Maternal and child health nursing MCQs 2022

1. Piskacck's sign refer to:

a. softening of the isthmus of uterus
b enlargement and softening of the uterus sign
c. softening of the cervix
d. soft sport anteriorly in middle of the uterus

2. Which one is not relevant for functions of the placenta?

a. respiratory
b. nutritive
c. glucogenesis
d. absorption

3. In primigravida, quickening is normally detected:

a. as early as 16 weeks
b. between 16-18 weeks gestation
c. between 18-20 weeks gestation
d. after 20 to 22 weeks gestation

4. The nurse observes the client's amniotic fluid and decides that it appears normal,
because it is:
a. clear and dark amber in color
a. b clear, straw-coloured, and containing fetal epithelial cells
b. milky, greenish yellow, containing shreds of mucus
c. cloudy, greenish-yellow, and containing little white specks

5. In psychosocial stages of pregnancy, women train for role of expected parent and interact
with babies and children are known as:
a. anticipatory stage
b. honeymoon stage
c. plateau stage
d. disengagement stage

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6. The relation of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the uterus is known as:
a. presentation
b. lie
c. attitude
d. position

7. Which of the following circumstances is most likely to cause uterine atony and
lead to postpartum hemorrhage?
a. hypertension
b. cervical and vaginal tears
c. endometritis
d. full bladder

8. Which of the following is not a sign of maternal distress in prolonged labour?

a. falling pulse rate
b. dry tongue
c. hot, dry vagina and offensive discharge
d. anxious look with sunken eyes

9. The nurse would suspect preeclampsia if which of the following was found during
assessment:
a. hypertension and diminished reflexes
b. hypertension and proteinuria
c. ankle edema and ketonuria
d. glucosuria and proteinuria

10. Which of the following is not relevant for causes of uterine rupture during ordinary
labour?
a. obstructed labour
b. malpresentation
c. recognized previous laceration of the uterus
d. injudicious use of oxytocic drugs

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11. The commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tube is:
a. a previous scar or adhesions in the fallopian tube
b. inflammation of the fallopian tube
c. congenital narrowing of the fallopian tube
d. kinking of the tube

12. In the female, the second most common site of malignancy is:
a. cervix
b. ovary
c. uterus
d. the fallopian tube

15. Which of the following in not a sign of cancer of the valva?

a. initially, growth is superficial
b. neoplasms are usually multifocal
c. bleeding after coitus
d. carcinoma in situ is itchy

14. A woman said that foul vaginal odor and leakage of fecal material from her vagina. This
is most likely related to:
a. rectocele
b. bacterial vaginitis
c. genital fistulas
d. endometrial cancer

15. The nurse can reassure parents that their infant's colic disappears spontaneously usually
by the age of:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months

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16. When an object touches the sole of the newborns foot at the base of the toes, his toes
grasp in the same manner as his fingers do. This is called:
a. planter grasp reflex
b. palmer grasps reflex
c. moro reflex
d. babinski reflex

17. A child pulls up to stand by the age of:

a. 7 months
b. 8 months
c. 9 months
d. 10 months

18. One of the major tasks of toddlerhood is:

a. dressed self completely
b. learned how to do things
c. learned appropriate social manner
d. learning bowel and bladder control

19. Clinical features of Pseudomeningitis form of vitamin B1deficiency in infants (Beriberi)

are:
a. continuous crying and aphonia
b. sudden onset of cyanosis, dyspnea and tachycardia
c. restlessness, convulsions and coma
d. puffiness face, oedema and low urine output

20. Age between 2 to 11 months old child is diagnosed fast breathing when the respiratory
rate of:
a. a .≥40 breaths per minute
b. ≥50 breaths per minute
c. 40 breaths per minute
d. d ≥60 breaths per minute

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21. Which of the following is a congenital anomaly that results in mechanical obstruction
from inadequate motility of part of the intestine?
a. Intussusceptions
b. Short- bowel syndrome
c. Crohn disease
d. Hirschsprung's disease.

