BTS 25 Paper (23 Dec 2023)

BTS–25 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 23-Dec.
-2023
BTS-25
(ALL INDIA BIO TOPIC TEST SERIES-UG 2023-2024)
TEST ID-325
DURATION : 60 Minutes DATE : 23-12-2023 MARKS : 360
Topic Covered
Biology : NCERT-I Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation
(Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.)
Please read the instructions carefully :
• The Test pattern of NEET (UG)-2021 comprises of two Sections.
Each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35 Questions and Section B will have 15 questions, out
of these 15 Questions, candidates can choose to attempt any 10 Questions.
The pattern for the NEET (UG)-2021 Examination for admission in the Session 2021-22 is as follows:
• The important points to note:

I. Each question carries 04 (four) marks and, for each correct answer candidate will get 04 (four) marks.
II. For each incorrect answer, 01(one) mark will be deducted from the total score.
III. To answer a question, the candidate has to find, for each question, the correct answer/ best option.
IV. However, after the process of the challenge of key, if more than one option is found to be correct then all/any one
of the multiple correct/best options marked will be given four marks (+4).
• Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
• Unanswered/Unattempted questions will be given no marks. In case, a question is dropped/ ignored, all
candidates will be given four marks (+4) irrespective of the fact whether the question has been attempted or not
attempted by the candidate.
Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

Candidate ID : _________________________________________________________________________________
Candidate Signature : _____________________________ Invigilator's Signature : _______________________
NLI / 1
Entrance NEET
Corona Pandemic
SELECTION
NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

Pages Total 631 pages 28 pages compress
SET-H4 74 Questions
NEET-2024 80+ Questions

Morning 09
(AM) Online Test Attend
Physics & Chemistry Important Formule
(Best of Luck)
INSTRUCTION
• The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not
write your roll no. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
• Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and no question is missing.
• Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
• If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
• No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
• The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and
sign the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed
not to have handed over Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
• Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
• The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall.
All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.
• The candidates will write the Correct Test ID Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Attendance Sheet.
Key Points of New Light Test Series :

• Rapid Fire Revision of all tests Live Classes available on "New LIght Institute"
Channel ( ) before the scheduled test.
• Video of all tests' solution available on "New Light Institute" App.
• Chat support 24×7 available for the students on "New Light Institute" App.
• Test results are regularly sent to the parents and students.
For lattest update on NEET, PDF sheets, other examinations and class schedule.
Please Subscribe our –
Telegram Channel - @NewLightInstituteKanpur
Youtube Channel - New Light Institute
For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -
• Youtube Channel Link :
https://www.youtube.com/@newlightprayaas2583
• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

BTS–25 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 23-Dec.-2023
TOPIC : NCERT-I Breathing and Exchange of Gases, Body Fluids and Circulation
PART-1 (SECTION-A)
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
1. Read the following statement and choose correct 1. :
answer :
(a)
(a) Movement of air into and out of the lungs is
carried out by creating a pressure gradient
between the lungs and atmosphere (b)
(b) Inspiration is initiated by contraction of
diaphragm which increase the volume of
thoracis chamber in dorso-ventral axis (c)
(c) Contraction of external intercostal muscles

lift up the ribs and sternum causing increase
in volume antero - posterio axis
(d) 12-16
(d) On average a healthy human breathes 12-16
time / minute
(1) b, d a, c
(1) b, d correct and a, c incorrect
(2) b, c correct and a, d incorrect (2) b, c a, d
(3) a, d correct and b, c incorrect (3) a, d b, c

