SICA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS, INDORE

DEPARTMENT OF PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS
CLASS –XI : PHYSICS

CHAPTER 1
UNITS AND DIMENSIONS

Q1. The S.I. unit of thermal conductivity is

a) Jm-1K-1 b) W-mK-1 c) Wm-1 K-1 d) JmK-1

Q2. The length and breadth of a rectangular sheet are 16.2cmand 10.1cm,respectively .The area of the
sheet in appropriate significant figure is

a)164+-3 cm2 b)163.62+-2.6 cm2 c)163.6+-2.6cm2 d)163.62+-3 cm2

Q3 Obtain the dimensional formula for universal gas constant

a) [ML2T-2 mol-1 K-1] b) [M L3T-1 mol-2 K-1] c) [M L T mol K] d) [MLT mol K]

Q4 If speed V, area A and force F are chosen as fundamental units, then thedimensionalformula of young
modules will be

a) [FA2 V-3] b) [FA-1V0] c) [FA2 V-2] d) [FA2V-1]

Q5. Photon is quantum of radiation with energy E=hⱴ,where nu is frequency andh is Plancks constant. The
dimensions of h are the same as that of

a) linear impulse b) angular impulse c) linear momentum d) energy

Q6 Dimensions of resistance in an electrical circuitin terms of dimension of MassM,of length L ,of time
T and of current I,would be

a)[ML2T-3I-2] b)[ML2T-3I-1] c)[ML2T-1I-1] d)[ML2T-2]

Q7 . The number of particles crossing per unit area perpendicular to z-axis perUnit time is given by
N=D(N2-N1)/(Z2-Z1) Where, N2 And N1 arethe numberof particles per unit volume at Z1and Z2
respectively what is the dimension of D

a) [M0L2T-1] b) [M2L 1T] c) [M 0L2T3] d) [M2L2T]

Q 8. The value of 600 in radian is

a) π/3 b) π/2 c) π/4 d)all of these

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Q9. One unified atomic mass unit represents a mass of magnitude

a)1.66×10-27kg b)1030kg c)1.66×1027kg d)10-30kg

Q10. The addition of these three masses 1.6g,7.32g and 4.238g addressed

a)13.2 g b)13.158g c)13.16g d)13.15g

Q11 The no of significant zeroes presents in the measured value 0.020040 is

a) three b) one c) two d)five

Q12 . The dimensional formula for permittivity of free space € 0 will be

a)[M -1L-3T0A2] b) [M-1L3T0 A2] c) [M-1 L-3T4A2] d)[M-1 L-3T4 A2]

Q13. The dimensions of length are expressed as G X cy hz where G, c and h are Universal gravitational
constant, speed of light and Planck’sconstant, then

a) x=(1/2),y=(1/2) b)x=(1/2),z=(-1/2) c)y=(-3/2),z=(1/2) d)y=(1/2),z=(3/2)

Q14. The SI unit of inductance, the henry can be written as

a) weber/ampere b) volt-sec/amp c) joule/(ampere)2 d) all above

Q15. The pair of physical quantities that have the same dimensions are

a) Reynold no and coefficient of friction b) Curie and frequency of a light wave

c)Latent heat and gravitational potential d) Planck’s constant and torque

1. c 6. a 11. d
2. a 7. a 12. d
3. a 8. a 13. c
4. b 9. a 14. d
5. c 10. a 15. a

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 CHAPTER 2
MOTION IN STRAIGHT LINE
Q1. Two balls are projected upward simultaneously with speed 40m/s and 60 m/s Relative position of
second ball wrt first ball at time t=5s is [neglect air Resistance]

a) 100m b)120m c)80m d)20m

Q2. A ball is dropped a height h above ground. Neglect the air resistance ,itsvelocity (v) varies with its
height above the ground as

a)√2𝑔(ℎ − 𝑦) 𝑏)√2𝑔ℎ 𝑐) √2𝑔𝑦 𝑑) 𝑛𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑖𝑠

Q3. A train of 150m length is going towards North at a speed of 10m/s.A bird is flying at 5 m/s parallel to
the track towards south. The time taken by the bird cross the train is

a)10s b)15s c) 30s d)12s

Q4. Two cars are moving in the same direction with a speed of 30 km/h.They are separated from each other
by 5km.Third car moving in the opposite directionmeets the two cars after an interval of 4 minThe
speed of third car

a) 45km/h b) 40km/h c)25km/h d) 30km/h

Q5. If the magnitude of average speed and average velocity over an interval of time are same, then
a) Particle must move in a straight line without turning back
b) Particle must be at rest.
c) Particle must move with uniform acceleration
d) Particle must move with zero acceleration.
Q6. A man moves in an open field such that after moving 10m on a straight line, he makes a sharp turn of
600 to his left. The total displacement after 8 such turn is equal

a)17.32 m b) 14.14m c)15m d)12m

Q7. Acar accelerates from rest at a constant rate α for some time after which it deaccelerates at a constant
rate β and comes to rest. If total time elapsed t, themaximum velocity acquired by the car will b

a)αβt/α+β b)(α+β) t/αβ c) (α2+β2) t/αβ d) none

Q8. The displacement -time graph for two particles A and B are straight linesinclined at anglesof 30 0 and
600 withthe time axis. The ratio of velocities of VA: VB is
a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c)1:√3 d)√3: 1

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Q9. An aeroplane flies 400m north and 300 m south and then flies 1200 m Upwards then the net
displacement will be

a) 1200m b) 1300m c)1400 m d)1500 m

Q10. A 150m long train is moving with uniform velocity of 45km/h. The timetaken by the train to cross a
bridge of length 850m is
a) 50 b) 53.33 c) 48 d) 80
Q11. Which of the following is an example of one-dimensionalmotion
a) Landing of an aircraft b) Earth revolving around the sun
c)Motion of wheels of moving train d) train running on a straight track
Q12. A car travels on a straight road for half of its time at 80 km /hr andfor rest half of time to
40 km/total distance covered is 60km.What is the average speed of car
a) 60km/h b)80km/h c)120km/hr d)180km/h

Q13. The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of Timeelapsed. The magnitude of
acceleration of the body is
a) increasing with time b) decreasing with time
c) constant but not zero d) zero
Q14. The instantaneous velocity of body is measured
a) Graphically b) Vectorially c) By speedometer d) Both a and c
Q15. The acceleration of a moving body can be found from
a) Area under velocity time graph b) Area under distance time graph
c) Slope of the velocity time graph d) slope of distance time graph

1. a 6. a 11. d

2. a 7. a 12. a

3. a 8. b 13. a

4. a 9. a 14. d

5. a 10. d 15. c

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 CHAPTER 3
MOTION OF OBJECT IN PLANE
Q1. The angular velocity depends upon the rate of change of the
a) Angular acceleration b) Angular distance c) Angular displacement d) torque
Q2. A small body attached at the end of an inextensible string completes a vertical circle. Then its
a) Angular momentum remains constant b) linear momentum constant
c)angular velocity remains constant d) total mechanical energy remains constant
Q3. A cyclist goes on a circular path of circumference 343 m in s. The angle made by Himwith the vertical is
a) 440 b) 420 c) 430 d) 450
Q4. How many minimum numbers of vectors in different planes can be added to givezero resultant
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
Q5. Which of the following is an essential condition for horizontal component projectile remain constant
a) Acceleration due to gravity should be exactly constant b) Angle of projection should be 45

c)There should be no air resistance d) all of these

Q6. The timeof flight of a projectile on an upward inclined plane depends upon
a) angle of inclination of the plane b) angle of projection
c)the value of acceleration due to gravity d) all of above

Q7. At the highest point on the trajectory of a projectile, its

a) potential energy is minimum b) kinetic energy is maximum
c)total energy is maximum d) kinetic energy is minimum

Q8. The angle of projection, for which the horizontal range and the maximum height
of a projectile are equal is:

a) 45 b) T=tan-1(4) c) T=tan (0.25) d) none of these

Q9. The horizontal range is four times the maximum height attained by a projectile. The
angle of projection is

a) 900 b) 600 c) 450 d) 300

Q10. A body of mass 0.5 kg is projected under gravity with a speed of 98m/s at an angle
of 300with the horizontal. The change in momentum of the body is

a) 24.5 N-s b) 49.0 N-s c) 98.0 N-s d) 50.5 N-s

Q11. A gun is aimed at a target in a line of its barrel. The target is released and allowed to fall
Under gravity at the same instant the gun is fired. The bullet will

a) Pass above the target b)Pass below the target

c)Hit the target d) Certainly miss the target Page-5

Q12. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the direction of its velocity and acceleration are
a) perpendicular to each other b) parallel to each other
c) inclined to each other at an angle d) antiparallel to each other

