Cbse Class 10 HOTS Questions For Maths and Science

Guess Papers
SCIENCE & MATHS

Class-10
5
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Table of Contents
Science (Set-1) Questions Page 4-12

Science (Set-1) Solutions Page 14-24
Science (Set-2) Questions Page 26-34

Science (Set-2) Solutions Page 36-48
Mathematics (Set-1) Questions Page 51-56

Mathematics (Set-1) Solutions Page 58-75
Mathematics (Set-2) Questions Page 78-83

Mathematics (Set-2) Solutions Page 85-101
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SCIENCE (Set-1)
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum marks: 90
General instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the
sections.
(ii) All quesstions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted
separately.
(iv) Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be

answered in one word or one sentence.
(v) Quetion numbers 4 to 7 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be

answered in about 30 words each.
(vi) Question numbers 8 to 19 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be

(vii) Question numbers 20 to 24 in Section A are five-mark questions. These are to be

(viii) Question numbers 25 to 42 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on

practical skills. Each question is a one-mark question. You are to select one most
appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
Section A
1. The substituent used in the IUPAC name of the given compound is chloro − and the suffix
used is − al. Identify X and Y. 1
2. Is it possible to utilize domestic organic wastes as fertilisers? 1
3. Which organism has the ability to reproduce by its lost body part as well as by producing
body outgrowth? 1
4. a) What can automobile owners do to ensure that they cause minimum damage to the environment?
b) Name three harmful gases that are released on burning coal.
5. What is biogas? Even though biogas releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere on burning, it is
still considered to be a good source of energy. Why? 2
6. Explain using Snell’s law why light bends towards the normal when travelling from an optically
rarer to an optically denser medium. 2
7. Describe the process of embryo formation in egg laying animals. 2
8. a) Design an aquatic food chain up to tertiary consumer level.

b) List three man-made ecosystems and state why they are known as man-made ecosystems.
c) If bacteria, fungi and other microorganisms are removed from the environment, then what will
be its impact on the ecosystem?
9. a) Briefly explain the optics involved in rainbow formation.

b) Why are the passengers sitting in an aeroplane flying at high altitude not able to see a blue sky?
3

10. An object placed at 20 cm in front of the lens, produces an image at 30 cm behind the lens. Find
a) Which type of lens is used here?
b) What is the magnification produced by it?
c) From the magnification, what can be concluded about the image? 3
11. a) Why are concave mirrors used by dentists while examining teeth?
b) A spherical mirror produces a highly diminished, point-sized and erect image of an object placed
at infinity. What kind of a mirror is it?
c) Where must an object be placed in front of a concave mirror such that its image is erect?
3
12. Schematically explain the cross involving pure breeding pea plants with purple flowers and pure
breeding pea plants with white flowers. 3
13. a) Explain with the help of an example how natural selection leads to evolution.
b) Why does geographical isolation result in the formation of new species? 3
14. a)How does sexual reproduction maintain the same amount of DNA in subsequent generations?
b) If variants are so important, then why do organisms produce similar offsprings?3
15. a) How can an unwanted pregnancy be prevented surgically?

b) What are the different methods of contraception? Mention any four. 3
16. a) The modern periodic table was based on atomic number of the elements. Why is atomic number
a more appropriate parameter than atomic mass?
b) The chemical formulae of the chloride formed by three elements, Al, Si and Mg, are:
AlCl3, SiCl4, MgCl2
By giving reasons, arrange these elements in increasing order of their atomic size.
3
17. a) It was observed that Dobereiner’s traid also existed in the columns of Newland’s Octaves. Give
one example in support of this statement.
b) Neha was studying about Newland’s Law of Octaves. While studying, she observed that some
elements were incorrectly placed in Newland’s Octaves. Mention one such ambiguity that she must
have observed.
c) In Mendeleev’s periodic table, the elements were arranged in increasing order of atomic masses.
Name one of the incidences where this rule was not followed. 3
18. a) Define catenation.

b) In a molecule of a hydrocarbon, the number of carbon atoms is 3. What will be its formula and
IUPAC name if it is an:
(i) Alkane
(ii) Alkene 3
19. When a piece of sodium is added to ethanol, a gas is evolved which burns with a ‘pop’ sound. Name
the gas and also write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction. How can ethene be obtained
from ethanol? 3
20. a) How is copying of DNA significant in reproduction?

b) Explain the importance of variation using the example of a heat resistant bacterium.
c) How is tissue culture different from vegetative propagation? 5
21. a) What happens to the ovule and ovary after fertilization?

b) Sperm and ova fuse to form the zygote. Explain the process and where does it take place?
c) Explain all the reproductive organs found in a bisexual flower. 5
22. a) The far point for a myopic person is 75 cm in front of the eye. What is the type and power of the
lens required to correct this defect?
b) With the use of a ray diagram, represent a myopic eye. If a person is suffering from myopia, then
what effect does it have on the near point of his eye? 5
23. a) Ram observed that his image on the outer side of a spoon is erect, while the image is inverted on
the inner side of the spoon. Explain.
b) Explain the differences between the images formed by a concave mirror and a convex mirror.
Draw the ray diagram of the concave mirror in which the object is placed between the centre of
curvature and the focus and write the nature of image.
5
24. a) Give the word equation for saponification reaction.

b) What are detergents? Why are detergents preferred over soaps?
c) Explain why soap molecules do not work properly when the water is hard? 5
Section B
25. Use the following information to answer the next question.Four students P, Q, R and S carried out
measurements of focal length of concave mirror with the given set ups.Which of the following
set-ups gives the best result? 1
A. B. C. D.
26. Use the following information to answer the next question.

The given set-up was used to determine the focal length of a convex lens. A sharp image of a
distant object is formed on the screen.
What is the power of the lens being used? 1

A. 1.0 D
B. 2.0 D
C. 4.0 D
D. 5.0 D
In the glass slab experiment as shown in the adjoining figure four students proceeded as following
P: Kept eyes far from the glass slab while placing pin C and close while placing pin D.
Q: Kept eyes far from the glass slab while placing both pins C and D.
R: Kept eyes close to the glass slab while placing both pins C and D.
S: Kept eyes close to the glass slab while placing pin C and far away while placing pin D, from the
glass slab.
Which of the following students proceeded in the correct manner to trace the path of the light?
1
A. P
B. Q
C. R
D. S

Following is a list of precautions given to a student for performing the experiment to trace a
light-ray through the glass-slab.
I. Hammer the pins to position them well
II. Eye should be kept a foot away from the slab while placing the pins
III. An angle of 80° for incidence should be avoided
IV. A sharp pencil should be used to draw the rays
V. A compass should be used for measuring anglesWhich of the following set of precautions is
correct?
1
A. Statements I, II, III and IV only
B. Statements II, III, IV and V only
C. Statements II, III and IV only
D. Statements I, II, IV only
29. The images I, II, III and IV show different stages of budding in a yeast.
Which of the following options correctly represents the order of stages of budding?
1
A. I, II, III and IV
B. IV, III, II and I
C. II, IV, I and III
D. II, I, IV and III
30. After observing a slide under a microscope, a student confirmed that an organism was undergoing
binary fission. Which of the following stages of binary fission had the student observed under the
microscope? 1
A. A cell without any nuclei

B. A cell with many small nuclei
C. A cell with chromosomes arranged at the centre
D. A cell with two nuclei and constriction around the centre
31. Thorns of citrus and tendrils of cucurbits represent 1
A. vestigial organs
B. analogous organs
C. divergent evolution
D. convergent evolution
32. Use the following information to answer the next question. Consider the given reaction
The information given in which alternative correctly represents the compound mentioned as X?
1
A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Sodium carbonate
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Sulphuric acid
Neha wish to prepare solutions of acetic acid and water in three different test tubes. The proportion
of acetic acid and water she used are given.
Acetic acid Water
I. +
II. +
III. +
In which of the following alternatives she will obtain homogenous solution? 1

A. Only I
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. Only II
34. Use the following information to answer the next question.Maurice wants to fill his balloon with a
gas, which should be lighter than air and non-combustible. He cannot use hydrogen as it is highly
combustible.Which gas can be used by Maurice? 1
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Helium
D. Ozone
35. Use the following information to answer the next question.Matthew conducted an experiment to
find out the gas produced in hydrocarbon combustion. Matthew took ethyl alcohol in a small test
tube and placed it inside a conical flask as shown in the figure. He fitted one end of a U shaped pipe
inside the cork and immersed the other end in limewater kept in another beaker. Ethyl alcohol is
then ignited by electric sparking. Matthew observed that as the bubbles passed through the
limewater solution, the latter turned milky.
The given experiment confirms the evolution of which gas?
1
A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Water vapour
D. Carbon dioxide
36. Use the following information to answer the next question.Mohit got late for the school. By the
time he reached his classroom, the first class was almost over. He took out his notebook and tried to
write the reaction that the teacher had earlier written on the white board. However, the teacher had
already erased half of the reaction. He could see only the products (which were a salt, water, and
carbon dioxide) and not the reactants. Therefore, he asked his classmates about the reaction. The
responses from three of the classmates that Mohit got are as follows:
Tanuj told him that the reactants were a salt and ethanoic acid.
Sonika told him that the reactants were ethanoic acid and a sodium carbonate. Malvika told him
that the reactants were ethanol and ethanoic acid.The correct reactants were told to Mohit by
1
A. only Tanuj
B. only Sonika
C. both Tanuj and Malvika
D. both Tanuj and Sonika
37. A student took 2 mL of aqueous NaOH in a clean test tube and added two pieces of zinc metal in it
to observe the reaction between base and metal. After few minutes, he observed small bubbles of
gas produced in the solution. He also performed a flame test to identify the gas.
Which of the following gases was detected by the student? 1
A. Ozone
B. Oxygen
C. Hydrogen
D. Water vapour
38. Which of the following alternatives correctly represents the data-set for the experiment on tracing
the path of a ray of light through a glass-prism? 1
A. B. C. D.