(4) a, b, c, d correct (4) a, b, c, d
2. Match the given column I and column II select 2. I II
correct option : :
(A) Bicuspid valve (i) Between right atrium
(A) (i)
and right ventricle
(B) Semilunar valve (ii) Between left atrium
and left ventricle (B) (ii)
(C) Tricupisd valve (iii) Between right
ventricle and (C) (iii)
pulmonary artery
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i (2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
(3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii (3) A-i, B-iii, C-ii
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii (4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
3. Which of the following is correct : 3.
(1) Inspiration is an active process (1)
(2) Inspiration and expiration are passive process
(2)
(3) Expiration is always active process
(3)
(4) Expiration and inspiration are always active
process (4)
4. The maximum volume of air a person can breath 4.
in after forced expiration is :
:
(1) ERV + TV + IRV
(1) ERV + TV + IRV
(2) ERV + TV (2) ERV + TV
(3) ERV + IRV (3) ERV + IRV
(4) IRV + TV (4) IRV + TV
NLI / 4
5. Thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by : 5. :
(1) Vertebral column (2) Sternum (1) (2)
(3) Diaphragm and ribs (4) All of these (3) (4)
6. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. 6.
They do not collapse even after forceful expiration,
because of :
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
(1)
(2) Tidal Volume
(2)
(3) Expiratory Reserve Volume (3)
(4)
7. Volumes of air that will remain in the lungs after 7. :
normal expiration :
(1) E.R.V + R.V = 2300 mL
(1) E.R.V + R.V = 2300 mL
(2) E.R.V + R.V = 3600 mL (2) E.R.V + R.V = 3600 mL
(3) E.R.V + T.V = 1600 mL (3) E.R.V + T.V = 1600 mL
(4) E.R.V + T.V = 3500 mL (4) E.R.V + T.V = 3500 mL
8. Which of the following factor favour the disociation 8.
of O2 from oxyhaemoglobin : :
+
(1) Low pO2, high pCO2, high H conc. (1) pO2, pCO2, H+
(2) Low pO2, high pCO2, low pH (2) pO2, pCO2, pH
+
(3) Low pO2, low H conc., high pH (3) pO2, H +
, pH
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
9. Which of the following factor affect the rate of 9.
diffusion of gases : :
(1) Solubility of gases (1)
(2) Partial pressure / conc. gradient of diffusing gas (2) /
(3) Thickness of diffusion membrane (3)
(4) All of these (4)
10. Read the given figure and select correct option : 10. :
(1) A – 40 mm Hg, B – 95 mm Hg (1) A – 40 mm Hg, B – 95 mm Hg

NLI / 5
11. Given below are two statements : one is labelled 11. (A)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (R)
Reason (R).
(A) :
Assertion (A) : Pneumotaxic center present in the pons
region of the brain.
Reason (R) : Pneumotaxic center can moderate the (R) :
function of respiratory rhythm center.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A)
(A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correction
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
12. Given below are two statements : 12.
Statement I : -I:
The maximum volume of air a person can breaths in
after forced expiration is called vital capacity.
Statement-II :
-II:
The maximum volume of air a person can breath out
after forced inspiration is called expiration capacity.
Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (1) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

Statement I : -I:
Respiratory rhythm center is primarily responsible for
regulation of respiration and present in pons region of
brain.
Statement-II : -II:
A specialised center present in medulla region of brain

is called pneumotaxic center
below:
(1) I II
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) I II
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

NLI / 6
14. Match column - I with column - II and select the 14. -I - II
correct option from the codes given below :
Column - I Column - II
-I - II
A. TV + ERV (i) Expiratory capacity
A. TV + ERV (i)
B. RV + ERV + TV (ii) Total lung capacity
B. RV + ERV + TV (ii)
+ IRV
+ IRV
C. ERV + RV (iii) Functional residual
C. ERV + RV (iii)
capacity
(1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii) (1) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii)
(2) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii) (2) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii)
(3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i) (3) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i)
(4) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i) (4) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i)
15. Mark the true statement among the following with 15.
reference to normal breathing
(1)
(1) Inspiration is a passive process where as expiration
is active
(2)
(2) Inspiration is a active process where as expiration
is passive
(3) Inspiration and expiration are active processes (3)
(4) inspiration and expiration are passive processes (4)
16. Respiratory process is regulated by certain 16.
specialized centres in the brain. One of the
following listed centres can reduce the inspiratory
duration upon stimulation
(1) Medullary inspiratory centre (1)
(2) Pneumotaxic centre (2)
(3) Apneustic centre (3)
(4) Chemosensitive centre (4)
17. Which of the following match is wrong regarding 17.
transport of gases during respiration
(1) 97% O2, 20-25% CO2 RBCs (1) 97% O2, 20-25% CO2 RBCs
(2) 3% O2 dissolved in plasma (2) 3% O2
(3) 70% CO2 bicarbonate (3) 70% CO2
(4) 3% CO2 dissolved in plasma (4) 3% CO2
18. Which statement is correct for residual volume : 18.
(1) Volume of air inspired or expired during a normal (1)
respiration
(2) Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by a (2)
forcible inspiration
(3) Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a (3)
forcible expiration
(4) Volume of air remaining in the lungs even after a (4)
forcible expiration
NLI / 7
19. Additional volume of air, a person can inspire by 19.
a forcible inspiration is called :
(1) Residual Volume (1)
(2) Expiratory Reserve Volume (2)
(3) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (3)
(4) Tidal Volume (4)
20. Which is a correct statement 20.

