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+2 Chemistry Self evaluation one mark full questions & Answers (NS) +2 Chemistry Self evaluation one mark

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1. METALLURGY a) ΔGfo of sulphide is greater than 9. Which one of the following is b) Remove impurities from
1. Bauxite has the composition those for CS2and H2S not feasible alumina
a) A1203 b) ΔGro is negative for roasting of a) Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Cu(s) + c) Decrease the electrical
b) Al203.nH20 sulphide ore to oxide Zn2+ (aq) conductivity
c) Fe203.2H20 c) Roasting of the sulphide to its b) Cu(s) + Zn2+ (aq) → Zn(s) + d) Increase the rate of reduction
d) None of these oxide is thermodynamically feasible. Cu2+ (aq)
d) Carbon and hydrogen are 14.Zinc is obtained from ZnO by
c) Cu(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → 2Ag(s) +
2. Roasting of sulphide ore gives suitable reducing agents for metal a) Carbon reduction
Cu2+ (aq)
the gas (A).(A) is a colourless gas. sulphides. b) Reduction using silver
d) Fe(s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Cu(s) +
Aqueous solution of (A) is acidic. c) Electrochemical process
Fe2+ (aq)
The gas (A) is 7, Match items in column - I d) Acid leaching
a) CO2 b) SO3 with the items of column – II 10.Electrochemical process is used to
c) SO2 d) H2S and assign the correct code. 15.Extraction of gold and silver
extract
Column-I Column-II involves leaching with cyanide ion.
a) Iron b) Lead
3, Which one of the following A Cyanide 1 Ultrapure Ge silver is later recovered by
c) Sodium d) silver
reaction represents calcinations? process a) Distillation
a) 2Zn + 02 → 2ZnO B Froth 2 Dressing of b) Zone refining
11. Flux is a substance which is
b) 2ZnS + 302 → 2ZnO + 2SO2 floatation ZnS c) Displacement with zinc d)
used to convert
process liquation
c) MgCO3 → MgO + CO2 a) Mineral into silicate
C Electrolytic 3 Extraction of
d) Both (a) and (c) b) Infusible impurities to soluble
reduction` Al 16.Considering Ellingham diagram,
D Zone 4 Extraction of impurities
which of the following metals can
4. The metal oxide which cannot refining Au c) Soluble impurities to infusible
be used to reduce alumina?
be reduced to metal by carbon is 5 Purification impurities
a) Fe b) Cu
a) Pb0 b) Al203 of Ni d) All of these
c) Mg d) Zn
c) ZnO d) FeO a) A 1 | B 2 | C 3 | D 4
(b) A 3 | B 4 | C 5 | D 1 12, Which one of the following
17. The following set of reactions
5, Which of the metal is extracted (c) A 4 | B 2 | C 3 | D 1 ores is best concentrated by froth
– floatation method?
are used in refining Zirconium.
by Hall-Heroult process? (d)) A 2 | B 3 | C 1 | D 5
This method is known as?
a) A1 b) Ni a) Magnetite b) Haematite
d ) Zn
Zr(impure)+2I2 → ZrI4 (523K)
c) Cu 8. Wolframite ore is separated c) Galena d) Cassiterite
from tinstone by the process of ZrI4 →Zr(pure)+2I2 (1908K)
6. Which of the following a) Smelting b) Calcination 13.In the extraction of aluminium a) Liquation
statements, about the advantage of c) Roasting d) from alumina by electrolysis, b) van Arkel process
roasting of sulphide ore before Electromagnetic separation cryolite is added to c) Zone refining
reduction is not true? a) Lower the melting point of d) Mond’s process
alumina

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18.Which of the following is used 22. In the Ellingham diagram, for c) basic d) amphoteric d) partially sp2 and partially sp3
for concentrating ore in the formation of carbon monoxide hybridised
metallurgy? a) (ΔGO/ ΔT) is negative 2.Boric acid is an acid because its
a) Leaching molecule 8. Oxidation state of carbon in its
b) (ΔGO/ T) is poitive
b) Roasting a) contains replaceable H+ ion hydrides
c) (ΔGO/ ΔT) is negative b) gives up a proton a) +4 b) -4
c) Froth floatation
d) (ΔT/ ΔGO)is negative bur c) combines with proton to form c) +3 d) +2
d) Both (a) and (c)
after 700 C0 (ΔGO/ ΔT) is water molecule
negative d) accepts OH- from water 9.The basic structural unit of
19.The incorrect statement among ,releasing proton. silicates is
the following is a) (SiO3)2- b) (SiO4) 2-
a) Nickel is refined by Mond’s
23. Which of the following
3.Which among the following is c) (Si0) - d) (SiO4) 4-
reduction is not thermodynamically
process not a borane?
feasible?
b) Titanium is refined by Van a) B2H6 b) B3H6 10. The repeating unit in silicone
Arkel’s process a) Cr203 + 2Al → Al203 + 2Cr c) B4H10 d) none of these is
c) Zinc blende is concentrated by b) Al203 + 2Cr →Cr203 + 2Al
froth floatation c) 3TiO2 + 4Al → 2Al203 +3Ti 4.Which of the following metals
d) In the metallurgy of gold, the d) none of these has the largest abundance in the
earth’s crust?
a) SiO2
metal is leached with dilute
a) Aluminium b) calcium
sodium chloride solution 24. Which of the following is not
c) Magnesium d) sodium
true with respect to Ellingham
20.In the electrolytic refining of diagram?
5.In diborane, the number of
copper, which one of the following a) Free energy changes follow a electrons that accounts for banana 11, Which of these is not a
is used as anode? straight line. Deviation occurs bonds is monomer for a high molecular
a) Pure copper when there is a phase change. a) six b) two mass silicone polymer?
b) Impure copper b) The graph for the formation of c) four d) three a) Me3SiCI b) PhSiCI3
c) Carbon rod CO2 is a straight line almost c) MeSiCI3 d) Me2SiCI2
d) Platinum electrode parallel to free energy axis. 6.The element that does not show
c) Negative slope of CO shows catenation among the following p- 12. Which of the following is not
21, Which of the following plot that it becomes more stable with block elements is sp2 hybridised?
gives Ellingham diagram increase in temperature. a) Carbon b) silicon a) Graphite b) graphene
d) Positive slope of metal oxides c) Lead d) germanium c) Fullerene d) dry ice
a) ΔS Vs T
shows that their stabilities decrease
13.The geometry at which carbon
b) ΔGO Vs T 7. Carbon atoms in fullerene with
c) ΔGO Vs 1/T with increase in temperature.
formula C60 have atom in diamond are bonded to
d) ΔGO Vs T2 a) sp3 hybridised each other is
2. p-BLOCK ELEMENTS-I b) sp hybridised a) Tetrahedral b) hexagonal
1.An aqueous solution of borax is c) sp2 hybridised c) Octahedral d) none of these
a) neutral b) acidic

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18.The stability of +1 oxidation smelling gas(B) which a) Both assertion and reason are
14.Which of the following state increases in the sequence a) spontaneously burn in air giving true and reason is the correct
statements is not correct? Al < Ga < In <Tl smoky rings. A and B are explanation of assertion.
a) Beryl is a cyclic silicate. b) Tl < In < Ga < Al respectively b) Both assertion and reason are
b) MgSi04 is an orthosilicate c) In < Tl < Ga < Al a) P4 (red) and PH3 true but reason is not the correct
c) [SiO4]4- −is the basic structural d) Ga < In < Al < Tl b) P4 (white) and PH3 explanation of assertion.
unit of silicates c) S8 and H2S c) Assertion is true but reason is
d) Feldspar is not aluminosilicate 3. p-BLOCK ELEMENTS - II
1.In which of the following , NH3
d) P4 (white) and H2S false.
d) Both assertion and reason are
is not used?
a) Nessler’s reagent
15. Match items in column - 5.On hydrolysis, PCl3 gives false.
I with the items of column – II b) Reagent for the analysis of IV
a) H3PO3 b) PH3
and assign the correct code. c) H3PO4 d) POCI3 10.Among the following, which is
group basic radical
Column-I Column-II the strongest oxidizing agent?
c) Reagent for the analysis of III
A Borazole 1 B(OH)3 6. P406 reacts with cold water to a) Cl2 b) F2
group basic radical
d) Tollen’s reagent
B Boric 2 B3N3H6 give c) Br2 d) I2
acid a) H3PO3 b) H4P2O7
2.Which is true regarding
C Quartz 3 Na2[B405(OH)4] c) HPO3 d) H3PO4 11, The correct order of the
8H20 thermal stability of hydrogen halide
nitrogen?
D Borax 4 SiO2 7. The basicity of pyrophosphorous is
acid (H4P2O7) is
a) A 2 | B 1 | C 4 | D 3 a) least electronegative element
a) HI> HBr> HCl> HF
a) 4 b) 2
(b) A 1 | B 2 | C 4 | D 3 b) has low ionisation enthalpy
b) HF> HCl> HBr>HI
c) 3 d) 5
(c) A 1 | B 2 | C 4 | D 3 than oxygen
c) HCl> HF> HBr > HIL
(d)) None of these c) d- orbitals available
d) HI>HCl> HF>HBr
d) ability to form pπ-pπ − bonds
8, The molarity of given
16, Duralumin is an alloy of with itself orthophosphoric acid solution is 12,Which one of the following
a) Cu,Mn b) Cu,Al,Mg
2M. its normality is compounds is not formed?
c) Al,Mn. d) Al,Cu,Mn,Mg 3.An element belongs to group 15 a) 6N b) 4N a) XeOF4 b) XeF2
and 3 rd period of the periodic c) 2N d) none of these c) XeO3 d) NeF2
17.The compound that is used in
table, its electronic configuration
nuclear reactors as protective shields
would be 9.Assertion : bond dissociation 13.Most easily liquefiable gas is
and control rods is
a) Metal borides a) 1S2 2S2 2P4 energy of fluorine is greater than a) Ar b) Ne
b) metal oxides b) 1S2 2S2 2P3 chlorine gas c) He d) Kr
c) Metal carbonates c) 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P2 Reason: chlorine has more electronic
d) metal carbide d) 1S2 2S2 2P6 3S2 3P3 repulsion than fluorine 14, XeF6 on complete hydrolysis
produces
4.Solid (A) reacts with strong a) XeOF4 b) XeO2F2
aqueous NaOH liberating a foul

