SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS, INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
SEC: SR AIIMS S60 DATE: 14-05-20
SUB: PHYSICS JIPMER GRAND TEST - 1 Max. Marks: 200

1. Which one of the following waves cannot be polarized

a) X-Rays b) Light waves c) E.M waves d) Sound waves

2. Two radioactive materials X1 and X 2 contain same number of nuclei. If 6λ s −1 and 4 λs −1

are the decay constants of X1 and X 2 respectively, the ratio of number of nuclei undecayed of

X1 to that of X 2 will be (1 e ) after a time

1 1 1 1
a) s b) s c) s d) s
2λ 10λ 5λ λ
3. In Young’s experiment the slits are illuminated by red and blue lights. The wavelength of red
light is 7800 A0 and that of blue light is 5200 A0. The value of ‘n’ for which (n + 1)th blue band
coincides with nth red band is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
4. Of the following particles which will have the smallest frequency of revolution when projected
with the same velocity normal to the lines of induction of a uniform magnetic field
a) Electron b) proton c) deuteron d) He+
5. What is the cause of Green house effect?
a) Infra-red rays b) Ultra violet rays c) X-rays d) Radio waves
6. A particle is set moving with KE equal to E straight up an inclined plane with angle θ, the
coefficient of friction being µ . The work done against friction before the particle comes to
rest is

Eµ cos θ Eµ sin θ E cos θ E 2µ cos θ

a) b) c) d)
sin θ + µ cos θ cos θ + µ sin θ sin θ + µ cos θ sin θ
7. A ring starts to roll down the inclined plane of height h without slipping. The velocity with
which it reaches the ground is

4 gh 4 gh
a) gh b) c) d) 2 gh
7 3
8. A conductor of area of cross section 100cm 2 and length 1 cm has coefficient of thermal

conductivity 0.75cals −1cm −1K − 1 . If 3000 cal of heat flows through the conductor per second,

the temperature difference across the conductor is

a) 40°C b) 60°C c) 80°C d) 100°C

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9. The load versus elongation graphs for four wires of same length and made of the same
material are shown in the figure. The thinnest wire is represented by the line

D
C
B

Load
A

O
Elongation
a) OA b) OC c) OD d) OB
10. A transformer is used to light a 100W and 110V lamp from a 220V main supply. If the main
current is 0.5A, then the efficiency of the transformer is nearly
a) 95 % b) 100% c) 91% d) 85%
11. Which of the following processes play a part in the formation of a rainbow ?
(i) Refraction (ii) Total internal reflection
(iii) Dispersion (iv) Interference
a) (iii) and (iv) b) (i) and (ii) c) (i), (ii) and (iv) d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
12. The velocity of certain ions that pass undeflected through crossed electric field E = 7.7 kV m
and magnetic field B = 0.14 T is
a) 18 km s b) 77 m s c) 55 km s d) 1078 km s
13. Following diagram performs the logic function of

a) NAND gate b) AND gate c) OR gate d) XOR gate

14. A rigid container with thermally insulated walls contains a coil of resistance 100 Ω , carrying
current 1A. Change in internal energy after 5 minute will be
a) 0 kJ b) 10 kJ c) 20 kJ d) 30 kJ
15. Sand is being dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of 2 kg per second. The force necessary

to keep the belt moving with a constant speed of 3ms −1 will be

a) 12 N b) 6N c) zero d) 18 N
16. The tolerance level of a resistor with the colour code red, blue, orange, gold is
a) ± 5% b) ± 10% c) ± 20% d) ± 40%

17. A car is fitted with a convex side – view mirror of focal length 20 cm. A second car 2.8m
behind the first car is overtaking the first car at a relative speed of 15 m s . The speed of the
image of the second car as seen in the mirror of the first one is
1 1
a) ms b) ms c) 10 m s d) 15 m s
10 15
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18. What is the refractive index of a prism whose angle A = 60° and angle of minimum deviation
d m = 30° ?
1 1
a) 2 b) c) 1 d)
2 3
19. A circular coil of radius 2R is carrying current I. The ratio of magnetic fields at the centre of
coil and at a point at a distance 6R from centre of coil on axis of coil is
a) 10 b) 10 10 c) 20 5 d) 20 10
20. A boat crosses a river of width 1 km in shortest path in 15 minutes. If the speed of boat in still
water is 5 km h , then what is the speed of the river ?
a) 1km h b) 3km h c) 2 km h d) 5 km h
21. Two bodies A and B of mass m and 2m respectively are placed on a smooth floor. They are
connected by a mass less spring. A third body C of mass m is placed on the floor. The body C
moves with a velocity υ 0 along the line joining A and B and collides elastically with A. At a
certain time after the collision it is found that the compression of the spring is x0 . The spring
constant K will be
C A B

m m m

2
mυ a 2 mυ a 2mυ a 2m  υ0 
a) b) c) d)  
x02 2 x0 x0 3  x0 
22. When the displacement is half of the amplitude, then what fraction of the total energy of a
simple harmonic oscillator is kinetic ?
2 3 2 5
a) th b) th c) th d) th
7 4 9 7
23. A block of mass ‘m’ moves with a speed ‘v’ on a smooth horizontal surface between a spring
and rigid wall as shown. If all collisions are elastic then time period of periodic motion is
k
v
m
L
m m 2L m 2L 2L
a) 2π b) π + c) 2π − d)
k k v k v v
24. An open pipe of length 30 cm and a closed pipe of length 23 cm both of same diameter, are
vibrating with their first overtones in unison. End correction for the closed pipe is
a) 0.5cm b) 1 cm c) 1.5 cm d) 1.33 cm
25. An iron tyre is to be fitted on to a wooden wheel 1.0m in diameter. The diameter of the tyre is
6mm smaller than that of the wheel. The tyre should be heated so that its temperature
increases by a minimum of (coefficient of volume expansion of iron is 3.6 x 10-5/0C)
a) 1670C b) 3340C c) 5000C d) 10000C

