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    AIATS-03 (RM) @DefeatNEET

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    Annu Baijal
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    Read each question carefully Its mandatory to use BivelBl Sppropriate eirlein the answer sheet Mark should be darkand should completely filthe cris Rough work mustnotbe done on Do not use whitesuid or any ot Sheet, No change in the answer on rdontcannot use ogtabies andl inthe examination hal i Before attempting! sdont should ensure that the test paper con ALL INDIR ARASH TEST. see a for edical Entrance Exam - 2023 (XII Passed Students) (Sa oun eipoake ey us) 8. Each conet ann sr caries four mana drier each neoret answer tominetostoeans St °° lack Ball Point Pen to darken the 9. Befocs handing over the answer sheet the inv ater, cand should check tnat Rol No. ang Cent id ee Wve Code have been ited. the answorsheet. jer rubbing maria on answer wee markodis alowed. torsor any oer material 10, immediately ator the prescribed examinat toboretumedtatiemighator 0% MO TOquestons ovo rom Section, ection-A & only 'e question paper, tu the quostion Piygno pagelsmissi°G tains allpages anarno| ‘on answer shoot lhervise your arswe sheet vil not be considered pulsory 10 fil Roll NO Jha Test Booklet Code TOPICS OF THE TEST: ‘System of Particles and Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids excretory Products and thei Elimination, Locomotion and Mot Coordination vement, Neural Control and, rhTel oleh TUE EP Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Mi [PHYSICS] 6, _Stross-strain curve for elastic tissue of aorta is aeenen tube of radius rig immersed in water and ae elaht hn this case, mass of 'S M.Ifradius of tube is made “ at will rise in capillary tube wit Strain ‘ (4) 4m Stress, 112 Haid neither rises nor depresses in a capillary tube then it means that aN (1) Angle of contact is o a (2) Angle of contact is 90° 7 (9) Angle of contacts greater than 90° Strain (4) Surface tension of liquid must be zero. Stress The reading of spring balance when a block is Suspended from it in air is 120 N. The reading ® changed to 80 N when the block is immersed in water. The specific gravity of block is (5 22 Strain ayia (4 Suess » The pressures inside two soap bubbles is 1.02 and 1.03 atmosphere. The ratio of their respective ® surface area will be 1 Ms Strain i 7. Young's modulus of stee! is Qs (1) 200 x 10° Nim? (2) 110 * 108 Nim? » 2 (3) 65 * 10° Nim? (4) 9.4 » 10 Nim? Os 8. If distance between earth and sun were one-fourth : ofits present value, number of days in a year would “ ¢ have been nearly The dimensional formula of tangential strain is (1) 645 (1) IM*LT] ee (2) (Mut) gies (3) [M°L°T)) (4) 365.25 ; 56 a aba Fond, New Dati-110006. Phone : 011-476254 Pusa Road, ‘akash Tower, 8, Corporate Office Sess) 1 and their ced at the center of the this mass from center to 16. surface and Te when teken to @ height 2R above eerth’s surface. Then value of TaTs is. ams as @3 2 42. Aplanet of mass m moves in an elliptical orbit about ‘Sun with time period T. If 3A be the area of orbit, then its angular momentum would be cy S84 ey SmAr: Smt! (4) 6mAT o = “ 13. A particle of mass mis projected from earth (IM, R) vpwards with vocty v= Ye (= escapevelocy). | At highest oi, the potential eneray ofthe pate s 3GMm 1) 88M 1) FR GMm @ -n GMm Over 8GMm 4) 8M, oo 14, A disc of mass m and radius R moves in x-y plane as shown in figure. The angular momentum of the disc about origin at the instant shown is Test Co (1) 3.5. me Re (8) 1.5 m0 Re (4) 4 mo Re A uniform circular disc has radius R and mass M. ‘The disc can rotate freely about tangent (in the plane of disc) passing from point 8 as shown. Initially disc is held vertically with point A at its highest position, it is then allowed to fall. Linear ‘speed of particle A as it reaches the lowest position wll be (2) 2.5 1m Re A z wy @ Pe A uniform sphere is rolling (without slipping) on Vo horizontal surface with speed —~°. It then moves Up a curved track as shown in the figure. If sliding does not occur, then maximum height moved up by the sphere is 3ve 2 avg 63v5 it} ovo. “tg @) 0 63v5 R 9 Corporate Ofice : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-1 10008, Phone 2011-47623456 . Consider the following statements A. Moment of inertia of a body about an axis depends on the mass distribution of body about that axis, 8. Moment of inertia of a body is. rotational ‘analogue of inertia of body ‘Choose the correct option (1) Statement A is correct while statement B is incorrect (2) Statement B is correct while statement A is incorrect, {@) Botn the stalements A and B are incorrect (4) Both the Statements A and B are correct "8. Linear mass density of a rod vaties as 2 = kx (C'S constant). The moment of inertia of the tod about axis. pas sing from one end (x = 0) a Perpendicular to rod (lengt fea ih Lis we “ o> La > @ © Ke 2 @ = Lo F OF ‘18. A particle of mass m is thrown at an’angle @ with vertical, with intial velociy uw under gravy’ The angular momentum of the particle about point bh Projection when particle reat Fro ches the highest point, ‘mu? sindcos? of— demu bind 1) Mu? sindcos? 9, Bout sinte! a ie 2 @ (4) Mie sin® oc0s?9 4g 20. Let us consider two points A and on a rigid body having velocity 2v and v as shown in figure, Distance between point A and & is L. The ‘magnitude of angular velocity of rod is Ap ev veg av mz aT v @ Og RUE eS wa ‘Three identical masses A, B and C moving wi ‘same speed v forms equilateral triangle as shown in figure. A is moving towards B, 8 is moving towards Cwhereas C is moving towards A. The magnitude of velocity of COM of system is A m LX f v v ms @> (8) Zero < oe Semicirculaefing? of\iiass Ve radius and ‘sempicilar Slsetot mass) jn.” Semicicular dise . 