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c) XeO3 d) XeO2 1.Sc( Z=21) is a transition a) 5.92BM b) 2.80BM c) K2Cr207 solution in acidic
element but Zinc (z=30) is not c) 8.95BM d) 3.90BM medium is orange in colour
15. Which of the following is because d) K2Cr207 solution becomes yellow
strongest acid among all? a) both Sc3+ and Zn2+ ions are 6.The catalytic behaviour of on increasing the PH beyond 7
a)HI b) HF colourless and form white transition metals and their
c) HBr d) HCl compounds. compounds is ascribed mainly due 10.Permanganate ion changes to
b) in case of Sc, 3d orbital are to ________ in acidic medium
16. Which one of the following partially filled but in Zn these are a) their magnetic behaviour a) MnO42- b) Mn2+
orders is correct for the bond completely filled b) their unfilled d orbitals c) Mn d) Mn02
3+

dissociation enthalpy of halogen c) last electron as assumed to be c) their ability to adopt variable
molecules? added to 4s level in case of zinc oxidation states 11. How many moles of I2
a) Br2 >12 >F2 > Cl2 d) both Sc and Zn do not exhibit d) their chemical reactivity are liberated when 1 mole of
b) F2 > C12 > Br2 >12 variable oxidation states potassium dichromate react with
c) 12 > Br2 >Cl2 >F2 7.The correct order of increasing potassium iodide?
d) Cl2 > Br2 >F2 >I2 2.Which of the following d block oxidizing power in the series a) 1 b) 2
element has half filled penultimate a) VO2+ <Cr2072- < Mn04- b) c) 3 d) 4
17. Among the following the d sub shell as well as half filled Cr2072-< VO2+< Mn04-
correct order of acidity is valence sub shell? c) Cr2072-< Mn04- < VO2+ 12, The number of moles of
a) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < a) Cr b) Pd d) Mn04- < Cr2072-< VO2+ acidified KMnO4 required to
HClO4 c) Pt d) none of these oxidize 1 mole of ferrous
b) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < 8. In acid medium, potassium oxalate(FeC2O4) is
HClO3 3.Among the transition metals of permanganate oxidizes oxalic acid a) 5 b) 3
c) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < 3d series, the one that has highest to c) 0.6 d) 1.5
HClO negative (M2+/M) standard a) oxalate
d) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < electrode potential is b) Carbon dioxide 13.Which one of the following
HClO4 a) Ti b) Cu c) acetate statements related to lanthanons is
c) Mn d) Zn d) acetic acid incorrect?
18.When copper is heated with a) Europium shows +2 oxidation
conc HNO3 it produces 4.Which one of the following ions 9. Which of the following state.
a) Cu(NO3)2 , NO and NO has the same number of unpaired statements is not true? b) The basicity decreases as the
b) Cu(NO3)2 and N20 electrons as present in V3+? a) on passing H2S through ionic radius decreases from Pr to
c) Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 a) Ti3+ b) Fe3+ acidified K2Cr207 solution, a milky Lu.
d) Cu(NO3)2 and NO c) Ni 2+ d) Cr3+ colour is observed. c) All the lanthanons are much
b) Na2Cr207 is preferred over more reactive than aluminium.
4. TRANSITION AND INNER 5,The magnetic moment of Mn2+ K2Cr207 in volumetric analysis
TRANSITION ELEMENTS ion is

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d) Ce4+ solutions are widely used 18, The actinoid elements which c) 0.01 d) 0.2 c) chloridobis(ethane-1,2-
as oxidising agents in volumetric show the highest oxidation state of diammine)nitrito k-Ocobalt(II)
analysis. +7 are 3, A complex has a molecular chloridde
a) Np, Pu ,Am formula MSO4CI. 6H20 . The d) chloridobis(ethane-1,2-
14,Which of the following b) U, Fm, 'Th aqueous solution of it gives white diamine)nitro k-Ocobalt(III)
lanthanoid ions is diamagnetic? c) U, Th, Md precipitate with Barium chloride chloride
a) Eu2+ b) Yb'2+ d) Es, No, Lr solution and no precipitate is
c) Ce2+ d) Sm2+ obtained when it is treated with 6. IUPAC name of the complex
19.Which one of the following is silver nitrate solution. If the K3[AI(C204)3] is
15, Which of the following not correct? secondary valence of the metal is a)potassium trioxalato
oxidation states is most common a) La(OH)3 is less basic than six, which one of the following aluminium(III)
among the lanthanoids? Lu(OH)3 correctly represents the complex? b)potassium trioxalato
a) 4 b) 2 b) In lanthanoid series ionic radius a) [M(H20)4Cl]SO4 2H20 aluminate(II)
c)5 d) 3 of Ln3+ ions decreases c)potassium trisoxalato
c) La is actually an element of b) [M(H20)6]SO4 aluminate(III)
16. Assertion : Ce4+ is used as an transition metal series rather than c) [M(H20)5Cl]SO4 2H20 d)potassium trioxalato
oxidizing agent in volumetric lanthanide series d) [M(H20)3Cl]SO4 3H20 aluminate(III)
analysis. d) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are
Reason: Ce4+ has the tendency of same because of lanthanide 4, Oxidation state of Iron and the 7. A magnetic moment of 1.73BM
attaining +3 oxidation state. contraction charge on the ligand NO in will be shown by one among the
a) Both assertion and reason are [Fe(H20)5NO]SO4 are following
true and reason is the correct 5. COORDINATION a) +2 and 0 respectively a) TiCI4 b) [CoCl6]4-
explanation of assertion. CHEMISTRY b) +3 and 0 respectively c) [Cu(NH3)4] 2+

b) Both assertion and reason are c) +3 and -1 respectively d) [Ni(CN)4]2-


true but reason is not the correct 1.The sum of primary valance and d) +1 and +1 respectively
explanation of assertion. secondary valance of the metal M 8. Crystal field stabilization energy
c) Assertion is true but reason is in the complex [M(en)2 (Ox)]cl is 5. As per IUPAC guidelines, the for high spin d5 octahedral complex
false. a) 3 b) 6 c) -3 d) 9 name of the complex, is
d) Both assertion and reason are [CO(en)2(ONO)Cl]Cl is a) -0.6 Δ0 b)0
false. 2. An excess of silver nitrate is a) c) 2(P- Δ0) d) 2(P+ Δ0)
added to 100ml of a 0.01M chlorobisethylenediaminenitritocobalt(
17.The most common oxidation solution of III) chloride 9. In which of the following
state of actinoids is pentaaquachloridochromium(III)chlor b) chloridobis(ethane-1,2- coordination entities the magnitude
a) +2 b) +3 ide. The number of moles of AgCl diamine)nitro k-Ocobaltate(III) of Δ0 will be maximum?
c)+4 d) +6 precipitated would be chloride a) [Co(CN)6]3-
a)0.02 b) 0.002 b) [Co(C2O4)3]3-