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26. The tungsten filament of an electric lamp has a surface area A and a power rating p. If the
emissivity of the filament is e and σ is Stefan's constant, the steady temperature of the
filament will be
a) p/(A e σ) b) [p/(A e σ)]2 c) [p/A e σ)]1/2 d) [p/A e σ)]1/4
27. 1000 kHz carrier wave is amplitude modulated by the signal frequency 200-4000 Hz. The
channel width of this case is
a) 8 kHz b) 4 kHz c) 7.6 kHz d) 3.8 kHz
28. What maximum frequency can be reflected from ionosphere ?
a) 5 MHz b) 6 GHz c) 5 kHz d) 500 MHz
29. An ideal gas expands along the path AB as shown in the P – V diagram. The work done is

8 B
P(in105 Pa)
4 A

0.3 0.5
(
V in m3 )
a) 4 × 104 J b) 12 × 104 J c) 7 × 104 J d) 8 × 104 J
30. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies ( υ − 1) , υ, ( υ + 1) . They superpose

to give beats. The number of beats produced per second will be

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
31. A jet plane is travelling towards west at a speed of 1800 kmph. What is the voltage difference
between the ends of the wing having a span of 25m, if the Earth’s magnetic field at the
location has a magnitude of 5 × 10−4 T and the dip angle is 30°
a) 1.75 V b) 3.12 V c) 6.25 V d) 8.5 V
32. The storage battery of a car has an emf of 12V. If the internal resistance of the battery is
0.4 Ω , the maximum current that can be drawn from the battery is
a) 7.5 A b) 15 A c) 30 A d) 60 A
33. Figure shows a large open tank. Water emerging out from holes O1 and O3 strikes the ground
at same point but from O2 has maximum range. The height of O2 from ground

h1 + h2 h2 − h1 h1h2
a) b) c) d) 2 h1h2
2 2 2
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34. The temperature of 100g of water is to be raised from 24°C to 90°C by adding steam to it.
The mass of the steam required for this purpose is
a) 10 g b) 12 g c) 14 g d) 16 g
35. A semi circular current loop is placed in an uniform magnetic field of 1 tesla as shown. If the
radius of loop is 1 m, the magnetic force on the loop is

a) 4N b) 8 N c) 8 / πN d) zero
36. The difference between ( n+1)th Bohr radius and nth Bohr radius is equal to the ( n -1 ) th Bohr
radius. The value of n is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

37. F = aiˆ + 3 ˆj + 6kˆ & r = 2iˆ − 6 ˆj − 12kˆ . The value of ‘a’ for which angular momentum is
conserved is
a) – 1 b) 0 c) 1 d) 2
38. Number of identical 8 µF and 250V capacitors required to make a combination of 16 µF and

1000 V are
a) 32 b) 8 c) 4 d) 2
39. In a potentiometer experiment, experimental cell used in secondary circuit is balanced against
240cm length of potentiometer wire. On shunting this experimental cell with a resistance of
2 Ω , the balancing length becomes 120cm. The internal resistance of the cell is
a) 4 Ω b) 2 Ω c) 1Ω d) 0.5 Ω

40. How much work will be done in increasing the diameter of a soap bubble kept in air from

2cm to 5cm ? Surface tension of soap solution is 3 × 10−2 Nm −1

a) 2.96 × 10−4 J b) 3.96 × 10−4 J c) 4.96 × 10−4 J d) 1.96 × 10−4 J

41. Dimensional formula of coefficient of viscosity ( η ) of a fluid is ______

a)  MLT −1  b)  ML−1T −1  c)  ML2 T −1  d)  ML−1T −1 

42. An emf of 1mV is induced in a coil when the current in it changes steadily from 2A to 4A in
0.1s. Find the self inductance of the coil
a) 60 µH b) 50 mH c) 44 µH d) 50 µH

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43. R.m.s. value of current i = 4sin ( ωt + π 3) is

5
a) 5A b) 2A c) A d) 2 2 A
2
44. A person walks up a stationary escalator in time t1 . If he remains stationary on the escalator,

then it can take him up in time t2 . How much time would it take him to walk up the moving

escalator ?
t1 + t2 t1t2
a) b) t1 t2 c) d) t1 + t2
2 t1 + t2
45. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy
supplied which increases the internal energy of the gas is
2 3 3 5
a) b) c) d)
5 5 7 7
46. A body cools from 500C to 400C in 5 minutes. The surrounding temperature is 200C. In what
further time (in seconds) will it cool to 300C?
25 15
a) 500 b) 1000 c) d)
3 2
47. Work required to deflect a magnet from stable equilibrium position by an angle 'θ' is W.
Torque experienced by the magnet due to magnetic field is
θ θ θ θ
a) W tan   b) W cot   c) W sin   d) W cos  
2 2 2 2
48. A bar magnet oscillates with a time period T. Now it is cut into 20 parts by cutting it thrice
parallel to axial line and four times parallel to equatorial line. If one piece is made to oscillate
in same magnetic field its time period is
T 20 T
a) b) c) T 20 d)
20 T 20
49. A particle of mass m and charge Q is placed in the electric field E which varies with time t as
E = E0 sin ω t. It will undergo simple harmonic motion of amplitude
QE o QE 0 2QE 0 2 QE 0
a) b) c) d)
2mω2 mω2 mω2 3 mω2
50. The condition under which a microwave oven heats up a food item containing water molecules
most efficiently is
a) Microwaves are heat waves, hence they always produce heating
b) Infra – red waves produce heating in a microwave oven
c) The frequency of the microwaves must match with the resonant frequency of the water molecules
d) The frequency of the microwaves has no relation with natural frequency of water molecules
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51. A uniform rod of length L has a mass per unit length λ and area of cross-section A. The
elongation in the rod is l due to its own weight when it is suspended from the ceiling of a room.
The Young’s modulus of the rod is
2λgL2 λgL2 2λgL λgl 2
a) b) c) d)
Al 2Al Al AL