Three glass blocks are arranged as shown in the given figure.
The ray diagram that correctly depicts the path of rays through the arrangement of glass blocks is
shown in alternative 1
A. B. C. D.
40. Homologous and analogous organs are evidences that help in studying 1
A. heredity
B. evolution
C. mutations
D. variations
41. The given image represents the ventral view of the red kidney bean seed.
Identify the part labelled as X in the given image. 1
A. Hilum
B. Micropyle
C. Funiculus
D. Endopserm
42. What will be the nature and position of image formed if an object is placed at the centre of
curvature of a convex lens?
1
A. At focus, real and inverted
B. At focus, virtual and erect
C. At centre of curvature, virtual and erect
D. At centre of curvature, real and inverted
SCIENCE (Set-1)
SOLUTIONS
SCIENCE (Set-1) SOLUTIONS
Answers:
Section A
(1-mark)
1. The substituent X is Cl (chloro) and the suffix Y is O. The IUPAC name of the compound is
2- chloropropanal.
2. Yes, it is possible to utilize domestic organic wastes as fertilisers. The compost formed after the
decomposition of dead plants and animals can be used as a natural fertiliser.
3. Hydra can reproduce both by regeneration of its body parts as well as by the process of budding.
(2-mark)
4. a) Automobile owners should maintain their cars properly. By doing this, they would ensure that
the complete combustion of fuel takes place and maximum efficiency is obtained, thus, minimising
air pollution.
b) Carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide are three harmful gases that are released
on burning coal.
5. Bio-gas is a fuel that is produced when materials such as vegetable waste, sewage, harvest residue
etc. are decomposed in the absence of oxygen.
Although the burning of biogas releases carbon dioxide, biogas is considered to be a good source of
energy because unlike fossil fuels and other biomass, it leaves no residue and produces very little
smoke on burning. This is because methane constitutes 75% of biogas. It burns out completely and
its heating capacity is also very high.
6. According to Snell’s law, constant = µ21

Where
i=angle of incidence
r=angle of refraction
µ21 = refractive index of medium 2 with respect to medium 1
Also,
If 1 is the rarer medium and 2 the denser, then v1 > v2

Or,
Thus, we can conclude that sin i>sin r or angle of incidence is greater than angle of refraction.
This explains light travelling from a rarer to denser medium bends towards the normal.
7. In egg laying animals such as hens, after fertilisation, when the egg travels through the oviduct, it
gets covered with various protective layers, including the shell. The hen lays eggs and it takes
around three weeks for the embryo to develop into a chick. Hens sit on their eggs to keep the egg
warm and to maintain a proper temperature for the growth of the embryo inside the egg (process
known as brooding). At the end of three weeks, the egg cracks open and the chick comes out.
(3-mark)
8. a)Phytoplankton (Producer)
↓
Zooplankton (Primary consumer)
↓
Small fish (Secondary consumer)
↓
Large fish (Tertiary consumer)
b) Man-made ecosystems include gardens, crop fields and aquarium. These are called man-made
ecosystems because biotic factors such as number of plants, animals etc. as well as abiotic factors
such as water, temperature etc. are controlled by human beings.
c) Bacteria, fungi and other microorganisms act as the decomposers or scavengers of the ecosystem.
If they are removed from the environment, then the complex organic molecules will not be broken
down into simpler inorganic substances. This will result in inappropriate replenishment of soil.
9. a) A rainbow is a natural spectrum of sunlight formed after the dispersion of tiny water droplets
present in the atmosphere. These tiny water droplets in the atmosphere act like small prisms for the
rays of sunlight. Through these droplets, the sunlight is refracted, dispersed, reflected internally
and refracted once again on emergence. As a result of this dispersion of white sunlight and internal
refraction, we see the spectrum of the constituents of sunlight.
This phenomenon can be diagrammatically represented as
b) The sky appears blue because the fine particles in the atmosphere scatter blue light the most
among all the coloured components of white light. With increasing altitude, the density of these
particles in the atmosphere decreases. Therefore, at higher altitude very less scattering of sunlight
takes place. Therefore, the passengers sitting in an aeroplane flying at high altitude are not able to
see scattered blue light. They see a white sky instead of a blue sky.
10. a) Object distance (u) = −20 cm
Image distance (v) = 30 cm
Focal length (f) = ?
f = 12 cm
Therefore, the lens used is a convex lens.
b) Magnification, m = −1.5
Therefore, magnification produced is −1.5.
c) The negative sign indicates that the image is inverted while the numeral value of magnification
(i.e., > 1) indicates that the image is enlarged.
11. a) Concave mirrors form enlarged images of an object when kept at an appropriate distance from
the object. Dentists use this property of concave mirrors for observing the enlarged images of teeth.
b) It is a convex mirror.
c) The object must be placed between the pole and the principal focus of a concave mirror to get an
erect image of the object.
12. In the pea plant, purple colour is dominant over white plant.
The cross involving pure breeding pea plants with purple flowers and pure breeding pea plants
white flowers can be schematically explained as follows:
13. a) Natural selection is a process that results in the increased survival and reproductive success of
individuals who are well adjusted to the environment. For example, in a population of red and green
beetles, the red ones are more susceptible to be eaten by crows since they can be easily seen among
green plants. Therefore, there is an increase in the population of green beetles. This results in the
evolution of the beetle population from red to green to fit better in the environment.
b) Geographical isolation results in the formation of new species because the transfer of genes
between two sub-populations is prevented.
14. Sexual reproduction allows the formation of new variants by the combination of DNA from two
different individuals of different sexes. But this may result in doubling the amount of DNA in the
subsequent generations. However, chromosomes undergo reductional division process (called
meiosis) during gametogenesis thus, producing gametes (or reproductive cells) with half the
number of chromosomes. When gametes from two different individuals combine during sexual
reproduction, the newly formed cells maintain the original amount of DNA and this process is
followed in all the subsequent generations.
Male germ cell Female germ cell Zygote (2n, diploid)
Contains n number of
+ Contains n number of Thus, maintaining
chromosomes(haploid) chromosomes (haploid) original number of
chromosomes
Similar offsprings are produced to maintain the general body design. This needs to be done so that
the organism is able to occupy the same habitat, since the organism is best adapted for that habitat.
This is the reason why all fishes live only in water and all humans live only on land.
Thus, we know that variations that are beneficial to the population are passed on to the next
generation.
15. a) Surgical methods for preventing unwanted pregnancy include:

i. Blocking the vas deferens to prevent transfer of sperms. This is known as vasectomy.
ii. Blocking of fallopian tubes to prevent eggs from reaching the uterus. This is known as tubectomy.
b) Different methods of contraception are as follows:

• Use of mechanical barriers such as condoms
• Use of drugs or tablets that contain small doses of hormone which prevent ovulation
• Contraceptive devices such as loops or copper-T to prevent pregnancy
• Surgical methods such as tubectomy and vasectomy that block the passage of gametes
16. a) Atomic number of an element is equal to the number of electrons in a neutral atom. Since the
numbers of protons or electrons are fixed in an element, no two elements can have the same atomic
number and the number of electrons is the basis for chemical properties. Hence, elements can be
easily classified in increasing order of atomic number.
b) Based on the chemical formula of the elements given, the valency and group number of the
elements is:
Element Valency Group number
Mg 2 2
Al 3 3
Si 4 14
The three elements Mg, Al and Si belong to the same period. On moving from left to right across the
periodic table, the atomic size decreases. Hence, the given elements can be arranged in the
increasing order of their atomic sizes as
Si < Al < Mg
17. a) Dobereiner’s traid also existed in the columns of Newland’s Octaves. For example, Li, Na and K
constitute a Dobereiner’s traid. In Newland’s Octaves, considering Li as the first element then the
eight elements from it is Na and considering Na as the first element then the eighth elements from
it is K.
b) Newland’s placed cobalt and nickel in the same slot and these were placed in the same column as
fluorine, chlorine and bromine which have very different properties than these elements.
c) Mendeleev arranged cobalt (Atomic mass 58.9) before nickel (Atomic mass 58.7) in his periodic
table.
18. a) Catenation is the ability of an element to combine with itself through covalent bonds. Carbon
has this unique ability to combine with other atoms of carbon.
b) (i) For an alkane, the molecular formula would be

IUPAC name: Propane
(ii) For an alkene, the molecular formula would be

IUPAC name: Propene
19. The name of the gas which is evolved when a piece of sodium is added to ethanol is hydrogen. This
reaction also results in the formation of another product i.e., sodium ethoxide. The balanced
chemical equation for the given reaction is:
Ethene can be obtained from ethanol by heating it at 443 K in the presence of excess concentrated
sulphuric acid. The balanced chemical equation for the chemical reaction can be written as:
(5-mark)
20. a) DNA is the genetic material found in chromosomes present in the nucleus of a cell. The
reproducing cells produce a copy of their DNA through a replication mechanism. Copying of DNA
is an important process during reproduction as it maintains body design features of a specific
organism. However, inaccurate copying of DNA produces variations, which sometimes enhance the
ability of an individual to survive.
b) The temperature of the earth can vary. If a population of reproducing organisms are adapted to a
particular niche; a drastic change in the temperature can wipe out the population of that species.
For example, if there were a population of bacteria living in temperate waters and if temperature
changes due to global warming, it is expected that most of the bacteria would die. However few
variants who are heat resistant would survive, reproduce and pass the genes to their offsprings.
Thus, variation is useful for the survival of species over time.
c) Tissue culture is a method of propagation of plants in in-vitro conditions by providing an

artificial nutrient media. While vegetative propagation occurs in vivo and new plants propagate
from vegetative parts of the parent plant.
21. a) After fertilization, the ovule develops a tough coat and is gradually converted into a seed.The
ovary after fertilization grows rapidly and ripens to form a fruit.
b) The process of fusion of a sperm and an ovum is called fertilization.

During fertilization, the haploid nucleus of the sperm and ovum fuse to form a zygote. This zygote
divides repeatedly to form an embryo.
The process of fertilization takes place in the fallopian tubes.
21. c) A bisexual flower contains both male and female reproductive organs.
The male reproductive organ of a flower is known as stamen. It consists of:
i. Anther − Anther is a sac like structure that produces and store pollen grains.
ii. Filament − Filament is a thin stalk like structure that supports the anther.
The female reproductive organ of a flower is known as pistil or carpel. It consists of

i. Stigma − Stigma is a sticky surface on which the pollens land and later germinate.
ii. Style − Style is a tube-like structure within which the pollen tube grows.
iii. Ovary − Ovary is the basal portion containing ovules, which becomes seeds after fertilization.
22. a) The defect is called myopia, and it can be corrected by using concave lens.
In this case:
b)Myopic eye
A person suffering from myopia has difficulty seeing distant objects clearly. His near point remains
unaffected.
23. a) The curved shining surface of a spoon acts as a mirror. The inner surface of the spoon acts like a
concave mirror and the image formed by a concave mirror is mostly inverted. The outer surface of a
spoon acts like a convex mirror and the image formed by a convex mirror is always erect. It is for
this reason that Ram observed his image to be erect on the outer side of a spoon and inverted on
the inner side of the spoon.
23 b)
Ray diagram of the concave mirror for the object placed between the centre of curvature and the
focus.
In this case, the image is formed between the focus (F) and the centre of curvature (C). This image is
real, inverted and diminished.
24. a) Oil/fat + sodium/potassium hydroxide soap + glycerol
b) Detergents are sodium salts of long chain benzene sulphonic acid or sodium salts of long chain
alkyl hydrogen sulphate. Detergents do not form scum with hard water. Therefore, detergents are
preferred over soaps.
c) Soap does not work properly when water is hard. This is primarily because hard water contains
salts of calcium and magnesium. When soap is added to hard water, it reacts with these salts to form
an insoluble substance called scum. A lot of soap is wasted in the process. In addition, soaps do not
give lather with hard water. When formed, the scum sticks to the cloth and decreases the cleansing
ability of the soap.
Section B
25. The scale should be in horizontal direction while measuring the distance. Moreover, the focal
length should be calculated when a sharp image is obtained. Hence, the set-up shown in alternative
C is correct.
The correct answer is C.
26. The image of a distant object, i.e., an object at infinity, is obtained at the focus of the convex lens.
Hence, the focal length is calculated from the distance between the screen and lens.
Focal-length (f) = (60 -10)cm=50cm=0.5m
Power of the lens
The correct answer is B.
27. Eyes should be kept far from the slab to have a clear vision of pins A and B.
28. Statement I and V are wrong