3m o> (2) 2m 2m 3) 2 2 @ 2 ‘Ating of mass m and radius R is rotating with Constant angular velocity ‘w'about an axis passing through centre of ring perpendicular to plane of ring I two particles each of mass "m’ gently placed on the periphery of ring then new angular velocity of ring + particles becomes MF fs a> o wo Onr-a7623456 Giice ; Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deli-110008, Prone Corporate Office : Ge oe |. There is a uniform bar of mass m and length L hinged at one end and at other end point mass 2m is attached to it It is teleased from rest in horizontal position (as shown). The initial angular acceleration of the rod will be 2 mt 2m 89. 3a, Ot @ 3 £ 9 Oz ye 25, Gravitational potential in a region is given by V = ~(2x + y + 32) Jhkg. The Gravitational field intensity at (1, 3, 4) mis (1) F+2]+3K) Nikg (2) (i++) Ng (3) G-J +k) Nikg (4) (2i+j+2%) Nikg 26. If velocity of efflux is v and area of orifice is As and As cross-sectional area of container. Which of the. following is/are correct (Ae << A)? (a) vec Ao (0) veep? (c) veh (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) Alllof these 27. The four vessels shown in figure have same base area. Equal volume of a liquid is poured in each vessel. The force on the base will be maximum in NEAL 7A IC A B c oD (A (28 (3) © (4). 31. Infinite masses in the sequence m, 2 ics 28. Stress-strain curves for two materials A and 8 are given in the figure shown below Stress A 30° ‘Strain Ratio of modulus of elasticity of wires A and 8 will be (1) VB @2 23 (1 29. A metal rod of Young's modulus 2 « 10" Nim? undergoes an elastic strain of 0.1%. The energy stored per unit volume of the rod (in J m=) is (1) 108 sis (2) 102 Jim? (8) 105 Jim? (4) 10° sme 30. The time period of a geostationary satelite is T. The vat of (2) ts () 12h (@) 24h 8h (4) 48h are placed along a straight line at distance r, 2r, 4r, @r, ... from a reference point O. The gravitational field at point © will be 46m ()@ aa 86m om @ 5S w 32. If two masses, each of mass m, are placed at some distance r. If n number of electrons are removed from each mass then net force on each of the mass is zero. Find the expression for n (e = charge of electron), legGm? 2cgGm* 1) (2) Fg @ PS |4xegGm* Gm? 8 (ay e é Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone :011-47623456 ‘The duration of a day will be, when earth shrinks in Suen @ way that ts density becomes eight times (Keeping mass same) (1) 26s (2) 12 hrs (3) 6 hrs (4) 8hrs 4. Find radius of gyration of @ sphere of mass m, pee i R radius R about an axis which is at a distance of & @ re z 7 @ as « af SS. ‘Tho urit vector which is perpendicular to each of wectors (7+) 42K) and (7 from its centre, 5 a als ~2iyis sia} 438 isjsk ay =2} 3K sie () Dae @ ibe ® afk (a) 1x2] -9% 2s SECTION-B 36. A rigid body can be hin Wed at any. point on the 2eaxis. When itis hin Ged at x, the moment of inertia 's given by 1= 3x2 12x47 The x co-ordinate of COM is () x=2 2) x=0 (3) x=3 (4) x=5 87. An impulse Js applied on ating of mass m along a line Passing through its centre O and the ting is placed on a roug! ih horizontal surface. The linear velocity of centre of ring once it starts rolling without slipping will be J J 0) = 2) om J ae Oa © om 38. AUITEen ee oss 1023) Inthe figure given below, a uniform sphere is in pure rolling on a horizontal surface. Velocity of point A is Va and of point B is Ve as shown. The value of Vat Vais two threads ®) is 4 di m |T, = i 4 mF (2) i i > @ t 40. Hollow spherical ball rolls without st horizontal surface. The fract associated with rotation is (1) ipping on a tion of total energy 2) @) owls ain ol @ Corporate Office : Aaka: sh Tower, 6, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 A LOE ae 41. Uniform rod of mass m and length L is hinged at centre. A particle of mass m moving with speed u ‘sticks after hitting the end of the rod. Find angular velocity ofthe rod just afte the colision mL e @au u u 4) 2 wo ” aL @ 2b u au ay 2 a) 4 oF @ Ft 42. In the pulley system shown, if radi of bigger and ‘smaller pulleys are 4m and 1 m respectively and the acceleration of block A is 5 mis? in downward direction, then acceleration of block 8 will be ALLLLLLLLL LLL (sm Sm 8 A (1) O mis? (2) Sis? 5 mis? Sons? (@) mis @) 5 43, Assuming earth to be sphere, the angular speed of rotation of earth for which weight of object on the equator becomes half as compared to its weight on pole of earth (g is acceleration due to gravity at poles of earth and R is radius of earth) Tes Ca 44. A tunnel is dug along the diameter of the earth, When a mass mis released inside the tunnel from ‘one end, it will start executing SHM. The time period of oscillation is R 2) 2m | ie iE oO anf 9 R R @) an f& (4) 25/2 3g (9 2nl55 Two identical cscs each of mass m and radius R are placed in contact with each other. Moment of ineria of system about common axis passing through ther point of contact and yng in thet plane willbe 46. 5 1) 3mae @ Pome? T mR? (4) 5 mR? @) mr Os Energy of a satelite in a circular orbit is Eo. The energy required to move the satelite to a circular Crbit of 3 times the radius of inner orbit is xo. The value of xis (2 46, @3 2 4 @5 3 Aheavy block is suspended with two wires of equal length and cross-section as shown. Their Young's ‘moduli are Y and 2Y respectively. The equivalent Young's modulus will be Muley a7. fee] 3y eB oy a= ) top 2 IR ) 2 2 g (4) 2/2 () 3Y (4) Jay ©) Var R jer, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 Corporate Office : Aakash Tow 6 a (2) Same amount of reactant and product (3) Mostly product (4) Only reactants 52. In which of the following reactions, equilibrium Ke and constant Kpare equal? (1) PCls(g)—=—=PChy(g) + Clo(g) (2) 2Hi(g)=——H,(g)+!2(9) (8) 4Ne()+02(6}—NO-(6) (4) N2O4(g)===2NO2(9) 53. If the equilibrium constant of the given reaction $0,(9)+20,(9)-—=S0s40) is Then the equilibrium constant for 2805 (9228021) + O2(9) wil be Alllindia/Aakash Test|Series for|NEET-2023 13. Inalarge tank of cross-sectional area A, there is a | 0. When at rest, a liquid stands at the same level in small hole of area a atthe bottom. The time taken both limbs of given U tube. Height dference occurs to empty the tank from height h= H to h= is when the system is given an acceleration a = 22. 