MS1 FINALS: Oncology Practice Questions
NCM 112 Care of Clients with Problems in Cellular Aberrations (Oncology)
Medical-Surgical Nursing 1
Finals
1. A female client has an abnormal result on a
Papanicolaou test. After admitting, she read his chart
while the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what
dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse
provide?
A. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells
that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin
B. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal
arrangement in a tissue or an organ
C. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell
by another in tissues where the second type
normally isn’t found
D. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of
differentiated cells
2. For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the
nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to
the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which
expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
A. “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”
B. “Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.”
C. “Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.”
D. “Client stops seeking information.”
3. A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted
to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing
diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase
should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis
statement?
A. Related to visual field deficits
B. Related to difficulty swallowing
C. Related to impaired balance
D. Related to psychomotor seizures
4. A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation
therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment
site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the
nurse should prepare the client to expect:
A. hair loss.
B. stomatitis.
C. fatigue.
D. vomiting.
5. Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she
has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client
that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
A. breast self-examination.
B. mammography.
C. fine needle aspiration.
D. chest X-ray.
6. A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat
laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for
the neck stoma, the nurse should include which
instruction?
A. “Keep the stoma uncovered.”
B. “Keep the stoma dry.”
C. “Have a family member perform stoma care initially
until you get used to the procedure.”
D. “Keep the stoma moist.”
7. A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat
breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid
and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
A. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
B. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
D. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
8. Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform
breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the
purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. cancerous lumps.
B. areas of thickness or fullness.
C. changes from previous self-examinations.
D. fibrocystic masses.
9. A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After examining
her, the physician suspects cervical cancer. The nurse
reviews the client’s history for risk factors for this disease.
Which history finding is a risk factor for cervical cancer?
A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
B. Spontaneous abortion at age 19
C. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
D. Human papillomavirus infection at age 32
10. A female client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12
g/m2 I.V., to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During
methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to
receive which other drug to protect normal cells?
A. probenecid (Benemid)
B. cytarabine (ara-C, cytosine arabinoside [Cytosar-U])
C. thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-TG)
D. leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid
[Wellcovorin])
11. The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past
medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the
nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
A. Duodenal ulcers
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Weight gain
D. Polyps
12. Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about
early detection of breast cancer. The average age of the
women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer
Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the
women:
A. perform breast self-examination annually.
B. have a mammogram annually.
C. have a hormonal receptor assay annually.
D. have a physician conduct a clinical examination
every 2 years.
13. A male client with a nagging cough makes an
appointment to see the physician after reading that this
symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer.
What is another warning sign of cancer?
A. Persistent nausea
B. Rash
C. Indigestion
D. Chronic ache or pain
14. For a female client newly diagnosed with radiation-
induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include
which intervention in the plan of care?
A. Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds
102° F (38.8° C)
B. Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift
C. Providing for frequent rest periods
D. Placing the client in strict isolation
15. Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a
community facility. The American Cancer Society
recommends that women get mammograms:
A. yearly after age 40.
B. after the birth of the first child and every 2 years
thereafter.
C. after the first menstrual period and annually
thereafter.
D. every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually
thereafter.
16. Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring
for a male client in severe pain receiving a continuous I.V.
infusion of morphine?
A. Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before
therapy begins
B. Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of
dependence appear
C. Changing the administration route to P.O. if the client
can tolerate fluids
D. Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering
the first dose
17. A 35 years old client with ovarian cancer is prescribed
hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an antimetabolite drug.
Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic
agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the
cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes
with:
A. cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell
cycle.
B. normal cellular processes during the S phase of the
cell cycle.
C. the chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA) and chemical binding between DNA
molecules (cell cycle–nonspecific).
D. one or more stages of ribonucleic acid (RNA)
synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell cycle–
nonspecific).
18. The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin
lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand
for?
A. Actinic
B. Asymmetry
C. Arcus
D. Assessment
19. When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain
tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
A. short-term memory impairment.
B. tactile agnosia.
C. seizures.
D. contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
20. A female client is undergoing tests for multiple
myeloma. Diagnostic study findings in multiple myeloma
include:
A. a decreased serum creatinine level.
B. hypocalcemia.
C. Bence Jones protein in the urine.
D. a low serum protein level.
21. A 35 years old client has been receiving
chemotherapy to treat cancer. Which assessment finding
suggests that the client has developed stomatitis
(inflammation of the mouth)?
A. White, cottage cheese–like patches on the tongue
B. Yellow tooth discoloration
C. Red, open sores on the oral mucosa
D. Rust-colored sputum
22. During chemotherapy, an oncology client has a
nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous membrane
related to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression
secondary to the cytotoxic effects of chemotherapy.
Which nursing intervention is most likely to decrease the
pain of stomatitis?
A. Recommending that the client discontinue
chemotherapy
B. Providing a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water
for use as a mouth rinse
C. Monitoring the client’s platelet and leukocyte counts
D. Checking regularly for signs and symptoms of
stomatitis
23. What should a male client over age 52 do to help
ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-
specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly.
B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years.
C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations,
especially after age 50.
D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea
nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels checked yearly.
24. A male client complains of sporadic epigastric pain,
yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue.
Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a
diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer.
Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this
client?
A. Anticipatory grieving
B. Impaired swallowing
C. Disturbed body image
D. Chronic low self-esteem
25. A male client is in isolation after receiving an internal
radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the
nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Stand as far away from the implant as possible and
call for help.
B. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and
place it in a lead-lined container.
C. Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy
department immediately.
D. Put the implant back in place, using forceps and a
shield for self-protection, and call for help.
26. Jeovina, with advanced breast cancer is prescribed
tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this
drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of
reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
A. Vision changes
B. Hearing loss
C. Headache
D. Anorexia
27. A female client with cancer is being evaluated for
possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the
most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
A. Liver
B. Colon
C. Reproductive tract
D. White blood cells (WBCs)
28. A 34-year-old female client is requesting information
about mammograms and breast cancer. She isn’t
considered at high risk for breast cancer. What should the
nurse tell this client?
A. She should have had a baseline mammogram before
age 30.
B. She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her
risk of breast cancer.
C. She should perform breast self-examination during
the first 5 days of each menstrual cycle.
D. When she begins having yearly mammograms,
breast self-examinations will no longer be necessary.
29. Nurse Brian is developing a plan of care for marrow
suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to
floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration
does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
A. 24 hours
B. 2 to 4 days
C. 7 to 14 days
D. 21 to 28 days
30. The nurse is preparing for a female client for magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal
cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following
would pose a threat to the client?
A. The client lies still.
B. The client asks questions.
C. The client hears thumping sounds.
D. The client wears a watch and wedding band.
1. Nina, an oncology nurse educator is speaking to a
women’s group about breast cancer. Questions and
comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding
of some aspects of the disease. Various members of the
audience have made all of the following statements.
Which one is accurate?
A. Mammography is the most reliable method for
detecting breast cancer.
B. Breast cancer is the leading killer of women of
childbearing age.
C. Breast cancer requires a mastectomy.
D. Men can develop breast cancer.
2. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman
about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the
client to do her self-examination:
A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
B. on the same day each month.
C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
D. immediately after her menstrual period.
3. Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly
testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points
would be appropriate to make?
A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer.
B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer
deaths in males.
D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.
4. Rhea, has malignant lymphoma. As part of her
chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil
(Leukeran), 10 mg by mouth daily. When caring for the
client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to
chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first
administration of chlorambucil might this reaction occur?
A. Immediately
B. 1 week
C. 2 to 3 weeks
D. 1 month
5. A male client is receiving the cell cycle–nonspecific
alkylating agent thiotepa (Thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4
weeks by bladder instillation as part of a
chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The
client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does
thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
A. It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
replication only.
B. It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription
only.
C. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA
transcription.
D. It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis.
6. The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to perform
a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:
A. To examine the testicles while lying down
B. That the best time for the examination is after a
shower
C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a
growth
D. That testicular self-examination should be done at
least every 6 months
7. A female client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy
and develops thrombocytopenia. The nurse identifies
which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing
plan of care?
A. Monitoring temperature
B. Ambulation three times daily
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring for pathological fractures
8. Gian, a community health nurse is instructing a group
of female clients about breast self-examination. The nurse
instructs the client to perform the examination:
A. At the onset of menstruation
B. Every month during ovulation
C. Weekly at the same time of day
D. 1 week after menstruation begins

9. Nurse Cecilia is caring for a client who has undergone
a vaginal hysterectomy. The nurse avoids which of the
following in the care of this client?
A. Elevating the knee gatch on the bed
B. Assisting with range-of-motion leg exercises
C. Removal of antiembolism stockings twice daily
D. Checking placement of pneumatic compression
boots
10. Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is
scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides
which preprocedure instruction to the client?
A. Eat a light breakfast only
B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the
procedure
D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding
before the test
11. A male client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor
and several diagnostic tests are prescribed. The nurse
understands that which test will confirm the diagnosis of
malignancy?
A. Biopsy of the tumor
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Computerized tomography scan
12. A female client diagnosed with multiple myeloma and
the client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse
bases the response on which description of this disorder?
A. Altered red blood cell production
B. Altered production of lymph nodes
C. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the
bone
13. Nurse Bea is reviewing the laboratory results of a
client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which of the
following would the nurse expect to note specifically in this
disorder?
A. Increased calcium
B. Increased white blood cells
C. Decreased blood urea nitrogen level
D. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone
marrow
14. Vanessa, a community health nurse conducts a health
promotion program regarding testicular cancer to
community members. The nurse determines that further
information needs to be provided if a community member
states that which of the following is a sign of testicular
cancer?
A. Alopecia
B. Back pain
C. Painless testicular swelling
D. Heavy sensation in the scrotum
15. The male client is receiving external radiation to the
neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effect to
be expected is:
A. Dyspnea
B. Diarrhea
C. Sore throat
D. Constipation
16. Nurse Joy is caring for a client with an internal
radiation implant. When caring for the client, the nurse
should observe which of the following principles?
A. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
B. Do not allow pregnant women into the client’s room
C. Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the
client’s room
D. Individuals younger than 16 years old may be
allowed to go in the room as long as they are 6 feet
away from the client
17. A cervical radiation implant is placed in the client for
treatment of cervical cancer. The nurse initiates what
most appropriate activity order for this client?
A. Bed rest
B. Out of bed ad lib
C. Out of bed in a chair only
D. Ambulation to the bathroom only
18. A female client is hospitalized for insertion of an
internal cervical radiation implant. While giving care, the
nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. The initial
action by the nurse is to:
A. Call the physician
B. Reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately
C. Pick up the implant with gloved hands and flush it
down the toilet
D. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and
place it in a lead container.
19. The nurse is caring for a female client experiencing
neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy and develops a
plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
A. Restrict all visitors
B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Teach the client and family about the need for hand
hygiene
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin
breakdown
20. The home health care nurse is caring for a male client
with cancer and the client is complaining of acute pain.
The appropriate nursing assessment of the client’s pain
would include which of the following?
A. The client’s pain rating
B. Nonverbal cues from the client
C. The nurse’s impression of the client’s pain
D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention
21. Nurse Mickey is caring for a client who is
postoperative following a pelvic exenteration and the
physician changes the client’s diet from NPO status to
clear liquids. The nurse makes which priority assessment
before administering the diet?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Ability to ambulate
C. Incision appearance
D. Urine specific gravity
22. A male client is admitted to the hospital with a
suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease. Which
assessment findings would the nurse expect to note
specifically in the client?
A. Fatigue
B. Weakness
C. Weight gain
 D. Enlarged lymph nodes
23. During the admission assessment of a 35 year old
client with advanced ovarian cancer, the nurse recognizes
which symptom as typical of the disease?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypermenorrhea
C. Abdominal bleeding
D. Abdominal distention
24. Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of
colonization with a client who has microinvasive cervical
cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client,
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Cervical stenosis
D. Ovarian perforation
25. Mr. Miller has been diagnosed with bone cancer. You
know this type of cancer is classified as:
A. sarcoma.
B. lymphoma.
C. carcinoma.
D. melanoma.
26. Sarah, a hospice nurse visits a client dying of ovarian
cancer. During the visit, the client expresses that “If I can
just live long enough to attend my daughter’s graduation,
I’ll be ready to die.” Which phrase of coping is this client
experiencing?
A. Anger
B. Denial
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
27. Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a
mastectomy. Which assessment finding indicates that the
client is experiencing a complication related to the
surgery?
A. Pain at the incisional site
B. Arm edema on the operative side
C. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
D. Complaints of decreased sensation near the
operative site
28. The nurse is admitting a male client with laryngeal
cancer to the nursing unit. The nurse assesses for which
most common risk factor for this type of cancer?
A. Alcohol abuse
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Use of chewing tobacco
D. Exposure to air pollutants
29. The female client who has been receiving radiation
therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if
she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets
that the client may be experiencing:
A. Rupture of the bladder
B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of
radiation therapy
30. The client with leukemia is receiving busulfan
(Myleran) and allopurinol (Zyloprim). The nurse tells the
client that the purpose if the allopurinol is to prevent:
A. Nausea
B. Alopecia
C. Vomiting
D. Hyperuricemia
31. A 25 year old patient is inquiring about the methods or
ways to detect cancer earlier. The nurse least likely
identify this method by stating:
A. Annual chest x-ray.
B. Annual Pap smear for sexually active women only.
C. Annual digital rectal examination for persons over
age 40.
D. Yearly physical and blood examination
32. The removal of entire breast, pectoralis major and
minor muscles and neck lymph nodes which is followed
by skin grafting is a procedure called:
A. Simple mastectomy
B. Modified radical mastectomy
C. Radiation therapy
D. Radical mastectomy
33. Chemotherapy is one of the therapeutic modalities for
cancer. This treatment is contraindicated to which of the
following conditions?
A. Recent surgery
B. Pregnancy
C. Bone marrow depression
D. All of the above
34. The nurse is preparing Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan).
Safe handling of the drug should be implemented to
protect the nurse from injury. Which of the following action
by the nurse should be corrected?
A. The nurse should wear mask and gloves.
B. Air bubbles should be expelled on wet cotton.
C. Label the hanging IV bottle with “ANTINEOPLASTIC
CHEMOTHERAPY” sign.
D. Vent vials after mixing.
35. Neoplasm can be classified as either benign or
malignant. The following are characteristics of malignant
tumor apart from:
A. Metastasis
B. Infiltrates surrounding tissues
C. Encapsulated
D. Poorly differentiated cells
36. On a clinic visit a client who has a relative with cancer,
is asking about the warning signs that may relate to
cancer. The nurse correctly identifies the warning signs of
cancer by responding:
A. “If a sore healing took a month or more to heal,
cancer should be suspected.”
B. “Presence of dry cough is one of the warning signs
of cancer.”
C. “A lump located only in the breast area may suggest
the presence of cancer.”
D. “Sudden weight loss of unexplained etiology can be
a warning sign of cancer.”
37. In staging and grading neoplasm TNM system is used. 44. The following are teaching guidelines regarding
TNM stands for: radiation therapy except:
A. Time, neoplasm, mode of growth A. The therapy is painless
B. Tumor, node, metastasis B. To promote safety, the client is assisted by therapy
C. Tumor, neoplasm, mode of growth personnel while the machine is in operation.
D. Time, node, metastasis C. The client may communicate all his concerns or
needs or discomforts while the machine is operating.
38. Breast self examination (BSE) is one of the ways to D. Safety precautions are necessary only during the
detect breast cancer earlier. The nurse is conducting a time of actual irradiation.
health teaching to female clients in a clinic. During
evaluation the clients are asked to state what they 45. Contact of client on radiation therapy should be limited
learned. Which of the following statement made by a only to how many minutes to promote safety of the
client needs further teaching about BSE? therapy personnel?
A. “BSE is done after menstruation.” A. 1 minute
B. “BSE palpation is done by starting at the center B. 3 minutes
going to the periphery in a circular motion.” C. 5 minutes
C. “BSE can be done in either supine or standing D. 10 minutes
position.”
D. “BSE should start from age 20.” 46. A client is taking Cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) for the
treatment of lymphoma. The nurse is very cautious in
39. A client had undergone radiation therapy (external). administering the medication because this drug poses the
The expected side effects include the following apart from: fatal side effect of:
A. Hair loss A. Alopecia
B. Ulceration of oral mucous membranes B. Myeloma
C. Constipation C. CNS toxicity
D. Headache D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

40. Nurse Janet is assigned in the oncology section of the 47. Cytarabine (Ara-C) is an antimetabolite that can cause
hospital. Which of the following orders should the nurse a common cytarabine syndrome which includes the
question if a client is on radiation therapy? following apart from:
A. Analgesics before meals A. Fever
B. Saline rinses every 2 hours B. Myalgia
C. Aspirin every 4 hours C. Chest pain
D. Bland diet D. Diarrhea

41. Skin reactions are common in radiation therapy. 48. To provide relief from the cytarabine syndrome, which
Nursing responsibilities on promoting skin integrity should drug is given?
be promoted apart from: A. Analgesic
A. Avoiding the use of ointments, powders and lotion to B. Aspirin
the area C. Steroids
B. Using soft cotton fabrics for clothing D. Allopurinol
C. Washing the area with a mild soap and water and
patting it dry not rubbing it. 49. Chemotherapeutic agents have different specific
D. Avoiding direct sunshine or cold. classifications. The following medications are
antineoplastic antibiotics except:
42. Nausea and vomiting is an expected side effect of A. Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
chemotherapeutic drug use. Which of the following drug B. Fluorouracil (Adrucil)
should be administered to a client on chemotherapy to C. Mitoxantrone (Novantrone)
prevent nausea and vomiting? D. Bleomycin (Blenoxane)
A. Metochlopramide (Metozol)
B. Succimer (Chemet) 50. Specific classification of the chemotherapeutic agent,
C. Anastrazole (Arimidex) Vincristine (Oncovin) is:
D. Busulfan (Myleran) A. Hormone modulator
B. Mitotic inhibitor
43. Radiation protection is very important to implement C. Antineoplastic antibiotic
when performing nursing procedures. When the nurse is D. Antimetabolite
not performing any nursing procedures what distance
should be maintained from the client? 51. A client is diagnosed with progressive prostate cancer.
A. 1 feet The nurse expects which drug is given?
B. 2 feet A. Anstrazole (arimidex)
C. 2.5 feet B. Estramustine (Emcyt)
D. 3 feet C. Paclitaxel (Taxol)
D. Irinotecan (Camptosar)
52. A client taking a chemotherapeutic agent understands 5. Which of the following statements is correct about
the effects of therapy by stating: the rate of cell growth in relation to chemotherapy?
A. “I will avoid eating hot and spicy foods.” A. Faster growing cells are less susceptible to
B. “I should stay in my room all the time.” chemotherapy.
C. “I should limit my fluid intake to about 500 ml per B. Non-dividing cells are more susceptible to
day.” chemotherapy
D. “I should notify the physician immediately if a urine C. Faster growing cells are more susceptible to
color change is observed.” chemotherapy
D. Slower growing cells are more susceptible to
53. A client is diagnosed with breast cancer. The tumor chemotherapy.
size is up to 5 cm with axillary and neck lymph node
involvement. The client is in what stage of breast cancer? 6. Which of the following foods should a client with
A. Stage I leukemia avoid?
B. Stage II A. White bread
C. Stage III B. Carrot sticks
D. Stage IV C. Stewed apples
D. Medium rare steak
54. The classic symptoms that define breast cancer
includes the following except: 7. A client with leukemia has neutropenia. Which of the
A. “pink peel” skin following functions must be frequently assessed?
B. Solitary, irregularly shaped mass A. Blood pressure
C. Firm, nontender, nonmobile mass B. Bowel sounds
D. Abnormal discharge from the nipple C. Heart sounds
D. Breath sounds
55. Surgical procedure to treat breast cancer involves the
removal of the entire breast, pectoralis major muscle and 8. Which of the following clients is most at risk for
the axillary lymph nodes is: developing multiple myeloma?
