1.

The applicability or CASR part 43 does not apply to any

A. aircraft having an Indonesian airworthiness certificate
b. foreign registered civil aircraft used under the provision of part 121, or 135
c. aircraft for which an experimental airworthiness certificates has been issued

2.scope and detail of items (as applicable to the particular aircraft) to be include 160 hours
Inspection is prescribe in the CASR part of:
A Part 121 and 135
B. Part 43 Appendixes B
c. Part 43 Appendixes D

3. In accordance with CASR Part 43 appendix A, the servicing of landing gear shock struts
by adding oil, air or both is a:
A Preventive maintenance
B. Minor repair
c. Major repair

4.Ref to CASR part 23, Limited to airplanes that have a seating configuration, excluding pilot
seats, of nine or less pax, a maximum certificated take-off weight of 12,500 pounds or less,
and intended for non-acrobatic operation is for:
A. The commuter category
B. The normal category
C. The acrobatic category

5. Deferred defects are recorded in

A. The deferred defect manual
B. The maintenance log
C. The technical manual log
6. Large Aircraft Maintenance Schedules are produced by
a. Operator
b. CAA Safety Regulation Group
c. Manufacturer with CAA approval

7. In accordance with CASR Part 135 and 121. Service Difficulties Report (SDR) should be
subosum to DGCA within:
A. 72 hours
B. 96 hours
C. 30 hours

8. In accordance with CASR part 43 appendix E, Altimeter system test an inspection may be
performed by:
A. Manufacturer
B. Approved Maintenance Organization
C. All are correct

9.Aircraft Engineering/Maintenance Economics is field that addresses the economic

calculations and principles from the standpoint of aircraft maintenance. It is a fundamental
skill that all successful Airline/AMO employ in order to retain competitive advantage and
market share by efficiently m aintaining aircraft to be continuously airworthy and safe for
operation, thus with lower cost Among others, aircraft maintenance can be conducted
efficiently by the following:
A. For maintenance work where the load is economically sufficient and relatively constant,
build in-house maintenance capability
B. For maintenance work where the load is not economically sufficient, outsource the
maintenance works
C. All are correct

10 The need for parts for one year is 25.000 units, holding is one pove of yon yet wise cost of
placing an order is Rp. 30.000. The price of part per unit is Rp 155896. Colete economical
amount of purchase (FO) every time a purchase of parts will be made
A 817
B. 316
c. 919
11. An airplane flying 300 miles used 24 gallons of gasoline. How many gallons will in th
900 miles?
A 56 gallons
B. 12 gallons
C. 8 gallons

12. Find the piston displacement of one cylinder in a multi-cylinder aircraft engine. The
engine has a cylinder bore of 6 inches and a stroke of 4.8 inches
A. 45.23 inch
B. 28.8 inch3
C. 135.65 inch?

13. The velocity of the speed of light is over 186,000 miles per second (mps). Convert in
scientific
A. 186 x 104 mps
B. 18.6 x 103 mps
C. 1.86 x 105 mps

14. The static pressure of a fluid, liquid, or gas, at points where the velocity of the fluid
increases, provided no energy is added to nor taken away from the fluid.
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain constant

15. The state pressure of a fluid, liquid, or gas, decreases al points liquid or gas, decreases al
points where the velocity of the fluid provided no energy is added to not taken away from the
fluid increases
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Decreases
16. Sound travels
A Slower
B. Slowest
C. Fastest

17. Select the correct distance mark requirements in the drawing below? Drawing dimensions
A Drawing dimensions B
A. Drawing dimensions A and B correct
B. Drawing dimensions B correct
C. Drawing dimensions A correct
18. An view uses a combination of views of an orthographic projection and tilts the objec
forward so that portions of all three views can be seen in one view.
A. Wiring diagrams indicated
B. Isometric projection
C. Oblique projection

19. ___is a simple chemical treatment for all aluminium resistance and to improve their paint
bonding qualities!
a. Oxidizing
b. Anodizing
c. Alodizing