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c) [Co(H2O)6]3+ a) geometrical and ionization d) [Ni(CN)4]2- entre of the cube. the correct
d) [Co(NH3)6]3+ b) geometrical and optical formula of AxBy
c) optical and ionization 19. Fac-mer isomerism is shown a) AB b) AB3
10. Which one of the following d) geometrical only by c) A3B d) A8B6
will give a pair of enantiomorphs? a) [Co(en)3]3+
a) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] b) 15.Which one of the following b) [Co(NH3)4(Cl)2]+ 3. The ratio of close packed atoms
c) [Co(NH3)3(Cl)3]
to tetrahedral hole in cubic packing
[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl complexes is not expected to exhibit
d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4
is
c) [Pt(NH3)4] [PtCl4] isomerism?
a) 1:1 b) 1:2
d) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2 a) [Ni(NH3)4 (H20)2]2+ c) 2:1 d) 1:4
b) [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] 20,Choose the correct statement.
11. Which type of isomerism is c) [Co(NH3)5 SO4]Cl a) Square planar complexes are 4. Solid CO2 is an example of
exhibited by [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] d) [Fe(en)3]3+ more stable than octahedral a) Covalent solid
a) Coordination isomerism complexes. b) metallic solid
b) Linkage isomerism 16. A complex in which the b) The spin only magnetic c) molecular solid
c) Optical isomerism oxidation number of the metal is moment of [Cu(Cl)4]2- is 1.732 d) ionic solid
d) Geometrical isomerism zero is BM and it has square planar
a) K4 [Fe(CN)6] structure. 5. Assertion : monoclinic sulphur
12. How many geometrical isomers b) [Fe(CN)3(NH3)3] c) Crystal field splitting energy is an example of monoclinic crystal
(Δ0 ) of [FeF6]4- is higher than
system
are possible for c) [Fe(CO)5]
Reason: for a monoclinic system,
[Pt(Py)(NH3)(Br)(Cl)] d) both (b) and (c) the (Δ0 ) of [Fe(CN)6]4-
a) 3 c) 4
a≠b≠c and α=γ= 900, β≠900
d) crystal field stabilization
b) 0 d) 15 17. Formula of tris(ethane-1,2-
a) Both assertion and reason are
energy of [V(H2O)6]2+ is higher true and reason is the correct
diamine)iron(II)phosphate than the crystal field stabilization explanation of assertion.
13. Which one of the following a) [Fe(CH3-CH(NH2)2)3](PO4)3 of [Ti(H2O)6]2+ b) Both assertion and reason are
pairs represents linkage isomers? b) [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2- 6. SOLID STATE true but reason is not the correct
a) [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and NH2)3](PO4) explanation of assertion.
[Pt(NH3)4][ CuCl4] c) [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2- 1. Graphite and diamond are c) Assertion is true but reason is
b) [Co(NH3)5(NO3)]SO4 and NH2)3](PO4)2 a) Covalent and molecular crystals false.
[Co(NH3)5(ONO)]SO4 d) [Fe(H2N-CH2-CH2- d) Both assertion and reason are
c) [Co(NH3)4(NCS)2]Cl and NH2)3](PO4)2 b) ionic and covalent crystals false.
[Co(NH3)4(SCN)2]Cl c) both covalent crystals
d) both (b) and (c) 18. Which of the following is d) both molecular crystals 6. In calcium fluoride, having the
paramagnetic in nature? flurite structure the coordination
2. An ionic compound AxBy number of Ca2+ ion and F- Ion
14. Which kind of isomerism is a) [Zn(NH3)4]2+
crystallizes in fcc type crystal are
possible for a complex b) [Co(NH3)6]3+
structure with B ions at the centre
[Co(NH3)4 Br2]Cl c) [Ni(H20)6]2+ of each face and A ion occupying

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a) 4 and 2 b) 6 and 6 a) (100/0.414) c) (1/2 a : √3/4 a : 1/2√2 a) 21. Assertion: due to Frenkel
c) 8 and 4 d) 4 and 8 b) (0.732/100) d) (1/2 a : √3 a : 1/√2 a) defect, density of the crystalline
c) (100X0.414 solid decreases.
7. The number of unit cells in 8 d) (0.414/100) 17. If ‘a’ is the length of the side Reason: in Frenkel defect cation
gm of an element X ( atomic of the cube, the distance between and anion leaves the crystal.
mass 40) which crystallizes in bcc 12. The vacant space in bcc lattice the body centered atom and one a) Both assertion and reason are
pattern is (NA is the Avogadro unit cell is corner atom in the cube will be true and reason is the correct
number) a) 48% b) 23% a) (2/√2)a b) (4/√3)a explanation of assertion.
a) 6.023 X 1023 c) 32% d) 26% b) Both assertion and reason are
c) (√3/4)a d) (√3/2)a
b) 6.023 X 1022 true but reason is not the correct
c) 60.23 X 1023 13. The radius of an atom is explanation of assertion.
300pm, if it crystallizes in a face
18. Potassium has a bcc structure
d) {(6.023 X 1023)/(8X40)} c) Assertion is true but reason is
with nearest neighbor distance
centered cubic lattice, the length oif false.
4.52A0. its atomic weight is 39.
8,In a solid atom M occupies ccp the edge of the unit cell is d) Both assertion and reason are
lattice and (1/3) of tetrahedral
its density will be
a) 488.5pm b) 848.5pm false
a) 915 kg m-3
voids are occupied by atom N. c) 884.5pm d) 484.5pm
b) 2142 kg m-3
find the formula of solid formed 22. The crystal with a metal
c) 452 kg m-3
by M and N. 14. The fraction of total volume deficiency defect is
d) 390 kg m-3
a) MN b) M3N occupied by the atoms in a simple a) NaCl b) FeO
c) MN3 d) M3N2 cubic is c) ZnO d) KCl
19. Schottky defect in a crystal is
a) (π/4√2) b) (π/6) observed when
9. The ionic radii of A+ and B− c) (π/4) d) (π/3√2) 23. A two dimensional solid
a) unequal number of anions and
are 0.98 x 10-10m and pattern formed by two different
anions are missing from the lattice
1.81 X 10-10m the coordination 15 The yellow colour in NaCl atoms X and
b) equal number of anions and
number of each ion in AB is crystal is due to Y is shown
anions are missing from the lattice
a) 8 b) 2 a) excitation of electrons in F below. The
c) an ion leaves its normal site
c) 6 d) 4 centers black and
and occupies an interstitial site
b) reflection of light from Cl- ion white squares
d) no ion is missing from its
10. CsCl has bcc arrangement, its on the surface represent atoms
lattice.
unit cell edge length is 400pm, its c) refraction of light from Na+ ion X and Y
inter atomic distance is d) all of the above respectively. the simplest formula
20.The cation leaves its normal
a) 400pm b) 800pm for the compound based on the
position in the crystal and moves
c) √3X100pm 16.If ‘a’ stands for the edge length to some interstitial position, the
unit cell from the pattern is
d) (√3/2)X400pm of the cubic system ; sc , bcc, and a) XY8 b) X4Y9
defect in the crystal is known as
fcc. Then the ratio of radii of c) XY2 d) XY4
a) Schottky defect
11, A solid compound XY has spheres in these systems will be b) F center
NaCl structure. if the radius of respectively. c) Frenkel defect 7. CHEMICAL KINETICS
the cation is 100pm , the radius a) (1/2 a : √3/2 a : √2/2 a) d) non-stoichiometric defect 1. For a first order reaction AB
of the anion will be b) ( √1a : √3a : √2a ) →B the rate constant is x min−1.

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If the initial concentration of A is -d[H2]/dt =k3[NH3]


0.01M , the concentration of A then the relation between k1 , k2 9. Consider the following
after one hour is given by the ,k3 is statements :
expression. a) k1 =k2 = k3 (i) increase in concentration of the
a) 0.01 e−x b) k1 = 3k2 = 2k3 reactant increases the rate of a
b) 1 X 10-2(1-e-60x) c) 1.5k1 = 3k2 = k3 zero order reaction.
c) (1 X 10-2) e-60x d) d) 2k1 =k2 = 3k3 (ii) rate constant k is equal to
none of these collision frequency A if Ea = 0
6. The decomposition of phosphine (iii) rate constant k is equal to
2. A zero order reaction (PH3) on tungsten at low pressure collision frequency A if Ea = œ
X→Product with an initial is a first order reaction. It is (iv) a plot of ln(k) vs T is a
concentration 0.02M has a half c) because the straight line.
life of 10 min. if one starts with d) both (b) and (c) a) rate is proportional to the (v) a plot of In(k) vs (1/T) is a
concentration 0.04M, then the half surface coverage straight line with a positive slope.
life is b) rate is inversely proportional Correct statements are
a) 10s b) 5min to the surface coverage a) (i) only
c) 20 min c) rate is independent of the b) (ii) and (iv)
d) cannot be predicted using the surface coverage c) (ii) and (v)
given information 4. For a first order reaction d) rate of decomposition is slow d) (i), (ii) and (v)

7. For a reaction Rate = k


A→product with initial
3. Among the following graphs concentration 10. In a reversible reaction, the
showing variation of rate constant [acetone]3/2 then unit of rate enthalpy change and the activation
x mol L-1, has a half life period
with temperature (T) for a constant and rate of reaction energy in the forward direction are
of 2.5 hours. For the same
reaction, the one that exhibits respectively is respectively -x kJ mol'-1 and
a) (molL-1s-1),(mol-1/2L-1/2s-1 )
reaction with initial concentration
Arrhenius behavior over the entire (x/2) mol L-1 the half life is y kJ mol-1. Therefore , the energy
a) (2.5 X 2)hours
temperature range is b)(mol-1/2L-1/2s-1),(mol L-1s-1) of activation in the backward
a) c) (mol1/2L1/2s-1 ),(molL-1s-1) direction is
d) (mol L s-1), (mol1/2L1/2s)
b)(2.5/2) hours
b) c) 2.5 hours a) (y-x) kJmole-1
b) (x+y) Jmole-1
8. The addition of a catalyst
d) Without knowing the rate
constant, t1/2 cannot be determined c) (x-y) kJmole-1
from the given data
during a chemical reaction alters d) (x+y) X 103 Jmole-1
which of the following quantities?
a) Enthalpy 11. What is the activation energy
5. For the reaction, 2NH3→ N2
b) Activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles
+ 3H2
c) Entropy when the temperature is raised
from 200K to 400K?
-d[NH3]/dt =k1[NH3] ,
d) Internal energy
-d[N2]/dt =k2[NH3] ,