A. Simple mastectomy A. A 20-year-old Asian woman
B. Modified radical mastectomy B. A 30-year-old White man
C. Halstead Surgery C. A 50-year-old Hispanic woman
D. Radical mastectomy D. A 60-year-old Black man

1. Which of the following conditions is not a complication 9. Which of the following substances has abnormal
of Hodgkin’s disease? values early in the course of multiple myeloma (MM)?
A. Anemia A. Immunoglobulins
B. Infection B. Platelets
C. Myocardial Infarction C. Red blood cells
D. Nausea D. White blood cells

2. Which of the following laboratory values is expected 10. For which of the following conditions is a client with
for a client just diagnosed with chronic lymphocytic multiple myeloma (MM) monitored?
leukemia? A. Hypercalcemia
A. Elevated sedimentation rate B. Hyperkalemia
B. Uncontrolled proliferation of granulocytes C. Hypernatremia
C. Thrombocytopenia and increased lymphocytes D. Hypermagnesemia
D. Elevated aspartate aminotransferase and alanine
aminotransferase levels. 11. Giving instructions for breast self-examination is
particularly important for clients with which of the following
3. At the time of diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, medical problems?
which of the following areas is often involved? A. Cervical dysplasia
A. Back B. A dermoid cyst
B. Chest C. Endometrial polyps
C. Groin D. Ovarian cancer
D. Neck
12. During a routine physical examination, a firm mass is
4. According to a standard staging classification of palpated in the right breast of a 35-year-old woman.
Hodgkin’s disease, which of the following criteria reflects Which of the following findings or client history would
stage II? suggest cancer of the breast as opposed to fibrocystic
A. Involvement of extralymphatic organs or tissues disease?
B. Involvement of single lymph node region or structure A. History of early menarche
C. Involvement of two or more lymph node regions or B. Cyclic changes in mass size
structures. C. History of anovulatory cycles
D. Involvement of lymph node regions or structures on D. Increased vascularity of the breast
both sides of the diaphragm.
13. The client with which of the following types of lung 21. The client with a benign lung tumor is treated in which
cancer has the best prognosis? of the following ways?
A. Adenocarcinoma A. The tumor is treated with radiation only.
B. Oat cell B. The tumor is treated with chemotherapy only.
C. Squamous cell C. The tumor is left alone unless symptoms are present.
D. Small cell D. The tumor is removed, involving the least possible
amount of tissue.
14. Warning signs and symptoms of lung cancer include
persistent cough, bloody sputum, dyspnea, and which of 22. In the client with terminal lung cancer, the focus of
the other following symptoms? nursing care is on which of the following nursing
A. Dizziness interventions?
B. Generalized weakness A. Provide emotional support
C. Hypotension B. Provide nutritional support
D. Recurrent pleural effusion C. Provide pain control
D. Prepare the client’s will
15. A centrally located tumor would produce which of the
following symptoms? 23. What are the three most important prognostic factors
A. Coughing in determining long-term survival for children with acute
B. Hemoptysis leukemia?
C. Pleuritic pain A. Histologic type of disease, initial platelet count, and
D. Shoulder pain type of treatment
B. Type of treatment and client’s sex
16. Which of the following interventions is the key to C. Histologic type of disease, initial WBC count, and
increasing the survival rates of clients with lung cancer? client’s age at diagnosis
A. Early bronchoscopy D. Progression of illness, WBC at the time of diagnosis,
B. Early detection and client’s age at the time of diagnosis.
C. High-dose chemotherapy
D. Smoking cessation 24. Which of the following complications are three main
consequences of leukemia?
17. A client has been diagnosed with lung cancer and A. Bone deformities, spherocytosis, and infection.
requires a wedge resection. How much of the lung is B. Anemia, infection, and bleeding tendencies
removed? C. Lymphocytopoesis, growth delays, and hirsutism
A. One entire lung D. Polycythemia, decreased clotting time, and infection.
B. A lobe of the lung
C. A small, localized area near the surface of the lung. 25. A child is seen in the pediatrician’s office for
D. A segment of the lung, including a bronchiole and its complaints of bone and joint pain. Which of the following
alveoli. other assessment findings may suggest leukemia?
A. Abdominal pain
18. When a client has a lobectomy, what fills the space B. Increased activity level
where the lobe was? C. Increased appetite
A. The space stays empty. D. Petechiae
B. The surgeon fills the space with gel
C. The lung space fills up with serous fluid 26. Which of the following assessment findings in a client
D. The remaining lobe or lobes overexpand to fill the with leukemia would indicate that the cancer has invaded
space. the brain?
A. Headache and vomiting.
19. Which of the following is the primary goal for surgical B. Restlessness and tachycardia
resection of lung cancer? C. Hypervigilant and anxious behavior
A. To remove the tumor and all surrounding tissue. D. Increased heart rate and decreased blood pressure.
B. To remove the tumor and as little surrounding tissue
as possible. 27. Which of the following types of leukemia carries the
C. To remove all of the tumor and any collapsed alveoli best prognosis?
in the same region. A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
D. To remove as much as the tumor as possible, B. Acute myelogenous leukemia
without removing any alveoli. C. Basophillic leukemia
D. Eosinophillic leukemia
20. If the client with lung cancer also has preexisting
pulmonary disease, which of the following statements best 28. Which of the following is the reason to perform a
describes how the extent of that can be performed? spinal tap on a client newly diagnosed with leukemia?
A. It doesn’t affect it. A. To rule out meningitis
B. It may require a whole lung to be removed. B. To decrease intracranial pressure
C. The entire tumor may not be able to be removed C. To aid in classification of the leukemia
D. It may prevent surgery if the client can’t tolerate lung D. To assess for central nervous system infiltration
tissue removal.
29. Which of the following tests in performed on a client
with leukemia before initiation of therapy to evaluate the
child’s ability to metabolize chemotherapeutic agents?
A. Lumbar puncture
B. Liver function studies
C. Complete blood count (CBC)
D. Peripheral blood smear
30. Which of the following immunizations should not be
given to a 4-month-old sibling of a client with leukemia?
A. Diphtheria and tetanus and pertussis (DPT) vaccine.
B. Hepatitis B vaccine
C. Haemophilus influenza type b vaccines (Hib)
D. Oral poliovirus vaccine (OPV)
31. Which of the following medications usually is given to
a client with leukemia as prophylaxis against P.
carinii pneumonia?
A. Bactrim
B. Oral nystatin suspension
C. Prednisone
D. Vincristine (Oncovin)
32. In which of the following diseases would bone marrow
transplantation not be indicated in a newly diagnosed
client?
A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
C. Severe aplastic anemia
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency
33. Which of the following treatment measures should be
implemented for a child with leukemia who has been
exposed to the chickenpox?
A. No treatment is indicated.
B. Acyclovir (Zovirax) should be started on exposure
C. Varicella-zoster immune globin (VZIG) should be
given with the evidence of disease
D. VZIG should be given within 72 hours of exposure.
34. Nausea and vomiting are common adverse effects of
radiation and chemotherapy. When should a nurse
administer antiemetics?
A. 30 minutes before the initiation of therapy.
B. With the administration of therapy.
C. Immediately after nausea begins.
D. When therapy is completed.
35. Parents of pediatric clients who undergo irradiation
involving the central nervous system should be warned
about postirradiation somnolence. When does this
neurologic syndrome usually occur?
A. Immediately
B. Within 1 to 2 weeks
C. Within 5 to 8 weeks
D. Within 3 to 6 months
36. The nurse is instructing the client to perform a
testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the client:
A. To examine the testicles while lying down.
B. The best time for the examination is after a shower
C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a
growth
D. That testicular examination should be done at least
every 6 months.
37. The community nurse is conducting a health
promotion program at a local school and is discussing the
risk factors associated with cancer. Which of the following,
if identified by the client as a risk factor, indicates a need
for further instructions?
A. Viral factors
B. Stress
C. Low-fat and high-fiber diets
D. Exposure to radiation
38. The client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and
develops thrombocytopenia. The nurse identifies which
intervention as the highest priority in the nursing plan of
care?
A. Ambulation three times a day
B. Monitoring temperature
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring for pathological factors
39. A client is diagnosed with multiple myeloma. The
client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse
bases the response on which of the following descriptions
of this disorder?
A. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes.
B. Altered red blood cell production.
C. Altered production of lymph nodes
D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells and tumors
within the bone.
40. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a
client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which of the
following would the nurse expect to note specifically in this
disorder?
A. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone
marrow.
B. Increased WBC’s
C. Increased calcium levels
D. Decreased blood urea nitrogen
41. The nurse is developing a plan of care for the client
with multiple myeloma. The nurse includes which priority
intervention in the plan of care?
A. Coughing and deep breathing
B. Encouraging fluids
C. Monitoring red blood cell count
D. Providing frequent oral care
42. The oncology nurse specialist provides an
educational session to nursing staff regarding the
characteristics of Hodgkin’s disease. The nurse
determines that further education is needed if a nursing
staff member states that which of the following is
characteristic of the disease?
A. Presence of Reed-Sternberg cells
B. Involvement of lymph nodes, spleen, and liver
C. Occurs most often in the older client
D. Prognosis depends on the stage of the disease
43. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a
client receiving chemotherapy. The platelet count is
10,000 cells/mm. Based on this laboratory value, the
priority nursing assessment is which of the following?
A. Assess level of consciousness
B. Assess temperature
C. Assess bowel sounds
D. Assess skin turgor
44. The nurse is caring for a client following a modified
radical mastectomy. Which assessment finding would
indicate that the client is experiencing a complication
related to this surgery?
A. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
B. Pain at the incisional site
C. Complaints of decreased sensation near the
operative site
D. Arm edema on the operative side
45. A nurse is providing education in a community setting
about general measures to avoid excessive sun exposure.
Which of the following recommendations is appropriate?
A. Apply sunscreen only after going in the water.
B. Avoid peak exposure hours from 9am to 1pm
C. Wear loosely woven clothing for added ventilation
D. Apply sunscreen with a sun protection factor (SPF)
of 15 or more before sun exposure.