20.Exposure of the alloy surface to a conductive, corrosive medium causes the one that will
become
A Neutral
B. Cathodic
C. Anodie

21. Laminar flow occurs at

A. Medium Reynolds Number
B. Low Reynolds Number
c. High Reynolds Number
22. The rate of Sounds in Exosphere Area are so slowly because
A. The particle of air is so rarely
B. The air density is very low and much decrease
C. It will be remain the same with other Area
where an angular or twisting motion is used to transmit motion in opposite

23. A control system where an angular or twisting motion is used to transmit motion in
opposite
directions need a
A. Push rods
B. Torque tubes
C. Cable drum

24.Lubrication of wheel bearings is usually by

A Packed grease
B. Drip feed
c. oil spray

25. A standard filing operation requires a forward stroke with pressure on

A. As you move your fingers to the sides of the file
B. While you keep your legs together
c. And the pressure off on the return stroke

26. Whenever possible when using a spanner it is always safer to operate it by

A. Pulling
B. Pushing
c. Twisting

27. Two of the major types of rivets used in aircraft are

A. The special (blind) rivets, driven using a bucking bar and solid shank type, may be
installed where it is impossible to use a bucking bar
B. The solid shank type and special (blind) rivets, the both must be driven using a bucking
bar
C. The solid shank type, driven using a bucking bar and the special (blind) rivets, may
be installed where it is impossible to use a bucking bar

28. The 5056 rivet is used for _ because of its corrosion-resistant qualities.
A. Riveting mild steel alloy structures
B. Riveting aluminum alloy structures
C. Riveting magnesium alloy structures

29. The length of countersunk solid rive is measured

A Between of the threaded portion to the head
B. From lower of rivet head to the end of shank
c. From upper of rivet head to the end of shank

30. What is the symbol bellow

A PNP Transistor
B. P.Channel JFET
c. N Channel JFET

31. A Light Emitting Diode (LED) is a semiconductor device that gives out light when
forward based and a small current flows around it about:
A. 10 - 30 ma
B. 30 - 50 ma
c. 20 - 30 ma
32. Rectifier diode may be uAn amplifier produces an out put greater than input, if change of
collector current ( Ic) 4 ma, and change of base current A lb = 20 u Amp. The gain current in
common emitter is
A. 150
B. 400
C. 200

33. Steel containing carbon in percentages ranging from 0.10 to 0.30 percent is classed as
A Low Carbon Steel
B High Carbon Steel
c. Medium Carbon Steel

34. What method is used to identify the nickel (Ni) content of the alloy
A Tensile test
B. Electrochemical test
C. Compression test

35. The various types of aluminum may be divided into two general classes
A. Casting alloys and Wrought alloys
B. Mold alloys and Wrought alloys
C. Commercial alloys and Casting alloys

36. The inclinometer indicated slip, if the ball is

A. In the opposite direction to the direction of turn
B. In the same direction to the direction of tum
C. In the center position during a rate of turn

37. In the mechanical tachometer indicator, the force converted into indication is
A. A centrifugal force
B. A rotational force
C. A centripetal force

38. As observed from the cockpit the horizon bar of gyro horizon when climbing and tum to
the leftis A Titled to the left and rise
B. Titled to the right and rises
C. Titled to the right and descent
39. The state-of-health of a battery is the percentage of its capacity ble when ally charge
tatove to its rated capacity. If a battery rated 30AH, when fully charged only capable of
disting 24 h and what is the value of the state-of-health
A 72%
B. 80%
C. 125%

40. II the generator produces 2-6V DC, the first step to turn the engine on and set to idle then
do 1. The shorting on terminals A and B a few seconds. 2. Flashing generator field by jumper
from batt bus to terminal A in a few minutes 3. If the voltage rises excessively then the VR is
replaced. (0 )
A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C.1 and 3

41. tems the installation and circuit requirements for anti-collision lights located far a spar
and former, added as requires to stiffen the structure near the light. 1. Soch installations
should be located fara spar and former, added 2. any Hashes and short duration flashes on and
off between 40 and 100 cycles I min. It have high intensity flashes and short duration flashes
on an 3. It must illuminate a specifie field of coverage. 4. The glasses must be kept free from
oil and grease 3. It use the shielded cable to connect the flashtube to the strobe power supply.
A 3, 4 and 5
B 2, 3, 4 and 5
c. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

