasympathetic nervous system. This system is active when the body is calm
and at rest and control such responses as contraction of pupils, promoting
digestion of food, retards heartbeat.

Q18. How nerve gas acts as an inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase?

Acetylcholine and the enzyme. acetylcholinesterase enables muscles to contract
and relax. Normally acetylcholine. a neurotransmitter. when released into the
synapse of a muscle elicits the contraction of a muscle and is subsequently
broken down by the enzyme acetylcholinesterase and relaxation of the muscle
can occur. However, sarin. a nerve gas, irreversibly binds to
acetylcholinesterase blocking it from breaking down the acetylcholine thereby
causing muscles to remain contracted. Nerve gases are extremely toxic. a small
droplet can kill a person. They exist in both liquid and gaseous form.

Q19. What is reflex action and reflex arc? Explain how reflexes are
important in maintaining body homeostasis?
Reflex action is immediate and involuntary responses to external and internal
environmental changes. The path of the nerve impulse during reflex action is
called reflex arc. Example A typical reflex arc includes five fundamental parts:
receptors, sensory neurons, interneuron, motor neuron and effectors. For
example, if one unexpectedly touches a hot object, the hand is rapidly removed
from the source of heat. Receptors in the skin are activated. The receptors
stimulate a sensory neuron leading to the spinal cord. The cell body of the
sensory neuron is outside the cord. The sensory neuron enters a dorsal nerve
root of the spinal cord. The impulse then crosses a synapse to an interneuron
which lies completely within the cord. The impulse travels along the
interneuron and then passes across a synapse to the dendrites and the cell body
of motor neuron which lies ventrally within the spinal cord. The motor neuron
to the muscles, which cause them to contract.
Q20. What is resting membrane potential?
Resting Membrane Potential: It is characterized by more positive outer surface
of neuron membrane than inner surface. This state is also referred as polarized
state and the neuron is supposed to be at rest. This means that there is an
unequal distribution of ions on the two sides of the nerve cell membrane. This
potential generally measures about 70 mV (with the inside of the membrane
negative with respect to the outside). So, the resting membrane potential is
expressed as -70 mV. and the minus means that the inside is negative relative
to (or compared to) the outside. It is called a resting potential because it occurs
when a membrane is not being stimulated or conducting impulses.

Q21. How is active membrane potential generated?

Development of active membrane potential (also called action potential) is
characterized by more positive inside of neuron than outside (depolarized
state). This happens when positive charges tend to move inside of neuron on
receiving a particular stimulus. This electrochemical change appears on a short
region of neuron for a brief period of time followed by the recovery of
polarized state. In this way a wave of action potential begins to move towards
other end of neuron.

Q22. Give the function of each of the following structures in human

brain. (a) Cerebrum (b) Thalamus (c) Hypothalamus

A) Cerebrum is the largest part of the human brain. Cerebrum is divided into
two cerebral hemispheres. Each hemisphere contains four surface lobes.
Each lobe further contains different functional areas e.g.,- auditory
(hearing) visual area etc.. Each functional area consists of three sub-areas
i.e., sensory area, association area and motor area. Sensory area receives
impulses from different body parts. Association area analyzes the incoming
information. The motor area control responses of the body. Cerebrum also
functions in the analysis and interpretation of memory reasoning judgement,
thoughts and dreams.
B) Thalamus is below the cerebrum. It receives all sensory impulses (except
sense of smell) and channels them to limbic system and to appropriate
regions of the cortex interpretation.
C) On the ventral side of the thalamus is the hypothalamus. It maintains
homeostasis and contains centres for regulating hunger, sleep, thirst, body
temperature, water balance and blood pressure menstrual cycle and sleep
wake cycle. The hypothalamus also controls the pituitary gland and thereby
serves as link between the nervous and endocrine system.
 CH#17 Chemical coordination

Q1. What are major endocrine glands of the body and where they are
located?
Endocrine system is the type of glandular system, consists of some 20
ductless glands lying in different parts of the body. Major endocrine glands
are: Pituitary glands: Located in brain 2. Hypothalamus: Located in brain 3.
Thyroid gland: In neck region on either side of the trachea 4. Parathyroid:
embedded in thyroid in neck region. 5. Adrenal gland: Located on kidneys
6. Pancreas: Along with stomach 7. Ovaries: In female only internal to
body. 8. Testicles: Only in male in between groin area. 9. Thymus gland:
Al chest 10. Pineal gland: In brain.

Q2. Define second messenger and give their names.

Protein and peptide hormones. like epinephrine and prostaglandins find
their receptors on plasma membrane of target cells. Binding of hormone to
receptor initiates a series of events which leads to generation of so-called
second messages within the cell (the hormone is the first messenger). The
second messenger these trigger a series of molecular interactions that
physiological state of the cell. For example,
 When a non-steroid hormone (first messenger) is attached to the
receptor protein.
 A series of events are triggered which activates an enzyme that in
turn
 Converts ATP to camp (second messenger)
 The effect on cellular function is observed.

Q3. What is function of prolactin and ACTH?

Prolactin is continuously produced from pituitary gland and is inhibited by
prolactin inhibiting factor from hypothalamus. Function: It stimulates milk
production.
ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic hormone) is released by the secretion of
corticotrophin releasing factor (CRF) from hypothalamus which is
controlled by steroid level in blood and by direct nervous stimulation of
hypothalamus as a result of stress e.g. cold, heat, pain fright and infections.
Function: ACTH act on adrenal cortex and stimulates the secretions of
corticosteroids (cortisone and aldosterone).

Q4. How oxytocin secretion is stimulated and what does it do?

Oxytocin is released after stimulation by distension of cervix, decrease in
progesterone level in blood and neural stimuli during parturition (child
birth) and sucking. Function: Its primary action is on smooth muscle,
particularly in the uterus during childbirth and also causes milk ejection
from mammary glands.
05. Differentiate between dwarfism and cretinism.

Dwarfism
 Deficiency of GH (growth
hormone) results in dwarfism
 In dwarfism development is
much slower and individual
has short stature, however the
body parts stay in proportion
and brain development and IQ
are unaffected.
Cretinism
In infants, the deficiency of
thyroxine causes a dwarfed
condition called cretinism.
The individuals are small, have
coarse scanty hair, thick yellowish
scaly skin and mentally retarded.
They do not develop sexually

Q6. How is the secretion of ADH controlled?

Antidiuretic hormone (also called vasopressin). Secretions caused by
decrease in blood pressure, blood volume, and osmotic pressure of the
blood detected by osmoreceptors in hypothalamus. External sensory stimuli
also influence hypothalamic neurosectetory cells. Function: Increased
levels cause increased water reabsorption in distal parts of kidney. A lack
of this hormone produces diabetes insipidus, characterized by production of
large quantities of dilute urine and great thirst.

Q7. Which female reproductive organs secrete hormones and what are
their functions?
1. Ovary is female reproductive organ. i) Estrogen is secreted by ripening
follicles in ovaries whose development has been initiated by FSH from the
pituitary. Functions: Estrogens bring about: a) Development of the
secondary sexual characters in female. b) thickening of the uterine wall c)
at a point during the menstrual cycle, exert a positive feedback which
results in a sharp rise in LH output by the pituitary. d) Aids in healing and
repair of uterine wall after menstruation.
II) Progesterone: It is produced by the ruptured follicle in response to LH
from the pituitary. Functions: It performs the following functions: a)
Progesterone inhibits further FSH secretion from the pituitary, thus
preventing any more follicles from ripening. b) It also affects the uterus,
causing further thickening and vascularization of its wall, preparing it for
maintaining state of pregnancy. e) It suppresses ovulation. That is why it is
a major constituent of birth control pill.

Q8. Which male reproductive organs secrete hormones and what are
their functions?

