CPP-07

ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Alternating Current

1. The impedence of a series LCR circuit varies with

1
frequency of applied voltage source as below (1) 2A (2) A
2
z
1
(3) 2 2 A (4) A
3z0 2 2
z0 4. The value of C if circuit becomes resonant after
closing the key is

 L
1 0 2 C
Identify the correct option C
R K

(1) At  = 1 current lags the source emf by
3
radians V = Vosin t


(2) At  = 2 current leads the source emf by 1
6 (1) C (2) (C+C)
L
radians
1 2
(3) o = 12 (3) C (4) C
2L 2L
(4) All of these
5. A series LCR circuit is in resonance at a frequency
Q o
2.  = o . At  = , the best phasor diagram
4 2
representing the relation between current and
t voltage phasor is
O 2
The graph between charge Q in coulomb and time
VR
t in second is parabolic. The average current in the VC VR VC io
interval 0 to 4 second is io
(1) 2 amp. (2) 1 amp. (1) (2)
(3) 16 amp. (4) 4 amp.
VL VL
3. The r.m.s. value of current for one teric period in the
above diagram which is plotted between i and t is

(A)
i
VR
4 VL io VL VR
io
2
10 (3) (4)
t
0 4 (s) VC
VC

–4

(1)
Alternating Current Aakash Institute
10. In an AC LCR series, R = 100 . W hen
R C L capacitance ‘C’ is removed the current lags behind
6. 
the voltage by . When inductance L is removed,
3


the current leads the voltage by . The impedance
If current consider the following ac circuit, from the 3
source is plotted against frequency of voltage of the series combination circuit is
source, the graph is best respected by (1) 50  (2) 100 

i (3) 200  (4) 400 

11. An inductor of inductance 10 mH and capacitor of
(1) capacitance 5F are in LC oscillation. If maximum

0
energy stored in capacitor is 2J, the maximum
current in the circuit is
i (1) 0.2A (2) 2A
(2) (3) 20A (4) 5A

12. The peak value of alternating e.m.f E is given by E
= Eocost, is 20 volt and frequency is 50 Hz. The
i average value of e.m.f is (The average is taken over
first half of time period)
(3)

20  2 10  2
(1) volt (2) volt
 
i
10
(3) volt (4) Zero
(4) 
0  13. In the circuit shown, rms current is 11 A. The
potential difference across the inductor is
7. A transformer has NP = 30 turns in primary and NS
= 2500 turns in the secondary. If the input voltage V = 200 volt
is V = 200Sin(t), then the r.m.s. voltage across V
the secondary coil is approximately L R = 20
(1) 1000 volt (2) 1100 volt C
(3) 1200 volt (4) 11786.9 volt

8. In an L-C circuit consisting of 20 mH inductor and ~

0.1 F capacitor, the maximum current in the 220V, 50Hz
circuit is 0.15A. The maximum voltage across the
capacitor is approximately
(1) 220 volt (2) 300 volt
(1) 60 volt (2) 75 volt (3) 200 volt (4) Zero
(3) 67 volt (4) 57 volt 14. In the circuit shown below what will be the reading
of voltmeter (V1) and ammeter ?
9. An ac is given by I = I0 Sin (t) + 2 . The ratio
of average to rms current in the circuit in one full 100
cycle is V1
V V
A
300V 300V
1 2
(1) 2I0 (2) 2
I 4
0 ~
220V, 50Hz

2 I20  4 (1) 200V, 1A (2) 800V, 2A

(3) (4)
I0  2 2 (3) 220V, 2A (4) 220V, 2.2A
(2)
Aakash Institute Alternating Current
15. In an oscillating LC circuit, maximum current in 20. In an LC circuit, the capacitor has maximum
inductor is Io . The current in inductor when the
energy is stored equally between the electric and  d 
charge q0. The value of   is
magnetic field is  dt max

Io Io L
(1) (2) C
2 2

Io Io
(3) (4)
4 2 2
16. An Alternating Current circuit consists of a qo qo
resistance and an ideal choke coil in series. The (1) (2)
LC LC
resistance is of 220 and choke coil is of 0.7H.
The power absorbed from 220V and 50Hz source
qo qo
connected with the circuit is (3) 1 (4) 1
LC LC
(1) 55 W (2) 220 W
(3) 110 W (4) 440 W 21. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to an
a.c. mains. Some activity is done and the bulb glows
17. An R–L–C circuit containing a 52 resistor, a 230 brighter. The activity may be
mH inductor and a 8.8 F capacitor is driven by an
A.C voltage source that has an amplitude of 150V (1) That the frequency of source was increased
and frequency  = 80 Hz. How much average power (2) That the frequency of source was decreased
is dissipated by this circuit ?
(3) That the locations of bulb and capacitor were
(1) Zero (2) 78.6 W interchanged
(3) 39.3 W (4) 19.6 W (4) That the plates of capacitor were pulled apart using
18. The rms value of current given by the equation  = insulating handles
a+bcost is 22. In a circuit, current lags the emf by 53º. The power
factor of the circuit is
b 2a2  b2 (1) 0.8 (2) 0.6
(1) a (2)
2 2 (3) Zero (4) 1
23. An inductor and a resistor are joined in series in an
a2  b 2 ac circuit. If voltage across inductor is 80 V and
(3) (4) a b 2 2
2 across resistor is 60 V, then the applied voltage is

19. In the circuit shown, the readings of voltmeter V1 , (1) 140 V (2) 20 V
V2 and V3 at resonance are given by (3) 100 V (4) 4800 V
24. The readings of voltmeter and ammeter for LCR series
V1 V2 circuit are respectively

XL = 5  XC = 5  R = 10 
R L C
V3
V

A
=osint,  = 1
LC 40 V
(1) 20 V, 1 A (2) 20 V, 2 A
(1) V1 = V2 = V3 = o
(3) 40 V, 4 A (4) 40 V, 2 A
o
(2) V1 = V3 = , V2 = 0 25. In a transformer the input voltage and input current
2 are 11 kV and 10 A respectively. If the output voltage
is 450 V and the output current is 220 A, then
(3) V1 = V3 = o, V2 = 0 efficiency of the transformer is approximately

o (1) 9% (2) 900%

(4) V1 = , V2 = V3 = 0
2 (3) 90% (4) 80%
(3)
Alternating Current Aakash Institute
1 32. A current passing through a hot wire ammeter, is
26. In a dc LR circuit current grows to th of its steady made of two components, a dc component i1 = 3A
4
state value in 2 s. The time constant of LR circuit is and an ac component i2 = 4 2 sin t. Find the
2 2 reading of the ammeter
(1) (2) (1) 1A (2) 5A
4 3
ln ln
3 4 (3) 3A (4) 6A
2 2 33. In the given LCR series circuit find the source
(3) (4) frequency which drives the circuit at resonance
1 ln 4
ln
4 L=5H
27. In an LCR circuit, inductance is changed from L to
L C = 80F
to keep the same resonance frequency. C should R = 40
2
be changed to
C
(1) 2C (2) V = 200V
4
C 25
(3) (4) 4C (1) 25 Hz (2) Hz
2 
28. A resistor, an ideal capacitor and an ideal inductor 50
are connected in parallel to a source of alternating (3) 50 Hz (4) Hz

250
voltage of 800V at a frequency of Hz . A current 34. In the given LC circuit, charge (q) on capacitor is

of 3A flows through resistor, a current of 1A flows given by graph as shown in the figure
through the inductor and the total current through
the circuit is 5A. If IC>IL, then the capacity of the
capacitor is C L
(1) 12.5 F (2) 10 F
q
(3) 9.2 F (4) 8.2 F qo
29. A transformer is used to light 140W, 24V lamp from
240V a.c. mains. The current in the mains cable is time
0.7A. The efficiency of transformer is
(1) 63.8% (2) 48% W hich of the following graphs best represents
(3) 83.3% (4) 34% current in circuit ?
30. An L–R circuit is connected to an AC source of i
50V(rms) and frequency 50Hz. If the power
io
consumed in the resistor is 150W and the wattless
component of the current is 4A, then the (1) time
voltage(rms) across the inductor will be
(1) 10V (2) 20V
i
(3) 30V (4) 40V
io
31. A series R–C circuit is connected across a source
(2) time
of emf, V= 100 2 sin(1000t) where R=1000 and
C=1F. The equation of current in the circuit is
i

