Molecular Basis of Inheritance

CHAPTER
4
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
CONTENTS NEET SYLLABUS
 Introduction  Search for genetic material

and DNA as genetic material;
 The DNA
 Structure of DNA and RNA;
 The Search for Genetic Material
 DNA packaging;
 RNA World
 DNA Replication;
 Replication  Central dogma;
 Transcription  Transcription,
 Genetic Code  Genetic code,

 Translation;
 Translation
 Gene expression and
 Regulation of Gene Expression regulation- Lac Operon;
163 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

 Molecular Biology is a relatively young branch of Biology.
 Warren Weaver recognised the importance of physical and chemical approach to Biology and
introduced the term Molecular Biology.
 Molecular Biology was developed due to convergence of Genetics, Physics and Biochemistry
 Molecular Biology began in 1953 with the proposal of double helix model of DNA by Watson &
Crick
 FHC Crick prosposed a thesis on x-ray diffraction of polypeptides and proteins
THE DNA
* DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.
* The length of DNA is usually defined as number of nucleotides (or a pair of nucleotide referred
to as base pairs) present in it.
* This also is the characteristic of an organism. For example, a bacteriophage known as   174
has 5386 nucleotides. Bacteriophage lambda has 48502 base pairs (bp), Escherichia coli has
4.6  106 bp and haploid content of human DNA is 3.3  109 bp.
MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 164

STRUCTURE OF POLYNUCLEOTIDE CHAIN
* The chemical structure of a polynucleotide chain (DNA or RNA).
* A nucleotide has three components - a nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar (ribose in case of
RNA, and deoxyribose for DNA), and a phosphate group.
* There are two types of nitrogenous bases -Purines (Adenine and Guanine) and Pyrimidines
(Cytosine, Uracil and Thymine). Cytosine, adenine, guanine are common for both DNA and RNA
and Thymine is present in DNA. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of Thymine.
* A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a
nucleoside, such as adenosine or deoxyadenosine, guanosine or deoxyguanosine, cytidine or
deoxycytidine and uridine or deoxythymidine.
* When a phosphate group is linked to 5’-OH of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage, a
corresponding nucleotide (or deoxynucleotide depending upon the type of sugar present) is formed.
Two nucleotides are linked through 3’-5’ phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide.
* More nucleotides can be joined in such a manner to form a polynucleotide chain.
* A polymer thus formed has at one end a free phosphate moiety at 5’ phosphate 5’-end of ribose
sugar, which is referred to as 5’-end of polynucleotide chain.
* Similarly, at the other end of the polymer the ribose has a free 3’-OH group which is referred to
as 3’-end of the polynucleotide chain.
* The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is formed by sugar and phosphates. The nitrogenous bases
linked to sugar moiety project from the backbone
* In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional -OH group present at 2’-position in the ribose,
Also, in RNA the uracil is found at the place of thymine (5-methyl uracil, another chemical name
for thymine).
* DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich Miescher in 1869.
* He named it as ‘Nuclein’ However, due to technical limitation in isolating such a long polymer intact,
the elucidation of structure of DNA remained elusive for a very long period of time.
* It was only in 1953 that James Watson and Francis Crick, based on the X-ray diffraction data
produced by Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin, proposed a very simple but famous Double
Helix model for the structure of DNA.
* One of the hallmarks of their proposition was base pairing between the two strands of polynucleotide
chains.
* However, this proposition was also based on the observation of Erwin Chargaff that for a double
stranded DNA, the ratios between Adenine and Thymine and Guanine and Cytosine are constant
and equals one.

CHARGAFF’S RULES
 E. Chargaff and his colleagues (1949) at Columbia analysed the composition of DNA from
various sources by quantitative chromatographic methods. Their observations are called Chargaff’s
rules which state:
 Purine and pyrimidine bases occur in equal amounts in a DNA molecule, i.e., A + G = T + C.
 Amount of adenine is equivalent to the amount of thymine (A/T = 1).
 Amount of cytosine is equivalent to that of guanine (C/G = 1).
 A/T =1
 G/C =1
 A + C = G + T (bases with 6 amino group equal to bases with 6 keto group)
 A + T / G + C ratio ( disymmetric ratio) is specific for a species and varies with species and
range between 0.4 to 1.9. It is low in microbes and high in higher animals eg. Human = 1.52 and
E.coli = 0.92). It is used to identify DNA from a particuar source.
Solved example :
DNA was extracted from Staphylococcus bacterium. The proportion of cytosine was found to
be 37% . calculate the amount of adenine?
Solution :
Staphylococcus has dsDNA.
So amount of C = G
A=T
If C is 37% , then G + C = 74%
So A+T = 100 – 74% = 26%
A = 26/2 = 13% Ans
iii) Linus Pauling’s proposal of hydrogen bonds by which 2 polynucleotide strands are held
together.
STRUCTURE OF RNA
Like DNA, it is a polynucleotide but a number of differences are found in their structure. In RNA,
the pentose sugar is ribose and not deoxyribose; also it contains uracil in place of thymine. Most
RNAs are usually single stranded with partial double-stranded regions due to folding back of and
pairing within its single chain.
RNA serves as the genetic material in many viruses, some of which have double stranded RNA.
The salient features of the Double-helix structure of DNA are as follows.
* The DNA has 2 polynucleotide strands coiled helically in clock wise direction around a common
axis
* The two polynucleotide strands are quite complementary and anti parallel
* The two strands are held up together by H-bonds
* Phosphate group is lined to 5-OH of the nucleoside through a phosphoester bonds
* Two nucleotides are linked through 3’  ’5’ phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide and
these linkages are called phosphodiester bonds
* Phosphodiester bonds are a type of covalent bonds
* The two chains have antiparallel polarity i.e., one chain has the polarity 5’  ’3’ and the other
has 3’  ’5’.
* The plane of one base pair stacks over the other double helix. This, in addition to H-bonds
confers stability of the helical structure .
* Each polynucleotide strand is a polymer of nucleotides

* DNA has deoxyribose sugar which differs from ribose sugar in having one Oxygen atom less
at 2nd carbon position
* There are 4 types of Nitrogen bases - Adenine, Guanine Thymine & Cytosine
* Adenine and guanine are purines with two C-N rings (Dicyclic heterocyclic N2 bases)
* Sugar- phosphate chains formed by phosphodiester bonds acts as backbones of DNA
* N2 bases are held upto sugar molecules by glycosidic bonds and project inside
* Base pairing occurs between sugar molecules of opposide strands forming steps/rungs
* The nitrogen bases forming steps are called complementary base pair.
* Base pairing is highly specific, The purine, Adenine combines with pyrimidine thymine cytosine
with Guanine by 3 H- bond (G  C)
The length of one turn of DNA is 34A0 or 3.4nm
The distance between two consecutive base pair is 3.4A0 or 0.34nm
The angle of one turn or helix is 3600.
The angle between successive base pairs is 360
The diameter of DNA is 20A0 constant. One purine always combines with one pyrimidine.
3600
One coil of DNA has 10 base pairs,  10
360
Maximum no of H bonds in one turn = 30
Minimum no of H bonds in one turn = 20
* DNA and RNA are the two types of nucleic acids
* DNA is found to be the genetic material in almost all organisms.
* RNA is the genetic material in some viruses (RNA viruses like retro viruses and HIV)

CENTRAL DOGMA OF MOLECULAR BIOLOGY
* The expression of the genetic material occurs generally through the production of proteins. This
involves two consecutive steps. These are transcription and translation.
* In transcription, the genetic information stored in DNA is transferred to an RNA, which in turn uses
this information to direct the synthesis of proteins during translation. This unidirectional flow of
information was described by F.H.C. Crick in 1958 as the ‘Central dogma’ of Molecular
Biology.
The flow of genetic information

 DNA is a self replicating molecule. In 1970, however, an important modification of this information
flow was brought to light by the work of H.M. Temin and D. Baltimore. Many tumor viruses
contain RNA as genetic material and replicate by first synthesising a complementary DNA. This
process is called Reverse transcription also called Teminism. It is carried out by an RNA-
dependent DNA polymerase called reverse transcriptase.
* These viruses are known as retroviruses and include Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) that
causes AIDS.
* Crick has propsed the concept of “Central dogma in molecular biology” to explain the flow of
genetic information from generation to generation. According to this, the flow of Genetic information
Transcription Translation
is DNA RNA Protein

PACKAGING OF DNA HELIX
* DNA length in the nucleus of human cell is extimated to be 2.2 meters. The diameter of typical
nucleus is 10-6m.
* In prokaryotes, such as E.coli the length of DNA is 1.36 mm
* In the nucleoid region, this DNA is packed along with some +vely charged proteins
* The DNA of prokaryotes is almost circular and lacks chomatin organisation. It is also called
Genophore.
* In Eukaryotes, DNA and histones together form Chromatin.
* The chromatin appears as a string of beads.
* Each bead like structure is nucleosome.Repeated units of chromatin are nucleosomes.
* Histones are basic proteins. There are 5 types of histones H1 H2AH2B,H3and H4

* Two molecules of each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 together form histone octamer (+vely
charged)
* The +vely charged histone octamer forms core which is wrapped by two coils of DNA forming
a nucleosome.
Histones are rich in basic amino acid residues lysine and Arginine which carry positive charges
in their side chains.
8 Molecules of Histones are organized to form a unit of eight molecules called Histone octamer.
These are arranged in two rings i.e., outer and inner rings, 4 histone in each ring
* H1 is found out side the nuclesosome, in the linker DNA region to seal the DNA coilings.
* The Chromatin (string of beads) packed up to form Chromatin fibres.
* The Chromatin fibres are further coiled and condensed at metaphase stage to form
chromosomes during cell division
* The packing of chromatin at higher level requires some other proteins called non histone
proteins
* In Interphase nucleus, some chromatin is loosely packed & lightly stained (Euchromatin) and
some portion is tightly packed & darkly stained (Hetero chromatin)
* Eurchromatin is transcriptionally (genetically) active and heterochromatin is inactive.
3. DNA as an acidic substance present in

nucleus was first identified by
(1) Watson (2) Griffith
(3) Levene (4) Friedrich Meischer
1. The length of DNA usually depends on 4. The distance between two consecutive base
(1) position of nucleotides pairs in DNA is
(2) no of nucleotides (1) 0.34×10–9 m (2) 3.4×10–9 m
(3) both 1 and 2 (3) 34×10–9 m (4) 34×10–6 m
(4) None of the above 5. Thymine can also be designated as
2. Deoxyguanosine is a
(1) 3 - Methyl uracil (2) 2 - Methyl uracil
(1) nucleoside of DNA (2) nucleoside of RNA
(3) 4 - Methyl uracil (4) 5 - Methyl Uracil
(3) nucleotide of DNA (4) nucleotide RNA

6. Name the histone proteins which together 12. In polynucleotide chain, nucleoside is
forms the histone octamer structure formed though a N-glycosidic linkage by
(1) H1, H2A, H2B and H3 joining
(2) H1, H2A , H2B and H4 (1) Phosphate group with nitrogeneous base
(2) Nitrogenous base with nitrogenous base
(3) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(3) Nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
(4) H2A, H2B, H3, H4 and H1
(4) Pentose sugar with phosphate group
7. Nucleosomes constitute the repeating
13. The structures in chromatin seen as ‘beads-
unit of a structure in nucleus called
on string’ when viewed under electron
(1) chromatid (2) nucleolus microscope are called
(3) chromatin (4) telomere (1) nucleotides (2) nucleosides
8. Theoretically, how many nucleosomes (3) histone octamers (4) nucleosomes
do you imagine are present in a 14. Ratio of DNA : histone in prokaryotes is
mammalian cell? (1) 1:2 (2) 1:0 (3) 2:1 (4) 2:0
(1) equal to number of chromosomes 15. How far is each base pair from the next one
(2) equal to number of nucleotides in the DNA double helix model?
(1) 2 nm (2) 3.4 nm
(3) equal to number of histone molecules
(3) 34 nm (4) 0.34 nm
(4) equal to number of base pairs divided by 16. One turn of Z-DNA has
200
(1) 10 base pair (2) 12 base pair
9. Which of the following is not a salient (3) 9.33 base pair (4) 11 base pair
features of the Double-helix structure of
17. In a typical mammalian cell the length of
DNA
DNA is
(1) two chains have parallel polarity (1) 6.6 × 109 bp × 0.34 × 10-9m
(2) a purine comes opposite to a pyrimidine (2) approximately 2.2 metres
(3) approximately uniform distance between (3) 1.36 mm (4) both 1 and 2
the two strands of the helix 18. Uracil is associated with which sugar?
(1) Generally Deoxyribose
(4) The two chains are coiled in a right-handed
fashion (2) Sometimes Ribose
(3) Only ribose (4) Hexose
10. Select an incorrect statement for prokar-
yotes, such as, E.coli. 19. Arginine and lysine are ......A....... amino
acids and found abundantly in ......B.......
(1) they do not have a defined nucleus
Choose the correct option for A and B.
(2) the DNA is scattered throughout the cell
(1) A-acidic; B-protamine
(3) DNA is held with some proteins having (2) A-basic; B-histone proteins
positive charges in a region termed as nucleoid’ (3) A-acidic; B-histone proteins
(4) The DNA in nucleoid is organised in large (4) A-neutral; B-histone proteins
loops held by proteins. 20. D.N. A. strands are anti - parallel
11. Haploid content of human DNA is because of
(1) 3.3 × 109 bp (2) 5386 nucleotides (1) H-bonds (2) Phosphate diester-bonds
(3) Di-sulphide-bonds
(3) 48502 base pairs (4) 4.6 × 106 bp
(4) Phosphate-bonds
21. A DNA molecule contains 10,000 base (3) set of positively charged, basic proteins
pairs, then the length of this DNA (4) set of negatively charged, basic proteins
molecule is 29. The nucleosomes in chromatin are seen as
(1) 3.4 x10–5 meter (2) 0.34 x10–5 meter (1) ‘beads-on-string’ structure when viewed
under electron microscope
(3) 34 x10–5 meter (4) None of above
(2) beads-on-string’ structure when viewed
22. Reverse transcriptase is under simple microscope
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (3) coiled structure when viewed under
(2) RNA dependent DNA polymerase electron microscope
(3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (4) polyhedral structure when viewed under
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase electron microscope
30. Uridine is a
(1) nucleoside of DNA
23. A nitrogenous base is linked to the
(2) nucleoside of RNA
_________ through a _________ linkage to
form a nucleoside (3) nucleotide of DNA
(1) phosphate group, phosphoester (4) nucleotide of RNA
(2) pentose sugar, N-glycosidic 31. Ribose sugar is present in
(3) phosphate group, N-glycosidic (1) RNA polymerase and ATP
(4) pentose sugar, hydrogen bonds (2) RNA and ATP
24. A phosphate group is linked to ____ of a (3) RNA polymerase, RNA and ATP
nucleoside through_________. (4) RNA only.
(1) 3'-OH, phosphoester linkage 32. No of base pairs is the characteristic of an
(2) 2'-OH, glycosidic linkage organism.A bacteriophage known as  ×
174 has
(3) 5'-OH group, phosphoester linkage
(1) 5386 nucleotides (2) 48502 base pairs
(4) 1'-OH, phosphoester linkage
(3) 4.6 × 106 bp (4) 3.3 × 109 bp
25. Nucleic acids are polymers of
33. Deoxycytidine is a
(1) nucleotides (2) amino acids
(1) nucleoside of DNA
(3) nitrogen bases (4) sugars
(2) nucleoside of RNA
26. If the length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm,
(3) nucleotide of DNA ( 4 )
calculate the number of base pairs in E.coli.
nucleotide RNA
(1) 4.6 × 109 bp (2) 6.6 × 109 bp 34. Select the incorrect sentence for
(3) 4.6 × 106 bp (4) 6.6 × 106 bp heterochromatin.
27. In a 3.2 Kbp long piece of DNA, 820 (1) It is densely packed (2) It stains dark
adenine bases were found. What would be (3) It is transcriptionally active
the number of cytosine bases? (4) It is late replicating
(1) 780 (2) 1560 (3) 740 (4) 1480 35. Both deoxyribose and ribose belong to a
28. Histones are class of sugars called
(1) set of positively charged, acidic proteins (1) trioses (2) hexoses
(2) set of negatively charged, acidic proteins (3) pentoses (4) polysaccharides
36. If the sequence of bases in one strand of
DNA is ATGCATGCA, what would be the
sequence of bases on complementary CRTQ: 01. (2) 02. (1) 03. (4)
strand? 04. (1) 05. (4) 06. (3) 07. (3)
08. (4) 09. (1) 10. (2) 11. (1)
(1) ATGCATGCA (2) AUGCAUGCA 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (4)
(3) TACGTACGT (4) UACGUACGU 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (3) 19. (2)
37. In a DNA strand, the adjacent nucleotides 20. (1) 21. (1) 22. (2)
SPQ: 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (1)
are linked together by 26. (3) 27. (1) 28. (3) 29. (1)
(1) glycosidic bonds (2) phosphodiester bonds 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (1)
34. (3) 35. (3) 36. (3) 37. (2)
(3) peptide bonds (4) hydrogen bonds
38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1)
38. Adenosine is a
42. (2) 43. (2)
(1) nitrogenous base (2) nucleotide
(3) ribonucleoside (4) ribonucleotide
39. Cytidine is a
2. (1) Deoxyribose sugar + Guanine
(1) nucleoside of DNA (2) nucleoside of RNA
8. (2) Uridine = Ribose sugar + Uracil. Uracil
(3) nucleotide of DNA (4) nucleotide RNA present in RNA
40. If the total amount of adenine and thymine 9. (1) Two chains have antiparallel polarity
in a ds DNA is 55%, the amount of guanine 10 (2) DNA is located at certain place which is
in this DNA will be held with positively charged proteins
(1) 45% (2) 27.5% (3) 25% (4) 22.5% 21 (2) No. of base pairs X distance between 2
41. Which of the following is not a salient Consective base pairs
features of the Double-helix structure of DNA 22 (2) Synthesis of DNA from RNA by the
enzyme reverse transcriphase catalysed by
(1) pitch of the helix is 10-9 m RNA dependent DNA polymerasel
(2) there are roughly 10 bp in each turn 26. (3) 1.36 mm= 1.36x10-3m
(3) the distance between a bp in a helix is 1m= 109 nm
approximately equal to 0.34 nm 1.36x109x10-3=1.36x106nm
(4) The plane of one base pair stacks over the
1.36 106
other in double helix No of turns =  0.4 106
3.4
42. The back bone of RNA is consists of
27. (1) 3.2 Kbp =3200 bp
which of the following sugar:
A=T A+T=1640
(1) Deoxyribose (2) Ribose
820=820 G+C=3200-(A+T)
(3) Sucrose (4) Maltose =3200-1640=1560
43. Euchromatin is transcriptionally .....A..... G C
chromatin and heterochromatin is 780  780
transcriptionally .....B..... chromatin. 28. (3) Positive charge is due to lysine and
Choose the correct option for A and B. arginine rich amino acids
(1) A-Active; B-neutral 31 (2) ATP is nucleotide : Adinine+ribose sugar+
phosphate
(2) A-Active; B-inactive
34 (3) Heterochromatin is transcriptionallyinactive
(3) A-lnactive; B-active
40 (4) (A+T) = 55% (G+C) = 45%
(4) A-lnactive; B-neutral G C  G=22.5%
SEARCH FOR GENETIC MATERIAL
* Frederick Meisher isolated phosphorus rich, weak organic acids from the nuclei of pus cells
and named as nuclein.
* Altmann changed the name “nuclein” to “nucleic acid”
* Nucleic acids are of 2 types -DNA & RNA
* Direct proof for DNA as the genetic material comes from Transformation experiments on
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Hershey & Chase experiments on bacteriophages.
TRANSFORMING PRINCIPLE (FREDERICK GRIFFITH’S EXPERIMENT)
* In 1928, Frederick Griffith, a British scientist working on the pathogenicity of a bacterial
strain, Diplococcus pneumoniae now called Streptococcus, discovered the process of
transformation.
* This strain causes bacterial pneumonia in mammals including humans. The disease-causing or
S-strain has cells surrounded by a capsule, and forms smooth colonies when grown on agar
medium. Some mutant strains form rough colonies or R strains. This strain does not cause
pneumonia.
* When S strains are heat-killed and injected into mouse, no disease symptom appears.
* Surprisingly, however, when a mixture of heat killed S type (inactivated) and live R bacteria
(non pathogenic) were mixed and then injected, disease reappeared. Live S type cells could
be recovered from the blood of dead mice.
* Griffith proposed that a ‘transforming principle’, a chemical substance was released by the
killed S cells which transformed the R bacteria into S type. This was a permanent genetic
change as S type bacteria continued to produce similar cells.
BIOCHEMICAL CHARACTERIZATION OF TRANSFORMING PRINCIPLE
* Prior to the work of Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty, the genetic material was thought to be
protein.
* In 1944, Oswald T Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty revealed the chemical nature
of the transforming substance to be DNA. They showed that DNA isolated from heat killed S
bacteria could by itself confer the pathogenic properties to R cells. This fact suggested that DNA
has the genetic properties.

