Model Question Paper

Section-A
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
In this type of questions, each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which only one option is correct.
Q.1-10 Carry one mark each.
1. The correct statement describing the relationship between

is
A) X and Y are resonance structures and Z is a tautomer
B) X and Y are tautomers and Z is a resonance structure
C) X, Y and Z are all resonance structures
D) X, Y and Z are all tautomers
2. Among the following, the correct statement concerning the optical activity is
A) a molecule containing two or more chiral centres are always optically active
B) a molecule containing just one chiral centre is always optically active
C) a molecule possessing alternating axis of symmetry is optically active
D) an optically active molecule should have atleast one chiral centre
3. The correct order of acidity among;

A) (i) < (ii) < (iii) < (iv) B) (iv) < (iii) < (i) < (ii)
C) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) D) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii)
4. The major product obtained in the following reaction,

is

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Model Question Paper
5. The major product of the following reaction,

6. The major product obtained in the following reaction,

is

7. The major product obtained in the following reaction,

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Model Question Paper
8. The major product obtained in the following reaction,

is

9. When one mole of ice is converted to water at 0oC and 1 atm, the work done (Latm) is
A) 1.1 x 10-4 B) 2.0 x 10-3 C) 2.0 x 10-4 D) 1.1 x 10-5
10. For a zero-order reaction, units of the rate constant is expressed as
A) M1s-1 B) M0s-1 C) M-1s-1 D) M0s0
Q.11-30 Carry two marks each.
11. For a particle in a cubic box, the total number of quantum numbers needed to specify its state are;
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 9
12. With increasing pressure, the temperature range, over which the liquid state is stable.
A) Decreases
B) Increases
C) Remains constant
D) Decreases till the critical pressure and then increases
13. The conductance at infinite dilution follows the order
A) Li+ > Na+ > K+ B) Na+ > Li+ > K+ C) K+ > Li+ > Na+ D) K+ > Na+ > Li+

14. The V-shape of SO2 is due to the presence of

A) two σ and one π bonds
B) two σ and two π bonds
C) two σ bonds and one lone pair of electrons
D) two σ and two π bonds and one lone pair of electrons
15. The correct order of the mean bond energies in the binary hydrides is
A) CH4 > NH3 > H2O > HF B) NH3 > CH4 > H2O > HF
C) HF > H2O > CH4 > NH3 D) HF > H2O > NH3 > CH4
234 230
16. In the process, 92U → 90Th + X( 42He), X is

A) α-particle B) β-particle C) β+-emission D) γ-emission

17. For tetrahedral complexes, which always exhibit high spin states, the maximum CFSE (Crystal Field
Stabilization Energy) is
A) – 8 Dq B) – 12 Dq C) – 16 Dq D) – 20 Dq
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Model Question Paper
18. The most abundant element in earth’s crust is
A) Aluminium B) Iron C) Silicon D) Oxygen
19. In general, magnetic moment of paramagnetic complexes varies with temperature as
A) T2 B) T C) T-2 D) T-1
20. Addition of an aqueous solution of Fe(II) to potassium hexacyanochromate(III) produces brick-red
coloured complex, which turns dark green at 100oC. The dark green complex is
A) Fe4[Cr(CN)6]3 B) KFe[Cr(CN)6]
C) KCr[Fe(CN)6] D) Fe[Cr(CN)6]
21. For an ideal gas, the plot that is non-linear is;
A) PV vs T B) PV vs P, at constant T
C) P vs V, at constant T D) lnP vs lnV, at constant T
22. The major product obtained in the following reaction,

23. The structure of D-galactose is given below.

Which one of these following structures is L-galactose?

24. The reactivity order of the indicated functional group towards a nucleophile

A) P > Q > R B) Q > P > R C) Q > R > P D) R > Q > P

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25. The major product formed in the reaction