The pins should not be hammered and a protractor must be used for measuring the angles for a
better result.
29. The correct order of budding in yeast is II, IV, I and III.
Hence, the correct option is C.
30. The student must have observed a cell with a constriction in the cytoplasm and containing two
nuclei.
Hence, the correct option is D.
31. Thorns of citrus and tendrils of cucurbits represent homologous organs that are an evidence of
divergent evolution.
32. Acetic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to form sodium acetate, water and carbon dioxide gas. The
CO2 gas evolved turns lime water milky. Hence, the substance X is sodium carbonate. The reaction
involved is as follows,
33. Acetic acid is soluble in all proportions in water. Thus, in the all three cases I, II and III,
homogenous solutions will be obtained.
34. Helium gas is lighter than air. Hence, it can be used for filling balloons. It is also non-combustible
as it is a noble gas.
35. Carbon dioxide reacts with limewater to produce calcium carbonate. Calcium carbonate is a white
powder and causes limewater to turn milky. The reaction involved in the process is given.
Thus, the given experiment proves that when the combustion of a hydrocarbon takes place, carbon
dioxide is produced.
The correct answer is D.
36. Sodium carbonate (a salt) reacts with ethanoic acid to form sodium ethanoate (a salt), water, and
carbon dioxide. The reaction for the process is given below.
2CH 3 COOH + Na2 CO 3→2CH 3 COONa + H2O + CO 2
Hence, both Tanuj and Sonika are correct.
When ethanoic acid reacts with ethanol, esters are produced.
Hence, Malvika is incorrect.

37. The student tried to study a reaction to determine the action of a base on metal. When zinc metal is
added to sodium hydroxide solution, hydrogen gas is liberated. When a flame is brought near the
mouth of the test tube, hydrogen gas burns with the pop sound.
Hence, the correct answer is C.
38. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of emergence. So, the alternatives A and D are excluded.
Now, the angle of refraction will always be less than the angle of incidence as, the slab used is
denser than air.
39. A light ray incident on one of the faces of the prism bends toward the base of the prism. A light ray
incident normally on a glass slab will pass through it without any deflection. This is correctly
represented in alternative A.
The correct answer is A.
40. Homologous and analogous organs are evidences that help in the studying the evolutionary
relationships between the organisms.
Hence, the correct option is B.
41. In the given image, the part labelled as X represents micropyle.
Hence, the correct option is B.
42. The ray diagram for an object placed at the centre of curvature of a convex lens can be drawn as
follows.
As the image is obtained on the other side of the lens, it is real.

Hence, the image formed is at the centre of curvature and the nature of image is real and inverted.
SCIENCE (Set-2)
QUESTIONS
SCIENCE (Set-2)
(i) The question paper comprises of two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the
sections.
(ii) All quesstions are compulsory.
(iii) All questions of Section A and all questions of Section B are to be attempted
separately.
(iv) Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be

answered in one word or one sentence.
(v) Quetion numbers 4 to 7 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be

(vi) Question numbers 8 to 19 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be

(vii) Question numbers 20 to 24 in Section A are five-mark questions. These are to be

(viii) Question numbers 25 to 42 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on

practical skills. Each question is a one-mark question. You are to select one most
appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
Section A
1. How many covalent bonds are present in propane? 1
2. Apart from biogas, what other useful product is obtained from a biogas plant? 1
3. Spirogyra, a multicellular organism reproduces by fragmentation. Can all other multicellular

organisms reproduce by fragmentation? 1
4. a) Label parts I and II in the given diagram.
b) How do large dams cause environmental problems? 2
5. What are the disadvantages of using solar cells? 2
6. How does atmospheric refraction explain

i. twinkling of stars?
ii. advanced sunrise and delayed sunset? 2
7. Malarial parasite produces its offsprings by which type of asexual reproduction? Give an example of
another organism reproducing by the same mode. 2
8. Explain how ozone is synthesized in nature and how human intervention is causing its depletion?
3
9. a) What is hypermetropia?
b) Anupam, aged 12, can see far-away objects clearly but cannot see nearby objects clearly. Which
eye defect is Anupam suffering from? How can this defect be corrected? 3
10. a) Study the given diagram and draw the appropriate optical device inside the blank box.
b) Name the two phenomena which are responsible for the formation of rainbow.
c) White light can split into colours ranging from violet to red. Light of which colour has the
greatest speed in glass? 3
11. a) What is the speed of light in a medium whose refractive index is 2.42?
b) Using only a ray diagram, show how a pencil is apparently distorted when it is partly immersed
in water. 3
12. a) Define artificial selection with an example.
b) Who proposed the “Theory of Natural Selection”? Explain this theory briefly.3
13. a) Whom will a girl be closely related to − her brother or her cousin?
b) Name the scientist who suggested the inorganic to organic evolution of life.
c) Environmental factors determine the sex of some animals. How? 3
14. a) How many chromosomes are present in human beings? How many of them are sex
chromosomes?
b) Explain the process of sex determination in human beings with the help of a diagram.
3
15. a) Asexual reproduction results in the formation of a number of offsprings. However, sexual
reproduction is more preferable. Why?
b) What is self pollination? How is it beneficial as a mode of reproduction? 3
16. a) Mendeleev positioned hydrogen in the first column above alkali metals in his periodic table.
However, hydrogen also resembles halogens in many ways.
In what ways does hydrogen resemble halogens?
b) In Mendeleev’s periodic table, Al and Si are present in groups III and IV respectively. Based on
the given information, is it possible to give the chemical formulae of oxides of Al and Si?
3
17. How does the atomic size of elements vary across a period of the periodic table? Why does the
metallic character of an element decrease across a period, but increase down a group?
3
18. a) Why does the carbon atom share its valence electrons to form compounds?
b) With the help of electron dot structure, show the bonding in the ethane molecule?
3
19. a) Out of butane and hexane, which compound will exhibit a higher boiling point?
b) The graph given below shows the variation of boiling points in homologous series of alkenes.
Give possible reasons for the variation of boiling points. 3
20. a) Explain the mode of reproduction by which hydra reproduces. Draw diagram for the same.
b) How is the mode of asexual reproduction in hydra different from Planaria?

5
21. a) Name the hormone responsible for bringing about secondary sexual characteristics in boys.
Where is it produced? Name one more function of that organ.
b) Describe the post fertilisation events taking place in human beings. 5
22. a) Explain with the help of a diagram how concave mirror is used by dentists to form an enlarged
image of patient's teeth.
b) Define principle focus of a concave mirror.
c) A concave mirror of radius of curvature 10 cm is used to focus the rays of sun for a solar cooker.
Where the solar cooker must be placed on the principal axis of the mirror to receive maximum solar
energy. 5
23. a) Where must an object be placed in front of a convex lens for its image to be enlarged and erect?
b) Why is the focal length of a convex lens taken as positive?
c) A screen is placed at the position where the image of the candle is formed. Will there be any
image formed on the screen? Give reason for your answer. 5
24. a) How does ethanol react with sodium metal and concentrated sulphuric acid?
b) What is meant by fermentation? Write the chemical equations involved in the preparation of
ethanol by the fermentation of molasses. 5
Section B
25. Gopal, Lalit and Sunanta performed an experiment to find out the focal length of a convex lens.
Gopal found a blurred and small image of a distant object on the screen. Lalit found a sharp and
clear image. Sunanta found a blurred and larger image. Focal-length obtained by Sunanta, Lalit and
Gopal are f1, f2 and f3 respectively.
Which of the given alternatives shows a correct relationship between f1, f2 and f3?1
A. f3 = f1 < f2
B. f1 < f2 < f3
C. f3 < f2 < f1
D. f2 < f1 = f3
26. Four students have drawn ray diagrams for convex lens which is shown below:
The student who has drawn the correct ray diagram is 1
A. Student (I)
B. Student (II)
C. Student (III)
D. Student (IV)
27. Four students Ajay, Bina, Chandu and Dinesh were performing experiment to trace the path of the
light ray through a glass slab. Which of the following figures shows the best result?
[Given, refractive index of glass = 1.52] 1
A. B. C. D.
28. Ram is performing an experiment based on tracing of light through a slab of some material. He has
taken the angle of incidence as 60° and found out the angle of refraction as 30°. What is the
refractive index of the material taken by him? 1
A. 1.414
B. 1.923
C. 1.241
D. 1.732
29. During binary fission, 1
A. karyokinesis occurs, which is followed by cytokinesis.

B. cytokinesis occurs, which is followed by karyokinesis.
C. only the nucleus divides without the division of cytoplasm.
D. division of nucleus and cytoplasm occurs at the same time.
30. Which of the following organisms is most likely to undergo multiple fission? 1
A. Plasmodium
B. Aspergillus
C. Agaricus
D. Hydra
31. The angle of minimum deviation (Dm) of a prism is the minimum extent to which a ray of light can
bend from the original path when incident on the prism. It depends on the material (μ) of the
prism glass. A graph is drawn between ln(Dm) and ln(μ − 1). A straight line is obtained.
What is the slope of the straight line? 1
A. 1
B. 12
C. −1
D.−12
32. A ray of light is incident on an equilateral prism at an angle of 60°. The angle of incidence is equal
to the angle of emergence. The refractive index of the glass prism is 1.5.
The angle of deviation of the ray is 1
A. 30°
B. 50°
C. 60°
D. 70°
33. The power of a convex lens is 5D. At what distance should the screen be placed to obtain a clear
image of a distant object? 1
A. 5 cm
B. 10 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 25 cm
34. A school laboratory has a large window. To find the focal length of a convex mirror, using the walls
of the laboratory room as the screen, the mirror should be kept 1
A. near the wall opposite to the window

B. near the window and far from the opposite wall
C. near the wall adjacent to the window
D. anywhere on a table placed between the window and the opposite wall
35. Which of the given images does not represent homologous organs? 1
A. B.
C. D.
36. A small tail in a newly born human baby is an example of 1
A. atavism
B. vestigial organ
C. convergent evolution
D. divergent evolution
37. The stalk-like structure that joins a seed with the placenta is known as a 1
A. micropyle
B. hypocotyl
C. funicle
D. Hilum
38. While performing an experiment, a student noticed that when compound X is added to a small
amount of ethanoic acid, a colourless and odourless gas is evolved. This gas turns lime water milky
and forms compound Y.
Which of the following options correctly lists compounds X and Y? 1
A. X: NaOH, Y: CaCO 3
B. X: NaOH, Y: Ca(OH)2
C. X: Na2 CO 3, Y: CaCO 3
D. X: Na2 CO 3, Y: Ca(OH)2
39. A student carried out a saponification reaction in a laboratory. Which of the following observations
recorded by the student are correct? 1
A. Exothermic reaction; basic in nature