Testes: The testes are male reproductive organs and consist of many coiled
seminiferous tubules where the spermatozoa develop and, between the
tubules, regions of interstitial cells which produce Testosterone and 17
p-hydroxytestosterone. After puberty the supply of LH (ICSH) and level of
testosterone remains constant. Action: i) In the fetus it initiates the
development of the sex organs. ii) At puberty it brings about development
of the male secondary characteristics and promotes the sex drive.

Q9. What are the types of molecules used as hormones in humans?

Chemically, hormones are of three basic types i.e., steroids, amino acids or
their derivatives, proteins or polypeptides and a few belong to the fatty
acids e.g., prostaglandins. Steroid hormones are secreted by the adrenal
gland (cortisol and aldosterone), the ovaries (estrogen and progesterone),the
testes (testosterone)and placenta (estrogen and progesterone). Two groups
of hormones are derivatives of amino acid tyrosine. The metabolic
hormones thyroxin and tri-iodothyronine from thyroid glands and
epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal medullae are all derived from
amino acid tyrosine.

Q10. What is the effect of epinephrine (adrenaline) on body?

Epinephrine is the more potent stimulator of metabolic activities,
bronchial dilation and increased blood flow to skeletal muscles and heart.

Q11. Why anterior lobe of pituitary is also called master gland?

Classically, the anterior lobe of pituitary is considered the master gland of
endocrine system because it secretes numerous hormones, many of which
regulate the activity of other endocrine glands. It secretes six hormones, all
of which regulate the secretory action of other endocrine glands.

Q12.Differentiate between calcitonin and parathormone.

Parathormone Calcitonin
The parathonnone is the single most The thyroid gland secretes
important hormone of parathyroids calcitonin. This hormone plays a
controlling the calcium balance of
the blood.
Its release is triggered by low blood
Ca levels and inhibited by high
blood calcium levels
Parathomone stimulates osteoclasts
to reabsorb bone mineral and
liberating calcium in the small
intestine and also its reabsorption in
the kidney tubules.
minor but direct role in controlling
extracellular levels of calcium ions.
When the levels rise, calcitonin
promotes calcium deposition into
bones. When the levels return to
normal, thyroid cells decrease their
secretion of calcitonin
Calcitonin inhibits Ca absorption by
the intestines and decreases its
reabsorption by the kidney tubules
allowing its excretion in urine.

Q13. What are the effects of oversecretion and undersecretion of

parathormone?
Over secretion of parathormone is usually a result of a parathyroid gland
tumor. Calcium is released from the bones, and bones get soften and tend to
fracture spontaneously. Blood calcium level elevates (hypercalcemia)
which depresses nervous system and causes weakness of muscles. Excess
calcium salts precipitate in the kidneys leading to stone formation.
Under secretion of parathormone causes hypocalcemia. This increases
the excitability of neurons. Also it can lead to tetany in which muscles
remain in contracted state. If untreated, it can be fatal.

Q14. What are the effects of undersecretion of calcitonin?

Calcitonin appears more important in childhood, when the skeleton grows
quickly and the bones are changing dramatically in mass, size, and shape. If
deficient Ca are not deposited in bones and high blood Ca level causes
disturbance in the functioning of muscles and nervous system and may lead
to kidney stones.

Q15. Explain on what grounds some companies claim that growth is

possible in people having short heights?
If growth hormone is administered to young people before growth of their
long bones is complete, it causes long bones to grow and they will grow
taller. To accomplish this however, GH (growth hormone) have to be
administered over a considerable length of time.

Q16. Why antidiuretic hormone is also called vasopressin?

 Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) regulates water balance and is produced
from posterior lobe of pituitary gland. Under certain conditions, such as
severe blood loss exceptionally large amount of ADH is released causing a
raise in blood pressure. The alternative name for this hormone, vasopressin,
reflects this particular effects.

Q17. Write a very brief note on: Gigantism, Diabetes insipidus,

Graves’ disease, Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans)

a) Gigantism: It is resulted by over secretion of GH during childhood. As

the bones are still capable of growth, person becomes a giant. (higher
secretion of GH in adult life causes acromegaly. Bones are no longer
capable of increasing in length but grow in thickness. Acromegaly is
characterized by enlarging the hands, feet, skull, nose and jawbone.

b) Diabetes insipidus: ADH is produced during the state of dehydration.

decreased blood volume and low blood pressure. Under secretion of ADH
causes diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by excessive production of
diluted urine and frequent thirst.

c) Graves’ disease: It is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The serum

of patients contains abnormal antibodies that mimic TSH and continuously
stimulate thyroxin release. The symptoms include high metabolic rate,
rapid and irregular heartbeat, increased breathing rate, increased body
temperature, sweating and weight loss despite adequate food intake. Mostly
exophthalmia (protrusion of the eye balls) results from Graves' disease and
is a classic symptom of hyperthyroidism.

d) Cretinism: Under secretion of thyroxin in infants called cretinism. In

this disease there is mental retardation with poor physical growth and
disproportionate body size. Bone maturation and puberty are severely
delayed and infertility is common.

f) Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans): The pancreas is a double gland as it

serves both as exocrine and endocrine gland. The bulk of the gland is
exocrine and is formed of acinar cells which synthesize pancreatic juice
rich in digestive enzymes. Pancreatic juice is delivered to the duodenum by
pancreatic duct during food digestion. Endocrine pancreas consists of islets
of Langerhans. Each islet is a small mass of cells with two major types of
cells; glucagon producing alpha cells and insulin producing beta cells.
Q18. How insulin perform its function?
Insulin It is released by Beta in response to a rise in blood glucose level. Its
overall effect is to:
• Reduce blood glucose level to the normal level.
• Increase the rate of glucose uptake by most body cells especially skeletal
muscles and fat cells.
• Promotes glycogenesis in liver and muscle cells.
• Increases the use of the glucose in cellular respiration.
• Promotes the conversion of excess glucose to fats.
• Inhibits gluconeogenesis (glucose synthesis)
• Increases the rate of uptake of amino acids into the cells and the rate of
protein synthesis.

Q19. Write the functions of

a) Growth hormone: Growth hormone (GH) or somatotrophic hormone
(STH) is released under influence of hypothalamic growth hormone
releasing factor (GHRF) and inhibited by hypothalamic somatostatin. GH
has a direct effect on growth and development. GH stimulates cell growth
and cell division. It also stimulates uptake of amino acids into cells and
increase rate of protein synthesis.

b) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone Thyrotrophin releasing factor (TRF)

from hypothalamus stimulates the synthesis and release of thyroid
stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior pituitary. TSH regulates the
endocrine function of the thyroid gland. It increases the number of cells and
secretory activity of the thyroid gland. Over secretion of TSH causes
hyperthyroidism i.e., excess of thyroxin and its under secretion causes
hypothyroidism i.e.. lack of thyroxin.

c) Antidiuretic hormone Diuresis means urine formation/production.

Antidiuretic is any substance which inhibits urine formation.
Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus monitor the solute concentrations of blood.
ADII is released when solute concentration increases as a result of water
loss. It acts on kidney tubules to enhance water reabsorption. More water is
reabsorbed. concentrated urine is produced. Blood volume increases and
solute concentration become normal.
d) Oxytocin: oxytocin is released during child birth and in nursing women.
Stretching of the uterus and cervix during parturition is a strong stimulus
for the release of oxytocin. Low level of progesterone in blood to the end of
pregnancy and neural stimuli of mother during child birth also stimulate
release of oxytocin. During birth it is released in waves and results in labor
contractions. In lactating women, suckling causes the release of oxytocin.
The letdown reflex also known as the milk ejection reflex, is set off by this
hormone.
f) Glucagon is released by alpha cells when blood glucose level is low.
Sympathetic nervous system also stimulates its secretion. High blood
glucose levels, insulin and somatostatin suppress its secretion. Its role is to
increase the blood glucose level. It acts antagonistically to the insulin and
thus reverses the activities performed by insulin.

g) Cortisone: Helps to regulate the blood glucose level.