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(R = 8.314 JK-1mol-1) 15. Predict the rate law of the 5.8 X 10-2S-1 The Order of the 21. In a homogeneous reaction A
a) 234.65 kJmole-1 K-1 following reaction based on the reaction is → B + C+ D the initial pressure
b) 434.65 kJmole-1 K-1 data given below 2A + B → C+ a) First order b) zero order c) was P0 and after time t it was P.
c) 434.65 Jmole-1 K-1 3D Second order d) Third order expression for rate constant in
d) 334.65 ) Jmole-1 K-1 Initi terms of P0, P and t will be
Reacti (A) (
(B) al 18. For the reaction N205(g) a) k= (2.303/t) log (2P0/3P0-P)
on m
(mi rate →2NO2(g) + ½ 02(g) ,the value b) k= (2.303/t) log (2P0/P0-P)
12. This reaction numbe in
n) (Ms- of rate of disappearance of N205 is c) k= (2.303/t) log (3P0-P/2P0) d)
follows first order kinetics. The r ) 1)
given as 6.5X10-2molL-1S-1 The k= (2.303/t) log (2P0/3P0-2P)
rate constant at particular 1 0.1 0.1 x
temperature is 2.303 X 10-2 hour-
rate of formation of NO2 and 02
2 0.2 0.1 2x is given respectively as 22. If 75% of a first order
a) (3.25 X 10-2molL-1S-1) and reaction was completed in 60
1. The initial concentration of 3 0.1 0.2 4x
(1.3 X 10-2molL-1S-1) minutes , 50% of the same
cyclopropane is 0.25 M. What 4 0.2 0.2 8x
b) (1.3 X 10-2molL-1S-1) and
will be the concentration of
=
reaction under the same conditions
(3.25 X 10-2molL-1S-1)
cyclopropane after 1806 minutes? a) rate k[A]2[B]
=
would be completed in
c) (1.3 X 10-1molL-1S-1) and a) 20 minutes b) 30 minutes c)
(log 2 = 0.3010) b) rate k[A][B]2
a) 0.125M b) 0.215M =
(3.25 X 10-2molL-1S-1) 35 minutes d) 75 minutes
c) rate k[A][B]
c) 0.25 x 2.303M d) rate = k[A]1/2[B]3/2
d) 0.05M
d) None of these
23. The half life period of a
16 Assertion: rate of reaction
radioactive element is 140 days.
13. For a first order reaction, the
19. During the decomposition of
After 560 days , 1 g of element
doubles when the concentration of
rate constant is 6.909 min-1.the
H2O2 to give dioxygen, 48 g O2
the reactant is doubles if it is a
time taken for 75% conversion in
is formed per minute at certain will be reduced to
first order reaction.
point of time. The rate of a) (1/2)g c) (1/4)g
minutes is Reason: rate constant also doubles
a) (3/2)log2 b) (2/3)log2
formation of water at this point is b) (1/8)g d) (1/16)g
a) 0.75 mol min-1
a) Both assertion and reason are
c) (3/2)log(3/4) d) (2/3)log(4/3)
b) 1.5 mol min-1 24. The correct difference between
true and reason is the correct
c) 2.25 mol min-1
explanation of assertion.
first and second order reactions is
d) 3.0 mol min-1
14. In a first order reaction x→y b) Both assertion and reason are
that
if k is the rate constant and the true but reason is not the correct
a) A first order reaction can be
20. . If the initial concentration of
initial concentration of the reactant explanation of assertion.
catalysed; a second order reaction
x is 0.1M, then, the half life is c) Assertion is true but reason is
the reactant is doubled, the time cannot be catalysed.
a) log2/k false.
for half reaction is also doubled. b) The half life of a first order
reaction does not depend on [A0];
b) [0.693/(0.1) k ] d) Both assertion and reason are
Then the order of the reaction is
c) (ln2/k) false.
a) Zero b) one the half life of a second order
d) none of these reaction does depend on [A0].
17. The rate constant of a reaction
c) Fraction d) none
is

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c) The rate of a first order (a) 50 mL of 0.1M NaOH+25mL


reaction does not depend on (a) 60mLM/10HCl+40mLM/10Na of 0.1M CH3 COOH 11. Equal volumes of three
reactant concentrations; the rate of OH acid solutions of pH 1,2 and 3
(b) 100 mL of 0.1M
a second order reaction does depend (b) 55mLM/10HCl+45mLM/10Na are mixed in a vessel. What will
CH3COOH+100 mL of 0.1M
on reactant concentrations. OH be the H+ ion concentration in the
NH4OH
mixture?
d) The rate of a first order (c) 75mLM/5HCl+25mLM/5NaOH (c) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl+200
reaction does depend on reactant (a) 3.7 ×10-2 (b) 10-6
(d) 100mLM/10HCl+100mLM/10 mL of 0.1M NH4OH
concentrations; the rate of a second NaOH (c) 0.111 (d) none of these
(d) 100 mL of 0.1M HCl+100
order reaction does not depend on mL of 0.1M NaOH
3. The solubility of BaSO4 in 12. The solubility of AgCl (s)
reactant concentrations.
water is 2.42 ×10-3gL-1 at 298K. with solubility product 1.6 ×10-
7. Which of the following
25. After 2 hours, a radioactive fluro – compounds is most likely
10 in 0.1M NaCl solution would
The value of its solubility
product(Ksp) will be (Given molar be
substance becomes (1/60)th of to behave as a Lewis base?
mass of BaSO4 =233g mol 4-1) (a) 1.26 × 10-5M
original amount. Then the half life (a) BF3 (b) PF3
(a) 1.08 ×10-14mol2L-2 (b) 1.6 ×10-9M
( in min) is (c) CF4 (d) SiF4
a) 60 min b) 120 min (b) 1.08 ×10-12mol2L-2 (c) 1.6 ×10-11M
c) 30 min d) 15 min (c) 1.08 ×10-10mol2L-2 8. Which of these is not likely (d) Zero
(d) 1.08 ×10-8mol2L-2 to act as lewis base?
(a) BF3 (b) PF3 13. If the solubility product of
VOLUME-2
lead iodide is 3.2 ×10-8 , its
8. Ionic Equilibrium 4. pH of a saturated solution (c) CO (d) F–
of Ca(OH)2 is 9. The Solubility solubility will be
1. Concentration of the
product ( Ksp) of Ca(OH)2 9. The aqueous solutions of (a) 2×10-3M
Ag+ ions in a saturated solution of
Ag2C2O4 is 2.24 ×10-4mol L- (a) 0.5 ×10-15 sodium formate, anilinium chloride (b) 4×10-4M
1 solubility product of Ag C O is
2 2 4 (b) 0.25 ×10-10 and potassium cyanide are (c) 1.6 ×10-5M
(a) 2.42 ×10-8mol3L-3 (c) 0.125 ×10-15 respectively (d) 1.8 ×10-5M
(b) 2.66 ×10-12mol3L-3 (d) 0.5 ×10-10 (a) acidic, acidic, basic
(b) basic, acidic, basic 14. MY and NY3, are
(c) 4.5 ×10-11mol3L-3
5. Conjugate base for bronsted (c) basic, neutral, basic insoluble salts and have the same
(d) 5.619 ×10-12mol3L-3 Ksp values of 6.2 ×10-13 at room
acids H2O and HF are (d) none of these
temperature. Which statement
2. Following solutions were (a) OH- and H2FH+ , respectively
would be true with regard to MY
prepared by mixing different (b) H3O+ and F, respectively 10. The percentage of pyridine
and NY3?
volumes of NAOH of HCL (c) OH- and F-, respectively (C5H5N) that forms pyridinium
ion (C5H5NH) in a 0.10M (a) The salts MY and NY3 are
different concentrations (d) H3O+ and H2F+, respectively
aqueous pyridine solution (Kb for more soluble in 0.5M KY than in
pH of which one of them will be
C5H5N= 1.7×10-9) is pure water
equal to 1? 6. Which will make basic
(a) 0.006% (b) 0.013% (b) The addition of the salt of KY
buffer?
to the suspension of MY and
(c) 0.77% (d) 1.6%