(1) i=0.1 sin(1000t – )
4
(3) time
 –io
(2) i=10 sin(1000t + )
4
i

(3) i=10 sin(1000t – )
4
(4) time

(4) i=0.1 sin(1000t + )
4
(4)
Aakash Institute Alternating Current
35. A series AC circuit has a resistance of 4 and a 40. In a step-up transformer, the Leclanche cell (Emf
reactance of 3. The impedance of the circuit is 1.5 Volt) is connected across primary. The voltage
(1) 5 (2) 7 developed in secondary would be:
(1) 3.0 Volt (2) 0.75 Volt
12 7
(3)  (4)  (3) Zero (4) 1.5 Volt
7 12 41. The electric current in a circuit is given by
36. Consider a circuit which contains only pure inductor
or a pure capacitor connected to an ac source and i  i0 t   for some time. Calculate the r.m.s
resistor is absent. Choose the correct statement current for the period t = 0 to t = 
(1) Power dissipated in the circuit is maximum
i0 i0
(2) Current leads to no power dissipation and is (1) irms  (2) irms 
called wattless current 3 2
(3) Power is dissipated due to wattless current i0
i0
(4) The phase difference between source emf and (3) irms  (4) irms 
2 3
curent is 0° 42. An inductance L having a resistance R is
37. A power transmission line feeds input power at connected to an alternating source of angular
2300V to a step-down transformer, with its primary frequency . The quality factor ‘Q’ of the inductance
windings having 4000 turns. What should be the is
number of turns in the secondary winding in order 2
to get output power at 230V ? L  L 
(1) (2)  R 
R  
(1) 300 (2) 250
2
(3) 400 (4) 450  R  R
(3)  L  (4)
38. The natural frequency of the circuit shown in the   L
figure is: 43. The reading of voltmeter and ammeter in the
following figure will respectively be
C C
A

xc = 4 V 90V

L L
xL = 4 R = 45
(1) 0V and 2A (2) 2A and 0V
(3) 2V and 2A (4) 0V and 0A
1 1 44. An alternating voltage is given by e = e1 sint +
(1) (2) e 2 cost. Then the root mean square value of
2 2LC 2 LC
voltage is given by
1 (1) e12  e22 (2) e1 e 2
2 LC
(3) (4) 2
2 3LC 2 e1e2 e12  e22
(3) (4)
2 2
39. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current
through the inductor is 0.9 A while the current 45. An alternating voltage at different frequencies is
through the condenser is 0.4 A. Hence current applied across a capacitance C. W hich of the
drawn from the generator is following graphs correctly depicts the variation of
current with frequency ?
ic
A
C
ii L
A.C. generator
 
(1) (2)
i  
 
(1) 1.3 A (2) 0.9 A
(3) (4)
(3) 0.6 A (4) 0.5 A  
(5)
Alternating Current Aakash Institute
46. In the series LCR circuit , find the reading of 52. Equation for instantaneous current in the circuit is
ammeter
XL = 60 
400V 400V 40  XC = 20 
V V V

R=50
A

100V, 50Hz
E = 80 2 sin(314t)volt
(1) 1A (2) 2A
 
(3) 0A (4) 5A (1) I  2 sin  314t  
 4
47. The potential difference across a 2H inductor as a
function of time is given in figure. At time t = 0,  
current is zero. Current at t = 2 is (2) I  2 sin  314t  
 4
v(volt)  
(3) I  2cos  314t  
10  4

 
2
t(s) (4) I  2cos  314t  
4  4
(1) 1A (2) 2A 53. In the circuit shown, the voltage leads the current by
(3) 4A (4) 5A 
. The resistance R of the circuit is
48. An electric bulb has a rated power of 50W at 100V. 4
If it is used on an AC source of 200V, 50Hz, a L=0.8 H R
choke has to be used in series with it. This choke
should have an inductance of
(1) 5H (2) 2H
(3) 1.1H (4) 1.35H
V = 100 sin 50t
49. In a series L-C-R circuit R = 200 and the voltage (V is in volt and t is in second)
and the frequency of the main supply is 220V and (1) 13.5  (2) 25.2 
50Hz respectively. On taking out the capacitance
(3) 21  (4) 40 
from the circuit, the current lags behind the voltage
by 30°. On taking out the inductor from the circuit 54. Impedance of LCR series circuit in alternating current
the current leads the voltage by 30°. The power of increasing frequency is best represented by
dissipated in the L-C-R circuit is Z Z
(1) 305W (2) 210W
(3) Zero (4) 121W
(1) (2)
60. The direct current of 5 A is superimposed on an
f f
alternating current I = (10 A) sin t flowing through a fr fr
wire. The effective value of the resulting current will Z Z
be

 15 
(1)  A (2) 5 3 A (3) (4)
 2  f f
fr fr
(3) 5 5 A (4) 15 A 55. Which of the following statement is incorrect about
series resonance circuit?
51. In an ac circuit V and I are given by
(1) We can have resonance in a RL and a RC circuit
  (2) Resonance in a circuit occurs when L and C both
V = 100 V sin 100 t and I = 100 mA sin  100  t   . are present in the circuit
 2
(3) At resonance, voltage across the L and C are
The power dissipated in the circuit is 180º out of phase
(1) 5000 W (2) 5 W (4) At resonance, the total source voltage appears
(3) 2.5 W (4) Zero across R
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Aakash Institute
56. If the ratio of number of turns in the primary and
secondary coil of a transformer is 1 : 5 and an
alternating emf e = 100 V sin 100t is applied across
primary, then the rms value of secondary voltage is
(1) 100 V (2) 500 V
Alternating Current
58. A resistance R draws power P, when connected
to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed
in series with the resistance, such that the
impedance of the circuit becomes Z, the power
drawn will be

(3) 500 2 V (4) 250 2 V R R

(1) P (2) P 
57. The mean value of AC for full wave rectifier in half Z Z
T
cycle [from t1=0 to t 2  ] 2
2 R 
(3) P (4) P  
Z
i sinecurve
i0 59. An alternating current is given by i = I1sint +
I2cost. Then the rms current is given by
t
0 T T
2 I1  I2 I12  I22
(1) (2)
2 2
l0 2l0
(1) (2)
  I12  I22 I12  I22
(3) (4)
l0 2 2
(3) (4) None of these
2



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Alternating Current Aakash Institute

CPP-07
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (1) 21. (1)

22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (1)

29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (4) 35. (1)

36. (2) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (1)

43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (4)

50. (2) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (3) 55. (1) 56. (4)

57. (2) 58. (4) 59. (2)



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 CPP-07
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - d and f-Block Elements

1. W hich of the following lanthanoids has smallest 9. Which of the following salt on heating with solid
atomic radius ? K2Cr2O7 and conc. H2SO4 evolved orange red vapour
(1) Pm (2) Ce which turn NaOH solution yellow ?