52. The electric potential at a point in free space due to a charge Q coulomb is Q × 1011 volts. The
electric field at that point is

a) 12πε o Q × 1022 Vm −1 b) 4πε o Q × 1022 Vm −1

c) 12πεo Q × 1020 Vm −1 d) 4πε o Q × 1020 Vm −1

53. A shell explodes and many pieces fly off in different directions. The following is conserved
a) Kinetic energy b) Momentum
c) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy d) Momentum and kinetic energy
54. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The first one, A, receives heat at
T1 ( = 600 K ) and rejects to a reservoir at temperature T2 . The second engine B receives heat

rejected by the first engine and, in turn, rejects to a heat reservoir at T3 ( = 400 K ) . Calculate

the temperature T2 if the work outputs of the two engines are equal :
a) 400 K b) 600 K c) 500 K d) 300 K
−1
55. A train moves towards a stationary observer with speed 34ms . The train sounds a whistle
and its frequency registered by the observer is f1 . If the speed of the train is reduced to 17
m/s, the frequency registered is f 2 . If speed of sound is 340 m/s, then the ratio f1 / f 2 is :
a) 18/17 b) 19/18 c) 20/19 d) 21/20
56. For the circuit shown below, the current through the Zener diode is :

a) 5 mA b) Zero c) 14 mA d) 9 mA
57. Starting from rest, a body slides down a 45º inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide
down the same distance in the absence of friction. The coefficient of friction between the body
and the inclined plane is
a) 0.80 b) 0.75 c) 0.25 d) 0.33
58. A particle is projected making an angle of 45º with horizontal having kinetic energy K. The
kinetic energy at highest point will be
K K
a) b) c) 2K d) K
2 2
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59. The equation of state for 5g of oxygen at a pressure P and temperature T, when occupying a
volume V, will be
a) PV = ( 5 / 32) RT b) PV = 5 RT c) PV = ( 5 / 2) RT d) PV = ( 5 /16) RT

60. A series L-C-R circuit is connected to a source of A.C. current. At resonance, the phase
difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit, is
a) π b) zero c) π / 4 d) π / 2
CHEMISTRY
61. The noble gas that does not occur in the atmosphere is
a) He b) Rn c) Ne d) Kr
62. The major product of the following addition reaction is :

a) b) c) d)
63. But – 2 – ene on reaction with alkaline KMnO4 at elevated temperature followed by

acidification will give

a) One molecule of CH 3CHO and one molecule of CH 3COOH

b) CH 3 − CH − CH − CH 3
| |
OH OH

c) 2 molecules of CH 3COOH

d) 2 molecules of CH 3CHO

64. The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment with both acid as well as base is
a) Zinc b) Iron c) Magnesium d) Mercury
65. The major product ‘Y’ in the following reaction is

a) b) c) d)
66. The correct order of the oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2 , N 2O and N 2O3 is

a) NO2 < N 2O3 < NO < N 2O b) NO2 < NO < N 2O3 < N 2O

c) N 2O < N 2O3 < NO < NO2 d) N 2O < NO < N 2O3 < NO2
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67. The major product of the following reaction is

a) b) c) d)
68. The one that will show optical activity is

a) b)

c) d)
69. The major product of the following reaction is

a) b) c) d)
70. The element having greatest difference between its first and second ionization energies is
a) Ca b) K c) Ba d) Sc
71. In the following compounds, the decreasing order of basic strength will be
a) (C 2 H 5 ) NH > C 2 H 5 NH 2 > NH 3 b) (C 2 H 5 ) NH > NH 3 > C 2 H 5 NH 2
2 2
c) NH 3 > C 2 H 5 NH 2 > (C 2 H 5 ) NH d) C 2 H 5 NH 2 > NH 3 > (C 2 H 5 ) NH
2 2
72. Which of the following pairs of transition metal ions are the stronger oxidizing agents in
aqueous solution?
2+ 2+ 2+ 2+ 3+ 3+ 2+ 2+
a) V and Cr b) Ti and Cr c) Mn and Co d) V and Fe
73. Coordination compounds have great importance in biological systems. In this context which
of the following statement is incorrect?
a) Carboxypeptidase – A is an enzyme and contains zinc.
b) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron.
c) Cyanocobalamin in B12 contains cobalt.
d) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contain calcium.
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74. Name the gas that can readily decolourise acidified KMnO4 solution

a) SO2 b) NO2 c) P2O5 d) CO2

75. HgCl2 and I 2 both when dissolved in water containing I − ions, the pair of species formed is

a) HgI 2 , I − b) HgI 42 − ,I 3− c) Hg2 I 2 , I − d) HgI 2 , I 3−

76. The ion that has sp 3 d 2 hybridization for the central atom is

a) I Cl 2 - b) I F6 - c) ICl 4 - d) BrF2 −

77. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119 would be
a) unh b) uun c) une d) uue
78. The major product obtained in the following reaction is

a) b) c) d)
79. The statement that is incorrect about the interstitial compound is
a) They have high melting points b) They are chemically reactive
c) They have metallic conductivity d) They are very hard
80. Which of the following compounds will show the maximum enol content?
a) CH 3COCH 2COCH 3 b) CH 3COCH 3
c) CH 3COCH 2CONH 2 d) CH 3COCH 2COOC 2 H 5

81. The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl4− is

a) ICl5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl4− is tetrahedral.

b) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl4− is tetrahedral.

c) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl4− is square planar.