Q13. A ball is projected with kinetic energy E at an angle 45 0 to the horizontal. At the highest
Point during its flight, its kinetic energy will be

a) zero b) E/2 c) E d) 2E

Q14 A football player throws a ball with a velocity of 50 m/sec at an angle 30 degrees
From the horizontal. The ball remains in the air for (g=10m/sec 2)

a) 2.5 sec b) 1.25 sec c) 5 sec d) 0.625 sec

Q15. The path followed by a projectile is known as

a) territory b) treasury c) tractor d) trajectory

Q16 If for two vectors A and B sum (A+B)is perpendicular to the difference (A- B ).The ratio of
the magnitude is
a)1 b)2 c)3 d)none
Q17. If two vectors 2i+3j-k and -4i-6j-ak are parallel to each other
Than value of a be
a) 0 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Q18. If A×B =B×A than the angle between A and B will be

a) π/2 b) π/3 c) π d) π/4
Q19. The vector projection of a vector 3i+4k on y axis is
a)5 b)4 c)3 d)zero
Q20. A force of 5N acts on a particle along a direction making an angle of 60 with vertical.
Its vertical component be

a)1.0N b) 3N c)4N d)2.5 N

1. c 6. d 11. c 16. a
2. d 7. d 12. a 17. b
3. d 8. b 13. d 18. a
4. c 9. d 14. c 19. d
5 c 10. 15. d 20. d

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 CHAPTER 4
NEWTON LAWS OF MOTION
Q1. A bird weighs 2 kg and is inside a closed cage of 1 kg .If it startsflying than what is the
Weight of the bird and cage assembly
a) 1.5kg b) 2.5kg c) 3 kg d) 4 kg

Q2. A force of100 dyne acts on mass of 5 gm for 10 sec. The velocity produced is

a) 2cm/sec b) 20cm/sec c) 200cm/sec d) 2000cm/sec

Q3. A particle of mass 0.3kg is subjected to a force F=-kx with k=15N/m. What will be
Its initial acceleration if it is released from a point 20 cm away from the origin

a) 5m/s2 b) 10m/s2 c) 3m/s 2 d) 15m/s2

Q4. At a place where the acceleration due to gravity is 10m/sec2, a force of 5 kg-wt
Acts on a body of mass 10kg initially at rest. The velocity of the body after 4 second

a) 5m/sec b) 10m/sec c) 20m/sec d) 50 m/sec

Q5 The ratio of weight of a man in a stationary lift and when it is moving downward
With uniform acceleration “a” is 3:2. The value of ‘a’ is

a) 3/2g b) g/3 c) 2/3g d) g

Q6. A 30-gmbullet initially travelling at 120m/s penetrates 12cm into a wooden block
the average resistance exerted by the wooden block is

a) 2850N b) 2200N c) 2000N d) 1800N

Q7. A body of mass 1.0kg is falling with an acceleration of 10 m/sec 2. Its apparent weight
will be (g=10m/sec2)

a) 1.0kg-wt b) 2.0kg-wt c) 0.5kg-wt d) zero

Q8. A rocket is ejecting 50g of gases per sec at a speed of 500m/s. The accelerating force on
The rocket will be

a) 125N b) 25 N c) 5N d) zero
Q9. An automobile travelling with a speed of 60km/h can break to stop within a distance of 20m .If the car is
going twiceas fast i.e. 120 km /h the stopping distance will be

a) 20m b) 40m c) 60m d) 80m

Q10. A pendulum bob of mass 50gm is suspended from the ceiling of an elevator. The tension in the string if
the elevator goes up with uniform velocity is

a) 0.30 N b) 0.40N c) 0.42 N d) 0.50N

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 FRICTION

Q11. A force of 98 N is required to just start moving a body of mass 100 kg over ice. The
coefficient of static friction is
a) 0.6 b) 0.4 c) 0.2 d) 0.1
Q12. Maximum value of static friction is called
a) Limiting friction b) rolling friction c) normal d) coefficient friction
Q13. Which is suitable method to decrease friction
a) Ball and bearings b) Lubricationc) polishingd) all the above
Q14. To avoid slipping while walking on ice, one should take smaller steps because of the
a) friction of ice is large b) larger normal reaction
c)friction of ice small d) smaller normal reaction
Q15. A block of 1kg is stopped against a wall by applying a force perpendicular to the wall
If u =0.2 then minimum value of F will be

a) 980N b) 49N c) 98 N d) 490 N

Q16. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when give a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped By friction in 10
sec. Then the coefficient of friction is (consider g=10m/s)

a) 0.02 b )0.03 c) 0.06 d) 0.001

Q17. Consider a car moving on a straight road with a speed of 100 m/s. The distance at which
A car can be stopped is (u =0.5m/s)

a)8 00 m b )1000m c) 100 m d) 400m

Q18. A cyclist turns a curved road at 15 miles /hour. If he turns at double the speed. thetendency to overturn
is
a) Doubled b) Quadrupled c) Halved d) unchanged
Q19 If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in equal times, its velocity vector
a) remains constant b) change in magnitude
c) change in direction magnitude same d) changes both in magnitude and direction
Q20. A tachometer is a device to measure
a) Gravitational pull b)speed of rotation c)surface tension d)tension in a spring

1. c 6. d 11. d 16. c
2. c 7. d 12. a 17. b
3. b 8. b 13. d 18. b
4. c 9. d 14. a 19. c
5. b 10. b 15. b 20. b
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 CHAPTER 5
WORK, POWER AND ENERGY

Q1 If the unit of force and length each be increased by four times then the unit of energy is
Increased by
a) 16 times b) 8 times c) 2 times d)4 times
Q2 A 50 kg man with 20kg load on his head climbs up 20 steps of 0.25m heigh each.
The work done in climbing is
a) 5j b) 350j c) 1000j d) 3430j
Q3. Aball of mass m moves with speed v and strikes a wall having infinite mass and
It returns with same speed then the work done by the ball on the wall is
a) zero b) mv j c) m/v j d) v/m j
Q4. Two masses of 1 gm and 4 gm are moving with equal kinetic energies. The ratio
of the magnitudes of their linear momenta is
a) 4:1 b)√2: 1 𝑐)1: 2 𝑑)1: 16
Q5. A shell is fired from the cannon with velocity v m/sec at an angle αwith the horizontal directions. At the
highest point in its path, it explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces retraces the path to
canon and the speed in m/sec of the other piece immediately after the explosion is
√3
a)3vcosα b)2vcosα c)3/2 v cos α d) 2𝑣𝑐𝑜𝑠𝛼

Q6. Consider elastic collision of particle of mass m moving with a velocity v with another particle of same
mass at rest. After the collision the projectile and struck particle move in directions making angles ∅1
and ∅2 respectively with the initial directions of motion. The sum of angles is
a) 45 0 b) 900 c) 1350 d) 1800

Q7. A body of mass m moving with velocity v collides head on with another of mass 2m which
is initially at rest. The ratio of kinetic energy of colliding body before and after the collision
will be
a) 1:1 b) 2:1 c) 4:1 d) 9:1
Q8. If g is the acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface, the gain in the potential energy
of an object of mass m raised from the surface of earth to height equal to the radius of
earth R is
a) 1/2 mgR b) 2mgR c) mgR d) 1/4 mgR
Q9. A neutron having mass of 1.67×10-27kg and moving at 108 m/sec collides with a deuteron
At rest and sticks to it. If the mass of the deuteron is 3.34×10 -27 kg speed of combination is
a)2.56×103m/sec b)2.98×105 m/sec c)3.33×107m/sec d)5.01×109 m/sec
Q10 The quantity that is not conserved during inelastic collision is ----------.
a) potential energy b) kinetic energy c) both d) none
1. a 6.
2. c 7. d
3. a 8. b
4. c 9. c
5. a 10. b
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 CHAPTER 6
MOTION OF RIGID BODIES

Q1. The mass centre of systemof particles is independent of

a) position of particles b) relative distance between particles
c)masses of particles d) force acting on particle
Q2. Whatdoesa couple produce
a) pure rotation b) pure translation c) bothd) none
Q3. A particle moves down a line parallel to the positive X-axis at a constant speed. With respect to the
origin, the magnitude of its angular momentum

a)zero b) increasing with X c)decreasing with X d)remaining constant

Q4. A rope is lapped around a hollow cylinder with a radius of 40 cm and a mass of 3 kg. The rope is pulled
with a force of 30 N what is the angular acceleration of the cylinder

a).25 rad/s2 b)25 rad/s2 c)5m/s2 d)25m/s2

Q5. Water is half filled into a closed container. As the container rotates in a horizontal Plane about a
perpendicular bisector, what will be the effect on the moment of inertia?

a) increases b) decreases c) remains constant d) depends on direction of rotation

Q6. With an angular momentum of L a rigid body rotates.What will be the angularmomentumbecomes, if the
kinetic energy is halved?