3 A “ 22 g 2% towards the right shown in figure. Here his equal to ag \H Ag\2 ARH a PA A fH a) 2 PH O ava ® aNe 49. A soap bubble of radius ris placed in contact with another bubble of radius 3r. The radius of surface ‘common to both the bubbles is ar SL L A) 3 @ © st a) & “ as ws Qs 3 L aL @r @ * ay & 2 : Os « [CHEMISTRY] SECTION-A Pras 51. IMthe value of equilibrium constant (k) fora reaction ig @) ke 2H1a(Q)+ 0p()=——=2HzO(g)at SOOK is 2.4 » 10:7, 1 the - Oe (4) (ye en at equilbrium the system will contain (1) Mostly reactants 54 Statement I: Mercury cell consists of 2ino-mercu amalgam as anode. " Statement Il: Paste of NHiCI and ZnCh used as electrolyte in a mercury cel 'n the ight of above statements, choose the most ‘ppropriate answer from the options given below: (1) Both the statements | and Il are correct (2) Statement | is incorrect but statement 11 is correct (3) Statement I is correct but statement It is Incorrect (4) Both the statements | and I are incorrect 55. The molar solbilty of BaF2 (Kp= 1.0 * 104) in water willbe () 10M (2) 108M 2 10" » 20 @ Sem oF Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Deli 710005, Phone : 011-47623456 Corporate Ofice : Aakash DOMEae combustion of methane is - X kJ mol, The value of AU" at 298 K is (1) x (3) X-2*298«R 2) +2" 298«R (ax 57. Standard reduction potentials of three metals, A, B and are ~ 0.76 V, + 0.52 V and - 166 V respectively, the reducing power of these metals will be (1) A>B>c (2) C>B>A (3) A>coB (4) C>A>B 58. Standard electrode potential for Zn®IZn couple is =0.76 V and that for the Cu*/Cu couple is 0.34 V. These two couples in their standard state are Connected to make a spontaneous cell. The cell Potential will be (1) 084 (2) 22 @) tv (4) o42Vv 59. Which of the following mixtures can act as an acidic butter? (1) 50 ml of 0.1M CHsCOOH + $0 mlof 0.1M NaOH (2) 25 ml of 0.3M CHsCOOH +75 mlof0.1M NaOH (3) 100 mi of 0.1M CH:COOH +/60 mor Ot) NaOH (4) 75 mlof0.1.MCHsCOOH #25 ml of0.3M NaOH 60. The pk valllesotia base is 4.19, théh'the pK value ofits conjugate acid will be (1) 981 (2) 4.82 (3) 11.22 (4) 7.35 61. The efficiency of a fuel cell is given by 4H 4G (1) aU (2) tH 4H AU @ te 6 62. If the solution containing 0.1 M CHsCOOH and 0.01 M CHsCOONa has pH 3.76, then the pKa of CHsCOOH is (1) 1.88 (3) 4.76 (2) 3.76 (4) 10.24 Test3 (Coder) 63. Ifthe ionic product of water at t°C is 10-, then the pH of pure water at °C is (7 (3) 12 26 (a) 4 64. An increase in molar conductance of @ strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to (1) Decrease in solvation of ions (2) Increase in number of ions (8) Increase in ionic mobility of ions (4) Increase in ioni interactions 65. The molar conductivity of 0.01 M CHsCOOH Solution is 16.48 S om? mo’. Given that 25(H") ‘and iia(CHaCOO™) as 349.1 and 40.9 S cm? mol, respectively, Degree of dissociation of 0.01 M CHsCOOH is found to be (1) 04 (2) 0.04 (3) 0.008 @) O68 66. For a reversibleyflgetion’ Nog)- 3H, (g}—=22NH, (a). ‘The Value of equilisium constant depends on (4) Amount ofreactant (2) Temperature (3) Volume (4) Allofthese 67. Which one of the following conditions will be most favourable for product formation in the given reaction? A(g) + 28(g) == 3C(g) + Dlg); AH=+ 10k) (1) Low temperature and low pressure (2) Low temperature and high pressure (3) High temperature and low pressure (4) High temperature and high pressure 68. During the electrolysis of molten CaCl, the time required to produce 20 g of calcium using a current of 1.93 ampere is (1) 5*10°s (3) 5x 102s Q) 5x 10's (4) 5x 108s 7623456 “Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623 Tes Which of the following will not liberate He gas if treated with dilute HeSO.? (i) Zn (@) Ca (2) Fe (4) cu 70. Number of moles of KzCr2O7 required to oxidize one mole of H2S into 'S' in acidic medium will be ay3 1 4 Os 6 71. Which one of the given, Compounds can act as both oxidising agent and Teducing agent? (1) HNOs (2) Hs80 (3) SO. (4) tes 72. Which ofthe folowing is nt a redox reaction? (1) S(s)+120H-(aq) > 48* (aq) + 28,0% (aq) 6H0(¢) (2) 3Mgjs) + Nag) > MgsNa(s) @) 2KC10a(8)—* + 2KCKs)+305(9) (4) cCacoy(s)—* sca0(s)+.co,(9) In which of the fo ‘owing compounds, phosphorous has maximum oxidation state? (1) PH (2) HsPOs (3) HeP20, (4) HaP205 74. Which of the following is not a di reaction? 73, isproportionation (1) 2H,09(aq) > 2H20(¢)+0,(9) (2) Ch{a) + 204+) + C10-faq)+ Cr(a9) + O(e (3) 2F2(g) + 20H (aq) — 2F-(aq) + OF (a) + H:0(1) (4) Pals) + 30H-(aq) + 3H20(1) + PHa(g) + 3H»PO3 (aq) 75. Onelectrolysis of an. aqueous solution of NaCl using platinum (Pt) electrode, the product obtained at Ese 76. The cell in which the following feaction occurs: 2Fe** (aq) + 2 (aq)— 5. 