d) Both are isostructural.
82. Polysubstitution is a major drawback in
a) Reimer Tiemann reaction b) Friedel Craft’s acylation
c) Friedel Craft’s alkylation d) Acetylation of aniline
83. The strength of 11.2 volume solution of H 2O2 is:
a) 13.6 % b) 3.4 % c) 34 % d) 1.7 %
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84. Diborane ( B2 H 6 ) reacts independently with O2 and H 2O to produce, respectively
a) HBO2 and H 3 BO3 b) H 3 BO3 and B2O3
−
c) B2O3 and H 3 BO3 [
d) B2O3 and BH 4 ]
85. The C – C bond length is maximum in
a) graphite b) C70 d) C 60
c) diamond
86. The temporary hardness of a water sample is due to compound X. Boiling this sample
converts X to compound Y. X and Y, respectively, are
a) Ca ( HCO3 ) and CaO b) Mg ( HCO3 ) and MgCO3
2 2
c) Mg ( HCO3 ) and Mg (OH ) d) Ca ( HCO3 ) and Ca (OH )
2 2 2 2
87. Heating of 2 – chloro – 1 – phenylbutane with EtOK/EtOH gives X as the major product.
Reaction of X with Hg (OAc ) 2 / H 2O followed by NaBH 4 gives Y as the major product Y is

a) b)

c) d)
88. The incorrect statement is
a) Lithium is least reactive with water among the alkali metals
b) LiCl crystallises from aqueous solution as LiCl.2H 2O
c) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals
d) LiNO3 decomposes on heating to give LiNO2 and O2
89. The pair that has similar atomic radii is
a) Sc and Ni b) Ti and Hf c) Mo and W d) Mn and Re
90. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions is
+ + + + + + + + + +
a) Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs b) Li > Na > K > Cs > Rb
+ + + + + + + + + +
c) Na > Li > K > Rb > Cs d) Na > Li > K > Cs > Rb
91. The hydrated salt, Na2 SO4 .nH 2O undergoes 50.3% loss in weight on heating and become

anhydrous. The value of n will be [ Na = 23, S = 32,O = 16 ]

a) 5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 8
92. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom when the electron is moving in one of the stationary orbits,
then
a) Velocity of the electron is fixed and no emission of energy takes place
b) Velocity changes continuously, but no emission of energy takes place
c) Energy is emitted, but the velocity doesn’t change
d) Energy is emitted and velocity also changes

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93. When an electron undergoes transition from 2E to E energy level, the wavelength of photon
4
produced is λ1 . If electronic transition involves E to E level, the wavelength of resultant
3
photon is λ 2 . Which of the following is a correct relation

3 4
a) λ 2 = λ 1 b) λ 2 = 3 λ 1 c) λ 2 = λ d) λ 2 = λ
4 1 3 1
94. A gaseous hydrocarbon has a density 2.06 grams/litre at the same temperature and pressure
oxygen has a density = 2.21 grams/litre. The hydrocarbon is
a) CH 4 b) C 2 H 2 c) C 3 H 6 d) C 2 H 6

95. The van der Waals constant ‘a’ is highest for

a) NH 3 b) CO2 c) H 2 d) N 2

96. The entropy of vapourisation of benzene is 85 JK −1 mol −1 .When 117 g of benzene vaporizes
at its normal boiling point, the entropy change of surrounding is

a) −85 JK −1 b) 85 × 1.5 JK −1 c) −85 × 1.5 JK −1 d) 85 JK −1

97. When equal volume of 1 M HCl and 1M H 2SO 4 are neutralized with excess volume of 1M
NaOH solution, x and y kJ of heat is liberated. Then,
a) x = y b) x = 2y c) 2x = y d) x > y
98. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because
a) the higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
b) cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature
c) heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
d) boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
99. At a certain temperature, the equilibrium constant for a reaction A + B ⇌ 2C was found to
be 81. Starting with 1 mole each of A and B, what would be the mole fraction of C at
equilibrium?
9 1 2 7
a) b) c) d)
11 11 11 11
100. The chemical reaction, 2O3 → 3O2 proceeds as follows.

O3 ⇌ O2 + O.........( fast ) O + O3 → 2O2 .........( slow)

The rate law expression should be

[ ]2
a) r = K O3 b) r = K O3 [ ]2 [O2 ] −1
c) r = K [ O3 ][ O2 ] d) Unpredictable

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101. For an exothermic chemical process occurring in two steps as

(i) A + B → X ( slow) (ii) X → AB ( fast )

The progress of the reaction can be best described by

a) b) c) d) All are correct

102. The ratio of dissociation constant of two weak acids HA and HB is 4. AT what molar
concentration ratio, the two acids will have same pH
a) 2 b) 0.5 c) 4 d) 0.25

103. The solubility of PbCl2 in water is 0.01M at 25 0 C . Its maximum concentration in 0.1 M

NaCl will be

a) 2 × 10 −3 M b) 1 × 10 −4 M c) 1.6 × 10 −2 M d) 4 × 10 −4 M
104. How much time is required for complete decomposition of 4 moles of water using 4 ampere?
5 5
a) 2.86 × 10 sec b) 1.93 × 10 sec c) 96500sec d) 48250 sec
105. Equivalent conductance can be expressed in terms of specific conductance (k) and
3
concentration (C) gram equivalent per dm as
k × 1000 k ×C k × C × 1000
a) k × C b) c) d)
C 1000 1000
106. Calculate the e.m.f of the cell at 25 C . Cu | Cu +2 ( 0.01M ) | | Cu 2+ ( 0.1M ) | Cu
0

a) 0.0295 V b) 0.0591 V c) 0.1 V d) 1.0 V

107. How many grams of sucrose must be added to 320 g of water to lower the vapour pressure by
0
1.5 mm Hg at 25 C ?
0
[Given the vapour pressure of water at 25 C is 23.8 mm Hg and the molar mass of sucrose is
342.3 g/mol]
a)21.5 g b) 410 g c) 324.3 g d) 160.12 g
108. Which of the following is correct increasing order of freezing point for these four solutions?