B. Exothermic reaction; acidic in nature
C. Endothermic reaction; basic in nature
D. Endothermic reaction; acidic in nature
40. Which of the following substances is added to a soap to impart hardness? 1
A. Sodium chloride
B. Sodium sulphate
C. Sodium carbonate
D. Sodium hydroxide
41. A student performs an experiment to make a soap. Which of the following solvents should be used
to dissolve oil before adding sodium hydroxide? 1
A. Ethanol
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Hydrogen chloride
D. Carbon tetrachloride
42. A student took a beaker and poured 50 ml of distilled water in it. Then, he added few drops of
hydrochloric acid and soap to it. He used this solution to wash a dirty cloth piece, but it did not
clean the cloth. Which of the following reasons correctly explain the action of soap in acidic water?
1
A. Soap does not form lather in hard water.
B. Cloth is damaged by acid present in solution.
C. Acid combines with hydrophobic part of the soap.
D. Acid combines with hydrophilic part of the soap.
SCIENCE (Set-2)
SOLUTIONS
SCIENCE (Set-2) SOLUTIONS
Answers:
(1-mark)
Section A
1. There are 10 covalent bonds in propane. The molecular structure of propane is given below.
2. Apart from biogas, the waste products of a biogas plant are also used as manure.
3. No, all multicellular organisms cannot reproduce by fragmentation because of the increasing
complexity of the organs in them. They are not able to re-grow their entire body when fragmented.
(2-mark)
4. a) I- Catchment area; II- Khadin bund
b) Large dams cause environmental problems as large scale deforestation is done to construct these
dams. This results in the loss of biological diversity in that region.
5. i) Availability of special-grade silicon, which is used for making solar cells, is limited.
ii) The manufacturing process is expensive, thus, limiting the domestic use of solar cells.
6. i) Stars are considered to be point sources of light as they are far away from the earth. The light
coming from stars, on entering the atmosphere, gets bent because of refraction. Since the
atmospheric physical conditions are continually changing, the apparent position of the star also
keeps fluctuating. The amount of light entering the eye also varies because different amount of
light bends at every instant. This is what gives the stars a twinkling appearance.
ii) Sun can be seen about two minutes before actual sunrise and for two minutes after actual sunset
because of refraction of sunlight through the atmosphere. When the sun is just below the horizon,
sunlight enters the earth's atmosphere obliquely and gets refracted through the different layers of
the atmosphere. As a result, sunlight gets bent and reaches the eyes of an observer. Following the
path of the light rays entering the eyes, the observer sees the sun slightly above its actual position.
Hence, sun can be seen about two minutes before the actual sunrise.
7. Fission is the mode of asexual reproduction where a single cell gets divided into two or more cells.
Malarial parasite reproduces by means of multiple fission. During multiple-fission, a single cell gets
divided into many daughter cells.
Another organism dividing by fission is Amoeba. Amoeba can divide both by binary fission in any
plane as well as through multiple-fission.
(3-mark)
8. The formation of ozone layer takes place in stratosphere. Ozone layer is continuously formed
because of the action of ultraviolet (UV) rays on molecular oxygen.
An oxygen molecule is broken down into two nascent oxygen atoms by the action of UV radiations.
Then, this free oxygen atom combines with an oxygen molecule to form ozone.
Human activities such as the use of chlorofluorocarbons (as refrigerants and in fire extinguishers)
lead to the production of chlorine by the action of ultraviolet rays in stratosphere. These chlorine
atoms destroy the ozone molecule resulting in the depletion of ozone layer and the formation of
ozone holes. The reaction of chlorine atom with ozone molecule occurs in the following manner:
9. a) Hypermetropia is a defect of vision that is caused when the eyeball becomes slightly flattened or
the eye lens becomes thinner than usual. As a result, the eye lens focuses the image behind the
retina and not on the retina, as shown in the following figure.
A person suffering from hypermetropia can see distinct objects clearly, but faces problems in
viewing nearby objects.
b) Anupam is suffering from hypermetropia.
To correct this defect of vision, convex lens of appropriate power are used. These lens converge the
light rays coming from nearby objects on to the retina to form a clear image, as shown in the
following figure.
10. a) The optical device in the blank box must be inverted prism.
b) The phenomena that are responsible for the formation of rainbow are as follows:
i) Total internal reflection
ii) Dispersion
c) Light of violet colour has the greatest speed in glass.
11. a)
Therefore, the speed of light in a media whose refractive index is 2.42 is 1.23 × 108 m/s
11 b)
12. a) Artificial selection can be defined as the interventions of human beings in the breeding of plants
and animals in order to preserve selected variations. For example, farmers developed many varieties
such as cabbage, broccoli, kohlrabi, cauliflower, kale, and brussel sprouts. These varieties were
artificially selected because of some traits such as large bud size, short petioles, large flower stalks,
etc.
b) Charles Darwin proposed the theory of natural selection. Natural selection is the increased
survival and reproductive success of individuals who are well adapted to live in an environment.
For example, the natural selection that occurred in beetles. The crows ate more red beetles as
compared to green beetles. Because of natural selection, the beetle population evolved from red to
green to fit better in their environment. These factors led to an increase in the population of green
beetles.
13. a) The girl will be closely related to her brother since both of them have a recent common ancestor
i.e., their parents.
b) The inorganic to organic evolution of life was suggested by J.B.S. Haldane.
c) Sex in some animals such as crocodiles and lizards are determined by environmental factors such
as temperature. For example, when the eggs are incubated at low temperature, they turn into males
and when the eggs are incubated at high temperature, they turn into females.
14. a) 46 chromosomes are present in human beings. Out of these 46 chromosomes, sex chromosomes
are two in number.
14. b) Human females have two X chromosomes (XX) and human males have one X and one Y
chromosome (XY). Therefore, the eggs produced by females have only X chromosomes while the
sperms produced by males can have either X or Y chromosome. If an unfertilised egg fuses with a
sperm containing X chromosome, then it gives rise to a girl child having two X chromosomes. If an
unfertilised egg fuses with a sperm containing Y chromosome, then it gives rise to a male child
having one X and one Y chromosome.
15. a) Sexual reproduction is preferred because it offers the opportunity to produce recombinant
offsprings that has the ability to cope up with the changes in the environment. Organisms with
limited variations are produced through asexual reproduction which makes the organism’s survival
difficult in varied environmental conditions and situations.
b) Self pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the same flower.
Advantage of self pollination is that it results in plants having same characteristics as possessed by
parents. Self pollination results in true breeding of pure varieties.
16. a) Mendeleev placed hydrogen above alkali metals as they have similar properties. For example,
hydrogen reacts with halogens, oxygen and sulphur to form compounds whose formulae are similar
to those of alkali metals.
16. b) Mendeleev used physical as well as chemical properties to classify elements. The chemical
properties used by Mendeleev for classifying elements were based on the formulae of the
compounds (hydrides and oxides) that were formed on reaction of all the elements with hydrogen
and oxygen.
Aluminium (Al) is present in group III of Mendeleev’s periodic table. The general formula of oxides
in this group is R2O3. Therefore, the formula of oxide of aluminium is Al2O3. Similarly, the formula
of oxide of silicon is SiO2.
17. The atomic size of elements decreases on moving from left to right in the periodic table.
The effective nuclear charge acting on the valence electrons increases on moving from left to right
across a period. This decreases the tendency of an atom to lose electrons. Hence, the metallic
character decreases.
On the other hand, down a group, the distance between the nucleus and the valence shell electrons
increases. The effective nuclear charge acting on valence electrons decreases, which results in the
increase of the tendency to lose electrons. Hence, the metallic character increases.
18. a) The atomic number of carbon is six, its electronic configuration is 2, 4. Carbon atom has four
electrons in its valence shell and needs four more electrons to complete its octet.
4+
In order to attain noble gas configuration, carbon can either lose four electrons to form C or gain
4−
four electrons to form C . This is, however, not possible as a lot of energy is required for doing the
same. Therefore, carbon atoms complete their octet by sharing their valence electrons with
electrons of other atoms.
b) Bonding in ethane molecule:
19. a) Hexane exhibits a higher boiling point as it has higher molecular mass.
b)The three isomers of pentane are:
(5-mark)
20. a) Hydra reproduces by budding. Budding is a mode of asexual reproduction in which a bud
develops as an outgrowth from the body of an organism due to cell division. When this bud develops
and matures fully, it detaches from the parent’s body and develops as an independent individual.
b)
21. a) Testosterone is a hormone responsible for bringing about secondary sexual characteristics in
boys. It is produced in the testes. Testes also produce sperms which are the male sex gametes.
b) Fertilisation is the process of the union of an egg and sperm. When a sperm comes in contact
with the egg, it fuses with the egg and results in the formation of a zygote. The events occurring
after fertilisation are as follows:
The zygote divides repeatedly to form a mass of cells known as the embryo. The cells of the embryo
start dividing into groups, which leads to the formation of future tissues and organs of the baby.
The embryo attaches itself to the wall of the uterus. It completes the rest of its stages of
development attached to the uterus.
When all the body parts of an embryo can be recognised, it is known as a foetus. When the foetus is
fully developed, the mother gives birth to the baby.
22. a)
To obtain an enlarged image of patients’ teeth, a concave mirror must be held very close to the
teeth, such that the teeth are placed between the principal focus and the optical centre of the
mirror. The image, thus formed, will be magnified, erect and virtual.
b) The principal focus of a concave mirror is the point on the principal axis on which light rays
parallel to the principal axis meet after reflection.
c) To receive maximum solar energy, the cooker must be placed at the focal distance of the mirror.
Here,
Object distance, u = −∞
Image distance, v = f
Focal length, f = R/2, where R = radius of curvature
From mirror formula,
or, v = 5 m
The cooker must be placed at 5 m from the optical centre of the mirror.
23. a) The object must be placed between the focus and the optical centre of a convex lens to get an
erect and enlarged image of the object.
23. b) According to the sign convention, all distances are measured from the centre of a lens. All
distances towards the direction of incident rays are taken as positive. A convex lens converges the
incident light rays, coming parallel to its principal axis, to the focus that lies on the other side of the
lens. Therefore, the distance of the focus is measured along the direction of incident rays. Hence,
the focal length of a convex lens is taken as positive.
c)
No image will be formed on the screen. The image is virtual. Hence, it cannot be obtained on a
screen.
24. (a) Ethanol reacts with sodium to produce hydrogen gas. Sodium ethoxide is also obtained in the
reaction.
When ethanol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid, it loses one water molecule and gives
ethene as product.
In this reaction, concentrated sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent and removes water
molecules from ethanol.
(b) The slow decomposition of organic matter into simpler substances in the presence of an enzyme
is known as fermentation.
Section B
25. If the image is blurred, the mirror is not at the focal length of the lens.
If the size is large, it means the measured distance is less than its focal-length. On the other hand,
if a smaller blurred image is formed, the measured distance is larger than its focal length.
Hence the correct relationship between the focal lengths are f1 < f2 < f3
26. The correct position of image with respect to object position is given below.
27. Ideally, the angle of emergence should be equal to angle of incidence.