42. The resistance of all bonding and grounding connections should be tested after
connections are made before re-finishing. How much maximum resistance each connection
will allow?
A. 0.005 ohm
B. 0.00 ohm
c. 2.00 ohm

43. The solder can be used to conductor join of

A. Only copper-based metals
B. Some dissimilar metals.
C. Similar metals only

44. Typical HIRF penetration of general airborne equipment is generally dealt by the
manufacturer
A. Manufacturing all 'black boxes' with a Faraday cage fitted as part of their case structure
B. Ensuring that all instruments have at least a minimum of 0.05 ohms resistance in
C. their internal circuits Fitting interference suppressors in avionic circuits, and by
enclosing equipment in shielded compartments.

45. after calculating fault occurrences, for example a 3 month period know as:
A. Malfunction Level ML)
B. Mean Average (MA)
C. Standard Deviation (SD)

46. Newton's third law of motion states A force

A. Unbalance of force on a body tends to produce an acceleration in the force
B. Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
C. A body in a state of rest tends to remain at rest, and a body in motion seeds to c. continue
to move at constant speed in straight line brayton cycle is caused by
47. Increasing the energy kinetic of airflow inside the combustion chamber a the combustion
event A. Increasing heat due to compressing of the airflow
B. Expansion in volume due to increasing heat of the airflow
C. Increasing the mass of airflow

48. When the aircraft is flying at supersonic speed, throat area in the variable geometric inlet
duet will
A. Decrease to increase airflow velocity
B. Decrease and the airflow velocity still remain
C. Decrease to reduce airflow velocity
49. In the axial compressor, to increasing air pressure between the adjacent of rotor and stator
blades are mounted so that they are form
A. Divergent and convergent
B. Convergent
C. Divergent

50. One major problem with double-entry compressors is

A The tip speed will become too high, and efficiency will decco volume of air is needed
B. The difficulty in designing effective inlet ducts to supply air
C. The pressure losses experienced by the air flowing through the

51. The most of total airflow from the diffuser into the combustion section that is user
A Combustion
B. Cooling
C. Support combustion

52. The turbine blades are manufactured by the impulse type at the roots and the reaction type
at the ups due to
A. Higher kinetic energy of air flow received by tips than roots
B. Higher kinetic energy of air flow received by roots than tips
C. Same kinetic energy of air flow received by roots and tips C.

53. Wrapping around core engine exhaust by cold air as the insulating blanket of exhaust jet
gas is method of reducing engine noise level on
A. Free turbine turboprop engine
B. High bypass turbofan engine
C. Afterburner turbojet engine

54. The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor forward fan engine is the same as the
A. Low-pressure compressor
B. Forward turbine wheel
C. High-pressure compressor

55. The centrifugal-flow compressor's advantages are

A. Simplicity of manufacture and low cost
B. Straight through flow, allowing high ram efficiency
C. High pressure rise per stage

56. For the efficiently, the combustion chamber must:

A. Burn this mixture efficiently
B. Deliver the hot gases to the exhaust section
C. Provide the means for proper mixing of the air and gases to assure good C.

57. EXCEPT: Bleed air is utilized in a wide variety of ways. Some of the current applications
of bleed air are:
A. Cabin pressurization, heating, and cooling
B. Auxiliary power units (APU)
C. Pneumatic starting of engines

58. The amount of air passing through the engine is depend upon the various factor, except:
A. The compressor speed (RPM)
B. The viscosity of the ambient (surrounding) air
C. The forward speed of the aircraft

59. Pressure at station 2 is 14.7 psia and pressure at station 7 is 30.9 psia, so the EPR is
A. 45.6
B. 16.2
C. 2.10

60. Air inlet Basic constructional arrangement of turbojet are 2. Fan Section 3. Compressor
section 4. Combustion section 5. Turbine section 6. Exhaust section
A 1,2,4,5,6
B. 1,3,4,5,6
c. 1,2,3,5,6