h) Aldosterone: Help to regulate the level of minerals in the blood

I) Estrogens: estrogen is secreted by ripening follicles whose

development has been initiated by FSH from the pituitary. Estrogens bring
about the development of the secondary sexual characters in the female,
Cause thickening of the uterine wall. At a point during the menstrual cycle
it exerts a positive feedback which results in a sharp rise in LH output by
the pituitary. It also aids in healing and repair of uterine wall after
menstruation.
j) Progesterone: It is produced by the ruptured follicle in response to LH
from the pituitary. Functions It performs the following functions
Progesterone inhibits further FSH secretion from the pituitary, thus
preventing any more follicles from ripening.It also affects the uterus,
causing further thickening and vascularization of its wall. and other areas of
the female body, preparing it for maintaining state of pregnancy.
k) Testosterone The testes consist of many coiled seminiferous tubules
where the spermatozoa develop and between the tubules region of
interstitial cells testosterone are produced. Testosterone inmates the
development of sex organs in fetus. At puberty it brings about development
of male secondary characters.
L) Gastrin Hormone: secreted by stomach wall travels in blood stream but
exerts its effects locally, stimulating the production of pepsinogen and
hydrochloric acid HCI)
M) Secretin: The duodenum produce secretion especially when the food
contains acid. It affects pancreas to produce and release pancreatic juice
and also affects the rate of bile production in liver.
N) Prostaglandin:A group of hormone like compounds. They provide
protection against / during infections. 0) Endorphins: are produced in brain.
Endorphins bind to pain receptors and so block sensation of pain.
Q20. What are the effects of over-secretion and under-secretion of
growth hormone?
Deficiency of GH results in dwarfism in which development is much
slower and individual has short stature, however, the body pans stay in
proportion and brain development and IQ are unaffected. Gigantism is
result of over secretion of GH during childhood in which the bones are still
capable of growth, person increase in height abnormally. Over secretion of
GH in adult life cause acromegaly in which bones are no longer capable of
increasing in length but grow in thickness. Acromegaly is characterized by
enlarging the hands, feel. skull, now and jawbone.
 CH#6 REPRODUCTION

01. List the structures of male reproductive system.

The male reproductive system includes:
 Gonads (testes)
 Accessory duct (epididymis, ductus deferens, ejaculatory duct and urethra)
 Accessory glands (seminal vesicles, prostate gland. bulbourethral glands)
 Copulatory organ (penis)
02. List the structures of female reproductive system.
Female reproductive system consists of:
 Gonads (a pair of ovaries)
 Oviduct
 Uterus
 Vagina
03. List the structure in order, through which a sperm passes on its way from
seminiferous tubules of the testes to the fallopian tubule of the female
i) In seminiferous tubule due to meiosis sperms (male gametes) are
produced.
ii) From seminiferous tubules sperms travel towards vasa efferentia.
iii) From vase efferentia sperms are transferred towards highly coiled ducts
called epididymis.
iv) Epididymis opens into the another duct called ductus deferens (sperm
duct or vas deferens)
v) Vas deferens deep into the pelvic cavity and then joins with the duct of
seminal vesicle. Here sperms more for time being.
vi) From seminal vesical sperms are transferred to ejaculatory duct
vii) Each ejaculatory duct then enters the prostate gland, where it empties
into the urethra. Urethra is the terminal portion of the male duct system
and is also called urinogential duct as it carries urine as well as sperm
fluid.
viii) It opens to outside at the external urethral orifice of the penis.
ix) The penis transfers sperms into the female reproductive tract during
copulation.

Q4. What is infertility? What are the causes of human male infertility?
The failure to achieve pregnancy is called infertility.
The common causes of male infertility are:
i) Azoospermia: It is the state of having no sperms. It may be caused if sperm
ducts are blocked due to infection, injury, gonorrhea and T.B. The blockage
may be congenital
ii) Oligospermia: Sperm count below 20 million/ml is called oligospemia. More
than 90% of male infertility is due to low sperm count.
iii) Sperm Deformities: The changes in shape of sperms are called sperm
deformities. It is usual for a small proportion of sperm to be abnormal, for
example having two tails, no head or abnormal shape.
iv) Autoimmune Disorder: In some individuals, the infertility is probably due to
an immune response by the male to its own sperms. Antibodies are made which
attack the sperm and reduce sperm count.

Q5. What are the causes of human female infertility?

i) Failure to Ovulate: Sometimes the hypothalamus or pituitary gland fail to
produce hormones normally, with the result that either no follicles develop
or egg release is affected. Alternately, the ovaries may not be producing
estrogen or progesterone normally.
ii) Blocked Oviduct: In some females the infertility is due to the diseases causing
blockage of fallopian tube. It may be due to infections.
iii) Uterus Damage: The problem lies in maintaining the pregnancy. Fibroids
grow from the walls of the uterus and cause infertility.
iv) Cervical Mucus Defect: During ovulation, mucus in the cervix becomes
thinner so that sperm can swim through it more easily. If there is a problem
with the mucus, it can make it harder to conceive.
v) Endometriosis It is a condition where small pieces of the endometrium start
growing in other places, such as the ovaries.

Q6. Explain "in vitro" fertilization.

In vitro fertilization (IVF), means fertilization outside of the female body. IVF is the
most effective types of assisted reproductive technology. It is often used when a
woman's fallopian tubes are blocked or when a man produces too few spent This is.

Q7. What are the actions of FSH in the human female?

Follicle stimulating hormone FSH stimulates the follicle for development of an egg
in it during first days of the menstrual cycle. Only few ovarian follicles are stimulated.
Out of few only one becomes mature called Graafian follicles in which oogenesis
occurs. ii) FSH also stimulate graafian follicle to secrete estrogen which is turn
governs the vascularization of endometrial lining of uterine wall.

Q8. What are the actions of LH in the human female?

Release of LH. Estrogen has negative feedback upon FSH. so as the concentration of
estrogen rises the level of FSH falls. This is a signal for anterior pituitary gland to
release LH, which causes rupturing of graafian follicle and egg is released into
oviduct, the event is known as ovulation, which takes less than five minutes. LH also
converts the ruptured follicle to a yellowish glandular mass called corpus luteum.

Q9. Why are so many sperms produced in the male and so few ova produced in
the female?
A man needs to constantly produce sperms in order to increase his chance of
reproduction. An individual sperm would be unlikely to get through to fertilized egg
so a man needs to shoot lots of sperms into woman, in biological hope that it will get
into the egg. Most of sperms are killed by acidic environment in male reproductive
system. In female an egg needs to wait for sperm and is having high chances of being
fertilized

Q10. Explain the principle reproductive hormones of human male and their role.
Process of spermatogenesis is controlled by hormonal secretions from hypothalamus
and pituitary gland. The hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone
which controls the release of the anterior pituitary gonadotropins follicle-stimulating
hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). FSH stimulates spermatogenesis by
stimulating the sertoli cells to complete the development of sperms from spermetids.
The sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules of the testis and they nourish
the spermatids. LH stimulates Leydig cells to release testosterone. Testosterone
causes the growth and development of germinal epithelium to form sperms. Inhibin
hormone is produced by the sertoli cells and serves to control the spermatogenesis at
normal rate.

Q11.What are the ethical implications of abortion?

Abortion is one of the most controversial issues associated with reproduction. It raises
ethical issues. The commonly raised ethical issues are:
 Abortion could be regarded as murder.
 Extra children may impose several financial stresses on an existing family
 Many abortions are carried out on fetuses with disabilities such as thalassemia,
Down’s syndrome etc.

Q12. How is human reproductive system unique?