22. What is the most common congenital heart defect occurring in children?
a. ventricular septal defect
b. coarctation of the aorta
c. atrial septal defect
d. patent ductus arteriosus

23. The condition in which the urethral opening is located on behind the penis is:
a. epispadias Dosal side
b. b hypospadias
c. hyperspadias
d. exstrophy

24. Which of the following signs is relevant for child with full thickness burn?
a. painful, blister, pink or red
b. painless, white, red or black
c. painful, red edematous skin vesicles
d. painful, red dermis affected

25. Which one is not relevant for possible factors of congenital dislocation of the hip?
a. Malposition in utero
b. breech delivery
c. hormonal factors
d. cephalic presentation

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 Maternal and child health nursing MCQs 2020
1. Gaudell’s sign refers to:
a. Softening of the isthmus of uterus
b. Softening of the cervix
c. Flexibility of the uterus against the cervix
d. Soft sport anteriority in middle of the uterus

2. In primigravida, quickening is normally detected:

a. Between 18-20 weeks gestation
b. Between 16-18 weeks gestation
c. As early 16-weeks
d. After 20 to 22 weeks gestation

3. During normal labour, contraction characteristically become:

a. Shorter duration and longer interval
b. Longer duration and shorter interval
c. Less frequent and of longer duration
d. Less frequent and of shorter duration

4. Membrane space between the frontal bones and the parietal bone:
a. Sagital suture
b. Frontal suture
c. Coronal suture
d. Lambdoidal suture

5. Which of the following is not a sign of placenta separation?

a. Cord lengthening and increasing bleeding
b. Fundus rising in abdomen
c. Perineal bulging
d. Uterus becoming globular

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6. The sex of identical (monozygotic) twins:
a. Is not predictable
b. May or may be the same
c. Is always different
d. Is always the same

7. Which of the following circumstances is most likely to cause uterine atony and lead to
postpartum hemorrhage?
a. Hypertension
b. Cervical and vaginal tears
c. Endometritis
d. Full bladder

8. Which of the following is not present in threatened abortion?

a. Bleeding
b. History of amenorrhea
c. Dilated internal OS
d. Intact membranes

9. One of the suggestive signs of pregnancy is not relevant in Hydatidiform mole:

a. More severe morning sickness
b. Fundal height is small than normal
c. Breast enlargement
d. Frequent urination

10. Pregnant woman who is hospitalized with severe preeclampsia should be closely
observed to the onset of:
a. Seizures
b. Decreased blood pressure
c. Polyuria
d. Decreased uric acid level

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11. The commonest cause of ectopic pregnancy in fallopian tube is:
a. A previous scar or adhesions in the fallopian tube
b. Inflammation of the fallopian tube
c. Congenital narrowing of the fallopian tube
d. Kinking of the tube

12. The contraceptive method that provides the best protection against sexually transmitted
disease is:
a. Male sterilization
b. Intrauterine device
c. Male condom
d. Oral pill

13. Heavy of profuse regular menstrual bleeding is called:

a. Menorrhagia
b. Polymenorrhoea
c. Dysmeornrhoea
d. Metrorrhagia

14. A woman said that foul vaginal odor and leakage of fecal material from her vagina. This
is most likely related to:
a. Rectocele
b. Bacteria vaginitis
c. Genital fistulas
d. Endometrial cancer

15. The nurse can reassure parents that their infant’s colic will probably not last beyond the
age of:
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
d. 9 months

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16. If a newborn’ cheek is brushed or stroked near the corner of his mouth, the child will turn
his head in that direction. This is called:
a. Suckling reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Swallowing reflex
d. Extrusion reflex

17. A child says Da-Da, Ma-Ma by the age of:

a. 5 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months

18. One of the major tasks of toddlerhood is:

a. Dressed self completely
b. Learned how to do things
c. Learned appropriate social manner
d. Learning bowel and bladder control