61. The lubricant oil of gas turbine engine must have high viscosity index. I's means the on
A. Must not evaporate at the low air pressures of high altitude.
B. Must not change its viscosity appreciably with changes in its temperature.
C. Must be pourable at low temperatures

62. There are two basic functions of pumps in a lubrication system of gas turbine engine,
these are
A. Pressure and scavenge oil pumps
B. Upper line and lower line oil pumps
C. Main and alternate oil pumps

63. Due to the high temperature of the gas stream at the turbine inlet, internal air cooling is
provided from the ___ to the nozzle guide vanes and sometimes, the turbine blades.
A. Ambient
B. Engine compressor
C. Special compressor uni

64. The purpose of any starter system is to accelerates as

A. The self-sustaining speed is reached
b. The idle speed is reached
C. The fuel/air mixture light up in the combustion chamber

65. At the power augmentation system, the purpose of water injection into the one is
A. As the additional fuel
B. For reduce turbine inlet temperature
c. For reduce air density
66. One of the engine fire detection unit is continuous loop detectors. The principle of this
detector is
A. Produces a voltage because of the temperature difference between the two junctions as the
detection
B. If the temperature rises the bimetallic switch mechanically closes to indicate a fine or
overheat condition
c. Sensitive eutectic salt to be conductor during overheat condition and conduct the
nickel wire center conductor and inconel tube

67. To indicate the engine pressure ratio at the high by pass turbofan engine by compare
A. The turbine outlet and fan outlet pressure (mixed) with compressor inlet pressure
B. The turbine outlet pressure with compressor outlet pressure
C. The turbine outlet pressure with compressor inlet pressure

68. The routine visual inspection of first stage turbine can be carried out by
A. X-ray inspection
B. Disassembly of the engine
C. Borescope

69. What type of oil system is usually found on turbine engines

A Dry sump, dip, and splash
B Wet sump. spray, and splash
C. Dry sump, pressure, and spray

70. Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy?

A. Because the applied voltage is much greater
b. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high temperatures
c. To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low temperatures

71. For what primary purpose is a turbine engine fuel control unit trimmed?
a. To obtain maximum thrust output when desired
B. To properly position the power levers
C. To adjust the idle RPM stream,

72. The type of thrust reverser that accomplished by placing a removable obstruction in the
exhaust gas, usually somewhat to the rear of the nozzle are
A. Aerodynamic-blockage
B. Mechanical-blockage
C. Both are correct

73. Scavenge filter is incorporated in a gas turbine lubrication system to

A. Protect the pressure pump
B. Protect the oil cooler
C. Protect the scavenge pump

74. Which of the following turbine fucilers has the weatest bienne type?
A Wafer screen filter
B Micron filter
C. Plain sereen mesh filter

75. Turbine powerplants can be divided into primary zones that are isolated from each other
by feel bulkheads and seals. The zones are 1. The fan case compartment 2. The intermediate
compressor case compartment 3. The core engine compartment 4. The combustion chamber
compartment
A. 1,3,4
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,2,3

76. An aircraft's propeller system beta range

A. Is used to produce zero or negative thrust
B. Refers to the most fuel efficient pitch range to use at a given engine RPM
C. Is used to achieve maximum thrust during takeoff

77. The centrifugal twisting force acting on a propeller blade is

A. Greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the blade to a lower
angle
B. Greater than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the blade to a higher angle
C. Less than the aerodynamic twisting force and tends to move the blade to a lower angle

78. Geometrie pitch of a propeller is defined as the

A. Angele between the blade chord and the plane of rotation
B. Effective pitch minus slippage
C. Effective pitch plus slippage.