* They also discovered that protein-digesting enzymes (proteases) and RNA-digesting enzymes
(RNAse) did not affect transformation, so the transforming substance was not a protein or RNA.
Digestion with DNase did inhibit transformation, so DNA caused transformation.
* They concluded that DNA is the hereditary material, but not all biologists were convinced.
THE GENETIC MATERIAL IS DNA

* The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of Alfred
Hershey and Martha Chase (1952) on T2 bacteriophage.
* They worked with viruses that infect bacteria called bacteriophages.
* The bacterial cell treats the viral genetic material as if it was its own and subsequently
manufactures more virus particles.
* Hershey and Chase worked to discover whether it was protein or DNA from the viruses that
entered the bacteria.
* They grew some viruses on a medium that contained radioactive phosphorus and some others
on medium that contained radioactive sulfur.
* Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA but not
radioactive protein because DNA contains phosphorus but protein does not.
* Similarly, viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contained radioactive protein but not radioactive
DNA because DNA does not contain sulfur.
* Radioactive phages were allowed to attach to E. coli bacteria. Then, as the infection
proceeded, the viral coats were removed from the bacteria by agitating them in a blender.

* The virus particles were separated from the bacteria by spinning them in a centrifuge.
* Bacteria which was infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA were radioactive, indicating
that DNA was the material that passed from the virus to the bacteria. Bacteria that were
infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins were not radioactive.
* This indicates that proteins did not enter the bacteria from the viruses. DNA is therefore
the genetic material that is passed from virus to bacteria.
Hershey and Chase’s experiment demonstrating that only phage DNA injected in the host cell
determines all the characteristics of the progeny phage.
PROPERTIES OF GENETIC MATERIAL (DNA VS RNA)
* DNA as the genetic material was unequivocally resolved from Hershey-chase experiment.
* It became an established fact that it is DNA that acts as genetic material. However, it
subsequently became clear that in some viruses, RNA is the genetic material (for example,
Tobacco Mosaic viruses, QB bacteriophage, etc).
* Answer to some of the questions such as, why DNA is the predominant genetic material, where
as RNA performs dynamic functions of messenger and adapter has to be found from the differences
between chemical structures of the two nucleic acid molecules.
* A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the following criteria:
* It should be able to generate its replica (Replication).
* It should chemically and structurally be stable.
* It should provide the scope for slow changes (mutation) that are required for evolution.
* It should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian Characters’.
* Because of rule of base pairing and complementarity, both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) have
the ability to direct their duplications. The other molecules in the living system, such as proteins fail
to fulfill first cirteria itself.
* The genetic material should be stable enough not to change with different stages of life cycle, age
or with change in physiology of the organism.
* Stability as one of the properties of genetic material was very evident in Griffith’s ‘transforming
principle’ itself that heat, which killed the bacteria, at least did not destroy some of the properties
of genetic material.

* This now can easily be explained in light of the DNA that the two strands being complementary
if separated by heating come together, when appropriate conditions are provided.
* Further, 2-OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA
labile and therefore, DNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable when
compared to RNA. Therefore, among the two nucleic acids, the DNA is a better genetic
material.
* In fact, the presence of thymine at the place of uracil also confers additional stability to DNA.
* Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate. In fact, RNA being unstable, mutate at a faster rate.
Consequently, viruses having RNA genome are having shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
* RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins hence can easily express the characters.
DNA, however, is dependent on RNA for synthesis of proteins. The protein synthesising
machinery has evolved around RNA. The above discussion indicate that both RNA and DNA
can function as genetic material.
* DNA being more stable is preferred for storage of genetic information. For the transmission
of genetic information, RNA is better
6. Role of DNA in heredity was discovered

for the first time through experiments
involving:
(1) Transformation using E. coli
(2) Transduction involving bacteriophage
(3) The use of enzymes protease and nuclease
1. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an (4) Transformation using heat killed virulent
additional –OH group present at____ when and living nonvirulent S. pneumoniae
compared to DNA 7. Prior to the work of Oswald Avery, Colin
(1) 1' -position in the ribose MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty (1933-44),
(2) 2' -position in the ribose the genetic material was thought to be a
(3) 3' -position in the ribose (1) Protein (2) DNA (3) RNA (4) Sugar
(4) 5' -position in the ribose 8. DNA is a genetic material because
2. RNA is the genetic material (1) It has capacity to replicate
(1) in some viruses (2) in some monerans (2) It is chemically and structurally stable
(3) It provide scope for slow mutations
(3) in some protists (4) in some bacteria
(4) All of these
3. Which of the following radioisotopes is not
9. Avery, Mc Carty and Macleod fractionated
suitable for DNA labelling based studies ?
bacteria into
(1) H3 (2) P32 (3) N15 (4) S35 (1) DNA, RNA and proteins
4. A genetic material should be stable enough (2) DNA, lipid and proteins
not to change with (3) Carbohydrate, lipid and proteins
(1) different stages of life cycle (4) DNA, carbohydrate and lipid
(2) age of the cell / organism 10. A molecule that can act as a genetic material
(3) change in physiology of the organism must fulfill the following criteria except :
(4) all of these (1) It should be able to generate its replica
5. Chemically, RNA is (i) reactive and (2) It should chemically and structurally be
(ii) stable as compared to DNA. stable.
(1) (i) equally, (ii) equally (3) It should provide the scope for rapid
(2) (i) less, (ii) more changes that are required for evolution.
(3) (i) more, (ii) less (4) It should be able to express itself in the
(4) (i) more, (ii) equally form of ‘Mendelian Characters’.

19. Bonding between deoxyribose and base in
a pyrimidine nucleoside molecule is
11. In RNA the uracil is found at the place of (1) glycosidic linkage (2) ester linkage
(1) adenine (2) cytosine (3) hydrogen bonds (4) peptide linkage
(3) guanine (4) thymine
12. Isotopes used by Hershey and Chase were
(1) 32P and 35S (2) 34P and 31S
(3) 34P and 31S (4) 30P and 32S CRTQ: 01. (2) 02. (1) 03.(4) 04. (4)
13. Which group present in RNA nucleotide 05. (3) 06. (4) 07. (1) 08. (4)
is very reactive and makes RNA liable and 09. (1) 10. (3)
easily degradable than DNA? SPQ: 11. (4) 12.(1) 13. (2) 14. (1)
(1) 2-OH’group on the purine base 15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (4)
(2) 2-OH’group on ribose sugar 19. (1)
(3) 3-OH’group on ribose sugar
(4) 4-OH’group on ribose sugar
14. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the
genetic material came from the experi-
ments of 10 (3) It should provide the scope for slow
(1) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase changes that are required for evolution
(2) Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and
Maclyn McCarty
(3) Walter Sutton
(4) Thomas Hunt Morgan
15. Molecular explanation for transformation
was given by: RNA WORLD
(l) Griffith (2) Avery, Mc Carty and Mc Leod * RNA was the first genetic material
(3) Lederberg and Tatum * Essential life processes ( metabolism, translation,
(4) Avery and Mc Carty splicing etc) are evolved around RNA
16. Bacterium in which transformation was first * RNA used to act as genetic material as well
studied is as catalyst.
(1) Salmonella typhi * Catalytic RNA or RNA enzymes are known
(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae as Ribozymes.
(3) E. coli (4) Staphylococcus aureus * RNA being catalyst was reactive and hence
17. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the unstable.
genetic material proof by Hershey and * DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical
Chase. They worked with modifications that made it more stable.
(1) Bacteriophages (2) Mycoplasma * DNA by having two complementary strands
(3) Fungi (4) Plant cell became stable and further resists changes by
18. Which of the following step shows evolving a process of repair
transformation w.r.t. Griffith Experiment.
(1) Mouse inoculated with encapsulated
REPLICATION
bacteria * The duplication of DNA molecules is called
(2) Mouse inoculated with non encapsulated replication
bacteria * The Primary function of DNA is to synthesizes
(3) Mouse inoculated with heat killed its own copy (Autocatalysis)
encapsulate bacteria * The possibility for replication of DNA based
(4) Heat killed encapsulated and non on the double helical model was suggesed by
encapsulated bacterial inoculation Watson and Crick

* In each daughter DNA molecule, one strand is parental (i.e., template strand) and the other
strand is newly synthesised and this scheme of synthesis of DNA molecule is termed as
semiconservative method of DNA replication.
* Semiconservative method of DNA replication was proposed by JD Watson & FHC Crick
THE EXPERIMENTAL PROOF

* The semiconservative DNA replication was confirmed by an elegant experiment conducted by
M. Meselson and F.W. Stahl in 1958. They grew E. coli cells in the presence of heavy
isotope 15N (in the form of 15NH4Cl) for several generations. This led to the incorporation of
heavy isotope in all nitrogen-containing compounds including bases. Such cells were then
shifted to normal 14N for one or two generations.
* DNA was isolated from the cells at each generation and the DNA molecules containing 15N
and 14N were separated on CsCl-equilibrium density gradient centrifugation.
* When a solution of Cesium chloride (CsCl) is spun in a centrifuge at a very high speed
(50,000 revolutions per minute) for many hours, the salt tends to settle down in the centrifuge
tube creating a density gradient.In this gradient, the highest ion concentration will be
encountered at the bottom.
* When DNA is mixed with CsCl, it will finally settle at some point in the tube where the
centrifugal force balances the buoyancy of DNA. DNA containing heavy isotope 15N has
greater density and is called heavy DNA. Such a DNA settles at the heavier range of the
gradient.
* After one generation, in 14N medium, all DNA acquired an intermediate density whereas after
two generations two bands were seen, one at intermediate and the other at ‘light’ DNA
density.
* After one generation in 14N medium, both the daughter DNAs will have 15N/14N composition
instead of 15N/15N of the original and thus will have an intermediate density. After two
generations, from a 15N/14N DNA two daughter helices formed will be 15N/14N and 14N/14N.
This explains the two corresponding bands.
* Just a year before Messelson and Stahl’s experiment, Taylor et al (1957) found semi conservative
replication at chromosome level in root tips of Broad Bean (Vicia faba) with radioactive 3H
containing thymidine instead of normal thymidine.
Fig : Messelson and Stahl’s Experiment
Solved example
If hybrid DNA (N14 N15) is allowed to replicate thrice in a medium containing N14 then
what is the proportion of light heavy and hybrid DNA obtained respectively?
Solution

