CLAT Mock - 3 1

CLAT MOCK – 3
ANSWER KEY
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (1)
9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (3) 15. (2) 16. (3)
17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (2) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (4)
25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (2) 29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (3)
33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (1) 36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (2)
41. (4) 42. (4) 43. (4) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (3) 48. (4)
49. (3) 50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (3) 61. (4) 62. (1) 63. (1) 64. (2)
65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (1) 68. (4) 69. (3) 70. (2) 71. (1) 72. (3)
73. (2) 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (3) 78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (4)
81. (3) 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (3) 85. (4) 86. (3) 87. (1) 88. (2)
89. (3) 90. (4) 91. (3) 92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (2) 95. (2) 96. (3)
97. (4) 98. (2) 99. (2) 100. (1) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (1) 104. (4)
105. (2) 106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (1) 110. (2) 111. (1) 112. (2)
113. (2) 114. (2) 115. (2) 116. (1) 117. (2) 118. (3) 119. (2) 120. (2)

EXPLANATIONS

1. Answers: (4) 3. Answers: (2)

The article states that the focus of the
restoration process at Bandipur National
Park is on "removing weeds and replacing
them with native grass species," in order to
restore and manage the park's grasslands.
Option 4 accurately reflects this
information, while the other options are
either too broad or too narrow in their
scope.
2. Answers: (3)
The text states that Lantana camara is one
of the most challenging weeds to remove
due to its thorny nature and tendency to
grow in thickets. The removal process
requires hacking through the thicket,
uprooting the plant, rolling it up, and
pushing it to the side, where it is later burnt.
Despite the efforts of Madaba and his
community, the weeds grow back the
following year, making the removal process
repetitive and challenging. Therefore, option
3 is correct.
Engaging local communities in conservation
efforts at Bandipur National Park creates a
shared sense of responsibility and
accountability for the preservation of the
ecosystem. This is because involving local
communities in conservation efforts makes
them feel like they are an integral part of the
conservation process and that they have a
stake in the success of these efforts. This can
lead to a greater sense of ownership and
pride among the local community, which
can result in their active participation in the
conservation efforts.
4. Answers: (3)
The term used in the passage to describe the
Betta Kuruba tribe's contribution to the
conservation project is "valued". This
implies that their contribution is highly
appreciated and respected. The passage
mentions that only tribals have the expertise
to properly remove the weeds. Hence, the
correct answer is option 3, "valued."

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5. Answers: (3)
'Appealing' means 'attractive or interesting'.
In the given context, the word is used in the
context of the park after the restoration. The
text suggests that the park has become more
inviting towards the visitors after the
restoration.
6. Answers: (1)
The correct answer is option 1. This is
because the author states that 'They did not
find the Africans steady and dependable as
labourers', which suggests that Indian
labourers were more reliable. Moreover, the
author states that Africans were 'content to
live on what they obtained from their land,
and most of them were not eager to work for
wages', which suggests that they were not
interested in manual labour and working for
others.
Option 2 is incorrect because it is
contradictory. Options 3 and 4 are neither
stated nor implied.
7. Answers: (3)
The correct is option 3. This can be derived
from 'When the period of contract was over,
these labourers could return to India, or
remain in South Africa and renew their
contract for a further period of five years, or
settle as free citizens on land allotted to
them by the Government equivalent in value
to the cost of their return passage', which
suggests that Indian labourers could be
enticed to travel and work for the chance to
acquire a plot of land of their own to settle.
Option 1 is contradictory. Option 2 might
seem correct, but this might not be enough
to entice a person to travel away from their
home. Option 4 is not stated.
8. Answers: (1)
The correct answer is 1. 'Poorest in India,
untrained in hygienic habits' suggests that
these labourers are unsophisticated and
uneducated. Options 2 and 3 do not match
the context. Option 4 is contradictory.
9. Answers: (3)
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CLAT Mock - 3 2
The answer can be found from these lines:
'It was expressly laid down by the
Government of India, ... the labourers
should enjoy equality of status after the
period of indenture, and that they should
live under the ordinary law of the land and
not be subject to legislative or
administrative discrimination ... guaranteed
the same rights ...'.
So, option 3 is the correct answer.
10. Answers: (1)
It can be inferred from the passage that the
whites were afraid of the Indians becoming
dominant in the region. This can be derived
from the last paragraph which states: 'The
Indian cultivator ... bringing down the
prices of the white farmer'; 'could easily
under sell the British and the Dutch', and
'they would be swamped by the Indians'.
This suggests option 1 to be correct.
Option 2 is not stated. Options 3 and 4 are
out of context.
11. Answers: (2)
The hint can be derived from ''began to purr
noisily''. 'Purr' is the sound made by a cat.
12. Answers: (2)
The hint can be drawn from ''Without a
moment's hesitation, he opened his mouth
wide and gulped down the poor frightened
creature. That done, he paraded around
proudly, his tail magnificently erect, with
that belonging to the mouse protruding
from his chops. He walked about like this
for a few minutes before leaving the room...''
13. Answers: (1)
The passage mentions ''They had been
friends for many years and often played
these roles to pull the wool over the eyes of
the master of the house.'' 'Pull the wool over
someone's eyes' means to trick or to deceive
someone. However, note the preceding
phrase 'often played these roles'. The author
uses the phrase to emphasise that the two
were in league to deceive the master. There
is no siding, no hide and seek, no saving