I) 0.1 M glucose II) 0.1 M Na3 PO4 III) 0.1 M NaCl IV) 0.1 M K 4  Fe (CN ) 6 

a) I < II < III < IV b) IV < II < III < I c) I < III < II < IV d) IV < I < III < II
109. A solid has a structure in which W atoms are located at the cube corners of the unit cell, O
atoms are located at the cube edges and the Na atoms at the cube centres. Formula of solid is
a) NaWO3 b) Na 2WO3 c) NaW2O3 d) NaWO4

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110. Ferromagnetism is in
a) ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ ↑ b) ↑ ↓ ↑ ↓ c) ↑ ↑ ↑ ↓ ↓ d) None of these
111. A colloidal solution is subjected to an electric field. The colloidal particles move towards the
anode. Coagulation of the same colloidal solution is studied using NaCl , BaCl2 and AlCl3
solutions. The coagulation power is in the order
a) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 b) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl
c) NaCl > AlCl3 > BaCl2 d) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
112. The enthalpy change in physical absorptions is
a) 40 − 400 kJ mole −1 b) 40 − 100 kJ mole −1
c) 20 − 40 kJ mole −1 d) 200 − 400 kJ mole −1
113. Poling process is used for
a) The removal of Cu2O from Cu b) The removal of Al2O3 from Al
c) The removal of Fe2O3 from Fe d) All of these
114. Which of the following vitamin increases the blood clotting time
a) Vitamin E b) Vitamin K c) Vitamin B6 d) Vitamin C
115. Which of the following group is absent in Cimetidine?
a) − NHCH 3 b) CH 3 c) − CN d) CONH
116. Dacron is a polymer of
a) Adipic acid and terephthalic acid
b) caprolactam
c) Ethylene glycol and benzene – 1, 4 – di carboxylic acid
d) Phenol formaldehyde
117. Blue baby syndrome is due to
a) Nitrates b) Sulphates c) Chlorates d) Lead

118. At 250 C, B 2 H 6 is a
a) Gas b) Liquid c) Solid d) Plasma
119. The enthalpy of formation of ammonia when calculated from the following bond energy data
is (B.E. of N-H, H-H, N ≡ N is 389 kJ mol −1 , 435 kJ mol −1 , 945.36 kJ mol −1 respectively)
a) − 45.82 kJ mol −1 b) + 83.64 kJ mol −1 c) −945.36 kJ mol −1 d) −833 kJ mol −1
o
120. The radius of hydrogen atom in ground state is 0.53 A . What will be the radius of 3 Li 2 + in
the ground state?
o o o o
a) 1.06 A b) 0.265 A c) 0.17 A d) 0.53 A
BOTANY
121. Which of the following is an edible fungus ?
a) Agaricus b) Albugo c) Rhizopus d) Puccinia
122. 2n-1 condition is called
a) Trisomy b) Monosomy c) Nullisomy d) Tetrasomy
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123. Turpentine oil is obtained from
a) Pinus b) Cycas c) Cedrus d) Dalbergia
124. In Pteridium meiosis takes place at the time of
a) spore formation b) organ formation in prothallus
c) spore germination d) gamete formation
125. “All tissues consist of cells” sentence was said by
a) Wallace b) Virchow c) Schleiden d) None of these
126. In C4 plants, CO2 combines with
a) phosphoglyceric acid b) ribulose diphosphate
c) phosphoenol pyruvate d) phosphoglyceraldehyde
127. Which one of the following elements is almost non-essential for plants ?
a) Ca b) Mo c) Zn d) Na
128. Which is a typical example of ‘feedback inhibition’ ?
a) Allosteric inhibition of hexokinase by glucose-6-phosphate
b) Reaction between succinic dehydrogenase and succinic acid
c) Cyanide and cytochrome reaction
d) Sulpha drugs and folic acid synthesing bacteria
129. If there are 4 microspore mother cells in an anther, what will be the number of pollen grains ?
a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16
130. 2, 4-D is an effective
a) Fungicide b) Weedicide c) Rodenticide d) Wormicide
131. Which typical stage is known for DNA replication ?
a) Metaphase b) G1 − phase c) S-phase d) G2 − phase
132. Which of the following products are obtained by anaerobic respiration from yeast ?
a) Alcohols b) CO2 c) Beer and wine d) All of the above
133. In split genes the coding sequences are called
a) introns b) exons c) cistrons d) operons
134. The real forces responsible for the movement of water from one cell to another cell is mainly
a) Osmotic Pressure (OP) b) Turgor Pressure (TP)
c) Diffusion Pressure Deficit (DPD) d) Imbibition
135. Restriction enzymes are used in genetic engineering, because they
a) can degrade harmful proteins b) can join different DNA fragments
c) can cut DNA at specific base sequence d) are nucleases that cut DNA at variable sites
136. In which genera endospores are formed for reproduction ?
a) Monococcus and Clostridium b) Bacillus and Clostridium
c) Mucor and Bacillus d) None of the above
137. DNA polymerase enzyme is required for synthesis of
a) DNA from RNA b) RNA from DNA
c) DNA from DNA d) RNA from RNA
138. Litmus is obtained from
a) Rocella montagnei b) Lasallia postulata
c) Both a and b d) Cladonia crispata

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139. If a Pea plant having yellow or round seeds was crossed with another plant having green and
wrinkled seeds then F1 progeny are in the ratio
a) 15 : 1 b) 1 : 15 c) 1 : 13 d) All yellow and round seeds
140. Commercial cork is obtained from
a) Flax b) Juglans regia c) Hevea brassiliansis d) Quercus suber