2F @2* (aq)+1(s) Ecey = xV al 298 K. The standard Gib Cell reaction will be (1) xe (2) -2xF (3) xF (4) —xF Conjugate bases for Bronsted HsPO. Tespectively are (1) S03 and Pos has bs energy of 77. ‘acids HeSOs and (2) HS04 and Po3- (3) SOF and HPO? (4) HS0j and HPO; The- unit of equilibrium constant Kpfor the given Teaction, Ni(s)+4C0(g)=—=—=Ni(CO), (g) is (1) atm (3) (atmys 78. (2) (atmy+ (4) (atrmys ‘The reaction wll proceed from left to right i (1) Q= Ke, @) a Ke (4) Ke=0 80. The standard enthalpy of reaction 2n0 (8) + CO(G) + Zn(s) + COx(g) is Given AIH (2n0, 8) =~ 348.28 kJ molt 4HH* (C2, 9) =~ 393.54 ky mol AH? (CO, 9) = 110.53 kd mort (1) ~653k9 mor (a) 62.4 4s mors (3) 65.3 kJ mor (4) 324k) mor 81. For which reaction, aH > au? (1) 200 (8) + 0446) +2 C05 @) (2) Hela) + Brla) + 2HBr(q) (8) Na(g) + 3Ha(Q) > 2NHa(Q) (4) PCIs(g) > PCi(g) + Cl (g), 82. Number of extensive following is Properties among the cathode will be (1) Na(s) (2) He(g) (3) 02a) 4 Gs) Density (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Five le ‘Aakash Tower, 8, P 140008, Phone : 011-47623456 Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-4762345% ‘orporat $ RIE ees ) 83. Assystem gives out 10 J of heat and also does 20 | 88. The value of K: for the phosphorylation of glucose of work, then change in internal energy wil be in glycolysis is 3.8 * 10° at 298 K, The value of AG* (1) 304 (2) -305 of the reaction at the same temperature will be (@) 105 (@) 104 (1) =8.314 J mot K+ « 298 K x In (3.8) ‘84. Statement |: Expansion of a gas in vacuum (2) 8.314 J mort K~t x 298 K x In (3.8 x 10) (Pov = 0)is called free expansion (3) ~B.314 J mob K-! x 298 K » in (3.8 « 10°) Statement Il Ifa process is carried out at constant (4) ~8.314.J mot Kt * 298 K x log (3.8 x 10%) volume, aU = qr 89. For the redox reaction tn the light of above statements, choose the most Flr st oet ‘appropriate answer from the options given below: Maj + Br +H" —» Mn?* + Bry +0 (1) Statement | is comect but statement Il is The correct coefficients of the reactants for the incorect balanced equation are (2) Both the statements | and Il are correct mmo; fer dat (8) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 1 is correct [2 0 /e (4) Both the statements | and i are incorrect @ [2 5 le 85. Which ofthe following are state functions? oi ee oa (wy w (iyarw (Mat 2 pee (1) and (only (2) (yang (iy only | 90. The sum of oxidation numbers ef al the carbon &) (land,vyony dana nen atoms present in carbon suboxide compound is (1) Zero @2 SemmoNs @4 es 86. Equilorium constant Ke for the given reaction | 91, The number of Faraday (F) required to produce 2 Ag20(8)+2HNO3(aq)——*2AgNO3(aq) +H,0(6) ‘moles of O2 gas from electrolysis of acidic water is is (2 (24 @6 ae 92. Which ofthe folowing sats wil give highest pli in water? (2) K, = ANOsIIH20] (1) KeC0s (2) Nac . 2 [HNo, | (8) NaiSOx (4) NaCios [Aahiog} 93. The pH of 0.01M KOH (aq) solution wil be (3) Ke ~ [aN ay7 (22 " @)6 2 [AgNos] 94, Total number of Lewis acids among the folowing (8) Ke= os] species is OF, F, NHS ‘The number of electrons delivered at the cathode BF, AIC, Co™, OH 7 during electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in (1) Five 96.5 seconds is (2) Four (1) 6.02 « 102° (2) 6.02 10% (3) Three (3) 6.02 « 102" (4) 6.02 « 101° (4) Six Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone ; 011-47623456 Tocca) ec gg, Correct slater = -ve and A 1) If gH = - ve 2 ‘ nonspontaneous at al temperatures = + ve and AS = - ve, the reaction is ent is s = + ve, the reaction is (2) aH rnonspontaneous at all temperatures (9) IaH = + ve and aS = + ve, the reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures (a) aH = = ve and aS =~ ve, the reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures 96. Consider the following bond energies: Enthalpy for the reaction, HC = CH + Ha > Ha - CHs will be (1) atbtc+2d (2) atb-c-2d (3) c#2d-a-b (4)-fa+b+o+20) 97. For which one of the following equations, aH? All india Aakash Test Ser (1) He(g) + Bro(¢) > 2HBr(g) (2) 2C(graphite, s) + 3H2(q) + 40210) > CeHLOH(0) (3) C(graphite, s) + 2He(g) -> CHe(g) (4) Xe(g) + 2F2(g) + XeF«(g) 98. Consider the given pressure vs volume graph A 1 B P| : c v> ‘The maximum work done by the gas is obtained in aya (2) B @c (4) D 99. The molar conductivity of 0.25 M solution of KCI at 300 K is 110 S cm? mol-!. The conductivity of their solution in S emt is (1) 2.75 «104 (3) 2.75 «102 (2) 2.75 x 10% (4) 2.75 « 104 100. Exar, =—XVand E53. .,2, =¥V, the standard EMF of the reaction A + 24% -+ 3A2* will be (Enthalpy of reaction) is not equal to AH? () -xey ons (Enthalpy of formation) forthe product? wey niaey [BOTANY] a 7 "SECTION-A 7] | 102. Read the following statements and select the : — correct option. 4101. Periderm is formed in {e) Dicotsiem ‘A. Annual ings are very distinc in plants growing in tropical areas. (b) Monocot stem ee a Late wood slight das (6) Dicot root itn cor ond hasiow density, (@) Monocot root (1) Only statement Ais incorrect, Choose correct ones (1) Both (a) and(b) (2) Both (a) and (c) (4) Both (a) and (4) (2) Only statement Bis incorrect () Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (3) Both (c) and (¢) Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone :011-47623456 RE mons 103, Which of the following is nota function of pericycle? (1) Storage of food material (2) Controling the quantity of solutes that reach the xylem (3) Formation of a part of cambial rng in roots (4) Giving rise to lateral roots 104. In members of Poaceae, certain adaxial epidermal cells modify themselves into large, empty and colourless cells known as (1) Palisade parenchyma 2) Bulitorm cells (8) Spongy parenchyma (4) Bundle sheath cells 108. Which of the following is correct wert, casparian strips? (1) Present in dicot roots only (2) Present in pericycle of monocot roots (8) Present in endodermis and is made of suberin (4) Present in epidermis and is made of lignin 108. In angiosperms, secondary growth in roots differ from stems as the former occurs with the help of vascular cambium ring which is (1) Partly primary partly secondary (2) Show differential activity with respect to environment (3) Completely secondary and wavy in nature (4) Made of deditferentiated pericycle cells oniy 107. Scattered vascular bundles are found in which stem of the following plants? (1) Gram (2) China rose @) Maize (4) Mustard 108. In which of the following structures, cuticle is absent? (1) Dicot stem (3) Dicot root (2) Monocct stem (4) Dicot leaf 109. Mark the tissue(s) which does not constitute the bark. (1) Periderm (2) Secondary