The reproductive system is unique in two respects. Firstly. the fact that is does not
become functional until it is 'turned on' at puberty by the action of sex hormones In
contrast. all other body systems are functional at birth or shortly thereafter. Secondly.
the other organ systems of the body exhibit slight differences in male and female
while the reproductive system is quite different in male and female.
Q13. Describe the structure of uterus
The uterus or womb is a hollow, muscular organ shaped somewhat like an inverted
pear. The uterus has three portions: the fundas, the body and the cervix. The oviducts
join the uterus just below the fundus and the opening of the cervix leads to the vaginal
canal. The wall of the uterus is composed of three layers. The perimetrium is the
outermost thin covering. The myometrium is the middle thick muscular layer
composed of bundles of smooth muscle. The endometrium is the inner spongy lining
of the uterine cavity. If fertilization occurs, the young embryo is implanted into the
endometrium and resides there for the rest of its development. The main functions of
uterus are to receive, retain, and nourish a fertilized ovum. Cervix is a narrow entrance
to the uterus from the vagina. It is normally blocked by a plug of mucus.
Q14. Write brief notes on oviduct and vagina

Oviduct (Fallopian Tubes or Uterine Tube) The oviduct form the initial part of the
female duct system. They receive the ovulated oocyte and are the site where
fertilization generally occurs. Each oviduct is about 10 cm long and transfer
developing ovum from ovary towards the uterus. The oviduct contains sheets of
smooth muscular peristalsis and the beating of the cilia. Non-ciliated cells produce a
secretion that keeps the oocyte (and sperm. if present) moist and nourished.

Vagina: The vagina is a thin-walled 8.10 cm long tube and extends from the cervix to
the body exterior. Vagina is often called the birth canal as it provides a passageway
for delivery of an infant and for menstrual flow. The urethra is embedded in its
anterior wall.

Q15. Name the three phases of menstruation cycle and mention the characteristic
days.
 Menstruation phase from day 1 to 5
 Proliferative/pre-ovaulatary phase from day 6 to 14.
 Secretory phase from day 15 to 28

Q16. What is a role of corpus luteum in menstrual cycle?

After ovulation the follicle cells are modified into a special structure called corpus
luteum which is yellow glandular structure starts secreting a hormone called
progesterone. This hormone develops the endometrium and makes it receptive for
implantation of the zygote (placenta formation)

Q17. How will you differentiate miscarriage and abortion?

Miscarriage is a natural mishap which is done spontaneously so called natural abortion
or spontaneous abortion.
Abortion is usually referred to the induced premature termination of pregnancy.
CH# 7 Development and aging

Q1. What is the basis of pregnancy test?

Pregnancy test, which is based on the fact that hCG is present in the blood and urine
of a pregnant woman.

Q2. Name the four extra-embryonic membranes and give a function of each.

Establishment of extra embryonic membrane is one of the major events in early

development. These are: amnion, yolk sac, allantois and chorion. i) The amnion
provides a fluid environment for the developing embryo and fetus. Firstly amnion is
seen above the embryo; later on it surrounds the embryo. ii) The yolk sac appears
below the embryo. In humans, the yolk sac contains no yolk and is the first site of red
blood cell formation Pan of this membrane becomes incorporated into the umbilical
cord. iii) The allantois contributes to the circulatory system. Its blood vessels become
blood vessels of umbilical cord, which transport fetal blood to and from the placenta.
is) Chorion, the outer extraembryonic membrane surrounds the embryo. It becomes
the part of the placenta.

Q3. List the tissues and organs formed from the three germinal layers.

Ectoderm: Ectoderm gives rise to nervous system and skin epidermis.

Endoderm: It forms the epithelial linings of digestive. respiratory and uncongenial
system and associated organs.
Mesoderm: Forms virtually everything else.

Q4. When oxytocin is involved in the secretion of milk, hypothesize why new
mother often experience cramps in uterus?
The stimulus of sucking releases oxytocin. Oxytocin also stimulates contraction of
muscles in the uterus, helping it to teem er its normal tone after birth, thus new mother
often experiences cramps in the uterus while nursing.

Q5. Why nourishment of mother is imperative during the third trimester of

pregnancy?
The third trimester is a period of growth. The mothers blood stream fuels all of this
growth by the nutrients it provided. Within the placenta these nutrients put into fetal
blood supply. If the fetus is malnourished because the mother is malnourished. this
growth can be relatively affected. The result is the severely retarded infants, so proper
nourishment of mother is necessary.
Q6. Give short notes on the following:
 Amnion: The amnion is one of the extra-embryonic membrane, which provides fluid
environment for developing embryo and fetus. Firstly, amnion is seen above the
embryo, later on it surrounds the embryo.
Allantois: It is a second extra-embryonic membrane, which contributes to the
circulatory system. Its blood vessels become blood vessels of umbilical cord, which
transport fetal blood to and from the placenta.
Chorion: The outer most extra embryonic membrane surrounds the embryo. It
becomes the part of the placenta.
Chorionic gonadotropin (HCG): After fertilization the zygote undergoes several
mitotic divisions called cleavage. If the implantation is successful, the embryo begins
to secrete human chorionic gonadotrophin. This hormone forces the corpus luteum,
the ovary to continue to secrete progesterone, thereby maintaining the endometrium
and inhibiting FSH production.
Gestation Period: After conception (pregnancy) till the delivery time, the whole
time period during the development and growth in mother body is called gestation.
Embryonic development: In embryonic development the progressive changes which
are undergone before an organism acquires its adult like form constitute the
embryonic development. Embryonic development comprises following stages:
cleavage, gastrulation, organogenesis and growth.
Embryology: Embryonic development begins with a series of mitotic divisions in the
zygote which leads to a multicellular stage called embryo, finally an adult like body is
formed. The study of an organism at this stage is called embryology.
Blastocyst: As cleavage continues after fertilization, cells begin to move apart, so that
spaces appear among cells in the centre of mass. Cells keep moving away from the
central area, forming a fluid cavity known as blostocoel. This hollow-sphere embryo
which develops at the end of cleavage is called blastula. This embryonic stage in
mammals is called blastocyst.

Q7. Draw a table to list the events of human development in the 1st, 2nd and 3rd
trimester

Time Events for baby

Embryonic development
(First trimester)
First week Fertilization occurs. Cell division begins
and continues. Chorion appears.
Second week Implantation. Amnion and yolk sac
appear. Embryo has tissues. Placenta
begins to form
Third week Nervous system begins development.
Allantois and blood vessels are present.
Fourth week Limb buds form. Heart is noticeable and
beating. Nervous system is prominent.
Embryo has tail. Other systems form
Fifth week Embryo is curved. Head is large. Limb
buds show division. Nose, eyes, ears
noticeable.
Sixth week Fingers and toes are present.
Cartilaginous skeleton.
Two months All systems developing. Bone is replacing
cartilage. Refinement of facial features.
Third month Possible to distinguish sex. Finger nails
appear
Second trimester
Fourth month Skeleton visible. Hair begins to appear
Fifth month Protective coating begins to be deposited.
Heartbeat can be heard
Sixth month Body is covered with fine hair. Skin is
wrinkled and reddish
Third trimester
Seventh month Testes descend into scrotum. Eyes are
open
Eighth month Body hair begins to disappear.
Subcutaneous fat begins to deposit
Ninth month Ready for birth

Q8. Differentiate between meroblastic cleavage and holoblastic cleavage

Holoblastic cleavage Meroblastic cleavage

 This type of cleavage takes place
in species which have egg with
large amount of yolk.
 The distribution of yolk is not even
around animal pole and vegetal
pole
 In such eggs, cell divisions take
place only in the blastodiscs, the
small disc of cytoplasm at the
 This type of cleavage takes place
in species which have egg with
moderate amount of yolk.
 The yolk is relatively evenly
distributed in such type of eggs
 The entire egg divides, producing
cells of roughly the same size.
 animal pole.
 For example, reptiles, birds and  For example, bony fishes and
some fishes amphibians

Q9. What is meant by organogenesis? What is the major event in organogenesis?

The formation of organs and systems during embryonic development is called
organogenesis. The first major event in organogenesis is neurulation, the
differentiation of ectoderm that produces the brain and spinal cord.

Q10. What is animal pole and vegetal pole?

Generally, the yolk-rich pole of an egg is referred to as the vegetal pole, while the
remaining low- yolk part is termed the animal pole.