themselves (at best it is only to save the
mouse, not Felix).
14. Answers: (3)
Statement (iii) is incorrect as the passage
mentions that later, Felix spat out the
mouse. Statement (i) is also incorrect as the
passage mentions that both of them are
friends.
As the passage cites, ''often played these
roles to pull the wool over the eyes of the
master of the house'', it can be
concluded that Felix gulped the mouse so
that he can save him from his master who
was behind him with a fearsome
instrument. Hence, statement (ii) can be
correctly inferred.
15. Answers: (2)
The hint can be derived from ''asking to be
stroked'' and ''Stretching out his whole
body, Felix started purring even more
loudly, as much for the pleasure he derived
from being stroked.'' As he liked being
stroked i.e. being caressed which is done to
show love, the given option is true.
16. Answer: (3)
The correct answer is option 3. This is
apparent in the first paragraph which states;
'But the Company, from the point it begins
to conquer Indian territory, has no motive
other than profit.' and the beginning of the
second paragraph '... it found that it could
make even more by conquering Indian
territory, taxing Indians and not having to
spend any money to buy the goods it was
then selling.'
17. Answer: (2)
The correct answer is option 2. This is
apparent from the third paragraph where it
is stated: 'That said, by 1947, India did have
the best communications, education and
health care in Asia.' India controlling a large
portion of the world's GDP as a result of
British conquest is negated in the passage;
rather, the passage states this was true when
the British first arrived in India, so option 1
cannot be correct.
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CLAT Mock - 3 3
18. Answer: (2)
The correct parallel relationship to the one
that the author describes in the text is
option 2. The author states: "the East India
Company is working in collaboration with
various Indian bankers and financiers, who
support the Company as the least worst
option in this time of anarchy". The US,
much like the Indian bankers and financiers
goes for the least worst option between
India and China for the transfer of nuclear
technology.
19. Answer: (1)
The answer is option 1. Anarchy is a state of
disorder due to absence or non-recognition
of authority or other controlling systems.
Here the Indian bankers were competing to
fund the East India Company because there
was no single authority with whom they
should be loyal. Other options don't bring
out the meaning of anarchy.
20. Answer: (2)
The correct answer is option 2. The author
argues that the East India Company came to
India for profit and then states that even
when it began to conquer territory, it was
solely for profit. The rest of the passage
describes how the East India Company went
about at acquiring profit.
21. Answer: (2)
Only option 2 cannot be inferred from the
passage. Option 1 can be inferred from the
second paragraph where it is stated:
"Foundational to the colonial interpretation
of Indian history was the British division of
India history into 'periods' labelled in
acordance with the religion of the rulers:
thus the 'Hindu', 'Muslim' and 'British'
periods..."
Option 3 can be inferred from the third
paragraph: "... colonial construction of the
Indian past which even Indians were taught
to internalise. In their reading, Indian
civilisation was seen as essentially Hindu ..."
Option 4 can be inferred from the fifth
paragraph: "The colonial authorities often

asked representatives of the two
communities to self-consciously construct
an 'established' custom, such as by asking
them what the prevailing beliefs and
practices were around cow-slaughter, which
prompted both groups to give an
exaggeratedly rigid version of what they
believed the beliefs and practices should
be!"
Only option 2 cannot be inferred from the
passage.
22. Answer: (1)
The correct answer is option 1. The answer
can be derived from the fourth paragraph
which states; 'the British strategic policy of
divide and rule in which every effort was
made by the imperialists to highlight
differences between Hindus and Muslims to
persuade the latter that their interests were
incompatible with the advancement of the
former.'
23. Answer: (2)
The correct answer is option 2. The answer
is supported by the author's statement that
religious communities were 'mutually
hostile' in the second paragraph. This
suggests that these communities do not
intermingle (indivisible) and besides being
antisocial don't want to learn about other
societies, nor do they want other societies to
learn about them. Given this meaning, all
other options do not match the context of
the passage and so are incorrect.
24. Answer: (4)
The correct answer is option 4. The answer
can be derived from the fourth paragraph
where it is stated: 'By excluding Muslims
from the essential national narrative, the
nineteenth-century colonial interpretation
of Indian history helped give birth in the
twentieth to the two-nation theory that
eventually divided the country.'
25. Answer: (4)
The correct answer is option 4. The author
argues that the British employed this
strategy to heighten the differences between
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CLAT Mock - 3 4
the two religions as well as to persuade each
one that their interests were more important
than those of others. The passage describes
in detail how the British did this and why.
The strategy of divide and rule continuing to
be practiced is not supported in the passage
as this assumes that the British themselves
are continuing the practice, so option 1
cannot be correct.
26. Answer: (2)
Reserve Bank of India Governor Shaktikanta
Das, along with counterparts from
Switzerland and Vietnam, received top 'A+'
ratings in the Global Finance Central Banker
Report Cards 2023 for exceptional
performance in inflation control, economic
growth, currency stability, and interest rate
management.
27. Answer: (1)
Shaktikanta Das, Governor, Reserve Bank of
India (RBI), laid the foundation stone for
establishment of a 'Greenfield Data Centre'
and 'Enterprise Computing & Cybersecurity
Training Institute' in Bhubaneswar, Odisha
on March 22, 2023, in presence of the Chief
Secretary to Govt. The new Data Centre and
Training Institute, which will cover an area
of 18.55 acres, will be able to address the
emerging needs of the RBI and the financial
sector.
28. Answer: (2)
Shaktikanta Das is a retired Indian
Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the
1980 batch from the Tamil Nadu cadre and
has held various key positions in the Indian
government before becoming the RBI
Governor. Shaktikanta Das was appointed
as the 25th Governor of the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) on December 12, 2018. He
succeeded Urjit Patel, who had resigned the
day before.
Raghuram Rajan was the 23rd Governor of
the Reserve Bank of India between
September 2013 and September 2016.
Therefore, option 2 is the answer.

29. Answer: (4)
The deputy governor of the Reserve Bank of
India is the second most senior executive of
the Reserve Bank of India after its governor.
Since its establishment in 1934 by the
government of India, the RBI has had 63
deputy governors. Currently, the rank of
deputy governor is equivalent to the rank of
secretary to the Govt. of India. The term of
office typically runs for three years and can,
in some cases, be extended for another two
years.
In June 2023, the Appointments Committee
of the Cabinet selected Swaminathan
Janakiraman, the Managing Director of the
State Bank of India, as the Deputy Governor
of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Mr.
Swaminathan would have a tenure of three
years from the date of joining, or until
further orders, whichever is earlier.
Swaminathan Janakiraman replaced Deputy
Governor M. K. Jain, whose term ended in
June 2023. Jain was appointed as a Deputy
Governor in June 2018 for three years. He
was re-appointed in June 2021 for a further
two-year period.
30. Answer: (3)
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor
Shaktikanta Das was awarded the "Governor
of the Year" at the Central Banking Awards
2023 in London. Central Banking is a
London-based international economic
research journal. Das is the second RBI
governor to receive the award after
Raghuram Rajan, who was given the title in
2015.
31. Answer: (1)
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) was
established on April 1, 1935, in accordance
with the provisions of the Reserve Bank of
India Act, 1934. It was founded during
British colonial rule and was originally set
up as a private shareholders' bank. It serves
as the central bank of India and plays a
pivotal role in regulating the country's
monetary policy, issuing currency notes, and
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CLAT Mock - 3 5
overseeing the banking and financial
sectors. The RBI's establishment marked a
significant milestone in India's economic
history, as it introduced a centralised
authority for monetary and financial
matters.
32. Answer: (3)
The East Asia Summit (EAS) was held in
Jakarta when External Affairs Minister S.
Jaishankar discussed "outstanding issues"
along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) with
top Chinese diplomat Wang Yi. The EAS is
an annual forum where leaders from East
Asian countries come together to discuss
political, security, and economic issues in
the region.
33. Answer: (2)
China and India are the two neighbouring
countries in Asia. India shares 3488 km of
border with China that runs along Ladakh,
Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Uttarakhand
and Arunachal Pradesh. Arunachal Pradesh
shares 1126 km of border with China, the
longest for any Indian state. China and
Arunachal Pradesh share a border, which is
called McMahon Line.
34. Answer: (3)
The 96-hour multi-domain air and land
exercise conducted by the Indian Army and
Air Force in the eastern sector amid the
ongoing stand-off between India and China
at the Line of Actual Control (LAC) was
named 'Vayu Prahar.' The main objective of
this exercise was to formulate plans that
could lead to synergy in multi-domain
operations, enhancing the preparedness and
coordination between the two forces in the
face of security challenges along the border.
35. Answer: (1)
The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation
(SCO) is a Eurasian political, economic,
international security and defence
organisation established by China and
Russia in 2001. It is the world's largest
regional organisation in terms of geographic
scope and population. As of 2023, the SCO

