Hcia RS

1. The IP addresses of VLANIF interfaces on the same switch must be different.
True
False
2. Refer to the graphic, the static NAT command is executed on R1. When a PC connected to R1 accesses the
Internet, the destination address in the packets does not change.
True
False
3. When the "delete vrpcfg.zip" command is run on the user interface of the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP),
the file can be permanently deleted only after it is cleared from the recycle bin.
True
False
4. Before a device sends an IPv6 packet, the device compares the packet length with the MTU. If the packet
length is greater than the MTU, the device discards the IPv6 packet.
True
False
5. If the DHCPv6 client and DHCPv6 server reside on different links, a DHCPv6 relay agent is required.
True
False
6. The broadcast address of the subnet 192.168.1.0/25 is 192.168.1.128.

True
False
7. If AAA authentication is used on Huawei devices and the remote server does not respond, the authentication
can be performed on network devices.
True
False
8. For the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP), the login timeout period can be set only on a VTY interface.
True
False
9. When configuring a static route on a broadcast interface, you must specify the next-hop IP address.
True
False
10. The multicast address FF02::2 indicates all routers within the link-local scope.
True
False
11. In the PPPoE discovery stage, the PPPoE server assigns a session-id to the PPPoE client in which packet?
A. PADI
B. PADO.
C. PADR
D. PADS
12. Which of the following bridge IDs cannot exist in configuration BPDUs sent by a switch?
A. O 00-01-02-03-04-CC
B. 2048 00-01-02-03-04-CC
C. 4096 00-01-02-03-04-CC
D. 8192 00-01-02-03-04-CC
13. According to the VLAN frame format defined in IEEE 802.1Q, how many bits does a VLAN ID contain?
A.6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
14. During the establishment of an adjacency, which of the following packets is used by OSPFv3 to acknowledge
received LSUs?
A. LSACK
B. LSU
C. DD
D. LSR
15. Which type of ACL does the following command configure?

rule permit 8021p 7
A. Basic ACL
B. Advanced ACL
C. Layer 2 ACL
D. Intermediate ACL
16. Which of the following types of IPv6 addresses is used by OSPFv3 to send Hello packets?
A. Link-local address
B. Global unicast address
C. Multicast address
D. Anycast address
17. Which command can be used to check the PPPoE client session status?
A. display ip interface brief.
B. display current-configuration.
C. display pppoe-client session packet.
D. display pppoe-client session summary.
18. How many port states are involved in RSTP?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
19. How many DUIDs can each DHCPv6 server have?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
20. What is the default least time of the IP address allocated by the DHCP server?
A. 1 hour
B. 12 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 24 hours
21. How many DUIDs can each DHCPv6 client have?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
22. Refer to the graphic, which of the following statements is true about OSPF topology and configuration?
A. A stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.

B. After the default network type of the interface on R1 is restored to broadcast, a stable OSPF neighbor
relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.
C. After the default network type of the interface on R1 is restored to broadcast and the hello packet sending
interval is changed to 10s, a stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.
D. Compared with R1, R2 is more likely to become the DR because the DR priority of the interface on R2 is
lower than that of R1.
23. If a network's address is 10.1.1.0/30, which of the following addresses is the broadcast address?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 10.1.1.2
C. 10.1.1.3
D. 10.1.1.4
24. If the EUI-64 address CA9E-93FF-FE7B-057B is calculated based on a MAC address, what is the MAC
address?
A. C89E-9D7B-057B
B. CA9E-9D7B-057B
C. A89E-9D7B-057B
D. C89E-9DFF-057B
25. In the PPP frame format, the Protocol field is 0xC023. What is the protocol?
A. LCP
B. NCP
С. РАР
O D. CHAP
26. What is the total length of the Flag field in RSTP BPDUs?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
27. Which of the following statements is true about the TTL field in an IP packet header?
A. The length of this field is 7 bits.
B. This field is used to fragment packets.
C. This field is used to prevent packets from looping.
D. This field is used to display packet priorities.
28. Which of the following parameters is not contained in STP configuration BPDUs?
A. Root ID
B. Bridge ID
C. Port ID
D. VLAN ID
29. You can use the Telnet protocol to manage Huawei devices. Which of the following statements is true?
A. The default Telnet port number is 22 and cannot be modified.
B. VTY interfaces must be enabled for Telnet and a maximum of VTY interfaces can be used.
C. Telnet does not support authentication using a username and a password.
D. An ACL cannot be deployed to enhance security in Telnet mode.
30. What is the main function of DHCP Discover packets?

A. The client sends DHCP Discover packets to search for the DHCP server.
B. The client sends DHCP Discover packets for requesting to confirm the configuration or renew the lease
time of the IP address.
C. The DHCP Discover packet carries various configuration information.
D. The DHCP server sends DHCP Discover packets to respond DHCP Request packets.
31. As shown in the figure, which of the following ports will be in blocking state?
A. G0/0/3 of SWB
B. G0/0/1 of SWC
C. G0/0/2 of SWC
D. G0/0/3 of SWA
32. If the MAC address of an interface is 0EE0-FFFE-0FEC, the corresponding EUI-64 address is ().
A. 0CE0-FFFF-FEFE-0FEC
B. 0CE0-FFFE-FFFE-0FEC
C. 0EE0-FFFF-FEFE-0FEC
D. 0EE0-FFFE-FFFE-0FEC
33. Which type of IPv6 address is FE80::2E0:FCFF:FE6F:4F36?

A. Link-local address
B. Multicast addresses
C. Global unicast address
D. Anycast address
34. As shown in the figure, the host has ARP cache. Host A sends a data packet to host B. Which of the following
are the destination MAC address and destination IP address of the data packet?
A. MAC-A, 11.0.12.1
B. MAC-B, 11.0.12.
C. MAC-C, 11.0.12.1
D. MAC-C, 10.0.12.2
35. Which of the following statements is true about the OSPF backbone area?
A. All areas can act as the backbone area.
B. Area 0 is the backbone area.
C. All routers in the backbone area are ABRs.
D. When more than two routers run OSPF, the backbone area must be deployed.
36. Which of the following statements is true about direct routes?

A. The priority of the direct route is lower than that of the dynamic route.
B. The priority of the direct route is lower than that of the static route.
C. The administrator needs to manually configure the destination network and next-hop address for the
direct route.
D. The direct route has the highest priority
37. On VRP, the command lines are classified into four levels in increasing priority: Visit level, Monitoring level,
Configuration level, and Management level. At which level, the operator is permitted to configure service
but is not permitted to operate the file system?
A. Visit level.
B. Monitoring level.
C. Configuration level.
D. Management level.
38. According to OSI reference model, which layer is responsible for end to end error checking and flow control?
A. Physical layer.
B. Data link layer.
C. Network layer.
D. Transport layer.
39. Which of the following OSPF packets can be used to send LSAs to the peer router?
A. LSA
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSACK
40. As shown in the figure, the configuration of Router A is as follows. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect?
acl number 2000
rule 5 deny source 200.0.12.0 0.0.0.7
rule 10 permit source 200.0.12.0 0.0.0.15
#
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
traffic-filter outbound acl 2000
#
A. The host with the source IP address 200.0.12.2 cannot access the Internet.
B. The host with the source IP address 200.0.12.4 cannot access the Internet.
C. The host with the source IP address 200.0.12.6 cannot access the Internet.
D. The host with the source IP address 200.0.12.8 cannot access the Internet.
41. Which of the following statements regarding the routing table are correct?
A. The next hop in the routing table is redundant because the outgoing interface can be used for packet
forwarding.
B. The routes from generated by different protocols have different preferences.
C. The metrics of different routing protocols are comparable.
D. The metrics of different routing protocols are not comparable.
42. Which of the following statements are true according to the following configuration on an OSPFv3 interface?
A. The area ID of this interface is 1.
B. The router ID of this interface is 10.0.6.6.
C. The network type of the interface is P2P.
D. No adjacency is established on the interface.
43. Which of the following are routing protocols?

A. IP.
B. OSPF.
C. BGP.
D. IPX.
44. Which of the following statements are true according to the following command output?
A. The OSPFv3 area ID is 0.

B. The router ID of the neighbor is 10.0.1.1.
C. The DR priority of the local router is 1.
D. The OSPFV3 process ID is 1.
45. Which of the following statements regarding Designated Routers in OSPF are correct?
A. DR is elected by all the routers in the same network segment.
B. If the priorities of two routers are different, the router with the lower priority will be elected as DR.
C. If the priorities of two routers are equal, the router with the higher Router ID will be elected as DR.
D. DR and BDR must be establish adjacency relationship.
46. On the network shown in the figure, the switch configuration is as follows. Which of the following
statements are true?
A. Host A and host B cannot ping each other.
B. Host A and host C can ping each other.
C. Host B and host C can ping each other.
D. All hosts can ping each other.
47. Which of the following statements are true according to the following configuration?
A. The router ID of the DR is 10.0.2.2.

B. The router ID of the DR is 10.0.1.1.
C. The router ID of the DR is 10.0.3.3.
D. The local router is a DR Other router.
48. Which of the following statements about OSPFv3 router IDs are true?
A. Router IDs can only be manually configured.
B. The router ID must be the same as the IPv6 address of an interface on the router.
C. The total length of each router ID is 32 bits.
D. To modify an OSPFv3 router ID, you need to delete it and reconfigure one.
49. The output of the "display ospf peer" command on a router is as follows. Which of the following statements
are true?
A. The router ID of the router is 10.0.2.2.

B. The local router is a DR.
C. The router ID of the router is 10.0.1.1.
D. The interface address of the local router is 10.0.12.2.
50. A DHCP Unique Identifier (DUID) in DHCPv6 can be configured in VRP using which formats?
A. DUID-LL.
B. DUID-LLT.
C. DUID-EN.
D. DUID-LLC.
51. Two routers are connected through serial interfaces and support PPP encapsulation. Which parameters must
be negotiated to establish the PPP connection?
A. MRU.
B. Authentication Password.
C. Magic-Number.
D. Authentication Protocol.
52. Which of the following statements about collision domains and broadcast domains are correct?
A. Devices connected to the same Hub form a collision domain.
B. Devices connected to the same hub form a broadcast domain.
C. Devices connected to the same bridge form a collision domain.
D. Devices connected to the same bridge form a broadcast domain
E. Devices connected to the same router form a broadcast domain.
53. On the network shown in the figure, which of the following commands can be used to enable host A to
successfully ping host B?
A. Router A: ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.2
Router B: ip route-static 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.1
B. Router A: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.2
C. Router A: ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 11.0.12.1
D. Router A: ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.1
54. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following statements describes the network shown?
A. There are 6 collision domains in the network.

B. There are 2 broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are 4 collision domains in the network.
D. There are 6 broadcast domains in the network.
55. If an Ethernet data frame carries Length/Type = 0x8100, which of the following cannot be the payload of the
data frame?
A. RSTP data frame
B. STP data frame
C. ARP response packet
D. OSPF packet
56. Which of the following port status may exist on an STP-enabled switch?
A. Forwarding
B. Listening
C. Discarding
D. Disabled
57. When a network administrator configures STP in the network, BPDU begin to be sent by switch. Which of the
following statements regarding the BPDU frame are correct?
A. A BPDU uses the IEEE 802.3 standard frame type.
B. A BPDU uses the Ethernet II standard frame type.
C. The BPDU frame' s control field is 3.
D. The destination MAC address field of a BPDU frame is a broadcast address.
58. Which of the following packet types are OSPFV3 packet types?
A. Hello packet
B. Database Description (DD) packet
C. Link State Request (LSR) packet
D. Link Skate Update (LSU) packet
59. Which of the following statements about IPv6 address configuration are true?
A. IPv6 addresses can only be manually configured.
B. IPv6 addresses support stateless autoconfiguration.
C. DHCPv6 assignment is supported for IPv6 addresses.
D. IPv6 addresses can be automatically configured in multiple modes.
60. One of the reasons that segment routing (SR) is introduced is that traditional LDP has some restrictions.
Which of the following statements about LDP restrictions are true?
A. LDP does not support automatic label allocation.
B. LDP supports path computation only based on IGP SPF (minimum cost), not based on traffic engineering.
C. LDP path computation depends on an IGP. If the IGP and LDP are not synchronized, black holes are
generated, affecting services.
D. LDP has 11 types of protocol packets, which greatly increases link bandwidth consumption and device CPU
usage.
61. Before a device sends an IPv6 packet, the device compares the packet length with the MTU. If the packet
length is greater than the MTU, the device discards the IPv6 packet.
True
False
62. On a broadcast network, both the DR and BDR use the multicast address 224.0.0.6 to receive Link State
Update (LSU) packets.
True
False
63. If a router does not match a specific route when forwarding a packet and there is no default route, the
router discards the packet directly.
True
False
64. A Layer 2 ACL can match information such as the source MAC address, destination MAC address, source IP
address, and destination IP address.
True
False
65. ACLs on AR G3 series routers, support configuration and auto sequences.

True
False
66. In RSTP mode, both alternate and backup ports cannot forward user traffic but can receive, process, and
send BPDU.
True
False
67. The TCP protocol uses the three-way handshake mechanism to establish and disable connections. Therefore,
TCP supports reliable data transmission.
True
False
68. If the transport-layer protocol is UDP, the value of the "Protocol" field at the network layer is 6.
True
False
69. In RSTP, a backup port can replace a faulty root port.

True
False
70. The routers in the backbone area have information about all the LSDBs of other areas.
True
False
71. Which of the following commands is used to display the OSPF neighbor relationship establishment?
A. display ospf neighbor
B. display ospf brief
C. display ospf peer
D. display ospf interface2
72. Which of the following items can be translated by NAPT?

A. MAC Address + Port Number.
B. IP Address + Port Number.
C. Only MAC Address.
D. Only IP Address.
73. To provide the information about the IP addresses that a user packet traverses along the path to the
destination, which of the following does Tracert record in each expired ICMP TTL packet?
A. Destination port.
B. Source port.
C. Destination IP address
D. Source IP address.
74. Which of the following bridge IDs cannot exist in configuration BPDUs sent by a switch?
A. 000-01-02-03-04-05
B. 4096 01-01-02-03-04-05
C. 0 10-01-02-03-04-05
D. 32768 06-01-02-03-04-05
75. Two routers have established a point-to-point network using PPP. The administrator has configured the
routers to run OSPF in the same area with the same router ID, what behavior will occur as a result of the
configuration?
A. The routers will build a neighbor relationship even though both routers are using the same router ID.
B. VRP will notify of a router ID conflict between the two routers.
C. The routers will build an adjacency even though both routers are using the same router ID.
D. The routers will not send hello packets to each other because they are using the same router ID.
76. Refer to the configuration output. The administrator wishes to configure the DHCP server pool in order to
assign an IP address to the customer s terminal device. Which command should be included in the
configuration to provide the minimal lease period for IP addresses?
A. dhcp select relay.

B. lease day 1
C. lease 24
D. lease o
77. If the MAC address of an interface is 02E0-FCEF-0FEC, the corresponding EUI-64 address is ().
A. 00E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
B. 00E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC
C. 02E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
D. 02E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC
78. What is the total length of the interface ID in each link-local unicast address?
A. 32 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 64 bits
D. 96 bits
79. Assuming all STP enabled switches have the same bridge priority. The MAC address of switch A is 00-e0-fc-
00-00-40, the MAC address of switch B is 00-00-fc-00-00-10, the MAC address of switch C is 00-e0-fc-00-00-
20, and the MAC address of switch D is 00-e0-fc-00-00-80. Which switch will be elected as the root switch?
A. Switch A
B. Switch B.
C. Switch C.
D. Switch D.
80. Which SNMP version focuses on two main aspects, namely security and administration. The security aspect
is addressed by offering both strong authentication and data encryption for privacy. The administration
aspect is focused on two parts, namely notification originators and proxy forwarders.
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2
C. SNMPv2C
D. SNMPv3
81. Which of the following port numbers is used by the FTP control plane?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24
82. Which mode is used by a PPPoE client to send PADI packets to the server?
A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Broadcast
D. Anycast
83. What is the UDP port number used by the DHCPv6 server?
A. 546
B. 547
C. 548
D. 549
84. As shown in the following figure, which of the following is the authentication scope of the AH protocol in
IPsec transport mode?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
85. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is a multicast address?

A. FE80::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
B. FF02::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
C. 2000::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
D. FC00::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
86. How many bits are there in the Flag field of an IPv6 multicast address?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
87. What is the number range of an advanced ACL?

A. 2000-2000
B. 3000-3999
C. 4000-4999
D. 6000-6031
88. In which state does OSPF determine the master/slave relationship of DD packets?
A. ExStart
B. Exchange
C. Full
D. 2-way
89. A network administrator wishes to implement VLAN 10 to isolate certain users. It is common however for
these users to often change their physical location. Which of the following VLAN implementations should be
used?
A. Port based VLAN assignment.
B. Protocol based VLAN assignment.
C. MAC based VLAN assignment.
D. IP subnet based VLAN assignment.
90. Which of the following fields is added to the IPv6 packet header compared with the IPv4 packet header?
A. Source Address
B. Destination Address
C. Version
D. Flow Label
91. What is the value range of the DSCP field in an IPv4 header?
A. 0 to 7
B. 0 to 15
C. O to 31
D. 0 to 63
92. Which of the following protocols can be used on a Layer 2 network with redundant links to prevent loops?
A. VRRP
B. STP
C. ARP
D. UDP
93. Which of the following parameters is used to elect the root bridge in STP?
A. Bridge ID
B. Port ID
C. Root path cost
D. System name of the switch
94. What is the default priority of direct routes?

A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
95. Which of the following OSPF states can be used to indicate that an adjacency relationship has been
established?
A. Down
B. 2-Way
C. Full
D. Attempt
96. Users in the network discovered that the efficiency of a file transfer is low. The administrator used Wireshark
to observe the network and discovered many duplicate frames. Which statement correctly explains the
reason for this?
A. The switch doesn't know the destination and has flooded frames.
B. This network needs upgrading to use newer and more efficient switches.
C. The network has loops at the link layer.
D. The network has not been segmented using VLANs.
97. MPLS dual-label stacking packets are ( ) bytes longer than original IP packets.
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
98. What is the broadcast address corresponding to 200.200.200.200/30?

A. 200.200.200.255
B. 200.200.200.203
C. 200.200.200.200
D. 200.200.200.252
99. A configured internal host of a private network wishes to access the internet. What must be configured on
the enterprise network egress router in order to achieve this?
A. NAT Easy IP.
B. DHCP
C. BGP.
D. Default route.
100. One of the reasons that segment routing (SR) is introduced is that traditional RSVP has some restrictions.
Which of the following statements about RSVP restrictions are true?
A. RSVP TE configuration is complex.
B. Eight types of RSVP protocol packets occupy network bandwidth and CPU resources.
C. ECMP cannot be implemented.
D. RSVP is complex in load balancing and needs to be configured with multiple tunnels, which brings huge
workload to configuration and maintenance.
101. Which of the following statements are true about transport-layer protocols?
A. The well-known port number range is from 0 to 1023.
B. UDP uses SYN and ACK flags to request and confirm connection establishment.
C. Establishing a TCP connection requires the three-way handshake mechanism, while terminating a TCP
connection requires the four-way handshake mechanism.
D. UDP is suitable for transmitting delay-sensitive traffic, and UDP packets can be reassembled based on the
sequence number field in the packet header
102. What are the ACL categories based on ACL rules?

A. Basic ACL
B. Advanced ACL
C. Layer 2 ACL
D. User ACL
103. In STP, which of the following items may affect the selection of the root switch?
A. Switch priority.
B. Switch port ID.
C. Switch interface bandwidth.
D. Switch MAC address.
E. Switch IP address.
104. Which of the following fields in an IPv4 header are related to fragmentation?
A. Identification
B. Flags
C. Fragment Offset
D. TTL
105. Which of the following statements about the ACL matching mechanism is/are true?
A. If no ACL is configured, the device returns the result "negative match."
B. By default, the system searches for the rule with the smallest number in the ACL. Once the rule is
matched, the system stops querying the subsequent rules.
C. If a packet does not match any rule in the ACL, the device returns the result "negative match."
D. Whether the packet is discarded or forwarded is determined by the service module to which the ACL is
applied, regardless of whether the packet matches the ACL, permit rule, or deny rule.
106. Which of the following statements regarding the verification of IP connectivity are false?
A. The ping 127.0.0.1 command can be used to check whether the network cable is correctly inserted into
the host's Ethernet port.
B. The ping command with the host IP address as the destination can be used to verify that the TCP/IP
protocol suite is functioning correctly.
C. The ping command can be used to verify connectivity between the host and the local gateway.
D. The command "ipconfig /release" can be used to check connectivity problems between the host and the
local gateway.
107. Refer to the graphic. What will happen in this figure if the STP protocol is disabled on both switches?
A. Load balancing will occur in this topology.

