28/09/2023, 23:01 Chapter 6 - MCQs for Lab Technician and Technologists | Lab Tests Guide

251 to 300 MCQs for Lab Technician and

Technologist Exam Preparation
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Questions 251 to 300

251. The purpose of heat fixing a bacterial smear is to:
1. prevent cells from being washed off during staining ✔
2. causes the cells to absorb the stain more easily
3. provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
4. make the cells visible under the microscope
5. destroy the bacterial cell wall
252. The site of a specimen must be written on a swab container:
1. to warn staff about a possible pathogen
2. only if time permits-it is always on the requisition
3. to determine suitable agar and atmospheric requirements ✔
4. to determine the o.h.i.p. fee

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5. a, b, c, d and e
253. 53. Identify the correct sequence of steps on the gram stain procedure:
1. primary stain, secondary stain, mordant, decolorizing
2. mordant, primary stain, decolorizing, counterstain
3. counterstain, mordant, primary stain, decolorizing
4. primary stain, mordant, decolorizing, counterstain ✔
5. none of the above
254. How should commercially prepared culture plates be stored:
1. in the freezer until several hours before use
2. inverted to prevent condensation dripping on the media
3. at room temperature in a dark area of the lab
4. at a temperature of 2*C – 4*C
5. b & d ✔
255. Which Gram stain reagent acts as a mordant to bind the stain to the bacteria:
1. Lugol’s iodine
2. safranin
3. acetone-alcohol
4. Gram’s iodine ✔
5. crystal violet
256. Identify the false statement regarding blood culture collection:
1. the site is cleaned with betadine and alcohol
2. an arterial sample is collected ✔
3. an aerobic specimen is required
4. blood culture tubes are always drawn first
5. the specimens are never refrigerated
257. Susceptibility testing:
1. measures how fast a micro-organism can be destroyed
2. identifies the types of micro-organisms in the specimen
3. determines growth requirements of organisms
4. produces a pure culture
5. identifies the appropriate antibiotic needed to kill the micro-organism ✔
258. Identify the false statement when a specimen is cultured:
1. the equipment required is a loop and a direct flame
2. the media is brought to room temperature before use
3. the media selected is dependent on the type of specimen
4. the loop is sterilized prior to inoculation
5. the petri lid is placed upright to the bench to prevent contamination ✔
259. Which statement is false when a Gram stain is performed:

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1. distilled water is used for the washing steps ✔

2. acetone-alcohol decolorizes gram-negative bacteria
3. safranin stains the gram-negative bacteria red
4. Gram’s iodine is used to bind the primary stain
5. crystal violet stains the gram-positive bacteria purple
260. Which is most commonly used for protection when processing swabs, body
fluid or blood:
1. fume hood
2. class l laminar flow hood
3. class ll laminar flow hood ✔
4. class lll laminar flow hood
5. glove box

261. You are collecting a blood glucose level. The patient asks if you think he has
diabetes. You would tell him:
1. this is a possibility, but you are not positive
2. you are unable to give him any information
3. to discuss this with the doctor as he can answer the question ✔
4. you have been instructed not to give out any information, therefore you can’t
discuss it
5. to read a prepared pamphlet and make his own decision
262. The autoclave is set at _____ for small loads:
1. 121°C for 50min at 6 p.s.i.
2. 130°C for 30min at 30 p.s.i.
3. 121°C for 15min at 15 p.s.i. ✔
4. 121°C for 45min at 15 p.s.i.
5. 154°C for 20min at 20 p.s.i.
263. The universally accepted disinfectant for the medical workplace is:
1. 2% glutaraldehyde
2. 1% hypochlorite ✔
3. 10% formalin
4. 70% isopropyl alcohol
5. 5% iodine
264. A patient’s health card # consists of ___ digits:
1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 10 ✔
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5. 12
265. A 1/6 dilution of serum in water was made. The glucose result was 4.0 mmol/L.
What is the reported result:
1. 0.66 mmol/L
2. 4.0 mmol/L
3. 24.0 mmol/L ✔
4. 40.0 mmol/L
5. 60.0 mmol/L
266. 100ml of 20% hydrochloric acid will make how many mls of 4% hydrochloric
acid:
1. 50ml
2. 80ml
3. 100ml
4. 500ml ✔
5. 1000ml
267. How many grams of NaCl are needed to make 300ml of a 2% solution:
1. 2 grams
2. 4 grams
3. 6 grams ✔
4. 20 grams
5. unable to determine with information
268. Approximately how many centimeters are in one foot:
1. 3
2. 12
3. 24
4. 30 ✔
5. 100
269. Two standard deviations from the mean includes:
1. 5% of all values
2. 34% of all values
3. 50% of all values
4. 68% of all values
5. 95% of all values ✔
270. When performing a venipuncture, bright red blood spurts into the tube. This
means:
1. an arterial puncture ✔
2. high hemoglobin
3. high hematocrit

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4. high blood pressure

5. high blood pH
271. A patient has hepatitis, which test(s) will be increased:
1. ALT
2. AST
3. alkaline phosphates
4. bilirubin
5. all of the above ✔
272. Acid phosphates is an enzyme which increases in:
1. gout
2. kidney disease
3. liver disease
4. prostatic cancer ✔
5. heart disease
273. Which enzyme(s) would be increased in a patient with acute myocardial
infarction:
1. Acid phosphatase
2. Creatine kinase
3. Aspartate aminotransferase
4. b & c ✔
5. all of the above
274. Xylene is used in:
1. fixation of autopsy material
2. dehydration of tissues
3. paraffin wax embedding process
4. attaching cover slips to slides
5. histology as a clearing agent ✔
275. A 2 hr. p.c. glucose:
1. is collected 2 hours after eating a meal high in carbohydrates
2. is a valuable screening test for diabetes mellitus
3. measures glucose when it is at its highest level after a meal
4. is not affected by medication
5. a & b ✔
276. A routine GTT:
1. is three hours long
2. requires five blood samples ✔
3. includes 6 urine samples
4. uses 100 grams of glucose in a 300ml solution

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5. uses 50 grams of glucose in a 500ml solution

277. Glycosylated hemoglobin:
1. causes sickle cell anemia
2. is affected by the patient’s food intake on the day of testing
3. is drawn on a green top tube
4. indicates blood glucose levels from preceding months ✔
5. requires an SST tube
278. Serum is acidified after separation for which test:
1. uric acid
2. Frederickson typing
3. acid phosphate ✔
4. BUN
5. creatine
279. WHMIS stands for:
1. worker harmful material information sheets
2. worker handbook on mechanical and industrial safety
3. workplace hazardous materials information system ✔
4. workplace harmful methods and industrial security
5. none of the above
280. MSDS sheets do not contain:
1. product identifier and use
2. hazardous ingredients
3. first aid measures
4. preventative measures
5. hazard symbols ✔

281. When using acid and water:

1. acid is slowly added to water ✔
2. water is slowly added to acid
3. water and acid are added together
4. it makes no difference how they are added
5. they are never mixed as heat is produced
282. Insidious hazards:
1. include substances which react violently with each other
2. include aerosols, carcinogens, mutagens, and radiation ✔
3. are substances which injury by direct chemical action
4. are graded using TLV and TLV-S.T.E.L. values
5. are always chemical in nature
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283. Which test would not be performed on plasma or serum:

1. lipoprotein electrophoresis
2. iron
3. BUN
4. hemoglobin electrophoresis ✔
5. electrolyte profile
284. The function unit of the kidney is the:
1. renal cell
2. renal cortex
3. renal tubule
4. bladder
5. nephron ✔
285. Pus cells or fat in urine would cause this color:
1. red
2. yellow-brown
3. greenish-blue
4. milky-white ✔
5. black
286. The end products of protein digestion are:
1. glycerol
2. fatty acid
3. triglycerides
4. monosaccharides
5. amino acids ✔
287. Which statement is true regarding the use of reagent dipsticks:
1. heat and moisture do not affect the reagent reactivity
2. timing of each reagent area is not necessary
3. reagent sticks are held vertically when reading
4. all reagent sticks tests do specific gravity
5. reagent strips should be tested daily with control ✔
288. A 1/8 dilution of urine is:
1. 1-part water and 8 parts urine
2. 1-part urine and 8 parts water
3. 1-part urine and 7 parts water ✔
4. 1-part water and 7 parts urine
5. 1-part water and 9 parts urine
289. Before performing an R & M on a specimen, the urine would be;
1. filtered

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2. brought to room temperature

3. centrifuged
4. well-mixed
5. b & d ✔
290. A backup test(s) to confirm a positive protein in urine would be:
1. ictotest
2. SSA test
3. Clinitest
4. TCA test
5. b & d ✔
291. Which test result would increase in a urine specimen sitting at room
temperature for 3 hours:
1. bilirubin
2. nitrite ✔
3. leukocyte
4. urobilinogen
5. ketones
292. Water free of charged particles is:
1. distilled
2. radioactive
3. chlorinated
4. de-ionized ✔
5. heavy
293. Identify the incorrect step when using a serological pipette:
1. the pipette tip is below the liquid surface when filling
2. releasing the safety bulb will draw liquid into the pipette
3. it delivers total capacity or multiple volumes
4. it is held vertically and allowed to drain freely
5. the last portion of the pipette contents is discarded in a separate container ✔
294. A “TC” pipette is:
1. allowed to drain freely
2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
3. used for toxic corrosive liquids
4. emptied forcibly with a safety bulb
5. rinsed out after delivery ✔
295. The destruction of erythrocytes to release hemoglobin is called:
1. hemorrhage
2. hemostasis

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3. erythropoiesis
4. hemolysis ✔
5. hypoxia
296. Which factor may cause a blood smear to be too thin:
1. the angle of the spreader is too high
2. the edge of the spreader is cracked
3. the smear is spread too slowly
4. the angle of the spreader is too low ✔
5. a dirty spreader is used
297. The test measuring the oxygen-carrying capacity of RBC’s is the:
1. CBC
2. Hct
3. ESR
4. Hgb ✔
5. MCV
298. An immature neutrophil is called:
1. blast cell
2. LE cell
3. band cell ✔
4. reticulocyte
5. packed cell
299. The test that counts the number of immature RBC’s is the:
1. osmotic fragility test
2. differential
3. reticulocyte count ✔
4. RBC count
5. stab cell count
300. Which test does not monitor a patient’s coagulation mechanism:
1. PT
2. ACTH ✔
3. APTT
4. FDP
5. platelet count

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