grouping comprises China, India, Iran,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia,
Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. Iran gained full
membership of the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation (SCO) at the end of the 23rd
summit of the SCO Council of Heads of
States in July 2023. In addition to the 9
member states and 3 observers, the SCO
currently has 14 dialogue partners and 4
guest attendance entries.
36. Answer: (1)
The G20 or Group of 20 is an
intergovernmental forum comprising 19
sovereign countries, the European Union
(EU), and the African Union (AU). In
September 2023, at the 18th G20 Summit,
Indian PM Narendra Modi announced that
the African Union has been included as a
member of the G20, making it the 21st
member. G20 works to address major issues
related to the global economy, such as
international financial stability, climate
change mitigation and sustainable
development.
37. Answer: (2)
On September 2, 2023, the Nobel
Foundation found itself at the center of
controversy when it initially extended
invitations to representatives from Russia,
Belarus, and Iran to attend the 2023 Nobel
Prize award ceremonies in Stockholm.
However, this decision triggered strong
reactions and criticisms in Sweden, largely
fueled by concerns over Russia's invasion of
Ukraine, human rights issues in Iran, and
Belarus' political situation.
In response to the backlash, the Foundation
defended its initial decision, highlighting its
goal of spreading the values and messages of
the Nobel Prize. Nevertheless, it
acknowledged that the controversies had
overshadowed this message. Consequently,
the Foundation announced a reversal,
opting not to invite the ambassadors of the
aforementioned countries to the award
ceremony in Stockholm while maintaining
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CLAT Mock - 3 6
the tradition of inviting all ambassadors to
the Nobel Peace Prize ceremony in Oslo.
38. Answer: (4)
The incorrect statement is B. While the
Nobel Prize is indeed awarded annually, it is
not awarded in the category of mathematics.
The Nobel Prizes are awarded in the
following six categories: Physics, Chemistry,
Medicine or Physiology, Literature, Peace,
and Economic Sciences. Mathematics is not
one of the Nobel Prize categories.
Statement A is correct because it specifies
that the Nobel Peace Prize is presented in
Oslo, Norway, while the rest are presented
in Stockholm, Sweden.
39. Answer: (1)
Nobel Prizes were first awarded in the year
1901. These prizes were established by the
will of Alfred Nobel, a Swedish inventor,
scientist, and philanthropist. Nobel's will
specified that his fortune should be used to
create prizes to honor individuals who had
made significant contributions to humanity
in the fields of Physics, Chemistry, Medicine
or Physiology, Literature, and Peace. The
first Nobel Prizes were awarded in these
categories in 1901, marking the beginning of
an annual tradition that continues to this
day.
40. Answer: (2)
Alfred Bernhard Nobel was a Swedish
chemist, engineer, inventor, businessman,
and philanthropist. He is known for creating
dynamite as well as having bequeathed his
fortune to establish the Nobel Prize. He also
made several important contributions to
science, holding 355 patents in his lifetime.
Nobel's most famous invention was
dynamite, an explosive using nitroglycerin;
it was patented in 1867.
41. Answer: (4)
Rabindranath Tagore was the first Indian to
receive a Nobel Prize, and he received it in
the field of Literature for his collection of
poems titled "Gitanjali" (Song Offerings) in
1913.

Rabindranath Tagore, a prominent figure in
the Indian Renaissance, was a multifaceted
genius known for his contributions to
literature, philosophy, music, and the arts.
However, it was his profound and lyrical
poetry that earned him international
acclaim and the prestigious Nobel Prize in
Literature.
C.V. Raman received the Nobel Prize in
Physics in 1930 for his discovery of the
Raman Effect, which explained the
scattering of light.
Har Gobind Khorana received the 1968
Nobel Prize in Medicine for his
groundbreaking work on the genetic code.
Mother Teresa was awarded the 1979 Nobel
Peace Prize for her unwavering commitment
to serving the impoverished and sick.
42. Answer: (4)
Ramon Magsaysay Award is known as the
"Nobel Prize of Asia" and has been awarded
annually since 1958 to individuals and
organizations in Asia for their exceptional
contributions to society and humanitarian
efforts.
It is an annual award established to
perpetuate former Philippine President
Ramon Magsaysay's example of integrity in
governance, courageous service to the
people, and pragmatic idealism within a
democratic society.
Indian surgical oncologist R. Ravi Kannan,
Director of the Cachar Cancer Hospital and
Research Centre (CCHRC) in Assam, was
one of the Ramon Magsaysay Awardees for
2023. He is credited with revolutionising
cancer treatment in Assam through people-
centric and pro-poor healthcare.
43. Answer: (4)
Southeast Asian leaders decided that
Myanmar won't take over the rotating
leadership of their regional bloc as
scheduled in 2026. The move is a new blow
to the ruling generals seeking international
recognition after seizing power in 2021.
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CLAT Mock - 3 7
The Philippines agreed to take over the
regional bloc's chairmanship in 2026 at an
ASEAN summit hosted by Indonesia on
September 5, 2023, as announced by
Philippine President Ferdinand Marcos Jr.
Western governments have condemned the
Myanmar military's removal of Aung San
Suu Kyi's democratically elected
government and have demanded her release
from detention, along with other officials.
ASEAN's leadership rotates annually based
on the alphabetical order of the English
names of the member states.
44. Answer: (3)
On September 10, 2023, India formally
transferred the G20 presidency to Brazil
during the closing ceremony of the annual
summit held in New Delhi on September 9-
10, 2023. Prime Minister Narendra Modi
marked this transition by presenting the
symbolic G20 presidency gavel to Brazil's
President Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva.
India had assumed the G20 presidency on
December 1, 2022, succeeding Indonesia,
and would continue to hold this position
until November 30, 2023.
South Africa would host the G20 Summit in
the year 2025.
45. Answer: (4)
All the given statements are true, therefore
option 4 is the answer.
The 2023 G20 New Delhi summit was the
eighteenth meeting of G20 (Group of
Twenty). It was held in Bharat Mandapam
International Exhibition-Convention Centre,
Pragati Maidan, New Delhi on September 9
and 10, 2023.
The 2023 G20 Summit marked the
inaugural G20 summit hosted by India. It
centered its discussions around the theme of
'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam', which translates
to "One Earth, One Family, One Future".
46. Answer: (3)
The G20, or Group of Twenty, was formed
in 1999 as a response to late-1990s financial
crises. It comprises 19 individual countries,

