Decreased Arterial Pressure: B - 4: Human Physiology-I

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CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)

B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
1. In this flow diagram name the chemicals A, B, C and D in 1. A, B, C D
proper sequence -
Decreased arterial pressure

(A) From kidney (A)

(B) A
(B) Substrate for A

(C) (C)

Converting
enzyme from lung
(D) (D)

Renal retention of Vasoconstriction


salt and water

Increased arterial pressure


(1) Renin, Angiotensin II, Angiotensin I, Angiotensinogen (1) II, I,
(2) Angiotensin I, Angiotensinogen, Angiotensin II, Renin (2) I, , II,
(3) Renin, Angiotensin I, Angiotensin II, Angiotensinogen (3) , I, II,
(4) Renin, Angiotensinogen, Angiotensin I, Angiotensin II. (4) , , I, II.
2. Chylomicrons are - 2.
(1) Small droplets of fat formed as result of action of bile (1)
on fat
(2) Small droplets of fat formed as result of action of lipase (2)
on fat
(3) Small protein coated fat globules (3)
(4) Small droplets formed during digestion of carbohydrates (4)
3. A man of A-blood group marries a women of AB bood group. 3. A AB
Which type of progeny would indicate that man is
hererozygous A - A -
(1) AB (2) A (3) O (4) B (1) AB (2) A (3) O (4) B
4. Tooth is embedded in a socket of jaw bone this type of 4.
dentition is called as -
(1) Diphyodont (2) Heterodont (1) (2)
(3) Thecodont (4) Homodont (3) (4)
5. Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding human 5. (a-d)
blood circulatory system :
(a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as (a)
compared to veins.
(b) Cornea has rod and cone cells. (b)
(c) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any (c) AB ABO
person with any blood group under ABO system.
(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting (d)

Which of the above statements are incorrect?


(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (1) (a) (b) (2) (b) (c)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) (3) (c) (d) (4) (a) (d)

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 1


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
6. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ? 6.
(1) Hinge joint–between vertebrae (1) –
(2) Gliding joint–between zygapophyses of the successive (2) –
vertebrae
(3) Cartilaginous joint-skull bones (3) –
(4) Fibrous joint -between phalanges. (4) –
7. Vein are best defined as the vessels which : 7.

(1) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral (1)
organ
(2) Collect blood from different organs and carry it to the heart (2)
(3) Supply deoxygenated blood to the different organs (3)
(4) Break up into capillaries which reunite to from a vein (4)
8. For actin filament, identify A, B and C respectively - 8. A, B C
A A
B B
C C
(1) A-Tropomyosin, B-Troponin, C-F actin (1) A- , B- , C-F
(2) A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-F actin (2) A- , B- , C-F
(3) A-Troponin, B-F actin, C-Tropomyosin (3) A- , B-F , C-
(4) A-F actin, B-Tropomyosin, C-Troponin (4) A-F , B- , C-
9. Lacteals are - 9.
(1) a network of lymph nodes in small intestine (1)
(2) a network of lymph capillaries in small intestine (2)

(3) a network of parasympethatic nervous system in small (3)