THE MACHINERY AND THE ENZYMES
* In living cells, such as E coli the process of replication required a set of catalysts
(enzymes)
* The main enzyme required for DNA replication is “DNA dependent DNA polymerase”
* It is estimated that, DNA polymerase adds deoxyribonuleotides to the newly
developing nuleotide strand at an aveage rate of polymerisation of approximately
2000 bp per second. E coli completes the replication of its 4.6x106 bp DNA in 18
minutes
* since the DNA molecule is very long, the two strands cannot be separated through
out the entire length in one stretch due to very high energy requirement. therefore,
replication occurs at a time with in a small opening of DNA helix referred to as
“Replication fork”
 In E.coli, the entire DNA acts as one unit of replication (one replicon)
 In eukaryotes, there are several replicons (units of replication).
* In each replicon, replication begins as ‘Ori’ region
 First of all, two polynucleotide strands of replicon are separated at ‘Ori’ region
catalysed by the enzyme, Helicase.
 Two replication forks are formed in each replication.
* In E.coli, the replication is unidirectional where as in eukaryotes, replication is
bidirectional
in each replicon. So that total time of replication can be reduced considerably.
* Both polynucleotide strands of DNA act as templates for replication (for the
synthesis of new strands)
* DNA polymerase catalyses the synthesis of new DNA strand in 51  31 direction.
* On 31  51 template, new DNA strand is synthesized continuously and is called
leading strand.
* On 51  31 template, new DNA strand, synthesis is discontinous in the form of
fragments in 51  31 direction, called Okazaki fragment
* The Okazaki fragments are joined by ligase to form a continuous strand called
Lagging strand
* To start polymerisation of DNA, a short segment of RNA primer is essential which
is later on removed
 During replication, tension is created in front of replication fork which can be
removed by the enzyme. Topoisomerase
* During genetic engineering (r DNA technology) the idea gene cloning vector
provided the ‘Ori’ region.
Replication of DNA generally occurs in ‘s’ phase of cell cycle
* Replication of DNA and cell division cycle should be rightly co-ordinated
* Any failure of cell division after DNA replication may result in polyploidy

5. In the process of DNA replication
(1) One strand of DNA is conserved and
another newly synthesized
(2) Both the strands of DNA are newly
synthesized
1. The first genetic material was (3) Both the strand of DNA is conserved
(4) None of these
(1) RNA (2) DNA
6. Evidence of replication on Vicia faba root
(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) None of these
tip was given by
2. Ribozymes are
(1) Meselson and Stahl (2) Taylor
(1) RNA acting as enzymes (3) Koch (4) Watson and Crick
(2) DNA acting as enzymes
7. The replication of the lagging strand
(3) DNA acting as molecular scissors generates a small polynucleotide fragment
(4) RNA acting as molecular scissors called
3. Name the heavy isotope used by Meselson (1) RNA fragment (2) Okazaki fragment
and Stahl for proving the semiconservative
(3) DNA fragment
mode of DNA.
(1) 15NH4CI (2) 14NH3CI2 (4) Hybrid (DNA-RNA) fragments
8. The isotope used by Meselson and Stahl in
(3) 13NH2CI2 (4) All of these
their experiment was
4. Okazaki fragments are (1) O18 (2) C14 (3) H3 (4) N15.
(1) large DNA segments having promoter, 9. During DNA replication in prokaryotes
initiation, coding and terminator regions DNA is attached to:
(2) short segments of replicated DNA formed (1) Chromosome (2) Mesosome
from DNA template with polarity 5' —> (3) Nucleolus (4) Ribosome
3'
(3) additional nucleotides added to the ends
of RNA
10. Processes like metabolism, splicing and
(4) short segments of wrong bases introduced translation are evolved around
during replication.
(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) protein (4) nucleus

11. (-) sign and (+) sign for DNA strand stands for 18. Replication fork is–
(1) Non-coding strand and coding strand (1) Large opening of the DNA helix
(2) Template strand and non-template strand (2) Small opening of the DNA helix
(3) Antisense strand and sense strand (3) Tightly coiled part of DNA helix
(4) All of the above (4) Loosely coiled part of DNA helix
12. DNA polymerase is the another name of
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase CRTQ: 01. (1) 02. (1) 03. (1) 04. (2) 05. (1)
(3) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
06. (2) 07. (2) 08. (4) 09. (2)
(4) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
SPQ: 10. (2) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2)
13. Which of the following DNA polymerase
of prokaryotes have both 3'  5' and 5' 15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (2)
 3' exonuclease activity?
(1) DNA Pol II (2) DNA Pol I
(3) DNA Pol IV (4) DNA Pol III 2 (1) Ribozymes are non proteinaceous
14. Okazaki fragments of the lagging strand catalysts present in RNA (23srRNA)
is joined together by the enzyme
17 (3) One is parental & another strands is
(1) Primase (2) DNA ligase newly synthesised hence conservation both
(3) Topoisomerase (4) Polymerase the strands acts as templetes synthesised
15. Sequence of enzyme acting in DNA new strands in opposite directions
replication is
(1) Helicase, topoisomerase, DNA polymerase,
ligase
(2) Topoisomerase, helicase, DNA polymerase,
ligase
(3) DNA polymerase, helicase, ligase, TRANSCRIPTION
topoisomerase * The process of copying genetic information
(4) Ligase, helicase, topoisomerase, DNA from template strand of DNA into RNA is
polymerase called transcription.
16. J. H. Taylor’s experiment which proved that * During transcription, only a segment of DNA
DNA replication is semi-conservative, was and one of the two strands of DNA in that
done on segment is copied into RNA.
(1) salivary gland cells of Drosophila * The boundaries of the DNA segment and
melanogaster the strand to be transcribed must be defined
(2) root tip cells of Vicia faba * If both stands of DNA act as templates two
types of RNAs and 2 types of proteins
(3) oocyte of Periplaneta americana may be formed or both RNA strands may join
(4) cells of Neurospora crassa. to form ds RNA since the strands are
17. Mode of DNA replication in E. coli is :- complementary
(1) Conservative and unidirectional * If ds RNA is formed, translation of RNA
would be prevented
(2) Semi conservative and unidirectional
* During transcription, the thymine present in
(3) Conservative and bidirectional
DNA is replaced by uracil in RNA.
(4) Semi conservative and bidirectional

TRANSCRIPTION UNIT
* The unit of transcription of DNA primarily has
i) a promoter region
ii) a structural gene and
iii) a terminator
* Of the two strands of the structural gene in transcription unit, the strand with 51  31 polarity
is considered as coding strand/ sense strand since it has the genetic information regarding
protein synthesis
* The other strand of DNA with 31  51 polarity is called noncoding strand/Antisense strand.
This strand is considered as template DNA strand for mRNA synthesis
* 51 end of coding strand after the promoter is the starting point of transcription and 31 end
after terminator is the end point of transcription.
* The promoter and terminator flank the structutal gene in transcription unit
* The promoter is said to be located towards 5’ end (upstream) of the structural gene and it
is represented with respect to the polarity of coding strand
* The terminator is located towards ‘3’ end (down stream) of the coding strand and it usually
defines the end of the process of transcription
* There are some additional regulatory sequences that may be present further upstream or
downstream to the promoter.
TRANSCRIPTION UNIT AND THE GENE

* A gene is defined as the functional unit of inheritance. Genes are the regions of DNA
* Cistron is a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide
* The structural gene in transcription unit is monocistronic in eukaryotes and polycistronic in
prokaryotes.
* Monocistronic genes in enkaryotes are split genes since they have interrupted coding sequences.
* In the split gene, coding sequence / expressed sequences are defined as exons. The exons are
interrupted by introns or intervening sequences
* From split gene, hn RNA ( hetrogenous nuclear RNA) is synthesized. After splicing (removal of
intron portions and joining of exon portions), functional m RNA is synthesized.
* Inheritance of a character is also affected by promoter and regulatory sequence of a structural gene.
Hence, sometime the regulatroy sequences are loosely defined as regulatory genes, even though
these sequences do not code for any RNA or protein.
TYPES OF RNA AND THE PROCESS OF TRANSCRIPTION
* In bacteria, there are 3 major types of RNA’s
i) mRNA ii) rRNA iii) tRNA
* All three types of non-genetic RNA’s are needed for synthesis of protein in the cell.

* There is single DNA dependent RNA polymerase to catalyse the synthesis of all types of
RNA in bacteria
* RNA polymerase binds to the promoter and initiates transcription.
* Ribonucleoside triphosphates act as substances for the synthesis of RNA.
* RNA is synthesized as a complementary strand to template DNA
* After reaching the terminator region, RNA polymerase and the nascent RNA fall off making
the end of transcription
* RNA polymerase is capable of catalysing only process of elongation
* Initiation factor (sigma factor  ) associated with the enzyme, temporarily initiates the
synthesis of RNA and termination factor (Rho factor  ) associates with the enzyme
helps for temination.
* In bacteria, since the mRNA does not require any processing to become active, and also since
transcription and translation take place in the same compartment (there is no separation of
cytosol and nucleus in bacteria), many times the translation can begin much before the mRNA
is fully transcribed.
* Consequently, the transcription and translation can be coupled in bacteria.
* In Eukaryotes, there are 3 types of RNA polymerases in the nucleus.
* RNA polymerase I transcribes r RNAs. (i.e., 28s, 18s, 5.8s)
* RNA polymerase II transcribes hn RNA (The mRNA)
* RNA polymerase III transcribes t RNAs. (5sr RNA, sn RNAs)
* In eukaryotes, there are two additional complexities-
* hn RNA is synthesized first. It undergoes splicing to form functional m RNA.
* During capping, unusual nucleotide, methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 51end of
hnRNA.
* In tailing, adenylate residues, 200-300, are added at 31end of hn RNA (poly AAAAA-...)
* The fully processed hn RNA i.e., functional m RNA is trasnported out of the nucleus for
translation
* The split gene arrangments represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.
* The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity.
* The process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA world.

9. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in
(1) lysosomes (2) nucleolus
(3) nucleoplasm (4) ribosomes.
10. The terminator is located
(1) towards 3' – end (downstream) of the
coding strand
1. The enzyme that catalyses transcription of
(2) towards 5' – end (downstream) of the
RNA in bacteria
coding strand
(1) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(2) RNA polymerase I (3) towards 5' – end (upstream) of the coding
(3) DNA polymerase strand
(4) RNA polymerase II (4) towards 3' – end (upstream) of the coding
2. RNA polymerase binds to ________and strand
initiates transcription.
(1) operator (2) promoter
(3) regulator (4) terminator
11. This enzyme present in retroviruses
3. The core enzyme requires a factor for
converts single stranded RNA into a double
termination of RNA synthesis at some sites.
stranded viral DNA is
This is known as:
(1) transcriptase (2) reverse transcriptase
(1) Sigma factor (2) Rho factor
(3) Gamma factor (4) Alpha particle (3) RNA polymerase (4) DNA polymerase.
4. In an animal cell, the processes of 12. The presence of which gene in a transcription
transcription and translation occur in unit that also defines the template and coding
(1) nucleus only (2) cytoplasm only strands
(3) nucleus and cytoplasm respectively (1) structural (2) operator
(4) endoplasmic reticulum (3) promoter (4) regulator
13. Polycistronic messenger RNA (mRNA)
5. With regard to mature mRNA in usually occurs in
eukaryotes, which statement is correct? (1) Bacteria (2) Prokaryotes
(1) both exons and introns are absent (3) Eukaryotes (4) Both (1) & (2)
(2) both exons and introns are present 14. The enzyme DNA dependent RNA
(3) exons present, introns absent polymerase catalyses the polymerization
(4) introns present, exons absent reaction in _______ direction.
6. Nucleus is the site for the synthesis of :- (1) only 5 – 3 (2) only 3 – 5
(1) DNA (2) m- RNA (3) t- RNA (4) All (3) both the 5 – 3 and 3 – 5 directions
(4) none of these
7. Mature eucaryotic m–RNA is recognised by
(1) Shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end 15. Part of a gene which codes for an enzyme
is called
(2) Methyl guanosine at 5' end and
polyadenine bases at 3' end (1) Cistron (2) Exon (3) Intron (4) Codon
(3) Anti shine dalgarno sequence at 5' end 16. Messenger RNA is produced in :
(4) Presence of coding and noncoding (1) Nucleus (2) Golgi apparatus
sequence (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Ribosomes
8. RNA polymerase II transcribes 17. RNA polymerase binds to the
(1) hnRNA (heterogenous nuclear RNA) (1) regulator gene (2) promoter gene
(2) 50S tRNA (3) operator gene (4) structural gene
(3) 30S tRNA (4) 40S tRNA

18. Which of the following rRNAs acts as 20.RNA polymerase initiates its activity by
structural RNA as well as ribozyme in (1) Sigma factor (2) Rho factor
bacteria? (3) UAG (4) AUG
(1) 5S rRNA (2) 18S rRNA
(3) 23S rRNA (4) 5.8S rRNA
19. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splic- CRTQ: 02. (1) 02. (2) 03. (2) 04. (3)
ing and RNA capping take place inside the
05. (3) 06. (4) 07. (2) 08. (1)
(1) ribosomes (2) nucleus
(3) dictyosomes (4) ER. 09. (2) 10. (1)
SPQ: 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (3)
19. (2) 20.(1)
GENETIC CODE
* The set of all possible three nucleotide combinations in DNA/mRNA that determine the specific
amino acid sequence present in a polypeptide chain is called “Genetic code”
* The process of translation requires transfer of genetic information from a polymer of nucleotides to
a polymer of amino acids.
* George Gamow, a physicist argued that, since here are only 4 types of nitrogen bases either in DNA
or RNA and these 4 bases have to code for 20 types of amino acids, the code should constitute
a combination of bases and suggested that in order to code for all 20 amino acids, the code should
be made up of three nucleotides (triplet code). By permutation and combination of 4 different types
nucleotides would generate 64 codons i.e., 43(4x4x4=4)
* The Indian born American Scientist Har Gobind Khorana synthesised artificial RNA molecules with
defined combinations of bases such as UUU homopolymers and UUC, CCA(copolymers) and
helped to understand genetic code
* Marshal Nirenberg’s cell free system for protein synthesis finally helped the code to be deciphered
The enzyme polynucleotide phoshorylase was discovered by Ochoa and hence it is also known as
Ochoa’s enzyme. Which is helpful in polymerising RNA with defined sequences in a template
independent manner
* The code is triplt code i.e., 3 nucleotides form into one codon and one codon can specify
one amino acid
There are 64 triplet codons in codons dictionary out of which 61 are called sense codons and
three are nonsense codons.
* The codons which code for amino acids are called sense codons and the codons not coding
for amino acids are called non-sense codons or terminating codons (or) stop codons.
* One codon codes for one amino acid, hence it is unambiguious and specific
* Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. Hence this type of code is called
degenerate code.
* The code is read on mRNA in a contiguous fashion : There are no punctuations.