(3) Gd (4) Er (1) NaI (2) AgCl

2. Correct order of oxidising strength of the oxoanions (3) NaBr (4) NaCl
will follow the order 10. The transitional element having highest melting point
is :
(1) CrO24  MoO 42   WO 42 
(1) Ru (2) Os
2 2 2
(2) CrO 4  MoO 4  WO 4 (3) Rh (4) W
11. The correct order of ionic radii of Ce, La, Pm and
(3) WO24  MoO 42   CrO42 
Yb in +3 oxidation state is :

(4) MoO 24  WO 24   CrO 24  (1) Yb3+ > Ce3+ > Pm3+ > La3+
(2) Yb3+ > Pm3+ > Ce3+ > La3+
3. The colour of KMnO4 is purple due to
(3) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(1) d-d electronic transition
(4) La3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ < Ce3+
(2) ligand to metal charge transfer spectra
12. KMnO4 is manufactured from
(3) metal to ligand charge transfer spectra
(1) Siderite (2) Pyrolusite
(4) transition of 4s electrons in Mn
(3) Magnesite (4) Atacamite
4. The Deacon’s process for Cl 2 preparation the
catalyst used is 13. Find the correct statement
(1) CuCl2 (2) V2O5 (1) For M3+ of lanthanides, species having same
unpaired electrons have nearly same colour
(3) PdCl2 (4) Fe
(2) Mischmetal is an alloy made up of actinides
5. Which of the following chloride will not give chromyl
chloride test ? (3) Higher oxidation states are more probable in
(1) NaCl (2) KCl lanthanides than in actinides

(3) AgCl (4) CaCl2 (4) Lanthanides form large number of oxo cations
6. Find incorrect statement among the following 14. The strongest oxidising power of KMnO 4 is
observed in
(1) Na2Cr2O7 is more soluble than K2Cr2O7 in water
(2) K2Cr2O7 on heating gives O2 gas (1) Neutral medium
(3) Cr 2 O 7 2– in acidic medium stronger oxidising (2) Acidic medium
agent than MnO4 – (3) Strongly basic medium
(4) In Cr2 O7 2– anion, there are only two different (4) Equal in all medium
type of Cr–O bonds 2+
15. 63Eu can act as
7. All the lanthanides are non-radioactive except
(1) Oxidising agent
(1) Pr (2) Sm
(3) Lu (4) Pm (2) Reducing agent
8. Most common oxidation state of lanthanides is (3) Both oxidising agent and reducing agent
(1) +2 (2) +3 (4) Neither oxidising agent nor reducing agent
(3) +4 (4) +1

(1)
(1)
(1)
d and f-Block Elements Aakash Institute
16. Which of the following element is most unlikely to 25. In 3d-series which ion has positive value of
show +2 oxidation state ? standard reduction potential?
(1) Cu (2) Mn (1) Ti2+ (2) Zn2+
(3) Cr (4) Sc
(3) Cu2+ (4) Fe2+

 2
17. The yellow colour of chromate CrO 4  changes to Acidic Medium A
orange colour on acidification due to formation of 26. KMnO4+KI
Alkaline Medium B
(1) Cr3+ (2) Cr2O3 The product (A) and (B) are respectively
(3) CrO5 (4) Cr2 O72  (1) I2, I2 (2) KI, I2
(3) KIO4 ,KIO3 (4) I2, KIO3
18. Highest stable oxidation state observed in
Lanthanoids is 27. Correct match of melting point
(1) +4 (2) +3 (1) Zr<Mo (2) Re<W
(3) +2 (4) +6 (3) Tc<Ru (4) All of these

19. KMnO4 can be prepared by reaction of pyrolusite 28. Which of the following pairs are both coloured in
with aqueous solutions?

(1) HCl (2) KOH and O2 (1) Sc3+ , Co3+ (2) Cu + , Ti3+
(3) I2 (4) MnSO4 (3) Ni2+, Ti3+ (4) Zn2+, Cu2+

20. Four members of the first row transition element are 29. Select the correct :
listed below with atomic numbers. Select the one 
of them that is expected to have the highest 2nd (i) FeSO 4   Fe2 O3  SO3  O2
IE.

(ii) Ag2 O   AgO  O2
(1) Ti (2) Mn
(iii) E 0 of Mn3+ /Mn2+ is more positive than Fe3+ /
(3) Cr (4) Zn
Fe2+
21. The ore used in preparation of K2Cr2O7 is (1) (i), (ii) only (2) (iii) only
(1) Ferrate ores (2) Ferric ores (3) (i), (iii) only (4) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(3) Chromite ores (4) Potassium ores 30. As the oxidation state of metal increases, ionic
character generally
22. Select from the following halide ion that has
maximum ability to stabilise the higher Oxidation (1) Decreases
number of d-block metals (2) Increases
(1) F– (2) Cl– (3) First increases then decreases
(3) Br– (4) I– (4) First decreases then increases
23. Select from the following that is correct about basic 31. Among Lanthanoid which element can exhibit (+4)
strength of hydroxide oxidation state only in its oxides
(1) Sc(OH)3>Y(OH)3>La(OH)3 (1) Gd, Tb, Tm (2) Lu, Yb, Tm
(2) La(OH)3>Y(OH)3>Sc(OH)3 (3) Nd, Dy, Ce (4) Pr, Nd, Tb
(3) La(OH)3 = Y(OH)3 > Sc(OH)3 32. Select the statement that is correct
(4) Y(OH)3>La(OH)3>Sc(OH)3 (1) K2Cr2O7 is good oxidising Agent
24. Select that donot decolourise KMnO 4 aqueous (2) K 2 Cr 2 O 7 is used as primary standard in
solution volumetric Analysis
(1) C2O42– (2) HSO3– (3) On heating on K2 Cr2 O7 forms a green colour
2– 2– compound
(3) CO3 (4) SO3
(4) All of these

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Aakash Institute
33. Ce and Yb exhibit +4 and +2 oxidation state
respectively. This is because
(1) Both Ce+4 and Yb+2 acquire f7 configuration
(2) Both Ce+4 and Yb+2 acquire f0 configuration
(3) Ce+4 and Yb+2 acquire f0 and f14 configuration
respectively
d and f-Block Elements
42. E°(M2+/M) value for copper is positive because
(1) of high enthalpy of atomisation
(2) of high second ionisation
(3) of high first ionization enthalpy
(4) both (1) and (2)

(4) Ce+4 and Yb+2 acquire f7 and f14 configuration 43. Lanthanide for which (+2) and (+3) oxidation states
are common in
34. A B C
+Na2CO3+O2Na2 CrO4 + + (1) La (2) Nd
In the above reaction (A), (B) and (C) respectively (3) Ce (4) Eu
are
44. Which of the following set has all the coloured ions
(1) FeCr2 O4, Fe3O4 , CO2 due to d–d transition ?
(2) FeCr2O4, Fe2 O3,CO2 (1) Cu+, Co3+, Ni2+ (2) Cu2+, Sc3+, Co2+
(3) FeCrO4, Fe2O3,CO (3) Cu2+, Fe2+, Ti4+ (4) Cr3+, Mn2+, Ni2+
(4) FeCr2 O4,Fe3O4 ,CO 45. The lowest S.R.P. value for the M2+/M couple is for
35. Which of the following compound are coloured due (1) Mn (2) Cu
to charge transfer spectral?
(3) Zn (4) Fe
(1) K2Cr2O7 (2) KMnO4
46. Find the most basic oxide from the following
(3) AgBr (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) ZnO (2) Cr2O3
36. K2Cr2O7 + H2O2 + H+  products
(3) Mn2O7 (4) FeO
Product of the above reaction is
47. Which of the following transition metals can have
(1) Cr2O3 (2) K2CrO4
highest oxidation state ?
(3) CrO5 (4) CrO3
(1) (Ar)3d64s2 (2) (Ar)3d104s1
37. The orange colour of K2Cr2O7 is due to
(3) (Ar)3d104s2 (4) (Ar)3d34s2
(1) Incomplete d subshell (2) Charge transfer
48. Find the incorrect statement.
(3) d – d transition (4) None of these
(1) in alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises I– to IO3 –
38. In 3d-series which one of the following has positive
standard reduction potential (2) in acidic medium, KMnO4 oxidises I– to I2
(1) Chromium (2) Cobalt (3) in acidic medium, KMnO4 oxidises I– to IO3 –
(3) Copper (4) Gold (4) KMnO 4 in acidic medium stronger oxidising
agent than K2Cr2O7
39. W hich is incorrect regarding interstial
compounds? 49. W hich one pair of ions having similar magnetic
moment ?
(1) They are non stoichiometric in nature
(2) The bonds present in them are neither typically (1) Ti3+, V3+ (2) Cr3+, Mn+2
ionic nor covalent (3) Fe2+, Mn+2 (4) Mn+2, Fe+3
(3) Their melting points are higher than those of pure 50. Find the correct statement
metals
(1) Al(OH)3 is more basic than Ce(OH)3
(4) Their density is same as that of pure metals
(2) All lanthanides are radioactive
40. Which one is most acidic in nature ?
(3) Actinides are radioactive
(1) MnO (2) Mn2O3
(4) Maximum lanthanides are man made / artificial
(3) MnO2 (4) MnO3
51. Amongst TiF6 2–, CoF 6 3– , Cu2 Cl2 and NiCl4 2– the
41. Most stable oxidation state for Ti is colourless species are
(1) +2 (2) +3 (1) CoF63– and NiCl42– (2) TiF62– and CoF63–
(3) +4 (4) +5 (3) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42– (4) TiF6 2– only