(a) Trachea is a straight tube extending upto the (a)
mid abdominal cavity
(b) Pleural fluid is present between two pleural
membrane (b)
(c) Thoracic chamber is dorsally formed by (c)
Vertebral column
(d)
(d) We can not directly alter the pulmonary
volume (1) a b
(1) Only a and b
(2) b c
(2) Only b and c
(3) a
(3) Only a
(4) Only b,c,d (4) b,c,d
21. Which is not a true statement 21.

(a) pCO2 of deoxygenated blood is 40 mm Hg (a) pCO2 40 mm Hg
(b) pCO2 of alveolar air is 40 mm Hg (b) pCO2 40 mm Hg
(c) pO2 of alveolar air is 104 mm Hg (c) pO2 104 mm Hg
(d) pCO2 of deoxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg (d) pCO2 95 mm Hg
(1) Only a and b (1) a b
(2) Only b and c (2) b c
(3) Only d (3) d
(4) Only a and d (4) a d

22. Which is an correct statement 22.
(a) Spirometer has clinical significance (a)
(b) A healthy man can inspire or expire approx- (b) 6000 8000 ml
6000 to 8000 ml of air per second
(c) Expiratory reserve volume is 1000 ml (c) 1000 ml

(d) Normally, expiration is a passive process (d)
(3) Only a, c, d (3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
NLI / 8
23. Which statement is incorrect : 23. :
(1) Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates,
(1)
flatworms, etc., exchange O2 with CO2 by simple
diffusion over their entire body surface.
(2) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the

(2)
midthoracic cavity, which divides at the level of 5th
thoracic vertebra into a right and left primary
bronchi.
(3) pO2 CO 2
(3) pO2 is a major factor which could affect binding of
CO2 with haemoglobin.
(4) None of these (4)

Statement I : -I:
Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
100
approximately 5 ml of CO2 to the alveoli.
Statement-II :
-II:
CO 2 is carried by heamoglobin as carbamino-
CO2
heamoglobin.

below:
(1) I II
(2) I II
(3) I II
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (R)
Reason (R).
(A) : CO2 O2 20–25
Assertion (A) : Solubility of CO2 is 20–25 time higher
than that of O2.
(R) :
Reason (R) : The amount of CO2 that can diffuse
through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in CO2 O2
partial pressure is much higher compared to that of O2.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (1) (A) (R) (R)
explanation of (A) (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) (A) (R)
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) (A) (R)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correction
explanation of (A) (4) (A) (R) (R) (A)
NLI / 9
26. Following given figure represents : 26.
(1) Expiration (2) Diaphram relaxed (1) (2)

(3) Inpiration (4) 1 and 2 both (3) (4) 1 2
27. In given diagramatic representation T represent: 27. T
(1) Depolarisation of Atria (1)