19. Infantile Beri Beri is:

a. Commonly occurred in early weaning from breastfeeding
b. Caused by deficiency riboflavin
c. Diagnosed and treated by thiamine 50 mg (intramuscularly)
d. Present with loss of hair

20. Under 2 months old child is diagnosed fast breathing when the respiration rate of:
a.  40 breaths per minute
b.  50 breaths per minute
c. 40 breaths per minute
d.  60 breaths per minute

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21. Which of the following is a congenital abnormality that results in mechanical obstruction
from inadequate motility of part of the intestine
a. Intussusceptions
b. Hirschsprung’s disease
c. Crohn disease
d. Short bowel syndrome

22. What is the most common congenital heart defect occurring in children?
a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Coarctation of the aorta
c. Atrial septal defect
d. Patient ductus arteriosus

23. The condition in which the urethral opening is located on the dorsal side of the penis is:
a. Hypospadias
b. Epispadias
c. Hyperspadias
d. Exstrophy

24. Which of the following signs is relevant for child with full thickness burn?
a. Painful, blister, pink or red
b. Painless, white, red or black
c. Painful, red edematous skin vesicles
d. Painful, red dermis affected

25. Neurovascular assessment is the basic assessment in orthopaedic care and it is not
consisting of the following
a. Colour of the affected limb compare to other extremity
b. Capillary refill, pulse and temperature
c. Sensation, motion, pain and tenderness
d. Glasgow coma scale

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 Maternal and Child Health Nursing (2019)
1. The softening of the cervix is called the sign as follow;
a. Hegar’s sign
b. Gaudell’s sign
c. Ladin’s sign
d. McDonald’s sign

2. Painless contractions (Braxton Hicks contractions) occur intermittently throughout

pregnancy and can be felt by the women by the following month.
a. fourth month
b. Fifth month
c. Eighth month
d. Ninth month

3. Progesterone maintains;
a. Contractility of the uterus
b. Suitable for fetus
c. Endometrium
d. Soften the cervix

4. Antepartum care refers to the medical and nursing care given to pregnant woman;
a. Between conception and onset of labour
b. Before conception to onset of labour
c. Before conception to first stage of labour
d. Between conception and end of the first stage of labour

5. Onset of labour is characterized by;

a. Starting uterine contraction
b. Fetus is ballotable
c. Irregular contractions
d. Dilatation and effacement of cervix

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6. The commonest site of ectopic implantation is;
a. The ovary
b. The uterine myometrium
c. The uterine tube
d. Intra- peritoneal cavity

7. Acute emergency during pregnancy is;

a. Accidental haemorrhage
b. Perforated ulcer
c. Volvulus of bowel and strangulated
d. Acute hydramnious

8. One of the signs and symptoms of shock due to placental abruption is;
a. Rapid and bounding pulse
b. Warm to touch
c. Rapid and deep breathing
d. Urine output less than 30ml/hr

9. Stillbirth is one of the complications of;

a. Placenta previa
b. Preeclampsia
c. Squeezed placenta
d. Underweight pregnant woman

10. The perineum may be badly torn when the labour is ;

a. A series of intense and repeated muscle contractions
b. Prolonged
c. Too rapid
d. Delay progress
11. Encouragement of mother newborn attachment intends to;
a. Accept the parenting hood
b. Reduce anxiety
c. Improve mother’s attention
d. Develop a bonding relationship
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12. Postnatal mother should be assessed extremities for signs of inflammation and
following positive sign.
a. Hoffman sign
b. Rust’s sign
c. Homan’s sign
d. Kerning’s sign

13. Colposcopy that can identify the following one,

a. The patterns of abnormality near the cervical os
b. The patterns of abnormality cervical cannel
c. The patterns of abnormality near vulva
d. The patterns of abnormality endometrium

14. One of the risk factors of breast cancer is;

a. Early menopause
b. Late menarche
c. Nulliparity
d. Childbearing before 30 years

15. Breastfeeding women generally advised to wait six weeks to use the following
Hormonal Contraceptive.
a. Diaphragm
b. Cervical cap
c. Hormone Implant
d. Hormone Injection

16. As a nurse needs the immediate action to save the life of the child. The following
general danger sign is present if the child;
a. Is able to drink some fluid or breast milk
b. Vomits everything
c. Cries loudly
d. Delays in falling asleep

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17. One of the followings is inappropriate implications for treatment of Diarrhoea.
a. Provide fluid and electrolytes replacement
b. Provide feeding to be continued
c. Provide Oral rehydration Solutions (ORS)
d. Provide antidiarrhoeal and antiemetic drugs routinely

18. Consider Tuberculosis in any child with the following history except.
a. Unexplained weight loss or grow normally
b. Unexplained fever more than two weeks
c. Chronic impetigo
d. Exposure to an adult with pulmonary infections tuberculosis

19. Urinalysis is very important for the child with renal and urinary tract disorders.
First morning voided specimen is ideal the following reason.
a. It is most concentrated
b. It is excessive amount of urine in morning
c. It is most clear than next voiding
d. It is straw colour

20. One of the following signs is relevant for child with deep dermal partial thickness
burn.
a. Dermic destroyed
b. Affected skin is with, red, or black
c. Affected skin is pale to red
d. Muscle and bone may be damaged

21. Which of the following is not manifestation regarding the child with impairment in
adaptive behavior?
a. Impaired learning inadequate social and judgement
b. Delay potential capacity for achievement
c. Lowered potential capacity for achievement
d. Willingness to do what the best for himself

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22. Congenital absence of parasympathetic nerve ganglia in distal colon is one of the
following diseases.
a. Hirschsprung’s disease
b. Ulcerative colitis disease
c. Crohn disease
d. Inflammatory bowel disease

23. The elevated lesion from the skin surface that likes a pimple. This is called;
a. Pustule
b. Papule
c. Macula
d. Coalesced skin lesion

24. Hypermobility and torsion may be normal variants for child that result in the
following disorders except.
a. Bowlegs
b. Toeing out
c. Knock knees
d. Straighten legs

25. Behaviour changes , fever, vomiting, arthralgia, headache, stiff neck, photophobia,
and diplopia are the pertinent history of the child with;
a. Gastritis
b. Osteomyelitis
c. Meningitis
d. Otitis Media

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 Maternal and Child Health Nursing (2018)

1. The nurse observes the client's amniotic fluid and decides that it appears normal because it
is
a. Clear and dark amber in color
b. Clear, straw-coloured and containing fetal epithelial cells
c. Milk, greenish yellow, containing shred of mucus
d. Cloudy, greenish, yellow and containing little while speeks

2 The recommended weight gain of a woman during pregnancy is

a. 18 to 22lbs
b. 20 to 24lbs
c. 24 to 30lbs
d. 34 to 36lbs

3 False labour is characterized by

a. Irregular uterine contractions and cervical change
b. Irregular uterine contractions with no cervical change
c. The presence of bloody show
d. Contractions are intensified by walking

4 During what stage of labour does "crowning" occur?

a. First stage
b. Second stage
c. Third stage
d. Fourth stage

5. Signs of placenta separation include, except

a. Cord lengthening and increasing bleeding
b. Fundus rising in abdomen
c. Perineal bulging
d. Uterus becoming globular

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6. Female (dizygotic) twins result when:
a. They develop from a single fertilized ovum
b. Two sperm fertilize one ovum
c. The embryonic disc does not divide completely
d. Two sperms fertilize two ova

7 Which of the following circumstances is more likely to cause uterine atony and lead to
postpartum hemorrhage?
a. Hypertension
b. Cervical and vaginal tears
c. Endometritis
d. Full bladder