a) L b) L/2 c)2L d) L/2

Q7. The acceleration of a solid sphere rolling down an incline of angle without slipping Versus slipping down
the slope without rolling is

a) 5:7 b) 2:3 c) 2:5 d) 7:5

Q8. The motion of planets in the solar system is an example of conservation of

a) Energy b) Linear momentum c) Angular momentum d) Mass
Q9. A uniform rod having length L passes across mass’s centre Find gyration radius
a) L/√3 b) L/√2 c) L/ 2√3 d) L2/12
Q10. If the linear momentum is increased by 50 % kinetic energy will increase by the
a) 25% b) 50% c) 100% d) 125%
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
d a d b a d a c c d

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 CHAPTER 7
GRAVITATION
Q1 . If the distance between the earth and sun were half its present value the number of days in a
Year would have been

a) 64.5 b) 129 c) 182.5 d) 730

Q2 The mass of space ship is 1000kg .It is to be launched from the earth’s surface out into free
Space. The value of ‘g’ and R is 10m/s2 and 6400km respectively .The required energy

a) 6.4x1010 J b) 6.4x1011J c) 6.4x108 J d) 6.4x109 J

Q3. An artificial satellite moving in a circular orbit around earth has a total energy E.Its
Potential energy

a)-E b)1.5E c)2E d) E

Q4. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity becomes g/9 in terms of radius of earth
a)R/2 b)R/3 c)2R d)3R
Q5 A simple pendulum has a time period T 1 on earth’s surface and T2 when taken to a height
R above earth’ssurface, value of T2/T1 is

a)1 b)4 c)3 d) 2

Q6. A geostationary satellite orbits around the earth in a circular orbit of radius 36000km then the time
period of a spy satellite orbiting a few hundred km above the earth’s surface will be

a) 1/2 hr b) 1 hr c) 2 hr d) 4hr
Q7. Two bodies of masses m and4m are placedat distance r, The gravitational potential at a point on the line
joining them where field is zero is

a) -6Gm/r b) -9Gm/r c) zero d) -4Gm/r

Q8. A satellite is moving with constant speed ‘v’ in a circular orbit around earth .An objectmass “m” is
ejected from the satellite such that it escapes from pull and kinetic energy will be

a)1/2mv2 b) mv2 c)3/2mv2 d)2mv2

Q9. What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet of mass
M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R

a) 5GMm/6R b) 2GMm/R c) GMm/R d) GmM/3R

Q10. The earth’s atmosphere is held by
a) wind b) clouds c) magnetic field d) gravity

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
b a c c d c b b a d

Page-11
 CHAPTER 8
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS

Q1 Which of the following is the SI unit of surface tension?

(a) N-m (b) J/m2 (c) J (d) dyne

Q2. Dimensional formula of surface tension

(a) MLT-2 (b)ML0T-1 (c)ML2T-2 (d)ML0T-2

Q3. In which of the following combinations of capillary tube and liquid the angle of contact is 90 0 ?
(a) Glass- water (b) Glass-mercury (c) Silver- water (d) None of these

Q4. What is the pressure inside the drop of mercury of radius 3mm at room temperature? Surface tension
of mercury at 200C= 4.65 × 10-1N/m , Pa = 1.01 × 10-5 Pa
(a) 2.10 × 105 Pa (b)1.05 × 105 Pa (c)1.01 × 105 Pa (d) 3 × 105 Pa

Q5. The angle of contact between a glass capillary tube of length 10 cm and a liquid is 90 0. If the capillary
tube is dipped vertically in the liquid, then the liquid
(a) Will rise in the tube (b) Will get depressed in the tube
(c) Will rise up to 10 cm (d) Will neither rise nor drop

Q6 .Find the difference in the air pressure between the inside and outside of soap bubble, 5mm in diameter.
(a) 2560 Nm-2 (b) 2660 Nm-2 (c) 2566 Nm-2 (d) None of these

Q7. A liquid rises to a height of 9 cm in a glass capillary of radius 0.02cm. What will be the height of liquid
column in a glass capillary of radius 0.03cm?
(a) 6 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 0.9 cm (d) 0.6 cm

Q8 . As the temperature of water in increases, its velocity

(a) Remain unchanged (b) Decreases
(c) Increases (d) Increases or decreases depending on the external pressure

Q9. A capillary tube of the diameter 0.6mm is dipped vertically into water. It rises to a height of 6 cm in the
Capillary tube. Find the surface tension of water.
(a) 8.82 × 10-2N/m (b)8.92 × 10-2N/m (c)9.92 × 10-2N/m (d) None of these

Page-12
Q10 In a streamline flow
(a) The speed of a particle always remains same
(b) The velocity of a particle always remains same
(c) The kinetic energies of all the particles arriving at a given point are the same
(d) The moments of all the particle arriving at a given point are the same

Q11. The working of an atomizer depends upon

(a) Bernoulli’s theorem (b) Boyle’s law (c) Archimedes principle (d) Newton’s law of motion

Q12 .Water is flowing through a tube of non-uniform cross-section ratio of the radius at entry and exit end of
pipe is 3:2. Then the ratio of velocity at entry and exit of liquid is
(a) 4:9 (b) 9:4 (c) 8:27 (d) 1:1

ANSWERS

1.(b) 2.(d) 3.(c) 4.(c) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(a) 8.(b) 9.(a) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(a)

CHAPTER 9
THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER–1

Q1. Heat required to increase temperature of 1g of. a given substance by one degree Celsius is called as:
(a) Heat capacity (b) Specific heat capacity (c) Latent heat (d) Total heat
Q2. What is SI unit of heat capacity?

(a) J/kg (b) J/kgK -1 (c)J/K (d) J/mol K-1

Q3. Two liquid X and Y of equal amount are heated for equal intervals of time on identical stoves in
identical conditions. After heating temperature of X is found to be less than Y. Choose the correct
alternative.
(a) X has more specific heat capacity that Y
(b) X has less specific heat capacity
(c) X has less latent heat Y
(d) X has more latent heat than Y
Q4 . What is SI unit of specific heat capacity ?/
(a) J/kg (b) J/kgK -1 (c)J/K (d) J/mol K-1
Q5 .What is SI unit of molar specific heat ?
(a) J/kg (b) J/kgK -1 (c)J/K (d) J/mol K-1

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Q6. Which of the following gives the correct relationship between C p and Cv value of a given gas?
(a) Cp / Cv = R (b) Cp - Cv = R (c) Cv - Cp= R (d) Cv/ Cp=R

Q7. Specific heat capacity of water is given as 4180J/kgK-1.What willbe heat required to increase temperature
of 2 kg water by 5 0C?
(a) 418 J (b) 41.8 J (c) 41800 J (d) 2324080 J

Q8. Heat lost by an object of mass m and specific heat capacity s as temperature drop T 1 to T2 is given by:
(a) Q = msT1 (b) Q = ms(T1-T2 ) (c) Q = msT2 (d) Q = ms(T1+T2 )/2

Q9. A pan filled with hot food cools from 940C to 860C in 2 minutes. When the room temperature is at 200C.
How long will it take to cool from 710C to 690C ?
(a) 30 s (b) 42 s (c) 54 s (d) 66 s

Q10 . A body cools from 800C to 500C in 5 minutes. Calculate the time it takes to from 60 0C to 300C. The
temperature of the surrounding is 200C.
(a) 6 min. (b) 9 min. (c) 12 min. (d) 15 min.

Q11. According to Newtons law of cooling, the rate of loss of heat is directly proportional to temperature
difference between:
(a) Object and surrounding (b) Surrounding and object
(c) Object and object (d) None of these

Q12. The specific heat of ice is:

(a) 0.5 cal/g/0C (b) 1000 cal/kg/ 0C (c) Both (d) None of these

Q13. Land breeze moves from :

(a) Land to sea (b) Sea to land
(c) Both (d) None of these

Q14 During phase conversion:

(a) Temperature change (b) Temperature remain constant
(c) Temperature increase (d) Temperature decreases

Q15. The SI unit of heat is :

(a) Joule (b) calorie
(c) torr (d) pascal

Q16. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 10g of a substance by 100 C is known as:
(a) 420 J (b) 4.2 J
(c) 240 J (d) 4200 J
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Q17. The mode of heat transfer is
(a) Conduction (b) Convection

(c) Radiation (d) All of these

Q18. The reading which is same in both Celsius and Fahrenhiteis :

(a) - 40 (b) – 50 (c) – 60 (d) - 70

Q19. The temperature at which the solid and liquid state of a substance co-exist in equilibrium with each
other is called
(a) Boiling Point (b) Melting Point
(c) Regelation (d) Curie temperature

Q20 . When latent heat of melting provided to ice at 0° C.