(2) Begining of the systole (2)
(3) Repolerisation of ventricles (3)
(4) End of diastole (4)
28. Match the types of W.B.C. with their percentage 28. W.B.C. W.B.C.
in W.B.C.
Types of W.B.C % in W.B.C
W.B.C W.B.C %
a. Basophils i. 2-3
a. i. 2 - 3
b. Neutrophils ii. 20 - 25
b. ii. 20 - 25
c. Eosinophils iii. 6 - 8
c. iii. 6 - 8
d. Monocytes iv. 60 - 65
d. iv. 60 - 65
e. Lymphocytes v. 0.5 - 1
e. v. 0.5 - 1
(1) a - v, b - iv, c - iii, d - i, e - ii
(1) a- v, b - iv, c - iii, d - i, e - ii
(2) a - v, b - iv, c - i, d - iii, e - ii
(2) a- v, b - iv, c - i, d - iii, e - ii
(3) a - i, b - iv, c - v, d - iii, e - ii (3) a- i, b - iv, c - v, d - iii, e - ii
(4) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii, e - v (4) a- ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii, e - v
29. Read the following events of blood clotting and 29.
choose correct sequence in options : :
(i) Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin (i)
(ii) Formation of clot (ii)
(iii) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin (iii)
(iv) Thromboplastin formation (iv)
(1) iv  iii  i  ii (2) iii  iv  i  ii (1) iv  iii  i  ii (2) iii  iv  i  ii
(3) i  iv  iii  ii (4) i  iii  iv  ii (3) i  iv  iii  ii (4) i  iii  iv  ii
NLI / 10
30. Blood pressure in mammalian aorta is maximum 30. :
during :
(1)
(1) Diastole of the right atrium
(2)
(2) Diastole of left atrium
(3) Systole of left ventrical (3)
(4) Joint diastole (4)
31. Second heart sound dub is associated with : 31. :
(1) Closure of the similunar valves (1)
(2) Closure of cuspid valves (2)
(3) Opening of semilunar valves (3)
(4) Opening of cuspid (4)
32. Which of the following statement is incorrect : 32. :
(1) A person of O blood group has anti A and anti B (1) O A
antibodies in blood plasma B
(2) ABO Blood group is based on the basis of (2) ABO
presence or absence of antigen in blood plasma
(3) Person of AB blood group is universal recipient (3) AB
(4) Person of O blood group is universal donors (4) O
33. Match the column I and column II 33. I II
Column I Column II I II
a. Basophils i. Inflammation a. i.
b. Neutrophils ii. Blood clotting
b. ii.
c. Plasma cells iii. Phagocytosis
c. iii.
d. Platelets iv. Antibodies
d. iv.
(1) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii
(1) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii
(2) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv
(2) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv
(3) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i (3) a - iii, b - ii, c - iv, d - i
(4) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii (4) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii
34. Which of the following is incorrect : 34. :
(1) Deposition of calcium, cholesterol and fibrous (1)
tissue in coronary artery called antherosclerosis
(2) Angina commonly occur during middle age (2)
(3) 120/80 is normal blood pressure (3) 120/80
(4) When heart muscles suddenly damaged by an (4)
inadequate blood supply is called heart failure
35. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by 35.
administering ...... A ....... to the mother ...... A ....... :
immadiately after the delivery of first child :
(1) A - Rh
(1) A - anti Rh antibodies
(2) A - Rh antibodies (2) A - Rh
(3) A - Anti Rh antigen (3) A - Rh

(4) A - Rh antigen (4) A - Rh
NLI / 11
PART-1 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 15 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 10
36. Which of the following alcoholic beverages is/are 36.
produced by distillation of the fermented broth:
(1) Brandy and beer (1)

(2) Wine and rum (2)
(3) Whisky and brandy (3)
(4) Wine and beer (4)

37. A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial 37.
infraction in general, he is treated with :
(1) Cyclosporin - A (1)

(2) Statins (2)
(3) Penicillin (3)
(4) Streptokinase (4)
38. Full potential of antibiotic Penicillin was 38.
established by :
(1)
(1) Ernst florey
(2)
(2) Howard chain
(3) 1 2
(3) Both (1) and (2)
39. Chrysophytes, Euglena, Slime moulds, 39.

Plasmodium are grouped under which kingdom:
(1) Monera (1)
(2) Plantae (2)
(3) Fungi (3)
(4) Protista. (4)
40. Match the column : 40.

Match – A Match – B –A –B
1- Citric acid a- Clostridium
1- a-
butylicum
2- Acetic acid b- Aspergillus niger 2- b-
3- Butyric acid c- Acetobacter aceti 3- c-
4- Lactic acid d- Lacto bacillus 4- d-
(1) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d (1) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
(2) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d (2) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
(3) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a (3) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d (4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d
NLI / 12
41. During cell division, the spindle fibres attach to the 41.
chromosome at a region called:
(1) Chromocentre (1)

(2) Kinetochore (2)
(3) Centriole (3)
(4) Chromomere (4)

42. In which among the following cell organelle, 42.
steroidal hormones are being synthesised in
animal cells :
(1)
(1) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(2)
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Golgi complex (3)
(4) Vacuoles. (4)