Br Brl ( Epik ) ⊕
( ) k 5 C5 A(∞) G
( )
141. The given formula belong to + 5

a) Solanaceae b) Malvaceae c) Graminae d) Compositae

142. Which of the following workers are related as ecologist, palaeobotanist and embryologist
respectively ?
a) B.Sahni, R.Mishra, P.Maheswari b) R Mishra, B Sahni, P Maheswari
c) B Sahni, P. Maheswari, R Mishra d) P Maheshwari, R Mishra, B Sahni
143. The form of pigment which inhibits germination is
a) P760 b) P730 c) P650 d) All of these
144. In turnip, 2/3 part of swollen area is derived from
a) hypophysis b) hypocotyl c) epicotyl d) radicle
145. Transpiration would be lowest when
a) wind velocity is high b) enough water is in the soil
c) atmospheric RH is high d) high temperature and light
146. During conversion of anaerobic to aerobic conditions glucose consumption decreases it is
called
a) Compensation point b) Kautsky effect
c) Warburg effect d) Pasteur effect
147. An orthotropus ovule is one in which micropyle and chalaza are
a) in straight line of funiculus b) parallel of funiculus
c) at right angles to funiculus d) oblique to funiculus
148. Lathyrism is caused by
a) Dal b) Moth dal c) Khesari dal d) Glycine
149. Insects captured by insectivorous plants fulfil their requirements of
a) enzymes b) oxygen c) nitrogen d) water
150. Gibberellin was first extracted from
a) Gibberella fujikuroi b) algae
c) bacteria d) roots of higher plants
ZOOLOGY
151. Valves of Kerckring are present in the
(a) large intestine (b) stomach
(c) small intestine (d) oesophagus
152. Impaired uric acid metabolism causes
(a) tetanus (b) gout (c) osteoporosis (d) goitre

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153. Histamine is secreted by
(a) Kupffer cells (b) Paneth cells (c) Lacis cells (d) Mast cells
154. Which of the following is derived from cholesterol?
(a) Vitamin D (b) Vitamin A (c) hCG (d) FSH
155. Relaxin is a
(a) steroid hormone (b) gonadotropic hormone
(c) amine hormone (d) protein/peptide hormone
156. Ovulation is induced by
(a) FSH (b) LH (c) estrogen (d) progesterone
157. Which of the following is normally present in urine of a healthy man?
(a) Haemoglobin (b) Ketone (c) Urobilin (d) Glucose
158. ‘Pyramidal cells’ are a special type of neurons present in
(a) cerebral cortex (b) cerebellum (c) pons Varolii (d) medulla oblongata
159. Dinosaurs became extinct during
(a) Holocene extinction (b) Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction
(c) Permian-Triassic extinction (d) Triassic-Jurassic extinction
160. The most efficient complement-fixing immunoglobulin is
(a) IgA (b) IgD (c) IgM (d) IgE
161. In interference competition,
(a) the use of the resource by one individual will decrease the amount available for other
individuals
(b) two species whose niches overlap evolve to have more distinct niches
(c) an increase in the abundance of one species leads to a decrease in the abundance of a second
species due to enhanced predation by a shared predator
(d) one organism prevents the other organism from using the resource
162. The disease traced in following the pedigree chart is

(a) X-linked recessive (b) Autosomal dominant

(c) X-linked dominant (d) Autosomal recessive
163. Cortical reaction
(a) prevents polyspermy (b) dissolves zona pellucida
(c) aids in penetration of sperm (d) releases sperm lysins
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164. The hematocrit measures the volume of
(a) WBC (b) RBC (c) platelets (d) all the above
165. Ductus endolymphaticus arises from
(a) helicotrema (b) ampulla (c) saccule (d) cochlea
166. The ten percent law of transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next was introduced by
(a) Lindeman (b) Haeckel (c) Elton (d) Odum
167. Which of the following first receive(s) the oocyte?
(a) Fimbriae (b) Isthmus (c) Ampulla (d) Uterus
168. Mark the correct order of the volume of various body fluids in the human body.
(a) Blood plasma > Interstitial fluid > Intracellular fluid
(b) Blood plasma < Intracellular fluid < Interstitial fluid
(c) Interstitial fluid < Blood plasma < Intracellular fluid
(d) Blood plasma < Interstitial fluid < Intracellular fluid
169. Acidosis can occur due to
(a) vomiting (b) hyperkalemia (c) hypoventilation (d) hyperventilation
170. Medusa differs from polyp because medusa is
(a) radially symmetrical (b) sexual zooid
(c) diploid (d) diploblastic
171. The karyotype of a person with Jacob’s syndrome is
(a) 47, XXY (b) 45, XO (c) 47, XYY (d) 46, YO
172. Natural passive immunity is provided mainly by
(a) IgM and IgG (b) IgA and IgG (c) IgA and IgM (d) IgD and IgE
173. Renin is secreted by
(a) Atrial myocytes (b) Macula densa (c) Hepatic cells (d) JG cells
174. Biological magnification of DDT occurs when it is
(a) eaten directly by fishes and birds (b) decomposed by bacteria and fungi
(c) metabolised by fishes and birds (d) concentrated as it moves up the food chain
175. Which of the following is not a feature of biodiversity hotspots?
(a) High levels of species richness (b) High degree of species endemism
(c) Low threat of extinction (d) High threat of extinction
176. The best quality pearl obtained from marine oysters in the east coast of India is
(a) Seed pearl (b) Lingha pearl (c) Oriental pearl (d) Blister pearl
177. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Oxygenated blood has reduced affinity for carbon dioxide
(b) Haemoglobin has more affinity for oxygen than for carbon monoxide
(c) 2,3-BPG increases the affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen.
(d) Compared to hemoglobin, myoglobin has lower affinity for oxygen