79.Propeller blade angle is the angle between the

A. Chord of the blade and the rotational plane of the propeller
B Chord of the blade and the relative wind
C.Relative wind and the rotational plane of the propeller

80. What operational force causes propeller blade tips to lay in the opposite direction of
rotation?
A. Torque-bending force
B. Aerodynamic-twisting force
c. Thrust-bending force

81. What operational force tends to bend the propeller blades forward at the tip?
A. Centrifugal-twisting force
B. Thrust-bending force
C. Torque-bending force

82. Counterweights on constant-speed propellers are generally used to aid in

A. Decreasing blade angle
B. Unfeathering the propellers
C. Increasing blade angle
83. The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to
A. Eliminate the drag created by a windmilling propeller when an engine fails in flight
B. Prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in flight
C. Prevent further engine damage when an engine fails in flight

84. Propeller that used to test and break in reciprocating engines is

A Ground-Adjustable Propeller
B. Wooden Fixed-Pitch Propeller
c. Test Club Propeller

85. The pitch, or blade angle, can be changed only when the propeller is not wanting by kmi
clamping mechanism that holds the blades in place. That's the characteristic of
A Ground-Adjustable Propeller
B. Constant-Speed Propellers
C. Controllable-Pitch Propeller

86. Engine durability for piston engine is normally measured:

A. In cycles between required overhauls
B. In cycles between required inspection
C. In hours between required overhauls

87. Time Between Overhaul (TBO) is determined by:

A. Engine manufacturer
B. National Aviation Authority for every country
C. Federal Aviation Administration and endorsed by every aircraft operator

88. The TBO can be drastically shortened in the conditions below:

A. Operating in a training environment with a large percentage of the time at a high-
power setting
B. Frequently using approved alternate grade of fuel
C. Using ground power unit when starting
89. If an aircraft is not frequently flying for long periods, the TBO is probably:
A. Shortened
B. Can be extended
C. No be affected

90 The procedure for engine operation for maintenance purpose can be found in
A. Pilot Operating Handbook and Maintenance Manual
B. Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) and Maintenance Manual
C. Pilot Operating Handbook

91. When an induction system fire firstly does occurs, the general procedure to extinguish the
fire:
A. Keep cranking the engine while extinguishing the fire with CO2 firex
B. Keep cranking the engine to try to get it started so the fire will be sucked to the
engine and put it out
C. Stop the engine, shut of the fuel valve and wait till the fire goes out naturally

92. To check the performance output of alternator or generator when performing the engine
ground run check, the instrument to be monitored are:
A. AC and DC output indicator
B. Battery hot and gen fail indication
C. Ammeter, loadmeter or voltmeter

93. The image below is a front view of the JTRD engine, respectively AB
A. Pa for Compressor Bleed Valve, N1 Tach Pad, Pe for EPR and Te for Fuel Control Unit
B. T2 for Fuel Control Unit, N1 Tach Pad, Pe for EPR and Pe for Compressor Bleed
Valve
c. Tą for Fuel Control Unit, N1 Tach Pad, Pe for Compressor Bleed Valve and Pe for EPR

94. The PT-6 Engine must be cool prior to using the borescope. Cool down engine for
A. a minimum of 60 minutes
B. a minimum of 40 minutes
C. a minimum of 50 minutes

95. The image below is a Combustion Section of the Allison 250 engine, respectively A and
B
A. Spark Igniter and Fuel Nozzle
B. Both are Spark Igniter
c. Fuel Nozzle and Spark Igniter

96. Pressure to get things repaired is always present in aviation, one of method to mitigate the
risk is
A. Ask for help if they feel overwhelmed
B. Self-induced pressure is natural
C. Rush to complete a repair

97. The unwritten rules that are followed or tolerated by most of the organization.
A. Norm
B. Lack of Assertiveness
C. Complacency

98. The physiological processes in the human body are affected by

A. Maslows Heirarchy of needs
B. James Reasons Error model
C. Circadian Rythms

99. Direct Cause is

A Unplanned release of energy or hazardous materials
B. Unplanned but known cause probability,
C. Known and planned causes

100. The Five Whys Basic Question

A. Keeping asking "What caused the incident or accident" until you get the right answer of
the probable causes
B. There are supposed to be 4 Whys and 1 How
C. Keeping asking "What caused or allowed this condition practice to occurr until you
get to root causes