43. How many matching are correct : 43.
(a) Annealing – PCR (a) – PCR
(b) Denaturation – RTI (b) – RTI
(c) Taq polymerase – Fungus (c) –
(d) Primers – Oligonucleotide (d) –
(1) 3 (2) 2 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1 (4) 4 (3) 1 (4) 4
44. Correct order of making competent cells 44.
(a) DNA enters the cell (a)
(b) Place on 420C and then keep on ice (b) 420C
(c) cells treated with divalent cations (c)
(d) addition of recombinant DNA with the cell on (d)
ice
(1) c,b,d,a
(1) c,b,d,a
(2) b,d,c,a (2) b,d,c,a
(3) c,d,b,a (3) c,d,b,a
(4) b,a,d,c (4) b,a,d,c
45. Find out the correct statements 45.
(a) The ribosome in its inactive state exists as two (a)
subunits
(b) 23S rRNA acts as ribozyme (b) 23S rRNA
(c) For termination of translation, release factor (c) AUG
has to bind with AUG codon
(d) RNA polymerase II translates precursor of
(d) RNA II mRNA
mRNA
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, d
(3) a,b (4) c, d (3) a,b (4) c, d
NLI / 13
46. Which statement correct for Saheli : 46.
(1) It is a once a day pill (1)
(2) It is a nonsteroidal oral contraceptive (2)
(3) It is a pill with very few side effects (3)
(4) 2 and 3 (4) 2 3
47. A gamete normally contains : 47.
(1) Many alleles of a gene (1)
(2) All alleles of a gene (2)
(3) Two alleles of a gene (3)
(4) One allele of a gene. (4)
48. In Drosophila gene for white eye colour is also 48.
responsible for depigmentation of body parts. It is
an example of:
(1)
(1) Oncogene
(2)
(2) Polygene inheritance
(3) Sex-linked (3)
(4) Pleiotropic gene (4)

49. Select a pair of bacterial diseases : 49.
(1) Common cold, AIDS (1) AIDS
(2) Dysentary, common cold (2)
(3) Typhoid, cholera (3)
(4) Ringworm, AIDS (4) AIDS
50. Anti venom against snake poison contains : 50.
(1) Antigens (1)
(2) Antigen-antibody complexes (2)
(3) Preformed antibodies (3)
(4) Mucous (4)
PART-2 (SECTION-A)
Attempt All 35 Questions 35
51. Most abundant and phagocytic leucocyte is 51.
(1) Neutrophills and basophills (1)
(2) Eosinophills and basophills (2)
(3) Basophils and neutrophills respectively (3)
(4) Neutrophills and neutrophills respectively (4)
52. Chordae Tendinae are found in : 52. :
(1) Ventricles of heart (1)
(2) Atria of heart (2)
(3) Both ventricle and atria (3)
(4) Only right ventricle of heart (4)
NLI / 14
53. QRS complex represent the : 53. QRS :
(1) Repolerization of ventricles (1)
(2) Depolerization of ventricles (2)
(3) Repolerization of atria (3)
(4) Depolerization of atria (4)

as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R)
(A) :
Assertion (A) :
Thrombins in turn are formed from inactive
substance present in plasma called prothrombin.
Reason (R) : (R) :
An enzyme complex thrombokinase required for
changing prothrombin to thrombin.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (1) R
correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
R
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
R
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A) (4) R
55. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number 55.
can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive
loss of blood from the body :
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Leucocytes (1) (2)
(3) Neutrophils (4) Thrombocytes (3) (4)
56. What would be the heart rate of parson if the 56. L,

cardiac output is 5 L. blood volume in the ventricles 100 mL
at the end of diastole is 100 ml. and at the end of 50 mL
ventricular systole is 50 mL :
(1) 50
(1) 50 beat per minute
(2) 75
(2) 75 beat per minute
(3) 100 beat per minute (3) 100
(4) 125 beat per minute (4) 125

57. Plasma contains which of the following minerals 57.
(1) Sodium, calcium ions (1)
(2) Magnesium, bicarbonate ions (2)
(3) Chloride ions (3)
(4) All of these (4)
NLI / 15
58. Heart  deoxygenated blood  gills  58.   
oxygenated blood  body parts  deoxygenated   
blood  heart. This is
(1) Single circulation (1)
(2) Incomplete double circulation (2)
(3) Double circulation (3)

59. The flow of blood in human heart is from 59.
(1) Ventricle Atria Pulmonary artery Atria (1)
(2) Atria Pulmonary artery Ventricle Atria (2)
(3) Atria Ventricle Pulmonary artery (3)

60. Which of the following represents systemic 60.
circulation
(1)
(1) Right Atrium Dorsal aorta Tissue Vena
ena
cava Left atrium
(2)
(2) Left Atrium Vena cava Tissue Dorsal
aorta Right atrium
(3)
(3) LA Dorsal aorta Tissue Vena cava
Right atrium
(4) LA Dorsal aorta Lungs Vena cava (4)
Right atrium
61. Function of systemic circulation include 61.
(1) Provides nutrients and Oxygen supply to tissue (1)
(2) Takes CO2 and harmful substances from tissue
(2) CO2
away for elimination
(3) Takes nutrients and oxygen from tissue (3)
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
62. Mark the odd one out : 62.