the European Union, and the African Union
(the latest addition in 2023).
The G20's primary purpose is to foster
international economic cooperation and
policy coordination. Its meetings focus on
economic and financial issues, striving for
global stability, sustainable growth, and
cooperation among member nations. The
G20 has become a key player in shaping
global economic policies and responding to
financial crises.
47. Answer: (3)
The G20 holds a multi-year mandate to
ensure institutional continuity. There has
been a tradition of inviting a few non-G20
member countries as guests as well
international organisations. These countries
vary from year to year, except Spain, which
is a permanent invitee.
48. Answer: (4)
A sherpa is the personal representative of a
head of state or head of government who
prepares an international summit, such as
the annual G7 and G20 summits. India's
G20 2023 Sherpa was Amitabh Kant,
former CEO of NITI Aayog, who was
appointed in July 2022, well in advance of
India's G20 Presidency. Kant replaced
Union Minister Piyush Goyal who stepped
down due to workload.
It needs to be noted that the country needed
a full-time Sherpa for G20 which was
unlikely with Goyal since the latter was
already holding a series of ministerial
responsibilities.
49. Answer: (3)
Lambani embroidery is predominantly
practiced in the state of Karnataka, India.
The Lambani community, also known as the
Banjara community, is well-known for their
exquisite embroidery work, which is an
integral part of their cultural heritage. This
traditional embroidery style reflects the
artistic skills and cultural richness of
Karnataka's local communities, making it a
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CLAT Mock - 3 8
living testament to India's diverse cultural
heritage.
50. Answer: (3)
Pralhad Venkatesh Joshi is an Indian
politician who is the union Minister of
Parliamentary Affairs, Coal and Mines of
India as in 2023, since May 30, 2019 and
Member of Parliament in the Lok Sabha,
since 2004, representing the Dharwad Lok
Sabha constituency. He was also the State
President of Bharatiya Janata Party,
Karnataka (BJP) from 2014 to 2016. He
served in the panel of chairpersons of Lok
Sabha (2014-2018).
51. Answer: (3)
The third G20 Culture Working Group
(CWG) meeting witnessed a historic
moment with a Guinness World Record in
Hampi, Karnataka, India. During this event
titled 'Threads of Unity,' a significant
achievement was made by establishing the
'largest display of Lambani items,'
showcasing the cultural heritage and
craftsmanship of the Lambani community in
the region.
52. Answer: (3)
In 2023, the United States repatriated 105
trafficked antiquities back to India. These
artifacts, which included religious and
culturally significant items spanning several
centuries, were returned to India as part of
an effort to combat illegal trafficking of
cultural heritage and preserve the country's
historical treasures. The repatriation reflects
the cooperation between the United States
and India in safeguarding and protecting
cultural artifacts from illicit trade and
ensuring their rightful return to their
country of origin.
53. Answer: (3)
Dholavira is an archaeological site at
Khadirbet in Bhachau Taluka of Kutch
District, in the state of Gujarat.
Ramappa Temple, also known as the
Rudreshwara temple, is a Kakatiya style

Hindu temple dedicated to the Hindu god
Shiva, located in Telangana, India.
The Victorian Gothic and Art Deco
Ensembles of Bombay is a collection of 19th-
century Victorian Revival public and 20th-
century Mumbai Art Deco private buildings
in the Fort precinct of Mumbai.
54. Answer: (2)
In 2023, during the Yoga Day event held in
Surat, Gujarat, a new Guinness World
Record was established for the largest
gathering in a yoga session at a single
location, with an impressive participation of
1.53 lakh people. This achievement
surpassed the previous world record set in
2018 in Kota, Rajasthan, where 1,00,984
individuals had participated in a Yoga Day
session at one place.
55. Answer: (2)
Andhra Pradesh is renowned for its
exquisite art form known as Kalamkari, a
craftmanship derived from the Persian
words "qalam" (pen) and "kari"
(craftmanship). This traditional art is
particularly celebrated for its major forms,
including Srikalahasthi from Chittoor
district and Machilipatnam Kalamkari of
Krishna district, showcasing the state's rich
cultural heritage and artistic prowess.
Madhubani painting, also known as Mithila
painting, has a rich cultural heritage and a
long history in the Mithila region of Bihar.
56. Answers: (3)
As to Civil Court jurisdiction, there is
nothing provided in the passage; hence, no
conclusive things can be said here in this
regard.
57. Answers: (2)
As given in the passage, the Act will only
have prospective operations, so any excess
amount cannot be claimed if it was paid
earlier.
58. Answers: (3)
Shop being a commercial property, a
maximum of 6 months' rent can be
demanded as security.
_________________________________________________________________________________
CLAT Mock - 3 9
59. Answers: (4)
The Model Tenancy Act, 2021 has largely
kept properties owned by religious institutes
away from its purview.
60. Answers: (3)
The Act defines a premise as a building or a
part of a building intended to be given out
on rent, except a hotel, lodging or property
in industrial use.
61. Answers: (4)
There was no demand for dowry as A had
only expressed his wish that B ask her father
to help him in getting a loan from bank. No
doubt there was a demand, but it cannot be
presumed that it led to her committing
suicide, thereby amounting to the offence of
dowry death.
62. Answers: (1)
Alok is not liable for dowry death as he had
not made any demand for dowry, nor was
there any cruelty meted out to Avni. Also,
there was no marriage solemnised between
Alok and Avni to hold Alok liable for causing
dowry death of Avni.
63. Answers: (1)
Raj is not liable for dowry death as the
Section related to dowry death clearly
mentions that the death should occur within
7 years of marriage. However, in the given
facts, death occurred after 10 years of
marriage.
64. Answers: (2)
A is not liable for dowry death. Though he
had arguments with B for dowry and that
there was cruelty against her, the facts are
clear that death was caused due to accident.
Therefore, A is not liable for the death of B.
65. Answers: (2)
The death was not due to dowry demand but
because of A giving birth to a girl child C.
66. Answer: (2)
'Ubi jus ibi remedium' is a Latin phrase
which means 'where there is a wrong, there
is a remedy'. It was wrong on the part of Mr.
White to not allow the vote of Mr. Ashby.
Hence, there must be a remedy, i.e. damage.