is

26. Among the following the major product obtained in the reaction below is

27. Which of the following are aromatic?

A) P and Q B) Q and R C) R and S D) Q and S

28. Egyptian blue CaCuSi4O10 is an example of
A) Sheet silicate B) Cyclic silicate C) Pyrosilicate D) Chain silicate

29. Which of the following is achiral?

A) Alanine B) Glycine C) Proline D) Phenylalanine

30. Arrange the following in the correct order of acidity of the hydrogen indicated in bold

A) P > Q > R B) R > Q > P C) Q > R > P D) P > R > Q

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Model Question Paper
Section-B
Multiple Select Questions (MSQs)
In this type of questions, each question has four choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which only one or more than one
is/are correct options.
Q.31-40 Carry two marks each.
31. Which is/are true in case of BF3?
A) It is volatile liquid even at r.t B) It is Lewis acid
C) It has planar geometry D) It forms adduct with NH3
32. The characteristics of the blue solution of sodium in liquid NH3 is /are;
A) Diamagnetic B) Paramagnetic
C) Reducing in nature D) Conducts electricity
33. For [Ni(CO)4] and K[Ni(CN)4], which properties are different for given pairs.
A) Magnetic moment B) Oxidation state of central metal
C) Geometry D) CFSE
34. The correct statement(s) about transition elements is/are
A) the most stable oxidation state is +3 and its stability decreases across the period
B) transition elements of 3d-series have almost same sizes from Cr to Cu
C) the stability of +2 oxidation state increases across the period
D) some transition elements like Ni, Fe may show zero oxidation state in some of their compounds
35. Which of the following is considered as an organometallic compound?
A) Ferrocene B) Cis-platin
C) Ziese’s salt D) Grignard reagent
36. In isothermal ideal gas compression;
A) w is +ve B) ΔH is zero
C) ΔSgas is +ve D) ΔG is +ve
37. If cell potential of a galvanic cell is negative then;
A) the cell reaction is non-spontaneous
B) the cell reaction is spontaneous
C) the cell reaction is exothermic
D) the cell will work in reverse direction
38. Which statements is/are true about HCP and CCP lattice?
A) Number of tetrahedral voids are twice of octahedral holes
B) 12 tetrahedral and 6 octahedral voids are present in one HCP unit cell
C) C.N of HCP unit cell is 12
D) If atom of tetrahedral voids displaces into octahedral voids then it is Schottky defect
39.
will show; A) Quartet B) 1 Doublet
C) Triplet D) 2 Doublet

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Model Question Paper
40. Which of the following are correct statements?
A) Van der Waals constant ‘a’ is a measure of attractive force
B) Van der Waals constant ‘b’ is also called co-volume or excluded volume
C) ‘b’ is expressed in L mol-1
D) ‘a’ is expressed in atm L mol-2
Section-C
Numerical Answer Type Questions (NATQs)
This section contains numerical answer type (NAT) question, for these NAT questions, the answer is a real number.
Q. 41-50 Carry one mark each.
41. When 100g of water is reversible heated from 50oC to 75oC at 1atm, the change in entropy (JK-1) of
the universe is ____________.
42. Given that the most probable speed of oxygen gas is 1000 ms-1, the mean/average speed (ms-1) under
the same conditions is ___________.
43. If the electrons were spin 3/2 particles, instead of spin ½, then the number of electrons that can be
accommodated in a level are __________.
44. The maximum number of phases that can coexist in equilibrium for a one component system is _____.
45. In CsCl structure the number of Cs+ ions that occupy second nearest neighbour locations of a Cs+ ion
is _________.
46. Draw the most stable as well as the least stable chair conformation of
trans-1-ter-butyl-4-methylcyclohexane.
47. The work done during the free expansion of one mole of an ideal gas at 27oC to twice its original
volume is ____________. (Given: RT = 2494 Jmol-1, ln2 = 0.7, log2 = 0.3)
48. A quantum mechanical particle of mass m free to rotate on the surface of a sphere of radius r is in the
10h2
state with energy . The degeneracy of this state is _________.
mr2
49. Addition of 1g of a compound to 10g of water increases the boiling point by 0.3oC. The amount of
compound needed to prepare a 500 mL or 0.1M solution is _________. (Given: assume negligible
dissociation or association of the compound, boiling point constant Kb of water = 0.513 Kkgmol-1)
50. The molar conductivity of 0.009 M aqueous solution of a weak acid (HA) is 0.005 Sm2mol-1 and the
limiting molar conductivity of HA is 0.05 Sm2mol-1 at 298 K. Assuming activity coefficients to be
unity, the acid dissociation constant (Ka) of HA at this temperature is __________.

Q. 51-60 Carry two marks each.

51. The maximum number of stereoisomers possible for 4-phenylbut-3-en-2-ol is _______.

52. The Zn2+ | Zn half-cell (Eo = – 0.762 V) is connected to a Cu2+ | Cu half-cell (Eo = 0.340 V). What is
o
the value of Ecell for spontaneous conversion of chemical energy to electrical energy?
53. The molar conductance at infinite dilution for BaCl2, KCl, K2SO4 and Cl- are 280, 150, 300 and 76
Sm2mol-1, respectively. Calculate the transport number of Ba2+ in BaSO4 solution at infinite dilution.

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54. For the reaction R → P, the plot of ln(R) versus time (t) gives a straight line with a negative slope. The
half-life for the reaction is 3 minutes. Calculate the time required for the concentration of R to
decrease to 10% of its initial value
55. For a cell reaction, E (at 25oC) = 1.26 V, n = 2 and ΔS = –96.5 JK-1mol-1. Calculate E at 85oC by
assuming ΔS to be independent of temperature. (F = 96500 Cmol-1)
56. The minimum concentration of silver ions that is required to start the precipitation of Ag2S
(Ksp = 1×10-51) in a 0.1M solution of S2- is 1 x 10x M. Then x =?
57. Consider the following redox system, Q + 2H+ + 2e- ⇌ QH2, Eo = 0.699V. Calculate the pH of the
solution at 298K, if the redox potential of the system is 0.817 V.
58. The number of bridging CO in Fe2(CO)9 is _________.
59. The phase diagram for the lead-antimony system at a certain pressure is given below:

Calculate the number of degrees of freedom (variance) at point M.

60. 234 206
90Th disintegration to give 82Pb as the final product. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted
during this process?

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