46. Which of the following nursing interventions would be
most helpful in making the respiratory effort of a client with
metastatic lung cancer more efficient?
A. Teaching the client diaphragmatic breathing
techniques
B. Administering cough suppressants as ordered
C. Teaching and encouraging pursed-lip breathing
D. Placing the client in a low semi-Fowlers position
47. The nurse is teaching a 17-year old client and the
client’s family about what to expect with high-dose
chemotherapy and the effects of neutropenia. What
should the nurse teach as the most reliable early indicator
of infection in a neutropenic client?
A. Fever
B. Chills
C. Tachycardia
D. Dyspnea
48. A 58-year-old man is going to have chemotherapy for
lung cancer. He asks the nurse how the chemotherapeutic
drugs will work. The most accurate explanation the nurse
can give is which of the following?
A. “Chemotherapy affects all rapidly dividing cells.”
B. “The molecular structure of the DNA is altered.”
C. “Cancer cells are susceptible to drug toxins.”
D. “Chemotherapy encourages cancer cells to divide.”
49. When caring for a client with a central venous line,
which of the following nursing actions should be
implemented in the plan of care for chemotherapy
administration? Select all that apply.
A. Verify patency of the line by the presence of a blood
return at regular intervals.
B. Inspect the insertion site for swelling, erythema, or
drainage.
C. Administer a cytotoxic agent to keep the regimen on
schedule even if blood return is not present.
D. If unable to aspirate blood, reposition the client and
encourage the client to cough.
E. Contact the health care provider about verifying
placement if the status is questionable.
50. A client with stomach cancer is admitted to the
oncology unit after vomiting for 3 days. Physical
assessment findings include irregular pulse, muscle
twitching, and complaints of prickling sensations in the
fingers and hands. Laboratory results include a potassium
level of 2.9 mEq/L, a pH of 7.46, and a bicarbonate level
of 29 mEq/L. The client is experiencing:
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis
51. A 32-year-old woman meets with the nurse on her
first office visit since undergoing a left mastectomy. When
asked how she is doing, the woman states her appetite is
still not good, she is not getting much sleep because she
doesn’t go to bed until her husband is asleep, and she is
really anxious to get back to work. Which of the following
nursing interventions should the nurse explore to support
the client’s current needs?
A. Call the physician to discuss allowing the client to
return to work earlier.
B. Suggest that the client learn relaxation techniques to
help with her insomnia
C. Perform a nutritional assessment to assess for
anorexia
D. Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues
related to her mastectomy
52. One of the most serious blood coagulation
complications for individuals with cancer and for those
undergoing cancer treatments is disseminated
intravascular coagulation (DIC). The most common cause
of this bleeding disorder is:
A. Underlying liver disease
B. Brain metastasis
C. Intravenous heparin therapy
D. Sepsis
53. A pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure sometimes
indicated for treatment of non-small-cell lung cancer. A
pneumonectomy involves removal of:
A. An entire lung field
B. A small, wedge-shaped lung surface
C. One lobe of a lung
D. One or more segments of a lung lobe
54. A 36-year-old man with lymphoma presents with
signs of impending septic shock 9 days after
chemotherapy. The nurse could expect which of the
following to be present?
A. Flushing, decreased oxygen saturation, mild
hypotension
B. Low-grade fever, chills, tachycardia
C. Elevated temperature, oliguria, hypotension
D. High-grade fever, normal blood pressure, increased
respirations
55. Which of the following represents the most
appropriate nursing intervention for a client with pruritis
caused by cancer or the treatments?
A. Administration of antihistamines
B. Steroids
C. Silk sheets
D. Medicated cool baths
56. A 56-year-old woman is currently receiving radiation
therapy to the chest wall for recurrent breast cancer. She
calls her health care provider to report that she has pain
while swallowing and burning and tightness in her chest.
Which of the following complications of radiation therapy
is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
A. Hiatal hernia
B. Stomatitis
C. Radiation enteritis
D. Esophagitis
MSN Exams
1. You are caring for a patient with esophageal cancer.
Which task could be delegated to the nursing assistant?
A. Assist the patient with oral hygiene.
B. Observe the patient’s response to feedings.
C. Facilitate expression of grief or anxiety.
D. Initiate daily weights.
2. A 56-year-old patient comes to the walk-in clinic for
scant rectal bleeding and intermittent diarrhea and
constipation for the past several months. There is a
history of polyps and a family history for colorectal cancer.
While you are trying to teach about colonoscopy, the
patient becomes angry and threatens to leave. What is
the priority diagnosis?
A. Diarrhea/Constipation related to altered bowel
patterns
B. Knowledge Deficit related to disease process and
diagnostic procedure
C. Risk for Fluid Volume Deficit related to rectal
bleeding and diarrhea
D. Anxiety related to unknown outcomes and perceive
threat to body integrity
3. Which patient is at greatest risk for pancreatic cancer?
A. An elderly black male with a history of smoking and
alcohol use
B. A young, white obese female with no known health
issues
C. A young black male with juvenile onset diabetes
D. An elderly white female with a history of pancreatitis
4. The disease progress of cancers, such as cervical or
Hodgkin’s, can be classified according to a clinical staging
system. Place the description of stages 0-IV in the correct
order.
A. Metastasis
B. Limited local spread
C. Cancer in situ
D. Tumor limited to tissue of origin
E. Extensive local and regional spread
___C__, __B___, __D___, ___E__, __A__
5. In assigning patients with alterations related to
gastrointestinal (GI) cancer, which would be the most
appropriate nursing care tasks to assign to the LPN/LVN,
under supervision of the team leader RN?
A. A patient with severe anemia secondary to GI
bleeding
B. A patient who needs enemas and antibiotics to
control GI bacteria
C. A patient who needs pre-op teaching for bowel
resection surgery
D. A patient who needs central line insertion for
chemotherapy
6. A community health center is preparing a presentation
on the prevention and detection of cancer. Which health
care professional (RN, LPN/LVN, nurse practitioner,
nutritionist) should be assigned to address the following
topics?
A. Explain screening exams and diagnostic testing for
common cancers
____________________________
B. How to plan a balanced diet and reduce fats and
preservatives _______________________
C. Prepare a poster on the seven warning signs of
cancer ____________________________
D. How to practice breast or testicular self-examination
_______________________
E. Strategies for reducing risk factors such as smoking
and obesity
___________________________
7. The physician tells the patient that there will be an initial
course of treatment with continued maintenance
treatments and ongoing observation for signs and
symptoms over a prolonged period of time. You can help
the patient by reinforcing that the primary goal for this type
of treatment is:
A. Cure
B. Control
C. Palliation
D. Permanent remission
8. For a patient who is experiencing side effects of
radiation therapy, which task would be the most
appropriate to delegate to the nursing assistant?
A. Assist the patient to identify patterns of fatigue.
B. Recommend participation in a walking program.
C. Report the amount and type of food consumed from
the tray.
D. Check the skin for redness and irritation after the
treatment.
9. For a patient on the chemotherapeutic drug vincristine
(Oncovin), which of the following side effects should be
reported to the physician?
A. Fatigue
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Paresthesia
D. Anorexia
10.For a patient who is receiving chemotherapy, which
laboratory result is of particular importance?
A. WBC
B. PT and PTT
C. Electrolytes
D. BUN
11.For care of a patient who has oral cancer, which task
would be appropriate to delegate to the LPN/LVN?
A. Assist the patient to brush and floss.
B. Explain when brushing and flossing are
contraindicated.
C. Give antacids and sucralfate suspension as ordered.
D. Recommend saliva substitutes.
12.When assigning staff to patients who are receiving 19.What do you tell patients is the most important risk
chemotherapy, what is the major consideration about factor for lung cancer when you are teaching about lung
chemotherapeutic drugs? cancer prevention?
A. During preparation, drugs may be absorbed through A. Cigarette smoking
the skin or inhaled. B. Exposure to environmental/occupational carcinogens
B. Many chemotherapeutics are vesicants. C. Exposure to environmental tobacco smoke (ETS)
C. Chemotherapeutics are frequently given through D. Pipe or cigar smoking
central nervous access devices.
D. Oral and venous routes are the most common. 20.Following chemotherapy, a patient is being closely
monitored for tumor lysis syndrome. Which laboratory
13.You have just received the morning report from the value requires particular attention?
night shift nurses. List the order of priority for assessing A. Platelet count
and caring for these patients. B. Electrolytes
A. A patient who developed tumor lysis syndrome C. Hemoglobin
around 5:00 AM D. Hematocrit
B. A patient with frequent reports of break-through pain
over the past 24 hours 21.Persons at risk are the greater target population for
C. A patient scheduled for exploratory laparotomy this cancer screening programs. Which asymptomatic
morning patient(s) needs extra encouragement to participate in
D. A patient with anticipatory nausea and vomiting for cancer screening? (Choose all that apply).
the past 24 hours A. A 19-year-old white-American female who is sexually
___A__, __C__, __B__, __D__ inactive for a Pap smear
B. A 35-year-old white-American female for an annual
14.In monitoring patients who are at risk for spinal cord mammogram
compression related to tumor growth, what is the most C. A 45-year-old African-American male for an annual
likely early manifestation? prostate-specific antigen
A. Sudden-onset back pain D. A 49year-old African-American male for an annual
B. Motor loss fecal occult blood test
C. Constipation
D. Urinary hesitancy 22.A patient with lung cancer develops syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH).
15.Chemotherapeutic treatment of acute leukemia is done After reporting symptoms of weight gain, weakness, and
in four phases. Place these phases in the correct order. nausea and vomiting to the physician, you would
A. Maintenance anticipate which initial order for the treatment of this
B. Induction patient?
C. Intensification A. A fluid bolus as ordered
D. Consolidation B. Fluid restrictions as ordered
___B__, __C___, __D___, __A___ C. Urinalysis as ordered
D. Sodium-restricted diet as ordered
16.Which set of classification values indicates the most
extensive and progressed cancer? 23.In caring for a patient with neutropenia, what tasks can
A. T1 N0 M0 be delegated to the nursing assistant? (Choose all that
B. Tis N0 M0 apply).
C. T1 N1 M0 A. Take vital signs every 4 hours
D. T4 N3 M1 B. Report temperature elevation >100.4o F
C. Assess for sore throat, cough, or burning with
17.For a patient with osteogenic sarcoma, you would be urination.
particularly vigilant for elevations in which laboratory D. Gather the supplies to prepare the room for
value? protective isolation.