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d and f-Block Elements Aakash Institute
52. W hich one has maximum second ionisation 53. Choose the correct order of basic strength
enthalpy ?
(1) Ce(OH)3 > Lu(OH)3 > Gd(OH)3
(1) Fe (2) Cr
(2) Gd(OH)3 > Ce(OH)3 > Lu(OH)3
(3) Mn (4) Ti
(3) Lu(OH)3 > Gd(OH)3 > Ce(OH)3
(4) Ce(OH)3 > Gd(OH)3 > Lu(OH)3

  

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Aakash Institute d and f-Block Elements

CPP-07
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (4)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (1)

15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3)

22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (3)

29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (4)

36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (4)

43. (4) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (4)

50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (2) 53. (4)

  

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 CPP-07
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Botany
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Organisms and Population

1. Choose the correct option with respect to habitat 8. Read the statements carefully and choose the
and organisms correct option
(1) Mango tree – Canada and Germany (A) Biosphere is the life supporting zone for terrestrial
(2) Snow leopard – Kerala biomass only
(3) Tuna fish – Sea coast of European (B) Biome is the major vegetation with fauna in a
countries specific climatic zone
(4) Polar bear – Arctic Tundra (C) Population includes different animal or plant
2. Read the statements carefully and find the incorrect species in an area
option with respect to different light zonation in (1) Only A is correct
large water bodies
(2) Only B is correct
(1) Littoral zone is highly productive
(2) Limnetic zone rich in planktons (3) C is correct
(3) Profundal zone rich in flora (4) Both A and B are correct
(4) Benthic zone is the zone of perpetual darkness 9. Pine plants supposed to be present in
3. Terai soils are (1) Coniferous forest (2) Temperate forest
(1) Mostly colluvial (3) Tropical rain forest (4) Grasslands
(2) Highly productive 10. Read the statements carefully and choose the
(3) Also called as Black soil correct option
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct (A) Hekistotherms are restricted to alpine zone
4. Which one is not the impact of parasite on host ? (B) Organisms are adapted to brief summer of below
(1) Reduction of survival chance of host 10°C and long snowy winter
(2) Reduction in growth and reproduction of host (1) Both are correct (2) Only B is correct
(3) Makes the host more tactful to avoid the (3) Only A is correct (4) Both are incorrect
Predators
11. Which soil is fit for cotton cultivation ?
(4) Reduction in population density of host
(1) Red soil (2) Black soil
5. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t
suspend? (3) Residual soil (4) Babar soil
(1) Bacteria – Thick walled resting spores 12. Diapause in zooplanktons is related with
(2) Bear – Hibernation (1) Suspend (2) Migrate
(3) Zooplanktons – Diapause (3) Conform (4) Regulate
(4) Algae – Aestivation 13. Read the statements carefully and find how many
are correct with respect to ecotone
6. Which interaction is harmful to both the interacting
organisms ? (A) It is the transition zone between two populations
(1) Commensalism (2) Predation (B) It is the overlapping zone between two
(3) Parasitism (4) Competition communities
7. Which one is not allowed by a prudent predator ? (C) It has high biodiversity
(1) Keeps prey population under control (D) Diverse species in ecotone are called edge
species
(2) Maintains species diversity
(3) Overexploitation of prey (1) 4 (2) 3
(4) Allows transfer of energy across trophic levels (3) 2 (4) 1
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Organisms and Population Aakash Institute
14. Find the relative density of species-A having 100 21. Read the statements carefully and choose the
individuals in an area with total number of correct option with respect to salinity tolerance
individuals of 50000 of different species (1) Salmon is euryhaline
(1) 0.5 (2) 0.1 (2) Shark is stenohaline
(3) 0.2 (4) 2 (3) Both (1) and (2)
15. Which one is the case of competitive exclusion ? (4) Halophiles can not tolerate high salinity
(1) Introduction of goat removed abingdon tortoise 22. In which shape of pyramid stable population can be
in Galapagos island seen ?
(2) Darwin’s Finches in Galapagos Island (1) Triangular (2) Bell-shaped
(3) Balanus and Chathamalus in rocky coast of (3) Urn-shaped (4) Both (1) and (3)
Scotland
23. Which statement is not correct for clay soil ?
(4) More than one option is correct
(1) It contains 40–50% clay, 50–60% silt and little
16. The soil which is best for plant growth is sand
(1) Sandy soil (2) Clay soil (2) It has high water holding capacity
(3) Loam soil (4) Ushar soil (3) Aeration level is very high
17. W hich one is not an anatomical feature of (4) Good quantity of nutrients are available
xerophytes ?
24. “In colder climate, birds possess narrow and
(1) Thick cuticle on leaf acuminate wings as compared to broader wings of
(2) Mechanical tissue well developed birds found in warmer areas”

(3) Water storage tissue always absent This statement represents

(1) Allen’s rule (2) Bergmann’s rule
(4) Multilayered epidermis
(3) Rensch’s rule (4) Jordan’s rule
18. Which of the following anatomical adaptations are
present in hydrophytes ? 25. Read the statements and find how many are
incorrect with respect to adaptation to temperature
(1) Cuticle is absent
and pressure tolerance
(2) Floating leaves are epistomatic (a) Antarctic fish survives below 0°C as thier body
(3) Presence of aerenchyma contains antifreeze solute
(4) All of these (b) Marine invertebrates and fish adapted
biochemically to survive at greater depth
19. Find the mismatched pair with respect to biome
and its vegetation (c) Physical work is needed to avoid altitude sickness
(1) Tropical rain forest – Sal (d) Xerophytes have thick cuticle to mitigate water
loss
(2) Tropical deciduous forest – Tendu
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) Temperate broad leaf forest – Oak
(3) 2 (4) 1
(4) Temperate needle leaf forest – Pine
26. Which one is a treeless biome?
20. Match the columns and choose the correct option
with respect to organisms of different temperature (1) Tropical rain forest (2) Desert
groups (3) Grassland (4) Taiga forest
Column I Column II 27. Find the mismatch pair with respect to transported
(a) Megatherms (i) Alpine zone soil
(b) Mesotherms (ii) Temperate region (1) Wind - Eolian soil
(c) Microtherms (iii) Subtropical zone (2) Babar soli - colluvial
(d) Hekistotherms (iv) Tropical zone (3) Transported by running water – alluvial
(1) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) (4) Transported by glacier - colluvial soil
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) 28. The term diapause refers to
(3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i) (1) Regulates (2) Conformers
(4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) (3) Partial regulates (4) Suspends

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Aakash Institute Organisms and Population
29. Phenotypic plasticity is expected in case of (c) Produce concentrated urine.
(1) Ecocline (2) Ecad (d) Formation of subcutaneous fat layer.
(3) Ecotype (4) Ecotone The correct pair is
30. For logistic growth curve, the influence of (1) (a) & (c) (2) (b) & (c)
environmental resistance over biotic potential is
denoted by (3) (a) & (d) (4) (b) & (d)

dN 38. Transition zone between two adjacent communities

(1)  rN (2) r=(b–d)
dt is
K N dN (K  N) (1) Ecological equivalents
(3) (4) 
K dt K (2) Ecotone
31. Asymptote is a stage during logistic growth when
population density reaches (3) Ecological niche

(1) Lag phase (2) Log phase (4) Ecocline

(3) Exponential phase (4) Carrying capacity 39. Read the following statements
32. Which of the followings does not show altruistic (a) Success of mammals is due to their ability for
behaviour? homeostasis.
(1) Spotted deer (2) Lion (b) Very large animals are rarely found in polar
(3) Honey bee (4) Ants regions.
33. Read the statements carefully and find how many (c) Nearly all plants can maintain a constant internal
are incorrect with respect to population interaction? environment.
(A) Mutualism is found between Ophrys and Colpa (d) A stage of temporary movement from stressful
aurea habitat is aestivation
(B) Cattle and egrets show proto cooperation The incorrect statements are
(C) Crocodile and plover bird show commensalism (1) One (2) Three
(D) Interaction between Balanus and Chthamalus is (3) Two (4) Four
competitive coexistence
40. Parasitic bird lays its eggs in the nest of its host
(1) 4 (2) 3
birds and lets the host incubate them represent
(3) 2 (4) 1
(1) Ectoparasitism (2) Endoparasitism
34. Which one is not a feature of parasitic adaptation?
(3) Hyperparatism (4) Brood parasitism
(1) High fecundity
(2) Presence of adhesive organs 41. Characterstic feature of mangrove plants is

(3) Well developed digestive system (1) Apospory (2) Heterospory

(4) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (3) Vivipary (4) Heterophily
35. The graphical representation of age distribution for 42. Exponential population growth is represented by
the population is called
(1) dN/dt = rN (2) dt/dN = rN
(1) Age structure (2) Age pyramid
(3) Ecological pyramid (4) Growth model dN
(3) dN/rN = dt (4)  dN
dt
36. Mammals from colder climates generally have
shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss. This 43. The graphic representation of age groups of a
is _________ population given here shows that population is

(1) Bergman’s rule (2) Allen’s rule

Post – reproductive
(3) Rench’s rule (4) Jordan’s rule
Reproductive
37. Select the physiological adaptations observed in
Kangaroo rat Pre – reproductive
(a) Moves into burrow on hot summer day.
(1) Increasing (2) Stable
(b) Utilizes water generated through oxido-reduction
reaction. (3) Declining (4) Fluctuating
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Organisms and Population Aakash Institute
44. Which of the following is not used in organic farming (1) A — Birds, B — Mammals

(1) Snail (2) Glomus (2) A — Plants, B — Birds

(3) Earthworm (4) Oscillotaria (3) A — Birds, C — Mammals

45. Which parameter is used for founding population (4) C — Mammals, B — Plants
density of banyan tree? 52. Population living in a specific area at a particular
(1) Relative density time is called

(2) Population count in number (1) Denme (2) Ecotone

(3) Biomass method (3) Ecotype (4) Ecad

(4) Number of prop roots 53. Vital index of a population is represented by

46. Xerophytic plants have (1) (Natality – mortality) × 100

(1) Extensive root system, small and thick leaves Natality
(2)  100
(2) Profuse and large flowers Mortality
(3) Extensive shoot system Mortality
(3)  100
(4) Abundant air-spaces Natality
47. The graphic representation of age groups of a Natality
population given here shows (4)
Mortality  100
54. Find out incorrect match
(1) Edaphic factors – Soil factors
(2) Climatic factors – Wind, humidity
(3) Topographic factors – Soil texture

(1) Declining (2) Expanding (4) Most important – Temperature

(3) Stable (4) Fluctuating ecological factor

48. The logistic population growth is expressed by the 55. Some species are capable of burrowing into the
equation soil to hide and escape from the above ground
heat. Such adaptations are referred to as
K N dN K N
(1) dt / dN  r N   (2)  r N  (1) Physiological adaptations
 K  dt  K 
(2) Morphological adaptations
dN NK 
(3) dN / dt = r N (4)  rN  
dt  N  (3) Behavioural adaptations
49. Which is not a primary colonizer? (4) Biochemical adaptations
(1) Lichen (2) Virus 56. Mycorrhizal association is
(3) BGA (4) Mosses (1) Observed in all higher plants
50. Characteristic feature of mangrove plants is (2) An adaptation to oligotrophic soil
(1) Apospory (2) Heterospory (3) Evident in legumes where hartig’s net formation
(3) Vivipary (4) Parthenocarpy occurs

51. The graph shows diagramatic representation of (4) Restricted to tropical regions
response of organisms against temperature. Find
57. In an interaction between two species, one species
out the correct match
remain unaffected and other species is benefitted.
A
B This relationship can be indicated by
C
Internal (1) –, 0 (2) +, –
temperature
(3) 0, + (4) +, +
External temperature
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Aakash Institute Organisms and Population
58. W hat type of interaction is shown by orchids in 64. W hich of the following organism is capable of
their biotic communities? meeting its requirement through internal fat
oxidation?
(1) Mutualism (2) Amensalism
(1) Desert lizard (2) Kangaroo rat
(3) Protocooperation (4) Commensalism
59. Importance of light for plants is signified by all of (3) Seal (4) Antarctic fish
these, except 65. Organisms reacted to narrow range of temperature
(1) Light becomes limiting in littoral zone which are called as
reduces productivity (1) Eurythemal (2) Stenothermal
(2) Light effects seed germination in certain cases
(3) Heterothermal (4) Stenohaline
(3) Some as heliophytes require strong light
intensities 66. The maximum number of individuals of a population
which can be supported with optimum resources
(4) Plants do not exist in greater depth of water for their survival is called
bodies due to poor light penetration
(1) Biotic potential
60. Read the following statements
(2) Carrying capacity
a. Solid urine secretion by kangaroo rat.
b. High RBC count at higher altitude. (3) Enviromental resistance

c. Larger lung capacity in hilly people. (4) Potential natality

d. Kangaroo rat move to burrow on hot summer day. 67. Which character is not present in hydrophytes ?
e. Formation of endospores in certain bacteria with (1) Poor roots
dipicolinic acid within.
(2) Abundant xylem and sclerenchyma
f. Animals with shorter extremities in colder areas.
(3) Leaves with stomata on upper surface
Find the correct option w.r.t. adaptations given
below. (4) Aerenchyma
ADAPTATIONS 68. An orchid resembling female insect with ability to
Morphological Physiological Behavioural get pollinated is due to phenomenon of
(1) c, e, f a, b, c, d d, f
(1) Mimicry (2) Pseudocopulation
(2) f a, b, c, e d
(3) Pseudopollination (4) Parthenogenesis
(3) b, c, e, f a, b, e c, d, f
69. Mutualism occurs between
(4) f a, b, c e, d
(1) Butterfly and flower
61. The phenomena of one organism being benefitted
without affecting other is (2) E.coli and man

(1) Commensalism (2) Amensalism (3) Zoochlorella and Hydra

(3) Scavenging (4) Symbiosis (4) Hermit crab and Sea Anemone

62. Logistic growth is represented by which equation? 70. Natural selection operates at
(1) Organismal level (2) Population level
dN  K  N dN
(1)  rN  (2)  rN
dt  K  dt
(3) Community level (4) Ecosystem level
71. Smaller animals tend to lose body heat very fast as
dN  K  N dN  K  compared to larger animals because they have
(3)  rN  (4)  rN 
dt  K  dt  K  N  (1) Lower surface area to volume ratio

63. Roots play insignificant role in absorption of water (2) High surface area to volume ratio
in (3) Equal surface area and volume
(1) Wheat (2) Sunflower
(4) Low based metabolic rate (BMR)
(3) Pistia (4) Pea

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Organisms and Population Aakash Institute
72. Identify the biomes A, B, C and D represented (3) (a)  (ii), (b)  (i), (c)  (iii), (d)  (iv)
below graphically
(4) (a)  (ii), (b)  (i), (c)  (iv), (d)  (iii)
A B 77. Study the age pyramids shown below and choose
the correct option
C

A B C

A B C
A B C D
(1) Triangular Urn-shaped Bell-shaped
(1) Grassland Desert Temperate Coniferous pyramid pyramid pyramid
forest forest
(2) Expanding Pyramid showing Growth rate
(2) Desert Grassland Temperate Coniferous
forest forest population negative growth almost zero
(3) Desert Grassland Coniferous Temperate (3) Expanding Stable population Declining
forest forest population population
(4) Desert Temperate Grassland Coniferous (4) Bell-shaped Triangular Urn shaped
forest forest pyramid pyramid pyramid
73. Which of the following statement /s is not related 78. Mutualism and protocooperation can be represented
to logistic growth ? as ___________ whereas, predation and parasitism
(1) Environmental resistance suddenly becomes can be represented as __________.
effective (1) + / – ; – / – (2) + / 0 ; – / 0
(2) Exponential phase is followed by stationary
(3) + / + ; + / – (4) + / + ; – / –
phase
(3) Mass mortality and population crash occurs 79. In a pond 20 species of angiosperms were reduced
to 10 after one species was removed. This species
(4) More than one option is correct removed is likely to be a
74. How many of these statements are correct for
(1) Mutualistic organism (2) Pathogen
night blooming flowers ?
(3) Keystone species (4) Herbivore
(A) Colour – white or light
(B) Light reflecting property 80. Population growth curve is given. Find A, B and C