(a) K.E of the molecules remains constant, PE of molecules increases
(b) P.E of the molecules remains constant,KE of molecules increases
(c) Both K.E and P.E of molecules remains constant
(d) Both K.E and P.E of molecules increases

Q21 The latent heat of vaporization of water is

(a) less than the latent heat of fusions of ice
(b) Equal to the latent heat of fusion of ice
(c) More than the latent heat of fusion of ice
(d) Can be greater or less than the specific latent heat of fusion of ice as information given is incomplete

1.(b) 2.(c) 3.(a) 4.(b) 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(b)

10.(b) 11.(a) 12.(a) 13.(b) 14.(b) 15.(a) 16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19(b)
20.(d) 21.(c)

CHAPTER 10

THERMODYNAMICS

Q1. According to First law of thermodynamics:

(a) Total potential energy of a system during a process remains constant

(b) Total energy of a system remains constant

(c) Work-done of a system is equal to the heat transferred

(d) Work done is equal to change in mean kinetic energy

Q2 .In a process PVn = C , if n=1, then the process is :

(a) Isobaric (b) Isothermal (c) Isochoric (d) Adiabatic

Page-15
Q3. The measurement of a thermodynamic property known as temperature is based on :

(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamic (b) First law of thermodynamic

(c) Second law of thermodynamic (d) None of these

Q4. In an adiabatic process, the quantity which remain constant is :

(a) Volume (b) Temperature (c) Pressure (d) Total heat of the system

Q5. During an isothermal expansion, the pressure can be determine by:

(a) Temperature only (b) Compressibility only (c)Both a and b (d) None of these

Q6. PVγ = constant, is the equation related to:

(a) Isothermal process (b) Adiabatic process (c) Isochoric process (d) Isobaric process

Q7. According to first law of thermodynamics, isochoric process can be expressed as:

(a) ∆Q=∆U+∆W (b) ∆Q=∆W (c) ∆Q= ∆U (d) ∆Q= ∆U - ∆W

Q8. Equation of first law of thermodynamics for melting process is :

(a) ∆Q=∆U+∆W (b) ∆Q=mL+P(Vf-Vi ) (c) ∆Q=mLF (d) ∆Q=∆W

Q9. When a gas is suddenly compressed, the temperature of the gas increased, the type of process involved is

(a) Isothermal process (b) Isobaric process (c) Isochoric process (d) Isochoric process

Q10. Following are the factors on which efficiency of carnot heat engine depends:

(a) Temperature of the source only (b) Temperature of sink only

(c) On working substance only (d) On both, the temperature of the source and the sink

Q11. Following which type of heat engine gives maximum efficiency

(a) Irreversible Heat engine

(b) Reversible as well as irreversible engines

(c) Carnot Heat engines

(d) Adiabatic Heat engines.

Page-16
Q12. An engine has been designed to work between source and sink at temperature 1770C and 270C
respectively. If the energy input is 3600 Joule, the work done by engine
(a) 1400 J (b) 1200 J (c) 1100 J (d) 1300 J

Q13. When an ideal gas is compressed isothermally, than

(a) Workdoneon the gasis positive (b) Changeininternalenergyisnegative

(c) Change in internal energy zero (d) Work done on the gas is zero

Q14. Two gases have the same initial pressure, volume and temperature. They expand to the same final
volume, one adiabatically and isothermally.
(a) The final temperature is greater for adiabatic process

(b) The final pressure is less for the isothermal process

(c) The work done by the gas is greater for the isothermal process

(d) The work done by the gas is greater for the adiabatic process

Q15 In an isothermal process the volume of an ideal gas is halved. One can say that.

(a) Internal energy of the system decreases (b) Work done by the gas is positive
(c) Work done by the gas is negative (d) Internal energy of the system increases
Q16. A thermodynamic process in which temperature T of the system remains constant though other variable
P and V may change, is called
(a) Isochoric process (b) Isothermal process (c) Isobaric process (d) None of these

1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(b) 6.(b) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(c) 10.(d)
11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(b) 15.(c) 16.(b)

CHAPTER 11

Oscillations
Q.1 A system exhibiting S.H.M. must possess
(a) Inertia only (b) Elasticity as well as inertia
(c) Elasticity, inertia and an external force (d) Elasticity only

Q.2 The acceleration of a particle in S.H.M. is

(a) Always zero (b) Always constant
(c) Maximum at the extreme position (d) Maximum at the equilibrium position
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Q.3 A particle executes simple harmonic motion with a frequency f. The frequency with
which its kinetic energy oscillates is .
(a) f / 2 (b) f
(c) 2f (d) 4f
Q.4 The period of a simple pendulum is doubled, when
(a) Its length is doubled (b) The mass of the bob is doubled
(c) Its length is made four times (d) The mass of the bob and the length of the pendulum are doubled
Q.5 The velocity of simple pendulum is maximum at
(a) Extremes (b) Half displacement (c) Mean position (d) Every where
Q.6 A particle is executing S.H.M. Then the graph of acceleration as a function of displacement is
(a) A straight line (b) A circle (c) An ellipse (d) A hyperbola

Q.7 The graph shows the variation of displacement of a particle executing S.H.M. with time. We infer
from this graph that

(a) The force is zero at time 3T / 4 (b) The velocity is maximum at time T / 2
(c) The acceleration is maximum at time T (d) The P.E. is equal to total energy at time T /2
Q.8 The effective spring constant of two spring system as shown in figure will be
(a) 𝐾1 + 𝐾2 (b) 𝐾1 𝐾2 / 𝐾1 + 𝐾2 (c) 𝐾1 − 𝐾2 (d) 𝐾1 𝐾2 /𝐾1 − 𝐾2

Q.9 A mass M is suspended by two springs of force constants 𝐾1 and 𝐾2 respectively as

shown in the diagram. The total elongation (stretch) of the two springs is
𝑀𝑔 𝑀𝑔(𝐾1 +𝐾2 ) 𝑀𝑔𝐾1 𝐾2 𝐾1 +𝐾2
(a) 𝐾 (b) (c) (d)
1 +𝐾2 𝐾1 𝐾2 𝐾1 +𝐾2 𝐾1 𝐾2 𝑀𝑔

Q.10 Two springs of constant 𝐾1 and 𝐾2 are joined in series. The effective spring
constant of the combination is given by
(a) 𝐾1 + 𝐾2 (b) 𝐾1 𝐾2 / 𝐾1 + 𝐾2 (c) 𝐾1 − 𝐾2 (d) 𝐾1 𝐾2 /𝐾1 − 𝐾2

Page-18
Q.11 The length of a seconds pendulum is
(a) 99.4 cm (b) 99 cm (c) 100 cm (d) None of these
Q.12 If the length of simple pendulum is increased by 300%, then the time period will be increased by
(a) 100% (b) 200% (c) 300% (d) 400%
Q.13 The displacement x (in metre) of a particle in, simple harmonic motion is related to time t (in seconds)
𝜋
As The frequency of the motion will be𝑥 = 0.01 cos (𝜋𝑡 + 4 )

(a) 0.5 Hz (b) 1.0 Hz (c) 2  Hz (d)  Hz

Q.14 The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is made three-fourth keeping its time period constant. Its
total energy will be
𝐸 3𝐸 9𝐸
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
2 4 16

Q.15 When the displacement is half the amplitude, the ratio of potential energy to the total energy
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) 1 (d)
2 4 8
Q.16. For any S.H.M., amplitude is 6 cm. If instantaneous potential energy is half the total energy then
distance of particle from its meanposition is
(a) 3 cm (b) 4.2 cm(c) 5.8 cm (d) 6 cm
Q.17. The time period of a simple pendulum is 2 sec. If its length is increased 4 times, then its period
becomes
(a) 16 sec (b) 12 sec (c) 8 sec (d) 4 se

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

b c c c c a b a b b
11 12 13 14 15 16 17

a a a a b b d

Waves
𝜋
Q.1 Equation of a progressive wave is given by 𝑦 = 0.2 cos 𝜋 (0.04𝑡 + 0.02𝑥 − 6 )
The distance is expressed in cm and time in second. What will be the minimum distance between
two particles having the phase difference of /2.
(a) 4 cm (b) 8 cm (c) 25 cm (d) 12.5 cm
Q.2 The equation of a wave is 𝑦 = 2 sin 𝜋(0.5𝑥 − 200𝑡), where x and y are expressed in cm and t in sec.
The wave velocity is
(a) 100 cm/sec (b) 200 cm/sec (c) 300 cm/sec (d) 400 cm/sec
Page-19
Q.3 A wave is reflected from a rigid support. The change in phase on reflection will be
(a)  / 4 (b)  / 2 (c)  (d) 2