* The code is universal, i.e., the same codon in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes codes for the
same amino acid. for example UUU code for phenyl alanine (phe) in both Bacteria
(Porkaryote) and Humans (Eukaryote). Some exceptions to this rule have been found in
mitochondrial codons and in some protozoans
* Among the total number of 61 sense codons, one codon acts starting codon or initiation codon
and it is mostly AUG. It codes for methionine.
* Initiator codon is always present at 5’ prime end of mRNA. the terminating
codons[UAA(Ochre),UAG(Almber),UGA(Umber/opal)] are always present at 3’ prime end of
mRNA.
DEGENERACY OF THE GENETIC CODE

 Some amino acids are coded for by multiple codons. This is called degeneracy. There are 18
amino acids which are coded by more than one codons.
 Degeneracy is explained by Wobble hypothesis. It was discovered by Bernfield and Nirenberg
No of codons
Number of Codons For Different Amino acids
each
Tryptophan UGG
Methionine AUG 1
Phenylalanine, tryrosine, histidine, glutamine,
asparagine lysine, aspartic acid, glutamic acid,
cysteine.
Phenylalanine --- UUU , UUC 2

Aspartic Acid ----- GAU ,GAC
Glutamic Acid -- GAG , GAA
Lysine -------------- AAA , AAG
Tyrosine ----------- UAU , UAC
Isoleusine ---- AUU, AUC, AUA 3
Valine, Proline, threonine, alanine, glycine. 4

Leucine, arginine, serine.
6


WOBBLE HYPOTHESIS
 It was proposed by Crick (1966) to describe the lack of specificity in the third base of codon.
According to this hypothesis, only the first two positions of a triplet codon on mRNA have a
precise pairing with the bases of the tRNA anticodon. The pairing of the third position bases
of the codon may be ambiguous, and varies according to the nucleotide present in this position.
Thus, a single tRNA type is able to recognize two or more codons differing only in the third
base. Such interaction between the third bases is referred to as Wobble pairing.
ARCHETYPAL CODE / MITOCHONDRIAL CODE
 It is found in human mitochondria , yeast mitochondria , Paramecium , PPLO, ciliates etc
Difference between UNIVERSAL and ARCHETYPAL codes
CODONS NORMAL ARCHETYPAL CODE
/UNIVERSAL
CODE
UAA Termination Glutamine
UAG Glutamine
UGA Tryptophan
AGG Arginine Termination
AGA
AUA Isoleusine Methionine
CUA Leusine Threonine

AAA Lysine Asparagine
Termination 3 UAA UAG UGA 4 UAA UAG AGA AGG
codons
The Codons for the Various Amino Acids
MUTATIONS AND GENETIC CODE :
* DNA is the genetic material and portions of DNA of specific size are the genes.
* The relationship between genes and DNA can be best understood by mutation studies.
* Effects of large sized deletions, additions, inversions etc in chromosomal part (DNA segment)
may result in loss or gain or change in a gene and so in function
* A classical example of gene mutation/point mutation is sickle celled anaemia.
* Sickle celled anaemia is due to a change in aminoacid (glutamate to valine) in the 6th position
of  -polypeptide chain.
* This is due to a change in the 6th codon of mRNA of  -cistron from GAA to GUA ie. in
that codon A is mutated of U.
* Frame shift mutations from another example of point mutations.
* Addition or deletion of nucleotides in DNA coding strand/mRNA result in a change of
codons. It leads to a change in aminoacid sequence.
* Frame shift mutations from the genetic basis of proof for triple code and is read in a
contiguous fashion

Consider a statement that is made up of the following words each having three letters like
genetic code.
RAM HAS RED CAP
If we insert a letter B in between HAS and RED and rearrange the statement, it would
read as follows:
RAM HAS BRE DCA P
Similarly, if we now insert two letters at the same place say BI’. Now it would read,
RAM HAS BIR EDC AP
Now we insert three letters together, say BIG, the statement would read
RAM HAS BIG RED CAP
The same exercise can be repeated, by deleting the letters R.E and D. one by one and
rearranging the statement to make a triplet world.
RAM HAS EDC AP
RAM HAS DCA P
RAM HAS CAP
 Insertion or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion
or deletion. However, such mutations are referred to as frameshift insertion or deletion mutations.
* Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases insert or delete in one or multiple codon hence
one or multiple amino acids, and reading frame remains unaltered from that point onwards.
t RNA - THE ADAPTER MOLECULAR:
* The tRNA is called soluble RNA (or) SRNA (or) Adaptor RNA (or) transfer RNA (or)
translator RNA
* The clover leaf model of tRNA has been accepted and it was proposed by Holley
 In actual structure three dimensions,, the tRNA is a compact molecule which looks
like inverted L. (tertiary structure). It is close to reality and was proposed for phenyl
alanine tRNA By Rich Kim Klug (1974).
 t RNA has 5 arms and 4 loops
 Acceptor arm
 DHU arm
 Anticodon arm
 Variable arm / lump / miniloop
 TC arm

FUNCTION
 Acceptor arm is Binding site of amino acid.
 DHU loop is Binding site of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme ( amino acid activating
enzyme).
 TC loop is Binding site of ribosome small subunit.
 Anticodon loop is Binding site of mRNA.
ACCEPTOR ARM
 The latter includes a constant 3' terminal - CCA sequence and fourth nucleotide, either A or
G. The amino acid molecule attaches to the 3' end of the base A, which is known a amino acid
binding site.
TC ARM
 It consists of a stem having 5 base pairs and a loop of 7 nucleotides. The loop contains an
unusual base pseudouridine ( ) and hence the name. The loop is involved in binding with
ribosome and hence it is sometimes referred to as ribosomal loop.
VARIABLE ARM
 It is of two types. In one type, there is a loop containing 4 to 5 bases and has no stem. In the
other type, the arm consists of 13-21 bases and is distinguishable into stem and loop both.
ANTICODON ARM
 It is distinguishable into a stem of 5 bp and a loop of 7 bases (unpaired nucleotides) of
which the middle three form the anticodon. It is binding site of mRNA.
DHU ARM
 It is also distinguishable into a stem and a loop. The loop contains an unusual base
dihydrouridine due to which it is called dihydrouridine (DHU) loop or the D loop. It is
binding site of aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzyme.

9. The genetic code is called a degenerate
code because:
(1) One codon has many meanings
1. Which one of the following codons codes (2) More than one codon has the same
for the same information as UGC? meaning
(1) UGU (2) UGA (3) UAG (4) UGG
(3) One codon has one meaning
2. There are 64 codons in genetic code
dictionary because (4) There are 64 codons present
(1) There are 64 types of tRNAs found in 10. The first code deciphered by Nirenberg
the cell (1961) was
(2) There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons (1) AAA (2) UUU (3) GGG (4) CCC
for amino acids 11. Polynucleotide phosphorylase enzymes
(3) There are 64 amino acids to be coded are also called
(4) Genetic code is triplet
(1) Crick enzymes (2) Servo Ochoa
3. What is the first anticodon in translation?
enzymes
(1) GUU (2) UAC (3) UTC (4) GUA
4. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 (3) James Watson enzymes
amino acids. This property is called (4) Mendel enzymes
(1) Degeneracy of genetic code 12. Firstly, who suggested that genetic codes
(2) Code is universal are triplet.
(3) Code is overlapping (1) George Gamow (2) Crick
(4) Code is ambiguous
(3) Ochoa (4) Nirenberg
5. Who developed the technique of synthe-
sising RNA molecules with well defined 13. The three codons which result in the
combination of bases (homopolymers and termination of polypeptide chain synthesis
copolymers) to develop genetic code? are
(1) Crick et.al (2) Har Gobind Khorana (1) UAA, UAG, GUA (2) UAA, UAG, UGA
(3) Matthaei (4) Nirenberg (3) UAA, UGA, UUA (4) UGU, UAG, UGA
6. Which of the following is not a salient
14. Starting codon in prokaryotes codes for
features of genetic code
(1) The codon is triplet. (1) methyl methionine (2) ethyl methionine
(2) ambiguous and specific (3) propyle methionine (4) formyl methionine
(3) code is degenerate. 15. The scientist who was awarded Nobel
(4) The code is nearly universal prize in 1959 for invitro synthesis of
7. If the four bases of DNA have to code for polyribonucleotide:-
twenty amino acids, the code should (1) Mendel (2) Calvin
constitute a combination of bases. This (3) Khorana (4) Ochoa
was proposed by
(1) Rosalind (2) Har Gobind Khorana
(3) George Gamow (4) Marshall Nirenberg
CRTQ: 01.(1) 02.(4) 03.(2) 04.(1)
8. Sickle cell anemia is an example of
(1) point mutation 05.(2) 06.(2) 07.(3) 108.(1)
(2) chromosomal disorder SPQ: 09.(2) 10.(2) 11.(2) 12.(1)
(3) sex linked disease 13.(2) 14.(4) 15.(3)
(4) frameshift mutation
1. (1) UGC & UGU codes for same amino acid cystein
9. (2) UUU (homopolymer)
13. (2) UAA, UAG, UGA are stop codons
14. (2) code is unambiguous and specific
TRANSLATION
* Translation is the RNA directed synthesis of polypeptides. This process requires all three
classes of RNA.
* The mRNA provides the template, tRNA brings aminoacids and reads the genetic code, and
rRNAs play structural and catalytic role during translation.
* The process of translation can be divided into three basic steps:
 Initiation
 Elongation
 Termination
* The translation of mRNA begins with the formation of initiation complex. For this, small subunit of
ribosome, a mRNA, a specifically charged initiator tRNA, GTP, Mg2+ and proteinaceous
initiation factors are assembled.
* These initiation factors are designated as IFs in prokaryotes and eIFs in eukaryotes.
* The initiation factors bind to the smaller ribosome subunit and then this complex binds to
a sequence of mRNA, preceding the initiator AUG codon.
* Later, when the large 50S subunit joins the initiation complex, the initiation factors are
released and complete 70S ribosome is formed.
ACTIVATION OR CHARGING OF AMINO ACIDS / AMINOACYLATION OF TRNA
 Amino acids are present in cytoplasm in dormant stage so they needs activation.
 Activation of amino acids requires energy in the form of ATP and occurs in a two step reaction
catalyzed by the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases. There are at least 20 different aminoacyl
tRNA synthetases.
 First the enzyme attaches the amino acid to the -phosphate of ATP with the concomitant release
of pyrophosphate. This is termed an aminoacyl-adenylate intermediate.
 In the second step the enzyme catalyzes transfer of the amino acid to either the 2'– or 3'–OH of
the ribose portion of the 3'-terminal adenosine residue of the tRNA generating the activated
aminoacyl-tRNA.
Step 1
Amino acid* + ATP 
Aminoacyl tRNA Synthetase*
 AA.AMP enzy
Step 2
AA.AMP enzyme complex + tRNA* 
 Charged tRNA

 tRNA molecules are joined to their specific amino acid in a reaction known as charging. The
3' end of the tRNA molecule is covalently linked to the correct amino acid (High energy covalent
ester bond formation between amino acid and tRNA)
INITIATION
 Initiation of translation requires a specific initiator tRNA, tRNAmet, that is used to
incorporate the initial methionine residue into all proteins.
 In E. coli a specific version of tRNA is required to initiate translation, [tRNAfmet]. The
methionine attached to this initiator tRNA is formylated.
 Although tRNA met is specific for initiation in eukaryotes it is not a formylated tRNAmet.
The initiation of translation requires recognition of an AUG codon.
 In the polycistronic prokaryotic RNAs this AUG codon is located adjacent to a Shine-
Dalgarno element in the mRNA.
E P A SITES IN RIBOSOMES
 The ribosome has binding sites for two charged tRNAs labelled as P (peptidyl site), and
A (aminoacyl site). There are two sites in the large subunit, for subsequent amino acids
to bind to and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a peptide bond.
 tRNA interact with mRNA in SSU of P and A sites whilst protein synthesis occurs in P and
A sites of LSU (Large Sub Unit).
If two such charged tRNAs are brought close enough, the formation of peptide bond
between them would be favoured energetically. The presence of a catalyst would enhance
the rate of peptide bond formation.
 From exit (E) site of ribosome unloaded/deacylated tRNA is expelled.
ELONGATION
 The process of elongation, like that of initiation requires specific non-ribosomal proteins called
elongation factor (EF).
 In E. coli these are EFs and in eukaryotes they are eEFs. In prokaryotes, elongation
factors are called EF-Tu, EF-Ts and EF-G.
 Each incoming aminoacyl-tRNA is brought to the ribosome by an EF—GTP complex.
 When the correct tRNA is deposited into the A site the GTP is hydrolysed and the EF—GDP
complex dissociates.
 The peptide attached to the tRNA in the P site is transferred to the amino group at the
aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site. This reaction is catalyzed by peptidyltransferase. 23SrRNA
and 28SrRNA perform this function therefore they act as ribozyme
 The elongated peptide now resides on a tRNA in the A site. The A site needs to be free
in order to accept the next aminoacyl-tRNA. The process of moving the peptidyl-tRNA from
the A site to the P site is termed, translocation.
 In the process of translocation the ribosome is moved along the mRNA such that the next codon
of the mRNA resides under the A site. The result of the shift is that the uncharged tRNA that
was in the P site is ejected, and the tRNA that was in the A site is now in the P site. The
A site is free to accept the tRNA molecule with the appropriate anticodon for the next codon
in the mRNA.

 The next tRNA base pairs with the next codon, and peptidyl transferase catalyzes the formation
of a peptide bond between the new amino acid and the growing peptide chain.
 The initiator tRNA now delinks, and the dipeptide so formed is translocated to the P site. The
movement of entire mRNA - tRNA dipeptide shifts by a codon exposing the next codon at
A site in a process called translocation.
 Eukaryotes require a more complex set of accessory factors.
 Once again, the ribosome shifts over, so that the uncharged tRNA is expelled, and the tRNA
with the peptide chain occupies the P site. The process of shifting and peptide bond formation
continues over and over until a termination codon is encountered.
 The elongation process is fairly rapid, with prokaryotic ribosomes able to add 15 amino acids
to the growing polypeptide every second.
TERMINATION
 The sequence of elongation continues till the whole of mRNA is translated and a signal in the
form of termination codon (UAG, UAA, or UGA) is reached. These do not code for any amino
acid and, therefore, the translation stops. They also signal a GTP-dependent release factor
(RFs in E. coli and eRFs in eukaryotes) .
 The termination codon is recognised and bound to by a release factor RF. The release factor
is a protein.
 The RF binds to the A site of the ribosome in conjunction with GTP.
 RF mimic tRNA in shape but are made up of protein not RNA
 RF interact with peptidyl transferase to cause hydrolysis of bond between tRNA and
polypeptide chain
 RF cause peptidyl transferase to transfer polypeptide to a H2O and not to another tRNA
 The resulting uncharged tRNA left in the P site is expelled with concomitant hydrolysis of GTP.
 The inactive ribosome then releases its mRNA and the 70S complex dissociates into the 30S
and 50S subunits ready for another round of translation.
* In addition to start codon (AUG) and stop codon, mRNA also has some untranslated
regions (UTR) prior to start codon and after stop codon. They are essential for efficient
translation process.
* Ribosomes are the cell organelles concerned with translation phase of protein synthesis
* In prokaryotes, transcription and translation take place simultaneously as there is no boundary
between nucleoid & cytoplasm
* In Eukaryotes; transcription & translation occur successively. Transcription occurs in nucleus
and translation occurs in cytoplasm.