67. Answer: (1)
Actio personalis moritur cum persona
means 'a personal right of action dies with a
person'. The actions of torts are destroyed
by the death of injured or the injured party.
The cases cannot be passed over to the next
person, other than the person himself.
68. Answer: (4)
Robbing a safe is a dishonourable case, and
no action of tort can arise from it.
69. Answer: (3)
In a common notion, the statement is not
defamatory, but if the full facts are known,
the statement is definitely derogatory on a
lady and hence, defamatory.
70. Answer: (2)
It was a case of res ipsa loquitur, i.e. 'the
thing speaks for itself'. It is a general human
knowledge that things don't generally fall
out of windows unless someone hasn't taken
care to block the window or hasn't ensured
that items on the floor are properly stored.
71. Answer: (1)
This is the best option because of its
emphasis on the scenario that Amit was
falsely induced by the Anand by highlighting
the production capacity of the factory. Profit
is not a factor here because it is a market
variable and changes every time, but
production capacity remain constants unless
some improvements are made to the
infrastructure or labour force.
72. Answer: (3)
On reading the passage, it is clear that both
of the statements can be inferred from the
highlighted text. The word "merely" in the
question stem suggests the first option and
the words "the court will not enforce it" give
the impression that the second statement is
also true. Therefore, "Both 1 and 2" is the
right answer.
73. Answer: (2)
In the starting of the passage, how to
constitute a valid agreement is explained.
Consideration is one of the factors in it.
Therefore, Ashu's agreement with his father
_________________________________________________________________________________
CLAT Mock - 3 10
is not valid because of the lack of
consideration.
74. Answer: (1)
Only option 1 presents an example of a
quasi-contract because here, by consuming
the food, Rohan has the obligation to pay for
the food. Had he not consumed it, no
liability would have been imposed on him.
75. Answer: (4)
Penthouse was a matter of fact essential to
the agreement, and the same had been
destroyed in the fire outbreak. Therefore,
the agreement is void.
76. Answer: (2)
The act of causing death was purely an
accident and Pandey Ashutosh is protected
under Section 80, as it was an unintentional
act and was done without any criminal
intention and the shot was fired in the belief
of a hyena being at that spot.
77. Answer: (3)
For the first part of the question, Abdul will
not succeed in taking the defence of Sec. 81
of the IPC, as it was not the case of
necessity. And, for the second part of
advising him further, he can take the
defence of Sec. 80 as it was the case of an
accident. Therefore, "Both 1 and 2" is the
right answer.
78. Answer: (3)
All four of them are the ingredients for the
applicability of Sec. 80, defence of accident.
All of them are clearly mentioned in the
passage.
79. Answer: (1)
The High Court was correct in its
observation. From the facts of the case, it is
clear that there was no criminal intention or
foul play inferred from the actions of Khali.
It was an accident.
80. Answer: (4)
Celebratory firing in the marriage
procession is not the proper use of a pistol;
and when you are firing in the procession,
there is all likelihood that it will hit
someone. In the instant case, Ahlawat did

not take proper care and caution; hence, he
cannot take the defence of accident.
81. Answer: (3)
The passage clearly states that for the
British agenda of colonisation and
conversions to succeed, the temple
organisation had to be weakened. Therefore,
it could be fairly concluded that the main
agendas for the control of the temple
administration were conversion and
colonisation.
82. Answer: (1)
A state should not be allowed to have any
control over religious affairs. State and
religions are both separate things.
83. Answer: (2)
The main theme of the passage is to oppose
the control of state on Hindu temples. Here,
in the instant case, the state government
taking control of temples appears to be
draconian in nature and also it is a trespass
in the domain of religious affairs.
84. Answer: (3)
State control does not ensure anything. The
state should focus on its resources and
energy on non-religious affairs instead of
always meddling in the religious bodies.
85. Answer: (4)
Both the arguments put forward in options 1
and 3 are tenable and have logical standing.
Temple is a religious body, and not a secular
body, so its fund should also be used for
religious purposes only. Another thing is
that giving authority to the managing
committee to use the temple property for
contributing to any fund is prone to be
misused. Therefore, both 1 and 3 are correct
options. Hence, the fourth choice is the
correct answer.
86. Answers: (3)
The main idea of the author in the given
passage is that the increasing prevalence of
diabetes in India is a significant concern,
highlighting the burden of non-
communicable diseases in the country. The
author emphasises the need for immediate
_________________________________________________________________________________
CLAT Mock - 3 11
action to address this crisis, including
grassroots-level policy-making, raising
awareness about healthy diets, and
addressing gaps in tobacco regulation. The
author suggests that the lifestyle crisis in
India, driven by factors such as poor lifestyle
choices, unhealthy food promotion, and
sedentary work culture, must be urgently
dealt with to mitigate the rising incidence of
diabetes and other NCDs. Option 3 is the
best choice.
Option 1 is limited to a minor point
discussed in the passage, hence incorrect.
Option 2 is incorrect; the passage does not
provide comparative data to assert that
India has the highest burden globally.
Option 4, though true, refers to only a part
of the passage. This is not the central theme
of the passage.
87. Answers: (1)
The passage discusses how diabetes is no
longer limited to being a disease of the
wealthy and how there is a wide but
shrinking rural-urban disparity in its
prevalence. It also highlights that a large
segment of the population is vulnerable to
diabetes and emphasises that it is no longer
the "proverbial rich man's disease."
Therefore, the author would likely agree that
diabetes is affecting various segments of the
population. Option 1 is the answer.
Option 2 is incorrect. The passage states
that India has experienced a significant
increase in the incidence of diabetes, but it
does not provide information or data to
suggest that the increase is happening
'exponentially'.
Option 3 is incorrect due to the word 'best';
it is important to note that eliminating
diabetes entirely requires a more
comprehensive approach.
Option 4 is incorrect. The passage only
mentions, 'The data further revealed
massive anomalies between the states ...
their pre-diabetes numbers were higher
than the national average.'