Q.4 The phase difference between two points separated by 0.8 m in a wave of frequency is 120 Hz is . 2 
The velocity of wave is
(a) 720 m/s (b) 384 m/s (c) 250 m/s (d) 1 m/s
Q.5 The distance between the nearest node and antinode in a stationary wave is
(a)  (b) 2  (c) 4  (d) 2
Q.6 In stationary wave
(a) Strain is maximum at nodes (b) Strain is maximum at antinodes
(c) Strain is minimum at nodes (d) Amplitude is zero at all the points
Q.7 The phase difference between the two particles situated on both the sides of a node is
(a) 0° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) 360°
Q.8 Which of the property makes difference between progressive and stationary waves
a) Amplitude (b) Frequency (c) Propagation of energy (d) Phase of the wave
Q.9 In a stationary wave, all particles are
( a) At rest at the same time twice in every period of oscillation
(b) At rest at the same time only once in every period of oscillation
(c) Never at rest at the same time
(d) Never at rest at al
Q.10 Energy is not carried by which of the following waves
(a) Stationary (b) Progressive (c) Transverse (d) Electromagnetic
Q.11 Two waves are approaching each other with a velocity of 16 m/s and frequency n. The distance
between two consecutive nodes is
(a) 16/n (b) 8/n (c) n/16 (d) n/8
Q.12 Beats are the result of
(a) Diffraction (b) Destructive interference
(c) Constructive and destructive interference (d) Superposition of two waves of nearly equal frequency
2𝜋
Q.13 Two sound waves (expressed in CGS units) given by 𝑦1 = 0.3 sin (𝑣𝑡 − 𝑥 ) and 𝜆
2𝜋
𝑦2 = 0.4 sin (vt − x + θ) interfere.The resultant amplitude at a place where phase difference is  / 2
𝜆
will be
√7
(a) 0.7 cm (b) 0.1 cm (c) 0.5 cm (d) 10 cm

Page-20
Q.14 If wavelength of a wave is  6000Å. Then wave number will be
(a) 1.66 × 103 𝑚 (b) 16.6 × 10−1 𝑚 (c) 1.66 × 106 𝑚 (d) 1.66 × 106 𝑚
Q.15 A plane wave is represented by 𝑥 = 1.2 sin(3.14𝑡 + 12.56𝑦). Where x and y are distances measured
along in x and y direction in meters and t is time in seconds. This wave has
(a) A wavelength of 0.25 m and travels in + ve x direction
(b) A wavelength of 0.25 m and travels in + ve y direction
(c) A wavelength of 0.5 m and travels in – ve y direction
(d) A wavelength of 0.5 m and travels in – ve x direction

𝑡 𝑥
Q.16 The equation of progressive wave is 𝑦 = 0.2 sin 2𝜋 ( − )
0.03 0.3

where x and y are in metre and t is in second. The velocity of propagation of the wave is
(a) 30 m/s (b) 40 m/s (c) 300 m/s (d) 400 m/s
Q.17 Beats are produced by two waves 𝑦1 = 𝑎 sin 1000𝜋𝑡 and 𝑦2 = 𝑎 sin 998𝜋𝑡. The number of beats
heard/sec is
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
Q.18 Maximum number of beats frequency heard by a human being is
(a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 20 (d) 6

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

c d c b a a c c a a

11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

d d c c c a c a

Page-21
 CHAPTER 12

Kinetic theory of gases

Q.1 The coefficient of thermal conductivity depends upon

(a) Temperature difference of two surfaces (b) Area of the plate
(c) Thickness of the plate (d) Material of the plate
Q.2 On heating one end of a rod, the temperature of whole rod will be uniform when
(a) K = 1 (b) K = 0 (c) K = 100 (d) K 
Q.3 It is hotter for the same distance over the top of a fire than it is in the side of it, mainly because
(a) Air conducts heat upwards
(b) Heat is radiated upwards
(c) Convection takes more heat upwards
(d) Convection, conduction and radiation all contribute significantly transferring heat upwards
Q.4 The layers of atmosphere are heated through
(a) Convection (b) Conduction (c) Radiation (d) (b) and (c) both
Q.5 According to Wein's law
(a) m T = constant (b) T /m = constant (c) m T  = constant (d) T m = constant
Q.6 A metal rod of length 2m has cross sectional areas 2A and A as shown in figure. The ends are
maintained at temperatures 100°C and 70°C. The temperature at middle point C is

(a) 80°C (b) 85°C (c) 90°C (d) 95°C

Q.7 The coefficient of thermal conductivity of copper is nine times that of steel. In the composite cylindrical
bar shown in the figure. What will be the temperature at the junction of copper and steel
(a) 75° (b)67°

(c) 33° (d) 25°

Page-22
Q.8 If the radius and length of a copper rod are both doubled, the rate of flow of heat along the rod increases
(a) 4 times (b) 2 times (c) 8 times (d) 16 times
Q.9 If two metallic plates of equal thicknesses and thermal conductivities 𝐾1 and 𝐾2 are put together face to
face and a common plate is constructed, then the equivalent thermal conductivity of this plate will be

3⁄ 3⁄
𝑘1 𝑘2 2𝑘1 𝑘2 (𝐾1 2 +𝐾2 2 ) 2 (𝐾1 2 +𝐾2 2 ) 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
𝑘1 + 𝑘2 𝑘1 + 𝑘2 𝑘1 𝑘2 2𝑘1 𝑘2

Q.10 The quantity of heat which crosses unit area of a metal plate during conduction depends upon
(a) The density of the metal (b) The temperature gradient perpendicular to the area
(c) The temperature to which the metal is heated (d) The area of the metal plate
Q.11 Two identical rods of copper and iron are coated with wax uniformly. When one end of each is kept at
temperature of boiling water, the length upto which wax melts are 8.4cm and 4.2cm respectively. If
thermal conductivity of copper is 0.92, then thermal conductivity of iron is
(a) 0.23 (b) 0.46 (c) 0.115 (d) 0.69
Q.12 The thickness of a metallic plate is 0.4 cm. The temperature between its two surfaces is 20° . The
quantity of heat flowing per second is 50 calories from 5 𝑐𝑚2 area. In CGS system, the coefficient of
thermal conductivity will be
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6 (c) 0.2 (d) 0.5
Q.13 The adjoining diagram shows the spectral energy density distribution E of a black body at two
different temperatures. If the areas under the curves are in the ratio 16 : 1, the value of temperature T is

(a) 32,000 K (b) 16,000 K

(c) 8,000 K (d) 4,000 K

Q.14 If a black body is heated at a high temperature, it seems to be

(a) Blue (b) White (c) Red (d) Black

Page-23
Q.15 In a closed room, heat transfer takes place by
(a) Conduction (b) Convection (c) Radiation (d) All of these

Q.16 Heat is flowing through a conductor of length l from x = 0 to x = l. If its thermal resistance per unit length is
uniform, which of the following graphs is correct
(a) (b) (c) (d)

Q.17 The radiation energy density per unit wavelength at a temperature T has a maximum at a wavelength  .
At temperature 2T , it will have a maximum at a wavelength
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c)  /2 (d) /4
Q.18 In which process, the rate of transfer of heat is maximum
(a) Conduction (b) Convection
(c) Radiation (d) In all these, heat is transferred with the same velocity
Q.19 Mode of transmission of heat, in which heat is carried by the moving particles, is
(a) Radiation (b) Conduction (c) Convection (d) Wave motion
Q.20 The approximate value of Boltzmann’s constant is
(a) 1.4809 x10–23J/K (b) 1.3807x10–23JK
(c) 1.3807 x1023J/K (d) 1.3807x10–23J/K

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

d d a a a c a b b b b
12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

c d b c c c c c d

Page-24
 SICA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS, INDORE
DEPARTMENT OF PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS
CLASS –XII : PHYSICS
PART-I
CHAPTER 1 - ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELD

Q.1 An electron enters uniform electric field maintained by parallel plates and of value ‘E’ V m-1 with a velocity
‘ v ‘ ms-1 . The plates are separated by a distance ‘d’metre. What is the acceleration of the electron in the field

(a). 𝑒𝐸𝑚 (b). − 𝑒𝐸𝑚 (c).𝐸𝑑𝑚 (d).𝐸𝑑2

Q.2 What is the nature of gaussian surface involved in Gauss’s law of electrostatics?

(a). Scalar (b). Electrical − (c).Magnetic (d).Vector

Q.3 Which of the following statements is / are incorrect regarding the point charge?

(a). The charge Q on a body is always given by q=ne, where n is any integer, positive or negative.

(b). By convention, the charge on an electron is taken to be negative.

(c). The fact that electric charge is always an integral multiple of e is termed as quantisation of charge

(d). Thequantization of charge was experimentally demonstrated by Newton in 1912

Q.4 . Two spheres have their surface charge densities in the ratio of 2 :3 and their radii 3 :2. The ratio of the charges on
them is:

(a). 3:2 (b). 4:2 (c).2:3 (d). 2:4

Q.5 Which one of the following pattern of electrostatic lines of force is not possible?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Page-25
Q.6 Match the Column I (electric lines of force) with Column II (types of charge) and select the correct
answer from the codes given below.

Column I Column II

p.A pair of equal and opposite charges

(a).

q. A pair of positive charges

(b).

r. A single positive charge

s. A single negative charge

D.