8 Choriaocarcinoma usually follows:

a. Hydratidiform mole
b. Abortion
c. Full term labour
d. Extra uterine pregnancy

9. The nurse would suspect preeclampsia if which of the following was found during
assessment:
a. Ilypertension and diminished reflexes
b. Proteninuria and hypertension
c. Ankle edema and ketonuria
d. Glucosuria and proteinuria

10. The commonest cause of bleeding in early pregnancy is:

a. Abortion
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Decidual bleeding
d. Cervical lesions

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11. The commonest cause of ectopic gestation in fallopian tube is
a. A previous scar of adhesions in the fallopian tube
b. Inflammation of the fallopian tube
c. Congenital narrowing of the fallopian tube
d. Kinking of the tube

12 A 45-year-old female patient during her well women's health visit complains of foul
vaginal odor and leakage of fecal material from her vagina. This is most likely related to:
a. Rectocele
b. Bacterial vaginitis
c. Genital fistulas
d. Endometrial cancer

13 A definition of menorrhagia is
a. Regular heavy bleeding
b. Bleeding between periods or after menopause
c. Painful menstruation
d. Bleeding related to cervical dysplasia

14. The contraceptive method that provides the best protection against sexually transmitted
disease
a. The male condom
b. Intrauterine device
c. Oral pills
d. Female sterilization

15 The head to tail direction of growth is called

a. Proximodistal
b. Cephalocaudal
c. Sequential
d. Specific

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16. In the feeding problems of the infant, dribbling of unswallowed formula from the infant's
mouth immediately removes after a feeding is called
a. Regurgitation
b. Pitting up
c. Weaning
d. Vomiting

17. Fear is so common among preschool children that it is considered a universal fear of the
age group. Indicate which one
a. Fear of the height
b. Fear of the animal
c. Fear of the dark
d. Fear of the separation

18. A child's birth weight usually triples by the end of the first
a. 4 months
b. 7 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months

19. Acute watery diarrhea :

a. Can be caused by celiac disease
b. Can be related to hyperthyroid
c. Can be caused by viral and bacterial pathogens
d. is an increase in stool frequency and increased water content with a duration of more
than 14 days

20. The nurse would expect the patent of an infant with croup to describe the infant's cough
as
a. Productive
b. Dry
c. Barking
d. Quiet

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21 An invagination of one portion of the intestine into another is called
a. Pyloric stenosis
b. Intussusception
c. Tracheoesophageal fistula
d. Hirschsprung's disease

22 What is the most common congenital heart defect occurring in children?

a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Contraction of the aorta
c. Atrial septal defect
d. Patient ductusarteriosus

23.Which one of the following does not predispose the child to urinary tract
a. Poor hygiene
b. Lowering of urine PH
c. Neurogenic bladder
d. Night fitting clothing

24 Which of the following is not a feature of measles?

a. Koplik's spots
b. Cuncrumoris
c. Fever
d. Conjunctivitis

25 Which signs and symptoms are characteristic of pinworms?

a. Diarrhea, itching and fever
b. Nausea, vomiting and itching
c. Nausea, vomiting and weight loss
d. Itching, irritability and restlessness

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 Maternal and Child Health Nursing (2017)

1. The following rights are for the obstetric except,

a. The right to be informed if there is any know her baby's care condition
b. The right to have her baby care for at her beside to feed her baby if any condition
c. The right to have her and her baby's hospital medical records including Nurses Notes
d. The right to be informed in writing of the name of birth attendant and professional
qualifications of that person on the birth certificate

2.These points allow for wider range of movement during labour

a. Sacro coccygeal joints
b. Symphysis pubic joints
c. Sacro ischium joints
d. Sacro iliac joints

3.Which of the following functions is the nature placenta

a. Barrier to some but not all infection
b. The placenta convey glucose into glycogen
c. Waste products pass through fetal circulation from mother circulation
d. All food products pass though maternal blood from fetal blood

4 Fetal Heart Rate(FHR) can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as which of the
following?
a. 5 weeks gestation
b. 10 weeks gestation
c. 15 weeks gestation
d. 20 weeks gestation
5. Hyperemesis gravidarum, one of the complications of pregnancy can cause,
a. Bleeding
b. Water-electrolyte imbalance
c. Abnormally positioned fetus
d. Difficult labour