88. Answers: (2)
Statement 2 provides evidence supporting
the link between unhealthy lifestyle choices
and the increasing prevalence of non-
communicable diseases. It aligns with the
author's concern about the lifestyle crisis
and the need to address it. The fact that
recent studies have established this direct
correlation strengthens the argument for
taking action to tackle the lifestyle crisis and
its associated health consequences.
Option 1 is incorrect. This could potentially
weaken the argument for dealing with the
crisis, as it implies that the efforts may not
be sufficient to alleviate the economic
burden.
Option 3 is incorrect; it does not provide
specific evidence or relevance to the
situation in India or the urgency of dealing
with the lifestyle crisis.
Option 4 rather weakens the argument. This
implies that addressing the lifestyle crisis
may not be effective or worthwhile, which
contradicts the author's viewpoint that the
crisis must be dealt with.
89. Answers: (3)
The mention of the recent study conducted
by the Indian Council of Medical Research
provides concrete evidence to support the
author's claims about the severity of the
diabetes crisis in India. By referring to the
study's findings, such as the increase in the
number of people with diabetes and the
prevalence of pre-diabetes, the author
strengthens their argument and adds
credibility to their statements. Option 3 is
the answer.
Option 1 is incorrect, as no comparison with
the real situation can be inferred from the
passage.
Option 2 is incorrect, as the author does not
argue that the claim is exaggerated.
Option 4 is a distractor. The study is
mentioned to reveal the extent of the
diabetes crisis in India and highlight the
burden of non-communicable diseases. It
_________________________________________________________________________________
CLAT Mock - 3 12
does not serve as a premise to argue about
the promotion of junk food.
90. Answers: (4)
Option 4 focuses on addressing one of the
key factors contributing to the rising cases
of diabetes in India. By implementing
stricter regulations, such as limiting the
marketing and availability of unhealthy food
and beverages, the consumption of these
products can be reduced. This can lead to
healthier dietary choices and ultimately
contribute to the prevention and control of
diabetes.
Option 1 is incorrect; while important for
managing the disease, this option may not
address the root causes of the rising cases of
diabetes in the population.
Option 2 is incorrect; while this option
focuses on early detection, it does not
directly address the underlying causes or
prevention of diabetes.
Option 3 again fails to control the rising
cases of diabetes; it is also limited to
treatment only.
91. Answers: (3)
The context mentions that "she was being
credited for looking into the feasibility of a
four-day working week." However, if option
3 is true, i.e., the idea was taken from a
neighbouring country, it would refute the
author's statement that she came up with
the idea.
92. Answers: (4)
Option 1 neither supports nor weakens the
argument for a four-day working week. It
just states a related fact. Option 2 states that
a five-day working week is more favourable
than a four-day working week. Option 3
weakens the argument for four-day working
week. Only option 4 strengthens the
argument for a four-day working week from
the viewpoint of employees.
93. Answers: (2)
The author mentions "Finns work on
average about 40 hours over a five-day work
week, according to the statistics office, but

unemployment remains high and many have
fallen outside the work force." as evidence in
favour of a four-day working week. This
disproves the idea that the present five-day
working week needs no change. Even Sanna
Marin questions it: "A four-day work week,
a six-hour workday, why couldn't that be the
next step? Is eight hours the final truth?"
94. Answers: (2)
From the last few lines in the passage:
"Finns work on average about 40 hours over
a five-day work week, according to the
statistics office, but unemployment remains
high and many have fallen outside the work
force. That's prompted a broad debate on
work in Finland in recent years, including
the first nationwide experiment on a form of
basic income run by the previous center-
right government in 2016-2018." it can be
inferred that it may be one of the solutions
to the rising unemployment in Finland. So
option 2 is correct. Option 1 cannot be
inferred as nothing of the sort is mentioned
in the passage.
95. Answers: (2)
Option 2 is the best answer as it highlights
the two major benefits of a four-day working
week stated in the passage. It would be
beneficial for the workers as it will help
them spend time with their families. It
would also benefit the country as a whole by
possibly reducing unemployment, as
suggested in the passage.
96. Answers: (3)
The text states the essence of the sentence in
another line in the passage: '... people
cognisant of their rights'. This is best
expressed in option 3.
97. Answers: (4)
The main reason that is mentioned in the
passage for the mounting number of
pending cases is the shortage of judges. This
is stated in the lines 'The Economic Survey
2018-19 pins the blame for the clogged
courts on the acute shortage of judges in the
_________________________________________________________________________________
CLAT Mock - 3 13
country. As per Law Ministry data, India has
just 19 judges per 10 lakh people.'
98. Answers: (2)
The text mentions 'Punjab and Haryana
High Court accounts for the second highest
number of pending cases ...' which means
that option 1 is incorrect.
Options 3 and 4 are not referred to in the
passage.
Option 2 can be inferred from the lines 'The
Law Commission's recommendation to
increase the ratio to 50 judges is gathering
dust ...'
99. Answers: (2)
If option 2 is considered true, it would cast
doubt upon the conclusion made by the
author in the passage. Option 2 states that
flaws have been detected in the survey
which were later removed. If there are flaws
in the survey, it won't be reliable.
100. Answers: (1)
Statistics of the number of cases pending
and the number of judges in office to deal
with them in Punjab and Haryana High
Courts is presented by the author as
evidence of the worrisome scenario. So it
offers one of the premises of the argument.
So the correct answer is 1.
101. Answers: (3)
Explanation – Option 3 most
comprehensively tackles the conclusion of
the passage. It specifies the need of the
legislation, which takes into account both
consumer's rights and recognition to protect
competitive edge of a business. Option 1 is
incorrect as it tries to conflate the topic of
'obsoleteness' as a central idea. Option 2 is
incorrect as no such view can be inferred.
Option 4 is also incorrect as it is a
supporting fact for the overall context of the
passage and not the main idea.
102. Answers: (2)
Explanation – Here, the complete
ownership translates to more than simply
owning the product. Apart from owning the
product, one must also have the right to