B. CPU usage will be very high on S1 and S2 due to a broadcast floods.
C. The MAC address of host B can be found in the MAC address table of both switches.
D. Duplicate frames exist in this network.
108. As shown in the figure, STP is enabled the switches. After the network is stable, which of the following
A. SWA is the root bridge on the network.
B. SWB is the root bridge on the network.
C. The two ports of SWB are in Forwarding state.
D. The two ports of SWC are in Forwarding state.
109. Which of the following fields exist in both IPv6 and IPv4 packet headers?
A. Source Address
B. Destination Address
C. Version
D. Next Header
110. Refer to the configuration output. Which of the following statements regarding the configuration output are
correct?
A. The PVID on interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 is 10.

B. The PVID on interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 is 1.
C. The PVID on interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2 is 10.
D. The PVID on interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2 is 1.
111. Which of the following methods are supported by VRP to configure the router?
A Through the console port
B. Through Telnet
C. Through the AUX port
D. Through FTP
112. Which of the following port roles are added to Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) compared with STP?
A. Root port
B. Designated port
C. Alternate port
D. Backup port
113. Which of the following parameters are used for STP calculation on a switching network running STP?
A. Bridge ID
B. Port ID.
C. Root path cost
D. Forward Delay
114. When configuring the PPP authentication method as PAP, which of the following operations are necessary?
A. Add the user name and password of the authenticator party to the local user list.
B. Configure the encapsulation type of the interface connected to the peer as PPP.
C. Configure PPP authentication method as CHAP.
D. On the authenticated end, configure the user name and password that are sent to authenticator.
115. Which of the following statements are true according to the configurations on the interface?
A. The link-local address of this interface is FE80::2E0:FCFF:FE6F:4F36.

B. The global unicast address of this interface is 2001:12:1.
C. The MTU of the interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The IPv6 protocol status of the interface is up.
116. When forwarding a data packet, a router needs to change the destination IP address of the packet.
True
False
117. SR encapsulates the segment list identifying a forwarding path into a data packet header for transmission.
After receiving the data packet, the receive end parses the segment list. If the top SID of the segment list
belongs to the local node, the top SID is popped out, and then further processing is performed. If the top SID
of the segment list does not belong to the local node, the data packet is forwarded to the next node in equal
cost multiple path (ECMP) mode.
True
False
118. A router cannot function as both a DHCPv6 server and a DHCP server.
True
False
119. As shown in the figure, host A and host B cannot communicate with each other.
True
False
120. If a loop occurs on a switching network, a broadcast storm may occur.

True
False
121. Layer 2 switches are data link layer devices that identify MAC addresses of Layer 2 data frames and forward
Layer 2 data frames based on MAC addresses. In addition, they record mappings between MAC addresses and
interfaces in the MAC address table.
True
False
122. A router that runs OSPF can enter the Full state only after link state database (LSDB) synchronization.
True
False
123. As shown in the figure, if host A has the ARP cache of host B, host A can ping host B.
True
False
124. The length of an IPv6 address is ( ) that of an IPv4 address.

A. double
B. triple
C. four times
D. five times
125. Which of the following values of the Length/Type field in an Ethernet data frame indicates the PPPoE
discovery stage?
A. 0x8863
B. 0x8864
C. 0x0806
D. 0x0800
126. How many bytes are there in the basic IPv6 header?
A. 32
B. 40
C. 48
D. 64
127. On a broadcast network with four routers, all the routers run OSPFv3, and the DR priorities of all the routers
are not 0. How many adjacencies are there on the network?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
128. Which of the following statements about the "ip route-static 10.0.2.2 10.0.12.2 preference 20" command is
true?
A. The destination network address of the route is 10.0.12.2/32.
B. The preference of the route is 100.
C. The route must exist in the routing table.
D. The mask length of the destination network address of the route is 32 bits.
129. For which layer of the OSI reference model does the HDLC protocol define the encapsulation format?
A. Physical layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Transport layer
130. Which of the following methods is not supported by the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to configure a
router?
A. Configure the router through FTP.
B. Configure the router through the console port.
C. Configure the router through Telnet.
D. Configure the router through the mini USB port.
131. During PPP link setup, which of the following phases can be directly converted from the Dead phase?
A. Authenticate
B. Establish
C. Network
D. Terminate
132. Which of the following fields is not included in the OSPF Hello packet?
A. Hello Interval
B. Neighbor
C. Network Mask
D. sysname
133. An authenticator router has been configured with two domains named "Areal" and "Area2" , following which
a user is created with the username "huawei" and the password" hello" for authentication. Which domain
does this user belongs to?
A. Area1 domain.
B. Area2 domain.
C. default domain.
D. default admin domain.
134. Which of the following authentication method is more secure for PPP?
A. CHAP.
В. РАР.
C. MD5.
D. SSH.
135. On the network shown in the following figure, the following static route is configured on Router B. In the
routing table of Router B, the NextHop corresponding to 2001:1/128 is ().
A. 3001:12:1
B. 3002::12:1
C. 3001:12:2
D. fe80::fe03:c3fb
136. Which of the following types of packets is used to carry RA packets for IPv6 stateless address
autoconfiguration?
A. ICMPv6
B. IGMPV6
C. TCPv6
D. UPV6
137. Which of the following percentage does the lease time of a DHCP client’s IP address reach to trigger the
DHCP client to send a lease renewal packet for the first time?
A. 0.25
B. 0.5
C. 0.875
D. 0.1
138. Which of the following statements is false about static routes?

A. The static routes have low requirements for the system performance.
B. The static routes cannot automatically adapt to network topology changes.
C. The static routes are manually configured by the network administrator.
D. Routers need to exchange routing information through the static routes.
139. Which of the following statements is true about functions at the network layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Transmit bit streams between devices, and define the level, speed, and cable pins.
B. Provide connection-oriented or connectionless data transfer and error detection before retransmission
C. Provide logical addresses for routers to determine paths.
D. Combine bits into bytes, combine bytes into frames, use the link-layer addresses (MAC addresses used by
the Ethernet) to access the media, and perform error detection.
E. In the OSI reference model, the network layer is closest to users and provides network services for the
application program.
140. On the switching network shown in the figure, all switches run STP. After the topology is stable, if the
interval for sending configuration BPDUs is changed on the switch ( ), the interval for SWD to send
configuration BPDUs will be affected.
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. SWD
141. FTP may be used to upgrade a router's VRP image. Which of the following transmission modes should be
used to achieve this?
A. Binary mode.
B. ASCII mode.
C. Byte mode
D. Letter mode.
142. Refer to the command output. Which statement is true regarding this command?
ip route static 10.0.12.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1
A. The configuration represents a static route to the 192.168.1.1 network
B. The configuration represents a static route to the 10.0.12.0 network
C. The preference value of this configured route is 100,
D. If the router has learned the same destination network via a dynamic routing protocol, the static route
will always take precedence.
143. Refer to the graphic. Host A and Host B use VLAN routing to facilitate communication. When interface
G0/0/1.2 of RTA receives a frame from Host B, what will RTA do?
A. RTA will immediately forward the frame via interface G0/0/1.1.

B. RTA remove the VLAN tag before forwarding the frame.
C. RTA will remove the VLAN tag and add a new tag for VLAN10 before forwarding the frame.
D. RTA will discard the frame.
144. Which of the following statements is false about ARP packets?

A. ARP Request packets are transmitted in broadcast mode.
B. ARP Reply packets are transmitted in unicast mode.
C. Any network device needs to send ARP packets to obtain the data link layer identifier
D. ARP packets cannot traverse routers and cannot be forwarded to other broadcast domains.
145. Which of the following packets is sent by a DHCPv6 client before it sends a request packet to the DHCPv6
server?
A.RS
B.RA
C. NS
D. NA
146. Which of the following is correct regarding the configuration of the trunk port and access port on a switch?
A. Access ports can only send untagged frames.
B. Access ports can only send tagged frames.
C. Trunk ports can only send untagged frames.
D. Trunk ports can only send tagged frames.
147. The penultimate hop popping (PHP) mechanism of LDP enables the penultimate-hop LSR to pop out a label,
which reduces packet processing complexity of the ( ).
A. Last-hop device
B. Penultimate-hop device
C. Last-hop and penultimate-hop devices
D. All devices on the MPLS network
148. Which of the following statements is true about the static MAC address table?
A. Entries are manually configured and delivered to each interface card. The entries cannot be aged out.
B. After a device is reset, an interface card is hot swapped, or an interface card is reset, the static MAC
address entries on the device or interface card are lost.
C. You can check whether data is forwarded between two connected devices by checking the static MAC
address entries.
D. You can obtain the number of users communicating on an interface by checking the number of specified
static MAC address entries
149. If the EUI-64 address 78BC-FEFF-FFFE-EFAB is calculated based on a MAC address, what is the MAC address?
A. 7ABC-FEFE-EFAB
B. 78BC-FEFE-EFAB
C. 7ABC-FFFE-EFAB
D. 78BC-FFFE-EFAB
150. If the network mask is 255.255.240.0, which of the following are valid network address?
A. 150.150.0.0
B. 150.150.0.8
C. 150.150.8.0
D. 150.150.16.0
151. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is/are permanent multicast address(es)?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FF12::1
D. FF12::2
152. Refer to the graphic. In order to improve security, the two hosts use IPsec VPN to transmit data. Which IPsec
mode and protocol can be used to hide the hosť s IP address?
A. AH.
B. Transport mode.
C. Tunnel mode.
D. ESP.
153. The following shows the DHCP address pool configuration of a router. Which of the following statements are
true?
A. The lease time of the IP address is 12 hours.

B. The address pool has 55 available IP addresses.
C. The address pool has 199 available IP addresses.
D. The DHCP client may obtain the IP address 192.168.1.2.
154. As shown in the figure, router A has successfully telneted to router B using 10.0.12.2. Which of the following
operations will interrupt the Telnet session between router A and router B?
A. Disable G0/0/1.
B. Change the IP address of G0/0/1.
C. Enable OSPF on G0/0/1.
D. Configure a static route.
155. Which of the following statements are true about the default route?
A. If the destination address of a packet does not match any entry in the routing table, the packet is
forwarded through the default route.
B. In a routing table, the route to 0.0.0.0 (with the mask being 0.0.0.0) is the default route.
C. The routing table of any router must contain the default route.
D. The default route can only be manually configured by the administrator.
156. reset saved-configuration

Warning: The action will delete the saved configuration in the device. The configuration will be erased to
reconfigure. Continue? [Y/N]: Refer to the configuration output.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. A user should enter 'Y’ when wishing to clear the saved configuration file.
B. The saved-configuration file that the device starts with can be erased.
C. The saved-configuration will be deleted after typing N.
D. The saved-configuration file will be replaced with the current-configuration.
157. As shown in the following figure, the switch configuration information is as follows. Which of the following
statements about the network and configuration is/are true?
A. OSPF neighbor relationship can be established between the two routers.

B. No DR or BDR exists on the network.
C. Router A and Router B have ARP tables.
D. Router A and Router B cannot learn the MAC address of each other’s interface.
158. Which of the following application-layer protocols are based on TCP?

A. Ping
В. ТFТР
C. FTP
D. HTTP packet
159. As shown in the following figure, the switch configuration information is as follows. Which of the following
statements about the network and configuration is/are true?
160. Which of the following statements are true about processing RSTP configuration BPDUs?
A. After the topology is stable, the non-root bridge sends configuration BPDUs at the interval specified by the
Hello timer regardless of whether any configuration BPDU is received from the root bridge.
B. After the topology is stable, the non-root bridge sends configuration BPDUs only after receiving
configuration BPDUs from the upstream device.
C. The root port recalculates the topology only after the Max Age timer for configuration BPDUs expires.
D. When a port receives an inferior RST BPDU from the upstream designated bridge the port immediately
returns to its own RST BPDU.
161. What are the advantages of OSPF?

A. OSPF supports Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR).
B. OSPF can load balance traffic among equal-cost routes.
C. OSPF supports area partition.
D. OSPF supports packet authentication.
162. Which of the following types of routes can be used by a router to establish a routing table?
A. Direct route
B. Dynamic route
C. Static route
D. Aggregated route
163. PPP supports both unidirectional authentication and bidirectional authentication.

True
False
164. In the case of Huawei router, the Tracert command uses UDP to encapsulate probe packets.
True
False
165. The following configuration shows that the IP address of GE0/0/0 on a device is incorrect because the IP
address of the interface cannot end in 0.
True
False
166. IPsec VPN can only encrypt and transmit unicast data, and GRE can encapsulate multicast data.
True
False
167. The data link layer uses PPP encapsulation. The IP addresses of the two ends of the link can be in different
network segments.
True
False
168. UDP does not guarantee data transmission reliability and does not provide packet sorting and traffic control
functions. It is suitable for the traffic that has low requirements for data transmission reliability, but high
requirements for the transmission speed and delay.
True
False
169. In OSPFv3, router IDs can be automatically generated by the system.

True
False
170. The IPv6 address prefixes on both ends of the link must be the same so that an OSPFv3 adjacency can be
established.
True
False
171. TFTP is based on TCP.

True
False
172. Which of the following is/are not included in AAA?

A. Authentication
B. Authorization
C. Accounting
D. Audit
173. Which of the following states indicates that the OSPF neighbor relationship has been established?
A. Down
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Attempt
174. If the configuration information of a router is as follows, which user name and password are used by the
press router to perform PPP link authentication?
A. User name test
Password: test
B. User name test1
Password test1
C. User name test2
Password test2
D. User name test2
Password test
175. Which type of DHCP packets does a DHCP client send when it wants to leave a network?
A. DHCP Discover packet
B. DHCP Release packet
C. DHCP Request packet
D. DHCP ACK packet
176. On the network shown in the figure, if all routers run OSPF, which router is elected as the BDR?
A Router A
B. Router B
C. Router C
D. Router D
177. Which of the following parameters is used to detect link loops and other abnormalities in LCP negotiation?
A. MRU
B. Magic number
C. PAP
D. CHAP
178. What is the destination address of DHCPv6 request packets?

A. FF02::1:2
B. FF02:1
C. FF02::2
D. FF01:1:2
179. Refer to the graphic. Two hosts communicate through a GRE tunnel. When the GRE tunnel is up, the network
administrator configures a static route on RTA to route packets to Host B. Which of the following commands
should be used?
A. ip route static 10.1.20 24 GigabitEthernet0/0/1

B. ip route static 10.1.20 24 200 2.2.1
С. ip route static 10.1.20 24 200.1.1.1
D. ip route-static 10.1.2.0 24 tunnel 0/0/1
180. Which of the following packets is used by the DHCPv6 server to reply to Solicit packets?
A. Advertise
B. Offer
C. Reply
D. Request
181. Warning: Auto-Config is working. Before configuring the device, stop Auto-Config. If you perform
configurations when AutoConfig is running, the DHCP, routing, DNS, and VTY configurations will be lost. Do
you want to stop Auto-Config? [y/n]:
The administrator finds that the preceding information is displayed on the device. Which of the following
statements is true about the preceding information?
A. To enable automatic configuration, select "y".
B. If automatic configuration is not required, select "n".
C. When the device is started for the first time, the automatic configuration function is enabled.
D. When the device is started for the first time, the automatic configuration function is disabled.
182. Which of the following statements is true about the alternate port in RSTP?
A. An alternate port acts as a backup of the designated port and provides a backup path from the root bridge
to the related network segment.
B. An alternate port acts as a backup of the root port and provides an alternate path from the designated
bridge to the root bridge.
C. The alternate port does not forward user traffic but learns MAC addresses.
D. The alternate port forwards user traffic and learns MAC addresses.
183. According to the following configuration of an interface, if all the displayed IPv6 addresses are available, how
many global unicast address prefixes are advertised by the interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
184. Which of the following ports can use HDLC encapsulation?

A. Eth-Trunk port
B. GigabitEthernet port
C. Ethernet port
D. Serial port
185. Which of the following remote login modes is the most secure?
A. Telnet
B. Stelnet v1
C. Stelnet v2
D. Stelnet v100
186. As shown in the following figure, the IPsec tunnel mode is used. Which of the following is the ESP
authentication scope?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
187. Which of the following statements is true about root bridge election of STP?
A. If the bridge priorities of devices are the same, the device with the largest MAC address becomes the root
bridge
B. The device with the largest bridge priority becomes the root bridge,
C. The device with the smallest bridge priority becomes the root bridge.
D. If the bridge priorities are the same, the device with the largest number of ports becomes the root bridge.
188.
After the preceding ACL configuration is complete on the RTA, which of the following statements is/are true?
A. The VRP system adjusts the sequence number of the first rule to 5 according to the configuration
sequence.
B. The VRP does not adjust the sequence numbers but matches packets against the rule "permit source
20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255* first.
C. Incorrect configuration. The sequence numbers of rules must be configured in ascending order.
D. The VRP matches packets against the rule "deny source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255" first according to the sequence
number.
189. Which of the following routes has the highest priority?

A. Static route
B. Direct route
C. OSPF route
D. RIP route
190. Which of the following fields is not included in the format of the network-layer packet header?
A. Source IPv4 Address
B. Destination IPv4 Address
C. TTL
D. Sequence Number
191. Assume that the router has learnt the best route to the same destination by using RIP, OSPF and Static Route
respectively. By default, the Huawei router will select the route learnt via ( ) as the best route.
A. RIP.
B. OSPF.
C. RIPv2.
D. Static route.
192. As shown in the following figure, which position should the AH header in IPsec transmission mode be
inserted into?
A. 1
B. 2
C. З
D. 4
193. Segment routing (SR) is a protocol designed based on () to forward data packets on a network.
A. Source routing
B. Destination routing
C. Policy-based routing
D. Routing policy
194. If AH and ESP are both required to protect data streams between IPsec peers, how many Security
Associations (SA) are required?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
195. How many probe packets are sent for each TTL value by default when "tracert" is used to detect the path
along which packet is sent from source to destination?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
196. There are two routers (RTA and RTB) between the source device and destination device. The Tracert
command is used to detect the path between the two devices. During detection of the first hop (RTA), the
source device sends a UDP packet with a TTL of 1 to an interface with a large interface number on the
destination device. The TTL turns to o when the packet arrives at RTB, upon which RTA sends an ICMP_____
message to the source device.
A. Time Exceeded.
B. Echo Request
C. Echo Reply
D. Port Unreachable.
197. To implement the network layer function on a VLAN interface, which of the following do you need to
configure for the VLAN interface?
A. IP address
B. Subnet mask
C. MAC address
D. IP prefix
198. On the network shown in the figure, all routers run OSPF. Which of the following devices can function as the
ABR?
A. Router A
B. Router B
C. Router C
D. Router D
199. Which of the following protocols is/are used in the IPsec VPN architecture?
A. GRE
B. AH
C. ESP
D.IKE
200. Which of the following statements regarding the router ID in OSPF are incorrect?
A. The router IDs of OSPF routers in the same area, but can be different in different areas.
B. The router ID must be the IP address of an OSPF router interface.
C. The router ID must be configured manually.
D. A router running OSPF must have a router ID for it to operate properly.
201. In the VRP system, what are the functions of Ctrl+Z?
A. Return from the system view to the user view.
B. Exit from the current view.
C. Exit from the interface view.
D. Exit from the console interface view.
E. Return to the user view.
202. Which of the following statements are true about the static MAC address table?
A. After a device is reset, an interface card is hot swapped, or an interface card is reset, the saved entries on
the device or interface card are not lost.
B. After an interface is statically bound to a MAC address, other interfaces discarded a packet whose source
MAC address is the bound MAC address.
C. Each static MAC address entry can be bound only to one outbound interface.
D. You can check whether data is forwarded between two connected devices by checking the static MAC
address entries.
203. On the network shown in the figure, the switch configuration is as follows. Which of the following

B. Host A and host C can ping each other.
C. Host D and host C can ping each other.
D. All hosts can ping each other.
204. Segment routing (SR) can be used to define an explicit path. Nodes on a network only need to maintain SR
information to deal with the real-time and rapid development of services. What are the characteristics of SR?
A. SR supports smooth evolution of the existing network by extending existing protocols (such as IGPs).
B. SR supports both the controller's centralized control mode and forwarders' distributed control mode,
providing a balance between the two modes.
C. SR uses the source routing technology to support fast interaction between the network layer and upper-
layer applications.
D. SR uses IP forwarding, and routers do not need to maintain another label forwarding table.
205. A network administrator uses the ping command to check for points of failure in the network. Which
protocols will be used during this process?
A. ICMP
B. TCP.
C. ARP.
D. UDP.
206. As shown in the figure, Router A has the following configurations. Which of the following statements are
true?
A. In the routing table of Router A, the outbound interface of the route to 10.0.2.2 is G0/0/1.
B. In the routing table of Router A, the outbound interface of the route to 10.0.2.2 is G0/0/2.
C. If G0/0/1 goes Down, the outbound interface of the route to 10.0.2.2 is changed to G0/0/2 in the routing
table of Router A.
D. If GO/0/2 goes Down, the outbound interface of the route to 10.0.2.2 is changed to G0/0/1 in the routing
table of Router A.
207. What packet types are included in DHCP?