Options:
(a) A-p B-q C-r D-s (b) A-r B-q C-p D-s
(c) A-r B-s C-p D-q (d) A-r B-s C-q D-p`
answ er

Q.7 SI unit of permittivity of free space is

(a) Farad (b) Weber (c) C 2N -1 m-2 (d) C2N m-2

Q.8 The angle between area of equipotential surface and electric field is-

(a) 00 (b) 900 (c) Between 00 and 900 (d) Between 900 and 180

Page-26
Q.9 When an electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field, it experiences

(a) Force as well as torque ( b) Torque but no net force

( c) Force but no torque (d) Neither any force nor any torque

Q.10 Two large metal sheets having surface charge density +σ and –σ are kept parallel to each other at a small
separation distance d. The electric field at any point in the region between the plates is

(a) σ/ε0 (b) σ/2ε0 (c) 2σ/ε0 (d) σ/4ε0

Q.11 A point charge +10 μC is a distance 5 cm directly above the centre of a square of side 10 cm, as shown in Fig. 1.34.
What is the magnitude of the electric flux through the square? (Hint: Think of the square as one face of a cube with
edge 10 cm.)

(a). Zero (b). 8 x 102 Nm2C--1

(c). 1.8 x 104 Nm2 C--1 (d) 1.8 x 105 Nm C—1

Q.1 B Q.2 D Q.3 D Q.4 A Q.5 C Q.6 D Q.7 C Q.8 B Q.9 Q.10 A Q.11 D

CHAPTER 2 - ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

Q.12 The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres) in space is given by V = 4x² volt. The electric field at
the point (1 m, 0, 2 m) in volt/metre is

(a) 8 along negative x-axis (b) 8 along positive x-axis

(c) 16 along negative x-axis (d) 16 along positive z-axis

Q.13 In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacity increases if

(a) area of the plate is decreased. (b) Distance between the plates increases.

(c) Area of the plate is increased. (d) Dielectric constantly decreases.

Q.14 Twenty-seven drops of mercury are charged simultaneously to the same potential of 10 volts. What will be
potential if all the charged drops are made to combine to form one large drop ?

(a)180 V (b) 90 V (c) 120 V (d) 45 V

Page-27
Q.15 Figure shows some equipotential lines distributed in space. A charged object is moved from point A to point B.

(a) the work is done in fig (ii) is the least

(b) the work is done in fig (i) is the greatest

(c) the work is done in fig (iii) is greater than fig (ii) but equal to that in fig (i)

(d) the work done is the same in fig (i), fig (ii), and fig (iii)

Q.16 A capacitor has some dielectric between its plates, and the capacitor is connected to a dc source. The battery is
now disconnected and then the dielectric is removed, then

(a) capacitance will increase. (b) energy stored will decrease.

(c) electric field will increase. (d) voltage will decrease.

Q.17 A positively charged particle is released from rest in a uniform electric field. The electric potential energy of the
charge

(a) remains constant because the electric field is uniform.

(b) increases because charge moves along the electric field.

(c) decreases because charge moves along the electric field.

(d) decreases because charge moves opposite to the electric field.

Q.18 Electric potential of earth istaken to be zero because earth is a good

(a)Insulator (b).Conductor (c).Semiconductor (d). Dielectric

Q.12 A Q13. C Q14 B Q15 C Q16C Q17C Q.18C

Page-28
 CHAPTER 3 - CURRENT ELECTRICITY

Q.19 If the balance point is obtained at the 35th cm in a metre bridge the resistances in the left and right gaps are in the
ratio of

(a) 7 : 13 (b) 13 : 7 (c) 9 : 11 (d) 11 : 9

Q.20 Kirchhoff’s first law (∑i=o) and second law(∑iR=∑E),where the symbols have their usual meanings, are
respectively based on:

(a) Conservation of charge, conservation of momentum

(b) Conservation of energy, conservation of charge
(c) Conservation of momentum, conservation of charge
(d) Conservation of charge, conservation of energy
Q.21 Three resistors each of 2 ohm are connected together in a triangular shape. The resistance
between any two vertices will be

(a) 4/3 ohm

(b) 3/4 ohm
(c) 3 ohm
(d) 6 ohm

Q.22 From the graph between current I and voltage V shown below, identify the portion
corresponding to negative resistance
(a) AB
(b) BC
(c) CD
(d) DE

Q.23 A cell having an emf E and internal resistance r is connected across a variable external
resistance R. As the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential difference V across R is given
by

Page-29
Q.24 In a Wheatstone bridge if the battery and galvanometer are interchanged then the deflection in
galvanometer will
(a) change in previous direction
(b) not change
(c) change in opposite direction
(d) none of these.

Q.25 Nichrome or Manganin is widely used in wire bound resistors because of their

(a)temperature independent resistivity (b)very weak temperature dependent resistivity

(c)strong dependence of resistivity with temperature (d)mechanical strength

Q.26 Two conducting wires X and Y of same diameter but different materials are joined in series across a battery. If
the number density of electron in X is twice that in Y, find the ratio of drift velocity of electrons in two wires is
(a)1:2 (b)1:1 (c)2:1 (d)3:2

Q.27 Drift velocity of the free electrons in a conducting wire carrying a current i is v. If in a wire of the same metal, but
of double the radius, the current be 2i then the drift velocity of the electrons will be

(a) v/4 (b) v/2 (c) v ( d) 4v

Q.28 A battery of 24 cells, each of emf 1.5 V and internal resistance 2 is to be connected in order to send the
maximum current through a 12  resistor. The correct arrangement of cells will be

(a) 2 rows of 12 cells connected in parallel (b) 3 rows of 8 cells connected in parallel

(c) 4 rows of 6 cells connected in parallel (d) All of these

Q.19A Q.20 D Q21A Q22C Q23 B Q24 B Q25 B Q26A Q27 B Q.28 A

CHAPTER 4 - MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM

Q.29 An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying long Solenoid. Which of the
following is true?

(a) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.

(b) The electron path will be circular about the axis.

(c) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence execute a helical path.

(d) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid

Q.30 A wire in the form of a circular loop, of one turn carrying a current, produces magnetic induction B at the centre.
If the same wire is looped into a coil of two turns and carries the same current, the new value of magnetic
induction at the centre is

(a) B (b) 2 B (c) 4 B (d) 8 B

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Q.31A solenoid has 1000 turns per meter length. If a current of 5A is flowing through it, then magnetic field inside

(a) 2π X 10-3 T (b) 2π X 10-5 T (c) 4π X 10-3 T (d) 4π X 10-3 T

Q.32 A vertical straight conductor carries a current vertically upwards. A point P lies to the east of it at a small
distance and another point Q lies to the west at the same distance. The magnetic field at P is

(a) Greater than at Q (b) Same as at Q (c) Less than at Q

(d) Greater or less than at Q depending upon the strength of the current

Q.33 If a copper rod carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the current will be

(a) Only inside the rod (b) Only outside the rod

(c) Both inside and outside the rod (d) Neither inside nor outside the rod

Q.34 A charge q coulomb moves in a circle at n revolutions per second and the radius of the circle is r metre. Then
magnetic field at the centre of the circle is

(a) 7 ×10 -2 nr q N/amp/metre (b) 7 ×10 -2 r q N/amp/metre

(c) 7 ×10 -2 r nq N/amp/metre (d) r 2q N/amp/metre

Q.35 Field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r, through which a current I flows is

(a) Directly proportional to r (b) Inversely proportional to I

(c) Directly proportional to I (d) Directly proportional to l2

Q.36 A battery is connected between two points A and B on the circumference of a uniform conducting ring of radius r
and resistance R. One of the arcs AB of the ring subtends an angle  at the centre. The value of the magnetic
induction at the centre due to the current in the ring is

(a) Proportional to 2 (180) (b) Inversely proportional to r

(c) Zero, only if  180 (d) Zero for all values of 

Q.37 One metre length of wire carries a constant current. The wire is bent to form a circular loop. The magnetic field at
the centre of this loop is B. The same is now bent to form a circular loop of smaller radius to have four turns in
the loop. The magnetic field at the centre of this new loop is

(a) 4 B (b) 16 B (c) B / 2 (d) B / 4

Q.38 Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle if they carry same current, ratio of magnetic
moment is:

(a) 2 : π (b) π : 2 (c) 4 : π (d) π : 4

Q.29D Q.30 C Q.31A Q.32 B Q33 D Q34 C Q.35 C Q36D Q37 B Q.38C

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 CHAPTER 5 – MAGNETISMAND MATTER

Q.39 The angle between Magnetic meridian and the geographic meridian is known as

(a) Angle of dip (b) magnetic field inclination

(c) Magnetic field declination (d) angle of magnetism

Q.40 Which of the following are true

(i) Angle of dip at equator is zero

(ii) The value of Horizontal component of Earth’s Magnetic Field is maximum at equator

(iii) The value of Vertical component of Earth’s Magnetic Field is maximum at equator