Considering human errors, the best setup here is shown in alternative B.
28. Here, angle of incidence, i = 60° and, angle of refraction, r = 30°

Using Snell’s law, the refractive index,
29. During binary fission, the nucleus divides before the division of cytoplasm.
Hence, the correct option is A.
30. Plasmodium can reproduce by multiple fission.

31. The refractive index of the glass of a prism is related to the angle of minimum deviation as:
Taking the log on both sides, we get
The general equation of a straight line is written as:
(Here m is the slope of the line)

On comparing equations (1) and (2), it can be observed that the slope of the line is +1.
32. Angle of equilateral prism, A = 60°

Refractive index, µ = 1.5
It is given that,
Angle of incidence (i) = Angle of emergence (e) = 60°
Total deviation of the ray is given as:
Hence, the ray will deviate at an angle of 60°.

33. A convex mirror forms highly diminished point-sized, real and inverted image of a distant object at
the principal focus. Hence the screen should also be placed at the focus of the lens.
Now, power of a lens and its focal length are related by the following expression.
Where, f is the focal length of the lens.
34. A convex mirror always forms a virtual image of an object. Therefore, the image cannot be projected
on a screen. Hence, to perform the said experiment, the convex mirror should be kept anywhere on
a table placed between the window and the opposite wall.
35. Homologus organs have similar origin and structure and perform similar functions. For example,
tendrils of Pisum and spines of Opuntia, thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita, wings in
birds and forearm in humans.
But wings of birds and insects are examples of analogous organs.
Hence, the correct option is D.
36. A small tail in a newly born human baby is an example of atavism.
37. The stalk-like structure that joins a seed with the placenta is known as a funicle.
38. When sodium carbonate is added to a small amount of ethanoic acid, brisk effervescence is
observed due to the evolution of a colourless and odourless gas Co2.
When CO 2 is passed through a solution of lime water, the solution turns milky due to the formation
of calcium carbonate.
Thus, compound X is Na2 CO 3 and Y is CaCO 3.

39. Saponification reaction is a highly exothermic reaction. The reaction mixture turns red litmus
paper blue as it is basic in nature.
40. Fillers like sodium carbonate, sodium silicate or starch are added to soaps to impart hardness.
41. Ethanol (C2H5OH) should be used to dissolve oil before adding sodium hydroxide to make a soap.
42. Acid combines with the hydrophobic part of a soap and renders it ineffective in cleaning a dirty
cloth piece.
MATHEMATICS (Set-1)
QUESTIONS
MATHEMATICS (Set-1)
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions divided into four sections A, B, C
and D.
(iii) Section A contains 8 questions of 1 mark each, which are multiple choice type
questions, Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10
questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 10 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) Use of calculators is not permitted.
Section A
Question numbers 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each. For each of these questions four alternative
choices have been provided, of which only one is correct. Select the correct choice.
1. Which of the following sequences is an A.P.?
A. −2, −1, 1, 2 …
B. 2, 4, 8, 16 …
C. 3, 9, 15, 21 …
D.
2. In the given figure, if PQ + RS = 12 cm, then what is the perimeter of quadrilateral PQRS?
A. 16 cm
B. 18 cm
C. 24 cm
D. 26 cm
3. In the given figure, BC = 15 cm, while the perimeter of ΔABC is 42 cm.
What is the length of AP?
A. 6 cm
B. 6.5 cm
C. 7 cm
D. 7.5 cm
4. Rohan is standing in the balcony of his house. He notices a girl playing outside his house at a
horizontal distance of 15 m from him. The girl’s angle of depression from Rohan’s eyes is 30°.What
is the height of the balcony from the ground?
A. B. C. D.
5. There are fifteen books on Sam’s book shelf. Out of these, seven books are on physics, five books are
on chemistry, and the remaining books are on mathematics. Sam wants to pick a book at random
from the book shelf. What is the probability that the book picked by Sam would either be on
chemistry or on mathematics?
A. B. C. D.
6. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers
appearing on the top of the dice is less than 6?
A. B. C. D.
7. If the coordinates of the end-point of the diameter of a circle with centre (−1, 2) are (5, 9), then
what are the coordinates of the other end-point of the diameter?
A. (−7, −5)
B. (−3, −3.5)
C. (2, 5.5)
D. (6, 7)
3
8. Three cubical blocks, each of volume 125 cm , are joined end to end to form a cuboid. What is the
total surface area of the cuboid so formed?
2
A. 350 cm
2
B. 375 cm
C. 425 cm2
D. 450 cm2
Section B
Question numbers 9 to 14 carry 2 marks each.
2
9. Solve the quadratic equation 15x + 7x − 36 = 0 for x.
10. How many three-digit numbers are divisible by 6?
11. In the given figure, PT and PQ are tangents to the circle with centre O at the points T and Q
respectively. If OP = 20 cm and OT = 12 cm, then find the length of PQ.
12. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the product of numbers on the
face of the dice is a multiple of 4?
13. Four quadrants with the vertex of square ABCD as centre are shown in the given figure.
If the side of square ABCD measures 8 cm, then find the area of the shaded region in the given
figure.
14. A point P is 17 cm from the centre of the circle. The length of the tangent drawn from P to the circle
is 15 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
Section C
15. For what value of k will the quadratic equation, 2x2 + kx + 3 = 0, have equal roots?
16. What is the first term of the A.P. whose common difference is 6 and the sum of whose first 33 terms
is 3564?
17. Construct an equilateral triangle of sides 6.8 cm and then a triangle similar to it whose sides are
of the corresponding sides of the equilateral triangle.
18. Aman and Suman are standing on a road facing the east and west sides of a building at a distance of
x1 and x2 respectively. The building is 30 m long. The angles of elevation made by Aman and Suman
to the top of the building are 45° and 30° respectively. What are the respective values of x1 and x2?
19. Find the area of a triangle whose vertices are (2, 1), (4, 5), and (6, −2).
20. In what ratio does the y-axis divide the line joining the points (−4, 5) and (8, 3). Also, find the point
of intersection.
21. In the given figure, ABCD is a square of side 4 cm. AXC and AYC are the arcs of the circle made by
taking the side of the square as radius.
What is the area of the shaded region?
22. The given figure shows the shape of a toy. The height of the conical part is th of the total height
of the toy.
If r is the radius of the hemispherical part, then what is the total surface area of the toy?
23. In a laboratory, a 3.542 L solution is prepared and given to each student in a class for the practical
exam in a fully-filled test tube, as shown in the figure. How many students can get the solution for
the practical exam?
24. In the given figure, AD is the diameter of a circle. The length of AD is 42 cm. Three semi-circles of
equal radius are drawn inside this circle taking AB, BC, and CD respectively as diameters.
Find the area of the shaded region.
Section D
25. Prove that the tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
th th
26. If the sum of the 8 and the 17 term of an A.P. is 36, then what is the sum of the first 24 terms of
the A.P.?
27. Find the value (s) of a in the equation,
28. From the top of a 10 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is 60° and the
angle of depression of its foot is 45°. Find the height of the tower.
29. From a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards, an ace of spade, a king of heart, a king and a queen of
diamond are removed. Find the probability that the card will be:
A. A red card
B. A black face card
C. Not a red king
D. Not a black queen
30. If (a, −1), (0, −4), (4, 0) and (2, b) are the vertices of a parallelogram, then what are the values of a
and b?
31. The difference between the square of a positive number and the square of one more than twice the
positive number is 176. Find the second number.
32. In the given figure, XY is a tangent of the circle at point B. AB is the diameter of the circle.
What is the measure of ∠DBE?
33. A frustum has a height 8 cm. The diameter of the lower base of the frustum is 6 times the radius of
its upper base. It is also 10 cm more than the height of the frustum. What is the total surface area of
the frustum?
34. Water is flowing out of a cylindrical tank of base radius 30 cm and through a cylindrical pipe, whose
internal diameter is 2 cm, at the rate of 0.2 m/s. Find the decrease in the water level of the tank in 15
minutes.
MATHEMATICS (Set-1)
SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (Set-1) SOLUTIONS
Answers:
(1-mark)
Section A
1. An arithmetic progression is a sequence of numbers in which the difference between any two
successive terms is constant.
In the sequence 3, 9, 15, 21…
9−3=6
15 − 9 = 6
21 − 15 = 6
Since the difference between the successive terms of this sequence is constant, it is an A.P.
The correct option is C.
2. In the given figure, PA and PD are tangents drawn from an external point to the circle.
∴PA = PD
Similarly, AQ = BQ, CS = DS, and CR = BR
Perimeter of quadrilateral PQRS = PQ + QR+ RS + PS
= (PQ + RS) + (QR + PS)
= (PQ + RS) + [(BQ + BR) + (PD + DS)]
= (PQ + RS) + (AQ + CR + PA + CS)
= (PQ + RS) + (PQ + RS)
= 2 (PQ + RS)
= 2 × 12 cm
= 24 cm
Thus, the perimeter of quadrilateral PQRS is 24 cm.

3. Let the length of AP be x. We know that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a
circle are equal.
∴AP = AR = x
BP = BQ
CQ = CR
Perimeter of ΔABC = 42 cm
⇒AB + BC + AC = 42 cm
⇒ (AP + BP) + 15 cm + (AR + CR) = 42 cm
⇒ (x + BQ) + 15 cm + (x + CQ) = 42 cm
⇒ 2x + 15 cm + (BQ + CQ) = 42 cm
⇒ 2x + 15 cm + BC = 42 cm
⇒ 2x + 15 cm + 15 cm = 42 cm
⇒ 2x = 12 cm
⇒ x = 6 cm
∴ AP = 6 cm
Thus, the length of AP is 6 cm.
The correct option is A.
4. The given information can be diagrammatically represented as
Let A be Rohan’s position and C be the girl’s position.

Let BC be the horizontal distance between the girl and Rohan’s house.
∴ BC = 15 m
Now, ∠CAX = ∠ACB (Pair of alternate interior angles)
In right ΔABC,
Thus, the height of the balcony from the ground is .