8. Synthesis of polypeptide terminates when
a nonsense codon of mRNA reaches
(1) A site (2) P site
(3)B site (4) None
1. Charging (aminoacylation) of tRNA 9. Amino acid binding site of tRNA is
involves the attachment of (1) 5¢ end (2) T  C loop
(1) amino acid to tRNA
(2) amino acid to mRNA (3) DHU loop (4) 3 end.
(3) neutral amino acid to tRNA
(4) acidic amino acid to tRNA
2. Non-proteinaceous enzyme that acts as a
catalyst for the formation of peptide bond is 10. What is the purpose of untranslated
(1) spliceosome (2) ribozyme regions UTRs present on mRNA?
(3) RNA poly I (4) RNA poly III. (1) To stop the process of translation
3. During translation initiation in (2) To start the process of translation
prokaryotes, GTP is required for (3) For efficient translation
(1) Formation of formyl-met-tRNA (4) For DNA recognition
(2) Binding of 30 S subunit of ribosome with 11. Activation of an amino acid during
mRNA protein synthesis requires a participation
(3) Association of 30 S-mRNA with formyl- of specific molecule of
met-tRNA (1) mRNA (2) tRNA
(4) Association of 50 S subunit of ribosome (3) rRNA (4) All of these
with initiation complex. 12. During protein synthesis, a ribosome
4. During protein synthesis, amino acid gets moves from 5 to 3 end of mRNA to
attached to tRNA with the help of recognize all codons. This movement of
(1) mRNA (2) Amino acyl tRNA synthetase ribosome is called
(3) Ribosome (4) rRNA (1) Transformation (2) Translocation
5. At which end of mRNA translation always
(3) Transposition (4) Transduction
begins?
13. The first amino acid in any polypeptide
(1) 3 end (2) 5 end
chain of prokaryotes is always:
(3) Any where on mRNA (4) UUU end
(1) Formylated arginine (2) Lysine
6. Which types of nitrogen bases are
present in loops of t-RNA ? (3) Formylated methionine (4) Methionine
(1) Only unusual nitrogen bases 14. The process of translation requires
(2) Only usual nitrogen bases transfer of genetic information from a
(3) Both usual and unusual nitrogen bases polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of
(4) None of the above (1) fatty acids (2) amino acids.
7. In actual structure, the tRNA is a compact (3) organic acids (4) nucleosides
molecule that looks like 15. A group of three nitrogen bases on tRNA
(1) Nucleosome to recognise a codon on mRNA is called
(2) Inverted L-form suggested by klug
(1) codon (2) Anticodon
(3) Inverted omega
(3) Genetic code (4) Triplet
(4) Clover leafsuggested by Holley

16. During protein synthesis (3) Polymerisation of nucleosides
(1) Code on mRNA is translated (4) Polymerisation of amino acids
(2) Coding is done by DNA strands
(3) Code is transfered on tRNA
(4) all of these are correct CRTQ: 01.(1) 02.(2) 03.(2) 04.(2)
17. Enzyme for peptide formation is located 05.(2) 06.(3) 07.(2) 08.(1)
in 09.(4)
SPQ: 10.(3) 11.(2) 12.(2) 13.(3)
(1) Smaller subunit of ribosome
14.(2) 15.(2) 16.(1) 17.(2)
(2) Larger subunit of ribosome
18.(4)
(3) tRNA (4) Cytoplasm
18. Translation refers to the process of –
(1) Polymerisation of nitrogen bases
2. (2) ribozyme (23s sRNA)
(2) Polymerisation of nucleotides
9. (4) CCA end
REGULATIUON OF GENE EXPRESSION

Polypeptide chain synthesis is under genetic regulation
In eukaryotes, regulation of gene expression occurs in different stages during protein
synthesis they are
a. Transcription level (Formation of primary transcript)
b. Processing level (regulation of splicing)
c. Transport of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
d. Translational level
* The genes in a cell are expressed to perform a particular function or a set of functions. For
example, if an enzyme called beta-galactosidase is synthesised by E.coli, it is used to catalyse
the hydrolysis of a disaccharide, lactose into glucose and galactosidase.
* Therefore, in simple terms, it is the metabolic, physiological or environmental conditions that
regulate the expression of genes.
* The development and differentiation of embryo into adult organisms are also a result of the
coordinated regulation of expression of several sets of genes.
* In prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site for
control of gene expression. In a transcription unit, the activity of RNA polymerase at a given
promoter is in turn regulated by interaction with accessory proteins, which affect its ability
to recognise start sites. These regulatory proteins can act both positively (activators) and
negatively (repressors).
* The accessibility of promoter regions of prokaryotic DNA is in many cases regulated by the
interaction of proteins with sequences termed operators.
* The operator region is adjacent to the promoter elements in most operons and in most cases
the sequences of the operator bind a repressor protein.
* Each operon has its specific operator and specific repressor.
* For example, lac operator is present only in the lac operon and it interacts specifically with
lac repressor only.
LAC OPERON
* To explain the mechainsm of regulation of gene action, Francois Jacob & Jacque Monod
proposed operon cencept for which they were awarded Nobel prize
* A unit of some structural genes (cistrons), operator gene and promoter gene together called Operon.
* In operon, operator gene (0), and promoter gene (P) are adjacent to structural genes.
* Regulator gene(Gene i) is located closely but not adjacent to operon. It regulates the expression
of Operon.
* Lac operon was proposed by Francis Jacob and Jacque Monod
* Lac operon was proposed to understand the Genetic control of Lactose catabalism
* Lac operon catabolism (Metabolism) is regulated by a set genes known as regulatory gene (i-
gene) operator genes (O-gene) and three structural genes (z-gene, y-gene and a-gene). the
sequential arrangement of these genes constitute an operon
* Different operon system have their specific operators and specific repressor genes.
* In Lac operon of bacteria, lacose acts as an inducer and it regulates the “switching on” and
“off” and the regulatory proteins can act as negative repressor genes.
* When lactose is present in the bacteria cell, the operator of Lac operon is “Switched on” and the
regularoty proteins can act positively and Lac operon is under the control of Positive regulation
* In the absense of Lactose, repressor gene sysnthesises repressor mRNA and in turn it
synthesises repressor protein which binds to operator gene, resulting in the repression (non
functioning) of structural genes.
* By inhibiting Lac mRNA (i.e., Polycistronic mRNA), the enzymes such as  Galactosidase,
permease and tranacetylase synthesis is inhibited (i.e., Lac operon switched off)
* When lactose is present in the cell, it binds to the repressor protein, thereby inactivates it and
structural genes leading to the synthesis of  Galactosidase by z gene, permease by y’gene,
and transacetylase by a’ gene. Thus Presence of lactose results in inducing activity of structural
genes; hence called as an inducer.
* Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as negative regulation.

1. Arginine and lysine carries .....(1)....
charge in their side chains. Histones are
1. The sequence of structural genes in lac
organised to form a unit of eight molecules
operon is called ......(2)...... The negatively charged
(1) Lac A, Lac Y, Lac Z DNA is wrapped around the positively
(2) Lac A, Lac Z, Lac Y charged histone octamer to form a structure
called .....(3).....
(3) Lac Y, Lac Z, Lac A Here A, B and C refers to
(4) Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A (1) A-positive, B-histone octamer, C-
2. If tryptophan is externally supplied to E. nucleosome
coli then (2) A-negative, B-nucleosome. C-histone
(1) Tryptophan operon is switched off octamer
(3) A-neutral, B-nucleosome, C-histone
(2) Tryphophan operon is switched on
octamer
(3) Lac operon is switched off (4) A-neutral, B-octamer, C-histone tetramer
(4) Lac operon is switched on 2. One of the hallmarks of famous Double
Helix model of DNA was
(1) base pairing between the two strands of
polynucleotide chains
3. Enzyme transacetylase produced by lac (2) two chains have anti-parallel polarity
operon in E. coli (3) two chains are coiled in a right-handed
fashion
(1) Split lactose into glucose and galactose (4) uniform distance between the two strands
(2) Is required for entry of lactose of the helix
(3) Is coded by gene a 3. Refer to the given figure of nucleosome and select
(4) Both (1) and (2) the option that correctly identify the parts A, B
4. In lac operon, gene synthesising a and C
repressor protein is called
(1) Operator gene (2) Structural gene
(3) Promoter gene (4) Regulator gene
CRTQ: 01.(4) 02.(1)

SPQ: 03.(3) 04.(4)
(1) A-DNA, B-Histone octamer,
C-H1 histone
(2) A-Histone octamer,
B-H1 histone, C-DNA
2. (1) negative control (3) A-Histone octamer,
4 (4) Regulator gene (i) B-DNA, C-H1 histone
(4) A-DNA, B-H1 histone,
C-Histone octamer

4. What does A and B represent in the given (3) DNA chemically is less reactive and
representation? structurally more stable when compared to
RNA
(4) 2'-OH group present at every nucleotide in
DNA is a unreactive group and makes DNA
stable
(3) Viruses grown on radioactive sulfur contained
(1) A – Ribonucleoside, radioactiveDNA but not radioactive protein
B – Deoxyribonucleoside (4) The bacterial cell treats the viral genetic
(2) A – Ribonucleotide, B – material as if it was its own and subsequently
Deoxyribonucleotide manufactures more virus particles.
(3) A – Nucleoside, B – Nucleotide 9. The steps involved in Hershy and Chase
(4) A – Nucleotide, B – Nucleoside experiment.
I. Infection II. Blending
5. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly
matched? III. Centrifugation IV. Filtration
(1) I, II & III (2) I & II
(1) Purines – Adenine and Guanine
(3) II & III (4) All
(2) Pyrimidines – Cytosine and Uracil
10. Match the list of items of Column I with
(3) Nucleosides – Adenosine and Thymidine Column II and select the correct option from
(4) DNA – chemically biomolecule the codes given below.
6. RNA being a catalyst was reactive and hence Column I Column II
......A..... Therefore, DNA has evolved from A. F. Meischer (i) DNA double helix
RNA with .....B.... modification that makes it B. Griffith (ii) Nuclein
more .....C.... C. Hershey and Chase (iii) S. pneumoniae
D. Watson and Crick (iv) Bacteriophages
Choose the correct option for A, B and C
E. Wilkins and Franklin (v) X-ray diffraction
(1) A-stable, B-physical, C-stable studies
(2) A-stable, B-chemical, C-stable (1) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(v)
(2) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i), E-(ii)
(3) A-unstable, B-chemical, C-stable
(3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(v)
(4) A-unstable, B-chemical, C-unstable (4) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii), E-(v)
7. Select an incorrect statement for Hershey 11. The given flowchart represents the flow of
and Chase experiments genetic information between biomolecules.
(1) They grew some viruses on a medium that Identify the processes A, B, C and D and
contained radioactive phosphorus and select the correct option.
some others on medium that contained
radioactive sulfur
(2) Viruses grown in the presence of (1) A-Translation, B-Transcription,
radioactive phosphorus contained C-Replication, D-Reverse Transcription
radioactive DNA but not radioactive (2) A-Replication, B-Transcription,
protein C-Translation,
8. Select an incorrect statement D-Reverse Transcription
(1) Both the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) (3) A-Replication, B-Transcription,
C-Reverse Transcription, D-Translation
have the ability to direct their duplications (4) A-Replication, B-Reverse Transcription,
(2) proteins have no ability to direct their C-Transcription, D-Translation
duplications
12. Select an incorrect statement (3) The strand which does not code for
(1) RNA was the first genetic material. anything is referred to as noncoding
strand
(2) Essential life processes evolved around
DNA (4) The genetic information from both
(3) RNA used to act as a genetic material as strands of the DNA is copied into RNA.
well as a catalyst in the past There is single DNA-dependent RNA
polymerase that catalyses transcription of
(4) Some biochemical reactions in living
all types of RNA in bacteria.
systems are catalysed by RNA catalysts
13. DNA being double strand and having ...A... 17. Sometimes the regulatory sequences are
strand, ...B... changes by evolving repair. loosely defined as regulatory genes even
Choose the correct option for A and B. though these sequences do not code for any
(1) A-supplementary; B-resists RNA or protein because
(2) A-complementary ; B-resists (1) inheritance of a character is affected by
(3) A-complementary; B-accept promoter and regulatory sequences of
structural genes
(4) A-supplementary; B-accept
(2) inheritance of character is not affected
14. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiment, equal
by promoter and regulatory sequences of
amount of light DNA and hybrid DNA was
structural genes
observed in E.coli culture after
(3) regulatory sequences can’t be defined
I. Two generation
as regulatory genes because they don’t
II. 40 minutes
exist in eukaryotes genome
III. 80 minutes
IV. three generation (4) regulatory sequences can’t be defined as
regulatory genes because they don’t exist
Choose the correct option for given
in prokaryotic genome
statement of question.
18. Read the following statements and choose
(1) I and II (2) II and III
the correct option.
(3) III and IV (4) I and IV
I. RNA polymerase associates transiently
15. Select the incorrect statement regarding
with ‘Rho’ factor to initiate
DNA replication. transcription.
(1) Leading strand is formed in 5 – 3
II. In bacteria, transcription and
direction translation takes place in the same
(2) Okazaki fragments are formed in 5 – 3 compartment.
direction
III.RNA polymerase II is responsible for
(3) DNA polymerase catalyses transcription of rRNA.
polymerization in 5 – 3 direction
IV. When hnRNA undergoes capping
(4) DNA polymerase catalyses
process, adenylate residues are added
polymerization in 3 – 5 direction at 3' end in a template independent
16. During transcription of RNA manner.
(1) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase V. hnRNA is the precursor of mRNA.
catalyse the polymerisation in direction (1) II only is correct
5'’  3' (2) II, III and V only are correct
(2) The DNA strand that has the polarity 5'’ (3) III and IV only are correct
 3' acts as a template (4) II and V only are correct

19. A hypothetical sequence from a (1) 5–GCAUUCGGCUAGUAAC – 3
transcription unit is represented below: (2) 5–CGUAAGCCGAUCAUUG – 3
3'-ATGCATGCATGCATGCATGCATGC-5' (3) 5–GCATTCGGCTAGTAAC – 3
Template Strand
(4) 3–CGTAAGCCGATCATTG– 5
5'-TACGTACGTACGTACGTACGTACG-3'
Coding Strand 23. Which one of the following is correct?
Write the sequence of RNA transcribed (1) Introns are present in mRNA and exons
from above DNA ? are present in rRNA
(1) 3'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-5' (2) Codons are present in mRNA and
(2) 5'-AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGCAUGC-3' anticodons in tRNA
(3) 3'-UACGUACGUACGUACGUACGUACG-5' (3) Every intron is a set of three terminator
(4) 5'-UACGUACGUACGUACGUACGUACG-3' codons.
20. Select an incorrect statement (4) Exons are present in eukaryotes while
1) In bacteria, there are three major types of introns are present in prokaryotes.
RNAs GENETIC CODE
2) All three RNAs are needed to synthesise a
24. Identify the correct match between the
protein in a cell.
codons and coding functions.
3) tRNAs play structural and catalytic role
Column 1 Column II
during translation.
4) The mRNA provides the template during A. AUG (1) Phenylalanine
protein synthesis B. UAA (2) Methionine
21. Read the following statements carefully C. UUU (3) Tryptophan
and choose the correct statements.
D. UGG (4) Termination
A. In a transcription unit, the promoter A B C D
located at the 5' end of coding strand
(1) 1 4 2 3
B. The single strand DNA having the
(2) 2 4 1 3
polarity 5'  3' is the template strand
(3) 4 3 2 1
C. RNA polymerase binds to the
operator during transcription. (4) 4 1 3 2
25. Which of the following is not a salient
D. Single base DNA differences occur in
features of genetic code
humans are called Single Nucleotide
Polymorphism (SNPs). (1) 3 codons function as stop codons
(1) Statements B and D (2) codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
fashion.
(2) Statements A and B
(3) there are no punctuations.
(3) Statements A and D (4) The code is nearly universal except in
(4) Statements B and C mitochondrial codons, and in some
22. What would be the base sequence of RNA insects
transcript obtained from the given DNA 26. Which out of the following statements is
segment? incorrect?
5 – G C A T T C G G C T A G T A A C – 3 (1) Genetic code is ambiguous
Coding strand of DNA (2) Genetic code is degenerate
3 – C G T A A G C C G A T C A T T G – 5 (3) Genetic code is universal
Non-coding strand of DNA (4) Genetic code is non-overlapping