A. Sodium E. Report superinfections, such as candidiasis
B. Calcium F. Practice good handwashing technique.
C. Potassium
D. Hematocrit 24.A primary nursing responsibility is the prevention of
lung cancer by assisting patients in smoking/tobacco
18.Which of the following cancer patients could potentially cessation. Which tasks would be appropriate to delegate
be placed together as roommates? to the LPN/LVN?
A. A patient with a neutrophil count of 1000/mm3 A. Develop a “quit plan”
B. A patient who underwent debulking of a tumor to B. Explain the application of a nicotine patch
relieve pressure C. Discuss strategies to avoid relapse
C. A patient receiving high-dose chemotherapy after a D. Suggest ways to deal with urges for a tobacco
bone marrow harvest
D. A patient who is post-op laminectomy for spinal cord
compression
1) Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she
has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client
that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
A. breast self-examination.
B. mammography
C. fine needle aspiration.
D. chest X-ray.
2) A male client has an abnormal result on a
Papanicolaou test. After admitting, he read his chart while
the nurse was out of the room, the client asks what
dysplasia means. Which definition should the nurse
provide?
A. Presence of completely undifferentiated tumor cells
that don’t resemble cells of the tissues of their origin
B. Increase in the number of normal cells in a normal
arrangement in a tissue or an organ
C. Replacement of one type of fully differentiated cell by
another in tissues where the second type normally
isn’t found
D. Alteration in the size, shape, and organization of
differentiated cells
3) Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a
community facility. The American Cancer Society
recommends that women get mammograms:
A. yearly after age 40.
B. after the birth of the first child and every 2 years
thereafter.
C. after the first menstrual period and annually
thereafter
D. every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually
thereafter.
4) A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat
breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid
and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
A. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
B. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
D. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
5) A 35 years old client has been receiving chemotherapy
to treat cancer. Which assessment finding suggests that
the client has developed stomatitis (inflammation of the
mouth)?
A. White, cottage cheese–like patches on the tongue
B. Yellow tooth discoloration
C. Red, open sores on the oral mucosa
D. Rust-colored sputum
6) What should a male client over age 52 do to help
ensure early identification of prostate cancer?
A. Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-
specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly.
B. Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years.
C. Perform monthly testicular self-examinations,
especially after age 50.
D. Have a complete blood count (CBC) and blood urea
nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels checked yearly.
7) A male client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted
to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing
diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase
should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis
statement?
A. Related to visual field deficits
B. Related to difficulty swallowing
C. Related to impaired balance
D. Related to psychomotor seizures
8) Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is
scheduled for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides
which preprocedure instruction to the client?
A. Eat a light breakfast only
B. Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
C. Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the
procedure
D. Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding
before the test
9) A male client with a nagging cough makes an
appointment to see the physician after reading that this
symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer.
What is another warning sign of cancer?
A. Persistent nausea
B. Rash
C. Indigestion
D. Chronic ache or pain
10) The nurse is instructing the 35 year old client to
perform a testicular self-examination. The nurse tells the
client:
A. To examine the testicles while lying down
B. That the best time for the examination is after a
shower
C. To gently feel the testicle with one finger to feel for a
growth
D. That testicular self-examination should be done at
least every 6 months
11) Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform
monthly testicular self-examinations. Which of the
following points would be appropriate to make?
A. Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
B. Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose.
C. Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer
deaths in males.
D. Testicular cancer is more common in older men.
12) A male client undergoes a laryngectomy to treat
laryngeal cancer. When teaching the client how to care for
the neck stoma, the nurse should include which
instruction?
A. “Keep the stoma uncovered.”
B. “Keep the stoma dry.”
C. “Have a family member perform stoma care initially
until you get used to the procedure.”
D. “Keep the stoma moist.”
13) Rhea, has malignant lymphoma. As part of her
chemotherapy, the physician prescribes chlorambucil
(Leukeran), 10 mg by mouth daily. When caring for the
client, the nurse teaches her about adverse reactions to
chlorambucil, such as alopecia. How soon after the first
administration of chlorambucil might this reaction occur?
A. Immediately
B. 1 week
C. 2 to 3 weeks
D. 1 month
14) A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation
therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment
site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the
nurse should prepare the client to expect:
A. hair loss.
B. stomatitis
C. fatigue
D. vomiting
15) Nurse Farah is caring for a client following a
mastectomy. Which assessment finding indicates that the
client is experiencing a complication related to the
surgery?
A. Pain at the incisional site
B. Arm edema on the operative side
C. Sanguineous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain
D. Complaints of decreased sensation near the
operative site
16) A cervical radiation implant is placed in the client for
treatment of cervical cancer. The nurse initiates what
most appropriate activity order for this client?
A. Bed rest
B. Out of bed ad lib
C. Out of bed in a chair only
D. Ambulation to the bathroom only
17) Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about
early detection of breast cancer. The average age of the
women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer
Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the
women:
A. perform breast self-examination annually.
B. have a mammogram annually.
C. have a hormonal receptor assay annually.
D. have a physician conduct a clinical examination
every 2 years.
18) Nurse Kate is reviewing the complications of
colonization with a client who has microinvasive cervical
cancer. Which complication, if identified by the client,
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Cervical stenosis
D. Ovarian perforation
19) Nurse Mickey is caring for a client who is
postoperative following a pelvic exenteration and the
physician changes the client’s diet from NPO status to
clear liquids. The nurse makes which priority assessment
before administering the diet?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Ability to ambulate
C. Incision appearance
D. Urine specific gravity
20) For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the
nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Anxiety related to
the threat of death secondary to cancer diagnosis. Which
expected outcome would be appropriate for this client?
A. “Client verbalizes feelings of anxiety.”
B. “Client doesn’t guess at prognosis.”
C. “Client uses any effective method to reduce tension.”
D. “Client stops seeking information.”
21) The home health care nurse is caring for a male client
with cancer and the client is complaining of acute pain.
The appropriate nursing assessment of the client’s pain
would include which of the following?
A. The client’s pain rating
B. Nonverbal cues from the client
C. The nurse’s impression of the client’s pain
D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention
22) A female client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy
and develops thrombocytopenia. The nurse identifies
which intervention as the highest priority in the nursing
plan of care?
A. Monitoring temperature
B. Ambulation three times daily
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring for pathological fractures
23) A male client is in isolation after receiving an internal
radioactive implant to treat cancer. Two hours later, the
nurse discovers the implant in the bed linens. What
should the nurse do first?
A. Stand as far away from the implant as possible and
call for help.
B. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and
place it in a lead-lined container.
C. Leave the room and notify the radiation therapy
department immediately.
D. Put the implant back in place, using forceps and a
shield for self-protection, and call for help.
24) A 35 years old client with ovarian cancer is prescribed
hydroxyurea (Hydrea), an antimetabolite drug.
Antimetabolites are a diverse group of antineoplastic
agents that interfere with various metabolic actions of the
cell. The mechanism of action of antimetabolites interferes
with:
A. cell division or mitosis during the M phase of the cell
cycle.
B. normal cellular processes during the S phase of the
cell cycle.
C. the chemical structure of deoxyribonucleic acid
(DNA) and chemical binding between DNA
molecules (cell cycle–nonspecific)
D. one or more stages of ribonucleic acid (RNA)
synthesis, DNA synthesis, or both (cell cycle–
nonspecific).
25) For a female client newly diagnosed with radiation-
induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include
which intervention in the plan of care?
A. Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds
102° F (38.8° C)
B. Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift
C. Providing for frequent rest periods
D. Placing the client in strict isolation
26) Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal
woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should
tell the client to do her self-examination:
A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
B. on the same day each month.
C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
D. immediately after her menstrual period.
27) he nurse is admitting a male client with laryngeal
cancer to the nursing unit. The nurse assesses for which
most common risk factor for this type of cancer?
A. Alcohol abuse
B. Cigarette smoking
C. Use of chewing tobacco
D. Exposure to air pollutants
28) A male client complains of sporadic epigastric pain,
yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue.
Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a
diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer.
Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this
client?
A. Anticipatory grieving
B. Impaired swallowing
C. Disturbed body image
D. Chronic low self-esteem
29) Nurse Brian is developing a plan of care for marrow
suppression, the major dose-limiting adverse reaction to
floxuridine (FUDR). How long after drug administration
does bone marrow suppression become noticeable?
A. 24 hours
B. 2 to 4 days
C. 7 to 14 days
D. 21 to 28 days
30) The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past
medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the
nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
A. Duodenal ulcers
B. Hemorrhoids
C. Weight gain
D. Polyps
31) The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin
lesions for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand
for?
A. Actinic
B. Asymmetry
C. Arcus
D. Assessment
32) A client, age 41, visits the gynecologist. After
examining her, the physician suspects cervical cancer.
The nurse reviews the client’s history for risk factors for
this disease. Which history finding is a risk factor for
cervical cancer?
A. Onset of sporadic sexual activity at age 17
B. Spontaneous abortion at age 19
C. Pregnancy complicated with eclampsia at age 27
D. Human papillomavirus infection at age 32
33) A female client is undergoing tests for multiple
myeloma. Diagnostic study findings in multiple myeloma
include:
A. a decreased serum creatinine level
B. hypocalcemia
C. Bence Jones protein in the urine.
D. a low serum protein level.
34) Nurse Bea is reviewing the laboratory results of a
client diagnosed with multiple myeloma. Which of the
following would the nurse expect to note specifically in this
disorder?