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6. During first prenatal visit, every pregnant woman should be screened for Sexual
Transmitted Infections(STIs) which is not include,
a. Chlamydia
b. Random Blood sugar
c. Hepatitis B
d. HIV and Syphilis

7. One of the following symptoms of depression can occours during of after pregnancy
a. Changes in appetite, sleep, and energy
b. Concentrating, and decision making may be improve
c. Loss of feeling in guilt
d. Thoughts that life is worth living

8. One of the suggestive pregnancy signs of Hydatidiform Mole is not marked

a. The breasts are enlarged
b. Frequency of maturation
c. Fundal hight is smaller than normal
d. More severe morning sickness

9. One of the clinical features of Diabetes Mellitus in pregnancy is

a. Oliguria
b. Hypouresis
c. Weight gain
d. Pruitus vulva

10. The patient may lapse into following one if measures are not taken in time to correct the
hypoglycaemia,
a. Fits
b. Coma
c. Restlessness
d. d Alertness

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11. The most common causative organisms in cystitis and pyelonephritis include
a. Pseudomonas
b. S.aureus
c. Streptococcus
d. Escherichia coli

12 After resuscitating the asphyxiated baby, the health care personnel has to provide
a. Compression of the chest to eliminate secretions
b. Routine essential care
c. Slapping of the baby's back
d. Postural drainage with head down

13 The most common site of pelvic inflammatory disease is,

a. Upper one third of vagina
b. The fallopian tube
c. Lower part of the uterus
d. Cervix

14 Which one is the advantage of using oral contraceptives?

a. Reduces ovarian and endometrial cancer
b. Irregular menstrual cycle
c. Massive bleeding
d. Foul smelling white discharge

15 One of the causes of primary postpartum haemorrhage is not relevant

a. Bladder distension
b. Clot retention
c. Retained pieces of placenta and membranes
d. Regular uterine function
16 Which one is the gross motor development of infant for appropriate age?
a. At 5 months, infant rolls form back to front
b. At 7 months, infant sits leaning backward
c. At 10 months, infant cruises
d. At 3 months, infant exhibits head lag
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17. One of the common side effects of immunizations in child is.
a. High fever and malaise
b. Mild fever and mild rash
c. Polidipsia
d. Polturia

18. Preschool olders like to:

a. Initiate activities and remain curious
b. Develop crushes on adult outside the family
c. Accept changes in body image
d. Choose friend with members of same sex

19 One of the assessment data is the sign of difficulty breathing for young infant with very
severe pneumonia
a. Grunting
b. Cough
c. Nasal discharge
d. Mouth breathing

20. The important of first step for mixing the oral rehydration salts solution is,
a. Pour powder of oral rehydration salts from in packet into a clean container
b. Measure one liter of clean water
c. Wash your hands with soap and water
d. Pour the water into the container

21. Small grayish white grains of sand surrounded by reddish areola on the inner side of
cheek opposite the lower molar teeth. Which sign of measles is?
a. Koplik's sports
b. Impetigo
c. Petechias
d. Hives

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22. Which of the most important aspect of tuberculosis prevention is?
a. Adequate treatment after trcing them
b. BCG vaccination
c. Effective Health Education
d. Early detection of tuberculosis patients

23. Nutritional problems arise with the immature infant because of the following one reason
a. Stomach capacity is maemia
b. Anorexia
c. Hypoxia
d. Anoxia

24 Reduction of oxygen in the child's body tissues below physiologically adequate levels.
Which one of the following related condition is called?
a. Haemophilus influenza type B
b. Influenza virus
c. Herpesivrus
d. Retrovirus

25 Which of one infection can cause eEpiglottis in child?

a. Haemophilu influenza type B
b. Influenza virus
c. Herpesvirus
d. Retrovirus

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