27. Match the following columns. (1) AUG UGA UUA AAG AAA
Column 1 Column II (2) AUG AUA UAG CCC UCA
(A) Termination (1) Aminoacyl (3) AGU UCC AGA CUC UAA
(4) AUG UAC AGU ACC UAG
tRNA synthatase
(B) Translation (2) Okazaki Regulation of Gene Expression
fragments 31. Match the list of items Column I with
Column II and select the correct option
(C) Transcription (3) release factor
from the codes given below.
(D) DNA replication (4) RNA polymerase Column I Column II
A B C D A. Operator site (i) Binding site for RNA
(1) 3 1 4 2 polymerase
(2) 4 1 3 2 B. Promoter site (ii) Binding site for
(3) 4 3 1 2 repressor molecule
(4) 2 3 1 4 C. Regulator gene (iii) Codes for protein
enzyme
28. The ribosome moves from codon to codon
D. Structural gene (iv) Codes for repressor
along the .....A..... At the end a .....B.... factor
molecule
binds to .....C..... codon, terminating
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
translation and releasing the complete (2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
polypeptide from the ribosome. (3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
Choose the correct option for A, B and C. (4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(1) A-mRNA, B-stop, C-release 32. In E. coli as per lac operon concept, the
(2) A-mRNA, B-release, C-stop product of “I” gene combines with
(3) A-tRNA, B-release, C-stop (1) Inducer gene to “Switch off” structural
genes
(4) A-tRNA, B-stop, C-release (2) Operator gene to “Switch off” structural
29. Match the following columns. genes
Column 1 Column II (3) Operator gene to “Switch on” structural
(A) tRNA (1) Linking of amino acids genes
(B) mRNA (2) Transfer of genetic (4) Regulator protein to “Switch off”
information structural genes
33. Gene regulation occurs at
(C) rRNA (3) Nucleolar
I. translational level.
organising region
II. transcriptional level.
(D) Peptidyl (4) Transfer of amino III. post transcriptional level.
transferase acid from cytoplasm IV. post translation level.
to ribosome Choose the correct combination.
A B C D A B C D (1) l and II (2) III and IV
(1) 4 2 3 1 (2) 1 4 3 2 (3) I and IV (4) I, II, III and IV
(3) 1 2 3 4 (4) 1 3 2 4 34. The cost required for sequencing the one
30. In mRNA, AUG is the initiation and UAA, base pair is ...A... than the total cost for
UAG and UGA are termination codons, sequencing the entire human genome is
therefore, the polypeptide cannot be ...B... . Here A and B refers to
synthesized beyond any of these triplets to (1) A-US $=2; B-6 billion US$
the end of mRNA. Then which of the (2) A-US $=3; B-9 billion US$
following will be translated completely? (3) A-US $=1; B-3 billion US$
(4) A-US $=6; B-18 billion US$
35. Major countries who contributed or 1) A and R are correct and R is the correct
participated in human genome project explanation of A
were 2) A and R are correct but R is not the
I. Japan II. France III. Germany correct explanation of A
IV. China 3) A is true but R is false
Choose the correct combination. 4) A is false but R is true
(1) I and II (2) II and III 39. A: Adenine and Guanine contain two C-N rings.
(3) III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV R: Adenine and Guanine are pyramidines.
36. Commonly used host for cloning in 40. A: Euchromatin is transcriptionally active part
human genome project were. of chromatin.
R: Darkly stained region of chromatin is
I. YAC (Yeast Artificial Chromosome) Euchromatin.
II. BAC (Bacterial Artificial Chromosome) 41. A: RNA is labile and easily degradable
III. PAC (Plasmic Artificial Chromosome) R: RNA is catalytic due to 2¢ - OH group in
IV. GMO ( Genetically Modified Organism) each ribonucleotide.
42. A: Retroviruses mutate and evolve faster
Choose the correct combination of given R: Retroviruses have RNA genome
options. 43. A: Replication of DNA is semiconservative.
(1) I and II (2) II and III R: During DNA replication both strands of
(3) III and IV (4) IV and I DNA act as a templates, to synthesize new
strands and the two new strands have
37. Tendem Repeat DNA
identical nucleotides.
I. is classified as microsatellites and 44. A: During replication in the nucleus two new
minisatellites. strands are synthesised in opposite direction.
II. normally does not code for any protein. R: One strand of DNA is synthesised with
III. shows polymorphism. 5' 3'
IV. is used in finger printing. polarity and the other new strand is synthesised
Choose the correct pairs of option. with 3' 5' .
45. A: DNA replication can not occur without
(1) I and III (2) I, II, and III
primer.
(3) I, III and IV (4) I, II, III and IV R: The RNA primer plays an important role as
38. The ‘‘Probes’’ used in DNA finger printing anchor during replication of DNA
technique are
46. A: Both the strands of DNA molecule are not
(1)Radioactive natural DNA/RNA with known copied at same time and in the same place during
sequences transcription.
(2)Radioactive synthetic DNA/RNA with R: The two RNA molecules, if produced
unknown sequences simultaneously would complementory to each
(3)Radioactive natural DNA/RNA with other, hence would form a double strandard
unknown sequences RNA, that will prevent translation.
47. A: In transcriptional unit the promoter is
(4)Radioactive synthetic DNA/RNA with recognised by RNA polymerase.
known sequences
R: mRNA has transcribed sequences of
Assertion & Reason Type Questions initiator codons.
In the following questions, a statement 48. A: Three types of RNA polymerases are
of assertion (1) is followed by a statement present in the nucleus of eukaryotes.
of reason (R) R: One type of RNA polymerase is present
in chloroplast and mitochondria of eukaryotes.
49. A: Heterogenous nuclear RNA is the 56. Which of the following is not a salient
precursor of m-RNA in the bacterium E.Coli
features of the Double-helix structure of
R: Polycistronic structural genes are
common in prokaryotes DNA
50. A : Once the RNA polymerase reaches the (1) If the sequence of bases in one strand is
terminator region termination of transcription
known then the sequence in other strand can
occurs
R: Terminator region inactivates RNA be predicted
polymerase. (2) The base pairing confers a very unique
51. A: In prokaryotes the process of translation property to the polynucleotide chains
may begin much before the mRNA is fully
transcribed (3) The proposition of base pairing between
R: In prokaryotes mRNA does not require the two strands of polynucleotide chains was
processing , the transcription and translation based on the observation of Maurice Wilkins
takes place in the same compartment and Rosalind Franklin
52. A: According to Francis Crick there has to
(4) If each strand from a DNA acts as a template
be a mechanism to read the genetic code and
for synthesis of a new strand, the two double
also to link genetic code to the aminoacids.
stranded DNA thus, produced would be
R: Aminoacids have no structural specialities
to read the code uniquely. identical to the parental DNA molecule.
53. A: Regulation of Lac operon is negative regulation. 57. The given figure represents the DNA
R: Lac operon is regulated by product of double helix model as proposed by Watson
gene i which binds to the operator. and Crick (1953). Select the option that
54. A: Operator gene is functional when it is not shows correct measurements of A, B and
blocked by repressor. C.
R: Regulator gene produces active protein only,
when operon is switched on in E.coli.
55. Read the following statements and choose

the correct option.
A. Nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose
sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage.
B. Phosphate group is linked to 5'-OH of a
nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.
C. Two nucleosides are linked through 3' - 5'
N-glycosidic linkage.
D. Negatively charged DNA is wrapped
around positively charged histone octamer
to form nucleosome. (1) A – 3.4 nm, B – 0.34 nm, C – 2 nm
E. The chromatin that is more densely packed (2) A – 34 nm, B – 3.4 nm, C – 20 nm
and stains dark is called euchromatin.
(1) A, B and C alone are wrong (3) A – 3.4 Å, B – 0.34 Å, C – 20 Å
(2) D alone is wrong (4) A – 34 Å, B – 3.4 Å, C – 2 Å
(3) C and E alone are wrong
(4) A alone is wrong

58. If a double stranded DNA has 20% of 62. Select an incorrect statement
cytosine, what will be the percentage of (1) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate.
adenine in it? (2) RNA mutate at a slower rate.
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 30% (4) 60% (3) Viruses having RNA genome and having
59. Select an incorrect statement shorter life span mutate and evolve faster.
(4) RNA can directly code for the synthesis
(1) DNA is the predominant genetic material
of proteins, hence can easily express the
(2) RNA performs dynamic functions of
messenger and adapter characters
(3) Stability of genetic material was very 63. Select the right statements out of the
evident in Griffith’s ‘transforming following
principle’ itself that heat, which killed the (i) Both DNA and RNA are able to
bacteria, at least did not destroy some of mutate.
the properties of genetic material. (ii) RNA being unstable, mutates at a
(4) RNA is known to be catalytic and faster rate.
unreactive (iii) RNA shows catalytic properties.
(iv) Presence of uracil (U) in place of
60. Select an incorrect statement regarding thymine (T) confers additional stability
experiments of Oswald Avery, Colin to RNA.
MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty to determine (1) (i) & (ii) (2) (ii) & (iii)
the biochemical nature of ‘transforming (3) (i) & (iv) (4) (i), (ii) & (iii)
principle’ in Griffith’s experiment 64. The process of transformation is not
(1) They purified biochemicals (proteins, affected by which of the following enzymes?
DNA, RNA, etc) from the heat-killed S A. DNase B. RNase
cells to see which ones could transform C. Peptidase D. Lipase
live R cells into S cells (1) A, B (2) A, B, C, D
(2) They discovered that DNA alone from S (3) B, C, D (4) A, B, C
bacteria caused R bacteria to become
transformed 65. Biochemical nature of the Griffith’s
(3) They discovered that proteases and RNases experiment was firstly determined by
promoted transformation I. Oswald Avery II. Colin MacLeod
(4) Digestion with DNase promoted III. Maclyn McCarty IV. Griffith’s
transformation, suggesting that the DNA V. Alfred Hershey VI. Martha Chase
caused the transformation. Choose the correct option for the given
61. Which of the following was not a statements.
observation in Hershey and Chase (1) I, II and III (2) IV, V and IV
experiments (3) II, III and IV (4) I, V and VI
(1) Bacteria which was infected with viruses
66. A being more stable is preferred for
that had radioactive DNA were
storage of genetic information. For the
radioactive
transmission of genetic information B
(2) Bacteria that were infected with viruses
is better.
that had radioactive proteins were
Choose the correct option for A & B.
radioactive.
(3) DNA was the material that passed from (1) A-RNA, B-DNA
the virus to the bacteria (2) A-Nucleosome, B-DNA
(4) Proteins did not enter the bacteria from (3) A-DNA, B-RNA
the viruses (4) A-DNA, B-Nucleosome

67. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serve 72. Select an incorrect statement
dual purposes. The purposes are (1) Splicing evolved around RNA
I. acting as substrate
(2) Protein synthesis evolved around RNA
II. acting as enzymes
III. provide energy for polymerisation (3) RNA is a unstable
IV. increase the rate of reaction. (4) DNA resists changes by evolving a process
Choose the correct option. of folding
(1) l and Il (2) II and III 73. Select an incorrect statement for a eukaryotic
(3) III and IV (4) I and III genes
68. Select an incorrect statement (1) Split-gene arrangement complicates the
definition of a gene
(1) DNA that the two strands being
complementary if separated by heating (2) Inheritance of a character is affected by
come together, when appropriate conditions regulatory sequences of a structural gene.
are provided (3) Sometime the regulatory sequences do not
(2) RNA is known to be catalytic code for any RNA or protein.
(3) thymine at the place of uracil confers (4) The structural gene in a transcription unit
additional stability to DNA could be said as monocistronic mostly in
(4) 3'-OH group present at every nucleotide prokaryotes or polycistronic mostly in
in RNA is a reactive group and makes eukaryotes
RNA easily degradable 74. Replication and transcription are easy to
69. Assuming that 50 heavy (i.e. containing conceptualise on the basis of
15
N ) DNA molecules replicated twice in a (1) complementarity (2) polarity
14
medium containing N , we expect: (3) stability (4) X-ray diffraction
(1) 100 half and 150 light DNA molecules 75. Identify the labels A, B, C and D in the
(2) 100 half heavy and half light and 100 given structure of tRNA and select the
light DNA molecules correct option.
(3) 50 heavy and 150 light DNA molecules
(4) 50 heavy and 100 light DNA molecules
70. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and
initiates transcription (Initiation). It uses
(1) Nucleoside triphosphates as substrate
(2) Nucleotide triphosphates as substrate
(3) Nucleoside monophosphates as substrate
(4) Nucleotide monophosphates as substrate (1) A-Anticodon loop, B-TC loop, C-AA
binding site, D-DHU loop
71. What happens in tailing process of
transcriptions? (2) A-AA binding site, B-TC loop, C-
Anticodon loop, D-DHU loop
(1) Adenylate residue added at 5’end of RNA
(3) A-AA binding site, B-DHU loop, C-
(2) Adenylate residue added at 3’end of RNA
Anticodon loop, D-TC loop
(3) Guanylate residue added at 5’end of RNA
(4) A-AA binding site, B-DHU loop, C-TC
(4) Guanylate residue added at 3’end of RNA loop, D-Anticodon loop

76. Which of the following is a false 80. Following are the stages in the cellular
statements? synthesis of a protein.
I. Movement of mRNA from the nucleus
(1) DNA is chemically less reactive, as
to cytoplasm.
compared to RNA
II. Linking of adjacent amino acid
(2) RNA mutate at a faster rate, as compared molecules.
to DNA III. Transcription of mRNA from a DNA
(3) Guanyltransferase enzyme helps in template.
capping process during splicing of hn- IV. Formation of the polypeptide chain.
RNA V. Attachment of the mRNA strand to a
(4) Adenylate residue added at 31 end of ribosome.
RNA In which order do these stages take place?
GENETIC CODE (1) III I V II IV
77. Select correct statement for mutations (2) I III II V IV
(3) I V III IV II
(1) The relationships between genes and
(4) III IV I II V
DNA are best understood by mutation
studies. 54. Consider the following statements
I. rRNA provides the template for synthesis
(2) Effects of large deletions and
of proteins.
rearrangements in a segment of DNA are
II. tRNA brings amino acids and reads the
not easy to comprehend.
genetic code.
(3) mutation may result in loss or gain of a III. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and
gene and so a function. initiates transcription.
(4) point mutation is a change of single base IV. A segment of DNA coding for poly-
pair in the gene peptide is called intron.
78. Which of the following is not a salient (1) I and III are correct
features of genetic code (2) I and II are correct
(1) three codons do not code for any amino (3) I, II and III are correct
acids
(4) II and III are correct
(2) unambiguous and specific
81. Which of the following factor is required
(3) code is nondegenerate.
for the protein synthesis?
(4) the codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous
I. Initiation codon
fashion
II. GTP and ATP
79. Choose the correct statement pertaining III. Peptidyl transferase
to genetic code
IV. tRNA
(1) It includes 61 codons for amino acids and
3 stop codons V. mRNA
(2) Is universal and has 3 bases per codon VI. Amino acid activating enzyme
(3) Some amino acids are coded by multiple VII. rRNA
codons Choose the correct combination.
(4) All of the above (1) I, II and III (2) III, IV and V
(3) V, VI and VII (4) All of these
82. Match the following columns. Regulation of Gene Expression
Column 1 Column II 84. The given figure shows lac operon and its
A. 5’AUG 3' (1) Segment of DNA functioning. Select the option which correctly
B. RNA with introns (2) Chromatin labels A, B, X, Y and Z.
and exon
C. Gene (3) hnRNA
D. Nucleosomes (4) Initiation codon
A B C D A B C D
(1) 4 3 1 2 (2) 4 2 1 3
(3) 2 1 4 3 (4) 2 3 1 4 (1) A-Repressor, B-Inducer
83. The following features occur during X--Galactosidase, Y-Permease,
protein synthesis: Z-Transacetylase
(2) A-Repressor, B-Inducer
(a) Movement of mRNA from the nucleus X-Permease, Y--Galactosidase,
into the cytoplasm, where it binds to the Z-Transacetylase
ribosomes (3) A-Inducer, B-Repressor
(b) Formation of tRNA-amino acid X--Galactosidase, Y-Permease,
Z-Transacetylase
complex
(4) A-Inducer, B-Repressor
(c) Transcription of specific segments of X--Galactosidase, Y-Transacetylase,
DNA into mRNA molecules in the Z- Permease
nucleus 85. Lactose operon produces enzymes
(1)  -galactosidase, permease and glycogen
(d) Binding of N-terminal amino acid,
synthetase
methionine tRNA to the ‘P’ site of the
(2)  -galactosidase, permease and
ribosome. The tRNA anticodon ‘pairs
transacetylase
with AUG on mRNA’
(3)Permease, glycogen synthetase and
(e) Formation of peptide bond between transacetylase
first and second amino acids at the A (4)  -galactosidase, phosphoglucose,
site
isomerase and permease
(f) Release of the complete polypeptide 86. Repressor in lac operon model is
chain from mRNA and the ribosomes I. product of structural genes
II. lactose III. a protein
(g) Migration of dipeptide to form a
IV. product of regulatory or i-gene
tripeptide and then a polypeptide
Choose the correct combination
The correct order of events is: (1) l and II (2) II and III
(1) c,b,a,e,f and g (3) I and IV (4) III and IV
(2) a,b,c,d,e,f and g 87. Human genome project was coordinated by
(1) Europian Department of Energy
(3) c, a, b, e, d, f and g
(2) Us Department of Energy
(4) c, a, b, d, e, g and f (3) National institute of health
(4) Both (b) and (c)
88. Steps in sequencing Human Genome (3) A-Restriction endonuclease,
project (HGP) are B-Electrophoresis,
I. isolation of total DNA C- Labelled VNTR probe,
II. cloning in suitable vectors. D- Nitrocellulose or nylon,
III. sequence arrangement by computer. E-Autoradiography
IV. formation of physical and genetic (4) A-Restriction endonuclease,
maps.
B-Electrophoresis,
V. converting the fragments
C- Nitrocellulose or nylon,
VI. using automated sequencer.
D- Autoradiography
VII. using restriction endonuclease.
E-Labelled VNTR probe
VIII. completition of human genome
sequencing. 90. Match the following columns.
Arrange the steps. Column I Column II
(1) I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII A. Southern blotting 1. Protein
(2) I, V, II, VI, III, VII, IV, VIII B. Northern blotting 2. DNA
(3) I, II, V, VI, III, IV, VIII, VII C. Western blotting 3. RNA
(4) I, II, V, VI, III, VII, VIII, IV Codes :
89. Steps in DNA fingerprinting are A B C A B C
Isolation of DNA (1) 3 1 2 (2) 2 3 1
 (3) 1 2 3 (4) 1 3 2
Digestion of DNA by A 91. Which of the following sequence of steps
is correct in DNA fingerprinting?