A. Increased calcium
B. Increased white blood cells
C. Decreased blood urea nitrogen level
D. Decreased number of plasma cells in the bone
marrow
35) Jeovina, with advanced breast cancer is prescribed
tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this
drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of
reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
A. Vision changes
B. Hearing loss
C. Headache
D. Anorexia
36) A 34-year-old female client is requesting information
about mammograms and breast cancer. She isn’t
considered at high risk for breast cancer. What should the
nurse tell this client?
A. She should have had a baseline mammogram before
age 30.
B. She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her
risk of breast cancer.
C. She should perform breast self-examination during
the first 5 days of each menstrual cycle.
D. When she begins having yearly mammograms,
breast self-examinations will no longer be necessary.
37) During chemotherapy, an oncology client has a
nursing diagnosis of impaired oral mucous membrane
related to decreased nutrition and immunosuppression
secondary to the cytotoxic effects of chemotherapy.
Which nursing intervention is most likely to decrease the
pain of stomatitis?
A. Recommending that the client discontinue
chemotherapy
B. Providing a solution of hydrogen peroxide and water
for use as a mouth rinse
C. Monitoring the client’s platelet and leukocyte counts
D. Checking regularly for signs and symptoms of
stomatitis
38) When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain
tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
A. short-term memory impairment.
B. tactile agnosia.
C. seizures
D. contralateral homonymous hemianopia.
39) Vanessa, a community health nurse conducts a health
promotion program regarding testicular cancer to
community members. The nurse determines that further
information needs to be provided if a community member
states that which of the following is a sign of testicular
cancer?
A. Alopecia
B. Back pain
C. Painless testicular swelling
D. Heavy sensation in the scrotum
40) During the admission assessment of a 35 year old
client with advanced ovarian cancer, the nurse recognizes
which symptom as typical of the disease?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypermenorrhea
C. Abdominal bleeding
D. Abdominal distention
41) Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform
breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the
purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. cancerous lumps.
B. areas of thickness or fullness.
C. changes from previous self-examinations.
D. fibrocystic masses.
42) A male client is receiving the cell cycle–nonspecific
alkylating agent thiotepa (Thioplex), 60 mg weekly for 4
weeks by bladder instillation as part of a
chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The
client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does
thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
A. It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
replication only.
B. It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA) transcription
only.
C. It interferes with DNA replication and RNA
transcription.
D. It destroys the cell membrane, causing lysis.
43) A female client is hospitalized for insertion of an
internal cervical radiation implant. While giving care, the
nurse finds the radiation implant in the bed. The initial
action by the nurse is to:
A. Call the physician
B. Reinsert the implant into the vagina immediately
C. Pick up the implant with gloved hands and flush it
down the toilet
D. Pick up the implant with long-handled forceps and
place it in a lead container.
44) A male client is admitted to the hospital with a
suspected diagnosis of Hodgkin’s disease. Which
assessment findings would the nurse expect to note
specifically in the client?
A. Fatigue
B. Weakness
C. Weight gain
D. Enlarged lymph nodes
45) A female client diagnosed with multiple myeloma and
the client asks the nurse about the diagnosis. The nurse
bases the response on which description of this disorder?
A. Altered red blood cell production
B. Altered production of lymph nodes
C. Malignant exacerbation in the number of leukocytes
D. Malignant proliferation of plasma cells within the
bone
46) A male client is diagnosed as having a bowel tumor
and several diagnostic tests are prescribed. The nurse
understands that which test will confirm the diagnosis of
malignancy?
A. Biopsy of the tumor
B. Abdominal ultrasound
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. Computerized tomography scan
47) The male client is receiving external radiation to the
neck for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effect to
be expected is:
A. Dyspnea
B. Diarrhea
C. Sore throat
D. Constipation
48) Mr. Miller has been diagnosed with bone cancer. You
know this type of cancer is classified as:
A. sarcoma
B. lymphoma
C. carcinoma
D. melanoma
49) Nina, an oncology nurse educator is speaking to a
women’s group about breast cancer. Questions and
comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding
of some aspects of the disease. Various members of the
audience have made all of the following statements.
Which one is accurate?
A. Mammography is the most reliable method for
detecting breast cancer.
B. Breast cancer is the leading killer of women of
childbearing age.
C. Breast cancer requires a mastectomy.
D. Men can develop breast cancer.
50) Gian, a community health nurse is instructing a group
of female clients about breast self-examination. The nurse
instructs the client to perform the examination:
A. At the onset of menstruation
B. Every month during ovulation
C. Weekly at the same time of day
D. 1 week after menstruation begins
51) The nurse is preparing for a female client for magnetic
resonance imaging (MRI) to confirm or rule out a spinal
cord lesion. During the MRI scan, which of the following
would pose a threat to the client?
A. The client lies still.
B. The client asks questions.
C. The client hears thumping sounds.
D. The client wears a watch and wedding band.
52) A female client is receiving methotrexate (Mexate), 12
g/m2 I.V., to treat osteogenic carcinoma. During
methotrexate therapy, the nurse expects the client to
receive which other drug to protect normal cells?
A. probenecid (Benemid)
B. cytarabine (ara-C, cytosine arabinoside [Cytosar-U]
C. thioguanine (6-thioguanine, 6-TG)
D. leucovorin (citrovorum factor or folinic acid
[Wellcovorin])
53) The female client who has been receiving radiation
therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if
she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets
that the client may be experiencing:
A. Rupture of the bladder
B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of
radiation therapy
54) A female client with cancer is being evaluated for
possible metastasis. Which of the following is one of the
most common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
A. Liver
B. Colon
C. Reproductive tract
D. White blood cells (WBCs)
55) Nurse Cecilia is caring for a client who has undergone
a vaginal hysterectomy. The nurse avoids which of the
following in the care of this client?
A. Elevating the knee gatch on the bed
B. Assisting with range-of-motion leg exercises
C. Removal of antiembolism stockings twice daily
D. Checking placement of pneumatic compression
boots
56) Which intervention is appropriate for the nurse caring
for a male client in severe pain receiving a continuous I.V.
infusion of morphine?
A. Assisting with a naloxone challenge test before
therapy begins
B. Discontinuing the drug immediately if signs of
dependence appear
C. Changing the administration route to P.O. if the client
can tolerate fluids
D. Obtaining baseline vital signs before administering
the first dose
57) Sarah, a hospice nurse visits a client dying of ovarian
cancer. During the visit, the client expresses that “If I can
just live long enough to attend my daughter’s graduation,
I’ll be ready to die.” Which phrase of coping is this client
experiencing?
A. Anger
B. Denial
C. Bargaining
D. Depression
58) The client with leukemia is receiving busulfan
(Myleran) and allopurinol (Zyloprim). The nurse tells the
client that the purpose if the allopurinol is to prevent:
A. Nausea
B. Alopecia
C. Vomiting
D. Hyperuricemia
59) The nurse is caring for a female client experiencing
neutropenia as a result of chemotherapy and develops a
plan of care for the client. The nurse plans to:
A. Restrict all visitors
B. Restrict fluid intake
C. Teach the client and family about the need for hand
hygiene
D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter to prevent skin
breakdown
60) Nurse Joy is caring for a client with an internal
radiation implant. When caring for the client, the nurse
should observe which of the following principles?
A. Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
B. Do not allow pregnant women into the client’s room
C. Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the
client’s room
D. Individuals younger than 16 years old may be
allowed to go in the room as long as they are 6 feet
away from the client
1) Can a mammography detect breast cancer before you
can even see it.
A. Yes
B. No
C. Sometimes
D. What is a mammography?
2) Jeovina, with advanced breast cancer is prescribed
tamoxifen (Nolvadex). When teaching the client about this
drug, the nurse should emphasize the importance of
reporting which adverse reaction immediately?
A. Vision changes
B. Hearing loss
C. Headache
D. Anorexia
3) Noninvasive Breast Cancer is when..
A. the cancer cells have spread to other parts of your
body
B. the cancer cells have stayed from their origin and
have not spread
4) Can family history of breast cancer increase the
chances of the family members?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Only from the mother’s side
D. Only from the dad’s side
5) The nurse is teaching the client about breast self-
examination. Which observation should the client be
taught to recognize when doing the examination for
detection of breast cancer?
A. tender, movable lump
B. pain on breast self-examination
C. round, well-defined lump
D. dimpling of the breast tissue
6) Which of the following terms is used to describe
removal of the breast tissue and an axillary lymph node
dissection leaving muscular structure intact as surgical
treatment of breast cancer?
A. Modified radical mastectomy
B. Segmental mastectomy
C. Total mastectomy
 D. Radical mastectomy
7) Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman
about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the
client to do her self-examination:
A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
B. on the same day each month.
C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
D. immediately after her menstrual period.
8) Hormonal agents are used to treat some cancers. An
example would be:
A. Thyroxine to treat thyroid cancer.
B. ACTH to treat adrenal carcinoma.
C. Estrogen antagonists to treat breast cancer.
D. Glucagon to treat pancreatic carcinoma.
9) What does regional refer to in relation to breast
cancer?
A. Metastases
B. Lymph nodes
C. A tumor within the breast
D. A tumor is within both breasts
10) A client with breast cancer is returned to the room
following a right total mastectomy. The nurse should:
A. Elevate the client’s right arm on pillows
B. Place the client’s right arm in a dependent sling
C. Keep the client’s right arm on the bed beside her
D. Place the client’s right arm across her body
11) The community health nurse implemented a new
program about effective breast cancer screening
technique for the female personnel of the health
department of Valenzuela. Which of the following
technique should the nurse consider to be of the lowest
priority?
A. Yearly breast exam by a trained professional
B. Detailed health history to identify women at risk
C. Screening mammogram every year for women over
age 50
D. Screening mammogram every 1-2 years for women
over age of 40.
12) The nurse is speaking to a group of women about
early detection of breast cancer. The average age of the
women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer
Society (ACS) guidelines, the nurse should recommend
that the women:
A. perform breast self-examination annually
B. have a mammogram annually
C. have a hormonal receptor assay annually
D. have a physician conduct a clinical evaluation every
2 years
13) What is the purpose of using hormonal therapy for
patients with breast cancer cells?
A. To replace the hormones and add testosterone.
B. To produce more hormones by adding testosterone
along with estrogen and progesterone.
C. To block the supply of estrogen or pregesterone to
the cells.
14) Breast Cancer is most likely to spread to your
____________area.
A. Face
B. Stomach
C. Underarm
D. Leg
15) Which of the following are used in diagnosing breast
cancer?
A. Mammogram
B. Ultrasound
C. MRI
D. Biopsy
E. All of the above
16) A female client is receiving chemotherapy to treat
breast cancer. Which assessment finding indicates a fluid
and electrolyte imbalance induced by chemotherapy?
A. Urine output of 400 ml in 8 hours
B. Serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 120/64 to 130/72 mm Hg
D. Dry oral mucous membranes and cracked lips
17) Maria refuses to acknowledge that her breast was
removed. She believes that her breast is intact under the
dressing. The nurse should
A. call the MD to change the dressing so Kathy can see
the incision
B. recognize that Kathy is experiencing denial, a normal
stage of the grieving process
C. reinforce Kathy’s belief for several days until her
body can adjust to stress of surgery.
D. remind Kathy that she needs to accept her diagnosis
so that she can begin rehabilitation exercises.
18) Nina, an oncology nurse educator is speaking to a
women’s group about breast cancer. Questions and
comments from the audience reveal a misunderstanding
of some aspects of the disease. Various members of the
audience have made all of the following statements.
Which one is accurate?
A. Mammography is the most reliable method for
detecting breast cancer.
B. Breast cancer is the leading killer of women of
childbearing age.
C. Breast cancer requires a mastectomy.
D. Men can develop breast cancer.
19) The community health nurse implemented a new
program about effective breast cancer screening
technique for the female personnel of the health
department of Valenzuela. Which of the following
technique should the nurse consider to be of the lowest
priority?
A. Yearly breast exam by a trained professional
B. Detailed health history to identify women at risk
C. Screening mammogram every year for women over
age 50
D. Screening mammogram every 1-2 years for women
over age of 40
20) The 2000 NIH Consensus Development Conference
Statement states that what percentage of women with
invasive breast cancer should consider the option of
systemic chemotherapy, not just women whose tumors
are greater than 1cm in size?
A. 100% (all)
B. 75%
C. 50%
D. 25%
 B. Lung cancer
C. Brain cancer
21) The statistics decrease for getting breast cancer as D. Colon and rectal cancer
one gets older in age. 31) Is early detection of breast cancer your best chance of
A. True survival?
B. False A. No
B. Yes
22) Can men get breast cancer? C. Sometimes
A. Yes, always D. I Don’t Know
B. No, never
C. Yes, but not likely 32) A 34-year-old female client is requesting information
D. I don’t know about mammograms and breast cancer. She isn’t
considered at high risk for breast cancer. What should the
23) What does local breast cancer refer to? nurse tell this client?
A. Metastases A. She should have had a baseline mammogram before
B. The chest wall age 30.
C. The breast B. She should eat a low-fat diet to further decrease her
D. Lymph nodes risk of breast cancer.
C. She should perform breast self-examination during
24) What is the percentage of breast tissue that can be the first 5 days of each menstrual cycle.
removed and rearranged to have the breast still looking D. When she begins having yearly mammograms,
like a breast? breast self-examinations will no longer be necessary.
A. 60%
B. 15% 33) Nurse Amy is speaking to a group of women about
C. 30% early detection of breast cancer. The average age of the
D. 45% women in the group is 47. Following the American Cancer
Society guidelines, the nurse should recommend that the
25) Breast reconstruction is done women:
after_____________surgery. A. perform breast self-examination annually.
A. Lumpectomy B. have a mammogram annually.
B. Mastectomy C. have a hormonal receptor assay annually.
D. have a physician conduct a clinical examination
26) Breast Cancer is the most common reason for death every 2 years.
in what ages?
A. 0-4 34) The nurse recognizes which of the following
B. 85-99 statements as accurately reflecting a risk factor for breast
C. 55-84 cancer?
D. 15-54 A. Mother affected by cancer before 60 years of age
B. Onset of menses before 14 years of age
27) Ductal lavage is used for C. Multiparity
A. women at higher risk for benign proliferative breast D. No alcohol consumption
disease.
B. women at low risk for breast cancer. 35) Only women can get Breast Cancer.
C. screening women over age 65. A. True
D. women with breast implants. B. False

28) Maria Sison, 40 years old, single, was admitted to the 36) What is Breast Cancer?
hospital with a diagnosis of Breast Cancer. She was A. A tumor that developes in the breast area
scheduled for radical mastectomy. Nursing care during B. A very common disease among women
the preoperative period should consist of C. A deadly disease
A. assuring Maria that she will be cured of cancer D. All of the above
B. assessing Maria’s expectations and doubts
C. maintaining a cheerful and optimistic environment 37) A male client with a nagging cough makes an
D. keeping Maria’s visitors to a minimum so she can appointment to see the physician after reading that this
have time for herself symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer.
What is another warning sign of cancer?
29) What is a symptom of Breast Cancer? A. Persistent nausea
A. Itchy throat B. Rash
B. Lump in underarm or breast area. C. Indigestion
C. Pain in the arm D. Chronic ache or pain

30) A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the
nurse, “Which is the most common type of cancer in
women?” The nurse replies that it’s breast cancer. Which
type of cancer causes the most deaths in women?
A. Breast cancer
38)A client receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer has
an order for Zofran (ondansetron) 8mg PO to be given 30
minutes before induction of the chemotherapy. The
purpose of the medication is to:
A. Prevent anemia
 B. Promote relaxation
C. Prevent nausea
D. Increase neutrophil counts
39) During a breast examination, which finding most
strongly suggests that the Luz has breast cancer?
A. Slight asymmetry of the breasts.
B. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the overlying
skin
C. Bloody discharge from the nipple
D. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses that
change with the menstrual cycle
40) 1 in ____ women get Breast Cancer.
A. 7
B. 2
C. 8
D. 4
41) Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a
community facility. The American Cancer Society
recommends that women get mammograms:
A. yearly after age 40.
B. after the birth of the first child and every 2 years
thereafter.
C. after the first menstrual period and annually
thereafter.
D. every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and annually
thereafter.
42) A female client was diagnosed with breast cancer. It is
found to be stage IV, and a modified mastectomy is
performed. After the procedure, what behaviors could the
nurse expects the client to display?
A. Denial of the possibility of carcinoma.
B. Signs of grief reaction.
C. Relief that the operation is over.
D. . Signs of deep depression.
43) A 52 yr-old female tells the nurse that she has found a
painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-
examination. Which assessment finding would strongly
suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
A. eversion of the right nipple and a mobile mass
B. nonmobile mass with irregular edges
C. mobile mass that is oft and easily delineated
D. nonpalpable right axillary lymph nodes
44) Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform
breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the
purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
A. cancerous lumps.
B. areas of thickness or fullness.
C. changes from previous self-examinations.
D. fibrocystic masses.
45) Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she
has a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client
that a diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
A. breast self-examination.
B. mammography.
C. fine needle aspiration.
D. chest X-ray.
1) Which of the following types of lung cancer is the most
prevalent carcinoma of the lung for both men and
women?
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Large cell carcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Small cell carcinoma
2) A 37-year-old client with uterine cancer asks the nurse,
“Which is the most common type of cancer in women?”
The nurse replies that it’s breast cancer. Which type of
cancer causes the most deaths in women?
A. Breast cancer
B. Lung cancer
C. Brain cancer
D. Colon and rectal cancer
3) A 64-year-old woman returns to your clinic for
continued evaluation of a chronic cough, which she has
been experiencing for the past 2 months. A chest x-ray
obtained yesterday shows a spiculated right middle lobe
mass with mediastinal lymphadenopathy. In addition,
today the patient reports right leg pain of new onset. You
are concerned about metastatic disease.
For this patient, which of the following approaches to
diagnostic imaging would be most appropriate for the
evaluation of possible metastatic disease?
A. CT scan of the chest
B. CT scan of the chest, head, and adrenal glands
C. CT scan of the chest, head, and adrenal glands, and
a bone scan
D. CT scan of the chest and head, and a bone scan
4) Which of the following types of lung cancer is
characterized as fast growing and tending to arise
peripherally?
A. Large cell carcinoma
B. Bronchioalveolar carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
5) A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of
the following is a contraindication to the study for this
patient?
A. The patient is allergic to shellfish.
B. The patient has a pacemaker.
C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia.
D. The patient takes anti-psychotic medication.
6) A 67-year-old client who is receiving chemotherapy for
lung cancer is admitted to the hospital with
thrombocytopenia. While you are taking the admission
history, the client makes these statements. Which
statement is of most concern?
A. “I’ve noticed that I bruise more easily since the
chemotherapy started.”
B. “My bowel movements are soft and dark brown in
color.”
C. “I take one aspirin every morning because of my
history of angina.”
D. “My appetite has decreased since the chemotherapy
strated.”
7) What is true about interventional pulmonology?
A. Looks at reasons for shortness of breath. This is not
only used for lung cancer; it can be used for breast
cancer, colon cancer, renal cancer and melanoma.
B. This increases the likelihood for cure by 29%.
 C. CTCA was the first to combine interventional A. Helping the client deal with depression secondary to
pulmonology with various treatments. the diagnosis and its treatment
B. Explaining that the reactions to chemotherapy are
minimal
C. Careful observation of the IV site of the
8) Gina, a home health nurse is visiting a home care client administration of the drugs
with advanced lung cancer. Upon assessing the client, the D. Careful attention to blood count results
nurse discovers wheezing, bradycardia, and a respiratory 17) A 56-year-old man is worried about his risk of
rate of 10 breaths/minute. These signs are associated developing lung cancer. He has no medical problems, but
with which condition? he does report having smoked one pack of cigarettes a
A. Hypoxia day for 4 years while in college. He stopped smoking
B. Delirium more than 30 years ago.
C. Hyperventilation Of the following which is the most accurate statement
D. Semiconsciousness regarding this patient’s risk of developing lung cancer?
A. It is equal to someone who has never smoked
9) What percentage of lung cancer is caused by smoking? B. In any age group, the risk of developing lung cancer
A. 50% declines after stopping smoking
B. 63% C. The annual lung cancer mortality of smokers is 10
C. 87% times that of nonsmokers
D. 94% D. His risk of developing lung cancer is only slightly
greater than that of a nonsmoker
10) What is the benefit of a navigational bronchoscopy?
A. Performs biopsies 18) Lung cancer is the top killer of cancer.
B. Delivers High Dose Radiation (HDR) A. True
C. Explains the distance that the bronchoscope can B. False
travel into the lung.
D. All of the above 19) A client with lung cancer has received oxycodone 10
11) Of the four basic cell types of lung cancer listed mg orally for pain. When the student nurse assesses the
below, which is always associated with smoking? client, which finding should you instruct the student to
A. adenocarcinoma report immediately?
B. squamous cell carcinoma (epidermoid) A. Respiratory rate of 8 to 10 per minute
C. undifferenciated carcinoma B. Pain level decreased from 6/10 to 2/10
D. bronchoalveolar carcinoma C. Client requests room door be closed.
D. Heart rate 90-100 per minute
12) In terms of lung cancer, what is intratumoral
chemotherapy used for? 20) A 62-year-old woman presents to your clinic for a
A. Small Cell Lung Cancer regularly scheduled examination. She has no new
B. Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer complaints, but she is concerned about her risk of
developing lung cancer. She has smoked one pack of
13) When a patient in the terminal stages of lung cancer cigarettes a day since she was 18 years old. She asks
begins to exhibit loss of consciousness, a major nursing whether she should be given any tests to screen for lung
priority is to: cancer.
A. Protect the patient from injury For this patient, which of the following statements is true?
B. Insert an airway A. Chest x-rays are a cost-effective and accurate way
C. Elevate the head of the bed to screen for lung cancer
D. Withdraw all pain medications B. Spiral computed tomography scanning is currently
recommended for screening in asymptomatic
14) What is an autofluorescence bronchoscopy? patients
A. This shows where treatment is being delivered to C. Benign nodules are rarely seen on spiral CT, making
within the lung. it ideal for cancer screening
B. This lights up cancer cells and it can show cells that D. At present, there are no recommended radiographic
haven’t grown into a tumor yet. studies to screen for lung cancer
C. This lights up the path that a bronchoscope can
follow. 21) A client with lung cancer is admitted in the nursing
care unit. The husband wants to know the condition of his
15) Which of the following is the most common type of wife. How should the nurse respond to the husband?
lung cancer? A. Find out what information he already has.
A. Large cell B. Suggest that he discuss it with his wife.
B. Adenocarcinoma C. Refer him to the doctor.
C. Oat cell D. Refer him to the nurse in charge.
D. Squamous cell

16) Chemotherapy may be used in combination with
surgery in the treatment of lung cancer. Special nursing
considerations with chemotherapy include all but which of
the following?
22) The nurse is conducting an education session for a
group of smokers in a “stop smoking” class. Which finding
would the nurse state as a common symptom of lung
cancer? :
A. Dyspnea on exertion
 B. Foamy, blood-tinged sputum
C. Wheezing sound on inspiration
D. Cough or change in a chronic cough
23) Which of the following symptoms is most
characteristic of a client with a cancer of the lung?
A. air hunger
B. exertional dyspnea
C. cough with night sweats
D. persistent changing cough
24) What does an Endobronchial Ultrasound help do and
how does it work?
A. An Endobronchial Ultrasound helps with the staging
of a tumor. A bronchoscope is inserted into the lung
with an ultrasound on the tip. There is a slot that
houses a needle to biopsy the lymph nodes.
B. An Endobronchial Ultrasound helps take images of
the lung. A long scope is inserted directly into the
chest cavity. The scope takes 30 images with a 360
degree rotation. The images are sent to a computer
where the oncologist is able to examine the images.
C. An Endobronchial Ultrasound helps with the
placement of fiducial markers. An x-ray is taken of
the lung and lymph nodes, the endobronchial
ultrasound is then inserted in the area of the tumor(s)
for implantation of fiducial markers.
25) The most common lethal cancer in males between
their fifth and seventh decades is:
A. cancer of the prostate
B. cancer of the lung
C. cancer of the pancreas
D. cancer of the bowel
26) What is the most common reason for bronchoscopes
not being able to reach a tumor within the lung?
A. Scar tissue
B. Malformations of the lung
C. The tumor is too small
D. Due to small bronchi
27) Antonio with lung cancer develops Horner’s syndrome
when the tumor invades the ribs and affects the
sympathetic nerve ganglia. When assessing for signs and
symptoms of this syndrome, the nurse should note:
A. miosis, partial eyelid ptosis, and anhidrosis on the
affected side of the face.
B. chest pain, dyspnea, cough, weight loss, and fever.
C. arm and shoulder pain and atrophy of arm and hand
muscles, both on the affected side.
D. hoarseness and dysphagia.
The nurse is interviewing a male client about his past
medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the
nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
 Polyps
 weight gain
 Hemorrhoids
 Duodenal ulcers
What should a male client over age 52 do to help ensure
early identification of prostate cancer?
 Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years
 Perform monthly testicular self-examinations,
especially after age 50
 Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-
specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly
 Have a CBC and BUN and creatinine levels
checked yearly
The ABCD method offers one way to assess skin lesions
for possible skin cancer. What does the A stand for?
 Assessment
 Arcus
 Actinic
 Asymmetry
Mina, who is suspected of an ovarian tumor is scheduled
for a pelvic ultrasound. The nurse provides which pre-
procedure instruction to the client?
 Wear comfortable clothing and shoes for the
procedure
 Maintain an NPO status before the procedure
 Drink six to eight glasses of water without voiding
before the test
 Eat a light breakfast only
A female client with cancer is being evaluated for possible
metastasis. Which of the following is one of the most
common metastasis sites for cancer cells?
 Colon
 Liver
 Reproductive tract
 White blood cells (WBCs)
A male client is receiving the cell cycle-nonspecific
alkylating agent Thioplex (thiotepa), 60 mg weekly for 4
weeks by bladder installation as part of a
chemotherapeutic regimen to treat bladder cancer. The
client asks the nurse how the drug works. How does
thiotepa exert its therapeutic effects?
 It interferes with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
replication only
 It interferes with ribonucleic acid (RNA)
transcription only
 It interferes with DNA replication and RNA
transcription
 It destroys the cell membranes, causing lysis
A female client with cancer is scheduled for radiation
therapy. The nurse knows that radiation at any treatment
site may cause a certain adverse effect. Therefore, the
nurse should prepare the client to expect:
 Fatigue
 Vomiting
 Hair loss
 Stomatitis
A 56-year-old woman is currently receiving radiation
therapy to the chest wall for recurrent breast cancer. She
calls her health care provider to report that she has pain
while swallowing and burning and tightness in her chest.
Which of the following complications of radiation therapy
is A. Radiation enteritis likely responsible for her
symptoms?
 Radiation enteritis
 Stomatitis
 Esophagitis
  Hiatal hernia
When caring for a male client diagnosed with a brain
tumor of the parietal lobe, the nurse expects to assess:
 Seizures
 Tactile agnosia
 Short-term memory impairment
 Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Nurse Joy is caring for a client with an internal radiation
implant. When caring for the client, the nurse should
observe which of the following principles?
 Remove the dosimeter badge when entering the
client's room
 Individual's younger than 16 yr may be allowed to
go in the room as long as they are 6 feet away
from the client
 Limit the time with the client to 1 hour per shift
 Do not allow pregnant women into the client's
room
For a female client with newly diagnosed cancer, the
nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of anxiety related to
the threat of death secondary to a cancer diagnosis.
Which expected outcome would be appropriate for this
client?
 "Client stops seeking information."
 "Client uses any effective method to reduce
tension."
 "Client doesn't guess at prognosis."
 "Client verbalizes feeling of anxiety."
Nurse Lucia is providing breast cancer education at a
community facility. The American Cancer Society
recommends that women get mammograms:
 After the first menstrual period and annually
thereafter
 Yearly after age 40
 Every 3 years between ages 20 and 40 and
annually thereafter
 After the birth of the first child and every 2 years
thereafter
Nurse April is teaching a client who suspects that she has
a lump in her breast. The nurse instructs the client that a
diagnosis of breast cancer is confirmed by:
 Breast self-examination
 Mammography
 Fine needle aspiration
 chest x-ray
Vanessa, a community health nurse conducts a health
promotion program regarding testicular cancer to
community members. The nurse determines that further
information needs to be provided if a community member
states that which of the following is a sign of testicular
cancer?
 back pain
 alopecia
 Heavy sensation in the scrotum
 Painless testicular swelling
A male client with a nagging cough makes an
appointment to see the physician after reading that this
symptom is one of the seven warning signs of cancer.
What is another warning sign of cancer?
 rash
 Indigestion
 chronic ache or pain
 Persistent nausea
One of the most serious blood coagulation complications
for individuals with cancer and for those undergoing
cancer treatments is disseminated intravascular
coagulation (DIC). The most common cause of this
bleeding disorder is:
 Brain metastasis
 Sepsis
 Intravenous heparin therapy
 underlying liver disease
The male client is receiving external radiation to the neck
for cancer of the larynx. The most likely side effect to be
expected is:
 Diarrhea
 dyspnea
 Constipation
 Sore throat
Nurse Kent is teaching a male client to perform monthly
testicular self-examinations. Which of the following points
would be appropriate to make?
 Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer
 Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose
 Testicular cancer is the number one cause of
cancer deaths in males
 Testicular cancer is more common in older men
Nurse April is teaching a group of women to perform
breast self-examination. The nurse should explain that the
purpose of performing the examination is to discover:
 Fibrocystic masses
 Changes from previous self-examinations
 Areas of thickness or fullness
 Cancerous lumps
For a female client newly diagnosed with radiation-
induced thrombocytopenia, the nurse should include
which intervention in the plan of care?
 Inspecting the skin for petechiae once every shift
 Placing the client in strict isolation
 Providing for frequent rest periods
 Administering aspirin if the temperature exceeds
102 degrees F (38.8 C)