(1) Lymphocytes (1)
(2) Monocytes (2)
(3) Erythrocytes (3)
(4) Neutrophils (4)

63. Bicuspid valve found between : 63.
(1) The right atrium and the right ventricle (1)
(2) The left atrium and the left ventricle (2)
(3) The right atrium and the left ventricle (3)
(4) The left atrium and the right ventricle (4)

NLI / 16
(a) Lymph and blood are body fluid (a)
(b) Purkinje fibres are present in heart of Hydra (b)
(c) Cockroach has closed vascular system
(c)
(d) Coronary artery supplies blood to heart
(d)
muscles
(1) a b
(1) a and b
(2) b and c (2) b c
(3) a and d (3) a d
(4) b and d (4) b d

65. Which is a wrong statement 65.
(a) E.C.G. has clinical importance (a) E.C.G.
(b) Adrenal medullary hormone has no effect on (b)
cardiac output
(c) Spleen is the graveyard of RBC in body (c) RBC
(d) Atherosclerosis is thining of arterial wall (d)
(3) Only b and d (3) b d
(4) Only d (4) d
(a) Hypertension is caused by anaemia (a)
(b) Cardiac output depends on stroke volume (b)
(c) Blood capillary is single walled (c)
(d) Man has hepatic portal system (d)
(1) Only a & b (1) a b
(2) Only b & c (2) b c
(3) Only b, c & d (3) b, c d
(4) Only a, b & c (4) a, b c
67. Which one is Rh incompatible marriage : 67. Rh
(1) Rh negative female and Rh positive male (1) Rh Rh
(2) Rh positive female and Rh positive male (2) Rh Rh
(3) Rh negative female and Rh negative male (3) Rh Rh
(4) Rh positive female and Rh negative male (4) Rh Rh
68. Which neural signals decrease the rate of heart 68.
beat :
(1)
(1) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves
(2)
(2) Neural signals through the parasympathetic nerves
(3) Hormone of adrenal medulla (3)
(4) Both 1 and 3 (4) 1 3
NLI / 17
69. Which statement is incorrect : 69.
(1) Neutrophils are the most abundant cells about 60- (1) WBCs 60-65%
65 percent of the total WBCs and basophils are
0.5-1%
the least about 0.5-1 percent among them
(2) The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles
from excited to normal state
(3) The P-wave represents repolarisation of the atria
(4) A healthy individual has 12-16 gms of haemoglobin (4) 100 ml 12-16
in every 100 ml of blood
(a) Fibrinogen helps in maintenance of osmotic (a)
pressure
(b)
(b) Glucose is absent in plasma
(c)
(c) Serum does not clot
(d)
(d) Lymph is a connective tissue
(1) a & b (2) b & c (1) a b (2) b c
(3) c & d (4) a & d (3) c d (4) a d

71. Which disorder is associated with Rh antigens : 71. Rh
(1) Hepatitis (1)
(2) Anaemia (2)
(3) Erythroblastosis foetalis (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3

72. Which is a correct statement : 72.
(a) AV node is called as pace maker
(b) Atrial systole causes 70% ventricular filling (b) 70%
(c) Cardiac output depends on ventricular filling (c)
(d) Blood pumped during a cardiac cycle is (d)
cardiac output
(1) Only c & d (1) c&d
(2) Only c (2) c
(3) Only d (3) d
(4) Only a & d (4) a&d

73. What is correct for blood group ‘O’ : 73. O
(1) No antigens but both anti-A and anti-B antibodies (1)
are present
(2) A antigen and both anti-A and anti-B antibody are (2)
present
(3) Antigen and antibody both absent (3)

(4) A and B antigens and anti-A, anti-B antibodies are (4)
present
NLI / 18
74. Which is a correct matching 74.
Column-I Column-II -I -II
(a) Lymph capillary i. Artificial
pacemaker (a) i.
(b) Vein ii. Wall of artery (b) ii.
(c) Tunica media iii. S.V.C. ( superior (c) iii.
vena cava)
(d) iv.
(d) Cardiac arrest iv. Lacteal
(1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv (2) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (3) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Statement I : -I:
In adult man, normal BP is 120/80 mm Hg BP 120/80 mm Hg
Statement-II : -II:
Chordae tendinae are present in ventricles
below:
(1) I II
Statement I : -I:
One cardiac cycle is completed in 0.8 sec. 0.8 sec.
Statement-II : -II:
Arterial depolarization is represented by T-wave
below:
(1) I II
77. Choose the correct option according to given 77.
figure.
(1) A – :
(1) A – Artery : Tunica media is thin as compare to
vein. (2) A – :
(2) A – Vein : Tunica media is thick as compare to
artery. (3) B – :
(3) B – Artery : Tunica media is thick as compare to
vein. (4) B – :
(4) B – Vein : Tunica media is thick as compare to
artery.
NLI / 19
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
(R)
Assertion (A) : (A) :
Human heart is myogenic
Reason (R) :
The nodal musculature has the ability to generate (R) :
action potential without any external stimuli so it
is auto exitable and is responsible for maintaining
the rhythmic contractile activity.
choose the correct answer from the options given
below : (1) R
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct R
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct R
explanation of (A) (4) R
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
(R)
Assertion (A) : (A) :
Heart failure is not the same as cardiac arrest or a
heart attack.
Reason (R) :
In heart failure means heart muscles is suddenly (R) :
damaged by an indaquate blood supply.
choose the correct answer from the options given
below : (1) R
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
R
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct R
(4) R
explanation of (A)
Statement I : -I:
Arteries are thin-walled and have narrow lumen
as compared to veins
Statement-II :
-II:
Angina is acute chest pain when the blood
circulation to the brain is reduced
below:

NLI / 20
Statement I : -I:
Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to ABO AB
person with same blood group under ABO system
Statement-II :
-II:
Calsium ions play a very important role in blood
clotting
below:

82. Which of the following type cells lack nucleus in 82.
most of mammals : :
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Eosinophils (1) (2)
(3) Neutrophils (4) Monocyte (3) (4)
83. Which one of the following is correct : 83. :
(1) Blood = Plasma + RBC+WBC+Platelets (1) =
(2) Plasma = Blood + Lymphocytes (2) = +
(3) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen (3) = +
(4) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC (4) = + RBC + WBC
84. Serum differs from blood in : 84. :
(1) Lacking clotting factors (1)
(2) Lacking antibodies (2)
(3) Lacking globulins (3)
(4) Lacking albumins (4)
Statement I : -I:
To be a cloning vactor, A plasmid require an origin of
replication (ori)
(ori)
Statement-II :
- II :
Normal E.coli cell do not resistance against
ampicillin, chloramphenicol and Tetracycline or kana-
mycin.
below:
(1) I II
(2) I II

NLI / 21
PART-2 (SECTION-B) -B
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 15 15
question. In case if candiate attempts more than 10 10
10 question, first 10 attempted question will be
considered for marking. 10
86. DNA stained with ethidium bromide can be 86. DNA
visualized in
(1) Visible light (1)

(2) UV light (2) UV
(3) IR light (3) IR
(4) X ray (4) X

87. pBR322 is a 87. pBR322
(1) Natural plasmid (1)
(2) Artificial vector (2)
(3) Have ampicillin and tetracycline resistance genes (3)
(4) Both 2 and 3 (4) 2 3

88. Identify the following diagramatic figure and 88. :
choose correct option :
(1) A – II , B – II
(1) A – Metaphase II , B – Anaphase II
(2) A – I,B– I
(2) A – Metaphase I , B – Anaphase I
(3) A – Transition to Anaphase I , B – Prophase (3) A – I ,B–
(4) A – Transition to Metaphase , B – Metaphase (4) A – ,B–

89. Synapsis occurs between : 89.
(1) Two non-homologous chromosome (1)
(2) mRNA and ribosomes (2)
(3) Spindle fibres and centromere (3)
(4) Two homologous chromosome (4)

90. Recombination is completed by which stage in 90.
meiosis:
(1)
(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene (2)
(3) Pachytene (3)

NLI / 22
91. This amino acids is : 91.
(1) Glycine (1)
(2) Alanine (2)
(3) Serine (3)
(4) Arginine (4)
92. Golgi apparatus were observed by Camillo Golgi 92.

in 1898. Which of the following is wrong statement
regarding it :
(1) Diameter of cisternae is 0.5 m to 1.0 m (1)
(2) The golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near (2)

the mitochondria
(3) Golgi apparatus a site of formation of glycoprotein (3)

and glycolipid
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4)

93. Which of the following represents uridylic acid : 93.
(1) Uracil + Ribose
(1) +
(2) Uridine + Phosphoric acid (2) +
(3) Uracil + Phosphoric acid (3) +
(4) Uridine + Ribose + Phosphoric acid (4) + +

94. Plasmodesmata are 94.
(1) Locomotary structures
(1)
(2) Membranes connecting the nucleus with
(2)
plasmalemma
(3) Connections between neighbouring cells (3)
(4) Lignified cemented layers between cells. (4)

95. Protein ferredoxin act as electron carrier and forms 95. PS-I
a constituents of PS-I has
(1) Sulpher (1)
(2) Iron (2)
(3) Both Iron and sulpher (3)
(4) Sulpher and magnesium (4)
NLI / 23
96. Identify the plant 96.
(1) Terrestrial and aquatic larkspur respectively (1)
(2) Terrestrial and aquatic buttercup respectively (2)
(3) Aquatic and terrestrial larkspur respectively (3)
(4) Aquatic and terrestrial buttercup respectively (4)
97. If the margin of sepals or petals overlape one 97.

another but not in any particular direction the
aestivation is called:
(1)
(1) Valvate
(2)
(2) Twisted
(3)
(3) Imbricate
(4) Vaxillary (4)
98. Variation in the length of filaments with in a flower 98.

as in:
(1)
(1) Salvinia
(2)
(2) Mustard
(3)
(3) Citrus
(4) Both 1 and 2 (4) 1 2
99. In which of the following grou ps all the 99.

organisms contain chlorophyll 'c'
(1) Cedrus, Chondrus, Volvox, Chlorella (1)
(2) Macrocystis, Spiryogyra, Polysiphonia, Chara (2)
(3) Chlamydomonas, Dictyota, Ulothrix, Gelidium (3)
(4) Dictyota, Fucus, Sargassum, Laminaria (4)
100. Single opening for mouth and anus is found in : 100.
(1) Porifera (1)
(2) Platyhelmenthes (2)
(3) Annelida (3)
(4) Aschelmenthes (4)
NLI / 24

BTS 25 Paper (23 Dec 2023)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

BTS 25 Paper (23 Dec 2023)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

BTS–25 [Paper] CRACK NEET 2024 /Bio Test Series/ 23-Dec.

DURATION : 60 Minutes DATE : 23-12-2023 MARKS : 360

• The important points to note:

Name of the Student (In CAPITALS) : _____________________________________________________________

NCERT - XI (346) pages NCERT - XII (285)

NEET-2024 80+ Questions

Physics & Chemistry Important Formule

Key Points of New Light Test Series :

For Today's Paper Discussion - Scan the QR code -

• Youtube Channel Link :

• Youtube Channel Name : New Light Prayaas

(c) Contraction of external intercostal muscles

(3) a, d correct and b, c incorrect (3) a, d b, c

(1) A – 40 mm Hg, B – 95 mm Hg (1) A – 40 mm Hg, B – 95 mm Hg

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (2) I II

(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (3) I II

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

A specialised center present in medulla region of brain

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

(1) Residual Volume (1)

(2) Expiratory Reserve Volume (2)

(3) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (3)

(4) Tidal Volume (4)

20. Which is a correct statement 20.

21. Which is not a true statement 21.

(d) pCO2 of deoxygenated blood is 95 mm Hg (d) pCO2 95 mm Hg

(1) Only a and b (1) a b

(2) Only b and c (2) b c

(3) Only d (3) d

(4) Only a and d (4) a d

(c) Expiratory reserve volume is 1000 ml (c) 1000 ml

(2) Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the

(4) None of these (4)

24. Given below are two statements : 24.

Choose the correct answer from the option given

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (4) I II

(1) Expiration (2) Diaphram relaxed (1) (2)

(1) Depolarisation of Atria (1)

(3) A - Anti Rh antigen (3) A - Rh

(1) Brandy and beer (1)

(3) Whisky and brandy (3)

(4) Wine and beer (4)

(1) Cyclosporin - A (1)

39. Chrysophytes, Euglena, Slime moulds, 39.

(1) Monera (1)

(2) Plantae (2)

(3) Fungi (3)

(4) Protista. (4)

40. Match the column : 40.

(1) Chromocentre (1)

(3) Centriole (3)

(4) Chromomere (4)

(4) Vacuoles. (4)

(4) Pleiotropic gene (4)

(4) Mucous (4)

(3) Repolerization of atria (3)

(4) Depolerization of atria (4)

(1) Erythrocytes (2) Leucocytes (1) (2)

(3) Neutrophils (4) Thrombocytes (3) (4)

56. What would be the heart rate of parson if the 56. L,

(4) 125 beat per minute (4) 125

(1) Single circulation (1)