repair and modify the product as he/she
chooses. This will ensure that one has
'complete ownership'. Option 1 is incorrect
as no 'obligation' can be inferred. Similarly,
option 4 is also incorrect as no such
'justification' is mentioned, nor can it be
inferred. Option 3 is incorrect as it reverses
the intended meaning. Instead of possessing
right to repair based on complete
ownership, one is considered to have
complete ownership when he/she possess
right to repair.
103. Answers: (1)
Explanation – Option 1 accurately
strengthens the statement. It highlights that
repairing is indeed expensive than buying a
new phone, as spare parts have become
extremely expensive. Options 2 and 3
neither strengthen nor weaken the
statement. Substantial profit margins, in
option 3, do not translate to new devices
being cheaper to buy than repairing old
devices. Option 4 weakens the statement as
it highlights that repairing has become
extremely cost efficient.
104. Answers: (4)
Explanation – Each of the statements,
except statement 4, can be inferred from the
passage. Option 1 can be inferred from
phrases like 'exorbitant prices', 'avoid the
publication of manuals', 'proprietary
control', etc. Option 2 can be inferred from
'pretty much impossible because of
technology becoming obsolete' in the first
paragraph. Option 3 can also be inferred
from 'Companies avoid the publication of
manuals' in the first paragraph.
105. Answers: (2)
Explanation – Option 1 neither strengthens
nor weakens the statement. Improved
security systems do not mean that threats
would not arise in the first place. Option 3
strengthens instead of weakening the
statement, as it highlights that non-
authorised repairs do lead to security and
privacy issues. Option 4 neither strengthens
_________________________________________________________________________________
CLAT Mock - 3 14
nor weakens the statement. Option 2
accurately weakens the statement by
highlighting that it is impossible for security
and privacy concerns to arise when third
parties repair devices, as they exclusively
cater to hardware repair, which has nothing
to do with security issues of software.
106. Answers: (2)
The author's objective is to support and
safeguard India's NREGA programme. He
highlights its significance, criticises the
attempts to undermine it, and provides
examples of similar schemes in other
countries. The author seeks to raise
awareness, emphasise the programme's
importance, and advocate for its protection
and preservation. Option 2 is the correct
answer.
Option 1 is incorrect. While the author may
imply the need for preserving and protecting
the NREGA programme, he does not outline
a future roadmap for the programme.
Option 3 is incorrect, as the author does not
discuss the flaws of NREGA.
Option 4 is incorrect. Though the author has
mentioned about similar employment
guarantee schemes in other countries, he
has not compared them with the NREGA.
This is also not the objective.
107. Answers: (3)
If a majority of NREGA workers have not
been paid for more than a year, it would
significantly strengthen the author's
argument that the NREGA is facing gradual
dismantlement. This would indicate a severe
neglect of the programme and a lack of
commitment from the government to ensure
timely and fair payments to the workers. It
further supports the notion that the
government is undermining the NREGA and
failing to fulfill its obligations towards the
workers. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 may rather weaken the argument.
If the number of approved NREGA projects
has not been reduced, it implies that the
programme is still active and ongoing.

Option 2 is incorrect. If the ratio of women
to men in NREGA projects has declined over
time, it may indicate a decrease in female
participation or a shift in the composition of
the workforce. However, it does not directly
support the claim that the NREGA is facing
gradual dismantlement.
Option 4 is a distractor. Non-uniform work
opportunities across the country could be
due to varying demand, resource allocation,
or regional disparities; it does not
specifically address the argument of the
NREGA's gradual dismantlement.
108. Answers: (4)
The author argues that the government is
trying to undermine this right to work
initiative. If it is true that all NREGA
workers possess Aadhaar-linked bank
accounts, it would weaken the author's
argument that the government's insistence
on the Aadhaar-based payment system
undermines the NREGA. This suggests that
the majority of workers are already
equipped with the necessary infrastructure
for receiving their wages through this
system. It indicates a level of preparedness
and compatibility, potentially leading to
smoother and more efficient wage
payments. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is incorrect. Even if the
government has increased the budget
allocation for the NREGA programme, it
does not necessarily address the specific
concern raised by the author regarding the
insistence on the Aadhaar-based payment
system.
Option 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions
that more than 35% of workers have been
from Dalit and Adivasi homes, and if they do
not have Aadhaar cards, then the purpose of
Aadhaar Based Payment System would be
defeated. Thus, it does not weaken the
author's argument.
Option 3 is incorrect, as it would rather
strengthen the author's argument that the
_________________________________________________________________________________
CLAT Mock - 3 15
insistence on the Aadhaar-based payment
system undermines the NREGA.
109. Answers: (1)
The passage mentions that more than 35%
of workers in the NREGA programme come
from Dalit and Adivasi homes, and more
than half of the workers are women. This
suggests that the programme provides
opportunities for historically marginalised
and disadvantaged groups to access
employment, income, and social
empowerment. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is a distractor; it is difficult to infer
that the NREGA programme has led to a
significant reduction in poverty rates based
solely on the information provided in the
passage.
Option 3 is incorrect, as no link to political
motives can be established from the
passage.
Option 4 is a distractor. Though the author
has mentioned about various welfare
schemes in other countries, he has not
mentioned any specific support or praise
from international organisations for the
NREGA programme.
110. Answers: (2)
The author first emphasises the importance
of the NREGA programme and then
criticises the government's attempts to
undermine this right to work initiative. He
mentions various schemes in other
countries that were related to or inspired by
the NREGA, but then argues that the
NREGA is now facing death by a thousand
cuts. The author uses these examples to
strengthen his opinion that the NREGA
scheme should not be curtailed; he assumes
that these schemes in other countries are
still active and receive ongoing support from
their respective governments. If these are
now not supported by their governments,
then the author's claim would also weaken.
Option 2 is valid.
Option 1 is incorrect; the equality of
opportunity does not impact the author's
 CLAT Mock - 3 16

arguments regarding continuation of the Population BPL

NREGA. SHAJAPUR 3550 1278
AMLA 4000 1160
Option 3, even if negated, does not
NIMAR 3000 1200
undermine the author's arguments. GOHAD 2600 1222
Option 4 also does not impact the author's SHIVPURI 4400 3213
arguments. If these schemes are as effective
as the NREGA, the author would still Above poverty line population of Shivpuri =
recommend support for the NREGA. 4400 - 3213 = 1187
111. Answers: (1) Required percentage
Population of Shajapur = 3550 11.87
= × 100
36 4400
BPL population of Shajapur = 3550 × =
100 = 26.97 or 27%
1278 Hence, answer option 1 is correct.
100 112. Answers: (2)
Population of Amla = 3550 × = 4000
88.75 Population of Shajapur = 3550
BPL population of Amla = (29/100) x 4000 36
BPL population of Shajapur = 3550 × =
= 1160 100
Therefore, BPL population of Nimar = 1160 1278
+ 40 = 1200 100
Population of Amla = 3550 × = 4000
100 88.75
Now, population of Nimar = 1200 × =
4 BPL population of Amla = (29/100) x 4000
3000 = 1160
Average population of (Gohad + Shivpuri) = Therefore, BPL population of Nimar = 1160
Average population of (Amla + Nimar) + 40 = 1200
4000  3000 100
= = 3500 Now, population of Nimar = 1200 × =
2 40
Total population of Gohad and Shivpuri = 3000
7000 Average population of (Gohad + Shivpuri) =
While difference = 1800 Average population of (Amla + Nimar)
Let the population of Shivpuri be x. 4000  3000
= = 3500
Population of Gohad = y 2
Thus, Total population of Gohad and Shivpuri =
x + y = 7000 7000
x - y = 1800 While difference = 1800
x = 4400, y = 2600 Let the population of Shivpuri be x.
Means Shivpuri = 4400 and Gohad = 2600 Population of Gohad = y
(as Shivpuri is more populated) Thus,
47 x + y = 7000
BPL population of Gohad = 2600 × =
100 x - y = 1800
1222 x = 4400, y = 2600
46 Means Shivpuri = 4400 and Gohad = 2600
Overall population BPL = 17550 × =
100 (as Shivpuri is more populated)
8073 47
BPL population of Gohad = 2600 × =
Now, BPL population of Shivpuri = 8073 - 100
(1278 + 1160 + 1200 + 1222) = 3213 1222