(1)Southern blotting, Electrophoresis,
Separation of DNA by B Hybridisation, Autoradiography
 (2)Autoradiography, Electrophoresis,
Transfering of DNA to C Hybridisation, Southern blotting
 (3)Electrophoresis, Southern blotting,
Hybridisation, Autoradiography
DNA hybridisation using D
(4)Hybridisation, Southern blotting,

Electrophoresis, Autoradiography
Detecting of hybridised DNA by E Assertion & Reason Type Questions
Complete the accompanying flow chart. In the following questions, a statement of
A,B,C,D and E in the flow chart are assertion (1) is followed by a statement of
(1) A-Restriction endonuclease, reason (R)
B-Electrophoresis, 1) A and R are correct and R is the correct
C- Nitrocellulose or nylon, explanation of A
2) A and R are correct but R is not the
D- Labelled VNTR probe,
correct explanation of A
E-Autoradiography 3) A is true but R is false
(2) A-Electrophoresis, 4) A is false but R is true
B-Restriction endonuclease, 92. A: Central dogma of molecular biology is
C- Nitrocellulose or nylon, broadly a two step process
D- Labelled VNTR probe, R:In central dogma of molecular biology, both
transcription and translation occur inside the
E-Autoradiography
nucleus

93. A: DNA is called store house of genetic this would prevent RNA from being
information.
translated into protein
R: DNA is the carrier of genetic information
103.A: The transcription and translation can be
from parent to offspring.
coupled in bacteria.
94. A:RNA is more reactive and structurally less
stable than DNA. R: In bacteria transcription occurs in
R: The ‘OH’ group present at 2nd position nucleoplasm and translation occurs in
of ribose sugar in each nucleotide of RNA is cytoplasm
more reactive and it has 5-methyl uracil 104.A: Genetic code is non overlapping.
which also promotes unstability. R:Three successive nucleotides of mRNA
95. A: The replication of DNA in E.coli completes form one codon and they don’t form a part
in 38 minutes.
R: The time taken for the completion of a of next codon
binary fission in E.coli is 38 minutes. 105.A: Lac Operon has one terminator sequence.
96. A: RNA primer is required for initiation of R: It has only one structural gene.
DNA replication 106.A: The structural genes of Lac operon are
R: Primer is required for the formation of transcribed with the availability of Lactose
leading strand only only.
97. A: The newly formed DNA strands are
R: Lac Operon has one terminate sequence.
similar to each other.
R: The newly formed daughter DNA
molecules are replicas to each other.
98. A: For long DNA molecules the two strands CRTQ:01. (1)02. (1)03. (3)04. (3)05. (4)
of DNA cannot be separated in its entire length
during replication 06. (3) 07. (3) 08. (4) 09. (1) 10. (1)
R: Separation of two strands of DNA for 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (4)
entire length leads to requirement of high 16. (1) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (3)
energy. 21. (3) 22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (2) 25. (4)
99. A: Monocistronic mRNA is absent in 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2) 29. (1) 30. (4)
prokarytes.
31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4)
R: Transcriptional product of Lac operon is
36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (3)
polycistronic.
100.A: UTRs (Untranslated regions) are required 41. (3) 42. (1) 43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (1)
for efficient translation process. 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (4) 50. (3)
R: The codon sequence on processed 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (1) 54. (3)
eukaryotics mRNA begins with a purine and
SPQ: 55. (3) 56. (3) 57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (4)
ends with purine.
60. (4) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (4) 64. (3)
101.A:  and  factors are essential for
transcriptioin 65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (4) 68. (4) 69. (2)
R:  factor helps in initiation and  factor 70. (1) 71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (2)
helps in termination of transcription 75. (2) 76. (3) 77. (2) 78. (3) 79. (4)
102.A: If two RNA molecules are formed from 80. (1) 81. (4) 82. (4) 83. (1) 84. (4)
both the strands of DNA segment the 85. (1) 86. (2) 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (2)
exercise of transcription would become a 90. (1) 91. (2) 92. (3) 93. (3) 94. (1)
futile one
95. (3) 96. (3) 97. (3) 98. (4) 99. (1)
R: These two RNA molecules being
100. (2) 101. (2)102. (2)103. (1)104.(3)
complementary would form a dsRNA and
105.(1) 106.(3) 107.(2)
46. During transcription complete DNA and
both the strands are not transcribed. Only
a segment of DNA and only one poly-
7. (3) Viruses grown on radio active sulfur nucleotide strand is transcribed.
contained radio active protein but not 47. The promoter site DNA is recognised ‘  ’
radio active DNA. factor of RNA polymerase.mRNA contains
12. (2) Essential life processes evolved initiator codon.
around RNA. 48. In eukaryotes transcription involves three
14. (1) In the first generation (20 minutes) types of RNA polymerases(i.e, RNA poly-
merase I,II and III). Transcription in chloro-
both the molecules are hybrid (14N15N) In
plast and mitochondria are similar like
the second generation 2 molecules are
prokaryotes.Entire transcription process is
hybrid (14N15N) & 2 molecules are light catalysed by only one RNA polymerase en-
(14N14N) zyme.
15. (4) DNA polymerase catalyses
49. hn RNA is not formed in prokaryotes.
polymeriazation in 5|  3| direction
50. ‘  ’ factor of RNA polymerase enzyme
19. (4) Template stand (5|  3| ) is transcribed.
recognises terminator sequences and re-
Hence transcript is formed 5|  3| direc-
leases RNA polymerase from DNA.But
tion. DNA dependent RNA polymerase
RNA
catalyses always in 5|  3| direction.
22. (1) Non coding strand of DNA is transcribed. polymerase is not inactivated.
26. (1) Genetic code is unambiguous that means 51. Prokaryotic mRNA is homogenous (not a split
codon codes for specific amino acid. gene).It contains only exons, introns are ab-
30. (4) AUG is initiating codon present on sent. Hence processing is not require.Because
mRNA as first codon and UAG is placed as of this translation initiates before completion
last codon hence complete polypeptide is of transcription.Absence of nuclear membrane
synthesised. around the nuclear material is also useful for
initiation of translation before completion of
Assertion & Reason
39. Adenine and Guanine are not pyrimdines transcription.
they are purines. 52. t-RNA is structural useful to read and
40. Euchromatin contains active genes.Darkly transilate the genetic information on
stained region of chromatin contains inac- mRNA.But amino acids have no structural
tive genes.Hence it is called as heterochro- specialities to read the
matin.
41. RNA easily degradable, because it is more re- genetic code.
active due to the presence of OH on 21 car- 53. When lac operon is regulated by repressor
bon of ribose sugar.But it is not acting as catalyst protein it is called as negative regulation. Re-
due to the presence of OH on 21 carbon. pressor protein is produced by gene-‘i’.
42. RNA is more reactive then DNA,hence it mu-
54. Regulator gene always working at low
tates faster than DNA.
consentration,whether substrate is available or
43. During replication the newly synthesized strands
have complementary nitrogen bases hence R not.
is false. 58. (3) C  G C+G=40%
44. Synthesis of any new polynucleotide strands 20%=20% A+T=60%
occurs only in 5' 3' . A=T  A=30%
45. RNA primer is useful for initiation of new poly- 59. (4) RNA is known to be catalytic and
nucleotide strand synthesis during DNA reactive due to presence of OH| at 2C of
replication.It acts as a anchor for addition ribose sugar.
of new nucleotide during chain initiation. 62. (2) RNA mutate at a faster rate

69. (2) In the first generation : with purine.But it is not useful for efficient
No of molecules =100 all are hybrid translation.
(14N15N) 102. ‘  ’ and ‘  ’ factors are the components
In the second generation : of RNA polymerase. They are useful for
no. of molecules = 200 initiation and termination of polynucleotide
100 mol. hybrid (14N15N), 100 mol. light chain.
DNA (14N14N) 104. In bacteria both transcription & translation
78. (3) code is degenerate that means one occur in cytoplasm.Because due to the ab-
codon codes for more than one amino sence of nuclear membrane and interior
acids. of cell is not compartmentalized before
81. (4) mRNA provides the template for completion of transcription, translation is
synthesis of proteins. A segment of DNA initiated.
coding for polypeptide is called cistron. 105. Nitrogen bases of a codon never shared by
87. (4) A repressor protein which is made up its adjuscent codons.Hence genetic code is
of regulatory gene (or) i gene. non overlapping.
Assertion & Reason 106. Lac operon shows three structural genes and
93. In eukaryotes transcription occurs in nucleus, one terminator sequence.
translation in cytoplasm.But prokaryotes
both in cytoplasm. 107. Lactose is acting as a inducer for lac operon.
94. DNA is genetic material in most of the When it is available lac operon is switched
organisms,it is transfered to the offsprings on.
during reproduction.
95. 5-methyl uracil is nothing but thymine and
is absent in RNA.
96. Time duration required for both replication
of DNA and binnary fission are not
same.Total duration required for cell
division(binnary fission) is more than that
of time required for replication.
97. Primer is required for the formation of both 1. The Okazaki fragments during DNA chain
leading & lagging strands. growth
98. Newly formed DNA strands are complemen-
tary to each other.But two daughter DNA (1) polymerize in the 3  to  5 direction and
molecules are repicas with each other. Be- forms replication fork
cause replication is semi conservative type and (2) prove semi conservative nature of DNA
follows complimentary base pair rule. replication
99. For the synthesis of polynucleotide strands (3) polymerize in the 5  to  3 direction and
on template strand of entire length of DNA explain 3  to  5 DNA replication
requires more amount of energy in the form
of deoxy ribonucleoside triphospate.Due (4) result in transcription
to non-availability of higher energy at time 2. The length of DNA molecule greatly
DNA uncoiling occurs to a limited length. exceeds the dimensions of the nucleus in
100. In prokaryotes genes are polycistronic.Lac the eukaryotic cells. How is this DNA
operon shows more than one structural gene accomodated?
(i.e.lacz,y,a ). (1) Super coiling in nucleosomes
101. Processed eukaryotic mRNA, due to cap- (2) DNase digestion
ping with methyl guanosine and tailing
with polyadenine chain it begans and ends (3) Through elimination of repetitive DNA
(4) Deletion of non-essential genes

3. During transcription, RNA polymerase 9. Which one of the following pairs is
holoenzyme binds to a gene promotor and correctly matched with regard to the codon
assumes a saddle-like structure. What is and the amino acid coded by it?
it’s DNA binding sequence?
(1) AATT (2) CACC (1) UUA-Valine (2) AAA-Lysine
(3) TATA (4) TTAA (3) AUG-Cysteine (4) CCC-Alanine
4. One gene-one enzyme relationship was UPCPMT 2008
established for the first time in
(1) Salmonella typhimurium 10. An eukaryotic gene contains two kinds
(2) Escherichia coli of base sequences. Which of these plays
(3) Diplococcus pneumoniae an important role in protein synthesis?
(4) Neurospora crassa (1) Introns (2) Exons
5. Molecular basis of organ differentiation (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None
depends on the modulation in
DUMET 2008
transcription by
(1) ribosome (2) transcription factor 11. The number of punctuation codons in a
(3) anticodon (4) RNA polymerase genetic code are
6. What is not true for genetic code? (1) 2 +3 =5 (2) 1 + 3 = 4
(1) It is degenerate (3) 1 + 1 = 2 (4) 3
(2) It is unambiguous 12. The process of reverse transcription was
(3) A codon in mRNA is read in a non discovered by
contiguous fashion
(1) Temin and Baltimore
(4) It is nearly universal
(2) Watson and Crick
AFMC 2008
(3) Alfred Hershey
7. Heavy DNA can be differentiated from
(4) None of the above
normal DNA by which centrifugation
technique? 13. The process of joining of amino acids is
called
(1) AgCl density gradient
(2) CaSO4 density gradient (1) transcription (2) translation
(3) CsCl density gradient (3) conjugation (4) none
(4) KCl density gradient KECT 2008
AIIMS 2008 14. The sequence of events mentioned below
8. Assertion: Replication and transcription are symbolised by alphabets. Choose the
occur in the nucleus but translation occurs correct answer where the alphabets are
in the cytoplasm. matched with the processes
Reason: mRNA is transferred from the RNA 
A
 DNA 
B
 DNA 
C
 mRNA
nucleus into the cytoplasm where 
D
 Polypeptide
ribosomes and amino acids are available
(1) A-Replication, B-Transformation,
for protein synthesis
C-Transcription, D-Translation
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation (2) A-Reverse Transcription, B-Replication,
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and C-Transcription, D-Translation
But Reason is not the correct explanation (3) A - R e p l i c a t i o n , B - Tr a n s c r i p t i o n ,
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false C-Translation, D-Transduction
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) A-Reverse Transcription, B-Replication,
C-Transcription, D-Replication
EAMCET 2008 (iii) The z-gene codes for permease
(iv) This was elucidated by Francis Jacob
15. Identify the triplet codons, which code for and Jacque Monod
the amino acids serine and proline. (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
I. UCC II. CCA (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)
III. AAG IV. GGG 20. Which one of the following does not follow
(1) I and III (2) II and IV the central dogma of molecular biology?
(3) III and IV (4) I and II (1) Chlamydomonas (2) HIV
KECT 2009 (3) Pea (4) Mucor
21. Which one of the following palindromic
16. When DNA replication starts base sequences in DNA can be easily cut
(1) The leading strand produces okazaki at about the middle by some particular
fragments restriction enzyme?
(2) The hydrogen bonds between the (1) 5’-----GAATTC------3’
nucleotides of two strands break 3’-----CTTAAG------5’
(3) The phosphodiester bonds between the (2) 5’-----GACGTA------3’
adjacent nucleotides break 3’-----GTCAGT------5’
(4) The bonds between the nitrogen base (3) 5’-----CGTTCG------3’
and deoxyribose sugar base break 3’-----ATGGTA------5’
17. Compare the statements A and B (4) 5’-----GATATG------3’
Statement A : A monocistronic mRNA can 3’-----CTACTA------5’
produce several types of polypeptide CBSE 2010
chains. 22. Which one of the following statements
Statement B: The terminator codon is about the particular entity is true?
present on the mRNA. (1) Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides
Select the correct description: (2) DNA consists of a core of eight histones
(1) Both the statements A and B are wrong (3) Centromere is found in animal cells, which
(2) Statement A is correct and B is wrong produces aster during cell division
(3) Statement A is wrong and B is correct (4) The gene for producing insulin is present
(4) Both the statements A and B are correct in every body cell
23. The 3'-5' phosphodiester linkages inside
WB JEE 2009; DPMT 2009 a polynucleotide chain serve to join :
18. mRNA directs the building of proteins (1) One nucleotide with another nucleotide
through a sequence of (2) One nitrogenous base with pentose sugar.
(1) exons (2) introns (3) One DNA strand with the other DNA
(3) codons (4) anticodons strand
(4) One nucleoside with another nucleoside
CBSE PRE 2010
24. The lac operon consists of :
19. Select the two correct statements out of (1) Two regulatory genes and two structural
the four (i–iv) given below about lac genes
operon. (2) Three regulatory genes and three structural
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with genes
the repressor and inactivate it (3) Four regulatory genes only
(ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor (4) One regulatory gene and three structural
binds with the operator region genes
DPMT 2010 HP PMT 2010
25. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide in 32. DNA fingerprinting has application in the
not having: field of
(1) Sugar (2) Glucose (1) Forensic Science
(3) Nitrogen base (4) Phosphate group (2) Genetic Biodiveristy
(3) Evolutionary Biology (4) All the above
26. If the total amount of adenine and thymine
in a double-stranded DNA is 45%, the 33. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic
amount of guanine in this DNA will be : material came from the studies on a
(1) Bacterium (2) Fungus
(1) 22.5% (2) 27.5%
(3) Viroid (4) Bactereophase
(3) 45% (4) 55%
CBSE MAINS 2011
27. Okazaki is known for his contribution to
34. Which one of the following also acts as a
the understanding of : catalyst in a bacterial cell?
(1) Transcription (2) Translation (1) 5 S rRNA (2) snRNA
(3) DNA replication (4) Mutation (3) hnRNA (4) 23 S rRNA
28. The beginning of understanding genetic AMU MEDICAL 2011
transformation in bacteria was made by: 35. If the length of a double helical DNA is
(1) Frederick Griffith 1.7 meters. The number of base pairs
present in the DNA is
(2) Hershey and Chase
(1) 51 (2) 1.7 (3) 3.4 (4) 1.7
(3) Watson and Crick (4) T.H. Morgan
CHANDIGARH CET 2011
29. The long and short arms of chromosome 36. Prokaryotes can be distinguished from
are designated respectively as : eukaryotes as they lack
(1) p and q arms (2) q and p arms (1) RNA
(3) m and p arms (4) l and s arms (2) Ribosomes
30. The major cause of evolution of genes and (3) Gene discontinuity
protein is : (4) Unique DNA sequence
(1) point mutation 37. The enzyme that is used to make the first
strand of cDNA from mRNA is
(2) chromosomal aberration
(1) Restriction endonuclease
(3) sexual reproduction
(2) Reverse transcriptase
(4) gene duplication and divergence (3) DNA polymerase (4) T4 DNA ligase
31. What will be the correct gene expression 38. The part of protein coding gene that is
pathway? translated into protein is called
(1) G e n e —m R N A — t r a n s c r i p t i o n —
(1) Primary transcript (2) Exons
translation—protein
(2) Transcription—Gene—translation— (3) Open reading frames
mRNA—protein (4) Antisense strand
(3) G e n e — t r a n s c r i p t i o n —mRNA — HP PMT 2011
translation—protein 39. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was
(4) G e n e — t r a n s l a t i o n — m R N A — initially developed by
transcription—protein (1) Watson and Crick (2) Alec Jeffreys
(3) H.G. Khorana (4) Bateson and Punnett