Q 11. Write a short note on neural crest cells and their role in development.

During neurulation, after the closure of neural tube the associated neural crest cells
migrate widely to the lateral sides and give rise to spinal, cranial and sympathetic
ganglia and associative nerves. They subsequently form peripheral nerves, teeth, skull
bones and so many other cell types that some have proposed considering neural crest
cells as ‘fourth germ layer’.
Q12. What are the major events that take place in third trimester?
It is predominantly a period of growth rather than one of the development. The weight
of the fetus doubles several times. The mother’s blood stream fuels all this growth by
the nutrients it provides. As the end of the development approaches the fetus usually
rotates so the head is positioned toward the cervix.

Q13. At what point in parental development of a human does the zygote exhibit a
new genetic makeup different from that of either parent?
When there is a meiosis, a specific type of cell division, genes are exchanged between
homologous chromosomes and as a result sex cells would be having new gene
combinations. When such sex cells (egg and sperm) would fuse with new gene
combination, a zygote would be having different genetic makeup than its parents.

Q14. What happens to secondary oocyte immediately after fertilization occurs?

After fertilization the first diploid cell of a young one is produced called zygote (2n).
Zygote undergoes some changes which leads to the formation of fetus and then
ultimately to an adult.

Q15. How is umbilical cord detached from baby?

After the delivery of baby, the umbilical cord is still attached to the baby. This cord is
clamped artificially as early as 1 to 5 minutes after birth of the child. Clamping is
followed by cutting of cord, which is painless due to lack of any nerve.

Q16. What is the role of Umbilical Cord?

As the human embryo grows, the umbilical cord (also called naval string) develops
and connects the embryo to the placenta. The umbilical cord is physiologically and
genetically part of fetus and (in humans) normally contains two arteries (The
umbilical arteries) and one vein (the umbilical vein). The umbilical vein supplies the
fetus with oxygenated, nutrient rich blood from the placenta. Conversely, the fetal
heart pumps deoxygenated, nutrient depleted blood through the umbilical arteries back
to the placenta.

Q17. What is placenta and what does it do?

Placenta is an organ that provides nutrients and oxygen to the embryo and helps to
dispose off its metabolic wastes, formed of embryos chorion, and mother’s
endometrial blood vessels.
Q18. What do you know about Identical twins?
Identical twins or triplets or quadruplets come from a single egg that has been
fertilized by one sperm therefore also called monoz-ygotic. Sometimes, the zygote
splits into two or more embryos during the first stage of development. Some identical
multiples share the same placenta However, they usually grow within separate
amniotic sacs in the uterus. In rare cases, identical multiples share one amniotic sac.
Identical multiples are always of the same sex and blood type. They do not always
look exactly alike. One may he right-handed while the other is left-handed and have
different hand fingerprint due to exposure of different environment in later life.
Q19. How are fraternal twins formed?
Fraternal twins or triplets or quadruplets come from multiple eggs fertilized by
different sperms therefore also called dizygotic or multiple zygotic. Fraternal fetuses
have separate placentas and amniotic sacs. They can be of different sexes and have
different blood types and may look very different from one another, with different
colored hair and eyes. They may also look alike, as siblings often do.
CH#8 Inheritance

Q1: Describe the following

Gene, allele, locus.

Gene: Gene is the basic unit of biological information. Hereditary characteristics pass
from parents to offspring through genes in their gametes. DNA stores all sorts of
biological information coded in the sequence of its bases in a linear order, and genes
are actually parts of DNA comprising its base sequences.
Allele: A single gene may have alternative form which is called allele, or partners of
gene pair are called allele.
Locus: The position on a chromosome where a gene is located is often referred to as a
locus.
Polygenic traits: Such traits which are encoded by alleles of two or more different
gene pairs found at different loci, all influencing the same trait in an additive way.
These quantitative traits are therefore called polygenic traits.

Q2. How are genes important in producing variations?

Function of genes: Genes are responsible for inherited resemblances as well as
distinctive variations among generations. When these pass in the form of intact
parental combination between generations. inherited similarities are conserved; but
when these shuffle, mutate or juggle (fit in) with each other, variations emerge.

Q3. What is epistasis, epistatic gene and hypostatic gene?

When an effect caused by a gene or gene pair at one locus interferes with or hides the
effect caused by another gene or gene pair at another locus such as phenomenon of
gene interaction is called epistasis. In such interactions, the gene which suppresses or
masks the effect of action of a gene at another locus is known as epistatic gene or
inhibiting gene and the gene which is suppressed is known as hypostatic gene.

Q4. What do you understand by the term ‘Polygenic inheritance’?

Polygenic inheritance refers to the kind of inheritance in which the trait is produced
from the cumulative effects of many genes in contrast to monogenic inheritance in
which the trait results from the expression of one gene (or one gene pair).

The traits which cannot be encoded by a single gene with two alleles. Even a few
multiple alleles of a single gene cannot make a large number of phenotype. Such traits
are encoded by alleles of two or more different gene pairs found at different loci, all
influencing the same trait in an additive way. These quantitative traits are therefore
called polygenic traits.
Q5. What are polygenes and how do they interact to produce a quantitative
effect?

All the genes that control a quantitative trait are called polygenes which have a small
positive or negative effect on the character. Polygenes supplement each other and sum
of positive and negative effect of all individual polygenes produce quantitative
phenotype of a continuous varying traits. Example Wheat grain color Wheat grain
color is a good example of polygenic (multiple gene) inheritance. Wheat grains show
a continuous variation in color from white to dark red. Approximately seven different
phenotypes are found in wheat population all over the world. Some grains are white,
some are deep red but most grains have shades in between from light pink to
moderately dark red. These phenotypes are due to mutual interaction of three different
gene pairs i.e., A, B, C

Q6. List any three polygenic inheritances in man.

 Human skin color
 Human weight
 Human height
 Human nose length
 Human IQ level

Q7. Why is human male referred as hetero-gametic?

Male are hetero-gametic in humans because it forms two types of sperms. Half the
sperms have X chromosome while the other half are having Y chromosomes.

Q8. If a woman who is not a carrier for genes for hemophilia is married to a man who
is hemophilic, what percentage of their offspring could be expected to be hemophilic?
0% offspirngs will be hemophilic affected

Q9. Under what circumstances is it possible for father and son to suffer from
hemophilia?
A trait whose gene is present on X chromosome is called X — linked trait. A gene
present only on X chromosome. having no counterpart on Y chromosome is called X
— linked gene. Pattern of Sex-linked Inheritance follows a very specific pattern. As a
son inherits his X chromosome only from his mother, and a daughter gets a X
chromosome from each parent, an X — linked trait passes in a crisscross fashion from
maternal grandfather (P,) through his daughter (F1) to the grandson (F2). It never
passes direct from father to son because a son inherits only Y chromosome from
father. Hemophilia is an example of sex-linked inheritance.

Q10. Red green color blindness is caused by sex linked recessive allele. A color
blind man marries a woman with normal vision whose father was color blind.
What is the probability that their first son will be a color blind?
Q11. Describe sex influenced trait in man
Sex influenced trait occurs in both males and females but it is more common in one
sex. It is controlled by an allele that is expressed as dominant in one sex but recessive
in the other. This difference in expression is due to hormonal difference between the
sexes. Pattern baldness is a sex influenced trait. Many more men than women are bald.
It is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait in males but as an autosomal recessive
trait in females. A heterozygous male is bald but a heterozygous female is not. A
woman can be bald only when she is homozygous recessive.
Q12. Describe sex limited trait in man.
A sex-limited trait is limited to only one sex due to anatomical differences. Such trait
affects a structure or function of the body present in only males or only females. These
traits may be controlled by sex-linked or autosomal genes. Genes for milk yield in
dairy cattle affect only cows. Similarly beard growth in humans is limited to men. A
woman does not grow a beard herself but she can pass the genes specifying heavy
beard growth to her sons.

Q13. What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

Muscular dystrophy characterized by a wasting away of the muscles. The most
common form is Duchenne muscular dystrophy. It is a sex linked recessive disorder.
The symptoms appear in early childhood when the child begins to have difficulty
standing up and rises to a standing position in a characteristic way. He is inevitably
wheelchair bound by the age of 12. Eventually, he becomes severely wasted and
normal breathing becomes difficult. Death usually occurs by the age of 20, therefore,
affected males are rarely fathers

Q14. What is the cause of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

The recessive allele for this dystrophy remains in the population by passage from
carrier mother to carrier daughter. The gene whose mutation causes this disorder has
been mapped. It codes for a protein called dystrophin which is present in the normal
muscle but missing in Duchenne patient. The lack of dystrophin causes calcium to
leak into the cell which promotes the action of an enzyme that dissolves muscle fibre.
Q1. What are these scientists famous for: Fredrick Griffith, Meselson and Stahl,
Hershey and Martha Chase, Okazaki

 In 1928 F. Griffith studied the virulence disease producing capacity of a bacterium

that includes a strain that causes pneumonia (s-type) and another strain that is
harmless (R type).
 In 1952 Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase did very convincing experiment to
prove that DNA is a hereditary material. involves in transmission of parent
characters from one to another generation.
 In 1959 Mathew Meselson and Franklin Stahl of California bantam of Technology
proved by experiment the daughter DNA molecules are composed of one old
strand and one new strand.
 A Japanese biologist Okazaki who discovered that during replication of DNA one
strand is copied in a continuous way called leading strand while the second strand
is copied in a discontinued manner in parch a way that there are fragments of
different lengths synthesized by DNA polymerase in 5' - 3' direction. These
fragments were given the name Okazaki fragments.

Q2. How did bacterial transformation occur in Griffith's Experiment?

In Griffith's experiment when non-virulent strain of Streptocous pneumonia bacteria
(s-type) & heat killed virulent S. pneumonia (R. type) mixture was injected in mice,
the mice died. Later studies showed that the blood of the dead mice was found to
contain high level of live, virulent Streptococcus type s-type bacteria, which had
surface protein characteristics of the live (previously R strain. Somehow, the
information specifying the polysaccharide coat had passed from dead, virulent S
bacteria to the live, coatless R bacteria in the mixture permanently transforming the
coatless R bacteria into the virulent S variety.

Q3. What is transformation?

Transformation is the transfer of genetic material from one cell to another and can
alter the genetic makeup of the recipient cell.

Q4. In Hershey and Chase's Experiment with bacterial virus T2, what result
would you expect in protein were the genetic material?
In 1952 by Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase experimented with bacteriophages T2
and provided additional evidence that DNA is a heredity material. If proteins were
invoked in inheritance then all new offspring of T2 bacteriophage whose protein coats
were labelled with radioactive isotopic S35 would be having S35 radioactive isotopes
on their protein coat but it was found that new of springs of bacteriophage were
having P32 radioactive isotopes in their DNA. This isotope P32 was attached with the
parental bacteriophage DNA. So the DNA with isotopes P32 was inherited to next
generation.

Q5. What role does complementary base pairing play in the replication of DNA?
The two strands of DNA are held together by hydrogen bonding existing between
nitrogen bases which are complimentary to each other. For example, complimentary
base pairing is done is such a way that adenine always make double H-bonding with
thymine and vice versa same as Guanine always makes a pairing with cytosine by
three triple H-bonding. If we know the sequence of nitrogen bases of one DNA strand,
the sequence of nitrogen bases can automatically be assessed on second strand of
DNA due to complimentary base pairing that: A=T & T=A G triple bond with C and
vice versa.

Q6. Differentiate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription.

Transcription in Prokaryotes Transcription in Eukaryotes

Transcription begins with binding of
RNA polymerase at promoter region. In
prokaryotes. there are two binding sites
which are located in promotor i.e.
TATAAT also called -10 sequence and
TTGACA also called -32 sequence
In prokaryotes only one type of RNA
polymerase is found, required for
transcription
In Eukaryotes promotor regions have
following binding sequence TATA
(TATA box) called -25 sequenced and
CAAT (CAAT box) also called -70
sequence
In Eukaryotes there are three types of
RNA polymerases. namely RNA
polymerase I which synthesize r-RNA.
RNA polymerase - II which synthesize
m-RNA and RNA polymerase - III which
synthesize t-RNA.

In prokaryotes there is no delay between In eukaryotes there is some delay between

transcription and translation. transcription and translation.
Q7. What is the stop signal for transcription?
The simplest stop signal is a series of GC base pair followed by a series of AT base
pairs. The RNA forms a GC hairpin followed by four or more U ribonucleotides. The
hairpin causes RNA polymerase to stop synthesis.

Q8. Why a cap and a tail is added to mRNA?

A cap and a tail is added to mRNA so that the molecule may remain stable and not
get digested by nucleases and phosphatases during long journey to ribosomes from
nucleus
Q9. What is genetic code?
Genetic code is a combination of 3 nucleotides in DNA, which specifies a
particular amino acid.
Q10. What is Chromosomal aberrations?
The change in number or structure of chromosomes is called chromosomal
aberration.
Q11. What are Point mutations?
Point mutations are mutational changes which affect the message itself,
producing alterations in the sequence of DNA molecule. If alterations involve
only one or a few base pairs in the coding sequence they are called point
mutation.
Q12. What are template and coding strands of DNA?
Only one of the two strands of DNA are transcribed. This strand is called
template strand or the anti-sense strand. The opposite strand is called coding or
the sense strand.
Q13. What is the role of RNA polymerase?
The RNA polymerase enzymes synthesize RNA from 5’ – 3’ direction.
Q14. What is core enzyme?
When sigma subunit is detached from other subunits of RNA polymerase then
enzyme is called core enzyme.
Q15. How many binding sites are found in in promoter of prokaryote and
eukaryote?
In prokaryote within promoter there are two binding sites TTGACA also
called -35 sequence and TATAAT also called -10 sequence, which have
affinity for the RNA polymerase. In Eukaryotes these sites are at -25 and -70
sites.
Q16. What is Promotor?
Transcription is initiated when the enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a
particular binding site called a promoter located at the beginning of the gene.
Q17. What is translation.
The process by which the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA is translated into
an amino acid sequence in the polypeptide is called translation.
Q18. What is codon?
A sequence of 3 nucleotides along the strand of mRNA is called codon.
Q19. What was the contribution of Meselson - Stahl?
The three hypothesis of DNA replication were evaluated by Mathew Meselson
and Franklin Stahl of the California Institute of Technology in 1958.
Q20. What is the role of DNA polymerase I?
DNA polymerase I is a relatively small enzyme that plays a supporting role in
DNA replication.
Q 21. What is the role of DNA polymerase II?
DNA polymerase II play a role in DNA repair.
Q 22. What is the role of DNA polymerase III?
This enzyme is a dimmer and catalyzes replication of one DNA strand.
Polymerase III progressively threads the DNA through the enzyme complex
moving it at a rapid rate of some 1000 nucleotides / second.

Q23. What is the direction of replication on growing DNA strand?

Replication always proceeds 5’ -> 3’ direction on a growing DNA strand
because DNA polymerase III can add nucleotides only to the 3 end of a DNA
strand.
Q24. What is the role of DNA ligase?
DNA ligase attaches the repaired fragments of nucleotides on the lagging
strand during replication
Q25. What is Alkaptonuria?
It is disorder in which the patients produced urine that contained homogenistic
acid. This substance oxidized rapidly when exposed to air, turning the urine
black. In normal individuals, homogenistic acid is broken down into simpler
substances.
Q26. Who proposed the double helical structure of DNA?
In 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick, proposed structure of the DNA
molecule.
Q 27.
Define replication?
The process by which DNA of a living organism gives rise to a copy of itself is
called DNA replication.
Q 28. Compare conservative, dispersive and semi-conservative models of
DNA replication
Conservative model of Dispersive model of Semi-conservative
DNA replication DNA replication model of DNA
replication
The conservative model The dispersive model In semi conservative
stated that the parental predicted that parental replication, the two
double helix would DNA would become strands of the duplex
remain intact and dispersed throughout separate out each acting
generate DNA copies the new copy so that as a model or mold, along
consisting of entirely each strand of all the which new nucleotides
new molecules daughter molecules are arranged thus giving
would a mixture of old rise to two new duplexes.
 and new DNA
molecules

Q29. What is the function of RNA polymerase in transcription?

Transcription is initiated when the enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a particular
binding site called a promoter located at the beginning of the gene.
Q30. What is triplet code?
The genetic code for specifying amino acids does consist of 3 bases. This is called
triplet code.
Q 31. What is anti-codon?
A sequence of three nucleotides in tRNA that is complementary to mRNA is called
anticodon.
Q32. What are Okazaki fragments?
The lagging strand, which elongates away from the replication fork, in synthesized
discontinuously as a series of short segments that are later connected. These segments
are called Okazaki fragments.
Q33. What is the length of Okazaki fragments?
They are about 100-200 nucleotides long in eukaryotes and 1000-2000 nucleotides
long in prokaryotes.
Q34. What is transcription?
The first step of central dogma is the transfer of information from DNA to RNA,
which occurs when an mRNA copy of gene is produced. The process is called
transcription.
Q35. Which codons are called stop codons and nonsense codon and why?
Out of 64 codons, three codons UAA, UAG and UGA do not code for any amino
acid and hence are known as nonsense codon. These 3 codons are usually present at
the end of the gene.
Q37. What is initiation codon?
Every gene starts with initiation codon AUG, which encodes the amino acid
methionine.
Q38. How long DNA would stretch, if the DNA all of the cells of an adult human
were lined up end to end?
If the DNA in all of the cells of an adult human were lined up end to end, it would
stretch nearly 100 billion kilometer - 60 times the distance from Earth to Jupiter.
Q39. What is primer?
The primer is a sequence of about 10 RNA nucleotides complementary to the parent
DNA template. It is synthesized by enzyme primase.
Q40. How DNA polymerase III can initiate synthesis of DNA?
DNA polymerase can initiate synthesis of DNA only if another enzyme, primase,
constructs an RNA primer. DNA polymerase III recognizes the primer and adds DNA
nucleotides to it to construct the DNA strands. The RNA nucleotides in the primers
are then replaced by DNA nucleotides.
MAN AND HIS ENVIRONMENT

Q1. Define ecology.

Ecology The branch of biology dealing with the relations and interactions
between organisms and their environment. including other organisms called
ecology.
Q2. What is biogeochemical cycle?
Every organism requires nutrients for its survival. These nutrients are obtained
from the environment. The movement of these nutrients in the ecosystem is
cyclic one. This flows of nutrients from environment to the organisms and back
to the environment is called the biogeochemical cycle.
Q3. What is meant by water table?
When rain water falls some of the water sinks or percolates into the ground and
saturates the earth to a certain level. The top of the saturation zones is called
water table.
Q4. Describe the process of ammonification
The nitrogenous wastes of animals and nitrogenous compounds of dead
organisms are decomposed by saprophytic soil bacteria and fungi to form
simple substances like water, carbon dioxide, amino acids and energy: The
amino acids are convened into ammonia or ammonium ions. Production of
ammonia or ammonium compounds in the decomposition of organic matter by
microorganisms is called Ammonification. Ammonification occurs in the soil,
in an aerobic environment which gives the bacteria and other microorganisms
oxygen to work with.
Q5. Describe nitrogen fixation.
Nitrogen fixation is a chemical process by which molecular nitrogen in the air is
converted into ammonia or related nitrogenous compounds in soil or aquatic systems
Nitrogen gas is composed of two atoms of nitrogen linked by a very strong
triple bond. This makes it chemically uncreative and large amounts of energy is
required to break the bond.

Q6. Differentiate between Xerarch succession and hydrarch succession.

Hydrarch Succession: Ecological succession which begins in ponds, lakes, and

marshes or elsewhere in water is termed as hydrarch and different stages are
called hydrosers.
Whereas xerarch Succession is initiated on bare rocks, sand dunes, rocky
slopes etc. where there is deficiency of water and different stages of
development are collectively called xerosere.
Q7. How does denitrification occur?
Nitrogen can be lost as a result of the activities of certain soil bacteria; in the
absence of oxygen these bacteria breakdown nitrates releasing nitrogen back
into the atmosphere and using the oxygen for their own respiration. This
process is known as denitrification and such bacteria are called denitrifying
bacteria e.g. Pseudomonas reduce nitrates in the soil to gaseous state.

Q8. Which bacteria carry out nitrification?

Some ammonia escapes into the soil but much of it and ammonium ions are
convened into nitrates by nitrifying bacteria. It is accomplished by two groups
of nitrifying bacteria. The first group of bacteria e.g Nitromonas converts
ammonia to nitrates and the second group of bacteria e.g.Nitrobacter converts
nitrites to nitrates. This process is called nitrification. Nitrification takes place
only in well aerated soils because the bacteria responsible for it are aerobic.

Q9. Compare the three types of nitrogen fixation

Atmospheric Fixation: Industrial Fixation Biological Fixation
The nitrogen fixation The synthesis of Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
that occurs nitrogen containing fix 60% of nitrogen gas
spontaneously by fertilizers is called in the atmosphere.
lightning is called industrial fixation
atmospheric fixation The reduction of
a small amount (5-8%) nitrogen gas to ammonia
only is fixed in this way is energy intense. It
Lightning allows requires 16 molecules of
nitrogen and oxygen to ATP and a complex set
combine to produce of enzymes to break the
various oxides of bonds so that the
nitrogen. These are nitrogen can combine
carried by the rain into with hydrogen. Its
soil where they can be reduction can he written
used by plants as: N2 + 3H2 ---2NH3

Q10. What natural areas or situations might favor denitrification?

Nitrogen can be lost as a result of the activities of certain soil bacteria; in the
absence of oxygen these bacteria breakdown nitrates releasing nitrogen back
into the atmosphere and using the oxygen for their own respiration. This
process is known as denitrification and such bacteria are called denitrifying
bacteria e.g., Pseudomonas reduce nitrates in the soil to gaseous state.
Q11. What do nitrogen fixing bacteria do?
Nitrogen fixing bacteria fix 60% of nitrogen gas in the atmosphere. The
reduction c nitrogen gas to ammonia is energy intensive. It requires 16
molecules of ATP and complex set of enzymes to break the bonds so that the
nitrogen can combine will hydrogen. Its reduction can be written as: •
N2 + 3H2 ---2NH3

Only a relatively few bacteria (the nitrogen-fixing bacteria) are able to carry
out this reaction. Fixed nitrogen is made available to plants by the death and
lysis of free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria e.g. Azotobacter (aerobic) and
Clostridium (anaerobic) or from the symbiotic association of some
nitrogen-fixing bacteria with plants e.g. Rhizobium.
 Biotechnology

Q1. Define biotechnology

Biotechnology deals with the application of biology and biological concepts to science
and engineering for the welfare of mankind. It is the crossroad of the biological
sciences with other major disciplines of science.
Q2. What is gene cloning? How it can be done?
Gene cloning is the act of making copies, or clones, of a single gene. Once a gene is
identified and cloned, it can be used in many areas of biomedical and industrial
research. There are two possible ways of cloning of gene: recombinant DNA
technology and polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Q3. What are palindromic sequences?
A palindromic sequence is a four to eight base pairs in DNA in which nucleotides are
arranged symmetrically in reverse order.
Q4. What are plasmids? How do plasmids function in the field of biotechnology?
Plasmids are vectors and act as a vehicle for carrying foreign DNA into a host cell for
multiplication. Usually small circular extrachromosomal DNA molecules of bacterial
origin are plasmids, which are used as cloning vectors.
Q5. What does PCR stand for and what is this technique?
PCR stands for Polymerase Chain Reaction. PCR is a revolutionary technique in
molecular biology which is used to amplify (cloning) a single gene or a piece of DNA
into thousands to millions of copies. It is based upon in vitro replication which is
carried out by DNA polymerase enzyme. In this technique DNA polymerase is
compelled to polymerize a given piece of DNA again and again, so that multiple
copies are produced, thus, the technique is known as polymerase chain reaction
(PCR).
Q6. What are transgenic organisms and what are other names for this term?
The organisms in the environment that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are
called "genetically modified (GM)" -genetically engineered (GE)" or "transgenic
organisms." Bacteria were the first transgenic organisms, produced in 1978, since then
many transgenic organisms such as animals, plants, and bacteria have been produced.
Q7. What is the role of restriction endonucleases in gene cloning?
Restriction Endonucleases are enzymes that cleave the phosphodiester bonds of both
strands of duplex DNA at specific sequences. In 1970, Hamilton 0. Smith, at Johns
Hopkins University, isolated the first restriction enzyme. Many different
endonucleases have been isolated so far. Naturally restriction enzymes are found in
bacteria, where they appear to serve as host-defense role because they chop up and
inactivate ("restrict") the DNA of infecting viruses.
Q8. What is the role of DNA ligase in cloning?
This enzyme is responsible for the formation of the phosphodiester linkage between
two adjacent nucleotides and thus joins two double-stranded DNA fragments;
therefore, it is called molecular glue. In rDNA experiments, DNA Ligase is used to
join two different DNA fragments (plasmid / vector and the foreign DNA) that are
annealed (to reform the duplex structure of a nucleic acid) by the sticky ends.

Q9. What are the properties of vectors in recombinant DNA technology?

Vectors act as a vehicle for carrying foreign DNA into a host cell for multiplication.
Usually small circular DNA molecules of bacterial origin are used as cloning vectors.
A DNA molecule should possess the following essential characteristics to act as a
cloning vector: (a) origin of replication site, (b) antibiotics resistant genes, (c)
multiple cloning site.

Q10. What are Organ Culture and Tissue Culture

Tissue culture is often a generic term that refers to both organ culture and cell
culture. The initial plant part which is used to develop tissue culture is called explant.
It may be complete organ (seed, leaf and twig) or single cell (protoplast) or a piece of
tissue. Plantlets are young plants which are developed during tissue culturing. On the
basis of explants tissue is variously called cell culture or organ culture.

Q11. Describe the process of denaturation of PCR.

In the denaturation step, the template is heated to 94°C for one minute or up to five
minutes. At this high temperature the DNA undergoes complete denaturation and the
double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) becomes single-stranded (ssDNA). Each single
ssDNA can act as the template for the in vitro DNA synthesis.

Q12 What is primer annealing?

The second step in PCR is the primer annealing. In this step the two primers, the
forward primers and the backward primers, anneal or hybridize to the single-stranded
template DNA at its complementary regions. Annealing is usually carried out at a
lower temperature depending on the length and sequence of the primers. In standard
cases it is 54°C and approximate time required for this step is 2 minutes.
Q13. What is meant by sticky ends?
The single stranded DNA with complementary ends of two DNA molecules is called
sticky ends. Thus they can bind by complementary base pairing.
Q14. What is the difference between gene cloning and PCR?
PCR cannot replace gene cloning. Gene cloning is used for producing a large quantity
of gene or protein. But PCR is used for producing genes in smaller quantities.
Q15. What is recombinant DNA?
The two different pieces of DNA which have been joined together. It is now known as
recombinant DNA or chimaeric DNA.
Q16. What is gene pharming?
The use of transgenic farm animals to produce pharmaceuticals is called gene
pharming.
Q17. Define tissue culture.
The growth of a tissue in an artificial liquid culture medium is called tissue culture.
Q18. Differentiate between ex vivo and in vivo gene therapy.
The gene therapy in which genes are inserted into the cell outside the body is called ex
vivo gene therapy. Whereas the gene therapy in which genes are inserted in the cells
within the body is called in vivo gene therapy

Q19. How extension or polymerization takes place in PCR?

Extension or Polymerization The final step in each cycle is the primer extension or
polymerization in which the Taq DNA polymerize synthesizes new DNA strands to
the 3' ends of primers using dNTPs.

Q20. What is Gel Electrophoresis?

Gel electrophoresis is a technique used in molecular biology to separate charge
bearing polymers (proteins, RNA or DNA) under the influence of electric field in a
semi solid medium called gel made of agar, agarose, or polyacrylamide

Q21. What is the principle of movement of polymers in the Gel?

The movement of the fragments is primarily depended upon size because the
distance, a DNA fragment travels, is inversely proportional to its length so the smaller
fragments move faster through the gel matrix than larger fragments. However, the
movement of the fragments also depends upon charges, number of strands (Single or
double) and shape of the molecules (linear or circular) and the pore size of the gel.
Therefore, after sometimes the different sized molecules have been separated into
distinct bands on the gel.

Q22. What are the objects of the production of transgenic bacteria,?

The organisms in the environment that have had a foreign gene inserted into them are
called "genetically modified (GM)" "genetically engineered (GE)" or "transgenic
organisms." Objects of Transgenic bacteria are now being used in producing large
amounts of pure human proteins for use in medicines like genetically modified
bacteria are used to produce insulin (to treat diabetes). cloning factors (to treat
haemophilia), human growth hormone (to treat various forms of dwarfism.
Genetically modified bacteria are also used in some soils to facilitate crop growth.

Q23. What are monoclonal antibodies?

Monoclonal Antibodies Monoclonal antibodies (mAb) are a group of identical
antibodies because they are made by identical immune cells that are all clones of a
unique parent cell. Given almost any substance, it is possible to produce monoclonal
antibodies that specifically bind to that substance, they can then serve to detect or
purify that substance. This has become an important tool in disease diagnoses; it can
detect the presence of drugs, viral and bacterial products, and other unusual or
abnormal substance in the blood.
Q 29. What is the work of Chargaff?
Erwin Chargaff showed that the amount of adenine in DNA always equals the
amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine always equals the amount of
Cytosine.
Q30. What is X-ray diffraction?
In this analysis a molecule is bombarded with a beam of X-rays. When
individual rays encounter atoms their path is bent or diffracted and the
diffraction pattern is recorded on the photographic film. When carefully
analyzed this pattern gives three dimensional structure of a molecule.
Q31. Who prepared the X-ray diffraction of DNA?
Rosalind Franklin prepared this X-ray diffraction pattern of DNA in the
laboratory of British Biochemist Maurice Wilkins, who prepared DNA fibres.
Q32. What does X-ray diffraction of DNA suggest? The diffraction pattern
prepared suggested that the DNA molecule had a shape of a helix with a
diameter of 2nm and a complete helical turn every 3.4 nm.

Q 44. Who proposed the double helical structil

III
Q 37. What are the main components of DNA? Ans. Main components of
DNA: • Phosphate (PO4) groups, • Five carbon sugars, and • nitrogen
containing bases called purines (adenine, A, and guanine, G) and pyrimidines
(thymine, T and cytosine, C, RNA contains uracil, U instead of T).
Q 38. What is the structure of a typical nucleotide? Ans. In a typical nucleotide,
nitrogen base is attached to carbon number 1 of a pentose sugar and phosphate
group is attached to carbon number 5 of the sugar. In addition a free hydroxyl
(-OH) group is attached to the 3 carbon atom.
Q 39. What is phosphodiester bond or linkage? Ans. In a polynucleotides chain
the linkage between two groups is called a phosphodiester bond because the
phosphate group is now linked to the two sugars by means of a pair of ester
(P-O-C) bonds.
Q 40. What is the work of Chargaff? Ans. Erwin Chargaff showed that the
amount
III 0