5. One book is picked at random from a collection of 15 books. Therefore, there are 15 equally likely
outcomes.
Number of physics books on the bookshelf = 7
Number of chemistry books on the bookshelf = 5
Hence, number of mathematics books on the bookshelf = 15 − (7 + 5) = 3
Total number of chemistry and mathematics books on the bookshelf = 5 + 3 = 8
Thus, the number of favourable outcomes is 8.
Hence, the probability that the book picked by Sam is either on chemistry or on mathematics is
6. The possible outcomes of two dice being thrown simultaneously can be listed in a table as
Here, the ordered pairs in which the sum of the two numbers is less than 6 are shaded.
Therefore, total number of possible outcomes = 36
Number of favourable outcomes = 10
Thus, the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top of the dice is less than
6 is,
The correct option is D.
7. Let the coordinates of the other end of the diameter be (a, b).
It is known that the centre of a circle is the midpoint of any diameter of the circle.
Therefore, (−1, 2) is the midpoint of the line joining the points A(a, b) and B(5, 9).
7. Thus, the coordinates of the other end-point of the diameter are (−7, −5).
8. Side of each cubical block = = 5 cm
It can be seen that the cuboid so formed is of dimensions 15 cm × 5 cm × 5 cm

∴ Total surface area of cuboid = 2(lb + bh + lh)
= 2(15 × 5 + 5 × 5 + 15 × 5) cm2
= 2 (75 + 25 + 75) = 350 cm2
Thus, the total surface area of the cuboid is 350 cm2.
Section B
(2 mark)
2
9. It is known that the solution of a quadratic equation ax + bx + c = 0 is given by
The given quadratic equation is 15x2 + 7x − 36 = 0.

2
On comparing this equation with the general form of quadratic equation i.e., ax + bx + c = 0, we
obtain a = 15, b = 7, and c = −36.
2
Hence, the solution of the quadratic equation 15x + 7x − 36 = 0 is given by
Thus, the roots of the given quadratic equation are
10. The three-digit numbers divisible by 6 are 102, 108, 114,…996
It can be seen that these numbers form an A.P. as
108 − 102 = 114 − 108 = … = 6
Here, first term, a = 102
Common difference, d = 108 − 102 = 6
Last term, l = 996
Let there are n terms in this A.P.
We know that, l = a + (n − 1)d
⇒ 996 = 102 + (n − 1) 6
⇒ 996 − 102 = (n − 1)6
⇒
⇒ n = 149 + 1
∴ n = 150
Thus, there are 150 three-digit numbers that are divisible by 6.
11. It is known that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
∴ PT = PQ
Also, it is known that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the
point of contact.
∴∠PTO = 90°
Applying Pythagoras theorem in ΔPTO:
PT2 + OT2 = Po2
⇒ PT2 + (12 cm)2 = (20 cm)2
⇒ PT2 = 400 cm2 − 144 cm2
⇒ PT2 = 256 cm2
⇒ PT = 16 cm
Thus, PQ = PT = 16 cm.
12. When two dice are thrown simultaneously, the possible outcomes can be listed as
It is observed that total number of possible outcomes = 36

Number of outcomes in which product of numbers on face of dice is a multiple of 4 = 15
Thus, required probability =
13. Side of square ABCD = 8 cm
Area of ABCD = (Side)2 = 8 cm × 8 cm = 64 cm2
Radius of each quadrant =
Area of sector = , where r is the radius of the circle and θ is the angle of the sector.
It is known that quadrant is a sector of angle 90°.
Area of each quadrant =

⇒ Area of four quadrants = 4 × 4π cm2 = 16 π cm2
Area of shaded region = Area of ABCD − Area of the four quadrants
2
= (64 − 16 π) cm
2
= 16(4 − π) cm
2
Therefore, the area of the shaded region is 16(4 − π) cm .
14.
We know that the tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
∴∠PQO = 90°
In right ΔPOQ,
2 2 2
OP = OQ + Pq
2 2 2
⇒ (17 cm) = OQ + (15 cm)
2 2 2
⇒ OQ = (289 − 225) cm = 64 cm
⇒ OQ = 8 cm
Thus, the radius of the circle is 8 cm.
Section C
(3 marks)
2
15. The quadratic equation ax + bx + c = 0 will have equal roots if
2
b − 4ac = 0
2
The quadratic equation 2x + kx + 3 = 0 will have equal roots if,
2
(k) − 4 × 2 × 3 = 0
2
k = 24
Thus, for , the given quadratic equation will have equal roots.
16. We know that the sum of the first n terms of an A.P. is given by,
, where a is the first term and d is the common difference.

It is given that the common difference of the A.P. (d) = 6
Sum of the first 33 terms of the A.P. (S33) = 3564
Thus, the first term of the A.P. is 12.
17. The steps of construction are as follows:
(i) Draw a line segment AB = 6.8 cm. Taking points A and B as centre, draw arcs of radii 6.8 cm to
intersect at C. Join A to B and A to C. ΔABC is the required equilateral triangle of side 6.8 cm.
(ii) Draw a ray AX making an acute angle with line AB on the opposite side of vertex C.
(iii) Locate 3 points A1, A2, A3 (as 3 is greater between 2 and 3) on line AX such that
AA 1 = A1A2 = A2A3
(iv) Join BA3 and draw a line through A2 parallel to BA 3 to intersect AB at point B'.
(v) Draw a line through B' parallel to line BC to intersect AC at C'.
ΔAB'C' is the required triangle.
Let AD be the building and B and C be the respective positions of Aman and Suman.
∴ BD = x1 and CD = x2
In ΔABD,
In ΔADC,
Thus, the respective values of x1 and x2 are 30 and 51.9.
19. It is known that area of a triangle with vertices (x1, y1), (x2, y2), and (x3, y3) is given by:
Thus, the area of the given triangle is 11 square units.
20. Let the y-axis divide the line segment joining A (−4, 5) and B (8, 3) in the ratio 1: λ.
Therefore, by section formula, the point of intersection is given by
The x-coordinate of any point on the y-axis is 0.
Thus, y-axis divides AB in the ratio 1:2.
∴ Point of intersection =
Thus, the point of intersection of y-axis with the line joining the points (−4, 5) and (8, 3) is
21. In the given figure, it can be seen that,

Area of shaded region = Area of quadrant AXCB + Area of quadrant AYCD − Area of square
ABCD
Area of quadrant AXCB = Area of quadrant AYCD
∴ Area of shaded region = 2 (Area of quadrant AXCB) − Area of square ABCD
2 2
Area of square ABCD = (4 cm) = 16 cm
Area of quadrant AXCB
∴Area of shaded region = = (8π − 16) cm2 = 8 (π − 2) cm2
2
Thus, the area of the shaded region is 8 (π − 2) cm .
22. Let the total height of the toy be 7h.

∴ Height of the conical part = 4h
Height of the hemispherical part = 3h
The height of the hemisphere is equal to its radius.
∴ r = 3h … (1)
Slant height (l) of the conical part =
Total surface area of toy = CSA of conical part + CSA of hemispherical part
2
= πrl + 2πr
2
= π(3h) (5h) + 2π (3h)
= 15πh2 + 18πh2
= 33πh2
= [from (1)]
Thus, the total surface area of the toy is .
23.
Capacity of test tube = Capacity of cylindrical part + Capacity of hemispherical part
Volume of solution = 3.452 L = 3542 cm3
∴ Number of students
Thus, 147 students get the solution for the practical exam.
24. It is given that the length of AD is 42 cm.

∴AB = BC = CD =
Area of shaded region = Area of semicircle with diameter AD + Area of semicircle with diameter
AB and CD − Area of semicircle with diameter BC.
2
Thus, the area of the shaded region is 770 cm .
Section D
(4mark)
25.
Let O be the centre of the circle.

Let AB be the tangent to the circle at point P. We have to prove that OP⊥ AB.
Let Q be any point on AB, other than P. Join OQ and let it meet the circle at the point R.
We know that among all the line segments joining the point O to a point on AB, the shortest one is
perpendicular to AB.
Therefore, to prove OP ⊥ AB, it is sufficient to prove that OP is shorter than any other segment
joining O to any point of AB.
Now, OP = OR (As they are the radii of the same circle)
Now, OQ = OR + RQ
⇒ OQ > OR
⇒ OQ > OP [ OP = OR]
⇒ OP < OQ
Thus, OP is shorter than any other segment joining O to any point of AB.
Hence, OP ⊥ AB.
26. Let a be the first term and d be the common difference of the given A.P.
It is given that 8th term + 17th term = 36
It is known that the nth term, an, of an A.P. with first term a and common difference d is given by,
an = a + (n − 1) d
We know that
a8 + a17 = 36
Therefore, sum of the first 24 terms of the given A.P.
27.
Thus, the values of a are or −5.
28.
Let AB be the building of height 10 m and CD be the tower. Let the height of the tower be h and the
distance between the building and the tower be x.
In ΔABD,
∴ x = 10 m
In ΔAEC, we obtain
⇒ h = 10 × (1.732 + 1) m = 10 × 2.732 m = 27.32 m

Thus, the height of the tower is 27.32 m.
29. When 4 cards (an ace of spade, a king of heart, a king and a queen of diamond) are removed from a
well-shuffled pack of 52 cards, there will be 52 − 4 = 48 cards left.
Out of these, heart and diamond are red cards while spade and club are black cards.
(a) Let A be the event “the card drawn is a red card”.
There were a total of 26 red cards in the beginning. However, since a king of heart, a king and a
queen of diamond were already removed, the number of red cards remaining is 23.
∴P (A) =
(b) Let B be the event “the card drawn is a black face card”.
There were a total of 6 black face cards in the beginning. Since an ace of spade which is not a face
card was removed, we have 6 black face cards.

∴P (B)
(c) Let C be the event “the card drawn is not a red king”.
There were 2 red kings, one of heart and one of diamond, in the beginning. Since a king of heart, a
king and a queen of diamond were removed, we are left with 0 red kings. Hence, the total number of
cards that are not red kings is 48.
∴P (C) = =1
(d) Let D be the event “the card drawn is not a black queen”.
There were 2 black queens, one of spade and one of club.
Hence, total number of cards that are not black queen = 48 − 2 = 46
∴ P(D) =
30. It is known that diagonals bisect each other in a parallelogram.

∴ Mid-point of A(a, −1) and C(4, 0) = Mid-point of B(0, −4) and D(2, b)
Thus, the values of a and b are −2 and 3 respectively.
31. Let the first number be x. Then, the second number is 2x + 1.

∴ (2x + 1)2 − (x)2 = 176
⇒ 4x2 + 1 + 4x − x2 = 176
⇒ 3x2 + 4x − 175 = 0
2
⇒ 3x + 25x − 21x − 175 = 0
⇒ x(3x + 25) − 7(3x + 25) = 0
⇒ (x − 7) (3x + 25) = 0
⇒ (x − 7) = 0 or (3x + 25) = 0
Since the numbers are positive, x = 7
∴ Second number = 2x + 1 = 2 (7) + 1 = 15
32. It can be seen in the given figure that

∠AEB = ∠ADB = 90° (Angle in a semi-circle is 90°)
In ΔAEB,
∠EBA = 180° − (∠AEB + ∠EAB)
∠EBA = 180°− (90° + 50°)
∠EBA = 40°
Similarly, ∠DBC = 45°
We know that a tangent is perpendicular to the diameter through the point of contact.
∴∠ABC = 90°
⇒ ∠DBA = ∠ABC − ∠DBC = 90° − 45° = 45°
∠DBE = ∠DBA + ∠AEB = 45° + 40° = 85°
Thus, the measure of ∠DBE is 85°.
33. Height (h) of the frustum = 8 cm

Diameter of the lower base = 10 cm more than the height = (10 + 8) cm = 18 cm
Thus, radius (r2) of the lower base of the frustum,
Let the radius of the upper base of the circle be r1 cm.