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178. Sodium oxalate can prevent blood clotting because it
(a) Chelates Ca2+ (b) Dissolves fibrin
(c) Inhibits vitamin K (d) Activates antithrombin
179. Pneumatic bones are present in
(a) cat (b) crow (c) cobra (d) crocodile
180. Blockage in hypophyseal portal veins is most likely to decrease the secretion of
(a) vasopressin (b) parathormone (c) thyrotropin (d) calcitonin
ENGLISH
In the following question choose the one-word substitute for the given words :
181. that which can’t be captured
(a) ungrippable (b) untakable (c) impregnable (d) slippey
In the following question choose the wrongly spelt word :
182. (a) doubtfully (b) agreeablly (c) cruelly (d) fatally
In the following question choose the one-word substitute for the given words :
183. reproducing or memorizing word for word
(a) verbatim (b) verbose (c) verbalism (d) verbiago
In the following question choose the meaning of the idiom / phrase :
184. We wanted to give Rita a surprise party but John let the cat out of the bag.
(a) prevented her from attending it (b) gave her a party himself
(c) spoilt the party with a cat (d) told her about it unintentionally
In the following question choose the one-word substitute for the given words
185. careful in the spending of money, time etc.,
a) miserly b) punctual c) economical d) calculative
In the following question choose the opposite word for the given word :
186. advanced
a) retarded b) outpaced c) receded d) progressed
In the following question choose the wrongly spelt word :
187. a) quagmaire b) quadrant c) quadruple d) quadrangle
In the following question choose the wrongly spelt word :
188. a) postar b) pastor c) positive d) pesture
In the following question choose the wrongly spelt word :
189. a) reference b) difference c) preference d) perforamance
In the following question choose the meaning of the idiom / phrase :
190. His parents cut him off, without a shilling
a) sent him away with a shilling b) disinherited him
c) snubbed him d) gave him only a shilling
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 In the following question choose the meaning of the given word
191. knave
a) enchanter b) emperor c) soldier d) scoundrel
In the following question choose the meaning of the idiom / phrase
192. He has too many irons in the fire.
a) has many ideas in his head b) has several problems
c) is engaged in too many enterprises at the same time
d) has a fire burning constantly in his house
In the following question choose the meaning of the given word
193. niggardly
a) lavishly b) hastily c) likely d) miserly
In the following question choose the meaning of the given word :
194. melodious
a) musical b) timeless c) odious d) mellifluous
In the following question choose the meaning of the idiom / phrase :
195. The carefully worked out plan fell through because of an unexpected event
a) had a steep fall b) was shattered c) failed d) came out successfully
In the following question choose the meaning of the given word :
196. rout
a) crash b) loss c) death d) defeat
In the following question choose the meaning of the given word :
197. frontier
a) edge b) boundary c) landmark d) corner
In the following question choose the one-word substitute for the given word :
198. study of insects
a) etymology b) entomology c) ecology d) embryology
In the following question choose the meaning of the given word :
199. irreproachable
a) remarkable b) extraordinary c) faultless d) immense
In the following question choose the meaning of the underlined word :
200. She left the room feeling contrite.
a) sorry for what she had done b) rather ill
c) extremely irritated d) no improvement

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Page 20
 SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS, A.P.
JIPMER GRAND TEST – 1 KEY SHEET
SR AIIMS S60 DATE : 14-05-20

PHYSICS
1) d 2) a 3) c 4) d 5) a 6) a 7) a 8) a 9) a 10) c

11) d 12) c 13) b 14) d 15) b 16) a 17) b 18) a 19) b 20) b

21) d 22) b 23) b 24) b 25) c 26) d 27) a 28) a 29) b 30) c

31) b 32) c 33) a 34) b 35) b 36) b 37) a 38) a 39) b 40) b

41) b 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) d 46) a 47) b 48) c 49) b 50) c

51) b 52) b 53) b 54) c 55) b 56) d 57) b 58) b 59) a 60) b

CHEMISTRY
61) 2 62) 2 63) 3 64) 1 65) 1 66) 4 67) 4 68) 3 69) 2 70) 2

71) 1 72) 3 73) 4 74) 1 75) 2 76) 3 77) 4 78) 1 79) 2 80) 1

81) 3 82) 3 83) 2 84) 3 85) 3 86) 3 87) 4 88) 4 89) 3 90) 1

91) 4 92) 1 93) 2 94) 4 95) 1 96) 3 97) 3 98) 4 99) 1 100) 2

101) 2 102) 4 103) 4 104) 2 105) 2 106) 1 107) 2 108) 2 109) 1 110) 1

111) 2 112) 3 113) 1 114) 2 115) 4 116) 3 117) 1 118) 1 119) 1 120) 3

BOTANY
121) a 122) b 123) a 124) a 125) c 126) c 127) d 128) a 129) d 130) b

131) c 132) d 133) b 134) c 135) c 136) b 137) c 138) c 139) d 140) d

141) b 142) b 143) c 144) b 145) c 146) d 147) a 148) c 149) c 150) a

ZOOLOGY
151) c 152) b 153) d 154) a 155) d 156) b 157) c 158) a 159) b 160) c

161) d 162) d 163) a 164) b 165) c 166) a 167) a 168) d 169) c 170) b

171) c 172) b 173) d 174) d 175) c 176) b 177) a 178) a 179) b 180) c

ENGLISH
181) c 182) b 183) a 184) d 185) c 186) a 187) a 188) a 189) d 190) b
191) d 192) b 193) d 194) d 195) c 196) d 197) b 198) b 199) c 200) a
 SOLUTIONS
PHYSICS

2. N = N o e−λt
3. nλ1 = ( n + 1) λ 2

6. KE = mg ( sin θ + µ cos θ ) S = E

E
S=
mg ( sin θ + µ cos θ )

WFriction = µ mg cos θ .S
µ mg cos θ .E µ cos θ .E
= =
mg ( sin θ + µ cos θ ) ( sin θ + µ cos θ )