xylem (3) Secondary phloem and phellogen Te Ca 110. Dicot stem is similar to monocot stem in presence of all given characters, except (1) Conjoint vascular bundles (2) Hypodermis (3) Vascular cambium (4) Endarch xylem 111, Select odd one out wert. de-ciferentiated tissue. (1) Apical meristem (2) Cork cambium (3) Pheliogen (4) Inter-fascicular eambium 142. Which wood is lighter in colour and has a lower density? (1) Spring wood (3) Late wood (2) Autumn wood (4) Heart wood 113. Conjoint, collateral, closed vascular bundles are found in (1) Dicot root (2) Dicot stem (4) Monocot stem. 114. In dicots, lateral roots arise from (1) Pith 2) Epidermis (8) Endodermis (4) Pericycle 148. Read the following statements and select the correct option @) Monocot root, ‘A. Sequoia is the tallest aymnosperm, 8. Pollen grain is reduced female gametophyte in conifers. (1) Only statement A is incorrect (2) Only statement B is incorect (8) Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the statements A and B are incorect 1146. Which of the following statements isfare correct? A. Asexual spores in brown algae are pear-shaped having two unequal laterally attached fagell. Rhodophyceae occur in both webihted regions close to the surface of water and also at great depths in oceans, B, C. Pyrenoids in green algae contain proteins (4) Phellem and phelloderm besides starch, (4) Only A (2) Only B (3) Onlyc (4) ANNA, Band C Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone :011-47623456 ee axe usually ound inmarine habitats B__ colour. i" giving They have se the eorrect option toil n ne blanks A and Choo 8 A B (1) Fucoxanthin Brown {2) Phycoenythin Red {@) Fucoxanthin Red Brown (4) Payooenytrin 118, Read the following staements and state Fase F) and choose the correct option ‘A. Poem parenchyma is present in all plants 3. The cell wall of phloem parerichyina wis composed of cellose_and/ha® pf) through ‘which plasmodesmata, connections. exist between the cells C. The phloem parenchyma stores food material and other substances. AB ¢ Mt oTet @tT fF T (3) F T T (4) F T F 119. Choose the correct statement (1) The plant body in pteridophytes is more differentiated than algae and bryophytes (2) Mannitol is structurally similar to amylopectin and glycogen * (3) Liverworts have more elaborate spore dispersal mechanism than mosses (4) Bryophytes are ecologically less important but ‘economically more important 120, Select odd one out w.rt. ploidy in Sphagnum. (1) Gametophyte (2) Protonema (3) Rhizoids (4) Capsule 121, Choose the correct option w.r.t, gemmae (1) Sexual buds of Sphagnum (2) Sexual buds of Funaria (3) Asexual buds of Marchantia (4) Sexual buds of Marchantia true (T) or Corporate Office : Aakash Tower Allindia Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 122, Select the incorrect statement. (1) Bryophytes are amphibians of the plant kingdom (2) In. Marchantia, the main plant body is gametophytic (3) The pteridophytes are found in cool, dry, shady places (4) Majority of pteridophytes aré homosporous Match the following columns and select the correct 123. option. Column | Column Il ageCoffiplex post (i) Ectocarpus fertilisation development b. Used in preparation of (ii) Chlorella jce-creams ©. Filamentous body (ill) Rhodophyceae 4. Used as food (iv) Agar supplements by space travellers (1) alii, Biv), c(i), (i) (2) atti), BG), civ), di) (3) iv), BU), 6), Gi) (4) a0), Bciv), eli), a) 124. How many of the following is/are associated with green algae? (2) Chlorophyll a (b) Agar (©) Pyrenoids (4) Floridean starch (e) Two unequal lateral flagella (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four 125, Cells of which of the following de-differentiate to form interfascicular cambium in the stem? (1) Medullary rays (2) Cortex (3) Endodermis (4) Perioycle 7 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 11-47623456 126, Select the correct option wrt. collenchyma, () Moceurs in layers below the epidermis in most ‘monocotyledonous plants. (2) Iconsists of cells which are much thickened at the comers due to deposition’ of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin (9) Celts are loosely packed with large inter-cellular spaces. (4) Colts are dead with no protoplasm, 127. Select the correct option we, 4. tissues forming ‘major component within organs, (1) The colts are generally sodiametric. (2) Their walls are thick, ma 1J€ UP of cellulose and lignin, (2) They are always clos ely packed with no intercellular spaces, () They provide mechanical strength and divide rapidly 28, The meristems that occur in the Foots and shoots of man sides are known as 1© mature regions of Plants along the lateral (9 Apical meristom (2) intercalary meristem (4) Primary meristem poe ee) ee (6) one teeee | statements and choose the correct option. (A) Some cells (3) Lateral meristem ‘left behind” from shoot apical ‘meristem, constitute axillary bud, (8) Intercalary meristem regenerates parts 9rasses which are removed by herbivores, y the grazing (C) Primary meristems appear early in life ofa plant ‘and contribute only to secondary or lateral Growth of the plant body, Auge. c MT TT F @T FT (ie w os @t oT T ETC 190. Read the statements and select the correct option. ‘A. Eudorina is colonial algae, 8. Uothrix and Spirogyra are filamentous algae (1) Only statement A is incorrect (2) Only statement B is incorrect @ @ 131. Cytotexonomy is based on all given features, except (1) DNA sequence in chromosomes Both the statements A and B are correct, Both the statements A and @ are incorrect 2) Chromosome number @) Chromosome structure (4) Chromosome behaviour 182. Which of the following is based on chemical Constituents of the plant? (1) Karyotaxonomy (@) Chemotaxonomy (4) Numerical taxonomy 123. Which of the following features is/are included in natural system of classification? (@) Ultrastructure (©) Anatomy (©) Embryology (8) Phytochemistry (1) Only (@ (3) Only (6), (6) and (a) 124. Which of the following sys based on natural afinite (1) Atifcial system, (2) Phylogenetic system (3) Natural system (4) Phenetics 185. Select incorrect statement classification, (2) Phenetics (2) Only (b) and (e) (8) All (@), (©), (c) ana (a) tems of classification was, *$ among the organisms? WA artificial system of (1) Used only gross superficial morphological characters, (2) Based only on vegetative characters (3) Separated the closely related species (4) Gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual characters Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone /011-47620456 EN SECTION-B 136, dently the following statements as true (T) or false (F)and select the correct option, ‘A. Stomata are structures present in the epidermis of leaves. B. Each stoma is composed of two bean-shaped calls known as subsidiary cells, A 8 aT T ae T @)T F we F "31. Sclereids are found in all of the following, except (1) Fruit walls of nuts (2) Pulp of fut ike pear, quava and sapota (3) Seed coat of legumes (4) Liquid endosperm of coconut 138. Which of the followin, Stowth in plants? (1) Cork (2) Phellogen (3) Apical meristem (4) Vascular cambium 1 'S responsible for primary 189, Select the correct statement wir. dicot stem. (1) Endodermis is absent (2) Xylem is exarch and polyarch (8) Conjoint, collateral; open vascular bundles are arranged ina ring (4) Water-containing cavities are present in vascular bundles 140. Read the following statements and select the correct option, ‘A. Brown algae show great variation in size and form. B. Wolffia is the smallest angiosperm. (1) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both the statements A and B are correct CURE ees Pe 141. The main plant body: of the non-vascular ‘amphibians of the plant kingdom is (1) Haploid (2) Diploid (3) Triptois (4) Tetraploid 142, Select the incorrect statement (1) The roots of Cycas are in fungal association forming mycorrhiza, (2) The gymnosperms are heterosporous as they Droduce haploid microspores and megaspores, (3) Needle-ike leaves in conifers is is a xerophytic, ‘adaptation, (4) Unlike bryophytes and Pteridophytes, in Symnosperms the male and the female ‘Sametophytes do not have an independent free. living existence, 143. Lateral meristem includes (@) Fascicular vascular cambium (0) Interfascictitar cambium (©) Cork cambium (1) Only (a) (2) Only (b) ana (c) 3) Only (e) (4) All(a),(b) and (e) "44, Match the folowing columns and ‘Select the correct option, Column a. | Largely aquatic thallophytes Seed-producing archegoniates Flower-producing | (iy Gymnosperms spermatophytes First embryophytes | (iv) | angiosperms (4) afi, BG, ef), (2) afi, WAN, of, aqvy (3) afiv, BG), ei), dQ) (4) ali, BG, et, av) 148. Select the incorrect match. (4) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (1) Psiotum => Psilopsida (2) Selaginetia = Pteropsida (8) Lycopodium = Lycopsida (4) Equisetum ~ Sphenopsida Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 RUE es ‘148. Which of the following is neither marine nor used as food? (1) Porphyra (2) Laminaria (3) Sargassum (4) Volvox: 147. Cogamous type of reproduction is fotind in (1) Fucus (2) Eudorina (3) Vlothrix (4) Spirogyra 148. Which of the following produces non-motile gametes which are similar in size? ers 149. Which of the following is most common asexual spores of algae? (1) Zoospores (3) Conidia (2) Sporangiospores (4) Aplanospores Read the given statements and select the correct option w.r.t, numerical taxonomy. 150. ‘A. Number and codes are assigned to all the characters, B. Atthe same time hundreds of characters can be considered and each character is given equal weightage. (1) Only statement Ais correct (2) Only statement B is correct () Both the statements A and B are correct (4) Both the'statements A and B are incorrect [ZOOLOGY] (1) Ulothrix 2) Spirogyra (3) Eudorina (4) Volvo SECTION-A 181. Identify the part of hind brain that is not the part of, brain stem and select the correct option. (1) Cerebellum (2) Pons (3) Cerebrum (4) Hypothalamus 152. Select the odd one w.r.t. paired bone. (1) Parietal (2) Zygomatic (3) Maxilla (4) Mandible 183. All of the following favour the formation of large uantiies of hypotonic urine, except (1) ANF (2) Alcohol (8) Caffeine (4) Renin 154. Which of the following is not a component of knee jerk reflex? (1) Motor end plate (3) Sensory neuron The organ of Cortiis a structure which contains hair cells that act as auditory receptors. Itis located on (2) interneuron (4) Muscle spindle (1) Tympanic membrane (2) Reissner’s membrane (3) Tectorial membrane (4) Basilar membrane Corporate Ofce : Aakash Tower. 8 168. Select the incorrect statement. (1) The chemical senses of gustation and olfactory are functionally similar and interrelated. (2) Rods contain the purplish ted protein called rhodopsin which is a derivative of vitamin D. (8) Olfactory bulb are extensions of the brain's limbic system. (4) Photoreceptors in the human eye are hyperpolarised in response to the light stimulus. 