CBSE MAIN 2012 represenation of one of the categories of
40. Which one of the following represents a small moleculear weight organic
palindromic sequence in DNA? compounds in the living tissues. Identify
(1) 5  CATTAG  3 , 3  GATAAC  5 the category shown and the one blank
(2) 5  GATACC  3 , 3  CCTAAG  5 component “X” in it.
(3) 5  GAATTC  3 , 3  CTTAAG  5
(4) 5  CCAATG  3 , 3  GAATCC  5
41. What is it that forms the basis of DNA
fingerprinting?
(1) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges
and grooves of the fingerprints
(2) Satellite DNA occuring as highly repeated Category Component
short DNA segments (1) Amino acid NH2
(3) The relative proportions of purines and (2) Nucleotide Adenine
pyrimidines in DNA (3) Nucleoside Uracil
(4) The relative difference in the DNA
(4) Cholesterol Guanine
occurence in blood, skin and saliva
42. Read the following four statements (A-D) 46. Removal of RNA polymerase III from
(A) In transcription, adenine pairs with uracil nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of
(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is (1) hn RNA (2) mRNA
referred to as positive regulation (3) rRNA (4) tRNA
(C) The human genome has approximately 47. Which one of the following is not a part of
50000 genes a transcription unit in DNA?
(D) Haemophilia is a sex linked recessive (1) A terminator (2) A promoter
disease
How many of the above statements are right? (3) The structural gene (4) The inducer
(1) Four (2) One (3) Two (4) Three 48. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
43. Which one of the following is a wrong (1) Nucleolus (2) Nucleoplasm
statement regarding mutations? (3) Ribosomes (4) Lysosomes
(1) UV and Gamma rays are mutagens 49. Removal of introns and joining of exons
(2) Change in a single base pair of DNA does during transcription is called
not cause mutation
(1) Inducing (2) Slicing
(3) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause
frameshift mutation (3) Splicing (4) Looping
(4) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal NEET 2013
aberrations 50. The diagram shows an important concept
CBSE PRELIMS 2012 in the genetic implication of DNA. Fill in
44. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous the blanks A to C.
base sequence as ATCTG, what would be DNA 
A
 mRNA 
B
 protein 
Pr oposed by

C
the complementary RNA strand
sequence? (1) UAGAC (1) A-translation B-transcription C-Ervin Chargaff
( 2 )
AACTG (2) A-transcription B-translation C-Francis Crick
(3) ATCGU (4) TTAGU (3) A-translation B-extension C-Rosalind Franklin
45. Given below is the diagrammatic (4) A-transcription B-replication C-James Watson

AIPMT 2015
51. DNA fragments generated by the restriction
56. Which of the following biomolecules does
endonucleases in a chemical reaction can
have a phosphodiester bond?
be separated by:
(1) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
(1) Polymerase chain reaction (2) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
(2) Electrophoresis (3) Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide
(3) Restriction mapping (4) Amino acids in a polypeptide
57. Identify the correct order of organisation
(4) Centrifugation
of genetic material from largest to
52. Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell smallest:
in which there is a nonsense mutation in (1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
the lac Y gene ? (2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(1) Lactose permease (3) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(2) Transacetylase (4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
58. Which one of the following is not
(3) Lactose permease and transacetylase applicable to RNA ?
(4)  - galactosidase (1) Chargaff’s rule
(2) Complementary base pairing
AIPMT 2014
(3) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends
53. Select the correct option : (4) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases
Direction Direction of 59. Satellite DNA is important because it:
reading (1) codes for enzymes needed for DNA
of RNA of the template replication.
(2) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle.
synthesis DNA strand
(3) shows high degree of polymorphism in
(1) 3------ 5 3------ 5 population and also the same degree of
(2) 5------ 3 3------ 5 polymorphism in an individual, which is
(3) 3------ 5 5------ 3 heritable from parents to children.
(4) does not code for proteins and is same in
(4) 5------ 3 5------ 3
all members of the population.
54. Which one of the following is wrongly 60. Gene regulation governing lac operon of
matched? E. coli that involves the lac I gene product
(1) Operon - Structural genes, operator and is:
promoter (1) negative and repressible because repressor
(2) Transcription - Writing information from protein prevents transcription
DNA to t-RNA (2) feedback inhibition because excess of  -
(3) Translation - Using information in m- galactosidase can switch off transcription
RNA to make protein (3) positive and inducible because it can be
induced lactose
(4) Repressor protein - Binds to operator to
(4) negative and inducible because repressor
stop enzyme synthesis
protein prevents transcription
55. Transformation was discovered by
NEET 2016
(1) Watson and Crick
61. Which of the following is required as
(2) Meselson and Stahl inducer(s) for the expression of Lac
(3) Hershey and Chase operon?
(4) Griffith (1) glucose (2) galactose
(3) lactose (4) lactose and galactose

62. A complex of ribosomes attached to a NEET 2017
single strand of RNA is known as : 71. The final proof of DNA as the genetic
(1) Polysome (2) Polymer material came from the experiments of
(3) Polypeptide (4) Okazaki fragment
63. Which of the following is not required for (1) Hershey and Chase
any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting (2) Avery, Mcleod and Mc Carty
available at present?
(3) Hargobind Khorana
(1) Polymerase chain reaction
(2) Zinc finger analysis (4) Griffith
(3) Restriction enzyme 72. DNA fragments are:
(4) DNA - DNA hybridization
(1) Negatively charged (2) Neutral
64. Which of the following statements is not
true for cancer cells in relation to (3) Either positively or negatively charged
mutation? depending on their size
(1) Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate (4) Positively charged
the cell cycle
(2) Mutation destroy telomerase inhibitor 73. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that
(3) Mutations inactivate the cell control codes for a protein with 333 amino acids,
(4) Mutations inhibit production of and the base at position 901 is deleted
telomerase such that the length of the RNA becomes
65. Which one of the following is the starter 998 bases, How many codons will be
codon?
altered?
(1) AUG (2) UGA
(3) UAA (4) UAG (1) 11 (2) 33 (3) 333 (4) 1
66. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is 74. During DNA replication, okazaki
(1) deoxyribonuclease (2) lysozyme fragments are used to elongate
(3) ribozyme (4) ligase
67. The equivalent of a structural gene is (1) The lagging strand towards replication
(1) recon (2) muton fork.
(3) cistron (4) operon (2) The leading strand away from
68. Which of the following rRNAs acts as replication fork
structural RNA as well as ribozyme in
(3) The lagging strand away from the
bacteria?
(1) 5.8 S rRNA (2) 5 S rRNA replication fork
(3) 18 S rRNA (4) 23 S rRNA (4) The leading strand towards replication
69. A molecules that can act as a genetic fork.
material must fulfill the traits given below,
75. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of:
except
(1) it should provide the scope for slow (1) Fungi (2) Animals
changes that are required for evolution (3) Bacteria (4) Plants
(2) it should be able to express itself in the 76. The association of histone H1 with a
form of ‘Mendelian characters’
nucleosome indicates
(3) it should be able to generate its replica
(4) it should be unstable structurally and (1) DNA replication is occuring
chemically (2) The DNA is condensed into a
70. DNA dependent RNA polymerase Chromatin fibre
catalyzes transcription on one strand of
the DNA which is called the (3) The DNA double helix is exposed
(1) antistrand (2) template strand (4) Transcription occuring
(3) coding strand (4) alpha strand
NEET 2018
77. The experimental proof for semi 5'AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3'
conservative replication of DNA was first 1) Insertion of G at 5th position
shown in a 2) Deletion of G from G 5th position
(1) Fungus (2) Bacterium
3) Insertion of A at G at 4th and 5th positions
(3) Plant (4) Virus
respectively
78. Select the correct statement :
(1) Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage". 4) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th
(2) Punnett square was developed by a positions
British scientist. 84. Match the following genes of the Lac
(3) Spliceosomes take part in translation. operon with their respective products.
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. (a) i gene (i) -galactosidase
Altman.
(b) z gene (ii) Permease
79. Select the correct match :
(1) Alec Jeffreys — Streptococcus (c) a gene (iii) Repressor
pneumoniae (d) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
(2) Alfred Hershey and — TMV Martha (a) (b) (c) (d)
Chase (1) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) Matthew Meselson — Pisum sativum and
F. Stahl (2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) Francois Jacob and — Lac operon Jacques (3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Monod (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
80. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the NEET 2020
coding strand of a gene. What will be the
85. Which of the following statements is
corresponding sequence of the transcribed
mRNA ? correct?
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU (1) Adenine does not pair with thymine
(2) UGGTUTCGCAT (2) Adenine pairs with thymine through two
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU H-bonds
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA (3) Adenine pairs with thymine through one
H-bond
81. All of the following are part of an operon
except (4) Adenine pairs with thymine through
(1) an operator (2) structural genes three H-bonds
(3) an enhancer (4) a promoter 86. The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA
occurs in:
NEET 2019
82. Purines found both in DNA and RNA (1) Ribosomes (2) Golgi apparatus
are: (3) Microbodies (4) Nucleolus
1) Adenine and thymine 87. In a mixture, DNA fragments are
2) Adenine and guanine separated by :-
3) Guanine and cytosine (1) Bioprocess engineering
4) Cytosine and thymine
(2) Restriction digestion
83. Under which of the following conditions will
there be no change in the reading frame (3) Electrophoresis
of following mRNA ? (4) Polymerase chain reaction

88. E. coli has only 4.6 x 106 base pairs and
completes the process of replication
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (4)
within 18 minutes; then the average rate 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (2)
of polymerisation is approximately- 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (2) 15. (4)
(1) 2000 base pairs/second 16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2)
21. (1) 22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (4)
36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (3)
46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (3) 50. (2)
89. Which is the basis of genetic mapping 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (4)
of human genome as well as DNA finger 56. (1) 57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (4)
printing? 61. (3) 62. (1) 63. (2) 64. (4) 65. (1)
(1) Polymorphism in DNA sequence 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (4) 69. (4) 70. (2)
71. (1) 72. (1) 73. (2) 74. (3) 75. (3)
(2) Single nucleotide polymorphism 76. (2) 77. (2) 78.(2) 79. (4) 80.(1)
81.(3) 82. (2) 83.(4) 84. (3) 85.(2)
(3) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence
86. (4) 87.(3) 88.(1) 89. (1) 90.(4)
(4) Polymorphism in RNA sequence 91. (1) 92.(4)
90. If the distance between two consecutive
base pairs is 0.34 nm and the total
number of base pairs of a DNA double
helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 2. (2) Packaging of DNA by supercoiling in
x 109 bp, then the length of the DNA is nucleosomes
approximately : 6. (3) A codon in mRNA is read in a
(1) 2.7 meters (2) 2.0 meters contigous fashion
10. (2) Exons are expressed sequences
(3) 2.5 meters (4) 2.2 meters 11. (2) 1+3 = 4 (one initiating codon AUG
91. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening and 3 stop codons UAA, UAG, UGA
of DNA helix during transcription. 17 (3) A monocitronic mRNA can produce
one type of polypeptide chain
(1) RNA polymerase 19. (4) Lactose may bind with the repressor
(2) DNA ligase and inactivate it. The ‘Z’-gene for  -
galactosidase
(3) DNA helicase 20 (2) HIV Genetic material is RNA
(4) DNA polymerase 26 (2) A+T = 45% hence G+C = 55%
92. The first phase of translation is :  G  27.5%
(G  C )
(1) Recognition of an anti-codon
45 (3)Ribose sugar having OH’ at 2C of
(2) Binding of mRNA to ribosome pentose sugar and uracil (nitrogen base) is
(3) Recognition of DNA molecule present at 1C of ribose sugar
73. If length mRNA having 999 bases it codes
(4) Aminoacylation of tRNA for 333 amino acids if there is chang in 901
base postion it alters sequence of 33 amino
acids

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

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CHAPTER

CONTENTS NEET SYLLABUS

 Introduction  Search for genetic material

 Genetic Code  Genetic code,

163 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 164

165 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

* Each polynucleotide strand is a polymer of nucleotides

167 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

The flow of genetic information

is DNA RNA Protein

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 168

3. DNA as an acidic substance present in

169 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

BIOCHEMICAL CHARACTERIZATION OF TRANSFORMING PRINCIPLE

173 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

THE GENETIC MATERIAL IS DNA

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 174

175 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

6. Role of DNA in heredity was discovered

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 176

177 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

THE EXPERIMENTAL PROOF

Fig : Messelson and Stahl’s Experiment

179 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 180

181 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 182

TRANSCRIPTION UNIT AND THE GENE

183 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 184

185 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 186

DEGENERACY OF THE GENETIC CODE

Phenylalanine --- UUU , UUC 2

Isoleusine ---- AUU, AUC, AUA 3

Valine, Proline, threonine, alanine, glycine. 4

187 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

CUA Leusine Threonine

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 188

189 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 190

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 192

193 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 194

195 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

REGULATIUON OF GENE EXPRESSION

197 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

CRTQ: 01.(4) 02.(1)

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 198

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 200

201 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

55. Read the following statements and choose

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 204

205 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE

MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE 206

209 MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE