Professional Documents
Culture Documents
CSR April 2023 Complete Issue Low
CSR April 2023 Complete Issue Low
Shri M.C. Gupta IAS (Retd.) Shri M. Ramachandran IAS (Retd.) Shri R.S. Dalal IPS (Retd.) Shri O.P. Singh IPS (Retd.) Shri Kamlendra Prasad IPS (Retd.)
* Former Chief Secretary Govt. of Haryana * Former Chief Secretary Govt. of U.P. * Former Director General of Police, UP
* Former Director of IIPA * Former Secretary Govt. of India Former Director General of Police, Haryana * Former DGP CISF & NDRF * Former Director General of Police, UP
Dr. G.C. Srivastava IAS (Retd.) Shri Anil K. Sinha IAS (Retd.) Shri Anil Kumar, IAS (Retd.) Shri Arun Jha, IAS (Retd.) Shri A. K. Mangotra, IAS (Retd.)
* Ex-member Secretary 12th Finance Commission * Former Executive Director NIDM & Former Advisor, Former Secretary Govt. of India
* Vice Chairman Central Administrative Tribunal International Recovery Platform/UNDP, Kobe, Japan Former Secretary, Govt of India. Former Secretary, Government of India Ministry of Home Affairs
Shri Skand Ranjan Tayal IFS (Retd.) Ambassador Ashok Kumar IFS (Retd.) Shri R. Srinivasan IES (Retd.) Mrs. Sangeeta Gupta, IRS (Retd.) Shri Bala Prasad IFoS (Retd.)
Former Head of Indian Council of World Affairs
Former Ambassador of South Korea, Uzvekistan (ICWA) & Former High Commissioner to Cyprus. (Former Advisor to the Govt. of India) Chief Commissioner Of Income Tax. Former Special Secretary Govt of India
Shri Anil Kumar Upadhyay IFoS (Retd.) Dr. Satendra, IFoS (Retd.) Prof. Promila Batra Dr. Surender Singh Dr. S.S. Chaudhary
International Disaster Risk Reduction Expert,
Former Additional Principal Chief Conservator of Forests, M.P Food and Agriculture. UNO Prof. of Psychology "Psychologist" (Retd.) Professor of Geography DU (Retd.) Director Vajirao & Reddy Institute
Salient Features
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Yes, You Can
Living And Learning In India, A Blessing In Disguise
Dear Friend,
Have you ever thought why so many professionals of Indian origin are making it to the top of the global corporate?
Mr. Ajay Banga, who has recently been nominated by the US President Mr. Joe Biden to head the World Bank, comes from
the same long list of Indian-origin persons who have made it to the top
of the corporate world. From Mr. Sundar Pichai at Google and Mr. Satya
Nadella at Microsoft to Mr. Neal Mohan at YouTube, Mr. Arvind Krishna
at IBM, Ms. Revathi Advaithi at Flex, Ms. Jayshree V. Ullal at Arista
Networks and Ms. Leena Nair at Chanel, Indian-origin CEOs are leading
some of the world's most successful companies in a variety of sectors.
Apart from those who hit headlines now and then with their anointment
at the top echelons of a company, there are large number of Indians who
have moved to the world stage and are making significant contribution
to the global corporate world. This is not just a recent phenomenon.
Who can forget those doctors and engineers who made their fortunes in
the developed countries after getting their education from the otherwise Ajay Banga Sundar Pichai
much-cursed Indian education system?
Why I am reminding you of these successful Indians abroad is because
there are some inspiring lessons for you in their collective success story.
Firstly, it is not easy to compete at the international level. You have to
face best of the talents from across the world. Still, it is not without
reason that a growing number of Indians are able to beat their peers
from various nationalities and come out with flying colours. After all,
they have been groomed in an insanely tough competitive atmosphere in
India. Since their childhood, they have faced innumerable competitions—
from admission into schools to multiple board examinations to still tougher
entrance tests to get into the higher education institutes. Who in the
world can beat those who have achieved their place of pride after Satya Nadella Revathi Advaithi
competing against millions of almost equally deserving candidates? Who
in the world can beat those who have grown up eyeing 99.9 marks out of 100 in successive competitive examinations
throughout their growing-up years! So, whenever you feel low as a result of intense competition you face, just think about
the greater good this is doing to you to prepare for the future.
Secondly, Indians do not learn just what they learn in schools and colleges. The peculiar Indian circumstances and
conditions that they grow up in serve them as an equally good, even better, educator. From facing difficulties in commuting
to their schools and colleges to managing within smaller and chaotic spaces, from poor facilities to disappointing marks
in exams, they face hurdles at every step of their early life and learn to take them as a challenge. In turn, all this makes
them a much more hardened competitor. So, whenever you feel low because of your difficult circumstances, just think that
these setbacks are a learning experience to face an increasingly volatile, uncertain, complex and ambiguous world in future.
Thirdly, after living and succeeding under extraordinary situations early in life, Indians inherently develop an intuitive trait
of adaptability and creativity. They develop an uncanny single-mindedness in pursuit of their goals, and this too gives them
an edge when they face higher levels of competition globally. Last but not least, the language prowess you get to acquire
in Indian cultural milieu is something that gives you an additional competitive edge. No other country has adopted English
as we, Indians, have. While people from other non-English nationalities typically think in their own language and act in
English, Indians more often than not think and act in English. This also puts them ahead of their competition when they
go global.
I will conclude by saying that the tough competition, chaotic conditions and many hurdles and setbacks you face while
preparing for your examinations, all is a blessing in disguise. All this is preparing you to shine in tougher competitions you
have to face in future.
With these words, I wish you greater success in all your endeavours,
Yours Sincerely
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ANALYSIS OF CURRENT ISSUES*
Bringing Uniformity In
School Assessment
Students across the country will soon have level-playing of standardisation of education across the country, a key
field as they will be assessed on “similar types of questions” goal of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
during their examinations. The National Council of As President and Global Education Chief Executive
Educational Research and Training (NCERT) has Officer (CEO) of ETS, Mr. Amit Sevak said on
chosen the Educational Testing Service (ETS), an February 26, 2023 that this will bring the much-needed
assessment firm, as a technical partner for setting up the uniformity in assessment by more than 60 Boards in the
regulatory platform in this regard. India’s newly-created country. Let us look into the issue in some detail. The
national assessment regulator PARAKH—Performance need for this has been felt for decades in view of the
Assessment, Review, and Analysis of Knowledge for sharp variation in the way Boards assess students. This is
Holistic Development—will work on setting norms, evident from the wide gap in performance of students
standards and guidelines for student assessment and from some State Boards compared with others in the
evaluation for all recognised School Boards in the country. National Assessment Survey (NAS).
It is a big and welcome move in the context of the need (Continued from page 205)
★ Nikos Christodoulides
Becomes New President
Of Cyprus
★ French President Pledges
A ‘New Era’ In Africa
★ UK And EU Strike A
Northern Ireland Trade
Deal
★ Seattle Becomes First
US City To Ban Caste Mr. Nikos Christodoulides on March 1, 2023 became the youngest
Discrimination President of Cyprus at 49.
NERIM
GEOGRAPHY
1. Consider the following statements: 5. With reference to ‘mass movements’, consider the
1. Antecedent streams are those which are originated following statements:
prior to the upliftment of the land surface. 1. Mass movements are relatively rapid and
2. Subsequent streams have their courses in perceptible movements, and the materials involved
accordance with the initial slope of the land are relatively dry.
surface. 2. Mass movements are aided by geomorphic agents,
3. The Indus, the Sutlej, the Ganga, the Ghaghra like running water, glaciers, wind, waves and
and the Kosi are the examples of antecedent currents in the process of mass movements.
streams. 3. Mass movements do not come under erosion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
2. Which of the following are the ideal favourable 6. Consider the following statements regarding soil
conditions for the formation and growth of the deltas? formation:
1. Sea coast subjected to frequent emergence or 1. Soils will be thin on steep slopes and thick over
submergence caused by tectonic movements. flat upland areas.
2. Relatively calm or sheltered sea at the mouths of 2. Over gentle slopes, where erosion is slow and
the rivers. percolation of water is good, soil formation is
3. Long courses of the rivers. very favourable.
4. Accelerated rate of erosion in the catchment area 3. Soils over flat areas may develop a thick layer of
of the concerned river. clay with good accumulation of organic matter,
Select the correct answer using the code given below: giving the soil dark colour.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 and 3 only
3. Which of the following statements best explains/ (b) 1 and 2 only
explain why meander is not considered a landform, (c) 2 and 3 only
but is only as a type of channel pattern? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Propensity of water flowing over very gentle 7. Which of the following play role in maintaining the
gradients to work laterally on the banks. ‘heat budget’ of the Earth?
2. Unconsolidated nature of alluvial deposits making 1. Albedo Effect
up the banks with many irregularities, which can
be used by water exerting pressure laterally. 2. Clouds
3. The Coriolis force acting on the fluid water, 3. Terrestrial radiation
deflecting it like it deflects the wind. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
4. Which of the following processes come under (d) 1, 2 and 3
diastrophism? 8. With respect to “Karst topography”, consider the
1. Orogenic processes involving mountain building following statements:
through severe folding, and affecting long and 1. Lapies are highly corrugated and rough surface of
narrow belts of the Earth’s crust. limestone, characterised by low ridges and
2. Epeirogenic processes involving uplift or warping pinnacles.
of large parts of the Earth’s crust. 2. Blind valley refers to the valley of that surface
3. Earthquakes involving local relatively minor stream which appears in limestone formation
movements. through a swallow hole.
4. Plate tectonics involving the horizontal movements 3. Sinking creek is a line of numerous sink holes
of the crustal plates. where surface water disappears.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 49
MOCK TEST
9. Consider the following statements: 14. Which of the following conditions may lead to the
1. Mushroom rocks are formed due to rain water inversion of temperature?
and wind has removed fine material from around 1. A long winter night with cloudy sky.
the boulder. 2. Air drainage down the slope of the mountains.
2. Inselbergs are large area of soft, poorly Select the correct answer using the code given below:
consolidated rock and bedrock surfaces that have (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
been extensively grooved, fluted and pitted by wind (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
erosion.
15. Which of the following statements is/are correct
3. Yardangs are isolated hills that stand above well- regarding the structure of the atmosphere?
developed plains.
1. Thickness of troposphere is the highest at the
4. Zeugens are formed in those desert areas where
temperature during night becomes so low that the Equator and the lowest at the Poles.
moisture in the joints and crevices of the rocks 2. Temperature in ionosphere starts decreasing with
freezes. height.
Which of the statements given above are correct? 3. Temperature in mesosphere starts increasing with
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only the increase in altitude.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
10. With respect to the alluvial soil, consider the following (a) 1 only
statements: (b) 2 and 3 only
1. It contains adequate proportion of potash, (c) 1 and 2 only
phosphoric acid and lime, which are ideal for the (d) 1 and 3 only
growth of sugarcane, paddy and wheat. 16. Consider the following statements:
2. It is found only in northern India. 1. A gorge is a deep valley with very steep to straight
3. Khadar has more fine particles and is more fertile sides, whereas a canyon is characterised by steep
than the Bangar. steplike side slopes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. A gorge is almost equal in width at its top, as well
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only as its bottom, whereas in contrast, a canyon is
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 wider at its top, than at its bottom.
11. With respect to the Vindhya Range, consider the 3. Gorges commonly form in horizontal bedded
following statements: sedimentary rocks and canyons form in hard rocks.
1. The Vindhya Range gives rise to rivers like the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Chambal, the Betwa, the Penna and the Tons. (a) 1 only
2. It forms the northern edge of the Malwa Plateau. (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is /are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 17. Consider the following statements:
12. With respect to the Satpura Range, consider the 1. Alluvial fans are formed when the streams flowing
following statements: from higher levels break into foot slope plains of
low gradient.
1. It is a part of the Deccan Plateau, western India.
2. Alluvial fans in humid areas show normally low
2. Rajpipla, Mahadeo and Kaimur hills are part of cones with gentle slope from head to toe.
the Satpura Range.
3. Alluvial fans appear as high cones with steep slope
3. It forms the watershed between the Narmada in arid and semi-arid climates.
and the Tapti rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
13. Which of the following factors cause variations in
insolation received by the Earth? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The rotation of the Earth on its axis. 18. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
2. The angle of inclination of the Sun’s rays. 1. Primary waves behave almost like sound waves in
terms of transmission.
3. The length of the day.
2. S waves can pass through solid materials, but not
4. The transparency of the atmosphere. through gaseous materials.
5. The configuration of land in terms of its aspect. 3. Surface waves generally affect only the immediate
Select the correct answer using the code given below: surface above the focus of the earthquake
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (Epicentre) and die out at smaller depth.
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
50 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
MOCK TEST
19. Consider the following statements: Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
1. Moho Discontinuity denotes the boundary between matched?
the upper and the lower mantle, which is (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
characterised by sudden increase in the velocity (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of the seismic waves. 24. Consider the following statements:
2. The thickness of the mantle is less than half of 1. Palaeomagnetism is not exhibited by sedimentary
the radius of the Earth. rocks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. The magnetic field of the Earth is like a giant bar
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only magnet of dipole, located in the centre (core) of
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Earth and is aligned approximately along the
20. Consider the following statements regarding ‘intrusive axis of rotation of the Earth.
igneous’ rocks: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. They are formed when magma is unable to reach (a) 1 only
the asthenosphere and instead, solidifies in the (b) 2 only
mantle. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Batholiths are long, irregular and undulating forms (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of solidified intruded magmas. 25. With reference to the constructive plate margins,
3. The dykes are usually parallel to the bedding planes consider the following statements:
of the sedimentary rocks. 1. They are always divergent in nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. There is continuous formation of new crust along
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only these margins because of cooling and solidification
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 of basaltic lava.
21. Consider the following statements about Super earth 3. They are identified by the occurrence of shallow
(Pangaea): focus earthquakes.
1. Pangaea was broken into two parts due to Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
differential gravitational force and the force of (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
buoyancy. (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The northern part of the Pangaea became Lauratia 26. Which of the following rivers originates/originate in
(Angaraland), while the southern part was called India?
by Wegener as Gondwanaland. 1. Chenab
3. Gondwanaland was disr upted during the 2. Sutlej
Cretaceous period, and the Indian Peninsula, 3. Jhelum
Madagascar, Australia and Antarctica broke away Select the correct answer using the code given below:
from Pangaea and drifted apart under the impact (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
of tidal force of the Sun and the Moon.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
27. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 S.N. River Glacier
22. With reference to the Earth’s movements, consider the 1. Ghaghara Chemayungdung
following statements:
1. Rift valleys are long and narrow troughs, bounded 2. Alaknanda Satopanch
by one or more parallel normal faults, caused by 3. Brahmaputra Mapchachungo
horizontal and vertical movements, motored by
endogenetic forces. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
2. The Rhine Rift Valley is the best example of a (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
well-defined rift valley. (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
3. There is no example of major rift valley in 28. Consider the following pairs:
Peninsular India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? S.N. River Origin
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. Kaveri Brahmagiri Hills
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Krishna Sahyadri Range
23. Consider the following pairs:
3. Narmada Amarkantak Plateau
1. Iron Most abundant element on the
Earth Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
matched?
2. Oxygen Most abundant element in the (a) 1 and 2 only
Earth’s crust
(b) 2 only
3. Calcium Second most abundant element (c) 3 only
on the Earth (d) 1,2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 51
MOCK TEST
29. Consider the following statements: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. The mantle-core boundary is determined by the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
‘Weichert-Gutenberg Discontinuity’ at the depth (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of 2,900 km. 35. Which of the following statements about the ‘Recorded
2. There is a pronounced change of density of the Forest Areas’ is/are correct?
rocks along the Gutenberg Discontinuity, indicated 1. They consist of the ‘Reserved Forests’ and the
by sudden increase in the velocity of the S waves. ‘Protected Forests’, which have been constituted
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? under the provisions of the Indian Forest Act,
1927.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Areas which have been recorded as forests in the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 revenue records or have been constituted under
30. Consider the following statements: any other State Act are also included in the
1. Marbles are generally formed due to changes in Recorded Forest Areas.
limestones because of temperature change Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. Schists are fine-grained metamorphic rocks and (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
are characterised by well-developed foliation. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 36. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. The forest resources of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim
31. Which of the following rivers drains/drain directly into and Tripura account for 35% of the total forest
the Bay of Bengal? cover of the country.
2. There is an overall increase of the forest cover in
1. Subarnarekha the north-eastern states.
2. Penner Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. Palar (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 37. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The largest mangrove area is reported in South
32. Consider the following pairs: America, followed by Asia.
2. Sundarbans, located in the northern Bay of Bengal,
S.N. River State (origin) is the world’s largest single patch of mangrove
1. Shetruniji Maharashtra forests.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. Dhadhar Gujarat
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Ponnani Tamil Nadu (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 38. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Royal Bengal Tiger was declared the national
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only animal of India in 1983.
33. Which of the following rivers drains/drain into the 2. India is a party to the TX2 Agreement of the
Arabian Sea? World Wildlife Fund.
1. Vaitarna 3. The Wildlife (Protection) Act was amended in 2006
2. Vaigai to provide for the constitution of the National
3. Bedti Tiger Conservation Authority.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
34. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 39. Consider the following statements about the longitude
of the Indian Standard Time:
S.N. Forest Cover Description 1. This longitude passes through the state of Tamil
1. Very dense forest All lands with tree Nadu.
canopy density of 60%. 2. The town of Mirzapur is located on this Meridien.
3. When it is morning 10 in India, according to the
2. Open forest All lands with tree Indian Standard Time, the time in Japan is close
canopy density of 10% to afternoon.
and more, but less than Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
40%.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Scrub Forest lands with (b) 2 and 3 only
canopy density of less (c) 2 only
than 10%. (d) 1, 2 and 3
52 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
MOCK TEST
40. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 46. Consider the following statements:
1. The Damodar occupies the eastern margins of 1. The temperature of surface water decreases from
the Chotanagpur Plateau, where it flows through the Equator towards the Poles.
a rift valley. 2. Warm ocean currents decrease the temperature in
2. The Saryu River rises in the Milam glacier. the cold areas, while the cold currents increase
3. The Mahananda is another important tributary of the temperature in the warm ocean areas.
the Ganga rising in the Darjeeling hills. 3. The oceans in the northern hemisphere receive
Select the correct answer using the code given below: more heat than the oceans in the southern
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only hemisphere.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
41. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. The Black Sea is a marginal Mediterranean Sea of (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
the Pacific Ocean. 47. Consider the following statements:
2. The Black Sea is supplied by the Danube, the 1. Moraines are ridge-like depositional features of
Dnieper and the Don rivers. glacial tills.
3. The Black Sea drains into the Mediterranean 2. Drumlins are long, narrow and sinuous ridges of
Sea. sands and gravels, and are situated in the middle
Which of the statements given above are correct? of ground moraines.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only 3. The swarms of rounded hummocks, resulting from
the deposition of glacial till, are called eskers.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 4. Outwash plains are characterised by well sorted
42. Consider the following statements: sediments.
1. Wave height is the vertical distance from the Which of the statements given above are incorrect ?
bottom of a trough to the top of a crest of a (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
wave. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Wave amplitude is two-third of the wave height. 48. Consider the following statements:
3. Wave frequency is the number of waves passing a 1. Apogee is the point of the Earth’s orbit that is the
given point during a one second time interval. farthest from the Sun.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Perihelion is the point of the Earth’s orbit that
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only is the nearest to the Sun.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only 3. Perigee is the point when the Moon’s orbit is the
43. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? closest to the Earth.
4. Aphelion is the point when the Moon is the
S.N. Mountain/Hill State farthest from the Earth.
1. Nokrek Assam Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Seshachalam Andhra Pradesh
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Agasthyamalai Kerala 49. With respect to “tides”, consider the following
Select the correct answer using the code given below: statements:
1. They are caused by the movement of water, caused
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only by the meteorological effects.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The gravitational pull and the centrifugal force
44. Consider the following statements: are responsible for creating the two major tidal
1. East coasts of the continents in the middle and bulges on the Earth.
the higher latitudes are bordered by warm waters, 3. The tidal bulges on wide continental shelves have
which cause a distinct marine climate. greater height.
2. Warm currents flow parallel to the east coasts of Which of the statements given above are correct?
the continents in the tropical and the sub-tropical (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
latitudes, which result in warm and rainy climates. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 50. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. Loess represents thick deposits of unstratified,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 non-indurated, buff-coloured, well sorted, fine
45. With respect to the “Mid-Ocean Ridge”, consider the grained sediments.
following statements: 2. The intermontane basins in arid or semi-arid areas
1. The Mid-Ocean Ridge system is a continuous range are generally called bolsons.
of underwater volcanoes. 3. The gently sloping depositional plain between
2. It occurs along the convergent plate boundaries. pediments and bajada is called playas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 53
MOCK TEST
51. With respect to the black soil, consider the following 57. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
statements: 1. Sugarcane originated in New Guinea.
1. It is ideal for growing tea and rubber. 2. Sugar recovery is the highest when the weather is
2. It is typical of the Deccan trap. dry with low humidity, bright sunshine hours,
3. It is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash cooler nights, with wide diurnal variations.
and lime. 3. In terms of the productivity of sugarcane,
Which of the statements given above are correct? Maharashtra is the highest in the tropical zones
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only of India.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
52. Consider the following statements: (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
1. The continental slope is the extended margin of
each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
and gulfs. 58. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
2. The continental shelf connects the continental 1. Pulse crops are cultivated in the Kharif, Rabi and
slope and the ocean basins. Zaid seasons of the agricultural year.
3. Canyons and trenches are obser ved in the 2. Moong plants are used as green manure, which
continental slope region. improve the soil health and add nutrient into the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? soil.
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only 3. The origin of gram is in South-West Asia.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given below:
53. Which of the following locations record higher salinity? (a) 2 and 3 only
1. The Red Sea (b) 1 and 3 only
2. The North Sea (c) 2 only
3. The Baltic Sea (d) 1, 2 and 3
4. The Mediterranean Sea 59. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
5. The Black Sea 1. Soils with good organic matter content, having
Select the correct answer using the code given below: high water holding capacity with high pH, are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only considered good for higher productivity of maize.
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only 2. The All India Coordinated Research Project
54. Consider the following pairs: (AICRP) on maize was launched in 1987.
S.N. Waterfall State 3. In terms of production of maize, Andhra Pradesh
contributes the highest.
1. Langshiang Mizoram Select the correct answer using the code given below:
2. Dudhsagar Madhya Pradesh (a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Kunchikal Karnataka 60. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? 1. The Siberian climate is absent in the southern
hemisphere, because of the narrowness of the
(a) 2 only (b) 3 only southern continent.
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The predominant vegetation of the Siberian type
55. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? of climate is evergreen coniferous forest.
S.N. Type of Lake Lake (Example) Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
1. Tectonic lake Kolleru
(b) 2 only
2. Glacial lake Bhimtal (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Wind-made lake Didwana (d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
4. Deltaic lake Wular
S.N. Tribe Country/Region
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only 1. Lapps Ural Mountains
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Samoyeds Finland
56. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
3. Yakuts Lena Basin
1. The Sarhind Canal irrigates the areas of Punjab
and Haryana. 4. Chuckchi North-eastern Asia
2. The Triveni Canal irrigates the land in Jharkhand.
3. The Anicut Canal has been taken out from the Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Kaveri River. (a) 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) 1 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
54 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
MOCK TEST
62. Consider the following statements: 67. Consider the following pairs about local winds and
1. Increase in temperature increases the water their regions:
retention capacity of air.
1. Berg Namibia
2. Movement of air increases the rate of evaporation.
3. Dew point for air does not change with the change 2. Chinook Eastern side of the Rocky Mountains
in pressure. 3. Haboob Saudi Arabia
Which of the statements given above are correct? 4. Mistral Southern France
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 5. Etesian Western Australia
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
63. Consider the following pairs about clouds:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 3 and 5 only
1. Cirrus clouds Feathery appearance (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
68. Consider the following statements about the global
2. Cumulus clouds Appear as shapeless masses distribution of rainfall:
3. Stratus clouds Layered clouds covering the 1. Rainfall is more over the oceans, as compared to
sky the landmasses.
2. The coastal areas of the world receive greater
4. Nimbus clouds Cotton wool like appearance amounts of rainfall than the interior of the
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? continents.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only 3. In the zone of westerlies, rainfall is higher on the
eastern margins of the continent.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
64. Consider the following statements about air masses:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Air masses have little vertical variation in
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
temperature and moisture.
69. Consider the following statements about the tropical
2. Air masses formed over the continents are warm. cyclones:
3. Tropical air masses are warm and polar air masses 1. They originate and intensify over the tropical oceans.
are cold. 2. Sea surface temperature, higher than 27 degrees
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Celsius, is favourable for the formation of the
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only tropical cyclones.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. If the supply of moisture is cut, the tropical
65. Consider the following statements: cyclone dissipates.
1. Frost forms when moisture is deposited as ice 4. The speed of air is the maximum in the eye of
crystals. the cyclone.
2. Dew forms when moisture is deposited as water Which of the statements given above are correct?
droplets. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Fog is formed when condensation takes place (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
within the air mass on dust particles. 70. Consider the following pairs about the names of the
4. Mist contains less moisture than fog. cyclones and their regions:
Which of the statements given above are correct? 1. Hurricane Pacific Ocean
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Typhoon Atlantic Ocean
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only 3. Willy-Willy Western Australia
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
66. Which of the following statements is/are correct about (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
the Cool Temperate Eastern Margin (Laurentian) (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
climate? 71. Consider the following statements about the Caspian Sea:
1. The Cool Temperate Eastern Margin (Laurentian) 1. Volga and Don are the major rivers which fall in
climate is an intermediate type of climate between the Caspian Sea.
the British climate and the Siberian climate. 2. Territorial claims of the neighbouring countries
2. It has the features of both the maritime and the on the Caspian Sea have been solved under the
continental climates. UNCLOS (United Nations Convention on the Law
3. The most remarkable characteristic of the of the Sea).
Laurentian climate of the North American region 3. Majority of world’s caviar is sourced from the
is its uniformity in precipitation. Caspian Sea.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 55
MOCK TEST
72. Consider the following statements about tea: 2. They can originate over both land and sea.
1. Kenya is the largest exporter of tea in the world. 3. These cyclones affect a much larger area, compared
2. India is the largest producer of tea in the world. to the tropical cyclones.
3. Well-drained acidic soil is good for tea production. 4. They move from east to west.
Which of the statements given above are correct? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
73. Which of the following statements is/are correct about 79. Consider the following statements about coking coal:
the Labour Participation Ratio (LPR)? 1. India’s domestic coking coal is high ash coal.
1. The LPR is a measure of how many able and 2. India is self-sufficient in coking coal.
employable people in the economy are actually 3. Coking is mainly used in steel production in both
looking for work. blast furnace and electric-arc methods.
2. In India, the self-employed are largely in the Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
unorganised sector. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 80. Consider the following statements about seaweeds:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. They usually grow in deep sea.
74. Which of the following states are covered by National 2. They lack root system.
Highway 44?
1. Rajasthan 2. Madhya Pradesh 3. Red seaweeds are found mostly in the tropical
seas, while brown seaweeds are common in the
3. Maharashtra 4. Jharkhand temperate seas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 4. Seaweeds are used in fertilisers and food additives.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
75. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
S.N. Pipeline Connecting States 81. Which of the following sites have the presence of
Uranium resources in India?
1. Vadinar-Bina Gujarat-Madhya Pradesh
Pipeline 1. Rohil, Rajasthan
2. Gogi, Karnataka
2. Koyali-Sanganer Punjab-Rajasthan 3. Bailadila, Chhattisgarh
Pipeline 4. Tummalapalle, Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 5. Jaduguda, Jharkhand
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 6. Domiasiat, Meghalaya
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 7. Malanjkhand, Madhya Pradesh
76. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. From the sub-tropical high-pressure belts, the (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (b) 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7 only
winds blow towards the temperate low-pressure (c) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7 only
belts as the variable Westerlies. 82. Consider the following statements about Methane
2. Westerlies are more variable in the northern hydrates:
hemisphere. 1. Methane hydrates are solid ice crystal in which
3. All western coasts of the temperate zone receive methane molecules are trapped.
Westerlies. 2. Methane hydrates have been discovered in the
Select the correct answer using the code given below: Krishna-Godavari Basin in India.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 3. They are found at the ocean bottoms.
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
77. Which of the following statements are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
1. The Sargasso Sea is an area of the South Atlantic (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ocean.
83. Consider the following pairs:
2. The Gulf Stream establishes the Sargasso Sea’s
western boundary. 1. Cuoom River Chennai
3. The Sargasso Sea encompasses the Bermuda
Islands. 2. Mula Mutha River Pune
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 3. Sabarmati River Surat
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only 4. Musi River Hyderabad
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
78. Consider the following statements about the extra- Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
tropical cyclones: (a) 2 and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only
1. These cyclones form along the polar front. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
56 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
MOCK TEST
84. Consider the following statements about Mumbai: 89. Consider the following statements:
1. Mumbai city is based on the Salsette Island. 1. The average annual rainfall in India is about
2. Ulhas River distributes into the Vasai Creek and 100 cm, but it has great spatial variations.
the Thane Creek, which separates Mumbai from 2. There is no place in the country where rainfall
the mainland. exceeds 1,000cm/year.
3. The Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) is located 3. Rainfall between 100-200 cm is received in the
on the Salsette Island. southern parts of Gujarat, east Tamil Nadu, the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? north-easter n Peninsula, covering Odisha,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Jharkhand, Bihar, eastern Madhya Pradesh,
northern Ganga plains, along the sub-Himalayas
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 and the Cachar Valley, and Manipur.
85. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. The easterly jet stream takes the tropical (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
depressions away from India during the monsoon
season. (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The depressions play a significant role in the 90. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
distribution of monsoon rainfall over the Indian Dharwar rock system?
sub-continent. 1. Aravali mountain range is made of these rocks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 2. Fossil is found here.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. Iron, gold and manganese are found here.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
86. Consider the following statements regarding winter (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only
season in India: (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The north-western part of the country observes 91. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
sub-zero temperatures, because of being far away Deccan trap?
from the moderating influence of the sea 1. Deccan trap has been formed as a result of fissure
experience continental climate. eruption.
2. There is hardly any seasonal change in the 2. This structure is made up of basalt and dolorite
distribution pattern of the temperature in the rocks.
coastal areas, because of the moderating influence 3. This structure is found in Maharashtra, Gujarat
of the sea and the proximity to the Equator. and Tamil Nadu only.
3. Winds start blowing from the north-western high- Select the correct answer using the code given below:
pressure zone, to the low air pressure zone over (a) 1 and 3 only
the Indian Ocean in the south. (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only 92. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 S.N. Place Location
87. Consider the following statements: 1. Sriharikota Pulicat lake
1. Rainfall received from the south-west monsoons
is seasonal in character, which occurs between June 2. Pamban island Gulf of Mannar
and September. 3. New Moore island Bay of Bengal
2. Monsoonal rainfall is largely governed by relief or
topography. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 93. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
88. Consider the following statements: Lakshadweep archipelago?
1. The retreating south-west monsoon season is 1. Minicoy is the southernmost island of this
marked by partially cloudy skies and reduction in archipelago.
temperature. 2. Agatti is the only island having an airport in the
2. In the second half of October, the mercury begins archipelago.
to fall rapidly, particularly in northern India. 3. Natives of the archipelago are Scheduled Tribes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 57
MOCK TEST
94. Which of the following statements is/are correct about 3. The southern slopes of the Himalayas carry a
Terai region? thicker vegetation cover, because of relatively
1. The deposition of fine sand and mud is found higher precipitation, than the drier north-facing
here. slopes.
2. The rivers that disappear in the bhabar region re- Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
appear on the surface in the terai region. (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2 99. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
S.N. Agricultural Objective of
95. With reference to the Tropical Evergreen and Semi- revolution revolution
Evergreen Forests, consider the following statements:
1. These forests are found along both slopes of the 1. Black revolution To increase biodiesel
Western Ghats, hills of the north-eastern region production
and the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. 2. Golden revolution To increase horticulture
2. They are well stratified, with layers closer to the
ground and are covered with shrubs and creepers, 3. Grey revolution To increase shrimp
with short-structured trees, followed by tall variety production
of trees. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
3. These forests have undergone substantial (a) 1 and 3 only
anthropogenic interference, which started when
India entered the era of modern economic reforms (b) 1 and 2 only
in 1991. (c) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 only 100. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. The state having maximum tree cover in India is
(c) 3 only Madhya Pradesh.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. In terms of percentage of geographical area of
State/UTs, the UT of Chandigarh shows highest
96. Consider the following statements: percentage of tree cover.
1. Tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
forests in India.
(a) 1 only
2. Teak, sal, shisham, hurra, mahua, amla, semul,
kusum and sandalwood, etc. are the main species (b) 2 only
of the tropical deciduous forests. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only ANSWERS
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
97. Consider the following statements: 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a)
1. In the tropical thorn forests, the plants remain 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (c)
leafless for most part of the year and give an 21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (d)
expression of scrub vegetation. 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
2. Tropical thorn forests in India are distinguished 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c)
by the Tussocky grass that grows upto a height of 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (d)
2 m, as the under-growth. 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (a)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
(a) 1 only 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (a)
(b) 2 only 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (c)
(c) Both 1 and 2 61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (c)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (a)
98. With reference to the Montane Forests, consider the
following statements: 71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (a)
1. The Himalayan ranges show a succession of 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (c)
vegetation from the tropical to the tundra, with 81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (b)
change in altitude. 86. (d) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (a)
2. Deodar, a highly valued endemic species, grows 91. (b) 92. (d) 93. (d) 94. (c) 95. (a)
across the complete Himalayan range. 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (b) 99. (b) 100. (b)
58 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
CSR ESSAY CONTESTS — 873, 874, 875 & 876*
JUSTICE DELAYED IS
JUSTICE DENIED
Firstly, ‘justice & fairness’ is the key desperate and frustrated litigants
criterion for a prog ressive and increasingly go for ‘out of court
developing society in any country, and settlements’, in a way belittling the
a place where justice is delayed without efficacy of the courts and people’s
unavoidable reasons, is tantamount to trust in them.
the very denial of justice. The delay A major problem today is the
and lingering in execution of justice dilatoriness of the justice process,
reduce the significance of justice in which particularly hits illiterate and
society. It was William Edward poor who pay hefty amounts to
Gladstone (the former PM of advocates to fight their cases,
England) who coined the phrase subjecting themselves to gross
‘Justice delayed is justice denied’, which financial and mental ag ony and
has now become a legal maxim— injustice. A prominent example of
meaning that if legal redress or justice delayed was the brutal 2012
equitable relief to an injured party is Ms. Anamika Mohari Nirbhaya gang-rape and murder case,
available, but is not forthcoming in a First prize winner of where all four culprits were convicted
timely fashion, it is effectively the same CSR Essay Writing Contest 873. but it took seven long years to finally
as having no remedy at all. The system Hailing from Sonitpur, Assam, hang them. It’s not only the rape cases
of justice may be difficult to but also the cases involving the
understand and execute but it has a Ms. Anamika Mohari is pursuing M.A. religious sentiments that take
very crucial bearing on the judicial in English from Tezpur University, enormous time to decide. Here, one
rights of the civilians concerned. Assam. She loves to read and write. can cite the Ayodhya case which
Justice is everyone’s right, so should involved 70-year-long litigation for
be delivered within a specified period of time. pronouncement of the final verdict in 2019.
Also any delayed decisions by the courts can often help It’s absolutely correct that to have a fair judgement, a fair
the culprits evade justice while exacerbating injustice to the trial must be conducted but taking 7 years or 70 years for
victims and their families. In India, there are thousands of finally punishing the culprits or for finally announcing a
such inordinately long-pending cases in the courts. Even verdict cannot be justified. A judgement is termed an
many cases could not be resolved by the courts because of effective judgement only when it is pronounced in a
lack of enough evidences, due to which the culprits are reasonable time span. If we look at the crime situation,
released from the prison and victims never get justice. If according to National Crime Records Bureau’s 68th edition
the culprits committing crime are not brought to book in a of the ‘Crime in India’ report, an increased total 66.01 lakh
timely manner, they will never be afraid of law or judiciary crimes were registered in the year 2020. And one of the
and will go on indulging in more crimes. The legal maxim reasons for spurt in the crime rate is the delay in the court
‘Justice delayed is justice denied’ nicely conveys the judgements within a justifiable period of time because of
importance of timely justice. In fact, to a great extent, this which either the accused gets bail or the victim has to wait
maxim aptly fits in the current scenario of the judicial endlessly for justice. It also often happens that a person,
system of our country itself. identified as accused by police, is, after years and years of
Although justice varies according to situations and trial, finally found not guilty by the courts. In such cases,
individuals, still people visit courts to seek timely justice. though the falsely-presumed accused finally get justice, it is
However, currently, our judicial system does not deliver still gravely unfair for them in view of the mental pain they
justice to the victims as quickly as expected. But, as we live go through and irreparable loss of freedom, life
in a democratic country like India, in which there is a rule opportunities and reputation they suffer because of
of law, delivering justice in a timely manner to the victims is inordinate delay by courts in deciding their cases. It is to be
very important to prevent miscarriage of justice. The delay noted that in 2022, the total number of pending cases of
in justice has been nagging Indian judicial system and masses all types and at all levels rose to 5 crore, including over
for a long time despite some recent efforts to remedy the 1,69,000 court cases pending for more than 30 years in
situation. It is seen that in a large number of cases, the District and High Courts. A total of 4.3 crore out of the 5
*We present here the four FIRST PRIZE WINNING ESSAYS of the CSR Essay
Contests 873, 874, 875 & 876, contributed by Ms. Anamika Mohari, Ms. Vidita Mehta, Ms. Duiena
Rai and Mr. Pavan Kumar Karnati.
INDIA @ 75 AND
WAY FORWARD
There is a saying that “India is a new country, but an ancient orbit in its first attempt. The credit goes to Indian Space
civilisation, and this civilisation has seen tremendous changes Research Organisation (ISRO) that India has taken
throughout its history.” confident strides in the field of space research and
India celebrated its 75th year of Independence on 15th technology. Our country has also taken lead in the field of
August 2022, which is a milestone to reflect back on what biotechnology, where India is producing vaccines for the
all we achieved in these 75 years, and what more we need entire world. The journey of India from 1947 to 2022 in
to achieve. We further need to articulate our vision, firm various fields is described in following paragraphs:
up a goal and get people, policies and institutions aligned Economic Development: Post-Independence, our
to the future vision. From being an education hub of the country faced numerous challenges being a developing
world in ancient times to becoming the global IT hub economy that included illiteracy, corruption, poverty, gender
today, India has come a long way. Since gaining discrimination, untouchability, regionalism and
independence from the tyrannical rule of the British communalism which acted as major roadblocks to India’s
Empire on 15th August 1947, our country has made economic development. With the start of the Green
remarkable progress in several fields like science & Revolution in 1960s by Dr. M. S. Swaminathan, the father
technology, economy, civil infrastructure, agriculture and of the Green Revolution, there was a significant increase
human development. The Britishers left behind in the crop area planted with high-yielding wheat and rice
underdeveloped and economically poor country due to types and India was then recognised as one of the top
years of exploitation and plundering of India’s massive agricultural producers in the world. With the construction
human and natural resources. of linked facilities like factories and hydroelectric power
After independence, India prioritised scientific research plants, a large number of jobs for industrial workers were
in its First Five-Year Plan. It paved the way for prestigious also generated in addition to agriculture. Today India is
research and technological institutes like IITs and IISc, the 5th largest economy in the world with a lot of
which promoted research in science and technology in the development in all fields leading to inflow of cash in the
country. Due to the efforts of our great scientists like economy.
Homi Jehangir Bhabha and Vikram Sarabhai, India was Development in Education and Health Sector:
able to launch nuclear research programmes. In the field Though India has shown remarkable progress in terms of
of space research, India took great strides with launch of literacy rate, the quality of higher education is more or
first Indian satellite Aryabhatta in 1975. Today, India is less still a cause of concern. There is not a single Indian
considered among the superpowers in space technology University or Institute in the top 100 QS World University
and is the first country in the world to make it to the Mars Rankings. With the largest youth population in the world,
ENVIRONMENT VERSUS
GROWTH
“Economic growth and environmental protection are industrialised nations where human health is compromised
not at odds. They’re opposite sides of the same coin if by rapid economic growth and energy-induced emissions.
you’re looking at longer-term prosperity,” rightly says There is a misconception worldwide that there has to be
Mr. Henry Paulson, a noted US business leader, statesman incessant exploitation of natural and other resources for
and author. Economy is always inversely proportional to any economic expansion. This misconception fails the very
environment and there is a need to carefully balance the fundamental idea of humanity being in harmony and in
“Economy vs. Environment” aspect of growth and synchronisation with happenings in the biosphere. It is
development. The ‘economy vs. growth’ has also been a already a sad reality that the Mother Earth’s carrying capacity
subject matter of heated debates and discussions for long. has diminished to an extent where our ecological footprint
Indeed the challenges that we face in today’s times are has begun to exceed its carrying capacity. The real
either linked to the decelerating economic growth or globalisation calls for a truly unified approach, combining
environmental challenges including global warming and social, economic as well as ecological characteristics. Out
climate change, yet one must not forget that we need to take of the many such approaches, a few are explored hereunder :
both these challenges simultaneously and together if we The green economy concedes that durable economic
want a sustainable victory in the end. The economic impacts development is contingent on the efficacious and optimal
of environmental degradation are quite visible in use as well as conservation of natural ecosystems. The
SUPERSTITIONS
“We must learn that to expect God to do human behaviour is mostly based on
everything while we do nothing is not faith but the environment where he/she grows
superstition,” said Martin Luther King and impact of surroundings is too
Jr. According to Anglo-Irish statesman, much on the person’s personal as well
economist and philosopher Edmund as professional life. If the socio-
Burke, “Superstition is the religion of economic environment and beliefs are
feeble minds”. Yes, even in this backward and unscientific, people are
advanced world, we can still see the more likely to fall prey to superstitions
prevalence of superstitions in almost in their pursuit of pleasure, happiness
every corner of the world without any and even spirituality. As such, any
exception of country, religion and caste, development should be holistic,
etc. For example, the generally so- focussing not only on improving GDP
perceived sinistrous and ominous but also humanity, reasoning and
Number 13, the ill-omened black cats, scientific vision. India being a
not washing hair on Thursdays and Pavan Kumar Karnati developing country, it is very essential
saying “bless you” when someone to take definitive steps in this direction.
sneezes are just some of the common First prize winner of It is sad that even after 75 years of our
superstitions that have crept into the CSR Essay Writing Contest 876. Independence, superstitions are still
lives of a great number of people. The Hailing from Proddatur in Andhra prevalent in large sections of society
October 2022 killing of two women in and there are still people who openly
Elanthoor village of Pathanamthitta Pradesh, Mr. Pavan Kumar Karnati practise, propag ate and preach
district of Kerala in an incident of has done B.Tech. from Madanapalle. superstitions, magic and related
‘black magic-oriented’ human sacrifice, He loves chess, networking and practices. Digital media is also being
had shaken the nation wherein the reading books. widely misused by the miscreants to
perpetrators superstitiously believed promote unscientific practices and
that their gory act would bring them prosperity. hollow beliefs. The shocking Kerala incident of human
The word ‘superstition’ comes from the Latin word sacrifice, committed as part of black magic to gain wealth,
‘superstito’, meaning “standing over” as in transcending or must be taken as an eye-opener in this context. Socio-
standing outside of ordinary logic. Superstitions are beliefs cultural leaders, political parties and Indian polity as a whole
based on old ideas based on luck and magic rather than need to work at the grass-roots level against all kinds of
science or reason. Superstition is a belief in the supernatural, superstition and social ills. The Union Government should
which is to say, a belief in the existence of forces or entities come up with an appropriate comprehensive legislation to
that do not conform to the laws of the nature or scientific punish the people involved in spreading superstitions. Being
understanding of the universe. Superstitions generally educated isn’t enough to get protected from the superstitions
emanate from socio-religious and economic factors like but what is also required is scientific thinking and reasoning
mythologies, illiteracy, poverty and lack of awareness and ability. We need to always believe in ourselves rather than on
reasoning. Particularly the uneducated masses are most putting our trust in any kind of supernatural or magical
gullible to fall for superstitions as they are unable to judge forces. Man can become superman only with his/her hard
an incident or belief from scientific point of view. The and smart work and not by blind faith. As great leaders have
influences of self-proclaimed god-men, faith healers and stated, life is full of challenges and surprises and we need to
miracle cures also have a great say in spreading superstitions face challenges to enjoy the surprises.
among vulnerable ordinary people. Article 25 of Indian Constitution gives every person the
Do we need to believe in superstitions? Human life is a right to freedom of conscience and the right to freely
combination of different types of situations—some are
supportive and others are depressive. When something good profess, practice and propagate religion, subject to public
happens, people will cherish the moments and be motivated, order and morality and health. At the same time, Article
but during negative cycle of their life, most of them tend to 51A (h) of Indian Constitution makes it fundamental duty
get disappointed quickly and look for all the remedies which for Indian citizens to develop a scientific temper, humanism
they can think of, many a time even supernatural ways out. and the spirit of inquiry and reform. Thus the government
This is the time when they can easily get trapped in the web should move towards makings laws that provide right
of superstition and get tricked and deceived. balance of both the above-mentioned Articles of the
Many people believe in luck than the work they do. Yes, we Constitution. However, legislations win only half the battle.
may believe in it but up to what extent is also a crucial Creating awareness and giving right scientific education is
question that we need to ponder over. Did India get the key to do away with superstitions and related practices.
Independence by luck? Obviously the answer is no, because Our country has entered the transformative ‘Amrit Kaal’
we all know about our great and long freedom struggle. Trust and one special dimension of this period can be the renewed
in hard work will always pay back but a belief in superstition all-out efforts to eradicate superstitions and ignorance in
will drive you in reverse direction. Psychiatrists say that the society to make ‘New India’ in a real sense.
TOPICS
Contest 881 : Skilling The Youth Of India 4
TOPICS
Contest 882 : Artificial Intelligence—Implications
Contest 883 : Simplicity Is The Ultimate Sophistication
Contest 884 : India's Digital Economy
First Prizes 4 (1 for each topic) : Study Material (worth Rs. 1,500) plus a Certificate of
Merit.
52 Highly Commendable Prizes : India & The World Wall Maps worth Rs. 150 plus
a Certificate of Merit.
The length of the essay should not exceed 1,500 wordswords. The Editor will pay special attention to the participant’s grasp of
the topic and to the ability to think constructively and to present one’s ideas concisely, logically and effectively.
Age limit : From 18 years to 30 years.
THERE IS NO ENTRY FEE. Entries for Essays should not exceed 1,500 words and should be typed double-spaced on one side of the paper and
must be accompanied by latest (1) passport size (bust) and (2) full-length colour photographs. Photographs should be taken in formal dress, i.e.,
men wearing a suit/shirt with tie and women wearing a blouse and saree/top and skirt/salwar kameez as if appearing for an Interview/
Personality Test. Name, Date of birth, Qualifications, Hobbies, Achievements, Professional/Service experience (if any) Mobile No., Email,
Address, City, State, Pin Code of the contributor along with biodata must be written on the first page of the entry and only name on the back
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Handwritten entries or entries without photographs and incomplete biodata will not be considered.
Entries via email with scanned photographs are to be considered on a par with those in usual format.
All entries, along with photographs, received will be the exclusive property of CSR Group and can be used for its promotion. Only original
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the Contests is not original. Editor’s decision will be final and binding. Competition Review Pvt. Ltd. reserves the right to substitute Prizes
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COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 65
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developments bode well for all those aspiring to build a highly
UNION BUDGET 2023-24 rewarding, thrilling and professionally-satisfying career in tourism
and hospitality sector.
TOURISM AND
HOSPITALITY NCHMCT—Coordinating Growth of
Hospitability Management Education
SECTOR GETS NEW BOOST National Council for Hotel Management and Catering
In the Union Budget 2023-24, India's tourism and Technology (Society) was set up in the year 1982 by the
hospitality sector has been identified as one of the four "key Government of India as an autonomous body for coordinated
opportunities" which can be transformative during the 'Amrit growth and development of hospitality management education
Kaal'. A total Rs. 2,400 crore have been allocated to the in the country. Initially, the Council was set up in the name of
Ministry of Tourism and a major portion of the outlay, National Board of Studies in Food Management, Catering &
amounting to Rs. 1,742 crore, has been sanctioned for Nutrition under the administrative control of Ministry of
development of tourism infrastructure while an amount of Agriculture (Deptt. of Food) and subsequently it was transferred
Rs. 242 crore have been proposed for promotion and to the Union Ministry of Tourism in the year 1984 and renamed
branding. An outlay of Rs. 1,412 crore has been allocated as National Council for Hotel Management & Catering
for the Swadesh Darshan Scheme. In this regard, at least 50 Technology (NCHMCT). The registered office of the Council
travel destinations would be developed as a "complete is situated in New Delhi.
package" and states will be encouraged to set up a 'unity According to Council’s website, it regulates academics in the
mall' for the sale of their products. Union Finance Minister field of Hospitality Education & Training that is imparted at
Ms. Nirmala Sitharaman asserted that promotion of the 21 Central Government-sponsored Institutes of Hotel
tourism will be taken up on a "mission mode". 'Dekho Management (IHMs), 25 State Government-sponsored IHMs
Apna Desh' and 'Vibrant Villages' schemes are aimed at offering Degree level/Diploma/Craft Certificate level
giving a fresh boost to domestic tourism and promote local programmes, one PSU-owned Institute, 25 Private Institutes
economy. These schemes focus on encouraging middle-class and 14 Food Craft Institutes that function in different parts
citizens to travel within the country instead of going overseas. of the country.
Also, under these schemes, the government aims to develop Through the Council, these institutes offer various
theme-based tourist circuits and better tourism infrastructure different professional programmes leading to awarding of
in remote parts of India. Certificate, Diploma, Post Graduate Diploma, Bachelor and
With a view to promoting and developing the Indian Master Degree.
tourism industry further, in the Union Budget 2023-24
speech, the Finance Minister announced India would develop Key Hotel Management Entrance Exams in India
50 new airports, water aerodrome and heliports to improve The students aspiring to build a career in Hotel Management
connectivity within the cities and smaller towns. can broadly take following exams for joining the best of the
Economic Survey 2022-23 : The Economic Survey 2022- hotel management institutes in the country.
23 specifically mentions that India's tourism sector is showing H National Council for Hotel Management and
great signs of revival and is ranked 10th out of the top 64 Catering Technology Joint Entrance Exam (NCHMCT
countries in the world in the Medical Tourism Index JEE)
FY2020-21. The Survey said that medical tourism is on the H Institute of Hotel Management (IHMs) Joint Entrance
rise due to government initiatives like the Ayush Visa for Examination for B.Sc Hospitality & Hotel Administration
medical tourists, the launch of the National Strategy for H Army Institute of Hotel Management & Catering
Sustainable Tourism and Responsible Traveller Campaign, Technology (AIHMCT-WAT)
the introduction of the Swadesh Darshan 2.0 scheme and
Heal in India. The hotel occupancy rate in November 2022 H Bharati Vidyapeeth University HM Test
was around 68% to 70%, reaching the average pre-pandemic H Under Graduate Aptitude Test (UGAT)
level of 2019-20. H Uttar Pradesh Combined Entrance Test (UPCET)
H Chandigarh Institute of Hotel Management Admission
Test
H Punjab University Tourism and Hospitality Aptitude Test
H IITM - Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel
Management Entrance Test
H West Bengal Joint Entrance Examination Board (Hotel
Management)
H Institute of Hotel Management Aurangabad Admission
Test
H MAH-HM-CET Maharashtra Hotel Management
Common Entrance Test
H IHM Meerut Admissions Test
H Merit Swiss Asian School of Hotel Management, Ooty
Admissions Test
H NIPS School of Hotel Management Admission
Exam
right people to run the hotel. Almost all the positions in the
hotel are filled through recruitments conducted by the HR
Department. Apart from recruitment, the department also
handles the planning, requirement and selection of staff, health
and security. They undertake staff training exercises to ensure
that the staff is up-to-date with all aspects of the job at hand.
With the government introducing a large number of legislations
with regard to hiring and treating of staff, this department has
a crucial role to play in the running of the hotel. One of the
other important tasks of the HR Department is to ensure that
the morale of the staff remains high amidst hectic working
schedules. For this purpose, they organise multiple events for
the staff members. The HR Director is usually also the head
of the safety committee and that committee attempts to ensure
that the property remains a safe workplace through policy and
procedure.
BUSINESS CENTRE
The Business Centre of a hotel is of keen interest to the Management stands for specialised management methods
corporate and business houses. With an increasing number of implemented in the hotel and hospitality industry. The domain
business travellers in India and abroad, hotels are offering their of Hotel Management today comprises housekeeping, hotel
business centres to fulfil their meeting and conference related administration, food and beverages management, front office,
needs. It has emerged as a significant source of revenue upkeep, marketing, and accounts.
and branding for the hotels at the same time. The business With Indian economy reviving and people stepping outdoors,
guests are usually given priority treatment by the hotels due though with all the Corona-related caution, ‘Staycation’ is seen
to their chances of being a repeat customer. The business as an emerging trend. In Staycation, people stay at luxurious
centres have evolved significantly over the past couple hotels to revive themselves of stress in a peaceful getaway. To
of decades, placing themselves as the perfect spot to have cater to such needs, major hotel chains such as Marriott
creative and imaginative discussions along with team building International, IHG Hotels & Resorts and Oberoi Hotels have
exercises. introduced staycation offers where guests can choose from a
Business centres have also become an important marketing host of curated experiences, within the hotel.
tool for hotels since the amenities offered at the business Further, with the government push, India’s travel and
centres set a particular hotel apart from the others. These are tourism industry promises to have a huge growth potential.
operational 24×7 to suit the needs of their corporate clients. The industry is also looking forward to the expansion of
Some of the common facilities offered at these centres include e-Visa scheme, which is expected to double the tourist inflow
secretarial and translation services and business support from in India. India’s travel and tourism industry has the potential
computers, printers and scanners to high-speed Internet access, to expand by 2.5% on the back of higher budgetary allocation
hotel-wide Wi-Fi, videoconferencing, photocopying and fax and low-cost healthcare facility, according to a joint study
facilities. Some other high end business centres may also offer conducted by Assocham and Yes Bank. All in all, a career in
24-hour multilingual concierge service, airline reservations, Hotel Management in India remains big on promise and
Internet access in guest accommodations, complimentary potential. So, shed any inhibitions whatsoever, and pursue the
newspaper and direct-dial multi-line telephones with voice mail, profession with aplomb and positivity. Rest assured, sky is the
speaker and data port. limit for those of you who humbly put their heart, head and
soul in this domain.
The Way Forward Tourism in India continues to have significant potential
Today, Hotel Management is not only restricted to hotels considering the rich cultural and historical heritage, variety in
but has gone a long way to catering, clubs, food and beverage ecology, terrains and places of natural beauty spread across the
industry, resorts, airlines, cruise and many more. Hotel country.
80 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
TOP HOTEL MANAGEMENT
INSTITUTES OF INDIA
In its characteristic manner, CSR has always tried to look different from others in its area, as it has always laid a lot of stress on
the demands of the changing times in order to satisfy its esteemed readers. It has always kept in mind that no two individuals are
exactly alike and we, at CSR, have always put in our best effort in order to make every individual realise his/her unique potential to
the full. We have tried our best to update our readers on the latest happenings in their respective areas of interest. With a view to
catering to our readers’ aspirational requirement with regard to the fast-emerging area of knowledge, i.e. Hotel Management, we
are presenting here a list of Top Hotel Management Institutes.
North
· Kukreja Institute of Hotel Management & Catering Technology, Dehradun
· Institute of Hotel Management Catering Technology & Applied Nutrition (IHM Meerut), Meerut, Uttar Pradesh
· Himalayan Institute of Technology, Dehradun, Uttarakhand
· Institute of Hotel Management, IPS Academy, Indore, Madhya Pradesh
· International Institute of Culinary Arts (IICA), Hauz Khas, New Delhi
· Lakshya Bhartee Institute of Hotel Management (LBIHM), Delhi
· Jagran Lakecity University, School of Hospitality and Tourism, Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
East
· Institute of Hotel Management (IHM Kolkata), Catering Technology & Applied Nutrition,
Taratala Road, Kolkata
· Guru Nanak Institute of Hotel Management, Kolkata, West Bengal
· IIIHM (A Global Hotel Management Centre of Excellence of UEM Kolkata in New Town),
Kolkata, West Bengal
· SOA School of Hotel Management (Siksha 'O' Anusandhan), Bhubaneswar, Odisha
· IIHM—International Institute of Hotel Management, Kolkata, West Bengal
· NSHM Knowledge Campus, Durgapur & Kolkata
· IHM Ranchi–Institute of Hotel Management Catering Technology and Applied Nutrition, Ranchi / SIHM
· Birla Institute of Technology, Mesra, Ranchi
· Institute of Science & Management (ISM), Ranchi
West
· IHM Mumbai, Institute of Hotel Management, Catering Technology & Applied Nutrition, Mumbai
· Welcome Graduate School of Hotel Administration, Manipal, Karnataka
· Gujarat Institute of Hotel Management, Vadodara, Gujarat
· Tuli College of Hotel Management, Nagpur, Maharashtra
· T. John College, Department of Hotel Management, Bangalore, Karnataka
· Goa College of Hospitality & Culinary Education, Cidade De Goa, Vainguinim Beach, Goa
South
· SRM Institute of Hotel Management, Chennai, Tamil Nadu
· IHM Hyderabad, Institute of Hotel Management, Catering Technology & Applied Nutrition, Vidyanagar,
Hyderabad
Oriental School of Hotel Management, Wayanad
· King Institute of Hotel Management and Catering Technology, Madurai, Tamil Nadu
· Indian Institute of Catering Technology and Hotel Management, Trichy Road, Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu
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Kukreja Institute of Hotel Management
& Catering Technology, Dehradun
Committed To Its Purpose The fundamental reason behind the
The Kukreja Institute of Hotel growth of this industry is that it fosters
Management & Catering Technology tourism. Tourism is one of the fastest
opened in 2005, and we are now in our growing industries in India. There are
18th year of operation. The hospitality many benefits associated with it as tourists
industry is a broad category of fields generate lots of economic activities. Since
within the service industry that includes India is a fast-developing country, it needs
lodging, food and drink service, event considerable impetus of propitious
planning, theme parks, transportation, economic activities.
cruise line, traveling and additional fields The careers in hospitality education
within the tourism industry. are becoming quite popular. More and
The hospitality industry is an industry more youngsters are pursuing their
that depends on the availability of leisure careers in this field successfully.
time and disposable income. A hospitality In the next couple of years, anywhere
unit such as a restaurant, hotel, or an between millions of young Indians will
amusement park consists of multiple emigrate from rural areas to the cities. If Mr. Anil Talukdar
we can provide them adequate learning Director
groups such as facility maintenance and and development opportunities, we could Kukreja Institute of Hotel Management
direct operations (servers, housekeepers, provide them gainful employment in & Catering Technology, Dehradun
porters, kitchen workers, bartenders, Hospitality organizations that need an
management, marketing, and human enormous amount of manpower. exposure in 5-star hotels, but also to get
resources etc.). That is where Kukreja Institute of them job placements after they graduate.
Hospitality is all about the art of Hotel Management & Catering Even during the pandemic in 2021,
entertaining or receiving guests. We talk Technology is playing and will play a the Institute has achieved 95%
about “offering hospitality”. There are vital role. Dehradun, the capital of placement. Every year, more than 500
many different ideas about how to offer Uttarakhand, being surrounded by the students pass out from our college. In
hospitality according to the various Garhwal Himalayas, has a cache of young fact, some even left with the luxury of
cultures in the world. In the past, many population who need to be exposed to choice of 2 or 3 job opportunities. Our
societies taught that it was always right the opportunities in cities and a career in ex-students are blazing a trail of success,
to offer hospitality to strangers who came hospitality. Since 2005, the Institute has thus making a clear path for those who
to their door. According to Indian been inducting students not only from follow, i.e. freshly graduating batches of
tradition, guests are always welcomed the rural areas but also from major cities, students. The cities of Dubai and Abu
warmly and we believe in “Atithi devo giving them a graduation degree and Dhabi have a large number of our
bhava”, which means guests are like gods ensuring that they get placed in 4 star students while many are in Europe, USA,
to the hosts. and 5 star hotels or other hospitality far-east including New Zealand and
Education in hospitality is organizations. Japan. Brands like One & Only, St. Regis,
mushrooming as it has emerged as an The Institute is recognised by AICTE Conrad, Fairmont, Oberoi Hotels, Taj
industry which offers a lucrative career. and provides a state-of-the-art Hotels are just a few of the hotels
The hospitality industry is a broad infrastructure. whereour students get placed.
category of fields within service industry Since 2011 we have been running A lot of emphasis is given to the
that includes lodging, event planning, Fashion Design Degree and Diploma teaching curriculum. The reaching
theme parks, transportation, cruise line, courses too. Our budding designers are methodology includes value added
and additional fields within the tourism proving their worth in the fashion sessions of Personality Development
industry. industry. Group Discussions and English language
The career offered in hospitality The teaching faculty are well classes on a regular basis. The Institute
industry is called “Hospitality experienced and carefully selected to realizes that students from rural
Management” which is increasing more ensure that they bring with them both backgrounds have little or very poor skills
considerations worldwide that it had an Industry perspective as well as in the English language.
before. Earlier, hotel managers graduated expertise in academics. We have been The Institute lays great emphasis on
school with some degree in business, but lucky to have recruited some who have discipline, something that is highly
nowadays there are degree programs in overseas experience in cruise lines, etc., regarded in the Hospitality industry, and
hotel management itself for the students. who bring with them rich experiences to due cognisance is taken of absenteeism,
share with the students they late-coming and behavioral attributes in
teach. a student.
The Institute has a well- Kukreja Institute is committed to its
developed and efficient ‘Training purpose; to ensure that students get a
& Placement’ cell which has well head start in their career in hospitality.
experienced members whose job We hope that you will consider a visit to
is to ensure that the Institute gets this Institute if you visit Dehradun and
maximum number of ‘campus allow us to be your host. And if there is
selections’ in an academic year, a young man or lady of 18 years, picture
not only to place students for him or her as a future Manager, if you let
their 6 months’ Industrial Kukreja Institute show them the way.
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 91
ORIENTAL GROUP OF
EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS
The Oriental Group of Educational multicultural atmosphere for our
Institutions is located at Lakkidi and students and believe that this enriches
at Vythiri in Wayanad, the land of them and contribute to their personality
refreshing mists, virgin clouds, swirling and learning experience in countless
tea estates and scented hills, a dimensions. The Oriental College of
destination worth visiting and living. Hotel Management & Culinary Arts is
The cool, crisp and verdant climate of situated at Vythiri and came into
Wayanad is very conducive for existence in the year 2005. This
effective learning and development. Institute is located adjacent to our
An hour and a half drive away from 5 star Resort, the Vythiri Village Resort
Calicut, it is an ideal setting for & Spa, where the students get hands-
harnessing knowledge and education. on training in to the finer nuances of
The Group’s first venture, a hospitality administration and management.
management institution, the Oriental Fees affordability is another salient
School of Hotel Management at specialty of the OSHM. We keep our
Lakkidi, came into existence in the year fee structure at a very moderate level
1995 under the visionary insight of as this comes under a charitable trust
Dr. K.C. Robbins
the living legend, Mr. N. K. and even the B.Sc. H&HA programme Director
Mohammed. The Institute boasts of of the National Council comes with a Oriental Group Of Educational Institutions
state-of-the-art classrooms and training fee benefit to the students as the fees
laboratories. Having already is lesser than even the Government degree program, the only one of its
established as the best hotel institutions. The Institution continues kind in the state of Kerala.
management institute in the state, it to inspire and promote education in For Admissions in Hotel
envisages quality education to students an uncompromising and superior Management, Call – 8589838589 –
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Management has bagged the Best Degree Courses Offered In Hotel Courses Offered:
Hotel Management Institute in Kerala Management: 1. B.Sc. Psychology
Award from the Government of 1. Bachelor of Hotel 2. B.Sc. Costume & Fashion
Kerala eight times and is one of the Management and Catering Designing (B.Sc. C & FD)
most reputed institutions in the region. Technology (BHMCT) – four- 3. Bachelor of Computer
The GHRDC has ranked the Institute year professional degree in Hotel Applications (BCA)
as the Best Hospitality Management Management. This professional 4. Bachelor of Business
Institution in South India. Dr. K.C. course is also Approved by Administration (BBA)
Robbins is the Director of the Oriental AICTE 5. Bachelor of Travel & Tourism
Group of Educational Institutions. 2. B.Sc. Hotel Management & Management (BTTM)
We are also very proud to be Catering Science 6. B.A. Multi Media
affiliated to the National Council for 3. B.Sc. Hotel Management & 7. B.Com. (Finance)
Hotel Management and Catering Culinary Arts 8. B.Com. (Computer Application)
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Entrance Examination (JEE) Management and Catering – nurturing young minds, developing
conducted by the National Testing Technology (NCHMCT) them to be professionals of
Agency, which ensures that we get a Post Graduate Programme – tomorrow… Always growing… always
kaleidoscopic mix of students from Master of Hotel Management in touch with times and forever in its
across the country from as far as (MHM): The Master of Hotel pursuit for quality and excellence!!!
Kashmir, Rajasthan or Kolkata. We Management (MHM) is an intensive For more details - Log on to
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Top-notch Hotels Of India
Hotel industry in India is constantly looking up and Canada, Europe and Australia are well-heeled and they demand
expanding with ever-increasing number of visitors flocking the the very best in luxury-stays like the Oberoi Amarvilas in Agra
present as well as emerging tourist and business hotspots. or the Leela in Goa. Many hotel chains are leading in the realm
Besides an ever increasing number of foreign visitors, the of luxury-stay and hospitality in India, which prominently
domestic tourists and travellers too are driving Indian tourism include 'Taj Hotels, Resorts and Palaces', 'ITC Hotels,' 'Oberoi
and hospitality industry to newer and newer heights. Hotels and Resorts,' 'Hyatt Hotels,' 'Hilton Hotels,' 'JW Mariott,'
In the past couple of years, it has been observed that working 'Radisson Hotels,' 'Le Meridian,' 'Sheraton Hotels and Resorts,'
millennials are looking to escape city life in search of tranquillity 'The Ashok,' and 'Park Hotels,' to name a few.
or a break from the monotonous way of life. But owing to The Tourism and Hospitality sector is an important
the increasing time-crunch experienced by urban component of Indian economy and plays the role of significant
consumers, spontaneous 'staycations' or 'workations' in the economic and job multiplier. This sector is employment-rich
city itself are becoming popular among millennials looking since it needs well-trained professionals all the time to give
for a quick-fix. The new breed of travellers, led by millennials guests a 'home away from home' experience. Consequently, this
and Gen Z, are redefining the way one travels. Off-beat sector is proving to be a magnet for a huge number of
locations are 'bae' for the Gen Z, and the travelling in youngsters with a passion for hospitality and a customer-centric
groups with community living and shared economy are some mindset.
of the guiding principles of these travellers. Over the The hospitality industry in India is divided by Type (Chain
years, India has also emerged as a hotspot of medical tourism Hotels and Independent Hotels), and by Segment (Service
as it has proved its mettle in delivering cheap and best medical Apartments, Budget and Economy Hotels, Mid and Upper Mid
treatment. As such, irrespective of the temporary setback Scale Hotels, and Luxury Hotels). The demand for trained
during Covid-19 pandemic, the tourism and travel industry in professionals is on the rise in each of the segments of the Indian
India is witnessing rapid growth, fuelled by technological hotel industry. Here we provide you a bird's-eye view of the top
innovations and adoption of world-class industry standards. 10 largest hotel chains in India.
Across the spectrum, we see the travel and tourism ecosystem
offering quality products and services, backed by technology at 1. Indian Hotels Company (Taj Hotels)
good value for money—right from low-cost airlines, budget Tata Group owns Indian Hotels Company Ltd. (IHCL) which
hotels at the click of a button, a wide array of unique local is India's largest hotel chain, collectively known as Taj Hotels
businesses and easy access to pocket-friendly first-and-last-mile Resorts and Palaces. It is also one of Asia's largest and most
transport services. notable hospitality companies. This project was initiated by the
Indian hotel industry, which has now come of age and is Tata Group with the aim of building top-class hotels in India.
globally benchmarked, is commendably catering to the needs of According to the group's website as on February 2, 2023, the
the tourists of all categories and budgets. Increasing instances group has a presence in 12 countries including UAE, UK,
of business travel besides 'solo-travel' becoming the latest fad, USA. It has over 200 hotels and 25,000 rooms across India and
have added yet another dimension to Indian hotel industry, 15 in other countries, including Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal,
leading to several hotel chains making inroads into even smaller South Africa, Sri Lanka, UAE, UK and USA. Some of the
cities of the country. And when it comes to luxury, many an Group's major hotels in India are Rambagh Palace, Jaipur;
Indian hotel chain is today regarded as best-in-class the world Taj Lake Palace, Udaipur; Umaid Bhawan Palace, Jodhpur;
over. Many foreign tourists from prosperous regions of USA, Falaknuma Palace, Hyderabad; Taj Coromandel in Chennai; Taj
Passage I 3. According to the passage, subjects the key challenge for India’s growth story
Having investigated the nature of the that are discussed do not include and John F. Kennedy’s famous words come
relationship between price and trading (1) trends in returns vis-a-vis volatility. to mind: ‘American roads are not good
volume for 50 Indian stocks, our findings (2) stock market losses during recession. because America is rich, but America is rich
indicate evidence of positive (3) information dissemination being because American roads are good.’
contemporaneous correlation between slow within the market. Hopefully, the same will happen in India too.
price changes and trading volume in (4) results of the research have more 5. As per the passage,
Indian stock markets. All the stocks, of statistical significance than (1) infrastructure is not all that
except Reliance Power, show asymmetric economic. relevant for development of a
behaviour, which is in line with the 4. According to the passage, which one country.
research findings. Investigation of of the following inferences is false ? (2) India does not have the required
dynamic relationship between returns and (1) Any shock in either returns or know-how to build up the
trading volume shows very interesting volume affects the return series infrastructure.
results. We find evidence that in the Indian beyond one lag. (3) infrastructure is relevant for
market, past returns cause trading volume, (2) In case of unconditional volatility development.
which can be easily conceived in an and trading volume, there exists a (4) infrastructure is most essential for
emerging market where the state of positive contemporaneous development.
development of the market possibly does relationship between trading 6. In the field of infrastructure, India
not allow instantaneous information volume and unconditional volatility.
dissemination. These results are further (1) has shown remarkable progress.
(3) Both returns and volume are mostly
supported by the variance decomposition. affected by their own lag. (2) is not doing satisfactorily.
However, in most cases the relationship (4) The state of development of the (3) has shown adequate progress.
lacks economic significance even though market possibly does not allow (4) does not have experts to deal with
it is statistically significant. The results of instantaneous infor mation various problems.
impulse response analysis indicate that dissemination. 7. According to the passage,
both returns and volume are mostly (1) people love to read good news.
affected by their own lag and that volume Passage II (2) people do not prefer good news.
is more autoregressive than returns, that There’s an old journalistic axiom that (3) bad news generally spreads fast.
is any shock in either returns or volume bad news sells. That is reflected every day (4) no one wants to hear bad news.
does not affect the return series beyond on our television screens and newspaper 8. As per the passage, India
one lag. In case of unconditional volatility headlines. From the lingering impact of (1) is capable of dealing with
and trading volume we find a positive the global economic meltdown to acts of problems of building required
contemporaneous relationship between terrorism, new pandemics and lately, infrastructure.
trading volume and unconditional natural disasters, the bad news seems (2) may not be able to build its
volatility. unending. Yet, in every depressing story infrastructure.
1. According to the passage, the there is always a silver lining, an act of (3) is well known for its efficiency in
courage, independence and enterprise that dealing with problems of
research findings show shows the resilience of the human spirit. infrastructure.
A. positive contemporaneous Nothing faces more daunting odds than (4) will continue to struggle in dealing
relationship between trading the crucial area of infrastructure. India with problems of building the
volume and volatility. is the fifth-largest rail network under a required infrastructure.
B. Reliance Power confirms the single management, and a civil aviation
general trend. market that will touch 100 million Passage III
C. information is not disseminated passengers by next year. It also has the Power and possession have been central
instantaneously in the stock third-largest number of telephone pursuits of modern civilisation for a long
market. subscribers the world over. Yet the Indian time. They blocked out or distorted other
(1) A, B and C (2) A and C infrastructure story is usually one of features of the western renaissance
(3) A and B (4) B and C shor tages, blockages and leakages. (revival) which promised so much for
2. It can be inferred from the passage Whether it is energ y or urban humanity. But people have been and are
that infrastructure, roads or ports, India has still being ‘taught to prize are money,
(1) the trading volume does not unfortunately rarely been known for its success, control over the lives of other,
efficiency. There have been a few whining acquisition of more and more objects’.
depend on the past returns.
examples that have been written about Modern social, political, and economic
(2) the trading volume largely but there are other lesser known but equally systems, whether capitalist, fascist or
depends on the past returns. important for the role they have played communist, reject in their working the
(3) the trading volume has no positive in the infrastructure arena. There are basic principle that the free and creative
correlation with volatility. challenges, of course, and we have picked unfoldment of every man, woman and
(4) the trading volume depends on an array of experts to address them. child is the true measure of the worth of
the variance decomposition. Infrastructure, as everyone knows, will be any society. Such unfoldment requires
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 177
understanding and imagination, integrity had to be recorded. It was often because they want to be, not because
and compassion, cooperation among necessary to communicate with persons they have to be. Materially, too, trust
people and harmony between the human who were some distance away and it was based on morality provides great
species and the rest of nature. necessary to protect one’s property by advantages. It allows us to join in great
Acquisitiveness and the pursuit of power making tools, cattle and so on, in some and exciting enterprises that we could
have made the modern man an aggressor distinctive manner. So man taught never undertake if we relied on
against everything that is non-human, and himself to write and having learned to economic incentives alone. Economists
exploiter and oppressor of those who are write purely for utilitarian reasons he tell us that trust is enforced in the market
poor, meek and unorganised, a used this new method for preserving his place through retaliation of reputation.
pathological type which hates and distrusts war songs and his prayers. Of course, If you violate a trust, your victim is apt
the world and suffers from both acute among these ancient people, there were to seek revenge and others are likely to
loneliness and false pride. The need for only a very few individuals who learned stop doing business with you, at least
a new renaissance is deeply felt by those to write, and only a few could read what under favourable terms. A man or
sensitive and conscientious men and was written. woman with a reputation for fair dealing
women who not only perceive the 13. As for the war songs and prayers, will prosper. Therefore, profit maximisers
dimensions of the crisis of our age, but each generation are honest. This sounds plausible enough
who also realise that only through (1) added something of its own to until you look for concrete examples.
conscious and cooperative human effort the stock. Cases that apparently demonstrate the
may this crisis be met and probably even (2) blindly repeated the songs and awful consequences of trust turn out to
overcome. prayers. be few and weak, while evidence that
9. The author appears to be advocating (3) composed its own songs and treachery can pay seems compelling.
which of the following approaches to prayers. 17. What did the author find out about
be adopted by the society? (4) repeated what has been handed the theory that honesty is the best policy ?
(1) Capitalistic down to it. (1) It is a useless theory.
(2) Communist 14. The first war-song (2) It is correct on many occasions.
(3) Humanistic (1) was inspired by God. (3) It is correct for all businessmen.
(4) Authoritarian (2) developed spontaneously. (4) It is correct only occasionally.
10. Which of the following best (3) was a song traditionally handed 18. What do economists and ethicists
describes the behaviour of modern down. want us to believe ?
man ? (4) was composed by leading dancers. (1) Businessmen are honest only at
(1) Imaginative and sympathetic. 15. The war song evolved out of times.
(2) Cruel and greedy. (1) creative inspiration. (2) Businessmen should be honest at
(3) Conscientious and cooperative. (2) literature. all times.
(4) Perceptive and creative. (3) artistic urge. (3) Businessmen cannot be honest at
11. The author hopes that the present (4) yelling and shouting. all times.
crisis can be solved by 16. Man invented writing because he (4) Businessmen turn dishonest at
(1) devoted individual efforts. wanted to times.
(2) different political systems. (1) be artistic. 19. Which of the following is false
(3) collective human efforts. (2) write war song. according to the passage ?
(4) spiritually developed individuals. (3) write literature. (1) People are generally honest
12. Which of the following is most (4) record and communicate. because it pays in the long run.
opposite in meaning to the word ‘central’ (2) Virtuous behaviour earns the self
as used in the passage ? Passage V respect of others.
(1) Lateral Economists, ethicists and business (3) Economists believe that all
(2) Indadequate sages persuade us that honesty is the best businessmen are dishonest.
(3) Peripheral policy, but their evidence is weak. We (4) Generally people are honest to
(4) Major hoped to find data that would support earn self-respect.
their theories and thus, perhaps 20. Why do businessmen, according
Passage IV encourage higher standards of business to economists, remain honest because,
The history of literature really began behaviour. To our suprise, our pet dishonest businessmen
long before man learned to write. theories failed to stand up. Treachery, we (1) are flogged in the market place.
Dancing was the earliest of the arts. Man found, can pay. There is no compelling (2) are always prosecuted.
danced for joy round his primitive camp economic reason to tell the truth or keep (3) can make more money.
fire after the defeat and slaughter of his one’s word punishment for the (4) cannot stay in business for long.
treacherous in the real world is neither
enemy. He yelled and shouted as he swift nor sure. Honesty is, in fact, 21. Find the sum of the cubes of first
danced and gradually the yells and shouts primarily a moral choice. Business people 10 natural numbers.
became coherent and caught the measure do tell themselves that, in the long run, (1) 3010 (2) 3040
of the dance and thus the first war song they will do well by doing good. But (3) 3025 (4) 3020
was sung. As the idea of God, developed there is little factual or logical basis for 22. Three natural numbers are in the
prayers were framed. The songs and this conviction. Without values, without ratio 2 : 3 : 4. If the sum of squares of
prayers became traditional and were a basic preference for right over wrong, these numbers is 116, then determine
repeated from one generation to another, trust based on such self-delusion would the numbers.
each generation adding something of its crumble in the face of temptation. Most (1) 2, 3, 4 (2) 4, 6, 8
own. As man slowly grew more civilised, of us choose virtue because we want to (3) 6, 9, 12 (4) 8, 12, 16
he was compelled to invent some method believe in ourselves and have others’ 23. HCF of 150 and 210 is 30, then
of writing by three urgent necessities. respect and belief in us. And for this, the HCF of 210 and 360 will be
There were certain things that it was we should be happy. We can be proud (1) 60 (2) 30
dangerous to forget and which, therefore, of a system in which people are honest (3) 90 (4) 70
178 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
24. If a piece of rod is 3000 m and 1 now takes half an hour longer. If the
we have to supply some lamp posts. One (2) 26 % cistern is full how long would the leak
post is at each end and distance between 3 empty the cistern ?
two consecutive lamp posts is 75 m. Find 4 (1) 28 h (2) 29 h (3) 30 h (4) 31 h
the number of posts required. (3) 28 % 40. The fourth proportional to 5, 6
7
(1) 41 (2) 39 and 150, is
(3) 40 (4) 36 2 (1) 30 (2) 125 (3) 180 (4) 120
(4) 26 %
25. The numerator of the fraction which 3 41. If a : b = 5 : 9, b : c = 6 : 11, find
15 31. The entry fee for a musical concert a : b : c.
is equivalent to with denominator 7, is was Re. 1, later it was reduced by 20% (1) 11 : 18 : 33 (2) 10 : 19 : 34
35 which increased the net collection of the (3) 11 : 19 : 34 (4) 10 : 18 : 33
(1) 5 (2) 3 amount by 40%. The increase in the 42. If all the members of a team are
(3) 7 (4) 9 number of visitors is juniors or seniors and if the ratio of
1 juniors to seniors in the team is 3 : 5,
26. Naina gave piece of cake to 1 1 what percent of the team members
2 (1) 72 % (2) 74 %
3 3 constitute the seniors ?
1 1 (1) 37.5% (2) 62.5%
Neha and piece of cake to Gunjan. (3) 75% (4) 76 % (3) 65.2% (4) 35.7%
3 3 43. A man is walking at a speed of 10
Find what part of cake she has ? 32. If P is ‘a’% more than Q and Q km/h. After every kilometre, he takes
1 5 is ‘b’% less than P, then rest for 5 min. How much time will he
(1) (2) (1) 1/a – 1/b = 100 take to cover a distance of 5 km ?
6 6
(2) 1/a – 1/b = 1/100 (1) 20 min (2) 30 min
1 2 (3) 1/a + 1/b = 100 (3) 40 min (4) 50 min
(3) (4) (4) 1/b – 1/a = 1/100
3 3 1
33. On what sum of money lent out at 9% 44. A man can row 9 km / h in still
1 per annum simple interest for 6 years does 2
27. Jaidev takes 2 minutes to walk the simple interest amount to Rs. 810 ? water. If in a river which is running at
5
across the school ground. Rahul takes (1) Rs. 1500 (2) Rs. 1000 1
2 km / h , it takes him 1 h 35 min to
7 (3) Rs. 1200 (4) Rs. 1800 2
minutes to do the same. Who takes 34. Two equal sums of money were row to a place and back, how far off is
4 lent at simple interest at 10% per annum the place ?
less time and by what fraction ? for 4 yrs and 5 yrs respectively. If the (1) 8.6 km (2) 8 km
9 difference in interests for two periods (3) 8.4 km (4) 7 km
(1) Rahul , was Rs. 220, then each sum is 45. A train 150 m long is running at
20 (1) Rs. 880 (2) Rs. 1100 40 km/h. In what time will it pass a
9 (3) Rs. 2200 (4) Rs. 1640 man running at 4 km/h in the same
(2) Jaidev , 35. A sum of money amounts to direction in which the train is going ?
20
Rs. 6272 in 2 yrs and Rs. 7024.64 in 3 (1) 16 sec (2) 12 sec
3 yrs. The rate of interest per annum is (3) 15 sec (4) 18 sec
(3) Rahul ,
10 (1) 8% per annum 46. The value of
(2) 12% per annum ª 1
4 1
2º
3
(4) Jaidev , (3) 6% per annum tan «cos tan is
10 (4) 10% per annum ¬ 5 3 »¼
1 36. Effective annual rate of interest, 6 7
28. If 0.2689, then corresponding to a nominal rate of 4% (1) (2)
3.718 per annum payable half-yearly is 17 16
1 (1) 4.04% per annum 17
? (2) 4.15% per annum (3) (4) None of these
0.0003718 (3) 4.18 per annum 6
(1) 0.2689 (2) 2.689 (4) 4.10% per annum 1 .5
(3) 2689 (4) 26890
³[ x
2
37. A and B can do a piece of work 47. ] dx is equal to
29. A number x is short of y by 40%. in 12 days, B and C can do it in 15 days
By what percent is y in excess of x ? 0
and C and A can do the same work in
1 20 days. Find the number of days in (1) 2 2 (2) 2 2
(1) 33 % which A alone can do the same work. (3) 0 (4) None of these
3 (1) 20 days (2) 30 days 48. What must be the side of an
1 (3) 45 days (4) 60 days equilateral triangle so that its area may
(2) 66 % 38. A supplies 20 men who work for be equal that of a square of which the
3
8 h a day for 6 days. B supplies 15 men diagonal is 15 metre ?
2 working at 9 h a day for 7 days and C (1) 16.11 m (2) 18 m
(3) 66 %
3 supplies 10 men working 6 h a day for (3) 21.11 m (4) 10.22 m
8 days to do a certain work. If Rs. 636 49. The angle of elevation of the top
1 is paid for all the men, what is C’s share ? of a tower 30 m high, from two points
(4) 33 %
6 (1) Rs. 128 (2) Rs. 136 on the level ground on its opposite sides
30. A’s income is 40% more than B’s (3) Rs. 148 (4) Rs. 154 are 45° and 60°. What is the distance
income. How much percent is B’s income 39. There is a leak in the bottom of between the two points ?
less than A’s ? a cistern. When the cistern is in through (1) 47.32 m
2 1 (2) 55.32 m
(1) 28 % repair, it would be filled in 3 h . It (3) 40.21 m
7 2 (4) None of these
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 179
50. From the vertex of an obtuse 59. Pointing towards a boy Veena said 67.
angle, perpendiculars are drawn to the “He is the son of only son of my Figures :
arms of the angle. If the angle between grandfather”. How is that boy related to
the above perpendiculars is 35°, then Veena ?
what is the measure of the obtuse angle ? (1) Uncle (2) Brother
(1) 145° (2) 135° (3) Cousin (4) Data inadequate
(3) 160° (4) 165° Answer Figures :
60. Kamal told Vimal, ‘Yesterday I
Directions (Qs. 51 & 52) : Read the defeated the only brother of the
following information to answer these daughter of my grandmother.” Whom
questions. did Kamal defeat ?
Eight friends A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H (1) Father (2) Son (1) (2) (3) (4)
are sitting in a circle facing the centre. B is (3) Brother (4) Father-in-law Directions (Qs. 68 to 73) : Each
sitting between G and D. H is third to the Directions (Qs. 61 & 62) : From
left of B and second to the right of A. C question consists of a problem
amongst the given figures (1) to (4), followed by two statements numbered
is sitting between A and G and B & E are choose the figure that represents the
not sitting opposite to each other. as I and II. Decide whether the data
relationship among the three given in the statements are sufficient to
51. Who is third to the left of D ? classes in these questions.
(1) F (2) E answer the question. Mark answer as-
(3) A (4) None of these (1) if statement I alone is
52. Which of the following statements (1) (2) sufficient, but statement II
is not correct ? alone is not sufficient to answer
(1) D and A are sitting opposite to the question.
each other (2) if statement II alone is
(2) C is third to the right of D (3) (4) sufficient, but statement I alone
(3) E is sitting between F and D is not sufficient to answer the
(4) A is sitting between C and F 61. India, Lucknow, USA question.
Directions (Qs. 53 & 54) : Study (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) if both statements taken
the sequence and replace the “?” 62. Batsmen, Bowlers, All-rounders together are sufficient to
mark from the given alternatives. (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 answer the question, but
53. 2, 3, 4, 9, 3, 4, 5, 12, 4, 5, 6, 15, Directions (Qs. 63 & 64) : In each neither statement alone is
5, “?”, 7, 18 of these questions, two pairs of sufficient.
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 9 numbers are given but one number (4) if statements I and II together
54. ab “?”d “?”bc “?”a “?”c “?”ab “?”d in the second pair is missing. Identify
(1) cadbdc (2) cabbcd ar e not sufficient, and
the relationship between the two additional data is needed to
(3) abbcdd (4) caddbc numbers in the first pair and find the
Directions (Qs. 55 & 56) : Numbers answer the question.
missing number in the second pair 68. How many ewes (female sheep) in
in the following figures follow a such that the numbers in second pair
certain arrangement. What will come also follow the same relationship. a flock of 50 sheep are black ?
in place of ‘?’ from the given 63. 130 : 5 : : 1010 : ? I. There are 10 rams (male sheep)
alternatives. (1) 100 (2) 1 in the flock.
55. (3) 10 (4) 1000 II. Forty percent of the animals are
64. 16 : 240 : : 11 : ? black.
(1) 100 (2) 90 (3) 110 (4) 80 69. If a and b are both positive, what
Directions (Qs. 65 to 67) : Complete percent of b is a ?
the given series of figures by I. a = 3/11
(1) 24 (2) 25 replacing ‘?’ from the answer figures. II. b/a = 20
(3) 28 (4) 20 65. 70. What is the ratio of male to female
Figures : officers in the police force in town T ?
56. I. The number of female officers is
250 less than half the number of
male officers.
Answer Figures : II. The number of female officers is
(1) 12 (2) 18 1/7 the number of male officers.
(3) 9 (4) 3 71. What is the value of n ?
57. Asha walks 3 km Southward and I. 3n + 2m = 18
then turns right and walks 2 km. She again II. n – m = 2n – (4 + m)
turns right and walks 3 km and turns (1) (2) (3) (4) 72. If x and y are both positive
towards her left and starts walking straight. integers, how much greater is x than y ?
In which direction is she walking now ? 66.
I. x + y = 20
(1) East (2) North Figures : II. x = y2
(3) South (4) West 73. Is w an integer ?
58. Madhuri travels 14 km Westwards I. 3w is an odd number.
and then turns left and travels 6 km and II. 2w is an even number.
further turns left and travels 26 km. How Answer Figures : Directions (Qs. 74 & 75) : Each of
far is Madhuri now from the starting these questions consists of a
point ? statement followed by two arguments
(1) 180 km (2) 80 km numbered as I and II. Decide which
of the arguments is ‘strong’ or ‘not
(3) 100 km (4) None of these (1) (2) (3) (4) strong’ from the statement.
180 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
Mark answer as – 83. World’s largest roller coaster (1) Sanjana Vij
(1) if only argument I is strong. named ‘Ferrari World’ is located in (2) Sini Shetty
(2) if only argument II is strong. (1) Tokyo (2) Abu Dhabi (3) Rubal Shekhawat
(3) if neither argument I nor II is (3) Mumbai (4) Beijing (4) Shinata Chauhan
strong. 84. Neeraj Chopra has won the 95. FDI stands for
(4) if both arguments I and II are historic gold medal in which athletic (1) Fashion Directorate of India
strong. event in Tokyo Olympics 2020 ? (2) Foreign Direct Investment
74. Statement : (1) High jump (3) Fashion Designer’s Initiative
Should school education be made (2) Javelin throw (4) Foreign Directory of Industries
free in India ? (3) Long jump 96. The international awards given by the
Arguments : (4) Hammer throw Academy of Motion Picture Arts and
I. Yes, this is the only way to 85. Who won the reality TV show Sciences, California (USA) for excellence in
improve the level of literacy. “Bigg Boss Season 15” in January 2022 the field of cinema are popularly known as
II. No, it will add to the already hosted by actor Salman Khan ? (1) IIFA Awards
heavy burden on the exchequer. (1) Sana Khan (2) Oscar Awards
75. Statement : (2) Dipika Kakar (3) BAFTA Awards
Should there be complete ban on (3) Tejasswi Prakash (4) Grammy Awards
manufacture of fire-crackers in (4) Niketan Madhok 97. The largest continent in terms of
India ? 86. ‘Canterbury’, the premium Indian area is
Arguments : brand of woollen cardigans and (1) Asia (2) Africa
I. No, this will make thousands of pullovers, is from the house of (3) Australia (4) North America
workers jobless. (1) Monte-Carlo. (2) Woodland. 98. The space agency NASA belongs to
II. Yes, the fire-cracker manufact- (3) Digjam. (4) OCM. (1) Germany (2) USA
urers use child labour to a large 87. Which state has the traditional (3) Russia (4) France
extent. dress of men known as “Sola or Fotua” 99. The basic function of technology
76. Photo Video Asia 2022 event was and “Eri-Chaddar” ? ‘Blue tooth’ is to allow
organised during August 2022 at (1) Assam (2) Tripura (1) landline phone to mobile phone
(1) Kolkata. (3) Nagaland (4) Meghalaya communication.
(2) Chennai. 88. Which one of the following (2) signal transmission on mobile
(3) Delhi. cosmetic companies has launched Color phones only.
(4) Mumbai. Riche Nail Collection “Le nail Art” ? (3) satellite television communication.
77. Who is the brand ambassador of (1) Lakme (2) L’Oreal (4) wireless communication between
Dollar Club Vests in India ? (3) Garnier (4) Clinique equipment.
(1) Shah Rukh Khan 89. The ‘more mega store’ retail chain 100. Which among the following is the
(2) Akshay Kumar belongs to which Indian Industry ? source of a non-conventional energy ?
(3) Abhishek Bachachan (1) Reliance Industry (1) Solar Power
(4) M.S. Dhoni (2) Bharti Enterprises (2) Coal
78. Which are the rivers that originate (3) Aditya Birla Group (3) Uranium
from the Mansarovar region ? (4) None of these (4) Petroleum
(1) Narmada, Tapti, Beas 90. The ICC Cricket World Cup 2023 Directions (Qs. 101 to 104) : Each
(2) Indus, Sutlej, Brahmaputra is scheduled to be held in of these questions consists of two
(3) Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery (1) India statements followed by two
(4) Ganges, Yamuna, Hooghly (2) South Africa conclusions I and II respectively.
79. Where are the headquarters of the (3) Sri Lanka Decide which of the conclusions
International Olympic Committee (4) Australia follows from the statements.
located ? Mark answer as –
(1) Italy (2) Switzerland 91. ‘Van Heusen’ is a leading
International brand of (1) if only conclusion I follows
(3) Belgium (4) France (2) if only conclusion II follows
80. What is common about famous (1) formal wear.
(2) fashion accessories. (3) if neither conclusion I nor II
personalities Manish Malhotra, J J Valya follows
and Rohit Bal ? (3) jewellery.
(4) None of these (4) if both conclusions I and II
(1) Male Modelling follow
(2) Film Direction 92. ‘Sonata’, ‘Ajanta’ and ‘Maxima’ are
101. Statements :
(3) Novel Writing the well known Indian brands of
I. All jungles are tigers.
(4) Fashion Designing (1) jewellery. II. Some tigers are horses.
81. Which Indian State is the leading (2) watches. Conclusions :
Cotton producer ? (3) cosmetics. I. Some tigers are jungles.
(1) Gujarat (4) home furnishing. II. All horses are jungles.
(2) Maharashtra 93. Lionel Messi, the winner of FIFA 102. Statements :
(3) Andhra Pradesh World Cup 2022 Golden Ball for best I. All birds are tall.
(4) Madhya Pradesh player belongs to II. Some tall are hens.
82. Mahindra & Mahindra has (1) Brazil (2) Spain Conclusions :
acquired the manufacturing of ____ by (3) Portugal (4) Argentina I. Some tall are hens.
naming its next generation electric car 94. Who has been crowned ‘Miss II. Some hens are tall.
as the Mahindra e2o that is ‘E-too-oh’. India’ at the 2022 edition of the Femina 103. Statements :
(1) Reva (2) Punto Miss India beauty contest held in July I. All artists are smokers.
(3) Nano (4) Bolero 2022 ? II. Some smokers are drinkers.
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 181
Conclusions : passage, which fundamentally 109. The new four-year programme
I. Some smokers are artists. affects and/or determines the will align with international degree
II. Some drinkers are not smokers. decision. programme.
104. Statements : (3) if the statement is a Minor 110. Humanities and science students
I. Some hens are cows. Factor in making the decision : fall short of the requirement of sixteen
II. All cows are horses. a less impor tant element years of formal education.
Conclusions : bearing on or affecting a Major 111. Students will get enough
I. Some horses are hens. Factor, rather than a Major opportunities to pursue courses of their
II. Some hens are horses. Objective directly. abilities and interests.
Directions (Qs. 105 to 108) : The (4) if the statement is a Major 112. Students can apply abroad for
questions given below have a statement Assumption in making the post graduate courses.
followed by two assumptions I and II. decision : a projection or 113. Delhi University (DU) is the
Decide which of the assumptions is supposition arrived at by the largest university in the country.
implicit from the statement. decision makerbefore considering
Mark answer as – the factor and alternative. Passage - II
(1) if only assumption I is implicit Over half of the total number of
(2) if only assumption II is implicit Passage - I malls in the Delhi National Capital
(3) if neither assumption I nor II The Delhi University’s (DU) decision Region (NCR) are vacant due to reasons
is implicit to convert its three-year undergraduate like economic and lack of robust revenue
(4) if both assumptions I and II are (UG) programmes into four years with generation model, according to a survey
implicit multiple exit points and greater freedom conducted by the Associated Chambers
105. Statement : for students to pick their subjects is an of Commerce and Industry of India
‘Invest in our regular scheme and excellent step. Unlike the top universities (Assocham). The total rate of vacancy
earn an interest of at least 10%’. in the US, Britain and in other developed in malls in Delhi NCR is 55% while in
Advertisement by a financial nations, most Indian universities continue Mumbai it is 52% followed by
institution. to thrust a mandatory course structrue Ahmedabad - 51%, Chennai - 50%,
Assumptions : down the throats of students, giving them Hyderabad - 48% and Bangalore - 45%.
I. 10% interest may attract a good little opportunity to figure out where their The survey further said that construction
number of investors. real interests and abilities lie. At present, of several malls has significantly been
II. No other scheme offers interest as if a student wants to change her stream, delayed and withdrawn due to lukewarm
high as 10%. she will have to drop a year and apply response from retailers. Vacancy levels
106. Statement : afresh. In the new scheme of things, are due to poor location, poor design
‘For easier and faster multiple exit points will allow students to and poor parking facilities while some
communication, use our broadcast leave the course after three years and are operating at 60% occupancy. The
connections’. An advertisement. come back later to continue it. The new industry is also facing problems like
Assumptions : four-year programme will align with multiple taxes, lack of clarity in policies
I. Many people are looking up for international degree programmes, making and shortage of experts in areas such as
the best communication facilities. it easier for students to apply abroad for supply chain and store management.
II. Broadband connections are the post-graduate (PG) courses. Only India’s Biggest shopping mall can feel like a
preferred modes of professional education schools that teach pretty lonely place. Majority of retailers
communications. engineering, architecture, law and medicine said that they are holding back on new
107. Statement : have internationally aligned course store openings and focusing on existing
‘You must refer to learn to structures. At present, Humanities and stores. The sharpest decline in mall rental
dictionary, if you want to become Science students can’t go to the US to values is also recorded high in Delhi-
a good writer’, A advises B. study after they finish their three-year UG NCR followed by Mumbai, Ahmedabad,
Assumptions : programmes because they fall short of Chennai, Hyderabad, Bangalore, Kolkata
I. Only writers refer to the dictionary. the requirement of 16 years (10 + 2 + and Pune. Most of the shop owners who
II. All writers, good or bad, refer to 4) of formal education that American participated in the survey said that
the dictionary. varsities want. Earlier in the year, DU increasing rents will not work because at
108. Statement : launched meta-university, which gives the end of the day, it has to be affordable
A advises B, ‘If you want to study students from one varsity the chance to for retailers to do business. There are
English, join Institute Y.’ study in another varsity. These two about 1,200 shopping malls in the
Assumptions : reforms—coupled with the shift to a country. Due to high rent and lack of
I. B listens to A’s advice. semester system—indicate that proper infrastructrue for luxury retailing,
II. Institute Y provides good coaching administrators and policy-makers are now many international brands are opting for
for English. willing to move forward. That DU is at online retailing.
Directions (Qs. 109 to 118) : Each the forefront of these reforms is a welcome 114. The designing of malls is poor.
of these questions has a statement sign because it is the country’s largest 115. The industry is facing problems
based on the preceding passage. university (in terms of numbers of fulltime like multiple taxes, lack of clarity in
Evaluate each statement and mark students) and has historically shown the policies and shortage of exports.
answer as – way to India’s higher education system. 116. The biggest shopping mall feels
(1) if the statement is a Major But such changes can be introduced and like a lonely place.
Objective in making the sustained only with the support of all 117. Business in malls should be
decision : one of the goals stakeholders. As the fracas between the affordable to the retailers.
sought by the decision maker. last DU vice-chancellor and his faculty 118. Rents are high and there is a lack
(2) if the statement is a Major over the semester system showed, the of infrastructrue for luxury retailing.
Factor in making the decision absence of discussions with teachers, Directions (Qs. 119 to 121) : Read
: an aspect of the problem, students and independent academicians the following situation to answer
specifically mentioned in the can make the reform process painful. these questions.
182 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
Situation four possible conclusions which can be 128. The country’s resources should
Urban areas in India are extremely drawn from the facts stated in the be judiciously used.
dirty and the conditions are deteriorating situation. You have to examine each (1) sparingly (2) reasonably
day by day. Big heaps and mounds of conclusion separately in the context of (3) inadequately (4) immensely
piled garbage can be seen not only the situation and decide upon its degree Directions (Qs. 129 to 131) : Choose
around slums, but also around busy of truth or falsity. the word which is opposite in
market places, where transactions in Mark answer as – meaning of the underlined word in
millions take place. Public health is the (1) if conclusion is definitely true the sentence.
immediate sufferer and during the spread (2) if conclusion is probably true 129. He has a delicate constitution.
of any epidemic, lives of people are at (3) if information given in passage (1) fit (2) ungainly
the risk. The problems can be overcome is inadequate to provide the (3) strong (4) rugged
by adopting an alternate method of New answer 130. His appointment was confirmed
Public Management (NPM). According (4) if conclusion is definitely false last month.
to a survey, a traditional bureau chief ‘Indian rice exporters might face tough (1) disappointment
carries out garbage at present with competition in the International market’, (2) discharge
battalions of sweepers and fleets of allege the exporters. International (3) suspension
trucks. So, much of time is spent in demand for Indian rice surfaced, either (4) dismissal
handling inputs to the workers. NPM is due to its low prices or due to the crop 131. It used to be said that travel
the new technique of extension of failure in other competitive countries. broadens one’s outlook.
market principles to public However, our competitors are having a (1) restricts (2) contracts
administration. It includes giving good crop of rice this year and which (3) shrinks (4) narrows
contracts of services to the private indeed sounds as a threat for India, they Directions (Qs. 132 to 135) : Choose
sectors, which could include cooperatives pointed out. The leading producing the option that is the plural form of
of former municipal employees. By this countries like Thailand, Vietnam, the given word.
method, the bureau chief can supervise Myanmar, USA and Pakistan are bringing 132. Anomaly
the output of his bureau, instead of down their prices at par with Indian (1) anomalys (2) anomaly’s
focusing on inputs. This is the need of prices. Internationally, these countries (3) anomalice (4) anomalies
the hour as we need clean towns to have reduced price by $50 per tonne in 133. Louse
ensure hygienic atmosphere. lower grades, coming almost at par with (1) lice (2) louses
119. What would the for mer Indian prices. Indian rice currently (3) louse’s (4) lousies
employees of municipal corporations do, quoting price between $260 and $265 134. Mouse
if New Public Management is per tonne. However, in high grade the (1) mice (2) mouses
implemented ? difference still remains high. Therefore, (3) mousse (4) mouse
(1) Supervise the outputs of the India can expect to be competitive in 135. Syllabus
bureau. high grades provided the quality and (1) sylabus (2) syllabi
(2) Become jobless as the contracts deliveries are ensured in time. Pakistan (3) syllabus’ (4) sylabuses
will be in the hands of private is our main competitor and it has Directions (Qs. 136 to 139) : In each
sector and hence they will form reduced its price by 15 percent coming of these questions, choose the option
unions and goon strikes. almost in line with the Indian prices. The which can be substituted for the given
(3) Form co-operatives and start very fact that international producers words.
delivering the same services they have started to reduce their price is a 136. To examine one’s thoughts and
have been rendering. signal for Indian exporters to gear up feelings
(4) Be paid more due to increase in for 2021-22. (1) Meditation (2) Retrospection
efficiency and adaptability. 122. Indian rice exporters have no (3) Reflection (4) Introspection
120. What can be inferred from the potential threat in the International 137. A song embodying religious and
given situation ? market for exporting rice. sacred emotions
(1) Poverty is also responsible for 123. Quality and delivery of goods in (1) Lyric (2) Ode
epidemics break out. time are the two main components for (3) Hymn (4) Ballad
(2) Dirty surroundings not always being in the forefront. 138. List of headings of the business
reflect poverty. 124. To remain in the International to be transacted at a meeting
(3) Lives of the poor people are at a market, India should reduce its price. (1) Schedule (2) Agenda
greater risk. 125. Indian crops were inferior in (3) Proceedings (4) Excerpts
(4) Poverty is an indication of dirty quality to those of the leading rice- 139. To confine within walls
surroundings. producing countries. (1) Immure (2) Immune
121. What is the advantage of New Directions (Qs. 126 to 128) : Choose (3) Immolate (4) Immigrant
Public Management over traditional the word which best expresses the Directions (Qs. 140 to 147) : Fill in
system ? meaning of the underlined word in the blanks.
(1) The bureau chief can devote the sentence. 140. The main road neatly ______ the
more time and attention to the 126. The number of aboriginal town and offers a panoramic of all its
result of the work undertaken. inhabitants in Australia is considerable. delights, ranging from nature parks to
(2) The New Public Management is (1) primitive (2) ancient an amusement centre, a nine hole golf
more efficient and economical (3) unoriginal (4) irrational course to mountain resorts and a/an
than the traditional system. 127. The American policy did much _____ of shopping and dining options
(3) The New Public Management will to escalate the conflict. for your family.
ensure cleaner cities and towns. (1) spread in a wider area (1) bisects, plethora
(4) None of these. (2) scale up (2) cuts, range
Directions (Qs. 122 to 125) : A business (3) reduce in intensity (3) divides, diversity
situation is given below followed by (4) put an end to (4) demarcates, excess
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 183
141. I have seen many people go (1) Maelstrom (2) Megilp 40 200 4
through a lifetime of anger, _____ at (3) Senate house (4) Magistral u 100 28 %
the rottenness of our society, at the 150. Very high-spirited; full of 100 7 7
inefficiency of our infrastructure, the cheerfulness or enthusiasm. 31. (3) : Let the number of visitors
_____ things they are not capable of (1) Eccentric (2) Eburnean be x.
doing. (3) Sporting (4) Ebullient Total collection = Rs. x
(1) exploding, callous Reduced entry fee = 0.8
(2) raving, cruel ANSWERS Net collection = 1.4x
(3) shouting, mean 1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4. (1) Number of visitors
(4) ranting, unhappy 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (2) 8. (4) 1.4 x 7
142. The differentiated entitlements 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (1) x
could be _______ to those who are 0.8 4
13. (1) 14. (2) 15. (4) 16. (4) Increase in number of
economically or physically _____ .
(1) confined, underprivileged 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (4)
21. (3) : 13 + 23 + 33 + .......... + 103 3
(2) concerning, lesser than visitors x 75%
4
¦ ¦
(3) capsuled, privileged 2
But n3 n
(4) restricted, handicapped a
143. Should it enable every child, Here n = 10 32. (4) : P Q Q
100
woman and man to have an _____ for 10 u 11
a healthy and productive life or just have
______ to the calories required for
¦ n
2
55
Q P
b
P
100
existence.
(1) interest, view
¦ n 3 55 2 3025 a b § a ·
22. (2) : Let the numbers be 2x, 3x Q Q 100 Q 100 ¨© Q 100 Q¸¹
(2) opportunity, access
(3) occasion, sight and 4x respectively.
a b § a ·
(4) end, reach 4 x 2 9x 2 16x 2 116 100 100 ¨ 1 100 ¸ 0
144. To ensure food security for all, we © ¹
116
should be clear about the definition of the x2 4 x 2 a b ab
problem, the precise index of _____ 29 0
impact and the road map to ____ the goal. The numbers are 4, 6 and 8 100 100 100 u 100
(1) gauging, promote 23. (2) a b ab
(2) measuring, achieve
3000 100 100 100 u 100
(3) counting, reach 24. (1) : 1 41
(4) checking, scale 75 1 1 1
145. We _____ to inform you that we
15 3 b a 100
cannot include your thesis in our library, 25. (2) : 33. (1) : Required sum of money
on the ____ of not receiving permission 35 7
from your supervisor. 26. (1) : Part of the cake Naina had 810 u 100
(1) saddened, reason § 1 1· = = Rs. 1500
1¨ ¸ 9u6
(2) lament, pretext © 2 3¹ 34. (3) : Rs. 220 (the difference) is the
(3) repent, justification interest on the sum for one
(4) regret, grounds 5 1
1 year,
146. When her illness took a turn for 6 6
the worse, the doctors took _____ to 27. (1) : Time taken by Jaidev 220 u 100
Sum Rs. 2200
_____ the situation.
11 10 u 1
(1) steps, ameliorate minute 35. (2) : Interest in one year
(2) approaches, better 5 = 7024.64 – 6272
(3) modes, improve Time taken by Rahul = Rs. 752.64
(4) measures, enhance 7 Rate of interest
147. The public relations agency ____ minute
out all the stops to ensure a _____ 4 752.64 u 100
= 12%
attendance at the gala. Rahul takes less time and the 6272 u 1
(1) gave, phenomenal difference is 36. (1) :
(2) took, marvellous 37. (2) : (A + B)’s one day’s work
11 7 9
(3) pulled, spectacular minute 1
(4) forked, staggering 5 4 20 =
Directions (Qs. 148 to 150) : In each 28. (3) 12
of these questions, choose the option 29. (3) : Let y = 100 (B + C)’s one day’s work
which can be substituted for the given x = 60 1
words. y is in excess of x by =
148. To form a plot or scheme, 15
especially one to do something wrong 100 60 (C + A)’s one day’s work
u 100
or wicked, or designed to cause harm. 60 1
(1) Machinate (2) Conspire =
(3) Machete (4) Fatal 200 2 20
66 %
149. A place or state of uncontrollable 3 3 (A + B + C)’s one day’s work
confusion or destructive forces, especially 30. (3) : Let B’s income = Rs. 100
1§ 1 1 1 ·
one to which someone or something is A’s income = Rs. 140 = ¨ ¸
inevitably drawn. Required percentage 2 © 12 15 20 ¹
184 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
1 §54 3· 1 4 4
= ¨ ¸ 46. (3) : Let A cos or cos A Qs. 51 & 52 :
2 © 60 ¹ 5 5
1 2 2
1 12 1 and B = tan or tan B
= u 3 3
2 60 10
1 1
A’s one day’s work
10 15 51. (1) 52. (3) 53. (3) 54. (1)
32 1 55. (2) 56. (4)
= 57. (4) :
30 30
A can do the work in 30 days
38. (1) : Total hours worked by men tan A tan B
tan ( A B)
supplied by 1 tan A tan B
A o 20 u 8 u 6 960 hrs 3 2 17
B o 15 u 9 u 7 945 hrs 4 3 12 17
u2
C o 10 u 6 u 8 480 hrs 3 2 1 12
1 u 1
C’s share 4 3 2
480 17
u 636 Rs. 128 6
2385 58. (4) :
39. (1) : Let the leak takes x hours to 1 .5
³x
2
empty the cistern. 47. (4) : dx
2 1 1 0
1.5
7 x 4
x3 OA 6 2 12 2 150
2 1 1
3 59. (3) 60. (1)
7 4 x 0
1 61. (4) :
1 1 = 3.375 1.125
x 28 hours 3
28 x
40. (3) 48. (1) : If the side of the square is
x.
41. (4) : Only option 4 satisfies the
given conditions. 2 x 15 (Diagonal of the
square) 62. (3)
42. (2) : Required ratio
225 63. (3) : 130 o 5 3 5
5 2
= u 100 Area = x
2
sq. metre
1010 o 10 3 10
8
If the side of the triangle is ‘a’ 64. (3) : 240 o 16 2 16
125 1
= 62 %
2 2 225 3 2 110 o 112 11
43. (4) : In walking 5 km, the a 65. (1) : Two lines are deleted in each
2 4
man will take rest 4 times figure from left to right.
after every km. Total time 225 u 4 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (4) 69. (2)
taken a2 259.8 70. (2) 71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (2)
2 3
= 30 20 50 mts. a = 16.11 m 74. (1) 75. (4) 76. (3) 77. (2)
49. (1) : 78. (2) 79. (2) 80. (4) 81. (1)
44. (4) : Let the distance be S. 82. (1) 83. (2) 84. (2) 85. (3)
S S 35 86. (1) 87. (1) 88. (2) 89. (3)
1
1 1 1 1 60 90. (1) 91. (1) 92. (2) 93. (4)
9 2 9 2 94. (2) 95. (2) 96. (2) 97. (1)
2 2 2 2
98. (2) 99. (4) 100. (1) 101. (1)
S S 19 102. (2) 103. (1) 104. (4) 105. (1)
12 7 12 106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (2) 109. (1)
30 110. (2) 111. (1) 112. (3) 113. (4)
7 S 12 S 19 tan 45q 1 114. (1) 115. (2) 116. (3) 117. (4)
6A 118. (2) 119. (3) 120. (2) 121. (1)
84 12
OA = 30m 122. (4) 123. (1) 124. (3) 125. (4)
S = 7 km
45. (3) : Relative speed 30 126. (1) 127. (1) 128. (1) 129. (2)
tan 60q 3 130. (4) 131. (1) 132. (4) 133. (1)
= 40 – 4 = 36 km/hr OB
Distance = 150m 134. (1) 135. (2) 136. (4) 137. (3)
30 138. (2) 139. (1) 140. (1) 141. (3)
Time OB 17.32
3 142. (4) 143. (2) 144. (2) 145. (4)
150 u 3600 AB = 30 + 17.32 = 47.32m 146. (1) 147. (3) 148. (2) 149. (1)
15 seconds 150. (4)
36 u 1000 50. (1)
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 185
MOCK TEST
Q.1) With reference to 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, Q.6) With reference to the Globally Important Agriculture
1993, consider the following statements: Heritage Systems (GIAHS), consider the following
1. It created a three-tier system of Panchayats in all statements:
the states. 1. The World Food Programme recognises the
2. The Act provides the subjects on which the Gram Globally Important Agriculture Heritage Systems
Panchayats are allowed to levy taxes. (GIAHS) among different countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Traditional Agricultural System in Koraput and
a) 1 only Below Sea Level Farming System in Kuttanad,
b) 2 only are the only GIAHS-designated sites in India.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 1 only
Q.2) Consider the following statements with reference to b) 2 only
administration of Satavahanas: c) Both 1 and 2
1. Ahara was the lowest unit of administration. d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Gaulmika was the head of military regiment. Q.7) In the scenario where the Executive has majority in
3. Kataka was a military camp which served as an the State Legislature, which among the following is
administrative centre. not a discretionary power of the Governor of a State?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the
President.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) Recommendation for the imposition of the
b) 2 and 3 only President’s Rule in the state.
c) 2 only c) Seeking information from the Chief Minister with
d) 1, 2 and 3 regard to legislative matters of the state.
Q.3) Which of the following is incorrect in reference to d) The power to summon and dissolve the House
the Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) Scheme? of the State Legislature
a) EPF scheme is open to both government as well Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding Article
as private sector employees. 142 of the Constitution of India :
b) Interest on Employee’s contribution is exempt 1. It enables the Supreme Court and High Courts
from tax. to pass orders for doing complete justice.
c) Employers’ contribution to EPF is capped. 2. The Parliament cannot make any law to limit the
d) EPF interest rate is declared every year by the power of the Supreme Court to punish a person
EPFO. for the contempt of the court.
Q.4) It has been upgraded to National Park from Wildlife Which of the above statements are correct?
Sanctuary recently to protect the sanctity of area from a) 1 only b) 2 only
coal and oil mining exploration. It is also known as c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Jeypore forest having fauna like Malayan sun bear and
marbled cat. It is also referred as The Amazon of Q.9) Which among the following organisations publishes
East and is home to Asiatic Elephants. The national the Global Terrorism Index?
park mentioned here is: a) Human Rights Watch
a) Dehing Patkai National Park b) Economist Intelligence Unit
b) Dibru-Saikhowa National Park c) Institute for Economics & Peace
c) Nameri National Park d) United Nations Security Council
d) Orang National Park Q.10) Consider the following statements about Bharat QR code:
Q.5) This body can alter the boundary of constituencies 1. It is a single unified QR code capable of accepting
for the purpose of conduction of election. This is a payments from Visa, Master Card, RuPay Cards.
high-power body whose orders have the force of law. 2. It requires an upfront investment in form of
Its orders cannot be questioned in a court of law. Point of Sale (PoS) machine.
Which of the following institutions matches the 3. It has been developed by Reserve Bank of India.
description given above? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) Election Commission of India a) 1 only
b) State Election Commission b) 1 and 3 only
c) Delimitation Commission c) 2 and 3 only
d) The Parliament of India d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 187
MOCK TEST
Q.11) With reference to the Companies (Corporate Social Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Responsibility Policy) Amendment Rules, 2021, a) 1 and 2 only
consider the following: b) 2 and 3 only
1. CSR funds cannot be spent for creation or c) 3 only
acquisition of capital asset. d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Every entity undertaking CSR activities must Q.16) Consider the following statements about the right to
register itself with the Central Government. internet access in India:
3. All companies will have to prepare an impact 1. The freedom of speech and expression using the
assessment report for all CSR projects. Internet is a fundamental right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. Maharashtra had become the first state to declare
a) 1 and 3 only the access to Internet “a basic human right”.
b) 2 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) 2 and 3 only a) 1 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only
Q.12) With reference to the Odissi dance, consider the c) Both 1 and 2
following: d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Odhra Magadha can be identified as the earliest Q.17) Consider the following statements regarding postal
precursor of Odissi. voting in Indian elections:
2. The tribhanga and the chowk posture are some 1. An individual under preventive detention can vote
of the prominent features of Odissi dance. by postal ballot.
3. Mangalacharan, an offering to mother earth, is 2. Postal ballots are counted first on the counting
the opening item of the dance. day of an election.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 3. Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) were allowed to
vote through postal ballot for the first time in
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only 2019 general election.
c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q.13) Consider the following statements with respect to financial a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only
decentralisation during the British rule in India? c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Lord Ripon divided the sources of revenue in Q.18) Which of the following statements with reference to
three groups, Imperial, Provincial and Local. the African Continental Free Trade Area (AfCFTA) is
2. Provincial and Central budget got separated by correct?
the Government of India Act 1919. a) All members of the African Union are part of
3. Government of India Act 1935, had the provision the free trade area.
for Grants-in-aid to the provinces. b) This is the largest regional free trade agreement
Select the correct answer using the code given below: in terms of number of countries.
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only c) This is the only free trade area in the African
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 continent.
Q.14) Consider the following statements with reference to d) It has subsumed all the existing regional economic
the Plastics and Pollution caused by plastics: communities.
1. The Basel Convention aims to regulate the Q.19) Recently this beach has been accorded ‘Blue Flag’ tag
by Foundation for Environment Education (FEE) for
disposal of hazardous and other waste. having grey water treatment plants and solid waste
2. The United Nations Environment Programme management plants. It is situated in Karnataka and is
(UNEP) defines microplastics as plastic particles famous for the Dakkebali ritual held once in two years.
smaller than 5 millimetre. The beach mentioned here is:
3. Persistent organic pollutants can cause a rise in a) Rushikonda Beach
the distribution of algae linked to red tides. b) Radhanagar Beach
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? c) Kappad Beach
a) 1 and 3 only d) Padubidri Beach
b) 2 and 3 only Q.20) Consider the following statements regarding Labour
c) 2 only Code on wage.
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The new Code on Wages would extend coverage
Q.15) Which of the following statements regarding the to the entire Labour force.
moderate leader Gopal Krishna Gokhale is/are correct? 2. The term ‘Wage’ includes salary, allowance, bonus
1. He was given the title of ‘the leader of the or any travelling allowance payable to employees.
opposition’. Which of the following statements are correct?
2. He was influenced by the British philosopher a) 1 only
Edmund Burke. b) 2 only
3. He was a professor at the Fergusson College in c) Both 1 and 2
Pune. d) Neither 1 nor 2
188 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
MOCK TEST
Q.21) With reference to Global Geoparks, consider the Which of the following statements given above is/are
following statements: correct?
1. The United Nations Educational, Scientific and a) 1 and 2 only
Cultural Organization grants global geopark b) 2 and 3 only
status. c) 3 only
2. A Global Geopark status is given for a period of d) 1, 2 and 3
four years, subject to revaluation. Q.26) Regarding the Indian Universities Act, 1904, which of
3. Lonar Lake in Maharashtra and Malpe Beach in the following options is incorrect ?
Karnataka are Global Geoparks in India. a) It placed the Calcutta University under
Which of the following statements given above is/are governmental control.
correct? b) Government enjoyed powers to veto universities’
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 only senate regulations.
c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 c) It encouraged the affiliation of private colleges
Q.22) Consider the following statements about Genetic with the government universities.
Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC): d) Universities were asked to give more attention to
1. It functions in the Ministry of Environment, study and research.
Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). Q.27) Which of the following terms best describes the
2. It has been constituted under Environmental phenomenon where the economy of a country
Protection Act, 1986. contracts for a second consecutive quarter?
3. The Committee is chaired by the Minister of a) Slowdown
Environment, Forests and Climate Change. b) Technical recession
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
c) Depression
a) 1 and 3 only b) 1 and 2 only
d) Stagnation
c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.28) With reference to the Asia-Pacific Economic
Q.23) With reference to the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, Cooperation (APEC), consider the following
consider the following statements: statements:
1. Prior permission of the government is needed 1. Both Taiwan (Republic of China) and China
before closure be required for establishments with (People’s Republic of China) are members of
at least 300 workers. APEC.
2. Status of sole negotiating union will be given to
the union that has at least 51% of the employees 2. The headquarter is situated in Hong Kong.
as its members. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
3. The code restricts fixed term employment to a) 1 only
specific jobs. b) 2 only
4. The code allows women to be employed in all c) Both 1 and 2
types of establishments for all types of work. d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Q.29) Which of the following is incorrect in reference to
a) 1 and 2 only Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) announced in
b) 1, 2 and 4 only the Budget speech for FY2021-22?
c) 2, 3 and 4 only a) State-owned banks will transfer loans to ARC
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 without going through any price discovery
mechanism.
Q.24) With reference to the Anushilan Samiti, consider the
following statements: b) ARC will have an Asset Management Company
(AMC) to manage and sell bad assets.
1. Anushilan Samiti was associated with Subhas
Chandra Bose. c) There will be 51% Central Government equity in
the ARC.
2. Yugantar was published by its members.
d) ARC will help to clean balance sheet of banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q.30) With reference to river Tapi, consider the following
a) 1 only statements:
b) 2 only 1. It originates from Amarkantak plateau.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Purna and Panjhra are important tributaries of
d) Neither 1 nor 2 river Tapi.
Q.25) Consider the following statements with reference to 3. It flows through a rift valley.
Nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions: 4. It flows exclusively in Madhya Pradesh and
1. Nitrous oxide is more potent greenhouse gas as Gujarat.
compared to carbon dioxide. Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Agricultural soil is a major source of the nitrous
oxide emissions. a) 1 and 2 only
3. Nitrous oxide has the highest concentration b) 1, 2 and 4 only
among greenhouse gases responsible for global c) 2 and 3 only
warming. d) 2, 3 and 4 only
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 189
MOCK TEST
Q.31) Consider the following statements about African Swine Q.36) Consider the following statements regarding the
Flu (ASF): Committee on Ethics of the Parliament :
1. It is a severe viral disease that affects wild and 1. The members of the Ethics Committee of the
domestic pigs. House are elected by the members of the House.
2. It is a type of zoonotic disease and lethal for 2. The committee examines cases concerning
humans. allegation of ethical misconduct of members.
3. There has been no incidence of outbreak in India. 3. The committee advises members on questions
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? of ethical standards only on receiving specific
a) 1 only request.
b) 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) 2 only
Q.32) With reference to Voluntary Retention Route (VRR), c) 2 and 3 only
consider the following: d) 1 and 3 only
1. VRR scheme aims to attract Foreign Direct Q.37) Consider the following pairs with reference to the
Investment in India. judicial reforms during British rule in India:
2. VRR channel is aimed at attracting long-term Governor-General Judicial Reforms
and stable investments into debt markets. 1. Warren Hastings Establishment of Supreme
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Court at Calcutta
a) 1 only 2. Cornwallis Abolished District
b) 2 only Fauzdari Courts
c) Both 1 and 2 3. William Bentinck Macaulay Commission for
d) Neither 1 nor 2 codification of laws
Q.33) Which of the following statements about National Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
Financial Reporting Authority (NFRA) is correct? matched?
1. It is an independent regulator to oversee the a) 1 and 2 only b) 1 and 3 only
auditing profession and accounting standards. c) 1 only d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It can probe listed companies only. Q.38) With reference to federalism as envisaged in the
3. It lacks the power to impose penalty as it is Constitution of India, which of the following
advisory in nature. statements is correct?
Select the correct statement using the code given below: a) The Union of India is the result of agreements
among constituent states.
a) 1 only
b) Residuary powers under the Seventh Schedule
b) 2 only are vested in the states.
c) 1 and 3 only c) India is an indestructible Union composed of
d) 2 and 3 only indestructible States.
Q.34) With reference to Food subsidy in India, consider the d) The Constitution of India is the supreme law of
following statements: the land.
1. The food subsidy has risen consistently over the Q.39) Consider the following statements regarding the new
last decade. Covid-19 vaccine policy of the Government of India.
2. The Central Issue Price of rice and wheat for 1. The vaccines will be procured by the Centre only,
National Food Security Act beneficiaries is linked who would distribute it to the states.
to inflation and revised periodically. 2. The Centre would notify the price of vaccines
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? which would be sold by the private sector.
a) 1 only 3. The policy would make India the first country to
b) 2 only allow open-market sale of Covid-19 vaccine.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) 2 only b) 1 and 2 only
Q.35) Consider the following statements. c) 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
1. India has two permanent research stations in the Q.40) In the context of Patent and Copyright in India
Arctic named as Maitri and Himadri. consider the following statements:
2. India has one permanent research station in 1. Like Patents, Copyrights also mandatorily require
Antarctica named as Bharati. registration.
3. India has been elected as an observer of Arctic 2. Both Patents and Copyrights are territorial in
Council for the first time in 2019. nature.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ? Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) Neither 1 nor 2
190 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
MOCK TEST
Q.41) Consider the following statements regarding the Moon Q.47) With reference to the Preamble to the Constitution of
Treaty: India, which of the following statements is correct?
1. The treaty provides that the placement of a) It is based on the preamble of the American
personnel, equipment, facilities, stations and Constitution.
installations on the surface of the Moon shall b) It is the source of power to Parliament.
also create a right of ownership over the area. c) It indicates the ultimate sovereignty of the people
2. All the countries who engage in human space of India.
flight must ratify the treaty. d) It is enforceable in the court of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Q.48) Which of the following statements is correct with
a) 1 only b) 2 only reference to the distribution of powers between Centre
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 and states?
Q.42) Consider the following statements regarding the Office a) Only during National Emergency Parliament can
of Profit : make laws on matters enumerated in the State
1. Article 102 of the Constitution of India defines List.
‘Office of Profit’. b) Both the Union and the states can levy Integrated
2. A person who acquires a contract from a GST.
government is not guilty of holding an office of c) The State List has predominance over the
profit. Concurrent List.
3. The Parliament can pass a law to exclude certain d) Only the Parliament has the power to levy
offices from being considered as ‘Office of residuary taxes.
Profit’. Q.49) Among the following cities, which one lies on a latitude
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? closest to Tropic of Cancer?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only a) Bhopal b) Jaipur
c) 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 c) Raipur d) Kolkata
Q.43) Which of the following represents the correct order Q.50) With reference to Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)
of crude steel producers in the world, arranged in cards, which of the following statements is/are correct?
descending order for the year 2019? 1. OCI cardholders do not need a visa for entry
a) China, Japan, USA, India into and stay in India for any number of days.
b) China, India, Japan, USA 2. Both the NRI and OCI are Indian citizens
c) USA, China, India, Japan residing in foreign country.
d) China, Japan, India, USA 3. Recently, Government of India allowed OCI
Q.44) “It is thicker at the edges than at the middle. Such a cardholders to vote in Indian elections.
lens diverges light rays and is also called diverging Select the correct answer using the code given below:
lens. It is commonly used to correct Myopia which is a) 1 only
also known as near-sightedness. As it gives a wider b) 1 and 2 only
view of the object or area, such a lens is used in c) 2 and 3 only
peepholes in the doors”. d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the following best describes the above- Q.51) Which of the following statements regarding the reign
mentioned scenario? of Sikandar Lodi is incorrect ?
a) Convex lens b) Concave lens a) The rent rolls (jama) prepared during his time
c) Bi-focal lens d) Cylindrical lens formed the basis of the rent rolls used by Sher
Q.45) In the context of recent advances in 3 D bioprinting, Shah Suri.
which of the above activities can be successfully carried b) He introduced the practice of audit.
out? c) There was rampant prevalence of robbery and
1. Functional human skin dacoity on highways.
2. Load-bearing bones d) He imposed a ban on use of any language other
3. Functional liver tissues than Persian in the government offices.
4. Replace lengthy clinical trials. Q.52) Consider the following statements with reference to
Select the correct answer using the codes given below: Zombie fires recently seen in News:
a) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. It’s a smoldering fire from a previous growing
b) 2 and 4 only season underneath the ground’s carbon-rich peat.
c) 1, 3 and 4 only 2. The fires contribute towards the global warming.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 3. The majority of Zombie fires occur in tropical
regions of the world.
Q.46) Which among the following states has recently
introduced the ‘Right to recall’ an elected representative Which of the following statements given above is/are
at the Panchayat level? correct?
a) Maharashtra a) 1 and 2 only
b) Rajasthan b) 2 only
c) Kerala c) 1 and 3 only
d) Haryana d) 1, 2 and 3
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 191
MOCK TEST
Q.53) With reference to the influence of Iranian invasion in c) It is a scholarship programme for students who
6th century B.C., consider the following statements: have passed the Civil Ser vices preliminary
1. Kharosthi script developed as a result of Iranian examination.
invasion. d) It provides refinancing facility to those financial
2. Use of Punch-marked coins in India started as a institutions which lend to MSMEs.
result of Iranian contacts. Q.58) With reference to Inter Tropical Convergence Zone
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (ITCZ), consider the following statements:
a) 1 only b) 2 only 1. By the month of July, the ITCZ shifts northwards
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 roughly parallel to 20°-25° N latitude.
Q.54) With reference to the Convention on the Legal Status 2. Northern shift of ITCZ is related with the
of the Caspian Sea, which of the following statements withdrawal of the tropical easterly jet stream from
are correct? the north Indian plain.
1. It was signed under the aegis of the United 3. ITCZ attracts the maritime tropical air mass from
Nations. the southern hemisphere.
2. It allowed jurisdiction of the littoral countries Which of the above statements is/are correct?
over Caspian Sea waters up to 15 nautical miles a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only
from their coasts. c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
3. It provided a formula for allocating the sea bed Q.59) With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’ (ESZ), which
and its mineral deposits to the littoral countries. of the following statements is correct?
4. It forbids non-littoral countries from any kind a) ESZ are the areas that are declared under the
of construction of pipeline in the waters of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Caspian. b) An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometres around a
Select the correct answer using the code given below: protected area as provided in the Wildlife
a) 1 and 2 only Conservation Strategy, 2002.
b) 2 only c) The state governments have the exclusive
c) 2 and 3 only authority to limit the areas of the ESZs.
d) 2, 3 and 4 only d) The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive
Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities
Q.55) With reference to the Disinvestment policy announced in those zones except agriculture.
in the Budget Speech for FY2021-22, consider the
following: Q.60) With reference to the Wetlands (Conservation and
Management) Rules, 2017, which of the following
1. The strategic sectors will be reserved exclusively statements is/are correct?
for Central Public Sector Enterprises.
1. The Central Wetland Regulatory Authority
2. NITI Aayog will prepare list of Central Public (CWRA) at the Central level will be replaced by
Sector companies that would be taken up for a national committee.
strategic disinvestment. 2. There is provision of appeal before the National
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Green Tribunal against the decision of wetland
a) 1 only authorities.
b) 2 only 3. Salt pans, river channels and paddy fields have
c) Both 1 and 2 been removed from the definition of wetlands.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Q.56) With reference to the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi- a) 1 only b) 1 and 3 only
Sectorial Technical and Economic Cooperation c) 3 only d) 2 and 3 only
(BIMSTEC), which of the following statements is Q.61) Arrange the following according to their increasing
correct? order of ‘liquidity’:
a) The grouping’s member comprises of countries 1. Saving deposits with the banks.
from South Asia only. 2. Currency and coins with the public.
b) Nepal and Bhutan were the latest addition to the 3. Demand deposits with the banks.
grouping. 4. Term deposits with the banks.
c) The grouping has yet not hosted any summit- Select the correct answer using the code given below:
level meet with Heads of the Nations.
a) 4-1-3-2 b) 2-3-1-4
d) Its permanent secretariat is located in Colombo,
Sri Lanka. c) 3-4-1-2 d) 1-2-3-4
Q.57) Which of the following options describes the Nai Q.62) Who among the following was appointed by the
Udaan scheme of the Ministry of Minority affairs? Bombay Legislative Council to work with the Simon
Commission in 1928?
a) It is a capacity building scheme for government
workers who belong to minority community. a) C. Rajagopalachari
b) It is a skill training initiative coordinated by the b) M.N. Roy
National Skill Development Corporation and c) Tej Bahadur Sapru
National Commission for Minorities. d) B. R. Ambedkar
192 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
MOCK TEST
Q.63) Consider the following statements regarding Outcome 2. The members of the Non-Aligned Movement
and Performance Budgets: cannot be part of a multilateral military alliance.
1. Outcome Budget is presented by the Ministry of Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Finance, whereas Perfor mance Budget is a) 1 only
presented by different departments of a Ministry. b) 2 only
2. Outcome Budget is a micro-level process and c) Both 1 and 2
Performance Budget is a macro-level process.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Many Outcome Budgets form one Performance
Budget. Q.69) With reference to the Mughal era miniature paintings,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? which of the following options is correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 a) The paintings focused on glorifying the rulers
and their battles.
b) 1 and 2 only
b) The use of 3 dimensional figures was the defining
c) 1 only
feature of the Shah Jahan’s period.
d) 2 and 3 only
c) The Mughal paintings reached its zenith during
Q.64) ‘Great reset’, recently seen in news, is an initiative Akbar’s reign.
related to which of the following?
d) Mughal era paintings were unique because of the
a) Transforming Capitalism
liberal use of gold leaf and gemstones.
b) Promoting Gender Equality
Q.70) Consider the following pairs:
c) Adoption of Renewable Energy
Puppet Forms Types
d) Prevention of Climate Change
Q.65) Consider the following statements regarding Bio- 1. Kundhei Shadow Puppet
Medical Waste Management Rules 2016 : 2. Gombeyatta String Puppet
1. It provides for disposal of laboratory waste, 3. Pavakoothu Glove Puppet
microbiological waste, blood samples and blood Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
bags of an institution directly to the common matched?
bio-medical waste treatment facility. a) 1 and 2 only
2. The land for setting up of common bio-medical b) 2 only
waste treatment facility is provided by the Central c) 1 and 3 only
Government.
d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q.71) Which of the following statements shall be assessed as
a) 1 only observable impacts of climate change?
b) 2 only 1. The length of the frost-free season and the
c) Both 1 and 2 corresponding growing season has been increasing
d) Neither 1 nor 2 in agriculture.
Q.66) Consider the following statements: 2. Increase in intensity of tropical cyclones in the
1. The snowline in western Himalayas is at a higher Indian Ocean.
altitude than the eastern Himalayas. 3. Non-uniform rise in the temperatures across the
2. The average height of western Himalayas is more world over time.
than the eastern Himalayas. Select the correct answer using the code below:
3. Eastern Himalayas have different orogeny a) 1 and 2 only
compared to western Himalayas.
b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
c) 1 and 3 only
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 3 only Q.72) Consider the following statements:
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Reflation is enacted after a period of economic
slowdown or contraction to stimulate spending
Q.67) Which of the following statements regarding Himalayan and curb the effects of deflation.
brown bear is incorrect ?
a) It can be found in the most remote mountain 2. Disinflation is a decrease in the general price
regions of Nepal, India, Pakistan and Tibet. levels of goods and services.
b) It is listed under Appendix I in CITES and 3. Deflation means that there is still rise in prices
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. but overall rate is slow.
c) It is an omnivores animal. 4. Skewflation means that some sectors are facing
d) It lives throughout the entire year with no long inflation while other sectors of economy do not.
period of sleep. Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect ?
Q.68) With reference to the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), a) 1 only
which of the statements given below is/are correct? b) 2 and 3 only
1. It has been founded in the Bandung Asian- c) 1 and 4 only
African Conference in 1955. d) 1, 2 and 3 only
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 193
MOCK TEST
Q.73) Which of the following nitrogenous bases are present Q.78) A person who is born with a hereditary disease,
in DNA? undergoes correction of a gene defect that is causing
1. Adenine the disease. Here, genes are inserted into a person’s
2. Guanine cells and tissues to treat a disease. Correction of a
genetic defect involves delivery of a normal gene into
3. Uracil the individual or embryo to take over the function of
4. Thymine and compensate for the non-functional gene.
5. Cytosine Which of the following terms best describes the above-
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: mentioned process?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only a) Molecular Diagnosis
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only b) Gene Therapy
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only c) Active Immunity
d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only d) Crossbreeding
Q.74) What are the advantages of floating solar energy plants? Q.79) With reference to Human and Physical Capital, which
1. Increased Efficiency of a Solar Panel of the statements given below is correct?
2. Lower cost of Installation a) Human capital is tangible and Physical capital is
intangible.
3. Lower evaporation of water bodies.
b) Human capital is sold in the market whereas
Select the correct statement using the code given below: Physical capital is not.
a) 1 and 2 only c) Physical capital is more mobile than Human
b) 2 and 3 only capital.
c) 1 and 3 only d) Unlike Human capital, Physical capital depreciates
d) 1, 2 and 3 only with time.
Q.75) With reference to the Jain temples, which of the Q.80) Which of the following statements regarding migratory
following statements is/are correct? birds and its festivals is correct?
1. The oldest Jain pilgrimage sites are found in a) Of the nine migratory bird flyways, the East-
Karnataka. Asia Australasia flyway goes from India.
2. Nagapattinam was a major centre for Jainism until b) Kalrav, the bird festival of Goa was organised
the Chola period. recently for the first time.
3. The Jain temples at Mount Abu are famous for c) The State of India’s Bird 2020 was the first-of-
its unique patterns on every ceiling. its-kind analysis released at the 13th Conference
Select the correct answer using the code given below: of Parties of the Convention on the Conservation
a) 1 only of Migratory Species of Wild Animals.
b) 1 and 3 only d) The annual Flamingo Festival is held in the
Chillika Lake.
c) 3 only
Q.81) Which of the following is/are correct about Indian
d) 2 and 3 only Banks Association (IBA)?
Q.76) With reference to the Autonomous District Area in 1. IBA is an association of Indian banks and
Tripura, who among the following may direct that an financial institutions formed in 1946 in Mumbai.
act of the state legislative Assembly does not apply to 2. Co-operative Banks and Regional Rural Banks
the Autonomous District Area? can become members of IBA.
a) The President of India 3. Foreign Banks cannot become member of IBA.
b) The Governor Select the correct answer using the code below:
c) The Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District a) 1 only b) 1 and 2 only
Council c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only
d) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes Q.82) Match the following pairs of treaties and their nuclear
Q.77) With reference to Third-Party Insurance, consider the weapons free zones:
following statements: Treaty Nuclear weapons free
1. The ‘third-party’ is responsible for the losses and zone
damages. 1. Treaty of Tlatelolco A. Southeast Asia
2. Automobile insurance can be an example of third- 2. Treaty of Rarotonga B. Africa
party insurance. 3. Treaty of Bangkok C. South Pacific
3. Long-term third-party motor insurance has been 4. Treaty of Pelindaba D. Latin America and the
withdrawn by IRDAI for four and two-wheelers. Caribbean
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D
b) 1 and 3 only b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
c) 2 and 3 only c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A
194 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
MOCK TEST
Q.83) Consider the following statements regarding the Q.87) “They are areas that appear darker on the surface of
Conference of Disarmament: the Sun because they are cooler than other parts of
1. It is the single multilateral disar mament the Sun’s surface. They are formed in areas where
negotiating forum comprising of nuclear as well magnetic fields are particularly strong”.
as non-nuclear states. What is being described in the above paragraph?
2. The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear a) Solar Flare b) Sunspot
Weapons was recently finalised under the c) Solar Prominence d) Sun cycle
Conference of Disarmament. Q.88) With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada
3. It operates independently from the United Yojana (PMMSY), consider the following statements:
Nations. 1. It is being implemented in the coastal states only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. The scheme focuses both on seaweed and
a) 1 and 2 only ornamental fish cultivation.
b) 2 only 3. The scheme has both Central Sector and Centrally
c) 1 and 3 only Sponsored components.
d) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q.84) Match the following pairs of defence exercises of India a) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only
and the countries involved in it: c) 2 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3
Exercise Countries Q.89) Which of the following statements best describes
Personal Disposable Income?
1. Vajra Prahar A. Singapore
a) A part of National Income that is transferred to
2. SAMPRITI B. France the households.
3. Desert Knight C. Bangladesh b) A part of National Income that is transferred to
4. SIMBEX D. United States of the households excluding taxes and fines.
America c) The maximum amount of goods and services
Select the correct answer using the code given below: the domestic economy has at its disposal.
a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A d) The monetary value of all finished goods and
b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A services made within a country during a specific
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C period.
d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C Q.90) Consider the following statements:
Q.85) Consider the following statements about Radio 1. The Chief Justice of India (CJI) is a public
Frequency Identification (RFID) technology: authority under the Right to Information (RTI)
Act.
1. Like Barcoding, RFID uses a pattern of black 2. The Supreme Court collegium’s meetings do not
bars and white spaces in which the information come under the Right to Information (RTI) Act.
is coded.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
2. Both the antenna and the tag are to be located
a) 1 only b) 2 only
very near to each other for communication to
take place. c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. This technology has been deployed in FASTag. Q.91) What do you understand by the ter m Arctic
amplification?
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) The fires around the Arctic arising from a
a) 1 and 2 only previous growing season that can smoulder under
b) 3 only the ground.
c) 2 and 3 only b) The thinning of the ozone layer due to weak
d) 1, 2 and 3 polar vortex at the North Pole.
Q.86) Consider the following statements: c) Air temperatures across the Arctic have been
1. The Constitution of India states that a community increasing at a rate that is about twice the global
which is socially, political and economically non- average.
dominant in population should be called as a d) Growing human intervention in Arctic region.
minority. Q.92) Which of the following statements correctly describes
2. The minorities are determined based on the the supplementary grant made by Parliament under
population of a community at the national level. special circumstances?
a) It is granted for additional expenditure upon new
3. The Constitution of India enlists Muslims, ser vices not contemplated in the early
Buddhist, Jain, Parsi, Sikh and Christians as appropriation.
religious minorities.
b) It is granted when the amount already authorised
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? by Parliament is found to be insufficient.
a) 1 and 3 only c) It is granted when money spent on a service is
b) 2 only in excess of the amount granted in the Budget.
c) 1 and 2 only d) It is granted for a special purpose and forms no
d) 1, 2 and 3 only part of the current service of any financial year.
COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023 195
MOCK TEST
Q.93) Which of the following statements regarding the 4. Union Territories with Legislative Assemblies
Swadeshi movement is/ are correct? need to be consulted before making changes in
1. ‘Swadesh Geetham’ written by Subramania their boundaries.
Bharati was inspired by this movement. Which of the statements given above are correct?
2. Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was set up a) 1 and 2 only
V.O. Chidambaram Pillai during the movement. b) 2 and 4 only
3. Traditional folk theatres such as jatras were used c) 1 and 3 only
to disseminate swadeshi messages. d) 1, 3 and 4 only
a) 3 only Q.98) Which of the following regions are separated by Malda
b) 2 and 3 only fault?
c) 1 and 3 only a) Kachh mainland and Rann of Kachh.
d) 1, 2 and 3 b) Satpura and Vindhya ranges.
Q.94) Which of the following is/are correct about Honey c) Karbi Anglong plateau and Chota Nagpur plateau.
Farmer Producer Organisation Programme. d) Nilgiri hills and Anaimalai hills.
1. Under the scheme, 50,000 Honey FPOs Q.99) Which of the following fundamental rights of an
will be developed by Cluster Based Business individual is not protected under Article 21 of the
Organisations in 16 states across India. Constitution of India?
2. This programme is wholly implemented by the a) Right to privacy
National Bank for Agriculture and Rural b) Right to health
Development (NABARD).
c) Right to freedom of conscience
Select the correct answer using the code below:
d) Right to speedy trial
a) 1 only
Q.100)Consider the following statements regarding the
b) 2 only National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi:
c) 1 and 2 both 1. The Legislative Assembly can make laws on public
d) Neither 1 nor 2 order and land only with prior sanction of the
Q.95) What was the most important reason for the death of President.
over 18,000 birds in and around Rajasthan’s Sambhar 2. The Chief Minister holds office during the
Lake in 2019, according to the Indian Veterinary pleasure of the President.
Research Institute (IVRI)? 3. The President is empowered to promulgate
a) Heavy drought in November 2019 in Rajasthan ordinances when the Legislative Assembly is not
b) Avian Influenza in session.
c) Avian botulism Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
d) Drying up of the Sambhar wetland a) 1 only
Q.96) With reference to the Chief Electoral Officer (CEC) b) 2 only
of a state, consider the following statements: c) 1 and 3 only
1. The CEC is appointed by the Governor of the d) 2 and 3 only
state under Article 324 of the Constitution of
India. ANSWERS
2. The CEC supervises the preparation, revision and 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c)
correction of electoral rolls in the state. 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
3. The Chief Electoral Officer is also empowered 11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d)
to hear appeals against the orders passed by the 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a)
Electoral Registration Officers in the state. 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (a)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
a) 1 and 2 only 31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d)
36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (b)
b) 2 only 41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (d)
c) 2 and 3 only 46. (d) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (a)
d) 1, 2 and 3 51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (b)
Q.97) Consider the following statements: 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (b) 60. (b)
1. The territorial integrity of any state is not 61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (d)
guaranteed by the Constitution. 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (c)
2. An amendment to the Constitution is needed to 76. (b) 77. (c) 78. (b) 79. (c) 80. (c)
establish a new state. 81. (b) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (b)
3. Settlement of a boundary dispute between India 86. (b) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (c)
and a neighbour country requires a constitutional 91. (c) 92. (b) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (c)
amendment. 96. (c) 97. (a) 98. (c) 99. (c) 100. (b)
196 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
Indian National Movement
K. K. Bhardwaj
Eminent Author of History Books
Revolutionary Patriots
The first decade of the 20th century of the book titled India’s First War of including Browning pistols to his Indian
witnessed the growth of various Independence by Vinayak Damodar counterparts with Mirza Abbas, Sikandar
revolutionary societies in different Savarkar in 1906 at London about the Hayat and others.
parts of the country. They believed great uprising of 1857 helped to put the In Bengal, the Anushilan Samiti was
that they would be able to demoralise record straight and also to infuse a spirit the first secret society organised by the
the administrative machinery of the of nationalism and rebellion among the revolutionaries. In 1905, it published a
government by terrorising the big youth of the country. They also derived pamphlet titled Bhavani Mandir (Temple
bosses of the imperial bureaucracy and their ideas and beliefs from the Russian of the Goddess Bhavani). It gave a plan
thus win freedom for the country nihilists and the British terrorists. in detail how a centre of revolutionary
through coercive tactics. Since the Savarkar had earlier translated the life activity should be established in a temple
government suppressed various political of Mazzini in Marathi. He was also the on a secluded spot. Two years later, the
movements and imprisoned the national founder of Abhinava Bharata, a secret Samiti published another book called
leaders, the activities of these society of revolutionaries. It preached Bartaman Rananiti (Principles of Current
revolutionary societies and groups the gospel of freedom. It exhorted its Strategy). It advocated guerilla warfare
gained a big momentum as underground workers to popularise its songs and training to the revolutionary patriots. It
patriotism. ballads. Even after Savarkar, who left further brought out another publication,
The principal source of inspiration for London in 1906, the Abhinava Mukti Kon Pathe? (Which Way
for the revolutionary patriots was the Bharata continued to flourish. Savarkar Liberation?) preaching how the Indian
Great Revolt of 1857. The publication also secretly sent a large quantity of arms soldiers were to be won over to the cause
principle by openly criticising the decision emergency comes directly under the
CO
ERS
ANSWERS
(1) D: remorseless. (11) A : visionary. (21) B: contented.
(2) A: ignore. (12) C : aristorcratic. (22) E: certain.
(3) E: support. (13) A : concise. (23) A: noisy.
(4) C: wavering. (14) B : inconspicuous. (24) C: start.
(5) D: dissuade. (15) D : repel. (25) D: practical.
(6) B: agreeable. (16) E : anger. (26) E: contradict.
(7) C: generous. (17) B : shorten. (27) A: dim.
(8) E: merciful. (18) C : solve. (28) D: superficial.
(9) B: dearth. (19) B : ordinary. (29) E: insane.
(10) D: instability. (20) D : ordinary. (30) B: careful.
202 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
100 EXPECTED QUESTIONS
The PARAKH
In January 2023, the NCERT notified India’s first national
assessment regulator, PARAKH, with an objective to work
on setting norms, standards and guidelines for student
assessment and evaluation for all recognised 62 School
Boards in 36 States and Union Territories. “The
Performance Assessment, Review and Analysis of
Knowledge for Holistic Development (PARAKH) as a
centre is, hereby, established within the education survey
division of the NCERT, with immediate effect,” the Council
said in the notification. The regulator aims to set assessment
guidelines for all Boards to help remove disparities in scores
of students enrolled with different State Boards. PARAKH
was launched as part of the implementation of the NEP
2020 that envisaged a standard-setting body to advise School Township, New Jersey, but has a Princeton address. ETS
Boards regarding new assessment patterns and latest develops various standardised tests primarily in the United
research, and promote collaborations among them. States for K–12 and higher education, and it also
PARAKH is designed to work on three major assessment administers international tests including the TOEFL (Test
areas: large-scale assessments, school-based assessments and of English as a Foreign Language), TOEIC (Test of English
examination reforms. To begin with, PARAKH will work for International Communication), Graduate Record
on bringing equivalence in the recognised School Boards Examination (GRE), General and Subject Tests, HiSET
in India in terms of the academic standards among learners. and The Praxis test Series—in more than 180 countries,
In order to play its role, PARAKH will closely work with and at over 9,000 locations worldwide. Many of the
the State Directorates of Education, State Education Boards assessments it develops are associated with entry to US
and international organisations working in the area of tertiary (undergraduate) and quaternary education (graduate)
assessment and evaluation. institutions, but it also develops K–12 statewide assessments
Educationists opined that PARAKH was much needed used for accountability testing in many US states, including
to calibrate assessments across State and national Boards. California, Texas, Tennessee and Virginia. In total, ETS
They hope that with PARAKH, assessment sciences will annually administers 20 million exams in the US and in
get an upgrade to create questions that go beyond rote and 180 other countries.
test for competencies, creativity and ability to apply Just to have a glimpse into its working, take the GRE,
knowledge. They believe that there is a need to have a a standardised exam administered by the ETS to test the
more accessible, affordable and credible assessment system competency of students in areas like verbal and quantitative
in the county. PARAKH will also be responsible for reasoning, critical thinking, etc. According to a report, about
conducting large-scale assessments, including the National 100 Indian institutes now recognise GRE scores. Thus far,
Achievement Survey (NAS). The next NAS in 2024 will be GRE scores were mainly accepted by universities in the
conducted by PARAKH. It will also guide the State US, Canada and a few other countries. Among the Indian
Achievement Survey (SAS) and monitor achievement of institutes that now accept GRE scores, are IIM Calcutta,
learning outcomes in the country. IIM Bangalore, SP Jain (Mumbai) and the Indian School
In September 2022, NCERT invited Expression of of Business (ISB) in Hyderabad. Further, NALSAR,
Interest (EoI) from international agencies to help it in Hyderabad, and Reliance Jio Institute, Mumbai, have also
setting up PARAKH. Several agencies submitted their signed up recently. ETS is seeking to expand the acceptance
proposals. The EoI, among other things, stated that the of GRE to over 150 Indian institutions within FY 2023-
Union Government also look forward to manage India’s 24. As per the Union Ministry of Education, as of 2020-
participation in international assessments such as the 21, over 48,000 foreign students from 163 countries were
Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA), enrolled in Indian institutes of higher learning.
Trends in International Mathematics and Science Study In 2017-18, about 60,000 Indians had taken the GRE,
(TIMSS) and Progress in International Reading Literacy which nearly doubled in about five years. With 1.1 lakh
Study (PIRLS). This is the background in which the ETS students taking the GRE in 2021-2022, India had the
has been picked, initially on a three-year contract, to act as second-largest number of candidates after the US, with
a consultant to help NCERT set up PARAKH. China a distant third (24,000 candidates). Between 2020-
21 and 2021-22, the number of examinees in India
The ETS increased 68%, signalling the growing popularity of the
Educational Testing Service (ETS), founded in 1947, is test. The Physical Sciences, Engineering and Business were
the world’s largest private nonprofit educational testing and the top streams of choice among those who took the test
assessment organisation. It is headquartered in Lawrence in India. While the US has remained the most popular
GOLF
India's Aditi Ashok Wins Kenya
Ladies Open
Indian golfer Aditi Ashok turned in one
of the most dominating performances on
the Ladies European Tour with a nine-shot
win at the Magical Kenya Ladies Open on
February 5, 2023. She won with a final
round score of 74. It was a fourth win on Lionel Messi and Alexia Putellas
the Ladies European Tour (LET) for the
Indian, who now plays mostly on the Ladies Argentina's World Cup-winning captain Lionel Messi
Aditi Ashok won FIFA's Men's Player of the Year 2022 at the
PGA in the United States.
Best FIFA Football Awards 2022 held in Paris on
February 27, 2023. The 35-year-old beat French forwards
HOCKEY Kylian Mbappe and Karim Benzema to win the prize.
Hockey Madhya Pradesh Wins Senior National Messi captained Argentina to World Cup glory in Qatar,
Women's Hockey Championship and scored 27 goals in 49 games for club and country
in 2021-22. This is the second time Messi has won the
Hockey Madhya Pradesh defeated Hockey Maharashtra
award, equalling Cristiano Ronaldo and Robert
5-1 to win the 13th Hockey India Senior Women National Lewandowski's massive feat at the FIFA awards. Spain's
Championship at Kakinada, Andhra Pradesh, on Alexia Putellas, who won the Ballon d'Or in 2022, was
February 27, 2023. Hockey Madhya Pradesh lived up to their named FIFA's Women's Player of the Year 2022 for the
top billing, conceding only 3 goals in the tournament. Hockey second time in a row.
Jharkhand finished 3rd after they defeated Hockey Haryana Argentina's head coach Lionel Scaloni won the Best
2-1 in the third-place game. Among individual award winners Men's Coach Award, Emiliano Martinez won the Best
of the tournament, Saroj Minj (Captain, Hockey Jharkhand) Men's Goalkeeper Award and the Argentine fans won
won the Best Goalkeeper, Pratibha Arya (Hockey Madhya the Best Fan Award for the first time. The Best Women's
Pradesh) the Best Defender, Manashri Narendra Shedage Goalkeeper was Mary Earps of England and the Best
(Hockey Maharashtra) the Best Midfielder and Albela Rani Women's Coach Award went to Sarina Wiegman of
Toppo (Hockey Jharkhand) the Best Forward awards. England's women's national team. The Best Women's
Goalkeeper was Mary Earps of England and the Best
SHOOTING Women's Coach Award went to Sarina Wiegman of
England's women's national team. The Fair Play Award
With 4 Gold, India Tops Medals Tally winner was Luka Lochoshvili of Georgia.
At ISSF World Cup 2023
Team India concluded a successful outing at the ISSF 2023. The day was a historic one for India as the country
World Cup 2023 in Cairo, Egypt, which concluded on hosted its maiden ABB FIA Formula E World Championship
February 23, 2023. They topped the medal standings with race in the beautiful city of Hyderabad near Hussain Sagar
7 medals, comprising 4 gold and 3 bronze. Hungary emerged Lake. It was a hard-fought victory for Vergne, who managed
as the second best with 3 medals (2 gold and to fend off a stiff challenge from Envision Racing duo of
1 silver) while Italy and Switzerland were tied for the third Nick Cassidy and Sebastien Buemi, the Season 2 champion.
spot. For India, Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil (Men's 10m air However, Buemi was penalised after the race and TAG
rifle) and Aishwary Pratap Singh Tomar (Men's 50m rifle Heuer Porsche Formula E Team's Antonio Felix da Costa
three position) won individual gold, while two other gold took the third position behind the second-placed Cassidy.
medals came in 10m air rifle and 10m air pistol mixed The win was Vergne's 11th in Formula E race.
events. Varun Tomar (Men's 10m air pistol), Tilottama Sen
(Women's 10m air rifle) and Anish Bhanwala (Men's 25m TENNIS
rapid fire pistol) won bronze medals for the country.
Daniil Medvedev Wins Qatar Open Title
MOTOR RACING World No. 8 Russia's Daniil Medvedev defeated former
World No.1 Andy Murray of England in straight sets 6-4,
Jean-Eric Vergne Wins 2023 Greenko 6-4 in the Qatar Open final at the Centre Court in Doha
Hyderabad E-Prix on February 25, 2023 to win his second ATP title in a
DS Penske's Jean-Eric Vergne Von won the 2023 Greenko week. With his 17th career title, the 27-year-old moved up
Hyderabad E-Prix (Round 4 of Season 9) on February 11, one place to 7th in the new world rankings.
210 COMPETITION SUCCESS REVIEW, APRIL 2023
Tips To Kick-Start
The New Academic Session
4. Make a habit of taking notes
One of the most important habits to get into from day one
is taking notes. This will not only help you keep pace and
understand your lectures in a better way but will also keep
your mind alert and attentive during the class. Note taking is
definitely one of the best ways to keep your mind engaged.
In addition, make your own notes while studying to give an
extra boost to your learning.
REVITALIZES &
REFRESHES SKIN