157. Parls A, B, Cand D of the human eye are shown in the diagram, Select the option which gives incorrect, identification along with its function/characterstc. D rN (1) D — Choroid ~ Contains many blood vessels and looks bluish in colour (2) C ~ Blind spot — Absence of rods and cones in this region (3) B — Fovea - High density of cones occur, but has no rods (4) A — Comea ~ External layer of eyeball and is. composed of loose connective tissue Pusa Road, New Delt init 10005. Phone : 011-47623456 oes elect the correct match regarding the specific 7 ewer of muscular orseltl sytem ~ Autosimmune disorder affecting ‘neuromuscular junction, (1) Muscular dystrophy (2) Tetany = Wild contractions in ‘muscle due to low calcium in body fluid 8) Gout ~ Inflammation of joints due to extra deposition, of calcium (4) Myasthenia gravis - Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle due to genetic disorder 159. Myosin laments ate held together by a thin fibrous membrane called (1) Zine. (2) Mine (3) bang (4) Acband 180. Select the incorrect match, (1) Diabetes metitus —— Presence ofblood in urine (2) Renal calcut Mass of crystalised Salts within kidney (3) Glomerulonephritis — intammation of glomeruli (4) Glycosuria ~ Presence of glucose in urine 161. Consider the given statements and select the incorrect one (1) The principal nitrogenous waste product in humans is synthesised in kidneys. (2) Our lungs remove approximately 12 L COs per hour. (3) Small amounts of nitrogenous wastes could be eliminated through saliva. (4) The primary function of sweat is to facilitate a (1) Scala tympani (3) Scala vestibuli 164, Select the mismatch. 166. Assertion ( cooling effect on the body surface. Corporate Office : eases) 162. All of the following are the functions performed by hypothalamus, except (1) Urge for eating and drinking (2) Controting the endocrine functions (3) Acting as a thermostat system (4) Regulation of respiration 163. The space filled with endolyr called mph, within cochlea is (2) Scata media (4) Tympanie cavity (1) Unmyetinated nerve ~ Not enclosed by fibres in PNS, ‘Schwann cell (2) Unipolarneurons Cell body with one ‘axon only () Muttipolar neurons — Found in the cerebral cortex j (6) Bipolar neurons — Found in the retina of eye ‘ 165. Choose the correct option wrt nee impulse conduction. \ (1) When a neurons not conducting any imputse, Re axonal membrane is: comparatively more ‘etmeable to Na* ions, \ (2) lonic gradients across the resting membrane Tamemaitained by the Navi pump wiien ‘Fansports 3Na* outwards for 2k* into the wal the outer surface of axona ssesse5 a negative charge. (4) At rest, the axonal membs Negatively charged ‘axoplasm, rane is permeable | Proteins present in tr : The number of cervical vertebre ‘are seven in all mammals including humans. Reason (R): Presence of seven cervical vertebre \s a characteristic feature of class Mammalia, {Im the light of above statements, select the corre option, (1) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) i8 the corre: 1 explanation of (A) (2) Both (A) and (R) ate true, (R) is not th explanation of (A) (3) (A)is false, (R) is true (4) Both (A) and (R) false “Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 01147623456 as 8, (1) Sling flament theory can be best explained as when myoflaments slide pass each other, both actin and myosin filaments shorten (2) Stimulation of a muscle fibre by @ sensory ‘ReUrON occurs at the transverse tubules, (@) A decreased level of progesterone causes ‘osteoporosis in old people. (4) Axial skeleton comprises 80 bones distributed along the main axis of the body. 168. The total number of phalanges present in one forearm of an adult man is (1) Equal to the number of facial bones (2) More than the number of phatanges in one hind | lim (3) Less than the number of wrist bones in one forearm (4) Equal to the number of cranial bones 168. Choose the non-matching pair. (1) Scapula and = Appendicular humerus skeleton (2) Vertebral column - Axial skeleton and sternum (3) Hyoid and stapes — Skull bones (4) Acetabulum and - Pelvic girdle glenoid cavity 470, Which of the following is the correct statement? (1) All tocomotions are’ movements but all movements are not locomotion. (2) Methods of locomotion performed by the animals vary with their habitats only (3) Muscle bundles are held together by a common collagenous connective tissue layer called fascicles. (4) Locomotion requites a perfect coordinated activity of only skeletal and neural systems. 171. Allof the given substances are reabsorbed actively, ic ce 172, Match column | with column Il and select the correct option. Column 1 Column tt @ Podocytes (i) Cellular modification in DCT and afferent arteriole b. Malpighian (il) Conditional reabsorption corpuscle of Na* and water ©. JGA (ii) Filtration sits 4. DCT (iv) Situated in the cortical region of kidney (1) 2(), BG, fi), ev) (2) afi, be, 9), ey (8) atv, bei, ei, 6) (4) afi, EG, fi, a6) 173, Read the given statements and select the co option. ct Statement X: Part of nephron where maximum ‘reabsorption of nutrients occur is lined by brush bordered columnar epithelium, Statement Y: PCT helps to maintain the pH and ‘onic balance of the body fuids by selective ‘secretion of hydrogen ions and potassium ions into the fitrate, (1) Both the statements X and Y are correct (2) Both the statements X and Y are incorrect (8) Only statement x is correct (4) Only statement Y is correct ‘There are two types of nephrons which differ from each other in given features, except (1) Length of loop of Henle (2) Their abundance or number in humans 174, (8) Presence of counter current mechanism (4) Presence of proximal convoluted tubule Select the incorrect statement w.r.t, human kidney (1) Kidneys are situated between the levels of last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra close to the ventral wall of the abdominal cavity. 