All India Test Series (NEET-2023)

Part Test – 09 Dropper

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 16/04/2023 M. MARKS : 720

ANSWER KEY

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY ZOOLOGY

1. (1) 51. (3) 101. (4) 151. (3)
2. (4) 52. (4) 102. (3) 152. (4)
3. (2) 53. (2) 103. (4) 153. (2)
4. (3) 54. (3) 104. (4) 154. (3)
5. (2) 55. (3) 105. (3) 155. (4)
6. (4) 56. (3) 106. (2) 156. (4)
7. (2) 57. (1) 107. (3) 157. (2)
8. (3) 58. (1) 108. (1) 158. (3)
9. (2) 59. (4) 109. (1) 159. (3)
10. (1) 60. (3) 110. (3) 160. (2)
11. (1) 61. (3) 111. (2) 161. (1)
12. (2) 62. (2) 112. (4) 162. (1)
13. (2) 63. (2) 113. (2) 163. (3)
14. (1) 64. (3) 114. (3) 164. (3)
15. (3) 65. (1) 115. (4) 165. (2)
16. (1) 66. (1) 116. (3) 166. (3)
17. (3) 67. (2) 117. (2) 167. (3)
18. (1) 68. (2) 118. (3) 168. (2)
19. (2) 69. (3) 119. (2) 169. (2)
20. (1) 70. (2) 120. (2) 170. (2)
21. (4) 71. (2) 121. (4) 171. (3)
22. (2) 72. (1) 122. (4) 172. (4)
23. (3) 73. (2) 123. (2) 173. (4)
24. (1) 74. (4) 124. (4) 174. (3)
25. (1) 75. (2) 125. (2) 175. (4)
26. (4) 76. (4) 126. (1) 176. (2)
27. (1) 77. (4) 127. (3) 177. (2)
28. (3) 78. (3) 128. (2) 178. (4)
29. (3) 79. (3) 129. (1) 179. (2)
30. (3) 80. (1) 130. (2) 180. (3)
31. (4) 81. (2) 131. (4) 181. (3)
32. (3) 82. (3) 132. (1) 182. (3)
33. (2) 83. (2) 133. (3) 183. (2)
34. (3) 84. (4) 134. (1) 184. (1)
35. (1) 85. (1) 135. (4) 185. (3)
36. (2) 86. (1) 136. (3) 186. (3)
37. (2) 87. (4) 137. (4) 187. (3)
38. (2) 88. (3) 138. (1) 188. (3)
39. (1) 89. (4) 139. (4) 189. (2)
40. (1) 90. (2) 140. (4) 190. (3)
41. (1) 91. (4) 141. (1) 191. (4)
42. (4) 92. (2) 142. (1) 192. (3)
43. (1) 93. (3) 143. (2) 193. (3)
44. (3) 94. (4) 144. (1) 194. (3)
45. (1) 95. (2) 145. (4) 195. (2)
46. (2) 96. (3) 146. (1) 196. (3)
47. (2) 97. (4) 147. (2) 197. (1)
48. (1) 98. (4) 148. (3) 198. (2)
49. (2) 99. (4) 149. (4) 199. (2)
50. (4) 100. (1) 150. (1) 200. (1)

[1]
 SECTION – I (PHYSICS)
1. (1) 10. (1)
2r 200
2r = n   = Å The energy of each photon =
n 4 10 20
= 5 × 10–19 J
2. (4) hc
Wavelength =  =
rn  n2 E
r4 (4) 2 (6.63  10 −34 )  (3  10 8 )
= =
r1 (1) 2 5  10 −19

r4 = 16 × 0.53   = 4.0 × 10–7 = 400 nm

r4 = 8.48 Å
11. (1)
3. (2) hc
 0 =
n11 = n22 
or n11 = n22 6.6  10 −34  3  10 8
 (0)Na= = 6188 Å
or 12 × 600 = n2 × 400 2  1.6 10 −19
 n2 = 18 1 ( ) () copper
 0   0 sodium =
 ( 0 ) copper () sodium
4. (3)
2
In  - particle scattering experiment electrostatic  (0)Cu= × 6188 = 3094 Å
4
force acts. To eject photo-electrons from sodium the longest
wavelength is 6188 Å and that for copper is 3094
5. (2) Å. Hence for light of wavelength 4000 Å, sodium
h h 0 is suitable.
Relation between V0 – , V0 = –
e e
Put it in the form of y = mx – c, 12. (2)
h 0 Wave nature of light.
here V0 = y,  = x, =c
e
13. (2)
h
 y =  x – c P = 10 × 103 watt
e  = 300 m
h
m= P=
nhc
e t
6.62  10−34  3  108  n
6. (4) 104 =
300  1
300  10 4
7. (2) n= = 1.5 × 1031
6.62  10 −34  10 8
Intrinsic semiconductor.
14. (1)
8. (3) Collision ionisation.
h h
= = , so with the increase in velocity of
P mv 15. (3)
electron, wavelength decrease, and so fringe width h = h0 + Ek
decreases. 6.6 × 10–34 × 3 × 1015
= 4 × 1.6 × 10–19 + Ek
9. (2)
19.8 × 10–19 – 6.4 × 10–19 = Ek
K1max = h1 –  = 1 – 0.5 = 0.5 eV
Ek = 13.4 × 10–19 J
K2max = 2.5 – 0.5 = 2.0 eV 1
 mv2max = 13.4 × 10–19
2
Thus K1max : K2max = 0.5 : 2 = 1 : 4

[2]
 22. (2)
2  13.4  10−19
vmax = The maximum kinetic energy is
m
hc 1242 eV − nm
2 13 .4 10 −19 Kmax= – = – 2.5 eV
= = 1.73 × 106 m/s  280 nm
9  10 −31 = 4.4 eV – 2.5 eV = 1.9 eV
Stopping potential V is given by eV = Kmax
16. (1)
K max 1.9
h h V= = eV = 1.9 V
= = e e
P mvrms
3kT 23. (3)
Also vrms =
m The gap between conduction band and valence
h band is near about 1 eV.
 =
3mkT
24. (1)
Fermi level of energy of an intrinsic semiconductor
17. (3)
lies in the middle of forbidden gap.
h h
= v=
mv m
25. (1)
6.6 10 −34 D
v= = 7.2 × 105 m/s = . When d → 0,  → , and so fringes will
9.1 10 −31  10  10 −10
d
not be seen over the screen.
18. (1)
h h
p =  d = 26. (4)
2m p e pV 2md ed V 1
R = R0 A 3

d mpep 1
 =  md = 2mp, = 1.2  10−15  (64) 3
p md ed
R = 4.8 × 10–15
d mpep 1
ed = ep  = =
p 2m p e p 2 27. (1)
In forward biasing, resistance of p−n junction
diode is zero, so whole voltage appears across the
19. (2)
resistance.
The de-broglie wavelength is 2r2 = 2
 = r2 28. (3)
r2 = 22r1 = 4r1 = 4 × 0.53 = 2.12 Å
 = 3.14 × 2.12 = 6.66 Å 29. (3)
The energy of 10 eV means that
20. (1) E = eV = 10 e Volt
I E = IB + IC V = 10 Volt
I B = IE – IC The electron was accelerated through a p.d. of 10V
12 .27 12 .27
= 1000 × 10–6 – 0.96 × 10–3 Now,  = Å= Å = 3.9 Å
V 10
= 1 mA – 0.96 mA = 0.04 mA
21. (4) 30. (3)
Let the energy of one photon = hc/, A full-wave rectifier rectifies both the half cycles
of the AC input i.e., it conducts twice during a
 Energy of n photons E = nhc/
cycle. Output frequency is double to that of input
n  6.6  10−34  3  108
 10–7 = frequency.
5000  10−10
5000  10 −10  10 −7 31. (4)
n= = 0.25 × 1012
19 .8  10 − 26 D (2 D) / 
= and  ' = = 4
n = 2.5 × 1011 d (d / 2)

[3]
32. (3) 38. (2)
A B A B Y = A+B Y A = 238 – 4 = 234, Z = 92 – 2 = 90
0 0 1 1 1 0
0 1 1 0 1 0 39. (1)
1 0 0 1 1 0 m = 0.03 a.m.u., A = 4
1 1 0 0 0 1 m  931
 E =
This table is of AND gate. A
0.03  931
 E = = 7 MeV
33. (2) 4
xmax = 2.
So there are five maximums. These are for x = 0, 40. (1)
±, ±2. E = m × 931 MeV
E 2.23
 m = = = 0.0024 a.m.u.
34. (3) 931 931
1
E
n2 41. (1)
180 = He4 + A 176
 1  72A 2 70 1
 2
=2 
E1 176 = -1e0 + 71A2176
70A1
E2  1  71A2
176 =
2He
4 + 69A3172
 2
3  172
=  + 69 A172
69 A 3 4
E1 9
=
E2 4 42. (4)
If the incident light be of threshold wavelength
35. (1) (0), then the stopping potential shall be zero. Thus
 1 1 
1
= R 2 − 2  hc 6.6  10 −34  3  10 8
 n f n1  0 = , 0 = ,
  4.2  1.6 10 −19
 
1  1 1  0 = 2.946 × 10–7 m = 2946 Å
= R 2 − 2 
 2 3 
1  5  43. (1)
= R −  Nuclear force is stronger than electrostatic force.
  36 
36
= 44. (3)
5R
In Young’s experiment, the resultant intensity at a
point is given by,
36. (2)
r2  22, r3  32 
I R = 4 I 0 cos 2  
r3 9 2
= Where, I0 is the intensity of each source.
r2 4
For maximum intensity,  = 2n, so that, cos = 1
9
r3 = R  Imax = 4I0 = I ………. (given)
4
r3 = 2.25R If one of the slit is closed, the intensity at the point
37. (2) will be equal to I0.
For helium ion,
45. (1)
−13.6 Z 2
E= eV Both the assertion and reason are true and the
n2
reason is the correct explanation.
−13.6(2) 2
=
22 46. (2)
= –13.6 eV. If the initial mass of some radio-active element be
For hydrogen atom, N0, then the mass of the element remaining after n
−13.6 half-lives is given by
E = 2 = −13.6eV .
1

[4]
 1
n
6.62  10−34  3  108 1.07  1.6 10−19
N = N0   V0 = –
2 332  10−10 e e
N 1 1
n
1
n V0 = 3.74 – 1.07 = 2.67 volt.
 =   = 
N0  2  16 2
n
48. (1)
1
4
1 
   =   n=4 = =
0.95
=
0.95
= 19
2 2 1−  1 − 0.95 0.05
Half life of the substance
time of disintegration 30 49. (2)
= = = 7.5 years.
number of half lives 4
1 e mp 1836
 , = =
m p me 1
47. (2)
0 = 1.07 eV = 1.07 × 1.6 × 10–19 J
50. (4)
 = 332 × 10–10 m 12375
hc hc 0 As  min = , so with increases in V, 
eV0 = – 0 = V0 = – V
 e e will decreases.

SECTION – II (CHEMISTRY)
51. (3) While in CH3CH2–NH2, ethyl group is electron
releasing makes the amine more basic than
CH3CONH2.

3,N,N-trimethyl pentanamine 55. (3)

Only 1° and 2° amine react with Hinsberg
52. (4) reagent as they both contain acidic hydrogen
and get replaced on reaction with Hinsberg
reagent i.e., benzene sulphonyl chloride, 3°
amine can not reacts with Hinsberg reagent as
they do not contain replaceable hydrogen.
Therefore, triethyl amine (C2H5)3N which is 3°
amine can not react with Hinsberg reagent.

56. (3)
53. (2)
NaOH + Br
CH3CONH 2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 → CH NH
3 2
(A)

(A) is a base. So, it will change red litmus to

blue.

54. (3)
In CH3CONH2 the lone pair on N is delocalized
with the carbonyl group. As a result, electron
density on N decreases basicity decreases.
Formation of alpha and beta methyl glycosides
is due to the ring structure of glucose, as the
methyl alcohol can attack the anomeric carbon
in 2 ways, leading to these two configurations.

[5]
57. (1)
Sugar differing at an asymmetric centre is
known as epimers.

64. (3)

58. (1)
Cellulose is a polysaccharide composed only of
ꞵ-D-glucose units.
65. (1)
Melamine plastic crockery is a copolymer of
59. (4)
HCHO and Melamine.
Glycogen on hydrolysis gives glucose,

60. (3)
Peptide molecules are composed of two or more
amino acids joined through amide formation
involving the carboxyl group of each amino acid
and the amino group of the next. The chemical
bond between the carbon and nitrogen atoms of
each amide group is called a peptide bond.
66. (1)
Antipyretics are the drugs or chemical
substances which lower down the body
temperature in case of fever. Aspirin is an
antipyretic drug.

61. (3) 67. (2)

Tincture of iodine is a solution of I2 in aqueous
KI. It is an antiseptic, it is also called weak
iodine solution. It is usually 2-7% elemental
iodine, along with potassium iodide, dissolved
in a mixture of ethanol and water.

68. (2)
Antiseptic action of Dettol is due to
chloroxylenol and terpineol.
62. (2)
PVC is a polymer of vinyl chloride (CH2 = CH– 69. (3)
Cl). The term broad-spectrum antibiotic can refer to
an antibiotic that acts on the two major bacterial
63. (2) groups, gram-positive and gram-negative or any
antibiotic that acts against a wide range of
Bakelite is a polymer of phenol and
disease-causing bacteria.
formaldehyde.

[6]
70. (2) 77. (4)
Phenol can act both as an antiseptic (0.2%) as Kjeldahl’s method reaction
well as a disinfectant (1%). Ammonia Standard Excess Sulfuric
Sulfuric ammonium acid
71. (2) sulfate
acid
Sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NO2)
are emitted into the atmosphere and transported 2NH3 2H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4 H2SO4
by the wind and air currents. The SO2 and NO2 (no color change)
react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to
form sulfuric and nitric acids. These then mix Ammonia Measured Measured Ammon
with water and other materials falling to the sulfate excess sodium ium
ground in the form of acid rain. When this acid acid hydroxide sulfate
deposits on land or water it results in acidity.
(NH4)2SO4 H2SO4 2NaOH → Na2SO4
72. (1) (NH4)2
The main greenhouse gases whose SO4.2H2
concentrations are rising are carbon dioxide, O
methane, nitrous oxide, (color change occurs)
hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs), In this reaction, NO is not used.
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) and ozone in the
lower atmosphere. 78. (3)
73. (2)
The reagent 2, 4-dinitro phenyl hydrazine is used for
When we breathe, oxygen present in the air
the detection of carbonyl group, i.e., aldehyde and
combines with haemoglobin present in the
ketone groups. With carbonyl group, this reagent
blood to form oxyhaemoglobin. This
gives red or yellow ppt due to the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin is then transferred to various
respective hydrazones.
body parts where it again dissociates to release
oxygen. If large amount of carbon monoxide is
present in inhaled air, it forms
carboxyhaemoglobin as the affinity of carbon
monoxide is 325 times greater than oxygen.

74. (4)
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) in simple
terms is the amount of oxygen that would be
used by the decomposing bacteria to decompose
or break down the organic compounds in the
water body. The increase in the BOD reflects
that the concentration of the organic mass is
tremendous and so a large amount of oxygen
would be claimed by the bacteria. This results in
the deficiency of the dissolved oxygen in the
water and adversely affects the aquatic life due
to hypoxia. So, the BOD can be defined as the
measurement of rate of oxygen utilization by a
unit volume of water over a period of time.
Hence, the correct answer is Biological oxygen
demand.
75. (2)
Herbicides cause water pollution.
76. (4)
–CHO group, Phenolic –OH group, –NH2 group
does not liberate CO2 gas with NaHCO3. –COOH
group will give CO2 gas with NaHCO3.
79. (3)
Iodoform test is given by the compounds having –
CO – CH3 functional group. However, acetaldehyde
(H − C − CH3 ) also contains this group.
||
O
All the aldehydes gives Tollen’s test and Fehling’s
test. Hence, the compound which gives both the test
is Ethanal.
80. (1)
This carius halogen method in analytical chemistry
is a method for the quantitative determination of
halogens in chemical substances. A known mass of
an organic compound is heated with fuming HNO3
in the presence of AgNO3 contained in a hard glass
tube known as carius tube, in a furnace.

[7]
81. (2)
Hinsberg’s reagent is used to distinguish between
primary, secondary and tertiary amine.
 – Naphthol is used for the distinction between
aliphatic and aromatic amine. Where aromatic
amine undergoes diazotization followed by
 – Naphthol to form an azo dye but aliphatic amine
do not form an azo dye.
Aniline (C6H5NH2), on diazotization forms
diazonium salt and with  – naphthol gives azo dye.
But, when ethylamine (C2H5NH2) reacts with HNO2
(diazotisation), –NH2 is replaced by –OH group
forming alcohol (C2H5OH), which do not form azo
dye with  – Naphthol.
82. (3)
83. (2)
A nucleoside has a chemical composition that
consists of a sugar and a base without the phosphate
group.
87. (4)
Natural rubber has all cis-configuration. Natural
rubber is linear polymer of cis isoprene or cis-2-
methyi-1,3-butadiene.
88. (3)
In view of the general awareness and concern for the
problems created by the polymeric solid wastes,
certain new biodegradable synthetic polymers have
been designed and developed. These polymers
contain functional groups similar to the functional
groups present in biopolymers.
Example- PHBV.
OH
|
CH3 − CH − CH 2 − COOH
3-Hydroxybutanoic acid

OH
|
+ CH3 − CH 2 CH − CH 2 − COOH →
3-Hydroxypentanoic acid

( O − CH − CH 2 − C − O − CH − CH 2 − C ) n
| || | ||
CH3 O CH 2CH3 O
PHBV

89. (4)
It possesses properties similar to polyethene but it is
84. (4)
harder and less heat resistant than polyethene, is an
Alanine is a non-essential amino acid. Valine,
incorrect statement.
Leucine and Lysine are essential amino acids.

85. (1) 90. (2)

Chirality is used to describe a molecule whose The glyptal polymer is obtained by the phthalic acid
enantiomers are non-superimposable on their mirror + ethylene glycol
images.
In the case of RNA, ribose sugar is present in the
structure, and in the case of DNA, deoxyribose sugar
is present.
The sugars are present in D-isomer form.
The carbon molecules in the sugar structure possess
different functional groups and those are chiral
carbons.
They show chirality.

86. (1)
The chemical composition of nucleotides consists of
a phosphate group, a sugar and a nitrogenous base.

[8]
91. (4) 97. (4)
Vegetable oils are a good source of vitamin E. Ceric ammonium nitrate, sodium metal, ester
Vitamin E is also known as -tocopherol and it is a formation test is used to detect alcoholic group in
good antioxidant. organic compound.

98. (4)
92. (2) 62 Mass of Mg 2 P2O7
Artificial sweeteners enhance the taste but will not % of P =   100%
222 Mass of o.c
enhance the nutritional value. Whereas minerals, 62 0.444g
vitamins and amino acid will increase the nutritional =   100% = 40%
222 0.31g
value as they are the important constituents of
nutrition. 99. (4)
1.4  meq. of acid
% of N =
93. (3) mass of organic compound
M
Invert soap is a class of synthetic detergents in which meq. of H2SO4 = 60   2 = 12
the surface active part of the molecule is the cation. 10
M
It is a cationic detergent. meq. of NaOH = 20  = 2
10
Trimethyl stearyl ammonium bromide is cationic
 meq. of acid consumed = 12 – 2 = 10
detergent and also called invert soap.
1.4 10
 % of N = = 10%
1.4
94. (4)
A water supply with a BOD level of 3-5 ppm is 100. (1)
From 715 mm pressure, subtract aqueous tension 15
considered moderately clean. In water with a BOD
mm to obtain pressure of nitrogen.
level of 6-9 ppm, the water is considered somewhat
P = 715 – 15 = 700 mm Hg
polluted because there is usually organic matter
V  P  273
present and bacteria are decomposing this waste. Volume of nitrogen at STP =
( T)  760
Hence, clean water would have a BOD value of less
Volume of nitrogen at STP
than 5. 55  700  273
= = 46 mL
95. (2) (300)  760
Excessive sulphate (>500 ppm) in drinking water vol of N2 at STP
Percent of nitrogen =
causes laxative effect, otherwise at moderate levels wt of organic compound
it is harmless. 28
  100
22400
96. (3) 46 28
Percent of nitrogen =   100 = 16.45%
Sewage sludge contains significant amounts of 0.35 22400
nitrogen and phosphorus, but only small amounts of The percentage composition of nitrogen in the
compound would be 16.45 %.
potassium.
SECTION – III (BOTANY)
101. (4) 103. (4)
In an aquatic ecosystem chief producers includes The mentioned gases – carbon dioxide, CFCs and
all, except Hydra. methane – are commonly known as greenhouse
gases because they are responsible for the
102. (3) greenhouse effect.
Catalytic converters, having expensive metals
namely platinum-palladium and rhodium as the 104. (4)
catalysts, are fitted into automobiles for reducing For reducing air pollution, Government of india
emission of poisonous gases. As the exhaust taken measures like - include phasing out of old
passes through the catalytic converter, unburnt vehicles, use of unleaded petrol, use of low-
hydrocarbons are converted into carbon dioxide sulphur petrol and diesel, use of catalytic
and water, and carbon monoxide and nitric oxide converters in vehicles, application of stringent
are changed to carbon dioxide and nitrogen gas, pollution-level norms for vehicles, etc.
respectively.
[9]
105. (3)
Both statements are correct.
106. (2)
Vertical distribution of different species
occupying different levels in an ecosystem is
called stratification.
107. (3)
Sparrow can be primary as well as secondary
consumer because it can eat fruits and seeds as
well as insects and worms. Occurrence of food
web provides stability to the ecosystem. So, both
the statements are correct.
108. (1)
Increase in number of species, Increase in total
biomass are changes occur during succession,
Hydrarch and xerarch successions lead to medium
water conditions (mesic) – neither too dry (xeric)
nor too wet (hydric).
109. (1)
Phytoplankton → Submerged plant stage → Sub
merged free floating plant stage →Reed swamp
stage → Marsh meadow stage → Scrub stage →
Forest.
110. (3)
The Western Ghats have a greater amphibian
species diversity than the Eastern Ghats. Birds
diversity is much greater than amphibians.
Lichens are less diverse than algae.
111. (2)
The broadly utilitarian argument says that
biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem
services that nature provides. Amazon forest is
estimated to produce, through photosynthesis, 20
per cent of the total oxygen in the earth’s
atmosphere. Flood and erosion control ,
Pollination (without which plants cannot give us
fruits or seeds) is another service, ecosystems
provide through pollinators layer – bees,
bumblebees, birds and bats.
112. (4)
113. (2)
A - Molluscs B - Other animal groups is the
correct answer.
114. (3)
Algal blooms cause deterioration of the water
quality and fish mortality. Some bloom-forming
algae are extremely toxic to human beings and
animals.
115. (4)
Tropics harbour more species than temperate or
polar areas. Unlike temperate regions subjected to
frequent glaciations in the past, tropical latitudes
have remained relatively undisturbed for millions
of years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for
species diversification, tropical environments,
unlike temperate ones, are less seasonal, relatively
more constant and predictable, there is more solar
energy available in the tropics, which contributes
to higher productivity; this in turn might
contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
116. (3)
Nutrients especially nitrogen and phosphorus are
responsible for eutrophication. Mercury is a non-
biodegradable pollutant. So, both statements are
correct.
117. (2)
Species diversity increases from pole to equator.
Many species extinctions in the last 500 years
(Steller’s sea cow, passenger pigeon) were due to
overexploitation by humans. Organisms at high
trophic level in food chain are animals.
118. (3)
Radioactive waste disposal is not done is plastic
bags in public area rather it is recommended that
storage of nuclear waste, after sufficient pre-
treatment, should be done in suitably shielded
containers buried within the rocks, about 500 m
deep below the earth’s surface.
119. (2)
Recycling is the only solution for the treatment of
e-waste, provided it is carried out in an
environment friendly manner.
120. (2)
Wildlife safari parks comes under ex situ
conservation. In this approach, threatened animals
and plants are taken out from their natural habitat
and placed in special setting where they can be
protected and given special care.
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121. (4)
Nile perch is not an exotic species in India. The
Nile perch was introduced into Lake Victoria in
east Africa.
122. (4)
Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to all,
except increase in resistance to invasions by alien
species.
123. (2)
Gametes of threatened species can be preserved in
viable and fertile condition for long periods
through cryopreservation.
124. (4)
Sacred groves are found in Khasi and Jaintia Hills
in Meghalaya, Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan,
Western Ghat regions of Karnataka and
Maharashtra and the Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar
areas of Madhya Pradesh.
125. (2)
Species diversity refers to the diversity at the
species level within a region.
126. (1)
The Rivet popper hypothesis was proposed by
Paul Ehrlich.
127. (3)
National Forest Policy (1988) of India has
recommended 33 per cent forest cover for the
plains and 67 per cent for the hills. The
Government of India in 1980s has introduced the
concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM) so as
to work closely with the local communities for
protecting and managing forests.
128. (2)
For the sedimentary cycle (e.g., sulphur and
phosphorus cycle), the reservoir pool is Earth’s
crust.
129. (1)
The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds
that of phytoplankton
130. (2)
Conservation of biodiversity for intangible
benefits comes under broadly utilitarian
arguments.
131. (4)
CNG burns most efficiently, unlike petrol or
diesel, in the automobiles and very little of it is left
unburnt. Moreover, CNG is cheaper than petrol or
diesel, cannot be siphoned off by thieves and
adulterated like petrol or diesel.
132. (1)
CO2 does not show biomagnification.
133. (3)
UV-B damages DNA and mutation may occur. It
causes aging of skin, damage to skin cells and
various types of skin cancers. In human eye,
cornea absorbs UV-B radiation, and a high dose of
UV-B causes inflammation of cornea, called
snow-blindness, cataract, etc. Such exposure may
permanently damage the cornea.
134. (1)
8.1% percentage of global biodiversity is shared
by India.
135. (4)
Slash and burn agriculture, conversion of forest
land into lands for agricultural purpose are the
major reasons of deforestation.
136. (3)
Three of the hotspots – Western Ghats and Sri
Lanka, Indo-Burma and Himalaya – cover our
country’s exceptionally high biodiversity regions.
Bastar area of M.P. is sacred groove.
137. (4)
According to the IUCN, 12% of all bird species,
23% of all mammal species, 31% of gymnosperm
species and 32% of all amphibian species in the
world face the threat of extinction and have the
highest percentage of endangered species.
Amphibians are more vulnerable to extinction out
of all the species as they require both terrestrial
and aquatic habitat. Habitat destruction due to
human activities has become a threat to
amphibians.
138. (1)
Pyramid of Numbers is upright in case of
grassland and crop ecosystem and inverted in case
of tree ecosystem.
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139. (4)
Ecological sanitation is a sustainable system for
handling human excreta, using dry composting
toilets. This is a practical, hygienic, efficient and
cost-effective solution to human waste disposal.
The key point to note here is that with this
composting method, human excreta can be
recycled into a resource (as natural fertiliser),
which reduces the need for 0chemical fertilisers.
There are working ‘EcoSan’ toilets in many areas
of Kerala and Sri Lanka
140. (4)
All are correct
141. (1)
Integrated organic farming is a cyclical, zero-
waste procedure, where waste products from one
process are cycled in as nutrients for other
processes. This allows the maximum utilisation of
resource and increases the efficiency of
production.
142. (1)
Earth summit, 1992 was held at Rio De Janeiro,
Brazil.
143. (2)
Some examples of recent extinctions include the
dodo (Mauritius), quagga (Africa), thylacine
(Australia), Steller’s Sea Cow (Russia) and three
subspecies (Bali, Javan, Caspian) of tiger.
144. (1)
P-(IV), Q-(I) R-(III), S-(II)
Refer class 12 NCERT ch 16.
SECTION – IV (ZOOLOGY)
151. (3)
Among many, the two core techniques that enabled
birth of modern biotechnology are genetic
engineering and bioprocess engineering
152. (4)
Process of making multiple identical copies of any
template DNA is called as cloning
153. (2)
A definition of biotechnology that encompasses
both traditional view and modern molecular
biotechnology was given by European Federation of
Biotechnology (EFB)
145. (4)
Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus through
rainfall are much smaller than carbon inputs
146. (1)
Cichild fish in Lake Victoria of East Africa is not
an example of exotic species.
147. (2)
An important characteristic of all communities is
that their composition and structure constantly
change in response to the changing environmental
conditions. This change is orderly and sequential,
parallel with the changes in the physical
environment. These changes lead finally to a
community that is in near equilibrium with the
environment and that is called a climax
community
148. (3)
Both statement I and II are correct
149. (4) *Robert Constanza and his colleagues have
very recently tried to put price tags on nature’s
life-support services. Researchers have put an
average price tag of US $ 33 trillion a year on
these fundamental ecosystems services.
*Out of the total cost of various ecosystem
services, the soil formation accounts for about 50
per cent, and contributions of other services like
recreation and nutrient cycling, are less than 10
per cent each. The cost of climate regulation and
habitat for wildlife are about 6 per cent each.
150. (1)
Tribal people are integral component of
biosphere reserves.
154. (3)
Overhanging stretches called sticky ends are
generated on each strand after the action of
restriction endonucleases. These are named so
because they form hydrogen bonds with their
complementary cut counterparts. This stickiness of
the ends facilitates the action of the enzyme DNA
ligase.
155. (4)
Textual based question
156. (4)
Silencing of genes using anti-sense technology to
reduce post-harvest loss is done in Flavr savr tomato
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157. (2)
Recombinant DNA technology can be accomplished
only if we have the key tools, i.e., restriction
enzymes, polymerase enzymes, ligases, vector and
the host organism
170. (2)
If we are able to link an alien piece of DNA with
bacteriophage or plasmid DNA, we can multiply its
number equal to the copy number of the plasmid or
bacteriophage.

158. (3) 171. (3)

Exonuclease remove nucleotides from the ends of Textual based question
DNA
172. (4)
159. (3) PCR, ELISA, and Recombinant DNA tech serve the
Lane 1 shows migration of undigested DNA
purpose of early diagnosis

160. (2)
173. (4)
Thermus aquaticus is the source of heat stable PCR
A recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding
enzyme
sequence of an enzyme, β-galactosidase.
Presence of insert results into insertional
161. (1)
Precipitated DNA that separates out can be removed inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene and the
by spooling technique colonies do not produce any colour, these are
identified as recombinant colonies
162. (1)
-1 antitrypsin produced by transgenic animals is 174. (3)
used to treat emphysema Restriction enzymes are endonucleases that are
isolated from bacteria and they recognise a
163. (3) palindromic nucleotide sequence
At present about 30 recombinant therapeutics have
been approved for human use all over the world. 175. (4)
Transgenic cow Rosie developed in 1997 produced In a method known as micro-injection, recombinant
-lactalbumin rich milk. DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal
cells.
164. (3) Since DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass
If one wants to recover many copies of the target through cell membranes easily
DNA it should be cloned in a vector whose origin Cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-
support high copy number particles of gold or tungsten coated with DNA in a
method known as biolistics or gene gun and this
165. (2) method is suitable for plants
A: Salmonella typhimurium, B: Escherichia coli
176. (2)
166. (3) Restriction endonuclease restrict the growth of
Biopiracy refers to use of bioresources by bacteriophage as they add methyl groups to the
multinational companies without proper bacterial DNA.
authorisation from country and people concerned
177. (2)
167. (3)
Selectable marker helps in identifying and
Diagrammatic factual question
eliminating non-transformants and selectively
permitting the growth of the transformants.
168. (2)
Genes are located on long molecules of DNA
178. (4)
interwined with proteins such as histones
Vectors used at present, are engineered in such a
169. (2) way that they help easy linking of foreign DNA and
Chitinase acts on fungal cell wall. selection of recombinants from non-recombinants.

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179. (2) 190. (3)
Transgenic cow Rosie developed in 1997 produced Using Agrobacterium vectors, nematode-specific
-lactalbumin rich milk that has more nutrition genes were introduced into the host plant for pest
resistance.
180. (3)
Genetically engineered lymphocytes do not remain 191. (4)
viable in the patient throughout life The organisation responsible for assessing the safety
of introducing genetically modified organism for
181. (3) public use in India is GEAC
Textual based question
192. (3)
182. (3) Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is
PCR is a nucleic acid based early diagnostic of mice
technique for HIV
193. (3)
183. (2) ELISA is serum based test that detects the presence of
Green revolution was succeeded in tripling the food antigen and antibody in serum against that particular
supply. Increase was insufficient to feed the growing pathogen
human population
194. (3)
184. (1) ‘C’ represents Eco RI site
A probe is either single stranded DNA or RNA
195. (2)
185. (3) The technology used to purify the protein/organic
A stirred tank vector is usually cylindrical or with a compound is downstream processing
curved base to facilitate the mixing of reactor
contents. 196. (3)
Transformants are the cells that contain recombinant
186. (3) plasmid or may contain non-recombinant plasmid
Toxins encoded by gene cry I Ac and cry I Ab make also
a plant resistant to cotton bollworm and corn borer
respectively 197. (1)
Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
187. (3) correct explanation of assertion
Disulphide bonds were formed later in between A
and B-chain to produce mature insulin 198. (2)
Tobacco budworm and army worm belong to
188. (3) Lepidoptera order
ADA enzyme is crucial for the functioning of
Immune system of the body 199. (2)
In RNAi, the genes are silenced using ds – RNA
189. (2)
Ampicillin resistant gene is present within the 200. (1)
recognition sequence of Pst I so if a gene is inserted Textual based question
at Pst I site in pBR322, then the vector will lose its
resistance to ampicillin, however tetracycline
resistant gene remains intact

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