2 gh
7. V= β ring = 1
1+ β
Q KA∆θ
8. =
t ℓ
FL
9. Y=
A∆ℓ
F
= slope ∝ area ∝ r 2
∆ℓ
Po
10. η= × 100
Pinput
14. W = i 2 Rt
dm
15. F =V
dt
 A + Dm 
sin  
18. µ=  2 
 A
sin  
2
B 1
19. = 32
Bo  x2 
1 + 2 
 R 
20. Shortest path d = ( VB2 − VW2 t)
υ0
21. mυ0 = ( m + 2m )υ ⇒ υ =
3
2
1 1 υ  1
mυ o2 = × 3m  o  + Kxo2
2 2  3 2
 1 2 1 2 1 2
mυ0 = mυ0 + kx0
2 6 2
 1 1  mυ 0 ⇒ K = 2 mυo
2 2
1 2
kx0 = mυ 02  −  =
2 2 6 3 3 xo2

22.
1
( ) 1
KE = mω2 A2 − Y 2 , total energy = mω2 A2
2 2
m
23. Block on collision with spring completes half oscillation with spring and comes back in t1 = π to
k
its initial position From there it moves to wall with constant speed. Collides with it elastically and
rebounds with same speed
∴ comes back to initial position in
2L
t2 =
V
⇒ T = t1 + t2

3V V
24. =
4 ( ℓ c + e ) ( ℓ o + 2e )
∆ℓ
25. α= °C
ℓ∆T
26. P = σAT 4
27. Bandwidth = 2υm = 8KHz
29. Work done = area of trapezium ABCD
1
= × ( sum of parallelsides ) ×distance between parallelsides
2
1
= × ( 4 + 8 ) × 105 × 0.2 = 12 × 104 J
2
31. V = BℓV sin θ
E
32. I=
r
33. To have the same range, h1 + h2 = H

H h1 + h2
To have the max range, h = =
2 2
34. Let m be the mass of system required
By principle of calorimetry 100 × 1( 90 − 24 ) = m 540 + m × 1(100 − 90 )

i.e., 550 m = 100 × 66 ⇒ m = 12 g

35. F = f curved + f straight = Bi ( 2r ) + Bi ( 2r ) = 4 Bir = 8 N

2
36. r = ( 0.53 ) n ⇒ ( n + 1)2 − n 2  = ( n − 1) 2 ⇒ n2 + 1 + 2n − n2 = n2 + 1 − 2n
z  
 ⇒ n2 − 4n = 0 ⇒ n = 0 or 4
 
37. Angular momentum is conserved when external torque is zero. Hence r × F = 0
Veff 1000V
38. N = Number of capacitors in series in each row = = =4
Veach 250V
Ceach 8µF
Effective capacitance of each row = = = 2µF
N 4

( )
Net capacitance of system = Ceff of each row m where m = Number of identical rows in parallel

16 = (2)m
⇒m=8
Total number of capacitors = mn = 32
ℓ − ℓ 
39. r = R 1 2 
 ℓ2 
40. (
W = T 8πR22 − 8πR12 )
∆V
41. FV = ηA
∆x
LT −1
MLT −2 = ηL2
L
−1 −1
η =  ML T 
dI
42. e=L
dt
I
43. I RMS = o
2
1 1
44. υm = υmc + υc = L  + 
 t1 t2 
L 1 1 t1t2
=  + L t=
t  t1 t2  t1 + t2
45. ∆Q = nC P ∆T at constant pressure

∆U = nCV ∆T
∆U CV 1 5
Fraction = = = = for diatomic gas
∆Q CP γ 7

46. If a body cools from temperature θ1 to θ 2 in time t, when the surrounding temperature is θ0 , by
Newton’s law of cooling,
θ1 − θ 2 θ + θ 
= c  1 2 − θ0 
t  2 
where c = constant

47. W = MB [1 − cos θ]
 τ = MB sin θ
W
= ( sin θ )
1 − cos θ
W  2sin ( θ 2 ) cos ( θ 2 ) 
=
2sin 2 ( θ 2 )

I
48. T = 2π
MB
49. For a particle undergoing SHM with an amplitude A and angular frequency ω , the maximum

acceleration = ω2 A
Here, the maximum force on the particle = QEo

QEo QEo
∴ its maximum acceleration = = ω2 A or A =
m mω2
50. A microwave oven the frequency of the microwaves must match the resonant frequency of water
molecules so that energy from the waves is transferred efficiently to the kinetic energy of the
molecules
51. Increase in length due to own weight

l=∫
L ( L − x ) mg dx = mgL (Here, m = λL )
o LAY 2 AY
mgL λgL2
or Y = =
2 Al 2 Al
Q
52. Here, V = = Q × 1011
4πε o r
∴ 4πε o r = 10−11
Q Q × 4πεo
Now, E = =
4πεo r 2
( 4πεo r )2
4πεo Q
= = 4πεoQ × 10 22 Vm −1
(10 ) −11 2

54.
 w1 = w2

∆u1 = ∆u2 , T3 − T2 = T2 − T1

2T2 = T1 + T3 , T2 = 500 K

v ± v   340 
55. f app = f 0  2 0  , f1 = f 0 
 v2 ∓ vs   340 − 34 
 340 
f2 = f0 
 340 − 17 
f1 340 − 17 323 f 19
= = ⇒ 1 =
f 2 340 − 34 306 f 2 18
120
56. Assuming zener diode does not undergo breakdown, current in circuit = = 8mA
15000
∴ Voltage drop across diode = 80 V > 50V.
The diode undergo breakdown.

70
Current is R1 = = 14mA
5000
50
Current is R2 = = 5mA
10000
∴ Current through diode = 9mA
 1 
57. µ = 1 − 2  tan θ
 n 
trough
n=
tsmooth
1 2
58. Kinetic energy at highest point is mu cos 2 θ
2
K
= K .cos 2 45° =
2
5
59. PV = nRT , PV = RT
32
60. For resonance condition, the impedance will be minimum and the current be maximum. This is only
possible when X L = X C

X L − XC
Therefore tan θ = = 0 or θ = 0
R