B. DHCP Offer packet
D. DHCP Rollover packet
208. The PPPoE session establishment process can be divided into which stages?
A. Discovery stage.
B. DHCP stage.
C. PPPOE Session stage.
D. PPP connecting stage.
209. Which of the following parameters can be allocated to clients in DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration?
A. IPv6 address
B. DNS address
C. PD prefix
D. MAC address
210. As shown in the figure, STP has been enabled on the two switches. Which of the following statements are
true?
A. The two ports of SWA are designated ports.
B. The two ports of SWB are designated ports.
C. G0/0/2 of SWA is in Forwarding state.
D. G0/0/3 of SWA is in Forwarding state.
E. G0/0/2 of SWB is in Forwarding state.
211. For an STP-enabled switch, a port in any state can transition to the Disabled state.
True
False
212. As shown in the preceding figure, the routing table of the router consists of direct routes and static routes.
True
False
213. In IPv6, the flow label field, source address field, and destination address field specify a forwarding path for a
specific data flow.
True
False
214. You can configure a static route on a broadcast interface by specifying the next-hop IP address or outbound
interface.
True
False
215. On the command line interface of Huawei AR routers, the role of the Save command is to Save the current
system time.
True
False
216. If Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is disabled on the network consisting of switches, a Layer 2 loop will
definitely occur.
True
False
217. Refer to the graphic. OSPF is used on four routers that are in the same area and on the same network
segment. In this scenario, OSPF selects one DR and multiple BDRs to ensure backup.
True
False
218. In the VRP system, you cannot delete files by running the delete or unreserved vrpcfg.zip command. You
must clear files in the recycle bin.
True
False
219. If the packet matches the deny rule in an ACL, the packet is discarded.
True
False
220. On the network shown in the following figure, all interfaces run OSPFV3. How many DRS exist on the
network?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
221. A company applies for a class C IP address for subnetting. It has six branches and the largest branch should
have 26 hosts. What would be an appropriate subnet mask for the largest branch?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.224
222. After a switch receives a unicast data frame, it searches the MAC address table for the destination MAC
address. Which of the following statements is false?
A. If the MAC address cannot be found, the switch floods the frame.
B. If the MAC address is found and the port corresponding to the MAC address in the MAC address table is
not the port through which the switch receives the frame, the switch forwards the frame.
C. If the MAC address is found and the port corresponding to the MAC address in the MAC address table is
the port through which the switch receives the frame, the switch discards the frame.
D. If the MAC address cannot be found, the switch discards the frame.
223. Which of the following statement is the function of OSPFv3 DD packets during adjacency establishment?
A. OSPFv3 LSUs are used to send the required LSAs to the peer router.
B. OSPFv3 LSUs are used to request the LSAs that are not included in the local LSDB.
C. OSPFv3 LSUs are used to describe the local LSDB.
D. OSPFv3 LSUs are used to discover and neighbor relationships.
224. Which of the following OSPF versions is specific to IPv6?

A. OSPFv1.
B. OSPFv2.
C. OSPFv3.
D. OSPFv4.
225. Two routers are connected via serial interfaces and the link-protocol is PPP, but the MRU of two serial
interface s are different, in PPP LCP negotiated stage, what will happen?
A. LCP negotiation will fail.
B. Negotiation will use the smaller value of MRU.
C. Negotiation will use the larger value of MRU.
D. Negotiation will use the default value that is 1500 octets.
226. The network administrator finds that a port on the switch has learned an MAC address but cannot forward
data frames. What is the state of the port?
A. Blocking
B. Disabled
C. Listening
D. Learning
227. The network administrator can run the "ping" command on the AR G3 router to test the connectivity to
10.0.0.2. Which of the following statements is true about the command output?
A. The command used by the network administrator is "ping -C -s 800 10.0.0.2".

B. The command use by the network administrator is "ping -a 2 - v 800 10.0.0.2".
C. The destination address 10.0.0.2 is unreachable.
D. The network administrator changes the default TTL value to 255.
228. In a network that supporting IPv6, which OSPF feature is no longer supported?
A. multiple areas.
B. Router-ID.
C. authentication.
D. multicast updates.
229. Which of the following protocols is not a file transfer protocol?

A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. SFTP
D. HTTP packet
230. In order to check if the interface serial 1/0/0 of the router is working in either DCE or DTE mode, command()
is used.
A. display mode serial 1/0/0.
B. display controller.
C. display interface serial 1/0/0.
D. display current-configuration.
231. Which of the following is the format of application data after being processed by the data link layer?
A. PDU
B. Packet
C. Frame
D. Segment
232. If the configuration of an interface on a router is as follows, data packets of which VLANs can be received by
the interface?
A. 1
B.20
C. 30
D. 100
233. The Priority field in a VLAN tag can be used to identify the priority of a data frame. What is value range of the
field?
A. 0 to 3
B. 0 to 7
C. 0 to 15
D. 0 to 63
234. Which of the following statements about IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration and DHCPv6 is true?
A. DHCPv6 uses RA and RS packets to allocate addresses to hosts.
B. DHCPv6 must allocate both DNS and IPv6 addresses to hosts
C. IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration requires multiple DHCPv6 packets.
D. The DHCPv6 server can record the IPv6 addresses allocated to hosts.
235. Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be abbreviated as 2FFF:DAC:ABEF::CDAA:732?
A. 2FFF:0DAC:ABEF:0000:0000:0000:CDAA:0732
B. 2FFF:0DAC:ABEF:0000:0000:CDAA:0732
C. 2FFF:0DAC:ABEF:0000:0000:0000:CDAA:7320
D. 2FFF:DAC0:ABEF:0000:0000:0000:CDAA:0732
236. The configuration information of G0/0/1 on a switch is as follows. Which of the following VLAN data frames
are untagged when the switch forwards the frames?
A. Data frames from VLAN 10

B. Data frames from VLAN 20
C. Data frames from VLAN 30
D. Data frames from VLAN 40
237. Which of the following commands is used to configure an interface to obtain an IPv6 address through
DHCPv6?
A. ipv6 address auto dhcp
B. ipv6 address auto global
C. ipv6 address auto link-local
D. ipv6 address auto node-local
238. A layer 2 LAN switch generates CAM table entries according to the () of the received frame.
A. Source MAC address.
B. Destination MAC address.
C. Source IP address.
D. Destination IP address.
239. How does an access port process data frames?

A. The access port sends tagged packets.
B. The access port replaces the VLAN tag of the data frames and then forwards them.
C. The access port removes the VLAN tag of the data frames and then forwards them.
D. The access port adds the PVID to the data frames and then forwards them.
240. Which of the following commands can switch a view from the system view to the user view?
A. System-view.
B. Router.
C. Quit.
D. User-view.
241. Two routers establish an IPsec tunnel, which of the following does not need to be the same on both peering
devices?
A. Encapsulation mode.
B. Transform mode.
C. Proposal name.
D. Authentication algorithm.
242. Refer to the command output. Which statements regarding the shown command are true?
A. The command is used to adjust the size of the history command buffer.
B. The default value of the history command buffer is 5.
C. The command should be configured in the user-interface view.
D. Once configured, commands totalling up to 20 bytes can be saved in the buffer.
243. Which of the following are Layer 2 ACLs?

A. rule 10 permit 12-protocol arp
B. rule 15 permit vlan-id 100
C. rule 20 permit source-mac 0203-0405-0607
D. rule 25 permit source 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0
244. An ACL rule is as follows. Which of the following IP addresses can be matched by the permit rule?
rule 5 permit ip source 255.0.254.255
A. 9.1.1.1
B. 8.2.2.1
C. 7.1.2.1
D. 6.1.3.1
245. Which of the following parameters must be considered during root port selection in STP?
A. Cost to the root switch.
B. Port priority.
C. Slot ID of the port, such as G0/0/1.
D. Port MAC address.
E. Port duplex mode.
246. Which of the following port states are included in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?
A. Forwarding
B. Learning
C. Discarding
D. Listening
248. Which of the following statements about the "S" field in the MPLS packet header are true?
A. The field indicates whether there are other labels behind the current label. O: Yes; 1: No.
B. The field indicates whether there are other labels behind the current label. 1: Yes; 0: No.
C. The "S" field exists in each MPLS packet header.
D. The "S" field is 1 bit long in frame mode and 2 bits long in cell mode.
249. On the network shown in the figure, the host has ARP cache. Which of the following statements are true?
A. A static route needs to be configured on the router. Otherwise, host A and host B cannot communicate
with each other.
B. Host A and host B can communicate with each other.
C. The following ARP cache entry exists on host A 11.0.12.1 MAC-B
D. The following ARP cache entry exists on host A: 10.0.12.2 MAC-C

D. The OSPFv3 process ID is 1.
251. Which of the following statements are true about the protection function provided by RSTP?
A. BPDU protection enables a switching device to set the state of an edge port to Error-Down if the edge port
receives an RST BPOU. In this case, the port remains the edge port, and the switching device sends a
notification to the NMS.
B. Root protection takes effect only on designated ports.
C. Loop protection takes effect only on the root port and alternate ports.
D. After TC-BPDU protection is enabled, frequent deletion of MAC address entries can be prevented.
252. Which of the following routing protocols are dynamic routing protocols?
A. Static routing
B. Direct routing
C. OSPF
D. BGP
253. The output of the "display ospf peer" command on a router is as follows. Which of the following statements
are true?
A. The router ID of the router is 10.0.2.2.

B. The local router is a DR.
C. The router ID of the router is 10.0.1.1.
D. The interface address of the local router is 10.0.12.2.
254. On the network shown in the figure, the ports connecting switch A and switch B to hosts belong to VLAN 10
and VLAN 20 respectively. The ports through which the two switches are interconnected are trunk ports, and
the PVIDs of the ports are 10 and 20, respectively. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Host A and host B belong to different VLANs and cannot ping each other.
B. Host A and host B can ping each other.
C. When the data frames sent by the hosts are forwarded between the switches, the frames are untagged.
D. ARP requests from host A cannot be forwarded to host B.
255. When a two-way neighbor relationship is set up between two OSPF-enabled routers, it means the LSDB
synchronization has been completed, but the SPF algorithm has not been performed yet.
True
False
256. Forwarding equivalence class (FEC) is a set of data flows with common characteristics. FEC can be classified
based on addresses, not based on service types or QoS.
True
False
257. In PPP, you can use the "ppp chap authentication" command to enable CHAP authentication.
True
False
True
False
259. Refer to the graphic, 00e0-fc99-9999 is a specific host MAC address learned by a switch through ARP and the
IP address three times.
True
False
260. The default bridge priority of a switch is 32768.

True
False
261. The VLAN ID to 0.

True
False
262. The management information base (MIB) is a virtual database that is stored on the NMS.
True
False
263. In STP, the bridge ID on the switching network is as follows. With which of the following bridge IDs is the
switch selected as a root bridge?
A. 32768 00-01-02-03-04-CC
B. 4096 00-01-02-03-04-DD
C. 32768 00-01-02-03-04-AA
D. 32768 00-01-02-03-04-BB
264. What is the destination port number of the DHCPv6 request packets sent by DHCPv6 clients?
A. 546
B. 547
C. 548
D. 549
265. Which of the following ACLs can match the transport layer port number?
A. Basic ACL
B. Advanced ACL
C. Layer 2 ACL
D. Intermediate ACL
266. What is the default step of the ACLs on AR G3 series routers?

A. 5
B. 15
C. 20
D. 10
267. Which of the following IPv4 addresses can be directly used by a host to access the Internet?
A. 192.168.1.1/24
B. 10.255.255.254/24
C. 172.16.255.254/24
D. 172.32.1.1/24
268. A DHCPv6 client sends a ( ) packet to a DHCPv6 server to request an IPv6 address and network configuration
parameters.
A. Discover
B. Solicit
C. Advertise
D. Request
269. The LACP priority is shown in the figure. Switch A and switch B adopt link aggregation in LACP mode, all
interfaces are added to the link aggregation group (LAG), and the maximum number of active ports is set to 3.
Which port of switch A is not an active port?
A. G0/0/0
B. G0/0/1
C. G0/0/2
D. G0/0/3
270. The last option field (option) of an IPv4 packet is a length-variable and optional field. What is the maximum
length of this field?
A. 40B
B. 60B
C. 20B
D. 10B
271. When a host uses DHCPv6 stateless autoconfiguration, the host sends a DHCPv6 () packet to request
configuration information?
A. Information Request
B. CONFIRM
C. SOLICIT
D. REBIND
272. What is the length (in bits) of each OSPFv3 router ID?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
273.
The preceding information shows port states displayed on a switch running STP. According to such
information, which of the following statements is false?
A. This network may contain only one switch.
B. The switch may be the root switch on the network.
C. The switch is a non-designated switch on the network to which it is connected.
D. The switch may be connected to six other switches.
274. Which of the following parameters is used for master/slave role election of OSPF?
A. Router ID
B. Interface IP address
C. Sequence for protocols to start
D.OSPF process ID
275. Which of the following addresses is the solicited-node multicast address corresponding to the IPv6 address
2019:8:AB?
A. FF02::1:FF08:AB
B. FF02:1:FF20:19
C. FF02::FF08:AB
D. FF02::1:FE08:AB
276. Which of the following statements about a port on a switch is/are false?
A. The link type of the port is hybrid.

B. If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 100, the switch removes the VLAN tag and sends the frame.
C. If the port receives data frames without VLAN tags, the switch needs to add VLAN tag 100.
D. If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 200, the switch removes the VLAN tag and sends the frame.
277.
The preceding information shows three packets captured by the administrator on a network Which of the
following statements is false?
A The three data packets indicate the TCP three-way handshake process.
B. The IP address of the Telnet server is 10.0.12.1, and the IP address of the Telnet client is 10.0.12.2.
C. The three data packets do not contain application-layer data
D. The Telnet client uses port 50190 to establish a connection with the server
278. According to the following DHCPv6 address pool configuration of a router, which of the following DNS server
addresses can the host that uses DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration obtain?
A. 3000::1/64
B. 2000::1/64
C. 3000::2/64
D. 3000::3000/64
279. As shown in the figure, host C is required to communicate with only host A or host B. Which of the following
command can be run on G0/0/3 of SWB to meet the requirement?
A. port link-type trunk

B. speed 100
C. mtu 2000
D. mac-limit maximum 1
280. What is the neighbor state when an OSPFv3 adjacency is established?

A. Down
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Loading
281. On Huawei devices, which of the following methods can be used in OSPF router ID selection?
A. If a loopback interface is configured, the largest IP address of the loopback interface is selected as the
router ID.
B. If loopback interfaces are not configured, the largest IP address of an interface is selected as the router ID.
C. A Huawei switch may use the largest IP address of VLANIF interfaces as the router ID.
D. The default ID 127.0.0.1 is selected as the router ID.
E. A valid router ID can be configured manually.
282. Which of the following steps are necessary to configure OSPF on a Huawei router?
A. Configuration of a router ID.
B. Enabling of an OSPF process.
C. Specifying an OSPF area.
D. Configuration of the network segments within each area.
283. In which of the following cases does a switch generate configuration BPDUs?
A. When a designated port receives an inferior configuration BPDU, the designated port immediately sends
its own configuration BPDU to the downstream device.
B. When the root port on a device receives a configuration BPDU, the device sends a copy of the
configuration BPDU to each of its designated ports.
C. When a non-designated port receives an inferior configuration BPDU, the port immediately sends its own
configuration BPDU to the downstream device.
D. During initialization, once STP is enabled on a port, the configuration BPDU is sent through the specified
port according to the interval specified by the Hello timer.
284. What can be the value of the Flag field in an IPv6 multicast address?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
rule 5 permit ip source 10.0.1.0 0.0.254.255
A. 10.0.1.2
B. 10.0.2.3
C. 10.0.3.4
D. 10.0.4.5
286. Which of the following statements about Ethernet sub-interfaces is/are true?
A. The sub-interface ID must be the same as the VLAN ID.
B. A sub-interface can be bound to multiple VLANs.
C. The sub-interface cannot be configured with an IP address.
D. The IP addresses for sub-interfaces must not on the same network segment.
287. What are the advantages of using DHCP to allocate IP addresses?

A. DHCP provides heavy workload and is difficult to manage.
B. DHCP can prevent IP address conflicts.
C. IP addresses can be reused.
D. If the configuration information changes, for example, the DNS server address changes, the administrator
only needs to modify the configuration information on the DHCP server, facilitating unified management.
288. Based on the following configurations of the interface, from which of the following multicast addresses can
the interface receive data?
A. FF02::2
B. FF02::1
C. FF02::1:FF12:1
D. FF02::1:FF6F:4F36
289. Which extension headers is/are supported by IPv6 packets?

A. Hop-by-Hop Options header
B. Destination Options header
C. Fragment extension header
D. VLAN extension header
290. Refer to the graphic. An administrator has configured OSPF on the two routers, following which he then
implements the command silent-interface s0/0/1 on RTA. What effect will this command have on the
network?
A. The link information advertised by RTB will be maintained in the Link State Database of RTA
B. The OSPF neighbor relationship will fail between two routers.
C. The configuration will not affect the OSPF neighbor relationship between the two routers.
D. The link information advertised by RTB will no longer be maintained in the Link State Database of RTA.
291. An Ethernet frame is captured by wireshark and the value of Type/Length field is 0x0800. Which of the
following statements about the frame are correct?
A. The frame format is Ethernet II.
B. The frame format is IEEE802.3.
C. Its upper layer protocol is IP.
D. Its upper layer protocol is IPX.
292. An administrator currently manages AR2200 devices in the network through a single password, however the
company wishes to introduce another two administrators and provide unique user credentials and privilege
levels for telnet access to the network devices. What action can be taken?
A. Configure three users under the AAA view, and assign each a different password.
B. The authentication mode must be changed to AAA.
C. Each administrator must be assigned a privilege level.
D. A public IP address must be assigned to each user for telnet access.
293. On Huawei AR G3 Series routers, Which authentication modes does AAA support?
A. None.
B. Local.
C. Radius.
D. 802.1x.
294. Which of the following statements are false about major functions of routers?
A. Routers can forward packets based on the source IP address of the packets.
B. Routing tables are established using multiple protocols.
C. Routers can be used to achieve communication between devices on the same network segment.
D. Routers forward data according to the routing table.
295. Which of the following statements regarding the routing table are correct?
A. The next hop in the routing table is redundant because the outgoing interface can be used for packet
forwarding.
B. The routes from generated by different protocols have different preferences.
C. The metrics of different routing protocols are comparable.
D. The metrics of different routing protocols are not comparable.
296. Which of the following commands can be used to query OSPF configurations of a device?
A. display current-configuration
B. In the OSPF protocol view:
display this
C. dis ip routing-table
D. display ospf peer
297. In RSTP, the P/A mechanism requires that links between two switching devices must work in P2P full-duplex
mode.
True
False
298. After an RSTP-enabled switch receives the BPDUs with the TC bit set, the MAC addresses learned by all the
ports are cleared.
True
False
299. NAPT differentiates IP addresses of different users based on protocol ID in TCP, UDP, or IP packets.
True
False
300. In Huawei Devices, when NAPT uses a dynamic address pool, addresses in the pool can be used repeatedly.
That is, one IP address can be mapped to multiple intranet IP addresses.
True
False
301. For DHCP, the priority of an interface address pool is higher than that of a global address pool.
True
False
302. For project cutover, backup or adjustment of configuration files are not required during VRP upgrade,
because lost files can be found in the recycle bin.
True
False
303. A gateway must be configured for communication between a host and other hosts.
True
False
304. The MPLS architecture consists of the control plane and forwarding plane. The forwarding plane switches
labels and forwards packets.
True
False
305. What is the total length of the port ID in STP?

A. 2 bits
B. 4 bits
C. 8 bits
D. 16 bits
306. Which of the following IP addresses can be used by another host to communicate with the host whose ip
address is 200.200.200.201/30 without the need to forward traffic through a router?
A. 200.200.200.1
B. 200.200.200.200
C. 200.200.200.202
D.200.200.200.203
307. Which of the following statements about VLANIF interfaces is/are correct?
A. A VLANIF interface does not have a MAC address.
B. VLANIF interfaces do not need to learn MAC addresses,
C. A VLANIF interface is a Layer 3 interface.
D. Different VLANIF interfaces can use the same IP address.
308. What is the total length of the VLAN frame defined by IEEE 802.1Q?
A. 1 Byte
B. 2 Byte
C. 3 Byte
D. 4Byte
309. Which of the following multicast addresses is used in OSPFV3 to represent all routers?
A. FF02::5
B. FF02::6
C. FF02::7
D. FF02::8
310. Which of the following advantages is/are inter-VLAN route interworking in one-arm routing mode?
A. Reduced the number of links
B. Reduced the use of IP addresses
C. Reduced the number of devices
D. Reduced the number of entries in the routing table
311. Which of the following SNMP packets is/are sent by the agent on the managed device to the NMS?
A. Get-Request
B. Get-Next-Request
C. Set-Request
D. Response
312. What is the maximum number of member interfaces supported by a single Eth-Trunk?
A. 6
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
313. What is the destination IP address of DHCP Discover packets?

A. 224.0.0.1
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 224.0.0.2
D. 255.255.255.255
314. How many TCP connections will be established when FTP is used to transfer files?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
315. Which of the following is the full name of VRP?

A Versatile Routing Platform
B. Virtual Routing Platform
C. Versatile Routing Protocol
D. Versatile Redundancy Platform
316. In which of the following ranges can the VLAN IDs be used by users?
A. 0 to 4095
B. 1 to 4096
C. O to 4096
D. 1 to 4094
317. How many domains can be configured on a Huawei router?

A. 30
B. 31
C. 32
D. 33
318. Which of the following commands can be used to change the device name to huawei
A. sysname huawei
B. hostname huawei
C. rename huawei
D. do name huawei
319. If the MAC address of an interface is EEE0-AABB-CD7B, the corresponding EUI-64 address is ().
A. ECE0-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
B. CCE0-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
C. EEE0-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
D. CCE0-AABB-FFFE-CD7B
320. Which of the following packets is used by OSPFV3 to maintain neighbor relationships?
A. Hello packet
B. Database Description (DD) packet
C. Link State Request (LSR) packet
D. Link State Update LSU) packet
321. If the application-layer protocol is Telnet, what is the value of the “Protocol” field in the IPv4 header?
A. 6
B.17
C.53
D. 67
322. On the network shown in the figure, host A obtains an IP address and other parameters using DHCP. Router
B functions as the DHCP server on the network. Which of the following statements are true?
A. The DHCP relay function needs to be enabled on GO/0/1 of Router A.

B. The DHCP relay function needs to be enabled on G0/0/0 of Router A.
C. The DHCP packets forwarded between Router A and Router B are unicast packets.
D. The IP address obtained by host A may be 192.168.1.254.
323. If the IPv4 address of a host on a local area network (LAN) is 192.168.1.1/30, which of the following
destination IPv4 addresses can be carried in data packets that the host can decapsulate?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.1.3
D. 255.255.255.255
324. Which of the following routing protocol preferences can be modified?

A. Direct routing
B. OSPE
C. RIP
D. Static routing
325. Which of the following statements are true about the OSPF neighbor status?
A. The master/slave relationship of OSPF is formed in the ExStart state.
B. The sequence number of DD packets is determined in the Exchange state.
C. In the Exchange state, routers send DD packets that briefly describe link state information to each other to
describe the content of the local link state database (LSDB).
D. After LSDB synchronization is completed, the router state changes to Full.
326. The administrator wishes to update the configuration file of an AR2200 router using a USB cable. How can
this be achieved?
A. The administrator should connect the USB cable between the terminal and the mini USB port of the
AR2200 router.
B. The administrator should connect the USB cable between the terminal and the USB port of the AR2200
router
C. The AR2200 router cannot support configuration updates through a USB cable
D. The administrator should install the mini USB drivers on the terminal after connecting the USB
327. Which of the following statements regarding link-state database and routing-table of a "single" OSPF area
are correct?
A. The link-state databases that all routers build are identical
B. The link-state databases that all routers build are different
C. The routing tables that all routers calculate are different
D. The routing tables that all routers calculate are identical
328. SWA and SWB run RSTP. Which of the following statements are true?
A. G0/0/3 of SWA is a designated port.

B. G0/0/3 of SWB is a backup port.
C. G0/0/3 of SWB is an alternate port.
D. G0/0/2 of SWA is a designated port.
330. To implement the network layer function on a VLAN interface, which of the following do you need to
configure for the VLAN interface?
A. IP address
B. Subnet mask
C. MAC address
D. IP prefix
331. Which of the following MAC addresses cannot be used as the MAC addresses of host network adapters?
A. 00-02-03-04-05-06
B. 01-02-03-04-05-06
C. 02-03-04-05-06-07
D. 03-04-05-06-07-08
332. Which authorization mode(s) is/are supported by the AAA on Huawei AR G3 series routers?
A. Non-authorization
B. Local authorization
C. HWTACACS authorization
D. RADIUS authorization after successful authentication
333. Which of the following packet types are DHCPv6 packet types?
A. Solicit
B. Advertise
C. Discover
D. Offer
334. Which of the following problems may emerge when a loop exists on a router?
A. Infinite packet forwarding.
B. Increased CPU usage.
C. Increased memory usage.
D. Continuous change of destination IP addresses of packets.
E. Increased packet size.
335. Which of the following protocols are used by the PPP protocol?
A. LCP
B. NCP
C. Authentication protocol
D. PPPoE
336. MPLS label actions include().

A. push
B. swap
C. switch
D.pop
337. How can the default route be generated?

A Manually configured
B. Automatically generated by the router.
C Generated by dynamic routing protocols.
D. Generated by link layer protocols.
338. After a blackhole MAC address is configured on a device, the device discards packets, whose source or
destination MAC address is the blackhole MAC address.
True
False
339. For multiple paths to the same destination network, the router needs to compare cost values of the paths. If
the cost values are the same, the router selects the paths based on the preference value.
True
False
340. On the network shown in the following figure, all interfaces run OSPFv3 and have the same area ID and
instance ID. An adjacency cannot be established between Router A and Router B.
True
False
341. On P2P networks, OSPFv3 does not need to send DD packets when establishing an OSPFv3 adjacency.
True
False
342. Only CHAP authentication can be used for PPPoE sessions.

True
False
343. If the network administrator does not configure the backbone area, the routers automatically make up the
backbone area.
True
False
344. Which of the following authentication modes does/do not require a user name and a password?
A. authentication-mode hwtacacs
B. authentication-mode local
C. authentication-mode none
D. authorization-mode hwtacacs
345. An administrator discovered he/she was unable to use TFTP to transfer files to the router. Which of the
following describes the likely reason for this?
A. The TFTP service had been disabled on the router.
B. TCP port 69 of the server had been blocked.
C. UDP port 69 of the server had been blocked.
D. The username and password had been modified.
346. Which of the following information is used by a VLANIF interface to determine whether to perform Layer 2
forwarding or Layer 3 forwarding?
A. Source MAC address
B. Destination MAC address
C. Source IP address
D. Destination port
347. Which of the following packets is used by OSPF to describe its link state database (LSDB)?
A. HELLO
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. DD
348. DHCPv6 packets are carried using ( ) packets.

A. UDP
B. TCP
C. HTTP
D. FTP
349. As shown in the figure, assume that the MAC address table of SWA is as follows. Host A sends a data frame
whose destination MAC address is MAC-B to SWA. Which of the following statements is true?
A. SWA discards the data frame.

B. SWA forwards the data frame only through G0/0/2.
C. SWA forwards the data frame only through G0/0/3.
D. SWA floods the data frame.
350. If PPP authentication fails, which type of packet will be sent to the authenticated peer by the authenticator?
A. Authenticate-Ack.
B. Authenticate-Nak.
C. Authenticate-Reject.
D. Authenticate-Reply.
351. If the MAC address of an interface is 00E0-FCEF-0FEC, the corresponding EUI-64 address is ( ).
C. 0DE0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
352. When the link layer protocol is ( ), OSPFv3 considers the network as a broadcast network.
A. Ethernet
B. PPP
C. HDLC
D. ARP
353. On the network shown in the following figure, OSPFv3 is enabled on all interfaces, and an OSPFv3 adjacency
is established between Router A and Router B. In the routing table of Router B, the NextHop corresponding to
loopback 0 of Router A is ().
A. 3001::12:1
B. 3002::12:1
C. 3001::12:2
D. fe80::fe03:c3fb
354. How many bits are there in an IPv6 address?

A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
355. Which of the following parameters cannot be allocated in DHCPv6 stateless autoconfiguration?
A. IPv6 address
B. DNS address
C. NIS server address
D. SNTP server address
356. A network administrator wishes to assign an IP address to a router interface G0/0/0. Which of the following
IP addresses can be assigned?
A. 192.168.10.112/30
B. 237.6.1.2/24
C. 145.4.2.55/26
D. 127.3.1.4/28
357. What is the destination MAC address of STP BPDUs?

A. 01-80-C2-00-00-00
B. FF-FF-FF-FF-FF=FF
C. 00-80-C2-00-00-00
D. 01-80-C2-04-05-06
358. In which of the following states does an STP-enabled port participate in port role election?
A. Blocking
B. Disabled
C. Listening
D. Learning
359. The IP address 192.168.1.127/25 represents a ( ) address.

A. Host
B. Network
C. Multicast
D. Broadcast.
360. Which of the following statements about the ACL configuration of a router is/are true?
A. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 match the permit rule.
B. The data packets with the source IP addresses 192.168.1.1 or 192.168.1.254 match the permit rule.
C. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 match the deny rule.
D. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 and denied packets match the permit rule.
361. 42. Which of the following fields is/are contained in an IPv6 packet header?
A. Version
B. Traffic class
C. Next Header
D. TOS
362. Which of the following protocols or routes can contribute to an IPv6 routing table?
A. RIPng
B. OSPFv2
C. OSPFv3
D. Static routes
363. The following shows the command output on a router. Which of the following statements are true?
A. The current VRP version file is the same as the VRP file for next startup.
B. The current VRP version file is different from the VRP file for next startup.
C. The current configuration file is the same as the configuration file for next startup.
D. The current configuration file is different from the configuration file for next startup
364. DHCPv6 involves the following three roles:

A. DHCPv6 client
B. DHCPv6 relay agent
C. DHCPv6 server
D. DHCPv6 switch
A. The local router is a BDR.

366. Which of the following network parameters can be allocated using DHCP?
A. IP address
B. Gateway address
C. Address of the DNS server
D. Operating system
367. Which of the following statements about IPv6 RA and RS packets are true?
A. RS packets are used to request address prefix information.
B. RA packets are used to reply with address prefix information.
C. RA packets are used to request address prefix information.
D. RS packets are used to reply with address prefix information.
368. With what kind of routers does a DRother router exchange link state information and route information?
A. DR.
B. BDR.
C. DRother.
D. All OSPF neighbors.
369. According to the following DHCPv6 address pool configuration of a router, which of the following IPv6
addresses can the host that uses DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration obtain?
A. 3000::1/64
B. 2000::1/64
C. 3000::2/64
D. 3000::3000/64
370. SNMP packets are encapsulated in TCP packets.

True
False
371. The authentication, authorization and accounting schemes and HWTACACS or RADIUS server templates
created on AR routers take effect only after being applied to a domain.
True
False
372. On an STP-enabled switch, a port in Learning state can transition to the Forwarding state only after the
Forward Delay timer expires.
True
False
373. All interfaces on a router running OSPF must belong to the same area.
True
False
374. What is the decimal value of the "Protocol" field in the IPv6 packet header of OSPFv3 packets?
A. 59
B. 69
C. 89
D. 92
375. Which of the following statements is true about the backup port in RSTP?
A. A backup port acts as a backup of the designated port and provides a backup path from the root bridge to
the related network segment.
B. A backup port acts as a backup of the root port and provides an alternate path from the designated bridge
to the root bridge.
C. The backup port does not forward user traffic but learns MAC addresses.
D. The backup port forwards user traffic and learns MAC addresses.
376. Which of the following is not the working principle of CSMA/CD?

A. Listening before sending
B. Listening while sending
C. Sending suspension upon a conflict
D. Resending after a random delay
E. Resending after a fixed delay
377. In the case of Huawei router, what is the "-i" parameter in a Ping command issued on a VRP operating
system used to set?
A. Interface for sending an Echo Request packet.
B. Source IP address for sending an Echo Request packet.
C. Interface for receiving an Echo Reply packet.
D. Destination IP address for receiving an Echo Reply packet.
378. On the network shown in the following figure, OSPFv3 is enabled on all interfaces, and an OSPFv3 adjacency
is established between Router A and Router B. In the routing table of Router B, the NextHop corresponding to
loopback O of Router A is ( ).
A. 3001::12:1
B. 3002::12:1
C. 3001::12:2
D. fe80::fe03:c3fb
379. What is the default value of switch priority when STP is enabled on Huawei switch?
A. 4096
B. 8192
C. 16384
D. 32768
380. The PPPoE client sends a PADI packet to the server, and the server returns a PADO packet. Which type of
frame is a PADO packet?
A. Unicast
B. Multicast
C. Broadcast
D. Anycast
381. Refer to the graphic, three Layer 2 switches enabled with STP are connected to the same hub. The
configuration of bridge IDs is as follows while all other configurations use default values. Which of the
A. LSW1 is selected as the root bridge by comparing the bridge IDs.

B. G0/0/2 on LSW1 is blocked.
C. G0/0/1 on LSW3 is for AP Port and is blocked.
D. The two interfaces on LSW1 are designated ports and are in the forwarding state.
382. If the network administrator assigns the IPv4 address 192.168.1.1/28 to a host on the network, how many
hosts can be added to the network where the host resides?
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
383. Which of the following statements about gratuitous ARP packets are true?
A. A system can determine whether conflicting IP addresses are used by sending a gratuitous ARP packet.
B. A gratuitous ARP packet uses the same format as an ARP request packet.
C. A gratuitous ARP packet can help to update an IP address.
D. A gratuitous ARP packet uses the same format as an ARP reply packet.
384. According to the preceding command output, which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 does not allow packets of VLAN 1 to pass through.
B. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 allows packets of VLAN 1 to pass through.
C. To change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an access port, run the "undo port trunk allow-pass vlan all"
command first.
D. To change the GigabitEthernet0/0/1 port to an access port, run the "undo port trunk allow-pass vlan 2 to
4094" command first
385. What are the functions of the DR and BDR in OSPF?

A. Reduce the time taken for establishing the OSPF adjacency relationship.
B. Reduce the number of OSPF neighbors.
C. Reduce the number of times link state information is exchanged.
D. Reduce the types of OSPF packets.
386. The loop protection function provided by RSTP can take effect only on designated ports.
True
False
387. A trunk interface allows frames from multiple VLANs including VLAN 4096.
True
False
388. for multiple paths to the same destination network, the router needs to compare the preference values of
the paths. If the preference values are the same, the router selects the paths based on the cost value.
True
False
389. OSPFv2 uses new types of LSAs to support IPv6.

True
False
390. Compared with IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers do not contain the IHL field.
True
False
391. On Huawei switches, you can run the vlan batch command to create multiple VLANs in batches.
True
False
392. When searching the routing table, a router follows the longest matching rule. Which of the following
parameters does the length in the longest matching rule indicate?
A. Mask length
B. Next-hop IP address length
C. Preference value of the routing protocol
D. Cost
393. If the value of the "Payload Length" field in an IPv6 packet header is 1400 bytes, how many bytes does the
valid payload of the packet occupy?
A. 1360 bytes
B. 1380 bytes
C. 1320 bytes
D. 1400 bytes
394. UDP is connectionless oriented, which of the following must be used in order to ensure reliability?
A. Internet Protocol.
B. Application Layer Protocol.
C. Network Layer Protocol.
D. Transmission Control Protocol.
395. Which area ID is used by OSPFv3 to identify the backbone area?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
A. If the VLAN tag carried in data frame is 100, the switch removes the VLAN tag and sends the frame.
B. The link type of the port is trunk.
C. If the VLAN tag carried in data frame is 200, the switch removes the VLAN tag and sends the frame.
D. If the port receives data frames without VLAN tags, the switch needs to add VLAN tag 100.
397. Which of the following transmission modes require(s) clock synchronization between the two
communication parties?
A. Asynchronous transmission
B. Synchronous transmission
C. Wireless transmission
D. Data transmission
398. As defined in IEEE 802.1D, how many bits does the bridge priority contain?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
399. Which of the following statements about static route preference on Huawei devices is false?
A. Static route preference ranges from 0 to 255.
B. Default static route preference is 60.
C. Static route preference is either internal or external. Administrators can modify external preferences.
D. If static route preference is 255, the route cannot be used.
400. Which of the following statements about the adjacency segment is false?
A. An adjacency segment identifies an adjacency of a node.
B. Adjacency segments are flooded to other devices through an IGP. After the flooding the adjacency
segments are visible globally but effective locally.
C. An adjacency segment is identified by the adjacency SID.
D. Adjacency segments must be manually configured.
401. According to the figure, which of the following statements is true?

A. Host A and host B cannot obtain the MAC address of each other.
B. Host A can successfully ping host B.
C. The broadcast addresses of host A and host B are the same.
D. The following ARP cache entry exists on host A: 10.0.12.5 MAC-B
402. Which of the following is not included in the routing table?

A. Destination/Mask
B. Cost
C. Next-hop address
D. MAC
403. In which of the following situations does a switch running RSTP generate configuration BPDUs with the TC bit
set?
A. The edge port changes to the Forwarding state.
B. The edge port changes to the Discarding state.
C. A non-edge port changes to the Forwarding state.
D. The backup port goes down.
404. Which of the following statements about IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration and DHCPv6 is true?
A. DHCPv6 uses RA and RS packets to allocate addresses to hosts.
B. DHCPv6 must allocate both DNS and IPv6 addresses to hosts.
C. IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration requires multiple DHCPv6 packets.
D. The DHCPv6 server can record the IPv6 addresses allocated to hosts.
405. The configuration information of G0/0/1 on a switch is as follows. Which of the following VLAN data frames
are untagged when the switch forwards the frames?
A. Data frames from VLAN 10

B. Data frames from VLAN 20
C. Data frames from VLAN 30
D. Data frames from VLAN 40
406. If the MAC address of an interface is 00E0-FCEF-0FEC, the corresponding EUI-64 address is ().
C. 00E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
407. If the MAC address of an interface is EEE0-AABB-CD7B, the corresponding EUI-64 address is ( ).
A. ECE0-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
B. CCE0-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
C. EEE0-AAFF-FEBB-CD7B
D. CCE0-AABB-FFFE-CD7B
408. On the network shown in the figure, two switches are connected through four links. COPPER indicates the
electrical interface and FIBER indicates the optical interface. Which of the following interfaces can form an
Eth-Trunk?
A. G0/0/3 and G0/0/2

B. G0/0/3 and FE0/0/3
C. G0/0/2 and FE0/0/3
D. G0/0/2 and G0/0/1
409. What is the number range of a Layer 2 ACL?

A. 2000-2999
B. 3000-3999
C. 4000-4999
D. 6000-6031
410. Which of the following statements is true about the application scenarios of DHCP?
A. The DHCP client and DHCP server must be connected to the same switch.
B. Multiple DHCP servers are not allowed on the same network.
C. If the DHCP client and the DHCP server are on different network segments, DHCP packets need to be
forwarded through the DHCP relay agent.
D. After receiving a DHCP Request or Offer packet, the DHCP relay agent forwards the packet without
modifying the packet format.
411. If the configuration of a port on a switch is as follows, what is the PVID of the port?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 100
B. A BPDU uses the Ethernet || standard frame type.
C. The BPDU frame' s control field is 3.
D. The destination MAC address field of a BPDU frame is a broadcast address.
413. The output information of a router is as follows. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. The data link layer uses the PPP protocol.
B. The IP address of the interface is 10.0.12.1/24.
C. When the number of data packets to be forwarded by the interface exceeds 1400 bytes, the data packets
need to be fragmented.
D. This interface is a synchronous interface.
414. Which of the following mechanisms are used for flow control?
A. Acknowledgement.
B. Buffering
C. Source quench messages.
D. Windowing.
415. As shown in the figure, all routers run OSPF. The OSPF process ID and the area ID are required to be 1 and 0,
respectively. Which of the following commands can be used on Router A to meet this requirement?
416. On the network shown in the figure, the switch configuration information is as follows. Which of the
following statements are true?
C. The PVID of GigabitEthernet0/0/1 on the switch is 20.
D. The data frames forwarded over the two links are untagged.
D. Devices connected to the same bridge form a broadcast domain.
418. Which of the following statements regarding single area OSPF are correct?
A. An IP address needs to be configured on a loopback interface of each router before configuring an OSPF
area.
B. The value of an area can be from 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255.
C. A single area can be configured using any supported area number.
D. All of the links of the network need to be advertised in Area 0.
419. Which of the following packets are OSPF packets?

A. HELLO
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSA
420. By default, it takes at least 30 seconds for an STP-enabled port to transition from Disabled to forwarding.
True
False
421. In a scenario without virtual links, the next hop of each OSPFv3 route is a link-local address.
True
False
422. A trunk interface and a hybrid interface process packets in the same way when receiving data frames.
True
False
423. For DHCP, the priority of an interface address pool is higher than that of a global address pool.
True
False
424. Telnet is based on TCP.

True
False
425. The MPLS label header is encapsulated between the data link layer header and the network layer header.
True
False
426. According to the following topology and configuration, R1 and R2 are connected through low-speed serial
cables and PPP is used to encapsulate data link layer packets. When the Holdtime values of R1 and R2 are
different, PPP negotiation and communication fail.
True
False
427. On the network shown in the figure, if all routers run OSPF, which router is elected as the DR?
A. Router A
B. Router B
C. Router C
D. Router D
428. Which of the following is an IP address with a 12-bit mask?

A. 255.240.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.248.0.0
D. 255.255.255.0
429. When both ends running PPP protocol detect that the physical link is active, the link state will transit from
dead to establish. Which of the following protocols is used to negotiate the link parameters during this phase?
A. IP.
B. DHCP.
C. LCP.
D. NCP.
430. What is the length (in bits) of the "Traffic Class" field in the IPv6 packet header?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
431. Which of the following data packets are the OPSF protocol packets encapsulated into?
A. IP packet
B. TCP packet
C. UDP packet
D. HTTP packet
432. Which of the following addresses cannot be used as the IPv4 address of a host?
A. Class A address
B. Class B address
C. Class C address
D. Class D address
433. Refer to the graphic. Both switches are operating using STP. With exception to those shown, all other default
parameters have been maintained. Which port will be blocked?
A. Port G0/0/1 of switch A.

B. Port G0/0/2 of switch B.
C. Port G0/0/1 of switch B.
D. Port G0/0/2 of switch A.
434. What is the default value of the Forward Delay timer of STP?
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds
C. 15 seconds
D. 20 seconds
435. Which of the following statements regarding the “port trunk allow-pass vlan all" command is true,
A. The specified port allows all VLAN IDs to pass through.
B. The peer port connected to this port must have the same port trunk allow-pass vlan all command
configured.
C. The peer device connected to this port can dynamically determine which VLAN IDs are allowed to pass
through.
D. If the port default vlan 3 command is run on the connected remote device VLAN 3 wiIl be blocked
between the two devices.
436. Which of the following packets is used by OSPF to discover and maintain neighbor relationships?
A. HELLO
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. DD
437. By default, the dead time of an OSPFv3 adjacency on an Ethernet link is ( seconds.
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
438. On the network shown in the figure, after the OSPF protocol state is stable, what is the neighbor status
between Router A and Router B?
A Down
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Attempt
439. How many VLANs are created when using the commands "vlan batch 10 20" and "vlan batch 10 to 20"?
A. 2 and 2.
B. 11 and 11.
C. 11 and 2.
D. 2 and 11.
440. The IPv6 address architecture does not include which of the following address types?
A. Unicast.
B. Multicast
C. Broadcast.
D. Anycast
441. Which of the following are true about the Ethernet data frame with the "Length/Type" field being 0x0806?
A. The data frame is an Ethernet II frame.
B. The data frame is an IEEE 802.3 frame.
C. The destination MAC address of the data frame must be FFFF-FFFF-FFFFF.
D. The source MAC address of the data frame is definitely not FFFF-FFFF-FFFFF.
443. For the link aggregation technology, which of the following parameters can an Eth-Trunk interface use to
implement traffic load balancing?
A. Same source or destination IP address
B. Same source or destination MAC address
C. Same protocol type
D. Same source or destination port number
444. Which of the following packets are used by the DHCPv6 client and DHCPv6 server to determine whether the
client uses DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration or DHCPv6 stateless autoconfiguration?
A. RS
B. RA
C. NS
D. NA
445. The RADIUS information of the router is configured as follows. Which of the following statements is/are
correct:
A. The IP address of the authentication server is 200.0.12.1.

B. The IP address of the authorization server is 200.0.12.1.
C. The IP address of the accounting server is 200.0.12.1.
D. The source IP address of the RADIUS packets sent by the router is 200.0.12.2.
446. As shown in the figure, all hosts can communicate with each other. Which of the following statements are
true?
A. G0/0/3 of SWA learns three MAC addresses.

B. G0/0/3 of SWB learns two MAC addresses.
C. G0/0/3 of SWA learns two MAC addresses.
D. G0/0/3 of SWA learns one MAC address.
447. Which of the following VRP commands can be used to enter area 0 view?
A. [Huawei]ospf area 0
B. [Huawei-ospf-1]area 0
C. [Huawei-ospf-1]area 0.0.0.0
D. [Huawei-ospf-1]area 0 enable
A. Host A and host B belong to different VLANs and cannot ping each other.
D. ARP requests from host A cannot be forwarded to host B.
448. Which of the following are the stable states of OSPF neighbor relationships?
A. Down
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Attempt
449. Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be added to the interface based on the configurations of the
interface?
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001::12:1/64
ipv6 address 2019::12:1/64
A. 2001::21:1/64
B. 2019:21:1/64
C. 2018::12:1/64
D. 2020::12:1/64
450. Which of the following parts are contained in global unicast addresses?
A. Global Routing Prefix
B. Subnet ID
C. Interface ID
D. Protocol ID
451. In which of the following network types does OSPF need to elect the DR and BDR?
A. Broadcast
B. Point-to-point (P2P)
С. NBMA
D. Point-to-multipoint (P2MP)
452. Which of the following statements are true about ICMP packets?
A. The value of the protocol type field in the IPv4 header of an ICMP packet is 1.
B. The length of the "Checksum" field in an ICMP packet is 8 bits.
C. The length of the "Type" field in an ICMP packet format is 8 bits.
D. The length of the "Code" field in an ICMP packet format is 8 bits.
453. Which of the following authentication methods are supported for Telnet users?
A. Password authentication.
B. AAA local authentication.
C. MD5 authentication.
D. No authentication.
454. According to the topology and configuration shown in the figure, an Eth-Trunk link can be set up between
the two which LSW2 is the Actor.
True
False
455. After the keepalive function is enabled for a GRE tunnel, the local end of the GRE tunnel sends a keepalive
packet to the remote end every 10s.
True
False
456. When configuring the Telnet login user interface, you must configure the authentication mode. Otherwise,
the user cannot log in to the device.
True
False
457. IPv6 interfaces do not forward received data packets whose "Hop Limit" field is set to 1.
True
False
458. If a network's address is 192.168.1.0, the broadcast address of the network is 192.168.1.255.
True
False
459. On a broadcast network, both the DR and BDR use the multicast address 224.0.0.6 to receive Link State
Update (LSD) packets.
True
False
460. A segment routing global block (SRGB) is a set of local labels reserved for global segments. In MPLS and IPv6,
an SRGB is a set of local labels reserved for global labels.
True
False
461. After being encapsulated by the data link layer, the application data must carry the MAC address.
True
False
462. UDP is connectionless oriented, which of the following must be used in order to ensure reliability?
A. Internet Protocol
B. Application Layer Protocol.
C. Network Layer Protocol.
D. Transmission Control Protocol.
463. What are the components of the OSI reference model from top to bottom?
A. Application layer, presentation layer, session layer, transport layer, network layer, data link layer, and
physical layer
B. Application layer, transport layer, network layer, data link layer, and physical layer
C. Application layer, session layer, presentation layer, transport layer, network layer, data link layer, and
physical layer
D. Application layer, presentation layer, session layer, network layer, transport layer, data link layer, and
physical layer
464. When a router is powered on the router reads the configuration file saved in the default save directory to
get itself initialized. If the configuration file does not exist in the default save directory, what does the router
use to initialize itself?
A. New configuration file.
B. Initial configuration file.
C. Default parameters.
D. Current configuration file.
465. If the "user-interface maximum-vty 0" command is run on a router, which of the following statements is
true?
A. No user can log in to the router through Telnet or SSH.
B. A maximum of 15 VTY users can access the router at the same time.
C. A maximum of 5 VTY users can access the router at the same time.
D. A maximum of 4 VTY users can access the router at the same time
466. If the EUI-64 address DC7E-FFFF-FEFF-BC0A is calculated based on a MAC address, what is the MAC address?
A. DE7E-FFFF-BC0A
B. DE7E-FFFE-BC0A
C. DC7E-FFFF-BC0A
D. EE7E-FFFE-BC0A
467. The IPv6 address architecture does not include which of the following address types?
A. Unicast.
B. Multicast.
C. Broadcast.
D. Anycast.
468. Which of the following statements is false about OSPF area partition?
A. The link state databases (LSDBs) of routers are the same in the same OSPF area.
B. OSPF area partition can reduce the LSDB size of the router.
C. Area 0 is the backbone area, and other areas must be connected to this area.
D. Only area border routers (ABRs) can function as the autonomous system boundary routers (ASBRS).
469. By default, the dead time of an OSPFv3 adjacency on a P2P link is ( ) seconds.
40
470. Which of the following packet types is/are used by the RADIUS server for authentication rejection?
A. Access-Request
B. Access-Accept
C. Access-Reject
D. Access-Challenge
471. Which of the following stages is/are not included in PPPoE session establishment and termination?
A. Discovery stage
C. Session termination stage
B. Session stage
D. Data forwarding stage
472. system-view
[Huawei]command-privilege level 3 view user save
Refer to the command output. What is the result of the shown command?
A. The command adjusts the save command of a user to privilege level 3.
D. The command adjusts the privilege level of a user to 3, and saves the configuration.
B. The command adjusts the save command in the user view to privilege level 3.
С. The command adjusts the user view command privilege level to 3, and saves the configuration.
473. [R1]display interface g0/0/0

GigabitEthernet0/0/0 current state : Administratively DOWN
Line protocol current state : DOWN
Which of the following statements about the "display interface g0/0/0" command output is true?
A. A cable is incorrectly connected to GigabitEthernet 0/0/0.
B. No IP address is configured for GigabitEthernet 0/0/0.
C. No dynamic routing protocol is enabled on GigabitEthernet 0/0/0.
D. GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 is manually disabled by the administrator.
474. In standard STP mode, which of the following ports on non-root switches forward the BPDUs with TC bits set
generated by the root switch?
A. Root port.
B. Backup port.
C. Designated port.
D. Alternate port.
475. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is a link-local address?

B. FF02::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
D. FC00::20:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
rule 5 permit ip source 10.0.2.0 0.0.254.255
A. 10.0.2.1
B. 10.0.4.5
C. 10.0.5.6
D. 10.0.6.7
477. Which of the following network types are supported by OSPF?

A. Broadcast
B. Point-to-point (P2P)
C. NBMA
D. Point-to-multipoint (P2MP)
478. stWhich of the following fields are included in an MPLS header?

A. Label
B. ToS
С. EXP
D. TTL
479. On the network shown in the following figure, host A uses DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration, and Router A
functions as a DHCPv6 server. Which of the following statements may cause host A to fail to obtain an IPv6
address?
A. The RA function is disabled on G 0/0/1 of Router A.
B. DHCP is not enabled globally on Router A.
C. No IPv6 address is available in the address pool of Router A.
D. No DNS server address is specified for Router A.
480. Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be obtained by the host if the DHCPv6 address pool is configured
as follows?
dhcpv6 pool huawei
address prefix 2019::/125
excluded-address 2019::1 to 2019:3
dns-domain-name huawei.com
A. 2019:2
B. 2019:4
C. 2019::6
D. 2019::8
481. 150.25.0.0 is a network segment and its mask is 255.255.224.0. Which of the following are valid host
addresses:
A. 150.25.0.0
B.150.25.1.255
C. 150.25.2.24
D. 150.15.3.30
482. Which of the following statements regarding Designated Routers in OSPF are correct?
A. DR is elected by all the routers in the same network segment.
B. If the priorities of two routers are different, the router with the lower priority will be elected as DR.
C. If the priorities of two routers are equal, the router with the higher Router ID will be elected as DR.
D. DR and BDR must be establish adjacency relationship.
483. Which of the following statements may be the cause of the failure to establish an OSPFv3 adjacency?
A. Router IDs conflict.
B. The IPv6 address prefixes of the interfaces are different.
C. The intervals at which Hello packets are sent are different.
D. The area IDs on two ends are different.
484. When two switches are connected through link aggregation, what are the requirements for the interfaces on
the two switches?
A. The physical interface quantities of the interconnected switches are the same.
B. The physical interface rates of the interconnected switches are the same.
C. The duplex modes of the physical interfaces on the interconnected switches are the same.
D. The physical interface IDs of the interconnected switches are the same.
E. The models of the optical modules used by the interconnected switches are the same.
485. Which of the following statements are true about the OSPF neighbor status?
A. The master/slave relationship of OSPF is formed in the ExStart state
B. The sequence number of DD packets is determined in the Exchange state.
C. In the Exchange state, routers send DD packets that briefly describe link state information to each other to
describe the content of the local link state database (LSDB)
D. After LSDB synchronization is completed, the router state changes to Full.
486. In RSTP mode, interfaces in the Discarding state discard received data frames but maintain the MAC address
table based on received data frames.
True
False
487. OSPFv2 uses new types of LSAs to support IPv6.

True
False
488. Segment routing (SR) defines destination address prefixes/nodes and adjacencies on the network as
segments and allocates segment IDs (SIDs) to these segments. Adjacency and prefix/node SIDs are non-
sequentially arranged in a segment list to form a forwarding path.
True
False
489. The router that runs OSPF first enters the Full state and then synchronizes the LSDB.
True
False
490. Dynamic routing protocols can automatically adapt to network topology changes.
True
False
491. SNMP packets are transmitted by UDP.

True
False
492. When a source end uses application software to send an image file through a network, the TCP/IP
encapsulation process of the file is: Data ->Segment -> Packet -> Frame -> Bit.
True
False
493. The solicited-node multicast address corresponding to the IPv6 address 2001::12:1 is FF02::1:FF12:1.
True
False
494. The rules in an ACL may overlap. If packets match the rules with loose conditions, the later ACL rules are not
processed. In this case, packets cannot match the rules with strict conditions. Therefore, the rules with strict
conditions must be arranged in front lines and those with loose conditions must be arranged towards the end.
True
False
495. When a host moves frequently, which of the following VLAN assignment modes is the most appropriate?
A. Port-based VLAN assignment
B. IP subnet-based VLAN assignment
C. Policy-based VLAN assignment
D. MAC address-based VLAN assignment
496. If an Ethernet data frame is forwarded by the switch and is added with two VLAN tags, how many extra bytes
are added to the data frame?
8
497. If a route destined for the same network has multiple next hops, what is the route?
A. Equal-cost route
B. Sub-optimal route
C. Multi-path route
D. Default route
498. As specified by the RSTP protocol, when a root port fails, which type of port will function as a new root port
and enters the forwarding state without any delay?
A. Forwarding Port.
B. Alternate Port.
C. Backup Port
D. Edge Port.
499. Which of the following descriptions regarding the STP forwarding state is incorrect?
A. A port in a forwarding state can receive BPDU.
B. A port in a forwarding state does not learn the source MAC address of a frame.
C. A port in a forwarding state can forward frames.
D. A port in a forwarding state can send BPDU.
500. Which of the following information is not included in the MAC address table of a switch?
A. MAC address.
B. Port number
C. IP address
D. VLAN ID
501. Which of the following service modules has/have the ACL with the default action of permit?
A. Telnet
B. HTTP
C. SNMP
D. Flow policy
502. If the output information of a router is as follows, which of the following tunnel protocols is used by the
interace?
A. GRE
B. IPsec
C. LDP
D. MPLS
503. Apply the following ACL to SNMP. Which of the following statements is/are false?
acl number 2000
rule 5 permit source 192.168.1.2 0
#
A. The device whose IP address is 192.168.1.2 can use the SNMP service.
B. The device whose IP address is 192.168.1.3 can use the SNMP service.
C. The device whose IP address is 192.168.1.4 can use the SNMP service.
D. The device whose IP address is 192.168.1.5 can use the SNMP service.
504. Apply the following ACL to Telnet. Which of the following statements is/are false?
acl number 2000
rule 5 deny source 172.16.105.3 0
rule 20 permit
A. The device whose IP address is 172.16.105.3 can use the Telnet service.
B. The device whose IP address is 172.16.105.4 can use the Telnet service.
C. The device whose IP address is 172.16.105.5 can use the Telnet service.
D. The device whose IP address is 172.16.105.6 can use the Telnet service.
505. What is the total length of the VLAN frame defined by IEEE 802.1Q?
4
506. When the values of the M and O flags in the RA packet that a DHCPv6 client receives from a DHCPv6 server
are ( ), the DHCPv6 client uses DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration to obtain an IPv6 address and other
configuration information.
A. 11
B. 10
C. 1
D. 0
507. The following command output is displayed on an STP port on a switch. Which of the following statements is
false?
A. The interval at which the port sends configuration BPDUs is 2 seconds.

B. The Max Age timer for configuration BPDUs is set to 20 seconds.
C. The Forward Delay timer is set to 20 seconds.
D. The switch is not a root bridge.
508. A Windows host is started for the first time. If the host obtains an IP address using DHCP, what is the source
IP address of the first data packet sent by the host?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 169.254.2.33
D. 255.255.255.255
509. Which of the following stages is/are not included in PPPoE session establishment and termination?
A. Discovery stage
B. Session stage
C. Session termination stage
D. Data forwarding stage
510. Which of the following statements about the ACL configuration of a router is/are true?
acl number 2000
A. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 match the permit rule.
B. The data packets with the source IP addresses 192.168.1.1 or 192.168.1.254 match the permit rule.
C. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 match the deny rule.
D. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 and deniaed packets match the permit rule.
511. Which of the following is/are the characteristic(s) of HDLC?

A. HDLC supports point-to-point links.
B. HDLC does not support IP address negotiation.
C. HDLC does not support authentication.
D. HDLC supports point-to-multipoint links.
512. Which of the following address types are of IPv6 addresses?

A. Unicast address
B. Anycast address
D. Broadcast address
513. Which of the following are the stable states of OSPF neighbor relationships?
A. Down
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Attempt
514. There are four network segments: 10.24.0.0/24, 10.24.1.0/24, 10.24.2.0/24, and 10.24.3.0/24. Which of the
following network segments can the four network segments be summarized into?
A. 10.24.0.0/22
B. 10.24.0.0/21
C. 10.24.0.0/23
D. 10.24.1.0/23
B. A BPDU uses the Ethernet II standard frame type.
C. The BPDU frame's control field is 3.
D. The destination MAC address field of a BPDU frame is a broadcast address
interface?
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001::12:1/64
ipv6 address 2019::12:1/64
A. 2001::21:1/64
B. 2019:21:1/64
C. 2018::12:1/64
D. 2020::12:1/64
517. When two switches are connected through link aggregation, what are the requirements for the interfaces on
the two switches?
A. The physical interface quantities of the interconnected switches are the same.
B. The physical interface rates of the interconnected switches are the same.
C. The duplex modes of the physical interfaces on the interconnected switches are the same.
D. The physical interface IDs of the interconnected switches are the same.
E. The models of the optical modules used by the interconnected switches are the same.
518. Which of the following bits are used in the Flag field in the RSTP configuration BPDU but not used in the Flag
field in the STP configuration BPDU?
A. TCA
B.TC
C. Proposal
D. Agreement
519. Which of the following information must be configured for a DHCPv6 relay agent?
A. DHCPv6 DUID
B. IPv6 address of the DHCPv6 server
C. DHCPv6 address pool
D. DNS server address
520. If an Ethernet interface on a router needs to forward a 1600B packet, which of the following statements are
true?
A. The value of the flags field in the second fragment is 0
B. The payload in the first segment is 1480B
C. The fragment offset of the second fragment is 1480
D. The value of the flags field in the first segment is 1
521. How many classes of services (CoSs) can data streams be identified based on the MPLS label?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
522. Which of the following options is not a segment routing (SR) label action?
A. push
B. swap
C. pop
D. switch
523. The network administrator has decided to configure link aggregation in the enterprise network. Which of the
following represent advantages of link aggregation?
A. Load balancing.
B. Improved bandwidth.
C. Enhanced reliability.
D. Improved security
524. Which of the following is NOT included in the routing table?

A. Destination/Mask
B. Cost
C. Next-Hop address
D. MAC
525. Which of the following commands can be used to view only static routes on the VRP?
A. display ip routing-table
B. display ip routing-table statistics
C. display ip routing-table verbose
D. display ip routing-table protocol static
526. In which of the following situations does a switch running RSTP generate configuration BPDUs with the TC bit
set?
A. The edge port changes to the Forwarding state
B. The edge port changes to the Discarding state
C. A non-edge port changes to the Forwarding state
D. The backup port goes down
527. Which of the following port states is NOT included in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?
A. Forwarding
B. Learning
C. Discarding
D. Blocking
528. On the network shown in the figure, router A adopts link aggregation in manual load balancing mode, and
G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 are added to link aggregation group (LAG) 1. Which of the following statements is false
about Eth-Trunk 1 on router A?
A. If only G0/0/1 on router B is disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.

B. If only G0/0/2 on router B is disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.
C. If both G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 on router B are disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.
D. If both G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 on router B are disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Down.
529. How many bits are there in the Scope field of an IPv6 multicast address?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
530. Which of the following is not the reason why RSTP can increase the convergence speed?
A. P/A mechanism
B. Edge port
C. Quick transition between root port states
D. The Forward Delay timer is canceled
531. What is the length (in bits) of the "Traffic Class” field in the IPv6 packet header?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
532. Which of the following packet types is/are used by the RADIUS server for authentication rejection?
A. Access-Request
B. Access-Accept
C. Access-Reject
D. Access-Challenge
533. As shown in the figure, which of the following ports will become the designated port?
A. G0/0/3 of SWB
B. G0/0/1 of SWC
C. G0/0/2 of SWC
D. G0/0/1 of SWB
534. The routers in the backbone area have information about all the LSDBs of the other areas/
True
False
535. For the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP), the login timeout period can be set only on a VTY interface/
True
False
536. The rules in an ACL may overlap. If packets match the rules with loose conditions, the later ACL rules are not
processed. In this case, packets cannot match the rules with strict conditions. Therefore, the rules with strict
conditions must be arranged in front lines and those with loose conditions must be arranged towards the end.
True
False
537. If AAA authentication is used on Huawei devices and the remote server does not respond, the authentication
can be performed on network devices.
True
False
538. The IKE protocol is used to set up an SA for IPsec automatic negotiation. Identity authentication can be
performed when the IP address of the initiator changes dynamically.
True
False
539. Refer to the graphic. The host has a problem establishing a telnet connection with the router attached to
interface G0/0/0, Which of the following steps can be used to help the administrator identify the problem?
A. Check whether the host has configured the gateway IP address.

B. Check whether the switch has configured the gateway IP address.
C. Use the ping tool to check connectivity between host and router.
D. Check the telnet server configuration is right on the router.
540. Following a failure of services in the network, an administrator discovered that the configuration in one of
the enterprise routers had been changed. What actions can be taken by the administrator to prevent further
changes?
A. The administrator should limit access by setting the login privilege of users to level 0.
B. The administrator should configure AAA to manage user authorization on the router.
C. The administrator should configure an ACL to allow only the administrator to manage the router.
D. The administrator should configure port-security on the router.
541. Which of the following statements are true about ICMP packets?
A. The value of the protocol type field in the IPv4 header of an ICMP packet is 1.
B. The length of the "Checksum" field in an ICMP packet is 8 bits.
C. The length of the "Type" field in an ICMP packet format is 8 bits.
D. The length of the "Code" field in an ICMP packet format is 8 bits.
542. Refer to the configuration output. RTA has been configured using AAA as shown, and associated with the
"huawei" domain. For users in the huawei domain, which authentication-scheme will be used?
[RTA]aaa
[RTA-aaa]domain huawei
[RTA-aaa-domain-huawei]authentication-scheme au1
[RTA-aaa-domain-huaweijauthentication scheme au2
A. au1.
B. au2.
C. au1 will be used. When au1 is deleted, users will use au2.
D. au2 will be used. When au2 is deleted, users will use au1.
543. Which of the following address types are of IPv6 addresses?

A. Unicast address
B. Anycast address
D. Broadcast address
544. Which of the following types of packets are used for IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration?
A. RA
B. RS
C. NA
D. NS
545. Which of the following entries is not included in the routing table?
A. source address.
B. next hop.
C. destination address.
D. cost
2020::2018:ABCB?
A. FF02:1:FF18:ABCB
B. FF02::1:FF18:AB
C. FF02::1:FF18:BC
D. FF02::1:FF20:18AB
547. As shown in the figure, the MAC address table of SWA in as follows. The switch cannot learn the MAC
address of HOST A. Which of the following reasons is impossible?
A. MAC address learning is disabled on G0/0/1 of the switch
B. MAC address learning is disabled in the VLAN to which HOST A belongs
C. G0/0/1 of the switch is configured as an access interface
D. HOST A does not send any data frame.
2019::8:AB?
A. FF02::1:FF08:AB
B. FF02::1:FF20:19
C. FF02::FF08:AB
D. FF02::1:FE08:AB
549. The DHCPv6 server adds the stateful configuration flag (O) to an RA packet. If O is set to 1, which of the
following statements is true?
A. DHCPv6 stateful address configuration is enabled on the client.
B. IPv6 stateless address autoconfiguration is enabled on the client.
C. The client needs to use stateful DHCPv6 to obtain other network configuration parameters.
D. The client needs to use stateless DHCPv6 to obtain other network configuration parameters.
550. Which of the following OSPF packets can be used to confirm the received Link State Update (LSU) packets?
A. LSA
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSACK
551. What is the default deadtime of OSPF on a broadcast network?

A. 10s
B. 20s
C. 30s
D. 40s
552. Which of the following packets needs to be sent when a PPPoE session needs to be terminated?
A. PADO
B. PADI
C. PADT
D. PADR
553. As shown in the figure, which of the following network devices can be used to implement communication
between host A and host B?
A. Hub
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Router
D. Hub
554. If a device running STP receives an RSTP configuration BPDU, it discards the BPDU.
True
False
555. On an STP-enabled switch, TCN BPDUs are sent only when a port on the local switch is faulty.
True
False
556. In the MPLS forwarding process, when MPLS packets pass through the ingress LER, the ingress LER pops out
a label.
True
False
557. On the network shown in the figure, host A logs in to router A through Telnet and obtains the configuration
file of router B through FTP on the remote CLI. How many TCP connections exist on router A?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
558. As shown in the figure, all switches run RSTP, and all ports, connected to the hosts are specified as edge
ports. When G0/0/2 of SWC goes Down, which of the following ports need to learn MAC addresses again?
A. G0/0/5 of SWA
B. G0/0/3 of SWA
C. G0/0/1 of SWB
D. G0/0/1 of SWC
559. Which of the following functions is/are supported by LCP in the PPP protocol?
A. Check the link loop.
B. Negotiate the authentication protocol.
C. Negotiating the network layer address.
D. Negotiate the maximum receive unit (MRU).
560. All interfaces on a router belong to the same broadcast domain.

True
False
561. The packets returned by the DHCP server to the DHCP client must be unicast packets.
True
False
562. On a serial interface, you can configure a static route by specifying the next hop address or outbound
interface.
True
False
563. After a network administrator enables the traceroute function on a router, what is the value of the
"Protocol" field in the IPv4 header of the data packet sent by the router?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 17
564. On a network running STP, which of the following packets is sent by the downstream device to notify the
upstream device of the topology change?
A. Configuration BPDU
B. TC packet
C. TCA packet
D. TCN BPDU
565. When a network engineer enters a command, the following information is displayed:
Error: Unrecognized command found at ‘^’ position
Which of the following statements is true about such information?

A. No keyword is found.
B. The parameter type is incorrect
C. The entered command is incorrect
D. The entered parameter is not
566. A network administrator has been assigned the IP address segment 192.168.176.0/25, from which he/she
must allocate a subnet to support 20 users in the marketing department. Which IP subnet best supports this
requirement?
A. 192.168.176.0/25
B. 192.168.176.0/30
C. 192.168.176.48/29
D. 192.168.176.96/27
567. Which of the following technologies is used by the shared media network to forward data?
A. CSMA/CD
B. CDMA/CD
C. CSMA/AC
D. TDMA/CD
568. Which of the following types of data frames is/are contained in HDLC?
A. I-Frames (user data)
B. S-Frames (control).
C.U-Frames (unnumbered frames)
D. Coding frame (T frame)
569. Which of the following statements are true about PPP?

A. PPP supports both synchronous and asynchronous links at the physical layer.
B. The scalability of PPP is low, so PPP cannot be deployed on Ethernet links.
C. PPP supports both plain text and cipher text authentications.
D. PPP supports various network layer protocols, such as IPCP and IPXCP.
E. In PPP, multiple physical links can be bound to one logical link to increase bandwidth.
interface?
interface Gigabit Ethernet0/0/0
ipv6 enable
ipv6 address 2001:12:1/64
ipv6 address 2019::12:1/64
A. 2001::21:1/64
B. 2019:21:1/64
C. 2018::12:1/64
D. 2020:12:1/64
571. Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be obtained by the host if the DHCPv6 address pool is configured
as follows?
dhcpv6 pool huawei
address prefix 2019:/125
excluded-address 2019::1 to 2019:3
dns-domain-name huawei.com
A. 2019:2
B. 2019:4
C. 2019:6
D. 2019:8
572. Which of the following layers are not included in the TCP/IPv4 model?
A. Application layer
B. Session layer
C. Presentation layer
D. Network layer
E. Transport layer
573. On the network shown in the figure, which of the following commands can be used to enable Router A to
forward data packets with the destination IP address 10.0.3.3?
A. ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.12.2

B. ip route-static 10.0.3.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
C. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
D. ip route-static 10.0.3.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.2.2
574. You can run the "startup saved-configuration backup.cfg" command on the user interface of the Versatile
Routing Platform (VRP) to specify the "backup.cfg" file as the configuration file for next startup.
True
False
575. Which of the following ACLs cannot match network layer information?
A. Basic ACL
B. Advanced ACL
C. Layer 2 ACL
D. User ACL
576. Which of the following statements is true about the edge port in RSTP?
A. The edge port can directly transition from the Disabled state to the forwarding state.
B. Interconnected ports between switches must be configured as edge ports.
C. Edge ports participate in RSTP calculation.
D. The edge port discards the received configuration BPDUs.
577. Refer to the graphic. IPsec VPN uses ESP to encrypt which fields?
A. TCP, Data and ESP Trailer

B. ESP, TCP and Data.
C. ESP, TCP, Data and ESP Trailer.
D. ESP, TCP, Data, ESP Trailer and ESP Auth
578. Which of the following statements is true about an STP-enabled port in Forwarding state?
A. The port forwards user traffic and processes BPDUs.
B. The port only receives and processes BPDUs and does not forward user traffic
C. The port does not process BPDUs or forward user traffic.
D. The port creates MAC address entries based on the received user traffic but does not forward user
traffic.
579. What of the following statements is correct regarding Access Control List types and ranges?
A. A basic ACL value ranges from 1000-2999.
B. An advanced ACL value ranges from 3000-4000.
C. A layer 2 ACL value ranges from 4000-4999.
D. An interface ACL value ranges 1000-2000
580. Which of the following modes are supported by link aggregation?

A. Manual load balancing mode
B. LACP mode
C. Hybrid mode
D. Manual active/standby mode
581. Which of the following IPv6 extension headers can occur twice?
A. Hop-by-Hop Options header
B. Fragment extension header
C. Destination Options header
D. Upper-layer header
582. On the network shown in the following figure, the following static route is configured on Router B. In the
routing table of Router B, the NextHop corresponding 2001::1/128 is ().
ipv6 route-static 2001::1 128 3001::12:1
A. 3001:12:1
B. 3002:12:1
C. 3001:12:2
D. fe80::fe03:c3fb
583. Which of the following IPv4 addresses cannot be used by a host to access the Internet without nat?
A. 100.1.1.1
B. 200.1.1.1
C. 10.1.1.1
D. 50.1.1.1
584. Which of the following PPPoE packets is not transmitted in unicast mode?
A. PADO
B. PADS
C. PADR
D. PADI
585. Which of the following encapsulation modes is/are supported by IPsec VPN?
A. Routing mode
B. Transport mode
C. Tunnel mode
D. Switching mode.
586. Which of the following descriptions about IPv6 addressees are correct?
A. IPv6 addresses are 64 bits in length.
B. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits in length.
C. IPv6 extension headers are processed in order.
D. IPv6 extension headers are processed randomly.
587. [Router] ip pool pool1

[Router-ip-pool-pool1] network 10.10.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0
[Router-ip-pool-pool1] gateway-list 10.10.10.1
[Router-ip-pool-pool1] quit
[Router] ip pool pool2
[Router-ip-pool-pool2] network 10.20.20.0 mask 255.255.255.0
[Router-ip-pool-pool2] gateway-list 10.20.20.1
[Router-ip-pool-pool2] quit
[Router interface gigabitethernet 1/0/0
[Router-Gigabit Ethernet1/0/0] ip address 10.10.10.1 24
[Router-Gigabit Ethernet1/0/0] dhcp select global
After an administrator performs the preceding configurations on the router, which of the following IP ad
A. IP address on the 10.10.10.0/24 network segment
B. IP address on the 10.20.20.0/24 network segment
C. The host cannot obtain an IP address.
D. IP adresses can a host connected to G1/0/0 on the router obtain
588. What is the value of the Type field in RSTP configuration BPDUs?
A. 0x00
B. 0x01
C. 0x02
D. 0x03
589. What is the protocol number of OSPF packets at the network layer?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 89
590. Which of the following statements about Length/Type = 0x8100 in an Ethernet data frame is/are true?
A. The data frame must carry a VLAN tag.
B. The upper layer of the data frame must have an IP header.
C. The upper layer of the data frame must have a TCP header.
D. The upper layer of the data frame must have a UDP header
591. On Huawei switches, VLAN 4095 cannot be created and VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
True
False
592. The following figure shows a routing table. When this router receives a packet with a destination IP address
of 9.1.1.1, the router forwards the packet based on the route 9.1.0.0/16 because the matched bit number in
this route is the largest.
True
False
593. Which of the following must be consistent at both ends of an OSPF adjacency relationship to be established?
A. Router Priority
B. Router Dead Interval
C. Router ID
D. Area ID
594. What are the advantages of the PPP protocol?

A. PPP supports both synchronous transmission and asynchronous transmission.
B. PPP supports negotiation of link layer parameters.
C. PPP supports negotiation of network
D. PPP supports authentication.
595. On the network shown in the figure, the router receives a data packet with the destination IP address
11.0.12.1 from host A. After the packet is forwarded by the router, which of the following are the destination
MAC address and destination IP address of the data packet?
A. MAC-B,11.0.12.1
B. MAC-D,11.0.12.1
C. MAC-C,11.0.12.1
D. MAC-D,10.0.12.2
596. An administrator wishes to configure a floating static route. In order to successfully achieve this, which
operation should be performed?
A. The administrator is required to configure a different preference values for the primary static route
and floating static route.
B. The administrator is only required to configure two static routes.
C. The administrator is required to configure different route tags for the primary static route and floating
static route.
D. The administrator is required to configure a different costs metric for the primary static route and
floating static route.
597. Which of the following fields in an IPv6 header is similar to the TTL field in an IPv4 header?
A. Version
B. Traffic Class
C. Next Header
D. Hop Limit
598. Which of the following can be displayed on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to indicate that GE port 2 on
subcard 0 in slot 3 of a router?
A. interface GigabitEthernet 3/0/2
B. interface GigabitEthernet 3/2/0
C. interface Ethernet 3/0/2
D. interface XGigabitEthernet 3/0/2
599. The multicast address FF02:1 indicates all nodes within the link-local scope.
True
False
600. The root protection function provided by RSTP can take effect only on designated ports.
True
False
601. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is a link-local address?

B. FF02::2EO:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
D. FC00:2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
602. Which type of packets does a DHCP server send to confirm that a host can use the obtained IP address?
B. DHCP Offer packet
D. DHCP ACK packet
603. As shown in the figure, STP is enabled on both switches. Which port is in Blocking state?
A. G0/0/3 of SWA
B. G0/0/2 of SWA
C. G0/0/3 of SWB
D. G0/0/2 of SWB
604. On the network shown in the figure, no gateway is configured for host A, and host B has the ARP cache
entries corresponding to the gateway. If the "ping 11.0.12.1" command is run on host A, which of the
following statements is true?
A. No data packet is sent from host A.

B. The destination MAC address of data frames sent by host A is MAC-C.
C. The destination MAC address of data frames sent by host A is MAC-B.
D. The destination IP address of data packets sent by host A is 11.0.12.1.
605. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is a global unicast address?

A. 2001::12:1
B. FE80::2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
C. FF02:11
D. FF02:2E0:FCFF:FEEF:FEC
606. The router that runs OSPF first enters the Full state and then synchronizes the LSDB.
True
False
607. Telnet is based on TCP.

True
False
608. All ports on the root bridge switch are designated ports.
True
False
609. DHCPv6 clients must obtain both IPv6 addresses and other configurations from the DHCPv6 server.
True
False
610. The router ID of the OSPF-enabled router must be the same as the IP address of an interface on the router.
True
False
611. The solicited-node multicast address consists of the prefix FF02::1:FF00:0/104 and the last 24 bits of the
corresponding unicast address
True
False
612. VLSM can expand any IP network segment, including Class D addresses.
True
False
613. For STP, the default root path cost of the root bridge is 0.
True
False
D. Devices connected to the same bridge form a broadcast domain.
615. Which of the following statements are true about the blackhole MAC address table?
A. Entries are manually configured and delivered to each interface card. The entries cannot be aged out.
B. After a device is reset, an interface card is hot swapped, or an interface card is reset, the saved entries
on the device or interface card are not lost.
C. After a blackhole MAC address is configured on a device, the device discards packets whose source or
destination MAC address is the blackhole MAC address.
D. Blackhole MAC address entries can be used to filter out unauthorized users.
616. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is/are multicast address(es) within the link range?
A. FF02::1
B. FF02::2
C. FF12::1
D. FF12::2
617. On Huawei VRP platform, which of the following can be used to invoke the history command saved by the
command line interface?
A. Upper cursor key
B. Left cursor key
C. Ctrl+P
D. Ctrl+U
618. In which of the following scenarios does the Forward Delay timer exist?
A. The STP-enabled port transitions from Disabled to Blocking.
B. The STP-enabled port transitions from Blocking to Listening.
C. The STP-enabled port transitions from Listening to Learning.
D. The STP-enabled port transitions from Learning to Forwarding.
E. The STP-enabled port transitions from Forwarding to Disabled.
619. Which of the following information must be configured for a DHCPv6 relay agent?
A. DHCPV6 DUID
B. IPv6 address of the DHCPv6 server
C. DHCPv6 address pool
D. DNS server address
620. If the configuration of a port on a switch is as follows, VLAN tags are carried when the port transmits the
data frames of some VLANs. Which of the following is/are among these VLANs?
port hybrid tagged vlan 2 to 3 100
port hybrid untagged vlan 4 6
A. 1,2,3,100
B. 2,3,100
C. 2,3,4,6,100
D. 1,2,3,4,6,100
621. A router has learned two routes for the same network with the same prefix. One route has been learned via
OSPF with a metric of 4882, while the other route has been learned via RIPv2 with a metric of 4. Which
route(s) will be found in the routing table?
A. The RIPv2 route.
B. The OSPF and RIPv2 routes.
C. The OSPF route.
D. Neither of these routes will be found in the routing table.
622. What is the value of the Flag field in the PPP frame format?
A. 0x7E
B. 0x8E
C. 0xFF
D. 0xEF
623. Which of the following storage devices is used to store the startup configuration files in a router?
A. SDRAM
B. NVRAM
C. Flash
D. BootROM
624. Which layer of the OSI reference model does the PPP protocol define?
A. Presentation layer
B. Data link layer
C. Network layer
D. Application layer
625. If the configuration of a port on a switch is as follows, what is the PVID of the port?
port hybrid tagged vlan 2 to 3 100
port hybrid untagged vlan 4 6
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 100
626. A port directly connects to a designated port on the peer device and is used to receive BPDU to monitor the
changes occurring in the network. However, it does not forward any packet. Which of the following ports
represents this port?
A. Root Port.
B. Designated Port.
C. Alternate Port.
D. Disable Port.
627. Which of the following attributes cannot be used to measure costs?

A. Number of Hops
B. Bandwidth
C. Delay
D. sysname
628. IPv6 can also be called ( ).

A. IPng
B. IP+
C. RIPng
D. NextIP
629. Which of the following fields are contained in an ARP packet?

A. Source Hardware Address
B. Source Protocol Address
C. Hardware Type
D. Operation Code
630. Apply the following ACL to Telnet.

acl number 2000
Only the device whose IP address is 172.16.105.2 is allowed for remote login.
True
False
631. When switch port receives a frame that does not carry a VLAN tag, it must add a PVID to the frame.
True
False
632. When using VRP, which of the following commands is used to configure the data link layer encapsulation
type of a serial interface as HDLC?
A. encapsulation hdlc.
B. link-protocol hdlc.
C. hdlc enable
D. link-protocol ppp
633. To establish multiple PPP point-to-point connections in the Ethernet network, a PPPoE server establishes
connections with multiple PPPoE clients on one Ethernet port.
How does PPPoE differentiate between each connection?
A. MAC Address.
B. IP Address and MAC Address.
C. MAC Address and PPP ID.
D. MAC Address and Session-ID.
634. What action does an access port take in the process of sending VLAN frames?
A. The access port sends tagged frames.
B. The access port strips the VLAN tag and forwards the frame.
C. The access port exchanges the VLAN tag of the inbound and outbound port of the frame before
forwarding the frame.
D. The access port attaches its PVID information to the frame.
635. Refer to the graphic. A web server in a private network is required to provide HTTP services to public users.
The network administrator is required to configure NAT on RTA. Which configuration should be used?
A. [RTA Serial1/0/1]nat server protocol tcp global 202.2010.1 www inside 192.168.1.1
B. [RTA-Serial0/0/1]nat server protocol tcp global 192.168.1.1 www inside 202.10.10.1 8080
C. [RTA Gigabitethernet0/0/1]nat server protocol top global 202.10.10.1 www inside 192.168.1.1 8080
D. [RTA-Gigabitethemeto/0/1jnat server protocol top global 192.168.1.1 www inside 202.10.10.1 8080
636. If Proto of a route displayed in the routing table is OSPF, the preference of the route must be 10.
True
False
637. You can run the "mkdir test" command on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to create a folder named
"test" in the system.
True
False
638. A DHCP Offer packet can carry only one DNS server address.
True
False
639. RSTP uses the P/A mechanism to speed up switching of the upstream port state to Forwarding. However, no
loop occurs. Why?
A. The non-root port of the local device is blocked to ensure that no loop occurs.
B. The Forward Delay timer is shortened.
C. Election of port roles is accelerated.
D. Edge ports are introduced
640. Which of the following statements is true about the OSPF DR?
A. The DR is elected in preemption mode.
B. The DR must be the device with the highest priority on the network.
C. If the priority of an interface is 0, the device where the interface resides cannot become the DR.
D. A router with a larger router ID is elected as the DR.
641. If the following information is displayed on a router, the IPv6 address obtained by this interface is ( ).
A. 3000::1/64
B. 2000:1/64
C. 3000::2/64
D. 3000:3000/64
642. What is the destination port number of the DHCPv6 Advertise packets sent by the DHCPv6 server?
A. 546
B. 547
C. 548
D.549
643. Which layer of the OSI reference model does a router work at?
A. Application layer
B. Network layer
C. Transport layer
D. Data link layer
644. According to the following command output on Router C, the source IPv6 address of the OSPFv3 LSUs sent
by Router C is().
A. FE80::2E0:FCFF:FE48:4EC8
B. 2003::1/64
C. 2005::1/64
D. 2009:1/64
645. Which of the following routing protocols can be used to generate default routes?
A. Direct routing
B. OSPF
C. OSPFv3
D. Static routing
646. A client failed to transfer a file to the FTP server, but found the IP connectivity was without problem. The
client assumed that the problem was with the port configuration. The blocking of which ports would likely
cause this problem?
A. 21
B. 80
С. 20
D. 50649
647. Which of the following statements are true about the TTL field in an IPv4 header?
A. The TTL value decreases by 1 each time a packet passes through a Layer 3 device.
B. The TTL field length is 8 bits.
C. When a routing loop occurs, the TTL value can be used to prevent infinite packet forwarding.
D. The TTL value is in the range from 0 to 255.
648. Which of the following modes can be used to generate a DUID for a DHCPv6 device?
A. Link-layer address (LL)
B. Link-layer address plus time (LLT)
C. Link-layer address plus host name (LLN)
D. Link-layer address plus operating system (LLOS)
649. PPP is more secure than HDLC because PPP supports authentication protocols such as ().
A. PAP.
B. MD5.
C. CHAP.
D.SSH.
650. ICMP packets do not contain port numbers. Therefore, NAPT cannot be used.
True
False
651. When a host uses the stateless address autoconfiguration solution to obtain an IPv6 address, the host
cannot obtain the DNS server address.
True
False
652. Which of the following values if the Flag field of an IPv6 multicast address indicates that the multicast
address is a temporary multicast address?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
653. An administrator wishes to manage the router in the remote branch office, which method can be used?
A. Telnet.
B. FTP.
C. Console Connection.
D. DHCP.
654. Which of the following values of the Length/Type field in an Ethernet data frame indicates the PPPoE session
stage?
A. 0x8863
B. 0x8864
C. Ox0806
D. 0x0800
655. As shown in the figure, all switches run STP. Assume that the path cost of all ports is 200. What is the root
path cost contained in the configuration BPDU received by GO/0/4 on SWD?
A. 0
B. 200
C. 400
O 0.600
656. On VRP platform, which of the following parameters can be used together with the "ping" command to
specify the source address of an echo request message?
A. -a
B. -s
C. -d
D. -n
657. Which of the following information is displayed when an entered command is incomplete on the Versatile
Routing Platform (VRP)?
A. Error:Incomplete command found at '^' position
B. Error:Too many parameters found at '^' position
C. Error:Ambiguous command found at '^' position
D. Error: Wrong parameter found at '^' position
658. Which of the following command line views exist on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP)?
A. User view
B. System view
C. Protocol view
D. Interface view
659. Which of the following statements about IPv6 anycast addresses are true?
A. Packets destined for an anycast address are sent to the nearest interface identified based on the routing
distance.
B. Anycast and unicast addresses use the same address space.
C. IPv6 anycast addresses provide redundancy functions for services.
D. IPv6 anycast addresses implement load balancing for services.
660. The priority of static routes cannot be manually specified.

True
False
661. The following configuration commands implement route backup on RTA for a route to the same destination
10.1.1.0.
[RTA]ip route-static 10.1.1.0 24 12.1.1.1 permanent
[RTAJip route-static 10.1.1.0 24 13.1.1.1
True
False
662. Which of the following commands is/are used to set the authentication mode to HWTACACS authentication?
A. authentication-mode hwtacacs
B. authentication-mode local
C. authentication-mode none
D. authorization-mode hwtacacs
663. The DHCP server function is enabled on an interface of a router. What is the gateway address obtained by
the DHCP client?
ip address 11.0.1.1 255.255.255.0
dhcp select interface
dhcp server excluded-ip-address 11.0.1.2 11.0.1.127
A. 11.0.1.1
B. 11.0.1.2
C. 11.0.1.127
D. 11.0.1.255
664. What is the length of the Ethernet_ll frame that contains the Ethernet header?
A. 46-1500B
B. 64-1518B
C. 64-1500B
D. 60-1560B
665. Which of the following commands can be used to view the routing table on the VRP?
A. display ip routing-table
B. display ip forwarding-table
C. display current-configuration
D. display ip interface brief
666. If the values of the M and O flags in the RA packet sent by the DHCPv6 server are 0 and 1, respectively,
which of the following modes is usesd by the host for address autoconfiguration?
A. Stateless address autoconfiguration
B. DHCPv6 stateful autoconfiguration
C. DHCPv6 stateless autoconfiguration
D. The values are meaningless.
667. How does a trunk port process data frames?

A. If the VLAN ID is the same as the PVID of the port and the port allows traffic with this VLAN ID to pass
through, the port removes the VLAN tag from the data frames and forwards them.
B. If the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, the port removes the VLAN tag from the data frames
and then forwards them.
C. If the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, the port replaces the VLAN tag of the data frames
and then forwards them.
D. When the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, the port discards the data frames.
668. Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be configured on a router' s interface?
A. fe80:13dc::1/64
B. ff00:8a3c::9b/64
C. ::1/128
D. 2001:12e3:1b02::21/64
669. In a broadcast address, all host bits are set to 1 and a broadcast address can be used as a host address.
True
False
670. The IPv6 address 2001:ABEF:224E:FFE2:BCCO:CDOO:DDBE:8D58 cannot be abbreviated.

True
False
671. After a device is reset, an interface card is hot swapped, or an interface card is reset, the saved MAC address
entries on the device or interface card are not lost.
True
False
672. When the host accesses web service of the server, the value of the "Protocol" field at the network
layer is 6.
True
False
673. The aggregation port of a router can be configured with a routing sub-interface.
True
False
674. Which of the following commands can be used to enable the DHCP relay function on a router
interface?
A. dhcp select relay
B. dhcp select interface
C. dhcp select global
D. dhcp select server
675. On the VRP platform, the function of the "interface vlan " command is
A. To create a VLAN.
B. To create a VLAN Virtual interface, or to enter a VLAN
interface view.
C. To configure a VLAN for a port.
D. The command does not exist.
676. When forwarding IPv6 packets, a router searches the routing table based on the source IP address of the
IPv6 packets.
False
677. A routing table consists of multiple elements. Which of the following statements is false?
A. Proto indicates the routing protocol used to learn the route.

B. Destination/Mask indicates the address and mask length of a destination network or host.
C. NextHop indicates the local interface address of the route.
D. Pre indicates the priority of the routing protocol.
678. As shown in the figure, which of the following network devices can be used to implement communication
between host A and host B
Router
679. Which of the following statements is true about the Forward Delay timer of STP?
A. Improve the STP convergence speed.
B. Reduce the interval for sending BPDUs.
C. Prevent temporary loops.
D. Delay is required when a port transitions between Blocking and Disabled.
E. Improve the configuration BPDU lifetime, ensuring that the configuration BPDUs can be forwarded to
more switches.
680. An AR2200 router is required to be reconfigured from scratch. Which steps are needed to achieve this?
A. Reset the saved configuration.
B. Clear the current configuration.
C. Reboot the AR2200.
D. Assign the configuration file to be used at next startup.
681. To enable the FTP server function on a router, set the user name and password to "huawei", and set the FTP
root directory to "flash:/dhcp/", which of commands must be configured?
A. ftp server enable
B. local-user huawei password cipher huawei
C. local-user huawei ftp-directory flash:/dhcp/
D. local-user huawei service-type ftp
682. The aggregation port of a router can be configured with a routing sub-interface.
False
683. Which of the following cannot be the length of an IPv4 packet header?
64B
684. Which of the following attributes cannot be used to measure costs?

A. Number of Hops
B. Bandwidth
C. Delay
D. sysname
685. Which of the following technologies can allow a host with IP address 10.0.0.1 to access the internet?
A. Static route.
B. Dynamic route.
C. Route import
D. NAT.
686. By default, in the SNMP protocol, which port number is used by the proxy process to send alarm messages to
the NMS?
A. 161
B. 162
C. 163
D. 164
687. Which of the following are the features of the default VLAN setting in a switch configuration?
A. The default VLAN cannot be deleted manually.
B. By default, all ports on switches are member ports of a default VLAN.
C. A default VLAN must be created before a port is allocated to a VLAN.
D. The IP address configured for a switch is applied only to a member port in the default VLAN.
688. Which of the following statements about link aggregation are true?
A. Eth-Trunk interfaces cannot be nested.
B. GE electrical interfaces and GE optical interfaces cannot be added to the same Eth-Trunk interface.
C. GE interfaces and FE interfaces cannot be added to the same th-Trunk interface.
D. Devices at both ends of an Eth-Trunk must use the same link aggregation mode.
689. Which of the following statements about the "ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2 preference
20" command are true?
A. This route can guide forwarding of the data packets with the destination IP address 10.0.2.2.
B. This route can guide forwarding of the data packets with the destination IP address 10.0.12.2.
C. The next-hop IP address of the route is 10.0.12.2.
D. The preference of the route is 20.
690. Which of the following commands can be used to permanently delete the old device configuration file
<config.zip > ?
A. delete /force config.zip
B. delete /unreserved config.zip
C. reset config.zip
D. clear config.zip
691. The Network Management Station uses SNMP to manage devices, which SNMP message is sent when an
SNMP registered abnormal event occurs?
A. get-response
B. set-request
C. trap
D.get-request
692. By default, all SNMP versions (SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3) are enabled on Huawei ARG3 series routers.
True
False
693. In OSPFv3, router IDs can be automatically generated by the system.

True
False
694. Which of the following elements are included in a routing table?

A. Destination/Mask
B. Protocol
C. Cost
D. Next-hop address
E. Interface
695. On the network shown in the following figure, all interfaces run OSPFv3. How many DRs exist on the
network?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
696. According to the default value of route preference on the VRP platform, which of the following represent the
correct sequence for direct route, static route, RIP and OSPF if they are listed from high preference to low
preference?
A. Direct, Static, RIP, OSPF.
B. Direct, OSPF, Static, RIP.
C. Direct, OSPF, RIP, Static.
D. Direct, RIP, Static, OSPF.
697. Which of the following statements about node segments is false?

A. Node segments are special prefix segments.
B. A node segment is used to identify a specific node.
C. The node SID must be different from the prefix SID of the node.
D. When an IP address is configured for a loopback interface of a node, the prefix SID of the node is the node
SID.
698. On the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP), which of the following commands is used to display the current
interface configuration in the interface view?
A. display users
B. display version
C. display ip interface brief
D. display this
699. On Sx7 series switches, which of the following VLANs can be removed by using command "undo"?
A. vlan 1
B. vlan 2.
C. vlan 1024
D. vlan 4094.
700. An Eth-Trunk interface can be used only as a Layer 2 interface.

True
False
701. During device startup, the device selects a VRP version file depends on the configuration saved in the ( )
storage medium.
A. Flash memory
B. SD card
C. NVRAM
D.USB
702. SNMPv1 defines five protocol operations.

True
False
703. For STP, the Message Age in the configuration BPDUs sent by the root bridge is 0.
True
False
704. A hybrid port can be connected to either a user host or a switch.

True
False
705. In RSTP, an edge port becomes a common STP port after receiving a configuration BPDU.
True
False
706. When the IPsec data encapsulation mode is tunnel mode, the IP address of the intranet host is hidden. In
this way, the security of the entire original data packet is protected.
True
False
707. If the IP address a DHCP client wants to obtain is Occupied, which type of packets does the DHCP server send
to the DHCP client?
B. DHCP Release packet
C. DHCP NAK packet
D. DHCP ACK packet
708. What is the value of the protocol type field in IP packets indicating that the protocol is GRE?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 47
D. 48
709. Which of the following statements about the prefix segment is false?
A. Prefix segments need to be manually configured.
B. A prefix segment identifies the prefix of a destination address.
C. Prefix segments are flooded from one device to others through an IGP. After the flooding, the prefix
segments are visible and effective
D. Prefix segments can be automatically allocated by an IGP.
710.
The preceding information is the "display startup" command output on the AR2260 router. Which of the
following statement:
A. The running configuration file is not saved.
B. The system file used for this startup is ar2220-v200r003cO0spc200.cc.
C. The system file for next startup cannot be modified.
D. You can run the "startup system software <startup-software-name>" command to modify the system file
for next startup.
711. Which of the following statements are true about the dynamic MAC address table?
A. After a device is reset, an interface card is hot swapped, or an interface card is reset, the saved entries on
the device or interface card are not lost.
B. Dynamic MAC address entries are obtained by learning the source MAC addresses of packets received by
an interface, and can be aged out.
C. After a device is reset, an interface card is hot swapped, or an interface card is reset, dynamic MAC
address entries on the device or interface card are lost.
D. You can obtain the number of users communicating on an interface by checking the number of specified
dynamic MAC address entries.
712. On which of the following networks does OSPv3 need to elect a DR?
A. Broadcast network
B. P2P network
C.P2MP network
D. CLNP network
713. Which of the following statements is false about a gratuitous ARP packet?
A. Gratuitous ARP packets are used to check for duplicate IP addresses. Normally, a host does not receive an
ARP Reply packet after sending an ARP Request packet with the destination address of its own IP address. If
the host receives an ARP Reply packet, another host has the same IP address.
B. Gratuitous ARP packets are used to advertise a new MAC address. If the MAC address of a host changes
because its network adapter is replaced, the host sends a gratuitous ARP packet to notify all hosts of the
change before the ARP entry ages out.
C. Gratuitous ARP packets are used to activate gateways when a host is idle.
D. Gratuitous ARP packets are used to notify the active/standby switchover of routers in a VRRP group.
714. Which of the following statements are true about DR and BDR election?
A. A DR must exist on a broadcast network.
B. A BDR must exist on a broadcast network.
C. If the priority of an interface is 0, the interface does not participate in DR or BDR election.
D. If the priorities of the DRs are the same, the router IDs are compared. The router with a larger router ID is
elected as the DR.
715. Which of the following statements is true about link aggregation in manual load balancing mode?
A. In manual load balancing mode, all active interfaces forward data and load balance traffic.
B. A maximum of four active interfaces can be configured in manual load balancing mode.
C. In manual load balancing mode, devices at both ends of a link send LACPDUs to each other.
D. The number of active interfaces can be set in manual load balancing mode.
716. Which of the following option is not included in the basic information contained in the next hop label
forwarding entry (NHLFE)?
A. Next hop of the packet
B. Label action
C. Outbound interface of the packet
D. Inbound interface got the packet
717. Segment routing (SR) extends IGPs to forward data packets on a network based on MPLS using the source
routing technology.
True
False
718. You can run the "pwd" and "dir" commands on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) to view file information
in the current directory.
True
False
719. As shown in the following figure, the router configuration information is as follows. Which of the following
statements is/are correct?
A. The sub-interface numbers of Router A and Router B are different. Therefore, Router A and Router B
cannot communicate with each other.
B. 10.0.12.1 can ping 10.0.12.2.
C. The sub-interface of Router A cannot learn the MAC address of the sub-interface of Router B.
D. The sub-interface of Router B cannot learn the MAC address of the sub-interface of Router A.
720. OSPF allows for "multiple" processes. By default, OSPF selects a process whose number is ().
A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 100
721. As shown in the figure, the MAC address of the switch is marked. The "stp root secondary" command is run
on SWD. Which of the following switches will become the root bridge of the network?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. SWD
722. In the PPP protocol, which of the following algorithms is used by CHAP?
A. DES.
B. MD5.
C. AES.
D. None.
723. According to the following configurations, how many IPv6 addresses have been allocated by the DHCPv6
server?
o
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
724. Which of the following statements is true?

A. Switches work at the network layer,
B. Routers work at the network layer.
C. Switches work at the physical layer.
D. Routers work at the physical layer.
A. The link type of the port is trunk.

D. The port cannot send data frames carrying VLAN tag 200.
726. Which of the following storage devices are supported by Huawei router?
A. SDRAM.
B. NVRAM.
C. Flash.
D. Hard Disk.
727. Which of the following statements are true according to the following configuration?
A. The local router is a DR Other router.
B. The router ID of the DR is 10.0.2.2.
C. The router ID of the DR is 10.0.1.1.
D. The local router and the router whose router ID is 10.0.3.3 cannot directly exchange link state
information.
728. In the MPLS domain, the full name of LER is label egress router.
True
False
729. In terms of security, the tunnel mode is more secure than the transport mode.
True
False
730. Which of the following OSPF packets can be sent to request the local lacking LSAs?
A. HELLO
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSACK
731. If the configuration of a port on a switch is as follows, some VLAN tags are stripped when the port sends data
frames carrying the VLAN tags. Which of the following is/are among these VLAN tags?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
732. Which of the following values in the Protocol field in a PPP frame indicates an IP data packet?
A. 0x0021
B. 0x8021
C. 0x8821
D. 0x8863
733. Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?

A. Source interface.
B. Destination port number.
C. Protocol number.
D. Time-range.
734. When a host uses the IP address 192.168.1.2 to access the Internet, NAT must be performed.
True
False
735. On the network shown in the figure, if all links are Ethernet links and all routers run OSPF, how many DRs will
be elected on the entire network?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
736. 15. The output of the "display ip interface Ethernet 0/0/0" command on router R1 is as follows. Which of the
A. The physical link of Ethernet0/0/0 is normal.

B. The IP address of Ethernet0/0/0 is 10.0.12.1/24.
C. The MTU value of Ethernet0/0/0 is 1480.
D. The broadcast address corresponding to Ethernet0/0/0 is 10.0.12.255.
737. To enable Router A to communicate with loopback 0 on Router B on the network shown in the figure, which
of the following commands needs to be run on Router A?
A. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
B. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.1
C. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 32 Gigabit Ethernet 0/0/0
D. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 0 GigabitEthernet 0/0/0
738. As shown in the following figure, the IPsec tunnel mode is used. Which of the following is the ESP encryption
scope?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
739. Which of the following items are included in static routes?

A. Destination network segment.
B. Next-hop IP address.
C. Outbound interface.
D. MAC address of the outbound interface.
E. Route preference.
740. Which of the following route entries can be aggregated into 10.0.0.24/29?
A. 10.0.0.25/30
B. 10.0.0.23/30
C. 10.0.0.26/30
D. 10.0.0.22/30
741. The data link layer adopts the HDLC encapsulation mode. The IP addresses of the communication parties can
be in different network segments.
True
False
742. The length of an IPv6 address prefix can be represented by a mask.

True
False
743. Which of the following methods is not used for logging in to the VRP system?
A. Telnet.
B. SSH.
C. Web.
D. Netstream.
744. How many extra bits are there in an IPv6 address, compared with an IPv4 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
745. How many types of OSPF packets are available?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
746. Which of the following MAC addresses are not aged out?
A. Static MAC address
B. Blackhole MAC address
C. Dynamic MAC address
D. Port MAC address
747. Which of the following IPv6 addresses corresponds to the solicited-node multicast address of
FF02::1:FFAB:FECA?
A. 2020::FFAB:FECA
B. 2020::EEAB:FECA
C. 2020::FFBA:FECA
D. 2030::BBAB:FECA
748. Before forwarding IPv6 packets, routers do not need to re-encapsulate the data link layer.
True
False
749. Which of the following descriptions about STP designated ports is correct?
A. Each bridge can have only one designated port.
B. Designated ports are responsible for sending BPDU to connected network segments.
C. Designated ports represent the path leading to the root switch.
D. Designated ports forward frames destined for the root switch.
A. The link type of the port is trunk.

D. The port cannot send data frames carrying VLAN tag 200.
751. As shown in the figure, Router A has the following configurations. Which of the following statements are
true?
A. In the routing table of Router A, the next hop of the route to 10.0.2.2 is 10.0.12.2.
B. In the routing table of Router A, the next hop of the route to 10.0.2.2 is 10.0.21.2.
C. If G0/0/1 goes Down, the next hop of the route from Router A to 10.0.2.2 is changed to 10.0.21.2.
D. If G0/0/2 goes Down, the next hop of the route from Router A to 10.0.2.2 is changed to 10.0.12.2.
752. For an STP-enabled switch, a port in any state can transition to the Disabled state.
True
False
753. According to the following configuration of Router C, how many global unicast address prefixes are
advertised by Router C?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
754. Refer to the graphic. Packet encapsulation in the IPsec architecture is performed as shown. Which IPsec
mode is being used to encapsulate the packet?
A. normal mode.
B. transport mode.
C. tunnel mode.
D. this encapsulation is wrong.
755. According to the figure, which of the following statements is true?
A. The IP address mask of host A is different from that of host B. Therefore, host A and host B cannot
communicate with each other.
B. Host A can successfully ping host B.
C. The broadcast addresses of host A and host B are the same.
D. Host A and host B can communicate with each other only when the IP addresses of host A and host B have
the same masks.
756.
Which of the following statements is false about the preceding configuration?
A. The administrator wants to log in to and manage the device through the console port.
B. After the configuration is completed, the administrator cannot remotely log in to the device to manage
the device.
C. The user who logs in to the device through the console port has the highest level of user rights.
D. The password for logging in to the device through the console port is "cipher huawei2012".
757. Which of the following is the default port number of the Telnet server?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24
758. In standard STP mode, which of the following ports on non-root switches forward the BPDUs with TC bits set
generated by the root switch?
A. Root port
B. Backup port.
C. Designated port.
D. Alternate port.
759. Which of the following parameters is/are used to identify a security association (SA)?
A. Security parameter index (SPI)
B. Destination IP address
C. Security protocol (AH or ESP)
D. Source IP address
A. LCP
B. NCP
C. РАР
D. CHAP
761. Which of the following statements regarding static routing and dynamic routing is incorrect?
A. The static routing can be easily configured and managed on the enterprise network.
B. The use of dynamic routing is more convenient for
administrator to manage the network following network convergence.
C. The static routing can automatically recover when a link failure is encountered.
D. Dynamic routing will use more resources than static routes.
762. Which of the following descriptions regarding the ITL field of the IP packet is correct?
A. The TTL defines how many packets the source can send.
B. The TTL defines the duration during which the source can send packets.
C. The TTL value will decrement by 1 each time the packet is routed.
D. The TTL value will increment by 1 each time the packet is routed.
763. In which of the following states can an STP-enabled port transition to the Forwarding state directly?
A. Blocking
B. Disabled
C. Listening
D. Learning
764. If the configuration information of a router is as follows, which user name and password are used by the
peer router to perform PPP link authentication?
A. User name: test

Password: test
B. User name: test1
Password: testi
C. User name: test2
Password: test2
D. User name: test2
Password: test
765. Which of the following statements are incorrect?

A. The preferences for each static routes entry can be different.
B. By default, OSPF maintains preference over RIP.
C. The greater the cost, the better the route is.
D. For those routes to the same destination on VRP platform, the route with a higher preference value is
more preferred over the route with a lower preference value.
766. Which of the following statements about one-arm routing is/are true?
A. Only one physical link is used between the switch and router.
B. On the switch, configure the port connected to the router as a trunk interface and allow frames of related
VLANs to pass through.
C. Sub-interfaces need to be created on.
D. Each VLAN has a physical connection.
True
False
768. The DHCP server also provides configuration information, such as the DNS server address, for hosts.
True
False
769. What is the number range of a basic ACL?

A. 2000-2999
B. 3000-3999
C. 4000-4999
D. 6000-6031
770. The administrator wishes to change name of the router. Under which view should the administrator be in
order to achieve this?
A. User-view.
B. System-view.
C. Interface-view.
D. Protocol-view.
771. Which of the following parameter settings for terminal emulation are correct when configuring a Huawei
router through the Console port?
A. 4800bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, odd parity check, and no flow control
B. 9600bps, 8 data bits, 1 step bits, no parity check and no flow control.
C. 9600bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, even parity check, and hardware flow control.
D. 19200bps, 8 data bits, 1 stop bits, no parity check, and no flow control.
772. Ethernet optical interfaces can work only in ( ) mode.

A. Full-duplex
B. Half-duplex
C. Auto-negotiation
D. Simplex
773. If an IPv6 host hopes that a sent packet can be forwarded by at most 10 routers, which of the following
parameters in the IPv6 packet header needs to be modified?
A. Version
B. Traffic Class
C. Next Header
D. Hop Limit
774. By default, the DUID format used by ARG3 series routers is DUID-LL.
True
False
775. During STP calculation, the port cost is associated with port bandwidth. Which of the following statements
about the relation between port cost and port bandwidth is true?
A. Port cost decreases when port bandwidth increases.
B. Port cost increases when port bandwidth increases.
C. Port cost is consistent with port bandwidth.
D. Port cost varies randomly according to port bandwidth.
776. While inspecting packets in the network, a network administrator discovers a frame with the destination
MAC address of 01-00-5E-A0-B1-C3. What can the administrator determine from this?
A. The MAC address is a unicast address.
B. The MAC address is a broadcast address.
C. The MAC address is a multicast address.
D. The MAC address is incorrect.
777. If the value of the "Type/Length" field of an Ethernet data frame is 0x0800, the length range of the upper-
layer packet header carried by the data frame is from 200 to 60B.
True
False
778. Which of the following features does OSPF have?

A. Routing loops are prone to occur.
B. OSPF provides poor scalability.
C. The shortest path is calculated based on the number of hops.
D. OSPF supports area partition.
779. The users who log on the router through Telnet are not permitted to configure IP address. What is the
possible reason?
A. Communication failures occur between the user and the router.
B. The authentication mode of Telnet is set incorrectly.
C. Privilege level of Telnet is set incorrectly.
D. SNMP parameters are set incorrectly.
780. Which of the following IPv4 addresses is a class A address?

A. 192.168.1.1
B. 127.1.1.1
C. 172.16.1.1
D. 100.1.1.1
A. LCP
B. NCP
С. РАР
D. CHAP
782. If Proto of a route displayed in the routing table is Direct, the preference of the route must be 0.
True
False
783. Ethernet optical interfaces can work only in () mode.

A. Full-duplex
B. Half-duplex
C. Auto-negotiation
D. Simplex
784. A switch receives a VLAN tagged frame, but the destination MAC address can't be found in the switch' s MAC
address table, how will the switch react?
A. The switch will broadcast this frame to all ports.
B. The switch will broadcast this frame to all ports in this VLAN.
C. The switch will broadcast this frame to all access ports in this VLAN.
D. The switch will discard this frame.
785. Which of the following technologies is used to bind MAC addresses to interfaces on a switch?
A. SEP.
B. Port security.
C. ACL.
D. NAT.
786. An end system is unable to communicate with a DHCP server following the startup process. Which IP address
may be used by the client?
A. 0.0.0.0
B. 127.0.0.1
C. 169.254.2.33
D. 255.255.255.255
787. What is the TPID value defined by IEEE 802.1Q?

A. 0x8100
B. 0x8200
C. 0x9100
D. 0x7200
788. Which of the following multicast addresses is used in OSPFv3 to represent all DRs?
A. FF02:5
B. FF02:6
C. FF02:7
D. FF02::8
789. Refer to the graphic. The switch is operating using STP. All default parameters have been maintained. Which
port will be assigned a designated port role?
A. G0/0/1 of switch A.
B. G0/0/2 of switch a
C. G0/0/1 of the hub.
D. G0/0/2 of the hub.
790. The router ID of the OSPF process takes effect immediately after being changed.
True
False
791. On the network shown in the figure, after the OSPF protocol state is stable, what is the neighbor status
between Router B and Router C?
A. Down
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Attempt
792. On a network running Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP), which of the following ports are in Discarding
state when the topology is stable?
A. Root port
B. Designated port
C. Alternate port
D. Backup port
793. On the network shown in the figure, which of the following commands can be used to enable Router A to
forward data packets with the destination IP address 10.0.3.3?
A. ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.12.2

B. ip route-static 10.0.3.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
C. ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2
ip route-static 10.0.3.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.2.2
D. ip route-static 10.0.3.3 255.255.255.255 10.0.2.2
794. Which of the following OSPF packets can ensure LSA update reliability?
A. LSU
B. LSR
C. LSACK
D. DD
795. On the network shown in the following figure, OSPFv3 is enabled on all interfaces. An adjacency cannot be
established between Router A and Router B.
True
False
796. A DHCP server in the enterprise network is being used to allocated IP addresses to hosts. An administrator
discovers however that some hosts are obtaining IP addresses outside of the scope of the DHCP server' s
address pool. What are the possible reasons for this?
A. Another DHCP server exists in the network and is allocating IP addresses to hosts that happen to be within
a closer proximity than the authorized DHCP server.
B. The hosts were unable to discover a DHCP server and therefore generated their own address in the
169.254.0.0 address range.
C. The hosts were unable to discover a DHCP server and therefore generated their own address in the
127.254.0.0 address range.
D. All addresses from the DHCP pool have been assigned.
797. In the DHCPv6 stateless autoconfiguration solution, hosts do not need to send any DHCPv6 packets.
True
False
798. Which of the following packets is used by the DHCPv6 client to respond to the Advertise packet sent by the
DHCPv6 server?
A. Request
B. Offer
C. Advertise
D. Reply
799. In the LCP negotiation phase of the PPP protocol, which of the following packets is sent if all the parameters
sent by the peer end are accepted?
A. Configure-Request
B. Configure-Ack
C. Configure-Nak
D. Configure-Reject
800. If the configuration of a port on a switch is as follows, the VLAN tag is stripped when the port transmits the
data frames of some VLANs. Which of the following is/are among these VLANs?
A. 1,4,5,6
B. 4,5,6
C. 14,6
D. 4,6
801. OSPFv3 itself does not provide the authentication function.

True
False
802. Which of the following options is the simplest form of the IPv6 address
3001:0DB8:0000:0000:0346:ABCD:42BC:8D58?
A. 3001:DB8:346:ABCD:42BC:8D58
B. 3001:0DB8::0000:0346:ABCD:42BC:8D58
C. 3001:0DB8::0346:ABCD:42BC:8D58
D. 3001:088::0346:ABCD:42BC:8D58
803. On the network shown in the figure, all routers run OSPF and the cost value is above the link. Which of the
following is the path for Router A to send packets to 10.0.0.0/8?
A. A-B-D
B. A-D
C. A-C-D
D. RA fails to reach 10.0.0.0/8.
804. Which of the following values if the Flag field of an IPv6 multicast address indicates that the multicast
address is a permanent multicast address?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
805. In the DHCPv6 stateless autoconfiguration solution, hosts do not need to send any DHCPv6 packets.
True
False
806. In which of the following IPv6 addresses has the solicited-node multicast address of FF02::1:FF12:1?
A. 2019::12:1
B. 2019::12:1000
C. 2020::12AB:1
D. 2020::2012:1
807. The basic header of IPv6 packets has a fixed length.

True
False
808. When redundant links exist on a switching network, STP can be used to eliminate loops.
True
False
809. Which of the following statements about the AH protocol in IPsec VPN is/are false?
A. Data source verification is supported.
B. Data integrity check is supported.
C. Anti-replay protection is supported.
D. Packet encryption is supported.
810. Which of the following statements are true about STP BPDUs?
A. STP has two types of packets: configuration BPDU and TCN IPDU.
B. After STP is enabled on a port, the switch periodically sends TCN BPDUs through the designated port.
C. BPDUs are encapsulated in Ethernet frames and the destination MAC address is a multicast MAC address.
D. During initialization, each switch enabled with STP proactively sends configuration BPDUS.
811. Segment routing-traffic engineering (SR-TE) is a new TE tunneling technology that uses SR as a control
protocol. All nodes of an SR-TE tunnel, including the ingress and transit nodes, must be aware of the tunnel
and complete label distribution and forwarding.
True
False
812. What is the value range of the Hop Limit field in an IPv6 header?
A. 0-7
B. 0-15
C. 0-31
D. 0-255
813. Which of the following statements about the configuration of a router is/are correct?
A. The domain with the name of "huawei" uses local authentication.

B. The domain with the name of "huawei" uses local authorization.
C. No accounting scheme is used in the domain named huawei.
D. If the user name "huawei" is used for authentication, the password must be "654321".
B. The router ID of the neighbor is 10.0.1.1
815. The maximum number of VTY user interfaces determines how many users can log in to the device through
Telnet or STelnet at the same time.
True
False
816. Какие из следующих конфигураций могут блокировать связь между хостом А и хостом В?
A. acl number 2000

rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255

traffic-filter outbound acl 2000
B. acl number 2000 rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255
traffic-filter inbound acl 2000
C. acl number 2000
rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255
D. acl number 2000
rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255
817. Какие из приведенных утверждений верны относительно следующих результатов выполнения

команды на маршрутизаторе?
А. Следующим переходом от локального маршрутизатора к 10.0.0.1 является 10.0.12.2.

В. Следующим переходом от локального маршрутизатора к 10.0.0.1 является 10.0.21.2.
С. Следующим переходом от локального маршрутизатора к 10.0.2.2 является 10.0.12.2.
D. Следующим переходом от локального маршрутизатора к 10.0.2.2 является 10.0.21.2.
818. Какие из утверждений верны относительно следующих результатов выполнения команды на

маршрутизаторе R1?
А. Маршрутизатор отбрасывает пакеты, предназначенные для узла 11.0.0.0/8.

В. Маршрутизатор пересылает пакеты, предназначенные для узла 12.0.0.0/8.
С. Пакеты, предназначенные для 11.0.0.0/8, пересылаются через GigabitEthernet0/0/0 на
маршрутизаторе.
D. Пакеты, предназначенные для 12.0.0.0/8, пересылаются через Ethernet0/0/0 на маршрутизаторе.
819. Посмотрите на рисунок. Администратору необходимо запретить доступ всем хостам к сети Интернет
ежедневно с 8:00 до 17:00. Какое правило ACL администратор должен привязать к «traffic-filter
outbound» в конфигурации интерфейса G0/0/1?
A. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 daily
acl number 2001
rule 5 deny time-range am9topm5
B. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 daily
acl number 2002
rulе 5 реrmіt time-range am9topm5
C. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 working-day
acl number 2003
rule 5 deny time-range am9topm5
D. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 off-day
acl number 2004
rule 5 permit time-range am9topm5
820. ACL маршрутизатора имеет правило: rulе dеnу tcp source 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 destination 172.16.10.1
0.0.0.0 destination port eq 21. Какое из следующих утверждений верно?
A. ACL является стандартным ACL.
B. Этому правилу соответствуют все TCP- пакеты с IP-адресом отправителя 192.168.1.1, IP-адресом
получателя 172.16.10.2 и номером порта получателя 21.
C. Этому правилу соответствуют все ТСР пакеты с IP-адресом отправителя 192.168.1.1, IP-адресом
D. Этому правилу соответствуют все TCP-пакеты с IP-адресом отправителя 192.168.1.1, IP-адресом
821. The following figure shows the network topology and OSPF area partition. Routers R2, R3, and R4 are OSPF
ABRs.
True
False
822. Refer to the graphic, after the ping 10.1.1.2 command is executed on R1, LSW1 receives a tagged data frame
from VLAN 10 on LSW2.
True
False
823. As shown in the following figure, which of the following is the authentication scope of the AH protocol in
IPsec tunnel mode?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
824. Which of the following protocols belongs to the link state protocol?
A. Direct routing protocol
B. OSPF
C. FTP
D. Static routing protocol
825. If a 10 GE optical module is used to connect two Huawei S5710 switches, by default the interconnected
interfaces work in full-duplex mode.
True
False
826. After a network administrator enables the traceroute function on a router, what is the value of the “TTL”
field in the IPv4 header of the first packet sent by the router?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 254
D. 255
827. The load balancing modes at both ends of an Eth-Trunk can be different.
True
False
828. A company applies for a class C IP address for subnetting, it has eight branches. The largest branch has a
subnet and should support at least 14 hosts. What would be an appropriate subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.224
829. When a router forwards a data packet, the packet is encapsulated again each time it passes through the data
link layer.
True
False

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1. The IP addresses of VLANIF interfaces on the same switch must be different.

6. The broadcast address of the subnet 192.168.1.0/25 is 192.168.1.128.

15. Which type of ACL does the following command configure?

18. How many port states are involved in RSTP?

21. How many DUIDs can each DHCPv6 client have?

A. A stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.

30. What is the main function of DHCP Discover packets?

33. Which type of IPv6 address is FE80::2E0:FCFF:FE6F:4F36?

36. Which of the following statements is true about direct routes?

43. Which of the following are routing protocols?

A. The OSPFv3 area ID is 0.

A. The router ID of the DR is 10.0.2.2.

A. The router ID of the router is 10.0.2.2.

A. There are 6 collision domains in the network.

65. ACLs on AR G3 series routers, support configuration and auto sequences.

69. In RSTP, a backup port can replace a faulty root port.

72. Which of the following items can be translated by NAPT?

A. dhcp select relay.

85. Which of the following IPv6 addresses is a multicast address?

87. What is the number range of an advanced ACL?

94. What is the default priority of direct routes?

98. What is the broadcast address corresponding to 200.200.200.200/30?

102. What are the ACL categories based on ACL rules?

A. Load balancing will occur in this topology.

A. The PVID on interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1 is 10.

A. The link-local address of this interface is FE80::2E0:FCFF:FE6F:4F36.

120. If a loop occurs on a switching network, a broadcast storm may occur.

124. The length of an IPv6 address is ( ) that of an IPv4 address.

138. Which of the following statements is false about static routes?

A. RTA will immediately forward the frame via interface G0/0/1.1.

144. Which of the following statements is false about ARP packets?

A. The lease time of the IP address is 12 hours.

156. reset saved-configuration

A. OSPF neighbor relationship can be established between the two routers.

158. Which of the following application-layer protocols are based on TCP?

161. What are the advantages of OSPF?

163. PPP supports both unidirectional authentication and bidirectional authentication.

169. In OSPFv3, router IDs can be automatically generated by the system.

171. TFTP is based on TCP.

172. Which of the following is/are not included in AAA?

178. What is the destination address of DHCPv6 request packets?

A. ip route static 10.1.20 24 GigabitEthernet0/0/1

184. Which of the following ports can use HDLC encapsulation?

189. Which of the following routes has the highest priority?

A. Host A and host B cannot ping each other.

207. What packet types are included in DHCP?

224. Which of the following OSPF versions is specific to IPv6?

A. The command used by the network administrator is "ping -C -s 800 10.0.0.2".

229. Which of the following protocols is not a file transfer protocol?

A. Data frames from VLAN 10

239. How does an access port process data frames?

243. Which of the following are Layer 2 ACLs?

A. The OSPFv3 area ID is 0.

A. The router ID of the router is 10.0.2.2.

260. The default bridge priority of a switch is 32768.

261. The VLAN ID to 0.

266. What is the default step of the ACLs on AR G3 series routers?

A. The link type of the port is hybrid.

A. port link-type trunk

280. What is the neighbor state when an OSPFv3 adjacency is established?

287. What are the advantages of using DHCP to allocate IP addresses?

289. Which extension headers is/are supported by IPv6 packets?

305. What is the total length of the port ID in STP?