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NY3 will have no effect on their (a) 6.22 ×1023


solubility’s 20. The pH of an aqueous (b) 6.022 ×1024 5.
(c) The molar solubilities of MY solution is Zero. The solution is Electrol KN NaO Na
(c) 6.022 ×1022 KCl HCl
and NY3 in water are identical (a) slightly acidic yte O3 AC Cl
(d) 6.022 ×10−34
(d) The molar solubility of MY in (b) strongly acidic Λ -
149 145. 426 126
water is less than that of NY3 (c) neutral 2. Consider the following half (Scm2 .9 0 .2 91.0 .5
(d) basic cell reactions. mol-1)
15. What is the pH of the Mn2+ + 2e− ➝ Mn Eo = -1.18V calculate ΛoHoAC using appropriate
resulting solution when equal 21. The hydrogen ion Mn2+ ➝Mn3+ e- Eo = -1.51V molar conductances of the
volumes of 0.1M NaOH and concentration of a buffer solution The Eo for the reaction 3Mn2+ ➝ electrolytes listed above at infinite
0.01M HCl are mixed? consisting of a weak acid and its dilution in water at 25oC.
Mn+2Mn3+ , and the possibility of
(a) 2.0 (b) 3 salts is given by the forward reaction are (a) 517.2 (b) 552.7
(c) 7.0 (d) 12.65 (a) [H+]=Ka[acid]/[salt] respectively (c) 390.7 (d) 217.5
(b) [H+]=Ka/[salt] (a) 2.69V and spontaneous
16. The dissociation constant of (c) [H+]=Ka/[acid] 6. Faradays constant is
(b) -2.69 and non spontaneous
a weak acid is 1×10-3. In order (d) [H+]=Ka[salt]/[acid] defined as
(c) 0.33V and Spontaneous
to prepare a buffer solution with a (a) charge carried by 1 electron
pH = 4, the [Acid]/[Salt] ratio (d) 4.18V and non spontaneous
22. Which of the following (b) charge carried by one mole of
should be relation is correct for degree of electrons
3. The button cell used is
(a) 4.3 (b) 3.4 hydrolysis of ammonium acetate? (c) charge required to deposit one
watches function as follows
(c) 10.1 (d) 1.10 (a) h=√KhC (b) h=√KaKb Zn (s) + Ag2O (s) + H2O (l) mole of substance
(c) h=√KhKa.Kb (d) h=√Ka.KbKh ⇌ 2Ag (s) + Zn2+ (aq) + 2OH- (d) charge carried by 6.22
17. The pH of 10-5M KOH (aq)the half cell potentials ×1010 electrons
solution will be 23. Dissociation constant of are Ag2 O (s) + H2O (l) +
(a) 9 (b) 5 NH4OH is 1.8 x 10-5 the 2e- →2Ag (s) + 2OH- (aq) Eo.34V 7. How many faradays of
(c) 19 (d) none of these hydrolysis constant of NH4Cl The cell potential will be electricity are required for the
would be (a) 0.84V (b) 1.34V following reaction to occur
18. H2PO4- the conjugate base a) 1.8×10−19 (b) 5.55×10−10 (c) 1.10V (d) 0.42V MnO→ Mn 4-
of (a) 5F (b) 3F
(a) PO43− (b) P2O5 (c) 5.55×10−5 (d) 1.80×10−5 4. The molar conductivity of (c) 1F (d) 7F
(c) H3PO4 (d)HPO42- a 0.5 mol dm-3 solution of
AgNO3 with electrolytic conductivity 8. A current strength of 3.86
19. Which of the following can 9.Electro Chemistry of 5.76 ×10−3 S cm−1at 298 K is A was passed through molten
act as lowery – Bronsted acid (a) 2.88 S cm2mol-1 Calcium oxide for 41minutes and
well as base? 1. The number of electrons (b) 11.52 S cm2mol-1 40 seconds. The mass of Calcium
(a) HCl (b) SO42− that have a total charge of 9650 in grams deposited at the cathode
(c) 0.086 S cm2mol-1
(c) HPO4 2 −
(d) Br- coulombs is is (atomic mass of Ca is 40g /
(d) 28.8 S cm2 mol -1 mol and 1F = 96500C).

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(a) 4 (b) 2 (d) PbSO4 on cathode is oxidised to (c) assertion is true but reason is (a) 5.7 x10 -12 (b) 1.32×10−12
(c) 8 (d) 6 Pb false (c) 7.5 ×10−12
(d) both assertion and reason are (d) 1.74 x10 -12
9. During electrolysis of 13. Among the following cells false
molten sodium chloride, the time I) Leclanche cell 20. In the electrochemical cell:
required to produce 0.1mol of II) Nickel – Cadmium cell 16. In H2-O2 fuel cell the Zn|ZnSO4 (0.01M)||
chlorine gas using a current of 3A III) Lead storage battery reaction occur at cathode is CuSO4 (1.0M)| Cu, the emf of this
is IV) Mercury cell (a) O2(g) + 2H2O (l) + Daniel cell is E1. When the
(a) 55 minutes Primary cells are concentration of ZnSO4 is changed
4e- ⟶ 4OH− (aq)
(b)107.2 minutes (a) I and IV to 1.0M and that CuSO4 changed
(b) H+(aq) + OH− (aq) ⟶ H2O (l)
(c) 220 minutes (b) I and III to 0.01M, the emf changes to E2.
(c) 2H2 (g) + O (g) ⟶ 2H2O (g)
(d) 330 minutes (c) III and IV From the followings, which one is
(d) H+ + e-+ ⟶ 1/2 H2
(d) II and III the relationship between E1 and
10. The number of electrons E 2?
17. The equivalent conductance
delivered at the cathode during 14. Zinc can be coated on iron (a) E1 < E2 (b) E1 > E2
of M/36solution of a weak
electrolysis by a current of 1A in to produce galvanized iron but the monobasic acid is 6mho cm2 and at (c) E2≥E1 (d) E1=E2
60 seconds is (charge of electron = reverse is not possible. It is because infinite dilution is 400 mho cm2.
1.6 ×10−19C ) (a) Zinc is lighter than iron The dissociation constant of this 21. Consider the change in
(a) 6.22 ×1023 (b) Zinc has lower melting point acid is oxidation state of Bromine
(b) 6.022 ×1020 than iron corresponding to different emf
(a) 1.25 ×10−6 (b) 6.25 x 10-6
values as shown in the diagram
(c) 3.75 ×1020 (c) Zinc has lower negative (c) 1.25 ×10−4 (d) 6.25 x 10 -5
below:
(d) 7.48 ×1023 electrode potential than iron
BrO−41.82V→BrO−31.5V→HBrO
(d) Zinc has higher negative 18. A conductivity cell has
1.595V→Br21.0652V→Br−
11. Which of the following electrode potential than iron been calibrated with a 0.01M, 1:1
Then the species undergoing
electrolytic solution has the least electrolytic solution (specific
disproportional is
specific conductance 15. Assertion : pure iron when conductance ( k =1.25x10-3cm-1) in
(a) Br2 (b) BrO4-
(a)2N (b) 0.002N heated in dry air is converted the cell and the measured resistance
with a layer of rust. was 800 Ω at 25oC. The cell (c) BrO 3
- (d) HBrO
(c) 0.02N (d) 0.2N
Reason : Rust has the composition constant is,
Fe3 O4 22. For the cell reaction
12. While charging lead storage (a) 10−1 cm−1 (b) 101 cm−1
2Fe3+(aq) + 2l−(aq) →→2Fe2+ (aq)
battery (a) if both assertion and reason are (c) 1 c m −1
(d) 5.7x10-12
+ 12 (aq)
(a) PbSO4 on cathode is reduced to true and reason is the correct
Eocell=0.24V = at 298K. The
Pb explanation of assertion 19. Conductivity of a saturated
standard Gibbs energy (Δ, Go) of
(b) PbSO4 on anode is oxidised to solution of a sparingly soluble salt
the cell reactions is :
PbO2 (b) if both assertion and reason are AB (1:1 electrolyte) at 298K is
true but reason is not the correct (a) -46.32 KJ mol−1
1.85 ×10−5 S m−1. Solubility
(c) PbSO4 on anode is reduced to
explanation of product of the salt AB at 298K
Pb (b) -23.16 KJ mol-1
assertion (Aom)AB = 14 ×10−3Sm2 mol−1.

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(c) 46.32 KJ mol−1 its y – axis intercept respectively flocculating ion added, greater is (c)foam – Mist
(d) 23.16 KJ mol-1 corresponds to its power to cause precipitation (d)whipped cream – sol
(a) =1/n , k (b) log =1n , k (a) if both assertion and reason are
23. A certain current liberated (c) =1/n, log k (d) log =1n , log k true and reason is the correct 9. The most effective
0.504gm of hydrogen in 2 hours. explanation of assertion. electrolyte for the coagulation of
How many grams of copper can be 2. Which of the following is (b)if both assertion and reason are AS2S3Sol is
liberated by the same current incorrect for physisorption? true but reason is not the correct (a) NaCl (b) Ba(NO3)2
flowing for the same time in a (a) reversible explanation of assertion (c) K3[Fe(CN)6] (d)Al3+
copper sulphate solution (b) increases with increase in (c) assertion is true but reason is
(a) 31.75 (b) 15.8 temperature false 10. Which one of the is not a
(c) 7.5 (d) 36.5 (c) low heat of adsorption (d) both assertion and reason are surfactant?
(d) increases with increase in false (a) CH3 -(CH2)15 -N -
24. A gas X at 1 atm is surface area (CH3)2 CH2Br
bubble through a solution 6. Statement :To stop (b) CH3 -(CH2)15 -NH2
containing a mixture of 1MY- and 3. Which one of the following bleeding from an injury, ferric
(c)CH3 -(-CH2-)16CH2 OSO2- Na+
1MZ- at 25oC . If the reduction characteristics are associated with chloride can be applied. Which
(d)OHC-(CH2)14 -CH2 -COO- Na+
potential of Z > Y > X, then adsorption? comment about the statement is
(a) Y will oxidize X and not Z (a) ΔG and ΔH are negative justified?
11. The phenomenon observed
(b) Y will oxidize Z and not X but ΔS is positive (a)It is not true, ferric chloride is
when a beam of light is passed
a poison.
(c) Y will oxidize both X and Z (b) ΔG and ΔS are negative through a colloidal solution is
(b) It is true, Fe3+ ions coagulate
(d) Y will reduce both X and Z but ΔH is positive (a) Cataphoresis (b) Electrophoresis
blood which is a negatively
(c) ΔG is negative but ΔH and ΔS (c) Coagulation (d)Tyndall effect
charged sol
are positive
(c) It is not true; ferric chloride is
(d) ΔG,ΔH and ΔS all are 12. In an electrical field, the
25. Cell equation : A + ionic and gets into the blood
negative. particles of a colloidal system move
2B- →→A2++2B; stream.
towards cathode. The coagulation
A2+ + 2e- →→AEo =+0.34V and (d) It is true, coagulation takes
4. Fog is colloidal solution 0 of the same sol is studied using
log10 K = 15.6 at 300K for cell place because of formation of
of K2SO4 (i),
reactions find Eo for negatively charged sol with Cl-.
(a) solid in gas Na3 PO4 (ii),K4 [Fe(CN)6] (iii) and
B1 + e− →→B NaCl (iv) Their coagulating power
(b) gas in gas 7. Hair cream is
(a) 0.80 (b) 1.26 should be
(c) liquid in gas (a) gel (b) emulsion
(c) -0.54 (d) -10.94 (a) II > I > IV > III
(d) gas in liquid (c)solid sol (d) sol.
(b) III > II > I > IV
10.Surface Chemistry
5. Assertion : Coagulation (c) I > II > III > IV
8. Which one of the following
power of Al3+ is more than Na+. is correctly matched? (d) none of these
1. For freudlich isotherm a
(a) Emulsion – Smoke
Reason : greater the valency of the
graph of log x/m is plotted against
log P. The slope of the line and (b)Gel - butter