175, (2) The outer layer ofthe kidney is a tough capsule. (3) Some amount of urea may be retained in the kidney matrix. a (4) Each kidney of an adult human measures 2) Urea 40 12 cm in length with an average weight of (1) Glucose @ teen (3) Sodium ions (4) Amino acids Corporate Office : Aakash Tow er, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110006. Phone :011-47623456 4, How many of given parts of brain are involved n the Teeulaton of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional reactions and motivation? ‘Amygdala, Hippocampus, Hypothalamus, Pons, | cerebetn, Meuila oblongata Choose the correct option (1) One (2) Two (8) Four (4) Three ATT. Which of the following parts of neuron carries impulses away from the oyton? (1) Dendrites, 2) Axon (3) Synaptic knob (4) Cell body 178. Injury localised to the part of brain stem that is ‘connected to spinal cord would most likely disrupt (1) Co-ordination during locomotion (2) Cardiovascular reflexes (8) Regulation of the body temperature (4) Executive functions, such as decision-making 179. Select the option which includes the part of Peripheral nervous system. (2) Brain (©) Cranial nerves (©) Spinal cord (d) Spinal nerves (1) (@)ana (by (3) (@) and (c) (2) (b) and (e) (4) (b) and (4), 180. The property common between muscle fibres and nerve fibres is (1) Extensibility (3) Elasticity (2) Contractility (4) Excitability 181. All of the following are the properties shown by ‘muscle fibres that assist in the tranéportation of food. through the digestive tract, except (1) Do not exhibit any striation and are smooth in appearance (2) They are not under the voluntary control of the nervous system (3) Involved in locomotory actions and changes of body postures (4) They do not exhibit branching pattern Alllindia’Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023) 182. Choose the correct match from the options given below. (1) Hydra = Uses cilia for locomotion ‘as well as for predation (2) Sycon — Flagella assists in maintenance of water current in canal system (8) Euglena — Ciliary movement helps in its swimming (4) Paramecium — Pseudopodia are formed by the streaming of protoplasm 183. Complete the analogy and select the correct option Protonephridia : Amphioxus :: Nephridia: (1) Pheretima (2) Planaria (3) Periplaneta (4) Prawns 184. Choose the option that represents the correct order of increasing toxicity of main nitrogenous wastes, (1) Ammonia < Urea < Uric acid (2) Urea < Utic acid > Ammonia (3) Uric acid < Urea < Ammonia (4) Ammonia > Uric acid > Urea 185. Identity the form of nitrogenous wastes excreted by {he first true land vertebrates and animals belonging to the largest class of phylum Arthropoda respectively (1) Ammonia and urea (2) Uric acid and uric acid (3) Urea and uric acid (4) Uric acid and ammonia SECTION-B 186. Apperson used to have stage fear whenever he was asked to narrate something on stage by his class teacher. Which one of the following is Tkely to ‘happen in his neuro-hormonal control system? (1) Hypothalamus activates the parasympathetic division of the brain, (2) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing acetylcholine (3) Sympathetic nervous system is activated releasing adrenaline from adrenal medulla (4) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly across the cleft and causes hyperpolarization of post ‘synaptic neuron. Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 EES ‘187. Assertion (A): The neural organisation is better Organised in insects in comparison to coelenterates. Reason (R): In insects, a brain s present along with @ number of ganglia and neural tissues while coelenterates consist of a network of neurons In the light of above statements, select the correct option, () (jis true, (R) is false (2) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (8) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (4) (A)is false, (R) is tue 188. Choose the incorrect statement. (1) During muscle contraction, the ‘I-bands get Feduced and ‘A'-bands retain the length, (@) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the Occipital condyles (3) Sternum is a flat bone thorax. on the ventral midiine of (4) There are seven pairs of vertebrostemal, three Palrs of vertebrochondral and two pairs of vertebral ribs. 189, Select the correct statement, (1) The urine formed is a light yellow-coloured watery fluid which is slightly alkaline and has a characteristic odour. (2) Use of an artificial kidney during hemodialysis may result in reduced RBC production and Feduced absorption of Ca jons from the Gl tract. ‘A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) directly activates posterior pituitary 10 release vasopressin, 3) (4) In haemodialysis, the cleared blood is pumped back to the body through a vein after addition of anticoagulant to it. 190. The structure that equalizes the pressure on either side of eardrum is (1) Vestibular apparatus (2) Eustachian tube (3) Tympanic membrane (4) Auditory meatus Corpé orate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Roa 191 192, 193, 194 198, I) ‘The part of myelinated neuron of cranial nerves tat contain axolemma, neurlemma but tack mygiy sheath is (1) Dendrites (2) Nodes of Ranvier (3) Cyton (4) Axon terminal Select the correct statement (1) The type of muscle Mbres present in our upper aim are smooth muscle fibres and fusionn ig shape. (2) The contractile protein of ‘skelotal muscle involving ATPase activity is troponin, (3) Parietal and the occipital bone of the skull are joined by a fibrous joint. (4) Myosin is an example of regulatory protein in the muscle contraction. The type of joint present between humerus and Pectoral girdle is same as that of present between (1) Femur ane tibia (2) Pelvis and femur (3) Carpal and metacarpal of human thumb (4) Radius and ulna Read the following statements and. select the correct option, Statement A: Glomerular filtrate has almost the Same composition as plasma except the proteins. Statement B: On an average, 1.1 — 1.2.L of blood 's fitered by the kidneys per minute which constitute roughly 1/4 of the blood pumped out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute, (1) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct (2) Both the statements (A) and (B) are incorrect (3) Only statement (A) is correct (4) Only statement (B) is correct Which of the following is not a part of the functional Unit ofthe kidney? (1) ber (2) Glomerutus {@) Collecting duct (@) PCT

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