It is also given that the diameter of the lower base is six times the radius of the upper base.
∴ 6r1 = 18 cm
⇒ r1 = 3 cm
Thus, radius (r1) of the upper base of the frustum = 3 cm
Slant height (l) of the frustum,
Thus, curved surface area of the frustum,
Area of the upper base,
Area of the lower base,
Thus, total surface area of the frustum = C.S.A. of the given frustum + Area of the upper base
+ Area of the lower base
= (120π + 81π + 9π) cm2 = 210π cm2
Hence, the total surface area of the given frustum is 660 cm2.
34. Diameter of circular end of the pipe = 2 cm

∴ Radius of circular end of the pipe (r1) = 1 cm = 0.01 m
Area of the cross section of the pipe = m2
Speed of water = 0.2 m/s = = 12 m/min
Volume of water that flows out of the pipe in 1 minute =
Volume of water that flows out of the pipe in 15 minutes =

Radius of the base of cylindrical tank (r2) = 30cm = 0.3 m
Let the decrease in the water level be h m.
Volume of the water flowed out of the tank is equal to the volume of the water flowed through the
pipe in 15 minutes.
Therefore, the decrease in water level is 0.2 m.
MATHEMATICS (Set-2)
QUESTIONS
MATHEMATICS (Set-2)
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper consists of 34 questions divided into four sections A, B, C
and D.
(iii) Section A contains 8 questions of 1 mark each, which are multiple choice type
questions, Section B contains 6 questions of 2 marks each, Section C contains 10
questions of 3 marks each and Section D contains 10 questions of 4 marks each.
(iv) Use of calculators is not permitted.
Section A
Question numbers 1 to 8 carry 1 mark each. For each of these questions four alternative
choices have been provided, of which only one is correct. Select the correct choice.
1. Under which condition will the quadratic equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 always have real and distinct
roots?
A. b and c are positive numbers

B. a and b bear opposite signs
C. a and c bear opposite signs
D. a and c bear the same sign
2. If PA = 16 cm, then what is the perimeter of ΔPQR?
A. 24 cm
B. 32 cm
C. 40 cm
D. 48 cm
3. If ∠OAB = 35°, then what is the measure of ∠APB?
A. 35°
B. 50°
C. 55°
D. 70°
4. Vicky is observing a bird sitting at the top of a pole of height 7.8 m. The angle of elevation made by
his eyes while observing the bird is 45°. Find the horizontal distance of the pole from Vicky?
A. 7.8 m
B. 8.8 m
C.
D.
5. First 200 natural numbers are written on separate but identical cards such that no number is
repeated. These cards are put in a bag and shuffled. Next, a card is drawn at random from the bag.
What is the probability that the number written on the drawn card is a multiple of 2, 3, and 5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
6. If three coins are tossed simultaneously, then what is the probability of getting exactly two tails?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7. What are the coordinates of the point of intersection of the line segment joining the points (5, 6)
and (−9, 2) and its perpendicular bisector?
A. (2, 4)
B. (4, 4)
C. (2, −2)
D. (−2, 4)
8. The wheels of a train are of diameter 70 cm each. Each wheel makes 5 revolutions per second. How
long will the train take to cover a distance of 11 km?
A. 1100 s
B. 1000 s
C. 550 s
D. 500 s
Section B
9. Find the roots of the quadratic equation 10x2 + 19x + 7 = 0.
10. Find the 15th term of the arithmetic progression .
11. In the given figure, a circle is inscribed in ΔXYZ.
Find the perimeter of ΔXYZ.
12. The given figure shows a circle inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD.
If AB = 7 cm, BC = 5 cm, and AD = 9 cm, then what is the length of CD?
13. In a manufacturing company, out of 200 articles produced, 12 are defective. What is the probability
that a buyer will get a non-defective article?
14. A circle completely inscribed in a square, of area 25 cm2, touches the square at A, B, C and D.
What will be circumference of the circle?
Section C
15. If the equation 3x2 − 8x + 5 = 0 can be written in the form (x − a)2 − b2 = 0, then find the values
of a and b.
16. Is there any term 36 in the A.P. 141, 134, 127, …? If so, then which term is it?
17. A circle of diameter 5.9 cm is drawn. A point is taken 8 cm away from its centre. Draw a pair of
tangents to the circle from this point and measure their lengths.
18. The point (a, b) is equidistant from the points (−2, 6) and (−3, −4). Find a relation between a and b.
19. From the top of a 10 m high building, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower is θ and the angle
of depression of its foot is 45°. Find the angle θ, if the height of the tower is 17 m more than the
height of the building. (Take )
20. For what value of k, the points (−6, 2), (k, −2), and (3, −7) are collinear?
2
21. Find the cost of painting the shaded portion of the given figure at the rate of Rs 0.20 per m if the
dimensions of the rectangular portion are 80 cm × 60 cm. [Use π= 3.14]
22. Sectors of two circles whose radii are 3 cm and 5 cm respectively have equal central angles. Find the
ratio of the areas of the two sectors.
23. From a cone of radius 40 cm, a cone of radius 16 cm and height 12 cm is cut from the top so that the
circular bases of these cones are parallel. Find the volume of the frustum of cone so obtained.
24. Water is being supplied to a hemispherical tank, of radius 60 cm, by a cylindrical pipe at the rate of
0.4 m/s. In how much time will the tank be completely filled if the internal diameter of the pipe
is 2 cm?
Section D

25. Prove that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
26. For the given figure below find the value of angle x.
27. The sum of the first 14 terms of an AP. is 280, while the sum of its first 20 terms is 520. What is the
th
35 term of the A.P.?
28. Solve
29. A ship is moving away from a 100 m high lighthouse. An observer at the top of the lighthouse notes
that he makes angles of depression of 45º and 30º to the ship during its journey. Find the distance
between the two observation points of the ship.
30. There are 10 cards, which are exactly same. On each card, a number is written out of the numbers 9,
10, 11, 14, 16, 19, 23, 28, 30, and 31.
These cards are mixed thoroughly in a bag and a card is drawn at random from this bag without
looking at the number written on it. Find the probability that the number written on the card is:
A. A perfect square
B. A prime number
C. An even number
D. A number which is not a multiple of 3 or 5
31. The midpoint of the line segment joining the points (−4a + 4, 5) and (b, b − 1) is (−2, b). Find the
values of a and b.
2
32. A cylindrical metallic rod of cross-sectional area 25π cm and length 144 cm is melted to form 100
identical solid spheres. In this process, no metal is wasted. What is the radius of each solid sphere?
33. A tent is of the shape shown in the given figure. The area of the floor under the tent is 64π
2
m.
If 1 square metre of canvas costs Rs 5, then what is the cost of the canvas required for making the
tent?
34. If the area of the given figure is 96 cm2, then what is the value of x?
MATHEMATICS (Set-2)
SOLUTIONS
MATHEMATICS (Set-2) SOLUTIONS
Answers:
(1-mark)
Section A
1. If the discriminant of a quadratic equation is greater than zero, then its roots are real and distinct.
2 2
Quadratic equation ax + bx + c = 0 will have real and distinct roots if discriminant = b − 4ac > 0.
Consider the condition: ‘a and c bear opposite signs’
It is clear that if a and c bear opposite signs, then ac < 0.
∴−4ac > 0
Also, we know that b2 > 0 for any value of b.
∴b2 − 4ac > 0
2
Thus, if a and c bear opposite signs, then the quadratic equation ax + bx + c = 0 will always have real
and distinct roots.
2. We know that the lengths of tangents drawn from an exterior point to a circle are equal.
∴PA = PB … (1)
QA = QC … (2)
RB = RC … (3)
Now, perimeter of ΔPQR = PQ + QR + PR
= PQ + (QC + CR) + PR
= (PQ + QC) + (CR + PR)
= (PQ + AQ) + (BR + PR) [from (2) and (3)]
= AP + PB
= AP + AP [from (1)]
= 2AP
= 2 × 16 cm
= 32 cm
Thus, the perimeter of ΔPQR is 32 cm.
3. The tangent at any point in a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
∴∠OAP = 90°
⇒ ∠OAB + ∠PAB = 90°
⇒ 35° + ∠PAB = 90°
⇒ ∠PAB = 55°
The lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
∴ PA = PB
⇒ ∠PAB = ∠PBA (Angles opposite to equal sides are equal)
⇒ ∠PBA = 55°
In ΔAPB, ∠PAB + ∠PBA + ∠APB = 180°
⇒ 55° + 55° + ∠APB = 180°
⇒ ∠APB = 180° − 110° = 70°
Thus, the measure of ∠APB is 70°.
Let AB be the the pole and C be Vicky’s position.

∴ AB = 7.8 m
In right ΔABC,
Thus, the horizontal distance between the pole and Vicky is 7.8 m.
5. Since a card is drawn at random from 200 cards, there are 200 equally likely outcomes.
L.C.M. of 2, 3, 5 = 2 × 3 × 5 = 30
The number which is a multiple of 2, 3, and 5 is a multiple of 30.
It can be clearly observed that there are 6 multiples of 30 that are less than 200. They are 30, 60, 90,
120, 150, and 180.
Number of favourable outcomes = 6
Thus, the probability that the number written on the drawn card is a multiple of 2, 3, and 5 is.
6. When three coins are tossed simultaneously, there are eight possible outcomes.
They are:
{(H, T, T), (H, T, H), (H, H, T), (H, H ,H)
(T, T, T), (T, H, H), (T, H, T), (T, T, H)}
Out of these, the outcomes for getting exactly two tails are
(H, T, T), (T, H, T), and (T, T, H)
Hence, the number of favourable outcomes is 3.
Hence, the probability of getting exactly two tails is38.
The correct option is B.
7. The perpendicular bisector of a line segment cuts the line segment into two equal parts i.e., the
point of intersection is the midpoint of the line segment.
On using the midpoint formula, we obtain the coordinates of the mid-point as
Thus, the coordinates of the required point of intersection are (−2, 4).
8. It is given that the diameter of each wheel is 70 cm.

Therefore, radius (r) of the wheel is,
Circumference of each wheel = 2πr
It is given that each wheel makes 5 revolutions per second.