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13. Collodion is a 4% solution A B C D


of which one of the following (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) 19. On which of the following 11. Hydroxy Compounds and
compounds in alcohol – ether properties does the coagulating Ethers
mixture? (d) power of an ion depend ? 1. An alcohol (x) gives blue
(a) Nitroglycerine A B C D (a) Both magnitude and sign of colour in victormayer’s test and
(b) Cellulose acetate (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) the charge on the ion. 3.7g of X when treated with
16. The coagulation values in (b) Size of the ion alone metallic sodium liberates 560 mL
(c)Glycoldinitrate
millimoles per litre of the of hydrogen at 273 K and 1 atm
(d)Nitrocellulose (c) the magnitude of the charge on
electrolytes used for the coagulation pressure what will be the possible
the ion alone
of AS2S3 are given below structure of X?
14. Which one of the following (d) the sign of charge on the ion
is an example for homogeneous (I) (NaCl)=52 (II) ((BaCl2)=0.69 (a) CH3 CH (OH) CH2CH3
alone.
catalysis? (III) (MgSO4)=0.22 (b) CH3 – CH (OH) – CH3
(a) manufacture of ammonia by The correct order of their 20. Match the following (c)CH3 – C (OH) – (CH3)2
Haber’s process coagulating power is Pure (d) CH3- CH2 –CH (OH) –
CH2 – CH3
(a)III > II > I a i Chlorine
(b) manufacture of sulphuric acid nitrogen
by contact process Haber
(b) I > II > III b ii Sulphuric acid
(c) hydrogenation of oil process 2. Which of the following
(d) Hydrolysis of sucrose in (c) I > III > II Contact compounds on reaction with methyl
c iii Ammonia
presence of all HCl (d) II > III > I process magnesium bromide will give
sodium azide tertiary alcohol.
Deacons
15. Match the following 17. Adsorption of a gas on d iv (or) Barium (a) benzaldehyde
Process
High density solid metal surface is spontaneous azide (b) propanoic acid
a V2O5 i and exothermic, then Which of the following is the
polyethylene (c) methyl propanoate
Ziegler (a) ΔH increases correct option? (d)acetaldehyde
b – ii PAN (b) ΔS increases (a)
ABC D 3.
Natta (c) ΔG increases
c Peroxide iii NH3 (d) ΔS decreases i ii iii iv The X is
Finely (b) (a)
d divided iv H2SO4 18. If x is the amount of AB CD
Fe adsorb ate and m is the amount ii iv i iii
(a) of adsorbent, which of the
A B C D following relations is not related to (c)
(iv) (i) (ii) (iii) adsorption process? A B CD (b)
(b) (a) x/m=f(P) at constant T iii iv ii i
A B C D (b) x/m=f(T) at constant P
(i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (d)
(c) P = f(T) at constant x/m
A B CD
(d) x/m = PT
c) iv iii ii i

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(c) (c) (a) 4 – chloro – 2,3 – (b)Williams on alcoholsynthesis


dimethyl pentan – 1-ol (c) Williamson ether synthesis
(b) 2,3 – dimethyl – 4- (d)dehydrogenation of alcohol
chloropentan -1-ol
(d) (c) 2,3,4 – trimethyl – 4- 14. Assertion : Phenol is more
chlorobutan -1-ol reactive than benzene towards
(d) 4– chloro – 2,3,4 –
electrophilic substitution reaction
trimethyl pentan – 1-ol
(d) None of these Reason : In the case of phenol, the
4. In the reaction sequence, 7. Carbolic acid is intermediate arenium ion is more
Ethane ⟶HOCl A⟶x⟶HOCl stabilized by resonance
(a) Phenol 11. Assertion : Phenol is more
A⟶x ethan -1, 2 - diol . A and (a)if both assertion and reason are
(b) Picri cacid acidic than ethanol
X respectively are true and reason is the correct
(c) benzoic acid Reason: Phenoxide ion is resonance
(a) Chloroethane and NaOH explanation of assertion.
stabilized
(b) ethanol and H2SO4 (d) phenylacetic acid (b) if both assertion and reason are
(a) if both assertion and reason are
(c) 2 – chloroethan -1-ol and true and reason is the correct
true but reason is not the correct
8. Which one of the following explanation of assertion.
NaHCO3 explanation of assertion.
will react with phenol to give (c) assertion is true but reason is
(d) ethanol and H2O salicyladehyde after hydrolysis. (b) if both assertion and reason are
false
(a) Dichlo methane true but reason is not the correct
5. Which one of the following (d) both assertion and reason are
(b) trichloroethane explanation of assertion.
is the strongest acid false.
(a)2 – nitrophenol (c) trichloro methane (c) assertion is true but reason is
(b) 4 – chlorophenol HO CH2 CH2 – OH on
false
(d) CO2 15.
(d) both assertion and reason are heating with periodic acid gives
(c) 4– nitrophenol false.
(d) 3 – nitrophenol
9. (CH3)3-C-CH(OH) (a) methanoic acid (b)Glyoxal
CH3 ⟶conH2SO4 X (major (c)methanol (d)CO2
product) 12. In the reaction
6. on Ethanol ⟶PCl5X⟶alc.KOH
Y⟶298kH2SO4/H2OZ. The ‘Z’
(a) (CH3)3 CCH = CH2 16. Which of the following
treatment with Con H2SO4, (b) (CH3)2C = C (CH3)2 compound can be used as artireeze
is
predominately gives (c) CH2= C(CH3)CH2-CH2- CH3 in automobile rediators?
(a) ethane
(d) CH2= C (CH3) - CH2- CH2- (a)methanol (b)ethanol
(a) (b)ethoxyethane
CH3 (c)Neopentyl alcohol
(c) ethylbisulphite (d)ethan -1, 2-diol
10. The correct IUPAC name
(d) ethanol
of the compound,
17. The reactions
(b) 13. The reaction

Can be classified as
(a) dehydration is an example of

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(a) Wurtz reaction (a) red colour (b) violet colour (c)electrophilic addition (c) CH3CH(OH)CH2- CH3
(b) cyclic reaction (c) dark green colour (d)Nucleophilic addition
(c) Williamson reaction (d) no colouration.
3. Reaction of acetone with
(d) Kolbe reactions
one of the following reagents (d)
22. Isoprophylbenzene on air
involves nucleophilic addition
oxidation in the presence of dilute
Assertion: 2,2 – dimethyl
18. One mole of an organic
followed by elimination of water. 7.
compound (A) with the formula acid gives
The reagent is propanoic acid does not give HVZ
C3H8O reacts completely with two (a) C6H5COOH
(a) Grignard reagent reaction.
Reason: 2 – 2, dimethyl
moles of HI to form X and Y. (b)C6H5COCH3
(b)Sn / HCl
propanoic acid does not have – -
When Y is boiled with aqueous (c) C6H5COC6H5
(c)hydrazine in presence of slightly
alkali it forms Z. Z answers the (d)C6H5- OH
acidic solution hydrogen atom
iodoform test. The compound (A)
(d)hydrocyanic acid (a) if both assertion and reason are
is 12. Carbonyl Compounds
(a)propan – 2-ol 1. The correct structure of the
true and reason is the correct
product ‘A’ formed in the reaction
4. In the following explanation of assertion.
(b)propan -1-ol
reaction, HC≡CHH2SO4⟶HgSO4 (b) if both assertion and reason are
(c) ethoxy ethane
X Product ‘X’ will not give true but reason is not the correct
(a) Tollen’s test
(d) methoxy ehane
explanation of assertion.
(b) Victor meyer test (c)assertion is true but reason is
19. Among the following ethers
(a) (c) Iodoform test false
which one will produce methyl
alcohol on treatment with hot HI? (b) (d) Fehling test (d) both assertion and reason are
false
(a) (H3C)-3C-|-O-CH3
(b) (CH3-)2-CH-CH2-O-CH3
5. CH2=CH2i)O3⟶ii)Zn/H2
OXNH3⟶Y, ′Y′ is 8. Which of the following
(c) CH3-(CH2)3-O-CH3 represents the correct order of
(a) Formaldelyde
(d) CH3-CH2-CHCH3|CHCH3|- acidity in the given compounds
(b)diacetoneammonia
O-CH3 (a) FCH2COOH > CH3COOH >
(c)hexamethylenetetramine
(c) (d)oxime BrCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
20. Williamson synthesis of (d) (b)FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH >
preparing dimethyl ether is a / an BrCH2COOH > CH2COOH
6. Predict the product Z in
/
the following series of (c) CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH >
a) SN1 reactions FCH2COOH > Br-CH2COOH
reactions Ethanoic
(b)SN2 reaction acid (d)Cl CH2COOH > CH3COOH
(c)electrophilic addition 2. The formation of > BrCH2COOH > ICH2COOH
(d)electrophilic substitution cyanohydrin from acetone is an .
example of (a) (CH3)2 C(OH)C6H5 9. Benzoic
21. On reacting with neutral (a)nucleophilic substitution acid i)NH3⟶ii)ΔANaOBr⟶BNaN
(b) CH3CH(OH)C6H5
ferric chloride, phenol gives (b)electrophilic substitution O2/HCl⟶C ′C′is

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(a) anilinium chloride (c) assertion is true but reason is


(b) O – nitro aniline false
(c)benzene diazonium chloride (c) (d) both assertion and reason are
(d) m– nitro benzoic acid (b) false

10. Ethanoic 18. Which one of the following


(d)
acid ⟶.P/Br2⟶.P/Br22- reaction is an example of
16. In which case chiral carbon
bromoethanoic acid. This reaction is (c) disproporationation reaction
is not generated by reaction with
called HCN (a) Aldol condensation
(a) Finkelstein reaction (a) (b) cannizaro reaction
(b) Haloform reaction (d) (c) Benzoin condensation
(c) Hell – Volhard – Zelinsky (d) none of these
reaction
14. The IUPAC name 19. Which one of the following
(d) none of these (b)
undergoes reaction with 50%
11. CH3Br ⟶KCN(A)⟶H2O of sodium hydroxide solution to give
+(B)⟶PCl5⟶KCN(A)⟶H2O+(B the corresponding alcohol and acid
)⟶PCl5 (C) product (c) is (a) Phenylmethanal (b) ethanal
(a) but – 3- enoicacid (c) ethanol (d) methanol
(a) acetylchloride
(b) but – 1- ene-4-oic acid
(c)but – 2- ene-1-oic acid
(b) chloro acetic acid
20. The reagent used to
(c) αα- chlorocyano ethanoic aci (c)
(d) but -3-ene-1-oicacid distinguish between acetaldehyde
(d) none of these
and benzaldehyde is
15. Identify the product formed (a) Tollens reagent
12. Which one of the following
reduces tollens reagent
in the (b)Fehling’s solution
(c) 2,4 – dinitrophenyl hydrazine
reaction (d)
(a) formic acid
Assertion : p – N, N
(b)acetic acid (d) semicarbazide
17.
(c)benzophenone – dimethyl aminobenzaldehyde
(d) none of these 21. Phenyl methanal is reacted
undergoes benzoin condensation
with concentrated NaOH to give
13. Reason : The aldehydic (-CHO)
(a) two products X and Y. X reacts
group is meta directing
(a) with metallic sodium to liberate
(a) if both assertion and reason are hydrogen X and Y are
true and reason is the correct
(b) (a) sodiumbenzoate and phenol
explanation of assertion.
(b) Sodium benzoate and phenyl
(b) if both assertion and reason are
methanol
true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.

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(c) phenyl methanol and sodium aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols (a) CH3CONHCH3
benzoate of comparable molecular mass. It is (b) CH3 CH2CONH2 (d)
(d) none of these due to their
(c) CH3CONH2
22. In which of the following (a) more extensive association of 7. Aniline +
(d) C6H5CONH2
reactions new carbon – carbon carboxylic acid via van der Waals benzoylchloride ⟶NaOH⟶NaOHC
bond is not formed? force of attraction
4. Assertion : Acetamide on 6H5 - NH - COC H this reaction
(a) Aldol condensation (b) formation of carboxylate ion reaction with KOH and bromine is known as
(b) Friedel craft reaction (c) formation of intramolecular H- gives acetic acid (a) Friedel – crafts reaction
(c) Kolbe’s reaction bonding Reason : Bromine catalyses (b) HVZ reaction
(d) Wolf kishner reduction (d) formation of intermolecular H hydrolysis of acetamide. (c) Schotten –Baumann reaction
– bonding (a) If both assertion and reason are (d) none of these
23. An alkene “A” on reaction true and reason is the correct
with O3 and Zn - H2O gives 13.Organic Nitrogen Compounds explanation of assertion 8. The product formed by the
propanone and ethanol in 1. Which of the following (b) if both assertion and reason are reaction an aldehyde with a
equimolar ratio. Addition of HCl reagent can be used to convert true but reason is not the correct prmary amine
to alkene “A” gives “B” as the nitrobenzene to aniline explanation of assertion. (a)carboxylic acid
major product. The structure of (a) Sn / HCl (c) assertion is true but reason is (b) aromatic acid
(c) schiff ’s base
product “B” is (b) ZnHg / NaOH false
(a) (c) LiAlH4 (d)both assertion and reason are (d) ketone
( (d) All of these false
9. Which of the following
2. The method by which 5. reaction is not correct.
aniline cannot be prepared is CH3CH2 Br ⟶ΔaqNaOHA⟶ΔKM
b) (a) CH3 CH2 NH2 ⟶HNO2⟶HN
(a) degradation of benzamide with nO4/H+B⟶ΔNH3C⟶Br2/NaOH
D′D′is O2CH2 CH2 OH + N2
Br2 / NaOH
(a) bromomethane (b)
(b) potassium salt of phthalimide
treated with chlorobenzene followed (b) α-bromo sodium acetate
(c) by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH (c) methanamine (c)CH2 CONH2 ⟶Br2/NaOH⟶Br
solution. (d) acetamide 2/NaOHCH NH2
(c) Hydrolysis of phenylcyanide with (d) none of these
acidic solution 6. Which one of the following
(d) reduction of nitrobenzene by Sn nitro compounds does not react 10. When aniline reacts with
(d) with nitrous acetic anhydride the product formed
/ HCl
(a) CH3 -CH2 -CH2 -NO2 is
3. Which one of the following (b) (CH3)2 CH - CH2NO2 (a) o – aminoacetophenone
24. Carboxylic acids have will not undergo Hofmann (c)(CH3)3 C NO2 (b) m-aminoacetophenone
higher boiling points than bromamide reaction (c) p – aminoacetophenone

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(d) acetanilide (b) Ethanol, ammonium hydroxid 22. Ammonium salt of benzoic
15. C5HN13 reacts with (c) Ethanol, .NH2OH acid is heated strongly with and
11. The order of basic strength HNO2 to give an optically active the product so formed is reduced
compound – The compound is
(d) C3H5NH2, H2O
for methyl substituted amines in and then treated with NaNO2 /
aqueous solution is (a) pentan – 1- amine 20. IUPAC name for the
HCl at low temperature. The final
(a) N(CH3)3 > N(CH3)2H > (b) pentan – 2- amine amine
compound formed is
N(CH3)H2 > NH3 (c) N,N – dimethylpropan -2- (a) Benzene diazonium chloride
(b)N(CH3)H2 > N(CH3)2H > amine (b) Benzyl alcohol
N(CH3)3 > NH3 (d) N – methylbutan – 2- (c) Phenol
(c) NH3 > N(CH3)H2 > N(CH3)2 H amine (d) Nitrosobenzene
> N(CH3)3 16. Secondary nitro alkanes (a) 3 – Bimethylamino – 3
(d)N(CH3)2H > N(CH3)H2 >
react with nitrous acid to form – methyl pentane 23. Identify X in the sequence
N(CH3)3 > NH3
(a) red solution (b) blue solution (b) 3 (N,N – Triethyl) – 3- give below
(c) green solution amino pentane
(d) yellow solution
12. (c) 3 – N,N – trimethyl
17. Which of the following pentanamine (a)
amines does not undergo (d) 3– (N,N – Dimethyl
amino) – 3- methyl pentane
(a) H3PO2 and H2O (b) H+/H2O acetylation?
(c) HgSO4/H2SO4 (d) Cu2Cl2 (a) t – butylamine
(b) ethylamine 21. P (b)
13. C6H5NO2 ⟶Fe/HelA⟶27
3KNaNO2/HClB⟶283H2OC′C′is
(c) diethylamine Product ‘P’ in the above reaction
(d) triethylamine is
⟶Fe/HelA⟶273KNaNO2/HClB
(c)
⟶283H2OC′C′is (a)
18. Which one of the following (b)
(a) C6H5- OH
is most basic?
(a) 2,4 – dichloroaniline
(b) C6H5-CH2OH
(d)
(b) 2,4 – dimethyl aniline
(c) C6H5- COH

(c) 2,4 – dinitroaniline


(d) C6H5NH2

14. Nitrobenzene on reaction (d) 2,4 – dibromoaniline 24. Among the following, the
with at 80-100oC forms which (c) reaction that proceeds through an
one of the following products? 19. When (d) electrophilic substitution, is :
(a) 1,4 – dinitrobenzene (a)
(b) 2,4,6 – tirnitrobenzene
is reduced with Sn / HCl the pair
(c) 1,2 – dinitrobenzene
of compounds formed are

(d) 1,3 – dinitrobenzene


(a) Ethanol, hydrozylamine
hydrochloride

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(b) with configuration given below (b) If both assertion and reason are (b) the sugar component in RNA
Respectively is, true but reason is not the correct is 2’-deoxyribose and the sugar
(a) L-Erythrose, L-Threose, L- explanation of assertion component in DNA is arabinose
Erythrose, D-Threose (c) If assertion is true but reason is (c) the sugar component in RNA is
(b) D-Threose,D-Erythrose, L- false. an arabinose and the sugar
component in DNA is 2’-
(c)
Threose, L-Erythrose, (d) if both assertion and reason are
(c) L-Erythrose, L-Threose, D- false. deoxyribose
Erythrose, D-Threose (d) the sugar component in RNA
(d) D-Erythrose, D-Threose, L- 6. The central dogma of is ribose and the sugar component
(d) Erythrose, L-Threose molecular genetics states that the in DNA is 2’-deoxyribose
genetic information flows from
3. Which one given below is (a) Amino acids Protein DNA 10. In aqueous solution of
a non-reducing sugar? (b) DNA Carbohydrates Proteins amino acids mostly exists in,
25. The major product of the (a)Glucose (b) Sucrose (c) DNA RNA Proteins (a) NH2-CH(R)-COOH
following reaction (c) maltose (d) Lactose (b) NH2-CH(R)-COO-
d) DNA RNA Carbohydrates
(a) (c)H3N+-CH(R)-COOH
(b) 4. Glucose(HCN) Product 7. In a protein, various (d)H3N+-CH(R)-COO-
(hydrolysis) Product (HI + Heat) amino acids liked together by
A, the compound A is (a) Peptide bond 11. Which one of the following
(a) Heptanoic acid is not produced by body?
(b) Dative bond
(b) 2-Iodohexane (a)DNA (b)Enzymes
(c) α-Glycosidic bond
(c) Heptane (c)Harmones (d)Vitamins
(c) (d) β - Glycosidic bond
(d) (d) Heptanol
12. The number of sp2 and
8. Among the following the
sp3 hybridised carbon in fructose
5. Assertion: A solution of achiral amino acid is
are respectively
sucrose in water is dextrorotatory. (a) 2-ethylalanine
But on hydrolysis in the presence (a) 1and 4 (b)4 and 2
14.Biomolecules (b) 2-methylglycine
1. Which one of the following of little hydrochloric acid, it (c) 5 and 1 (d) 1 and 5
(c) 2-hydroxymethylserine
rotates the plane polarized light becomes levorotatory. (AIIMS)
Reason: Sucrose hydrolysis gives (d) Tryptophan 13. Vitamin B2 is also known
towards left?
unequal amounts of glucose and as
(a) D(+) Glucose 9. The correct statement
fructose. As a result of this change (a) Riboflavin
(b) L(+) Glucose regarding RNA and DNA
in sign of rotation is observed. (b) Thiamine
(c) D(-) Fructose respectively is
(a) If both accretion and reason are (c) Nicotinamide
(d) D(+) Galactose true and reason is the correct (a) the sugar component in RNA is
(d) Pyridoxine
explanation of assertion an arabinos and the sugar
2. The correct corresponding component in DNA is ribose
order of names of four aldoses

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14. The pyrimidine bases 17. Which of the following 21. If one strand of the DNA (a) Streptomycin (b) Chloromycetin
present in DNA are vitamins is water soluble? has the sequence ‘ATGCTTGA’, (c) Asprin (d)Penicillin
(a) Cytosine and Adenine (a) Vitamin E then the sequence of complementary
(b)Cytosine and Guanine (b)Vitamin K strand would be 2. Antiseptics and disinfectants
(c)Cytosine and Thiamine (c) Vitamin A (a) TACGAACT either kill or prevent growth of
(d)Cytosine and Uracil (d)Vitamin B (b)TCCGAACT microorganisms. Identify which of
(c) TACGTACT the following statement is not true
15. Among the following L- 18. Complete hydrolysis of (d) TACGRAGT (a) dilute solutions of boric acid
serine is cellulose gives and hydrogen peroxide are strong
(a) (a)L-Glucose 22. Insulin, a hormone antiseptics.
(b) D-Fructose chemically is (b) Disinfectants harm the living
(c)D-Ribose (a) Fat (b) Steroid tissues
(d)D-Glucose (c) Protein (d)Carbohydrates (c) A 0.2% solution of phenol is an
antiseptic while 1% solution acts as
(b) 19. Which of the following 23. αα-D (+) Glucose and β- a disinfectant.
statement is correct? D (+) glucose are (d) Chlorine and iodine are used
(a) Ovalbumin is a simple food (a) Epimers (b) Anomers as strong disinfectants
reserve in egg-white
(c) Enantiomers
(b) Blood proteins thrombin and (d)Conformational isomers 3. Drugs that bind to the
fibrinogen are involved in blood receptor site and inhibit its natural
clotting 24. Which of the following are function are called
(c) Denaturation makes protein epimers (a) antagonists (b)agonists
more active (a)D(+)-Glucose and D(+)- (c)enzymes (d)molecular targets
(c) (d) Insulin maintains the sugar Galactose
level of in the human body (b) D(+)-Glucose and D(+)- 4. Aspirin is a/an
Mannose (a) acetylsalicylic acid
20. Glucose is an aldose. (c) Neither (a) nor (b) (b)benzoyl salicylic acid
Which one of the following
(d) Both (a) and (b) (c)chlorobenzoic acid
reactions is not expected with
(d) (d)anthranilic acid
glucose?
16. The secondary structure of 25. Which of the following
a protein refers to (a) It does not form oxime amino acids are achiral? 5. Which one of the following
(a) fixed configuration of the (b) It does not react with (a) Alanine (b)Leucine structures represents nylon 6,6
polypeptide backbone Grignard reagent polymer?
(c)Proline (d) Glycine
(b) hydrophobic interaction (c)It does not form osazones
(c) sequence of α-amino acids (d) It does not reduce tollens 15.Chemistry In Everyday Life
reagent 1. Which of the following is
(d) α−helical backbone.
an analgesic?

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9. Which is the monomer of (c) assertion is true but reason is


neoprene in the following? false
(a) CH2−C|CL−CH=CH2CH2−C|C (d) both assertion and reason are
(a) L−CH=CH2 false

(b) CH2=CH−C≡CHCH2=CH−C≡ 13. Which of the following is கல்வி கற்றலுக்கு உதவும் youtube
CH a co-polymer? channel, scan the below QR code
(b) (c) CH2=CH−CH=CH2CH2=CH− (a)Orlon (b)PVC
CH=CH2 (c)Teflon (d)PHBV
(c) (d) CH2−C|CH3−CH=CH2CH2−C
14. The polymer used in
|CH3−CH=CH2
making blankets (artificial wool) is
(a)polystyrene (b)PAN
10. Which one of the following
(c)polyester (d)polythene
is a bio-degradable polymer?
(d) (a) HDPE (b)PVC 15. Regarding cross-linked or
(c) Nylon 6 (d) PHBV network polymers, which of the
following statement is incorrect?
11. Non stick cook wares (a) Examples are Bakelite and
generally have a coating of a melamine
polymer, whose monomer is NkYk; gy +1 , +2 Ntjpapay; ghlq;fs;
(b)They are formed from bi and
6. Natural rubber has (a) ethane tri-functional monomers
njhlu;ghd fhnzhspfis ghu;f;f
(a)alternate cis- and trans- (b)prop-2-enenitrile tpUk;gpdhy; gpd;tUk; ,iizg;G
(c)They contain covalent bonds gad;gLk;.
configuration (c) chloroethene between various linear polymer TOUCH HERE TO SEE MORE
(b) random cis- and trans- (d) 1,1,2,2-tetrafluoroethane chains +1,+2 CHEMISTRY VIDEOS
configuration (d)They contain strong covalent
(c)all cis-configuration 12. Assertion: 2-methyl-1,3- bonds in their polymer chain
(d) all trans-configuration butadiene is the monomer of நன்றி
natural rubber
7. Nylon is an example of Reason: Natural rubber is formed
(a) polyamide b) polythene
through anionic addition மேல்நிலை முதைாம் ஆண்டு
polymerisation ேற்றும் இரண்டாம் ஆண்டு
மேதியியல் கற்றலுக்கு உதவும்
(c) polyester d)poly saccharide
(a) If both assertion and reason are
true and reason is the correct ேலைத்தளம்
8. Terylene is an example of
explanation of assertion hscictchemistry.blogspot.com
(a) polyamide (b)polythene
(b)if both assertion and reason are scan the below QR code
c)polyester (d)polysaccharide true but reason is not the correct
explanation of assertion.

Govt.Hr.Sec.School, Mazhaiyur, Thiruvannamalai Dt-604502. Page 43 Govt.Hr.Sec.School, Mazhaiyur, Thiruvannamalai Dt-604502. Page 44

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