(iv) The value of Horizontal component of Earth’s Magnetic Field is minimum at Poles

Choose the correct option

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (ii), (iii )and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Q.41 At the place the horizontal component of magnetic field is B and angle of dip is 600 , the value of the horizontal
component of magnetic field at equator is

(a) B (b) zero (c) 2B (d) B/2

Q.42 Tesla is the unit of

(a) Electric flux (b) Magnetic flux (c) Electric field (d) Magnetic field

Q.43 A long straight wire carrying current of 30A is placed in an external uniform magnetic field of induction
4  10–4 T. The magnetic field is acting parallel to the direction of current. The magnitude of the resultant
magnetic induction in tesla at a point 2.0 cm away from the wire is

(a) 10-4 (b) 3 10-4 (c) 5 10-4 (d) 6 10- 4

Q.44 Unit of magnetic flux density (or magnetic induction) is

(a) Tesla , (b) Weber/metre2 (c) Newton/ampere-metre (d) All of the above

Q.45 Which of the following, the most suitable material for making permanent magnet is

(a) Steel (b) Soft iron (c) Copper (d) Nickel

Q.46 The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment 'M' by an angle of 90° from the meridian is 'n' times the
corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°, where 'n' is given by

(a) 1/2 (b) 2 (c) 1/4 (d) 1

Q.47 The dipole moment of a short bar magnet is 1.25 A-m2 . The magnetic field on its axis at a distance of 0.5metre
from the centre of the magnet is

(a) 1x 10--6NA--1M--1 (b) 2x 10--6NA--1M--1

(c) 3x 10--6NA--1M--1 \
(d) 6x 10--6NA--1M—1 Page-32
Q.48 The incorrect statement regarding the lines of force of the magnetic field B is

(a) Magnetic intensity is a measure of lines of force passing through unit area held normal to it

(b) Magnetic lines of force form a close curve

(c) Inside a magnet, its magnetic lines of force move from north pole of a magnet towards its south pole

(d) Due to a magnet magnetic lines of force never cut each other

Q.39C Q.40 B Q.41c Q.42d Q.43 c Q.44d Q.45a Q.46b Q.47 b Q.48C

CHAPTER 6 - ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

Q.49 A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil. If the magnet is rotated about its axis, then

(a) A current will be induced in a coil (b) No current will be induced in a coil
(c) Only an e.m.f. will be induced in the coil (d) An e.m.f. and a current both will be induced in the coil

Q.50 The current flows from A to B is as shown in the figure.

The direction of the induced current in the loop is

(a) clockwise. (b) anticlockwise. (c) straight line. (d) no induced e.m.f. produce

Q.51 In a coil of self-induction 5 H, the rate of change of current is 2 A/s. Then emf induced in the coil is

(a) 10 V (b) -10 V (c) 5 V (d) -5 V

Q.52 Identify the wrong statement.

(a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field.

(b) Eddy currents can be minimized by using laminated core.

(c) Induction furnace uses eddy current to produce heat.

(d) Eddy current can be used to produce braking force in moving trains.

Q.53 Which of the following does not use the application of eddy current?

(a) Electric power meters (b) Induction furnace (c) LED lights (d) Magnetic brakes in trains

Q.54 A coil of 100 turns and area 5 square centimetre is placed in a magnetic field B = 0.2 T. The normal to the plane
of the coil makes an angle of 60° with the direction of the magnetic field. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is

(a) 5x10-3 Wb (b)) 3x10-3 Wb (c) ) 4x10-3 WbWb (d)2x10-3 Wb

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Q.55 In the diagram shown, if a bar magnet is moved along the common axis of two single turn coils A and B

in the direction of arrow:

(a) current is induced only in A and not in B
(b) induced currents in A and B are in the same direction
(c) current is induced only in B and not in A
(d) no current is induced in either A or B

Q.56 An e.m.f is produced in a coil, which is not connected to an external voltage source. This is not due to
(a) the coil being in a time varying magnetic field.
(b) the coil moving in a time varying magnetic field.
(c) the coil moving in a constant magnetic field.
(d) the coil is stationary in external spatially varying magnetic field, which does not change with time.

Q.57 Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Whenever the amount of magnetic flux linked with a circuit changes, an emf is induced in circuit.
(b) The induced emf lasts so long as the change in magnetic flux continues.
(c) The direction of induced emf is given by Lenz’s law.
(d) Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of momentum

Q.58 The coil of area 0.1 m2 has 500 turns. After placing the coil in a magnetic field of strength 4 2× 10-4 Wb/ m .if
rotated through 90o in 0.1 s, the average emf induced in the coil is
(a) 0.012 V (b) 0.05 V (c) 0.1 V (d) 0.2 V

Q.49b Q50 a Q.51 Q52 a Q.53 c Q54 a Q55d Q.56 a Q57 d Q.58 d

CHAPTER 7 - ALTERNATING CURRENT

Q.59 In an LCR-series ac circuit, the voltage across each of the component L, C and R is 50 V. The voltage across the
LC-combination will be

(a) 50 V (b) 50√2 V (c) 100 V (d) zero

Q.60 The core of any transformer is laminated so as to

(a) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents. (b) make it light weight.

(c) make it robust and strong. (d) increase the secondary voltage.

Q.61 A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5 A, the
efficiency of the transformer is approximately

(a) 30% (b) 50% (c) 90% (d) 10%

Q62 Choose the correct statement.

(a) A capacitor can conduct a dc circuit but not an inductor.

(b) In a dc circuit the inductor can conduct but not a capacitor.
(c) In dc circuit both the inductor and capacitor cannot conduct.
(d) The inductor has infinite resistance in a dc circuit.
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Q.63 A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an ac source. Brightness of the bulb decreases
when

(a) frequency of the ac source is decreased. (b) number of turns in the coil is reduced.
(c) a capacitance of reactance Xc = XL in included. (d) an iron rod is inserted in the coil
Q.64 In the case of an inductor
(a) voltage lags the current by π/2 (b) voltage leads the current by π/2
(c) voltage leads the current by π/3 (d) voltage leads the current by π/4
Q.65 An alternating voltage is connected in series with a resistance R and an inductance L If the potential
drop across the resistance is 200 V and across the inductance is 150 V, then the applied voltage is
(a) 350 V (b) 250 V (c) 500 V (d) 300 V
Q.66 In a pure inductive circuit or In an ac circuit containing inductance only, the current
(a) Leads the e.m.f. by 90 o (b) Lags behind the e.m.f. by 90 o
(c) Sometimes leads and sometime lags behind the e.m.f (d) Is in phase with the e.m.f

Q.67 The phase relationship between current and voltage in a pure resistive circuit is best
represented by

Q.68 In a purely resistive ac circuit, the current

(a) Lags behind the e.m.f. in phase
(b) Is in phase with the e.m.f.
(c) Leads the e.m.f. in phase
(d) Leads the e.m.f. in half the cycle and lags behind it in the other half

Q.59 d Q60 a Q.61 d Q62 b Q63 d Q.64 b Q65 b Q66 b Q.67 b Q.68 b

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 SICA GROUP OF INSTITUTIONS, INDORE
DEPARTMENT OF PHYSICS
QUESTION BANK FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS
CLASS –XII : PHYSICS

PART-II
CHAPTER-8 RAY OPTICS
Q.1. A concave lens of glass, refractive index 1.5, has both surfaces of the same radius of curvature R. On
immersion in a medium of refractive index 1.75, it will behave as
(a) Convergent lens of focal length 3.5 R (b) convergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
(c) divergent lens of focal length 3.5 R (d) divergent lens of focal length 3.0 R
Q.2. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 2/3.
Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their individual focal length?
(a) -75, 50 (b) -10, 15 (c) 75, 50 (d) -15, 10
Q.3. Which of the following forms(s) a virtual and erect image for all positions of the object?
(a) convex lens (b) concave lens (c) convex mirror (d) concave mirror
Q.4. A short linear object of length b lies along the axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a distance u
from the pole of the mirror. The size of the image is approximately equal to
1⁄ 1⁄ 2
𝑢−𝑓 2 𝑓 2 𝑢−𝑓 𝑓
(a) 𝑏( ) (b) 𝑏 (𝑢−𝑓 ) (c) 𝑏( ) (d) 𝑏 (𝑢−𝑓 )
𝑓 𝑓
Q.5. Two lenses of power -15 D and +15 D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the combination
is
(a) +10 cm (b) -20 cm (c) -10 cm (d) +20 cm
Q.6. A plano-convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 30cm is silvered at the curved surface.
Now this lens has been used to form the image of an object. At what distance from this lens, an object be
placed in order to have a real image of the size of the object?
(a) 20 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 60 cm (d) 80 cm
Q.7. The image formed by an objective of a compound microscope is
(a) virtual and diminished (b) real and diminished
(c) real and enlarged (d) virtual and enlarged
Q.8. The wavelength of sodium light in air is 5890Å. The velocity of light in air is 3 x 10 8 ms-1. The
wavelength of light in a glass of refractive index 1.6 would be close to
(a) 5890Å (b) 3681Å (c) 9424 Å (d) 15078Å
Q.9. Light travelling from a transparent medium to air undergoes total internal reflection at an angle of
incidence of 45°. Then refractive index of the medium may be
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.3 (c) 1.1 (d) 1⁄√2