Hence, distance covered in 1 second = 220 × 5 cm = 1100 cm = 11 m
Therefore, time taken to cover a distance of 11 km or 11000 m is,
The correct option is B.
Section B
(2 mark)
9.
10. We know that the nth term of an A.P. is given by, Tn = a + (n − 1) d, where a is the first term and d is
the common difference.
The given A.P. is,
Thus, the 15th term of the given A.P. is 3.
∴ YA = YB = 2 cm, ZB = ZC = 3 cm, XA = XC = 4 cm
∴ Perimeter of ΔXYZ = XY + YZ + ZX
= XA + AY + YB + BZ + ZC + CX
= (4 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 3 + 4) cm
= 18 cm
Thus, the perimeter of ΔXYZ is 18 cm.
AB + CD = (AL + LB) + (DN + NC)

= (AO + BM) + (DO + CM) [Using (1)]
= (AO + OD) + (BM + CM)
= AD + BC
∴ AB + CD = AD + BC
⇒ 7 cm + CD = 9 cm + 5 cm [AB = 7 cm, BC = 5 cm, and AD = 9 cm]
⇒ CD = 7 cm
Thus, the length of CD is 7 cm.
13. Total number of articles produced = 200

Number of defective articles = 12
∴ Number of non-defective articles = 200 − 12 = 188
∴ Probability of getting a non-defective article =
14. Area of the square = 25 cm2
Section C
(3 mark)
15.
16. Let 36 be the nth term of the A.P. 141, 134, 127, …
Here, first term (a) = 141, common difference (d) = 134 − 141 = −7
th
The n term (tn) of an A.P. is given by tn = a + (n − 1)d
∴36 = 141 + (n −1)( −7)
⇒ 36 − 141 = − 7n + 7
⇒ −105 = −7n + 7
⇒ 7n = 7 + 105
⇒ 7n = 112
Thus, 36 is the 16th term of the given A.P.
17. The steps of construction are as follows:
1. Draw a line segment AB of length 5.9 cm.
2. Draw its perpendicular bisector intersecting AB at O. With O as centre and radius equal to OA or
OB, draw a circle.
3. Take O′ at a distance of 8 cm from O.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisector of OO′ intersecting it at M.
5. Draw a circle with M as centre and MO as radius such that it intersects the circle drawn earlier at
P and Q.
6. Join O′P and O′Q.
Thus, O′P and O′Q are the required tangents.
18. It is given that the point A (a, b) is equidistant from the points P (−2, 6) and Q (−3, −4).
∴ PA = QA
We know that the distance between the points A (x1, y1) and B (x2, y2) is given by,
19.
Let AB denote the building and CD denote the tower. It is given that the height of the building
is 10 m.
∴ AB = 10 m
It is also given that the angle of depression from the top of the building to the foot of the tower
is 45°.
∴∠DAE = ∠ADB = 45° (As the alternate interior angles are equal)
In ΔABD,
Now it is given that the height of the tower is 17 m more than the height of the building.
In ΔAEC,
We know that tan 60°=

∴ θ = 60°.
20. The given points (−6, 2), (k, −2), and (3, −7) are collinear.
Therefore, the area of the triangle formed by these points is 0.
The area of the triangle formed by the vertices (x1, y1), (x2, y2), and (x3, y3) is given by
12[x1(y2 −y3) + x2 (y3 −y1) + x3 (y1 − y2)].
and, 12[−6{−2 − (−7)} + k(−7 − 2) + 3{2 − (−2)}] = 0
⇒ −6(− 2 + 7) + k (−9) + 3(2 + 2) = 0
⇒ −6 × 5 + k × (−9) + 3 × 4 = 0
⇒ −30 − 9k + 12 = 0
⇒ −18 − 9k = 0
⇒ 9k = −18
⇒ k =-189= −2
Therefore, the value of k is −2.
21. Let ABCD be the rectangle such that BC = 80 cm, AB = 60 cm

Let us join AC.
Since ABCD is a rectangle, ∠B = 90°

Now, AC 2= AB 2+ BC 2= (60 cm)2+ (80 cm)2[Pythagoras Theorem]
⇒ AC 2= (3600 + 6400) cm2= 10000 cm2= (100 cm)2
⇒ AC = 100 cm
We know that the diameter of a circumcircle of a rectangle is its diagonal.
Therefore, radius of the circle
Now,
Area of the shaded portion = Area of circle − Area of rectangle
= [3.14 ×50 ×50 − 80 ×60] cm2= 3050 cm2
Therefore, cost of painting the shaded portion = 3050 × Rs 0.20 = Rs 610
22.
Let θ be the central angle of the sectors.

We know that the area of sector of a circle of radius r and of central angle θ is given by,
22.
23. The given information can be represented with the help of a figure as
It is given that the bases of the cones are parallel to each other.
In ΔADE and ΔABC,
∠ADE = ∠ABC (Corresponding angles)
∠AED = ∠ACB (Corresponding angles)
∴ΔADE ∼ ΔABC (By AA similarity criterion)
23.
24. Diameter of circular end of the pipe = 2 cm

∴ Radius of circular end of the pipe (r1) = 1 cm = 0.01 m
Area of the cross section of the pipe =
Radius of the hemispherical tank (r2) = 60cm = 0.6 m
Volume of the tank =
Speed of water = 0.4 m/s = = 24 m/min
Volume of water that flows out of the pipe in 1 minute =
Time taken to fill the tank = minutes = 60 minutes
Therefore, the tank will be full in 60 minutes.
Section D
(4mark)
25.
Let PA and PB are two tangents drawn from a point P, lying outside the circle. Join OA, OB, and OP.
We have to prove that PA = PB.
In ΔOPA and ΔOPB,
∠OAP = ∠OBP (Each equal to 90°)
(Since we know that a tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the
point of contact, OA ⊥ PA and OB ⊥ PB).
OA = OB (Radii of the circle)
OP = PO (Common side)
Therefore, by RHS congruence criterion,
ΔOPA ≅ ΔOPB
∴ By CPCT,
PA = PB
Thus, the lengths of the two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
26. In the given figure, ∠ABC is the angle in a semi-circle.

∴∠ABC = 90°
⇒ ∠ACB = 180° − (90° + 70°) = 20°
We know that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of
contact.
∴∠ACY = 90°
∠BCY = ∠ACY − ∠ACB
⇒ x = 90° − 20° = 70°
Thus, the value of x is 70°.
27. Let the first term and common difference of the AP. be a and d respectively.
It is given that S14 = 280 and S20 = 520
⇒ d = 2
Substituting d = 2 in equation (I), we get:
2a + 13 × 2 = 40
⇒ a = 7
Thus, the 35th term of the AP. is 75.
28. The given quadratic equation can be solved as:
29. In the figure, AB represents the lighthouse and points C and D represent the two positions
of the ship.
In ΔABC:
30. In the given experiment, 10 outcomes are possible.
(a) Let B be the event that the number written on the card drawn is a perfect square.
The outcomes favourable to the event B are 9 and 16 i.e., the number of outcomes
favourable to B is 2.
(b) Let C be the event that the number written on the card drawn is a prime number. The outcomes
favourable to the event C are 11, 19, 23, and 31 i.e., the number of outcomes favourable to C is 4.
(c) Let D be the event that the number written on the card drawn is an even number. The outcomes
favourable to the event D are 10, 14, 16, 28, 30 i.e., the number of outcomes favourable to D is 5.
30. (d) Let E be the event that the number written on the card drawn is not a multiple of 3 or 5.
Out of the given numbers, 9, 10, 30 are the numbers that are either the multiple of 3 or 5 or both.
The outcomes favourable to the event E are 11, 14, 16, 19, 23, 28, and 31 i.e., the number of
outcomes favourable to E is 7.
31. We know that the coordinates of the midpoints of the line segment joining the points (x1, y1) and
(x2, y2) is given by.
∴ The coordinates of the midpoint of the line segment joining the points (−4a + 4, 5) and (b, b − 1)
are:
32. Cross-sectional area of the metallic rod = 25π cm2
Length of the rod = 144 cm
The metallic rod is cylindrical in shape.
∴Volume of the metallic rod = Cross-sectional area × Length
3 3
= 25π × 144 cm = 3600 π cm
Let the radius of each sphere be r cm.
The rod is melted to form 100 solid spheres.
∴Volume of the rod = Volume of 100 solid spheres
2.
33. The area of the floor under the tent is 64π m
2
∴ πr = 64π
⇒ r = 8 m
Slant height (l) of the conical part
Height (h1) of the cylindrical part = (18 − 6) m = 12 m

Total surface area of tent = πrl + 2 πrh1= πr [l + 2h1]
34. The given figure can be marked as:
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SCIENCE & MATHS

Science (Set-1) Questions Page 4-12

Science (Set-2) Questions Page 26-34

Mathematics (Set-1) Questions Page 51-56

Mathematics (Set-2) Questions Page 78-83

(ii) All quesstions are compulsory.

(iv) Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section A are one-mark questions. These are to be

(v) Quetion numbers 4 to 7 in Section A are two-mark questions. These are to be

(vi) Question numbers 8 to 19 in Section A are three-mark questions. These are to be

(vii) Question numbers 20 to 24 in Section A are ﬁve-mark questions. These are to be

(viii) Question numbers 25 to 42 in Section B are multiple choice questions based on

2. Is it possible to utilize domestic organic wastes as fertilisers? 1

7. Describe the process of embryo formation in egg laying animals. 2

8. a) Design an aquatic food chain up to tertiary consumer level.

9. a) Brieﬂy explain the optics involved in rainbow formation.

a) Which type of lens is used here?

b) What is the magniﬁcation produced by it?

c) From the magniﬁcation, what can be concluded about the image? 3

15. a) How can an unwanted pregnancy be prevented surgically?

18. a) Deﬁne catenation.

20. a) How is copying of DNA signiﬁcant in reproduction?

21. a) What happens to the ovule and ovary after fertilization?

24. a) Give the word equation for saponiﬁcation reaction.

26. Use the following information to answer the next question.

What is the power of the lens being used? 1

28. Use the following information to answer the next question.

A. A cell without any nuclei

31. Thorns of citrus and tendrils of cucurbits represent 1

Acetic acid Water

In which of the following alternatives she will obtain homogenous solution? 1

Which of the following gases was detected by the student? 1

39. Use the following information to answer the next question.

Identify the part labelled as X in the given image. 1

6. According to Snell’s law, constant = µ21

If 1 is the rarer medium and 2 the denser, then v1 > v2

This phenomenon can be diagrammatically represented as

Therefore, magniﬁcation produced is −1.5.

Male germ cell Female germ cell Zygote (2n, diploid)

15. a) Surgical methods for preventing unwanted pregnancy include:

b) Different methods of contraception are as follows:

Element Valency Group number

b) (i) For an alkane, the molecular formula would be

(ii) For an alkene, the molecular formula would be

Thus, variation is useful for the survival of species over time.

c) Tissue culture is a method of propagation of plants in in-vitro conditions by providing an

b) The process of fusion of a sperm and an ovum is called fertilization.

The process of fertilization takes place in the fallopian tubes.

The female reproductive organ of a ﬂower is known as pistil or carpel. It consists of

24. a) Oil/fat + sodium/potassium hydroxide soap + glycerol

Power of the lens

The correct answer is B.

The correct answer is B.

28. Statement I and V are wrong

The correct answer is C.

Hence, the correct option is C.

Hence, the correct option is D.

Hence, the correct option is C.