(C) Fragrance
B
(D) Pollination during day time A a

(1) All of these (2) All except C

C
(3) All except D (4) All except B b
75. In a pond, there are 60 lotus plants last year and
through reproduction, 10 new plants are added.
Taking the current population to 70, the birth rate of
lotus will be _____offsprings per lotus per year. dN dN K N
(1) A   rN , B  K, C   r N 
(1) 16 (2) 1 dt dt  K 
(3) 0.16 (4) 1.6
dN dN K N
76. Match the columns (2) A  K, B   rN , C   r N 
dt dt  K 
Column-I Column-II
(a) Hibernation (i) Bear dN K N dN
(3) A  K, B   r N   C   rN
(b) Diapause (ii) Plants dt  K  dt

(c) Migrate (iii) Zooplanktons dN

dN K N
(4) A   rN , B   r N   C 
(d) Conform (iv) Siberian crane dt dt  K 
(1) (a)  (i), (b)  (iii), (c)  (iv), (d)  (ii) dN
 r NK
(2) (a)  (i), (b)  (iii), (c)  (ii), (d)  (iv) dt
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Aakash Institute Organisms and Population
81. Carrying capacity is the capacity of (3) Natility and mortility
(1) Habitat that has resources to sustain certain (4) None of the above
number of individuals
87. Epiphytes growing on a tree is a type of ________
(2) Population to reproduce and complete interaction
(3) Population to reproduce (1) + / o (2) + / +
(4) Individuals to fit among the natural environment
(3) o / – (4) – / –
82. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. population
interactions 88. Read the following statements

(1) Amensalism : +, 0 (i) Predators maintain species diversity

(2) Predation : +, – (ii) Ecologically, herbivores are predators

(3) Parasitism : +, – (iii) Interspecific competition is more intense than

intraspecific competition
(4) Protocooperation : +,+
(iv) Resource may not be limiting for competition to
83. Identify the lines present in the given graph A, B
occur as in case of interference competition
and C
(v) Hyperparasites are parasites over other parasites
Which of the above statement is/are correct ?
C
B (1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Internal
level A
(2) All except (iii)
(3) All except (i)
External level
(4) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(1) A - Partial regulators (2) A - Partial regulators 89. The interaction between clownfish and sea-anemone
B - Regulators B - Ectotherms is a type of

C - Endotherms C - Endotherms (1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism

(3) A - Partial regulators (4) A - Conformers (3) Protocooperation (4) Amensalism
B - Regulators B - Ectotherms 90. Warm blooded animals have larger body size in
C - Conformers C - Partial regulators cold zone. This is called

84. Which of the following equation correctly represents (1) Allen’s rule
species-area relationship ? (2) Jordan’s rule
(1) logC = logS + Z logA
(3) Rensch’s rule
(2) logA = logC + Z logS
(4) Bergmann’s rule
(3) logA = logS + Z logC
91. Find the odd one out w.r.t. protocooperation
(4) logS = logC + Z logA
(1) Red-billed oxpecker and black rhinoceros
85. Vesicular Arbuscular mycorrhiza is a type of _____
and is found in ______, ______ and ______. (2) Crocodile bird and Crocodile
(1) Ectomycorrhiza, Orchid, Pinus, Coffee (3) Barnacles and whale
(2) Endomycorrhiza, Coffee, Orchid and W oody (4) Sea anemone and hermit crabs
plants
92. Dark coloured, amorphous, reservoir of nutrients is
(3) Ectomycorrhiza, Oak, Coffee, Orchid
found in ____ horizon of soil profile
(4) Endomycorrhiza, Oak, Pinus, Orchid
(1) A00 (2) A 1
86. Which of the following pair of characters
contribute an increase in population density (3) B 1 (4) B 2

(1) Immigration and natility

(2) Emigration and natility

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Organisms and Population Aakash Institute
94. At high altitude we feel the sickness. The reason

population density(N)
93. for sickness may be due to

a c (1) Low atmospheric pressure

(2) High atmospheric pressure
(3) High temperature
b
(4) Low temperature
95. If in a pond there are 20 lotus plants in last year
Time and through reproduction 8 new plants are added,
then the birth rate is
Study the graph carefully and find the suitable
terms for a, b and c with respect to growth curve (1) 0.8 offspring per lotus per year

(1) a - exponential growth (2) a-unlimited resources (2) 0.2 offspring per lotus per year

b - decelerated growth b - limited resources (3) 0.4 offspring per lotus per year

c - carrying capacity c - carrying capacity (4) 0.6 offspring per lotus per year

(3) a - exponential growth (4) a - logistic growth 96. Urn-shaped age pyramid is the feature of

b - logistic growth b - exponential growth (1) Expanding population (2) Stable population

c - asymptote c - asymptote (3) Declining population (4) None of these

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Aakash Institute Organisms and Population

CPP-07
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3)

8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (3)

15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (3)

22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (4) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (4)

29. (2) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (2)

36. (2) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (1)

43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (2)

50. (3) 51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (2)

57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (1) 63. (3)

64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (2) 67. (2) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (2)

71. (2) 72. (2) 73. (4) 74. (3) 75. (3) 76. (1) 77. (3)

78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (2) 81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (4)

85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (1) 90. (4) 91. (3)

92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (3) 96. (3)

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 CPP-07
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Zoology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Biotechnology Principles and Processes
1. W hich of the following is not a characteristic
feature of pBR322 ? 5–G–A–A–T–T–C–3
(3) 3–C–T–T–A–A–G–5
(1) Size is about 4.3 kb
(2) It has two antibiotic resistance gene
5–C–T–G–C–A–G–3
(3) Low copy number (4) 3–G–A–C–G–T–C–5
(4) It is chromosomal DNA
8. Select the mismatch
2. Which of the following is true statement regarding
DNA polymerase used in PCR ? (1) Ori - responsible for initiating replication
(1) It is isolated from plant cells (2) Sticky ends - single stranded free ends
(2) It remains active at high temperature (3) Genetic glue - T4 ligase
(3) It is used to ligate foreign DNA in recipient cells (4) Alkaline phosphatase - removal of phosphate
from 3 end of DNA
(4) It serves as a selectable marker
9. Restriction endonucleases are found in
3. Blue – white colony selection facilitates
(1) Prokaryotes
(1) Identification of recombinant
(2) Yeasts
(2) Killing of non – recombinant
(3) All living organisms
(3) Production of non-recombinant protein
(4) Bacteriophages
(4) Identification of derived DNA segment
10. Which of the following is a palindromic sequence ?
4. The cloning vector with selectable marker ampR and
tetR is (1) 5-TGATCA-3
(1) YAC (2) BAC 3-ACTAGT-5
(3) pBR322 (4) -phage (2) 5-CTGAGC-3
5. In gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments are 3-GACTCG-5
separated on the basis of (3) 5-ATCGCC-3
(1) Molecular conformation 3-TAGCGG-5
(2) Molecular charge (4) 5-CGTAGA-3
(3) Molecular size 3-GCATCT-5
(4) Both (1) and (3) 11. If EcoRI was used to cut the DNA during isolation
6. Which among the following vectors is called shuttle of gene of interest, then vector DNA should be cut
vector ? by using

(1) pBR322 (2) YEp (1) Bam HI

(3) -phage (4) pUC 8 (2) Eco RI

7. W hich of the following recognition site is for (3) By any restriction endonuclease
EcoRI ? (4) Pst I
12. If the gene of interest is inserted in ampicillin
5–G–G–A–T–C–C–3 resistance gene in pBR322 then the recombinants
(1) 3–C–C–T–A–G–G–5
will be selected by growing in medium containing
(1) Ampicillin (2) Tetracycline
5–A–A–G–C–T–T–3
(2) 3–T–T–C–G–A–A–5 (3) Penicillin (4) Both (1) and (2)

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Biotechnology Principles and Processes Aakash Institute
13. 3 molecules of DNA are amplified by PCR, then 19. Alkaline phosphatase is used in recombinant
after 5 PCR cycles what will be total number of technology which facilitates
DNA molecules ?
(1) Removal of phosphate from 5 end to prevent
(1) 96 (2) 64 religation of vector
(3) 32 (4) 35 (2) Phosphorylation of terminal ribose
14. Choose the option indicating correct sequence of (3) Catalytic activity of DNA Poly merase II
following steps of RDT.
(4) Catalytic activity of taq polymerase
a) Isolation of gene of interest
20. All the following is correct for vector except
b) Construction of rDNA
(1) Presence of restriction sites for various
c) Selection of recombinants restriction endonucleases
d) Transformation of r-DNA into hosts (2) Replicates independent of chromosomal DNA
e) Culturing of recombinants in fermentor (3) Presence of ori-site
(1) a  b  e  d  c (4) Replicates only with chromosomal DNA
(2) a  b  d  c  e 21. Select the incorrect statment
(3) b  c  d  a  e (1) Separation of DNA fragments occur according
to their size during gel electrophoresis
(4) e  c  b  d  a
(2) Ethidium bromide is used to stain DNA
15. A plasmid vector having 4 sites of EcoRI was
subjected to restriction digestion by EcoRI. How (3) Downsteam processing includes the separation
many DNA fragments will be produced ? and purification of product
(1) 2 (2) 3 (4) pBR322 contains the coding sequence of an
enzyme -galactosidase
(3) 4 (4) 5
22. Which one is not a character of pBR322 ?
16. Insertion of gene of interest in selectable marker
leads to __________ of selectable marker select (1) One pair of antibiotic resistance genes
the option that fills the blank correctly
(2) Selection of recombinants from non-
(1) Insertional activation recombinants is a two step process
(2) Insertional inactivation (3) Identification of recombinants by insertional
inactivation of lac Z
(3) Duplication
(4) Restrcition sites for Pst I and Pvu I are located
(4) Hyperactivation
within ampr gene while those for Bam HI and
17. Bacterial cells are made competent to take up Sal I are located within tetr gene
alien DNA by
23. Correct sequence of events in a PCR is
(1) Treating with specific concentration of divalent
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (2)
cation
Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(2) Heat shock
(3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (4)
(3) Incubating cells in hot calcium chloride solution Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Incubating cells with armed retrovirus 24. All the following are the properties of the enzyme
‘Taq polymerase’ except
18. Plasmids are used in genetic engineering because
they are (1) It is thermostable DNA polymerase
(1) Easily available (2) It is isolated from a bacterium Thermus
aquaticus
(2) Able to replicate along with chromosomal DNA
only (3) It is used for amplification of gene of interest
using PCR
(3) Extra chromosomal DNA which can replicate
without chromosomal DNA replication (4) It is thermolabile DNA polymerase
(4) Rich in histone proteins 25. Isolation of DNA from agarose gel is called
(1) Electrophoresis (2) SDS-PAGE
(3) Elution (4) Blotting

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Aakash Institute Biotechnology Principles and Processes
26. In order to induce the uptake of plasmids by 32. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
bacteria, the bacteria are made competent by
(1) Hind- II – First type II RE
treating with
(2) EcoRI – Type II restriction
(1) Ice cold calcium chloride
enzyme
(2) Heat shock at 42°C and then putting them
(3) Taq DNA polymerase – Biological knife
back on ice
(4) Type- II RE – Can work in vitro
(3) Sodium chloride at 4°C
33. Choose the statements as True(T) or False(F):
(4) Bromophenol blue
I. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a natural genetic
27. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white
in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant engineer
bacteria due to II. Biolistics or gene gun uses gold particles
(1) Insertional inactivation of -galactosidase in coated with DNA and bombards the target host
non-recombinant bacteria cells.

(2) Activation of -galactosidase in recombinant III. Denaturation in PCR requires temperature 94°
bacteria – 96°C
(3) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in IV. Transfer of DNA from gel to nitrocellulose paper
recombinant bacteria is a part of Southern blotting
(4) Inactivation of -galactosidase gene in
I II III IV
recombinant bacteria
(1) F T F T
28. Which of the following is not correctly matched for
the organism and its cell wall degrading enzyme? (2) T F T T
(3) F F T T
(1) Tomato - Cellulase
(4) T T T T
(2) Aspergillus - Chitinase
34. Structure of plasmid vector is shown in the diagram
(3) Pseudomonas - Amylase
with its specific antibiotic resistance genes and
(4) Escherichia - Lysozyme recognition sites of particular RE.
29. During the process of isolation of DNA, chilled EcoR I Cla I Hind III
ethanol is added to
C
(1) Precipitate proteins denatured by protease A
R
(2) Precipitate RNA denatured by ribonuclease D R R tet
amp tet
(3) Precipitate DNA released by breaking cell
B
membranes pBR322
(4) Facilitate action of restriction enzymes
ori
30. Choose the option that is considered an
undesirable characteristic for a plasmid used in rop
rDNA technology
(1) Ability to multiply and express in heterologous II
host Pvu
(2) A site at which replication can be initiated Select the correct match
(1) A - BamH III, used to remove tetracycline
(3) One or more identifiable marker genes
resistant gene
(4) Absence of unique restriction sites
(2) D - When used as site for inserting gene of
31. All the following are the examples of vectorless interest, then recombinant organism can grow
gene transfer, except in tetracycline medium.
(1) Particle gun (3) C - When used as site for inserting alien DNA,
then recombinant form will grow in both
(2) Electroporation
ampicillin and tetracycline medium.
(3) Chemical mediated gene transfer
(4) B - Sal-I which removes the gene coding for
(4) Cosmid mediated gene transfer producing -galactosidase.

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Biotechnology Principles and Processes Aakash Institute

35. Sticky ends are named so because of their ability 41. W hich amongst the following are protein based
to form _______ with their complementary modern methods that ensure detection of HIV ?
restriction enzyme digested counterparts. Choose (a) PCR (b) ELISA
the option that fills the blank suitably.
(c) Western blotting (d) Northern blotting
(1) Disulphide bonds (2) Ester bonds
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Hydrogen bonds (4) Phosphodiester bond
(3) (a) and (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d)
36. Which of the following is not a part of downstream
processing? 42. Discovery of which thermostable enzyme made
possible the working of PCR in a thermal cycles ?
(1) Separation of product from bioreactor
(1) Alkaline phosphatase
(2) Purification of product
(2) Phosphodiesterase
(3) Creation of recombinantgene
(3) Taq DNA Polymerase
(4) Maintenance of culture in fermenter
(4) Ligase
37. If gene coding for human insulin is cloned at Pvu
I site of pBR322, the resultant recombinant E. coli 43. Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the
will be / show nucleus of an animal cell by
(1) Susceptible to tetracycline (1) Microinjection (2) Electroporation
(2) Resistant to ampicillin (3) ICSI (4) Biolistics
(3) Sensitive to ampicillin 44. Which of the following works as selectable marker
in pBR322?
(4) Resistant to penicillin
(a) Chloramphenicol
38. Read the following statements(A-F)
(b) Kanamycin
A. Phagemid and cosmid are hybrid cloning
(c) Ampicillin
vectors
(d) Tetracycline
B. pUC8 has two selectable markers ampR and
tetR genes (1) (a) and (c) (2) (b) and (d)

C. pBR322 has lac Z gene (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
45. How many cycles of PCR are required for obtaining
D. YEp and modified Ti plasmid are shuttle
512 molecules of DNA if your starting material was
vectors one molecule of DNA ?
E. Cellulase is used to digest fungal cell wall (1) 8 (2) 9
How many of the above statements are correct? (3) 256 (4) 511
(1) 1 (2) 2 46. Read the statements given below and mark the
incorrect one with respect to DNA electrophoresis
(3) 3 (4) 4
(1) Smaller the fragment size, farther it travels from
39. In PCR, the optimum temperature for denaturing anode
the DNA fragment is , for annealing is
(2) DNA fragments run from cathode to anode
_ and for polymerisation is
respectively.
(3) Larger DNA fragments run slowly than smaller
Choose the option that fills the blanks correctly fragments
(1) 74°C, 94°C and 40°C (4) Methylene blue dye is used to colour DNA
before gel loading smaller fragments
(2) 94°C, 50 - 60°C and 72°C
47. A bacterium adds methyl groups to its DNA, by a
(3) 80°C, 40°C and 94°C process known as modification, in order to
(4) 94°C, 72°C and 50 - 60°C (1) Clone its DNA
40. W hich of the following restriction endonuclease (2) Turn its gene ‘on’
produces non-cohesive ends of DNA?
(3) Transcribe many genes simultaneously
(1) Sma I (2) Eco RI
(4) Protect its DNA from its own restriction
(3) Hind III (4) Bam HI enzymes
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Aakash Institute Biotechnology Principles and Processes
48. A scientist tried to clone a gene of interest into Pst 53. Disarmed vector used to deliver desired DNA
I site of plasmid pBR322 and plated the segment in dicot plants is
transformation mix on agar plates with drugs
(1) Caenorhabditis elegans
tetracycline and also on ampicillin rich agar plates.
Bacterial members of colonies that grow on (2) Meloidogyne incognita
medium containing ampicillin antibiotics are
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(1) Recombinants
(4) Retroviruses
(2) Only non recombinants
54. W hich of the following is not a component of
(3) Non transformants downstream processing?
(4) Both (1) and (2) (1) Preservation (2) Expression
49. State True(T) or False(F). (3) Separation (4) Purification
A. Ti plasmid is tumor inducing plasmid of 55. Identify the statements as true(T), false(F)
Agrobacterium. statements and choose the correct option
B. Two selectable markers present in pBR322 are (1) Taq polymerase is a heat resistant enzyme.
Lac ‘Z’ and AmpR.
C. Restriction digestion with EcoRI produces blunt (2) Taq polymerase is isolated from the bacterium
ends fragments. Thermus aquaticus.
D. Selection of transformants from non- (3) Taq polymerase polymerises efficiently at
transformants can be done by plating on agar temperature of 37°C
rich with tetracycline, if insertional inactivation
takes in Pvu-I recognition site. (4) Taq polymerase is a RNA polymerase
A B C D
(1) F T F F I II III IV

(2) F F T F (1) F T T T
(3) T F T T
(2) F T T F
(4) T F F T
50. Select the incorrect statement with respect to (3) T T T T
Restriction endonuclease(RE)
(4) T T F F
(1) It can work in vitro and in vivo
(2) Class- II RE are used in r- DNA technology 56. Match the items in Column A with those in Column
(3) RE is used by bacteria to digest DNA of B and choose the correct option.
bacteriophages to restrict their growth.
Column A Column B
(4) RE removes nucleotide either from 3’ or 5’ of
DNA molecules (a) Electrophoresis (i) Polysaccharide
Separation of D NA fragments
51. An ideal cloning vector has all of the following (b) Matrix (ii) under the influence of an
essential features except electric field
Staining of
(c) (iii) Removal of D NA from gel
(1) More than 1 selectable marker gene fragmented DNA

(2) Multiple sites for same restriction enzyme (d) Elution (iv) Ethidium bromide

(3) High copy number (1) (a)(ii), (b)(i), (c)(iv), (d)(iii)

(4) Ori-site
(2) (a)(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
52. If after transformation using pUC8, the E.coli
colonies appear blue in colour in ampicillin (3) (a)(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)(i), (d)(ii)
containing agar medium, it implies
(4) (a)(iii), (b)(iv), (c)(ii), (d)(i)
(1) These are the colonies of non-recombinant
transformants
(2) These are non-transformant bacteria
(3) These are recombinant transformant colonies
(4) Their nature cannot be determined
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Biotechnology Principles and Processes Aakash Institute
57. Arrange the following steps in correct sequence 62. If the gene of interest is cloned using Sal I in
resulting in transformation process plasmid pBR 322, the transformants can be
identified from the wild type using antibiotic
(A) Bacterial cells with recombinant DNA are
incubated on ice (1) Chloramphenicol (2) Penicillin
(B) Placing them briefly at 42°C (3) Kanamycin (4) Ampicillin
(C) Putting bacterial cells with recombinant DNA 63. The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white
back-on ice. in contrast to blue colonies of non-recombinant
bacteria because
(D) Bacterial cells are treated with a specific
concentration of a divalent cation, such as (1) Of Insertional inactivation of lac Z gene in non-
calcium. recombinant bacteria

(1) A  B  C  D (2) A  B  D  C (2) Of Insertional inactivation of lac Z gene in

recombinant bacteria
(3) D  A  B  C (4) D  A  C  B
(3) Non-recombinant bacteria do not produce -
58. Match the following and choose the correct options galactosidase
Column I Column II (4) Recombinant bacteria contain functional
A. Insertional inactivation I. Boliver and Rodriguez antibiotic resistance gene
B. Southern blotting II. Bt toxin gene 64. Which of the following restriction endonucleases
C. pBR322 III. DNA
does not produce flush-end in DNA?

D. Bacillus thuringiensis IV.  -galactosidase gene (1) Eco RV (2) Hae III

(1) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (3) Sma I (4) Eco RI

65. Inside a bacterial host, the restriction modification
(2) A - IV, B - III, C - I, D - II
system consists of
(3) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II
I. The restriction enzymes that selectively cuts
(4) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV foreign DNA in a process leading to restricted
growth
59. The R.E. sites present in ampR gene of pBR322
plasmid are II. A modification enzyme by which the host DNA
(1) Pvu I and Pst I (2) Pvu II and Pst I is methylated to protect it from the restriction
enzyme activity
(3) Bam HI and Sal I (4) EcoR I and Hind III
(1) Only I is correct
60. The term ‘restriction’ in restriction endonuclease
means (2) Only II is correct

(1) It restricts bacterial multiplication in eukaryotes (3) Both I and II are correct

(2) It prevents bacteriophage multiplication in (4) Both I and II are incorrect

bacteria 66. Select true(T) and false (F) w.r.t PCR
(3) It only cleaves the phosphodiester bonds of A. Taq DNA polymerase remains active at high
DNA temperatures
(4) It promotes multiplication of bacteriophage in B. A pair of primers with exposed 5-OH groups
bacteria will bind to the complementary sequence of
61. How many characteristics are correct w.r.t. plasmid template DNA
used as a vector ? C. Annealing of primer with the template DNA
(i) double-stranded requires 95°C

(ii) circular D. PCR can be used to detect a specific disease

(iii) has histone proteins
(iv) can self-replicate
(v) introns present
(1) 5
(3) 3
causing mutation or pathogens present in very
low concentrations
(1) A-T, B-F, C-F, D-T (2) A-T, B-F, C-T, D-F
(3) A-F, B-T, C-F, D-T (4) A-F, B-T, C-T, D-F
(2) 4
(4) 2

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Aakash Institute Biotechnology Principles and Processes
67. Match the following and choose the correct option 69. For DNA isolation from fungal cells, which of the
enzymes should be used for cell wall lysis ?
A. Alkaline phosphatase i. Gene transfer
without vector (1) Cellulase
B. DNA Ligase ii. Molecular cutter (2) Lysozyme
C. Ti plasmid iii. Prevents self (3) Chitinase
ligation (4) Phosphatase
D. PEG iv. Plant vector 70. In biotechnology, which of the following is not
v. Molecular glue used ?
(1) A-v, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii (2) A-iii, B-iv, C-v, D-ii (1) Organism

(3) A-v, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) A-iii, B-v, C-iv, D-i (2) Cell or its part

68. Choose the option with correct statement (s) (3) Molecular analogue

A. r-DNA can be directly injected into the nucleus (4) Armed Tiplasmid
of an animal cell through microinjection
B. Upstream processing is one of the step of rDNA
technology
C. Armed pathogen vectors are also used in
transfer of rDNA into host
D. Transgenic models are used for studying new
treatments for human diseases
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and D
(3) B and D only (4) C only

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Biotechnology Principles and Processes Aakash Institute

CPP-07
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3)

8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (1) 14. (2)

15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (3) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (4)

22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (3)

29. (3) 30. (4) 31. (4) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (3)

36. (3) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (3)

43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4)

50. (4) 51. (2) 52. (1) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (1)

57. (3) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (2)

64. (4) 65. (3) 66. (1) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (4)

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