_________________________________________________________________________________
 CLAT Mock - 3 17

46 47
Overall population BPL = 17550 × = BPL population of Gohad = 2600 × =
100 100
8073 1222
Now, BPL population of Shivpuri = 8073 - 46
Overall population BPL = 17550 × =
(1278 + 1160 + 1200 + 1222) = 3213 100
8073
Population BPL Now, BPL population of Shivpuri = 8073 -
SHAJAPUR 3550 1278 (1278 + 1160 + 1200 + 1222) = 3213
AMLA 4000 1160
NIMAR 3000 1200 Population BPL
GOHAD 2600 1222 SHAJAPUR 3550 1278
SHIVPURI 4400 3213 AMLA 4000 1160
NIMAR 3000 1200
Therefore, required number = 8073/5 = GOHAD 2600 1222
1615 SHIVPURI 4400 3213
Hence, answer option 2 is correct. Number of children BPL in Nimar = 1200 ×
113. Answers: (2) 35
= 420
Population of Shajapur = 3550 100
36 Number of children in Nimar = 3000 ×
BPL population of Shajapur = 3550 ×
100 30
= 900
= 1278 100
100 900  420
Population of Amla = 3550 × = 4000 Required percentage = × 100 =
88.75 1800
BPL population of Amla = (29/100) x 4000 26.66%
= 1160 Hence, this is the correct answer.
Therefore, BPL population of Nimar = 1160 114. Answers: (2)
+ 40 = 1200 Population of Shajapur = 3550
100 36
Now, population of Nimar = 1200 × = BPL population of Shajapur = 3550 ×
40 100
3000 = 1278
Average population of (Gohad + Shivpuri) = 100
Average population of (Amla + Nimar) Population of Amla = 3550 × = 4000
88.75
4000  3000 BPL population of Amla = (29/100) x 4000
= = 3500
2 = 1160
Total population of Gohad and Shivpuri = Therefore, BPL population of Nimar = 1160
7000 + 40 = 1200
While difference = 1800
100
Let the population of Shivpuri be x. Now, population of Nimar = 1200 × =
40
Population of Gohad = y
3000
Thus,
Average population of (Gohad + Shivpuri) =
x + y = 7000
Average population of (Amla + Nimar)
x - y = 1800
4000  3000
x = 4400, y = 2600 = = 3500
2
Means Shivpuri = 4400 and Gohad = 2600
Total population of Gohad and Shivpuri =
(as Shivpuri is more populated)
7000
While difference = 1800

_________________________________________________________________________________
 CLAT Mock - 3 18

Let the population of Shivpuri be x. Total population of Gohad and Shivpuri =

Population of Gohad = y 7000
Thus, While difference = 1800
x + y = 7000 Let the population of Shivpuri be x.
x - y = 1800 Population of Gohad = y
x = 4400, y = 2600 Thus,
Means Shivpuri = 4400 and Gohad = 2600 x + y = 7000
(as Shivpuri is more populated) x - y = 1800
47 x = 4400, y = 2600
BPL population of Gohad = 2600 × =
100 Means Shivpuri = 4400 and Gohad = 2600
1222 (as Shivpuri is more populated)
46 47
Overall population BPL = 17550 × = BPL population of Gohad = 2600 × =
100 100
8073 1222
Now, BPL population of Shivpuri = 8073 - 46
Overall population BPL = 17550 × =
(1278 + 1160 + 1200 + 1222) = 3213 100
8073
Population BPL Now, BPL population of Shivpuri = 8073 -
SHAJAPUR 3550 1278 (1278 + 1160 + 1200 + 1222) = 3213
AMLA 4000 1160
NIMAR 3000 1200
GOHAD 2600 1222 Population BPL
SHIVPURI 4400 3213 SHAJAPUR 3550 1278
AMLA 4000 1160
NIMAR 3000 1200
After one year, BPL population = 8073 + 351
GOHAD 2600 1222
= 8424 SHIVPURI 4400 3213
8424
Required percentage = × 100 = 48%
17550 Population of Amla after one year = 4000 +
Hence, this is the correct answer. 20% of 4000 = 4800
115. Answers: (2) BPL population of Amla after one year =
Population of Shajapur = 3550 75% of 1160 = 870
36 870
BPL population of Shajapur = 3550 × Required percentage = × 100 =
100 4800
= 1278 18.125% ~18.12%
100 Hence, this is the correct answer.
Population of Amla = 3550 × = 4000
88.75 116. Answers: (1)
BPL population of Amla = (29/100) x 4000 Money spent by Jiren on car's EMI = 35% of
= 1160 35
5,00,000 = × 5,00,000
Therefore, BPL population of Nimar = 1160 100
+ 40 = 1200 = Rs. 1,75,000
100 Money spent by Dypso on child's fee = 20%
Now, population of Nimar = 1200 × =
40 20
of 4,50,000 = × 4,50,000
3000 100
Average population of (Gohad + Shivpuri) = = Rs. 90,000
Average population of (Amla + Nimar) Required percentage

4000  3000 1,75,000  90,000

= = 3500 = × 100 = 94.44%
2 90,000
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 CLAT Mock - 3 19

117. Answers: (2) 10

× 5,00,000 = Rs. 50,000
Total internet charges of Jiren = 3% of 100
5,00,000 Money spent by Jiren on child's fee = 20%
3 of 5,00,000
= × 5,00,000 = Rs. 15,000
100 20
× 5,00,000 = Rs. 1,00,000
Total expenditure on scooter EMI of Dypso 100
= 5% of 4,50,000 Money spent by Jiren on transportation =
5 7% of 5,00,000
= × 4,50,000 = Rs. 22,500
100 7
= × 5,00,000 = 35,000
Required ratio = 15,000 : 22,500 100
=2:3 1,85,000
118. Answers: (3) Required average = = Rs.
3
Money spent by Dypso on income tax = 21% 61,666.67
of 4,50,000 120. Answers: (2)
21 Money spent by Dypso on income tax = 21%
= × 4,50,000 = Rs. 94,500
100 of 4,50,000
Money spent by Dypso on car EMI = 15% of 21
4,50,000 = × 4,50,000 = Rs. 94,500
100
15 Money spent by Jiren on child's fee = 20%
= × 4,50,000 = Rs. 67,500
100 of 5,00,000
Total expenditure = Rs. (94,500 + 67,500) 20
= Rs. 1,62,000 = × 5,00,000 = 1,00,000
100
119. Answers: (2) Required ratio = 94,500 : 1,00,000
Money spent by Jiren on scooter EMI = 10% = 189 : 200
of 5,00,000

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