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Q.10. The plane face of a planoconvex lens is silvered. If μ be the refractive index and R, the radius of curvature
of curved surface, then the system will behave like a concave mirror of radius of curvature
𝑅 𝑅2 (𝜇+1)
(a) μR (b) (c) (d) [ ]𝑅
(𝜇−1) 𝜇 (𝜇−1)

ANSWERS: 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b, c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a)

7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (b)

CHAPTER-9 WAVE OPTICS

Q.11. The resolving power of a reflecting telescope depends
(a) on the intensity of light used (b) directly on wavelength of the light used
(c) On the focal length of objective lens (d) directly on the diameter of objective lens
Q.12. An optically active compound
(a) rotates the plane polarized light (b) changes the direction of polarized light
(c) does not allow plane polarized light to pass through (d) none of the above
Q.13. Light propagates rectilinearly, because of its
(a) frequency (b) wavelength (c) velocity (d) wave nature
Q.14. Interference occurs in which of the following waves?
(a) longitudinal (b) transverse (c) electromagnetic (d) all of these
Q.15. Ratio of intensities of two waves is 9:1. If these waves are superimposed, what is the ratio of maximum
and minimum intensities?
(a) 9:1 (b) 3:1 (c) 4:1 (d) 5:3
Q.16. What is the path difference for destructive interference?
(a) nλ (b) n(λ + 1) (c) (2n + 1)λ/2 (d) (n + 1)λ/2
14
Q.17. The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 x 10 Hz and wavelength is 5000 Å. The refractive index
of material will be
(a) 1.50 (b) 3.00 (c) 1.33 (d) 1.40
Q.18. An electromagnetic radiation of frequency n wavelength λ travelling with velocity υ in air enters a glass
slab of refractive index μ. The frequency, wavelength and velocity of light in the glass slab will be
respectively,
(a) n, 2λ, υ/μ (b) 2n/μ, λ/μ, υ (c) n/μ, λ/μ, υ/μ (d) n, λ/μ, υ/μ
Q.19. Diameter of human eye lens is 2 mm. What will be the minimum distance between two points to resolve
them, which are situated at a distance of 50 m from eye? The wavelength of light is 5000 Å.
(a) 2.32 mm (b) 4.28 mm (c) 1.25 cm (d) 12.48 cm
Q.20. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000 Å is of the order of
(a) 106 rad (b) 10-2 rad (c) 10-4 rad (d) 10-6 rad

ANSWERS: 11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c)
16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)

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 CHAPTER-10 DUAL NATURE

Q.21. Which of the following is not the property of cathode rays?

(a) it produces heating effect (b) it does not deflect in electric field
(b) it casts shadow (d) it produces fluorescence
Q.22. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kgm/s will be
(a) 5 x 10-22 (b) 0.33 x 106 (c) 7 x 10-24 (d) 10-22
Q.23. The mass of a photon at rest is
(a) zero (b) 1.67 x 10-35 kg (c) 1 amu (d) 9 x 10-31 kg
Q.24. By photoelectric effect, Einstein proved
−𝑅ℎ𝑐 2
(a) E = hv (b) K.E = ½ mv2 (c) E = mc2 (d) E= 𝑛2
Q.25. If we consider electrons and photons of same wavelength, then they will have same
(a) momentum (b) angular momentum (c) energy (d) velocity
Q.26. An electron with (rest mass m0) moves with a speed of 0.8 c. Its mass when it moves with this speed is
(a) m0 (b) m0/6 (c) 5m0/3 (d) 3m0/5
Q.27. Three particles having charges in the ratio of 2:3:5, produce the same point on the photographic film in
Thomson experiment. Their masses are in the ratio of
(a) 2:3:5 (b) 5:3:2 (c) 15:10:6 (d) 3:5:2
Q.28. Moving with the same velocity, which of the following has the longest de Broglie wavelength?
(a) β-particles (b) α-particles (c) proton (d) neutron
Q.29. Kinetic energy of emitted electron depends upon
(a) frequency (b) intensity
(c) Nature of atmosphere surrounding the electron (d) None of these
Q.30. The light of wavelength 4000 Å falls on a photosensitive substance whose work function is 2 eV. Its
stopping potential is
(a) 1.1 V (b) 1.8 V (c) 1.26 V (d) 0.8 V

ANSWERS: 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (c)
27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (a)

CHAPTER-11 ATOMS & NUCLIE

Q.31. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the
electron from the first excited state of Li++ is
(a) 30.6 eV (b) 13.6 eV (c) 3.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV

Q.32. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atoms emits photon of highest frequency?
(a) n = 1 to n = 2 (b) n = 2 to n = 6
(c) n = 6 to n = 2 (d) n = 2 to n = 1
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Q.33. Bohr’s atom model assumes
(a) the nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest
(b) electrons in a quantized orbit will not radiate energy
(c) mass of electron remains constant
(d) all the above conditions
Q.34. According to Bohr’s theory, relation between n and radius of orbit is:
1 1
(a) 𝑟𝛼 (b) 𝑟𝛼𝑛 (c) 𝑟 𝛼 𝑛2 (d) 𝑟𝛼
𝑛 𝑛2
Q.35. The ratio of minimum to maximum wavelength in Balmer series is
(a) 5:9 (b) 5 : 36 (c) 1:4 (d) 3:4
Q.36. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, which of the following is quantised?
(a) linear velocity of electron (b) angular velocity of electron
(c) linear momentum of electron (d) angular momentum of electron
Q.37. The number of waves, contained in unit length of the medium, is called
(a) elastic wave (b) wave number
(c) wave pulse (d) electromagnetic wave
Q.38. In Bohr’s model, the atomic radius of the first orbit is r0. Then, the radius of the third orbit is
(a) r0 / 9 (b) r0 (c) 9r0 (d) 3r0
Q.39. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What is the potential energy of the electron in
this state?
(a) 0 eV (b) -27.2 eV (c) 1 eV (d) 2 eV
Q.40. What is ratio of Bohr magneton to the nuclear magneton?
𝑚𝑝 𝑚𝑒
(a) (b) 𝑚𝑝2 ⁄𝑚𝑒2 (c) 1 (d)
𝑚𝑒 𝑚𝑝

ANSWERS: 31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (d)
37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (a)

CHAPTER-12 SEMICONDUCTORS

Q.41. Application of a forward bias to a p-n junction

(a) increases the number of donors on the n-side
(b) increases the electric field in the depletion zone
(c) increases the potential difference across the depletion zone
(d) widens the depletion zone

Q.42. A diode having potential differences 0.5 V across its junction which does not depend on current, is
connected in series with resistance of 20 Ω across source. If 0.1 A current passes through resistance,
then what is the voltage of the source?
(a) 1.5 V (b) 2.0 V (c) 2.5 V (d) 5V

Page-39
Q.43. Which of the following is an amorphous solid?
(a) glass (b) diamond (c) salt (d) sugar
Q.44. Energy required to break one bond in DNA is approximately
(a) ≈ 1eV (b) ≈ 0.1 eV (c) ≈ 0.01 eV (d) ≈ 2.1 eV
Q.45. In a semiconducting material the mobilities of electrons and holes of 𝜇𝑒 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜇ℎ respectively. Which of
the following is true?
(a) 𝜇𝑒 > 𝜇ℎ (b) 𝜇𝑒 < 𝜇ℎ (c) 𝜇𝑒 = 𝜇ℎ (d) 𝜇𝑒 < 0; 𝜇ℎ > 0
Q.46. A Ge specimen is doped with A1. The concentration of acceptor atoms is ≈10 atoms m-3. Given that
21

the intrinsic concentration of electron hole pair is ≈10 19 m-3, the concentration of electrons in the
specimen is
(a) 1017m-3 (b) 1015m-3 (c) 104 m-3 (d) 102 m-3
Q.47. A small impurity is added to germanium to get p-type semiconductor. This impurity is a
(a) bivalent substance (b) trivalent substance
(c) pentavalent substance (d) monovalent substance
Q.48. If a p-n diode is reverse biased, then the resistance measured by an ohmmeter, will be
(a) zero (b) low (c) high (d) infinite
Q.49. Diode is use as a/an
(a) oscillator (b) amplifier (c) rectifier (d) modulator
Q.50. Sodium has body-centred packing. If the distance between two nearest atoms is 3.7 Å, then lattice
parameter is
(a) 4.3 Å (b) 3.9 Å (c) 3.3 Å (d) 4.8 Å

ANSWERS: 41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (a) 45. (a)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a)

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