intestine
(4) a network of sympethatic nervous system in small (4)
intestine
10. The mucosa of stomach has gastric glands. These glands 10.
have various types of cells, the correct statement(s) is/are-
(i) mucus neck cells which secrete mucus. (i)
(ii) peptic or chief cells which secrete the proenzyme (ii)
trypsinogen.
(iii) parietal or oxyntic cells which secrete HCl and intrinsic (iii) HCl
factor
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) (1) (i) (ii) (2) (ii) (iii)
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii) (3) (i) (iii)(4) (i), (ii) (iii)
11. When a patient is treated with an aldosterone antagonist, 11.
there is likely to be fall in -
(1) Urine volume (1)
(2) Plasma potassium concentration (2)
(3) Blood viscosity (3)
(4) Blood volume (4)
GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 2
CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
12. A disorder in which skin and eyes turn yellow due to deposite 12.
of bile pigments, in this the affected organ is -
(1) Intestine (2) Stomach (1) (2)
(3) Liver (4) Pancrease (3) (4)
13. Which feature enables the mammalian kidney to concen- 13.
trate urine in the medullary region -
(1) Maintaining a high osmotic pressure in the medullary (1)
region due to urea
(2) Rapid removal of sodium ion from the medullary tis- (2)
sues
(3) Maintaining a high osmotic pressure due to proteins in (3)
medullary region
(4) High oxidative metabolism of medullary cells (4)
14. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted by 14.
(1) Macula densa cells (1)
(2) Endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels) (2) ( )
(3) Liver cells (3)
(4) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells (4) (JG)
15. Which of the following hormones produces anti–inflamma- 15.
tory reactions, suppresses immune response, stimulates RBC
RBC production, and is also involved in maintaining cardio-
vascular system and kidney functions–
(1) Aldosterone (1)
(2) Epinephrine (2)
(3) cortisol (3)
(4) Norepinephrine (4)
16. Which of the following is diluting segment of uriniferous tubule 16.
(1) Ascending segment of loop of Henle (1)
(2) Desending segment of loop of Henle (2)
(3) Distal conulated tubues (3)
(4) Proximal conulated tubues (4)
17. Which of the following is supported by incomplete 17.
cartilagenous rings -
(a) Alveoli (b) Trachea (a) (b)
(c) Tertiary bronchi (d) Terminal bronchioles (c) (d)
(e) Left primary bronchi (f) Initial bronchioles (e) (f)
(1) a, b, e, f (1) a, b, e, f
(2) b, c, e, f (2) b, c, e, f
(3) a, d, c, f (3) a, d, c, f
(4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d
18. Conducting part of respiratory tract - 18.
(1) Remove nitrogen from inhaled air (1)
(2) Remove carbon dioxide from inhaled air (2)
(3) Remove foreign particles from inhaled air (3)
(4) Remove water vapour from inhaled air (4)

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 3


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
19. Additional volume of air, a person can expire by forcible 19.
expiration is Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV), during this (ERV)
process there is -
(1) Contraction of diaphragm muscles (1)
(2) Contraction of external intercostal muscles (2)
(3) Contraction of abdominal muscles. (3)
(4) Relaxation of internal intercostal muscles. (4)
20. Protonephridia or flame cells are the excretory 20.
structures in -
(1) Platyhelminthes (1)
(2) Rotifers and some annelids (2)
(3) Cephalochordate e.g. Amphioxus (3)
(4) All of these (4)
21. Partial pressure of oxygen and carbon dioxide in blood 21.
carried by hapatic vein is respectively -
(1) 95 and 40 mm of Hg (2) 45 and 40 mm of Hg (1) 95 40 mm of Hg (2) 45 40 mm of Hg
(3) 40 and 45 mm of Hg (4) 104 and 0.3 mm of Hg (3) 40 45 mm of Hg (4) 104 0.3 mm of Hg
22. A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the rhythm 22. (chemosensitive)
centre (medulla reg.) which is sensitive to -
(1) CO2 of arterial blood (1) CO2
(2) O2 of arterial blood (2) O2
(3) CO2 of venous blood (3) CO2
(4) O2 of venous blood (4) O2
23. CO2 is carried by haemoglobin as carbomino-haemoglobin, 23.
in this CO2 remain bound to haemoglobin as - CO2

(1) to porphyrin ring (1)


(2) to globin part (2)
(3) to Fe+2 (3) Fe+2
+2
(4) to complex of porphyrin ring and Fe (4) Fe+2
24. As the filterate moves from PCT to DCT through loop of 24. (filterate), PCT DCT
Henle its osmolarity changes (mOsmolL–1) - (mOsmolL–1 )
(1) 1200  800  600  400  300  600  800  900 (1) 1200  800  600  400  300  600  800  900
(2) 300  400  600  800  1200  600  300  200 (2) 300  400  600  800  1200  600  300  200
(3) 1200  400  600  800  400  600  300  200 (3) 1200  400  600  800  400  600  300  200
(4) 300  400  600  800  900  1000  1100  1200 (4) 300  400  600  800  900  1000  1100  1200
25. Enzyme which does not directly act upon the food substrate 25.
in the small intestine of man is -
(1) Lipase (2) Trypsin (1) Lipase (2) Trypsin
(3) Amylase (4) Enterokinase (3) Amylase (4) Enterokinase
26. During rest, the metabolic needs of the body are at their 26.
minimum. Which of the following is indicative of this
situation-
(1) Rate of breathing (2) Pulse rate (1) (2)
(3) O2 intake and CO2 output(4) All of the above (3) O2 CO2 (4)

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 4


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
27. Enzyme (E) which catalyse reaction - 27. (E)
E E E E
CO2 + H2O H2CO3 HCO3– + H+ CO2 + H2O H2CO3 HCO3– + H+
is found in -
(1) RBC only (1) RBC
(2) Plasma only (2)
(3) Maximum in plasma and little in RBC (3) RBC
(4) Maximum in RBC and little in plasma (4) RBC
28. Transport of oxygen in blood - 28.
(1) 70% in dissolved state in plasma (1) 70%
(2) 3% in dissolved state in plasma (2) 3%
(3) 25% bound to haemoglobin (3) 25%
(4) 7% bound to haemoglobin (4) 7%
29. During hemodialysis the passes of molecules through 29.
cellophane membrane is based on -
(1) Pressure gradient (2) Concentration gradient (1) (2)
(3) Active transport (4) All of these (3) (4)
30. Correct statement(s) about fibrous joints is/are - 30.
(a) These joint do not allow any movement (a)
(b) Characteristicsly found in between skull bones (b)
(c) There is presence of synovial fluid (c)
(d) A very little movement is possible (d)
(e) Symphysis of skull is best example of fibrous joint (e)
(1) a and c are correct (2) a and b are correct (1) a c (2) a b
(3) a, b and e are correct (4) a, b and d are correct (3) a, b e (4) a, b d
31. Factors responsible for dissociation of oxygen from 31.
oxyhaemolgobin -
(a) High pCO2 (b) Low pCO2 (a) pCO2 (b) pCO2
(c) Low pH (d) High pH (c) pH (d) pH
(e) High temperature (f) Low temperature (e) (f)
(1) One (2) Two (1) (2)
(3) Three (4) Four (3) (4)
32. Which group of substances reabsorbed actively from the 32.
fitrate -
(1) Glucose, Amino acid, Na+ (1) Na+
(2) Glucose, Amino acid, Cl– (2) Cl–
(3) Glucose, Ammonia, Na+ (3) , Na+
+ +
(4) Amino acid, Na , H2O (4) Na , H2O
33. I band and A band is made up of - 33. I A
(1) Only Actin (1)
(2) A band – only actin, I band - actin and myosin (2) A – ,I -
(3) Actin and myosin (3)
(4) I band – only actin, A band - actin and myosin (4) I – ,A -

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 5


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
34. Ultrafiltration in glomerulus occurs due to - 34.
(1) Browman’s capsule has higher hydrostatic pressure than (1)
glomerulus
(2) Colloidal osmotic pressure and capsule’s hydrostatic (2)
pressure are lower than glomerular hydrostatic pressure
(3) Hydrostatic pressure is more than osmotic pressure (3) ,
(4) osmotic pressure is more than Hydrostatic pressure (4) ,
35. Caecum is small blind sac which hosts some symbiotic mi- 35.
cro-organisms. From it a small finger like vestigeal organ
arises. This organ is called -
(1) Parotid gland (2) Vermis (1) (2)
(3) Vermiform appendix (4) Colon (3) (4)
36. The below diagram represents the TS of Gut and lablled as 36.
a to d. Select correct option– a d

c c
d d

e e

(1) Contraction in 'a' causes increase length of gut (1) 'a'


(2) Contraction in 'b' causes decrease in lumen of gut (2) 'b'
(3) 'c' and 'd' both are made up of columnar epithelium (3) 'c' 'd'
(4) 'e' always remains empty (4) 'e'
37. Globulin protein present in blood are involved in - 37.
(1) Coagulation of blood (2) Defence mechanism (1) (2)
(3) Osmatic balance (4) Maintaining of blood pH (3) (4) pH
38. ATPase of muscle is located in - 38. ATPase
(1) Actin (2) Myosin (3) Troponin (4) Actinin (1) (2) (3) (4)
39. During coagulation of blood - 39.
(1) Thrombin are formed by the conversion of inactive (1)
fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme fibrins .
(2) Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive (2)
fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme thrombin.
(3) Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive (3)
fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme prothrombin.
(4) Fibrins are formed by the conversion of inactive (4)
fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme thrombokinase.

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 6


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
40. Which of the following substances are absorbed as co-trans- 40. Na+
port with Na+ ?
(1) Fructose (2) Some amino acid (1) (2)
(3) Amino acid and glucose (4) Fatty acid (3) (4)
41. Dengue fever can cause decrease in no. of circulating 41.
thrombocytes which results in -
(1) Immule disorder (2) Respiratory disorder (1) (2)
(3) Clotting disorder (4) Allergic reaction (3) (4)
42. Epiphyseal discs, which are present at the ends of long 42.
bones are responsible for -
(1) Remodelling the shape of bone (1)
(2) Growth of thickness of the bone (2)
(3) Bone elongation (3)
(4) Formation of Haversian canal (4)
43. How many statements are correct - 43.
(i) Interstitial fluid contains large protein molecules. (i)
(ii) Interstitial fluid has same mineral distribution as that in (ii)
plasma.
(iii) Exchange of nutrients, gases between blood and cells (iii)
occur through interstitial fluid
(iv) Interstitial fluid has large amount of dissolved (iv)
haemoglobin in it.
(v) Lymph is formed from interstitial fluid. (v)
(1) One (1)
(2) Two (2)
(3) Three (3)
(4) Four (4)
44. The diffusion of bicarbonate ions from RBC into plasma 44. RBC
and of chloride ions from plasmoa into RBC to maintain RBC RBC
ionic balance between RBC and plasma is known as -
(1) Bohr's effect (1)
(2) Haldane's effect (2)
(3) Hamburger's phenomenon (3)
(4) None (4)
45. During the urine formation the function of "tubular secre- 45. " "
tion" are -
(a) Secretion of H+, K+ and Ammonia (a) H+, K+
(b) Maintenance of ionic balance (b)
(c) Acid-base balance of the body fluids (c)
(1) Only (b) and (c) (1) (b) (c)
(2) Only (a) and (b) (2) (a) (b)
(3) Only (a) and (c) (3) (a) (c)
(4) All (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a), (b) (c)

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 7


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
46. Osmoreceptors stimulate the hypothalamus to release an- 46. (ADH)
tidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin from the -
(1) JG cells (2) DCT (1) JG (2) DCT
(3) Neurohypophysis (4) Heart (3) (4)
47. Read the following (A–D) statements - 47. (A–D)
(A) Plasma without the clotting factors is called lymph (A)
(B) Spleen is the graveyard of RBCs (B)
(C) Normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm of Hg (C) 120/80 mm of Hg
(D) Universal donor blood group is O +ve (D) O +ve
How many of the above statements are correct
(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One (1) (2) (3) (4)
48. Chordae tendinae are responsible for preventing back flow 48.
of blood from -
(1) Aorta to ventricles (1)
(2) Ventricles to atrium (2)
(3) Atrium to superior venacava (3)
(4) Pulmonary vein to left atrium. (4)
49. In relation to human intestine, all are correct except ? 49.
(1) Large intestine has ascending, descending transverse (1)
part
(2) Duodennum 'C' shape structure (2) 'C'
(3) Tanea & haustra distributed throuhout intestine (3)
(4) Well developed microvilli confined only to small intestine (4)
50. During joint diastole of cardiac cycle - 50.
(a) Semilunar valve remain open (a)
(b) Tricuspid and bicuspid valve remain open (b)
(c) Semilunar valve remain closed (c)
(d) Tricuspid and bicuspid valve remain closed (d)
(1) a and b (1) a b
(2) b and c (2) b c
(3) c and d (3) c d
(4) a and d (4) a d
51. Correct statement is - 51.
(1) Vagus nerve is responsible for genration of action (1)
potential in heart
(2) Sino-atrial node (SAN) is responsible for genration of (2) (SAN)
action potential in heart
(3) Atrio-ventricular node (AVN) is responsible for genration (3) (AVN)
of action potential in heart
(4) Hypothallamus is responsible for genration of action (4)
potential in heart

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 8


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
52. Read the following statements - 52.
(a) Mitochondria are more in number and rich myoglobin is (a)
found is red muscles
(b) Red muscles involve in prolonged and continued activ- (b)
ity
(c) Mitochondria and myoglobin content is less in white (c)
muscles
(d) Sarcoplasmic reticulum is more extensive in red muscles (d)
Out of these which are correct statements
(1) Statements a, b and c (2) Statement a, b and d (1) a, b c (2) a, b d
(3) Statement b, c and d (4) Statement a and c (3) b, c d (4) a c
53. A disorder in which there is acute chest pain appears when 53.
no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle, it is-
(1) Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) (1) (CAD)
(2) Angina pectoris (2)
(3) Congestive heart failure (3)
(4) Heart attack (4)
A A
54. Dipeptides   Amino acid. 54.  
B B
Maltose  Glucose + Glucose  +
C C
Protein  Peptons + Protease  +
Choose correct pair ?
(a) A-dipeptidases-In stomach (a) A- -
(b) B-maltase-small intestine (b) B- -
(c) C-pepsin-stomach (c) C- -
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c (3) a, c (4) none (1) a, b, c (2) b, c (3) a, c (4)
55. Read the following statement - 55.
(a) Length of I-band is decreased (a) I-
(b) A-band remains constent (b) A-
(c) Myosin head are attached with open active sites of ac- (c)
tin filaments and to form cross bridge
(d) Length of sarcomere is decreased (d)
How many statements are correct with regards to muscle
contraction?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) One (1) (2) (3) (4)
56. Read the following statements - 56.
(A) First heart sound is related to closing of tricuspid and (A)
bicuspid valve
(B) Second heart sound related to closing of semi-lunar (B)
valve
(C) During ventricular systole, semilunar valves are closed (C)
and produced second heart sound
(D) During ventricular systole, tricuspid and bicuspid valves (D)
are closed and produced first heart sound.
Out of these which are correct statement ?
(1) A, B and C (2) A, B and D (1) A, B C (2) A, B D
(3) A, C and D (4) All of these (3) A, C D (4)

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 9


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
57. Which is not correct about properties of muscles - 57.
(1) Skeletal muscles are neurogenic (1)
(2) Skeletal muscles are conneted through intercalated disc (2)
(3) Visceral muscles are involuntary (3)
(4) Cardiac muscles are striated in appearance (4)
58. Cholecystokinine (CCK) acts on - 58. (CCK)
(1) Gastric glands of stomach (1)
(2) Exocrine pancreas and gall bladder (2)
(3) Gut muscles and stimulate peristalsis (3)
(4) Exocrine part of pancreas only (4)
59. Common blood buffer is – 59.
(1) Only plasma protein (1)
(2) carbonate, bicarbonate and plasma protein (2)
(3) Sodium and potassium (3)
(4) phosphate and sulphate (4)
60. Acromion process is a part of - 60.
(1) Clavicle (2) Scapula (1) (2)
(3) Humerus (4) Pelvic girdle (3) (4)
61. A disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to 61.
fatigue, weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is -
(1) Auto immune disorder (2) Age related disorder (1) (2)
(3) Deficiency disorder (4) Genetic disorder (3) (4)
62. Renal corpuscle is formed by - 62.
(1) Afferent and efferent arterioles (1)
(2) Glomerulus and bowman's capsule (2)
(3) Bowman's capsule only (3)
(4) Bowman's capsule with PCT and DCT (4) PCT DCT
63. Correct statements regarding juxta medullary nephron - 63.

(i) Maximum in number (i)


(ii) Loop of henle is very long (ii)
(iii) Network of vasa recta is present (iii)
(1) i and ii (2) ii and iii (1) i ii (2) ii iii
(3) iii and i (4) ii only (3) iii i (4) ii
64. Which of the following statements are false - 64.
(a) Micturition is carried out by a reflex. (a)
(b) ADH helps in water elimination, making the urine (b) ADH
hypotonic.
(c) Protein-free fluid is filtered from blood plasma into the (c)
Bowman’s capsule.
(d) Glucose is passively reabsorbed in the proximal (d) (PCT)
convoluted tubule.
(1) a and b (2) c and d (1) a b (2) c d
(3) b, c and d (4) b and d (3) b, c d (4) b d

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 10


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
65. Which one statements is wrong about parts of alimentary 65.
canal -
(1) Pharynx is common passage between food and air (1)
conductivity
(2) Oesophagous is long tube like structure that pass through (2)
neck, thorax and diaphragm.
(3) Stomach is 'U' shaped, oesophagous open into fundus (3) 'U'
region of stomach.
(4) Cyctic duct alongwith hepatic duct forms common bile (4)
duct that open into hepatopancreatic duct.
66. Diagram of large intestine is given here. Identify the parts 66. a, b, c, d, e f
a, b, c, d, e and f

(1) a – sigmoid, b – vermiform appendix, c – ascending (1) a – ,b– ,c– ,d


colon, d – transverse colon, e – descending colon, f – caecum – ,e– ,f–
(2) a – caecum, b – vermiform appendix, c – sigmoid, d – (2) a – , b– , c– ,d–
ascending colon, e – transverse colon, f – descendin ,e– ,f–
(3) a – caecum, b – vermiform appendix, c – ascending (3) a – ,b– ,c– ,d–
colon, d – transverse colon, e – descending colon, f – sigmoid ,e– ,f–
(4) a – sigmoid, b – vermiform appendix, c – descending (4) a – ,b– , c– ,d
colon, d – transverse colon, e – ascending colon, f – caecum – ,e– ,f–
67. Kwashiorkar and marasmus both deficiencies are protein 67
callory malnutrition deficiency, so how can we differentiate
it -
(1) Kwashiorkor is due to protein malnutrition but marasmus (1)
is caused by protein calorie malutrition.
(2) Marasmus is due to protein malnutrition and kwashiorkar (2)
is caused by protein caloire malnutrition.
(3) Meternal milk replaced by high calorie supplement (3)
caused marasmus.
(4) None of these (4)
68. Hardest tissue of the body - 68.
(1) Enamel (2) Cartilage (1) (2)
(3) Bone (4) WFCT (3) (4)

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 11


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
69. (A) Pseudostratified epithelium, long cells and short cells 69. (A)
nucleus present at different level so its appeared bilayered.
(B) Cuboidal epithelium is present on absorption, secretion (B)
and excretion sight.
(C) Simple columnar epithelium is mostly present on (C)
excretion sight.
(D) Simple squmous epithelium is also called tesselated (D) tesselated
epithelium due to its wavy appearance
How much statement are incorrect about epithelium tissue -
(1) One (2) Three (1) (2)
(3) Two (4) None of these (3) (4)
70. The essential chemical components of many coenzymes 70.
are -
(1) Vitamins (2) Proteins (1) (2)
(3) Nucleic acids (4) Carbohydrates (3) (4)
71. Chymotrypsinogen, an enzyme of pancreatic juice, gets 71.
directly activated in the small intestine by –
(1) Hydrochloric acid (2) Enterokinase (1) (2)
(3) Trypsin (4) Bile (3) (4)
72. The cells found in the inner surface of bronchioles which 72.
move particles in a specific direction over the epithelium
are of-
(1) Glandular epithelium (1)
(2) Columnar epithelium (2)
(3) Cuboidal epithelium (3)
(4) Ciliated epithelium (4)
73. Which type of cell junction would be required for cells to 73.
communicate with one another ?
(1) Adhering junctions (2) Desmosomes (1) (2)
(3) Gap junctions (4) Tight junctions (3) (4)

74. The supportive skeletal structures in the human external 74.


ears and in the nose tip are examples of :

(1) ligament (2) areolar tissue (1) (2)

(3) bone (4) cartilage (3) (4)

75. Tendons connects - 75.

(1) Nerve to muscle (2) Muscle to muscle (1) (2)

(3) Bone to bone (4) Bone to muscle (3) (4)

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 12


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
76. Which one of the following contains the largest quantity of 76.
extracellular material
(1) Striated muscle (2) Areolar tissue (1) (2)
(3) Stratified epithelium (4) Myelinated nerve fibres (3) (4)
77. Dermis is- 77.
(1) Regular dense connective tissue (1)
(2) Stratified epithelium (2)
(3) Irregular dense connective tissue (3)
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium (4)
78. One amongst the following combinations will not undergo 78.
any digestion till it reaches stomach -
(1) Starch and fat (1)
(2) Polysaccharide and protein (2)
(3) Fat and protein (3)
(4) Starch and protein (4)
79. Given is the diagram of the human jaw showing the teeth. 79. 2 4
The names of teeth numbered 2 and 4 are respectively –

(1) Incisor and Canine (2) Canine and Premolar (1) (2)
(3) Premolar and molar (4) Incisor and premolar (3) (4)
80. Consider the following factor : 80.
a. Rise in PCO2 b. Fall in temperature a. PCO2 b.
+ +
c. Rise in H ions d. Rise in PO2. c. H d. PO2
e. Rise in pH f. High amount of DPG. e. pH f. DPG
How many above factors decrease the P50 value and effect P50
on dissociation curve ?
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (1) (2) (3) (4)
81. Arrange the correct sequence of enzyme which act on food 81.
in different regions of alimentary canal –
A. Pepsin B. Ptyalin A. B.
C. Dipeptidase D. Carboxypeptidase C. D.
(1) B  D  A  C (2) B  A  D  C (1) B  D  A  C (2) B  A  D  C
(3) A  D  C  B (4) B  A  C  D (3) A  D  C  B (4) B  A  C  D

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 13


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
82. Which of the following statements correctly describes the 82.
respiratory tract ?
I. The right lung is larger than the left I.
II. The branching network of bronchi, bronchioles and alveoli II.
comprise the lungs
III. In human air enters the lungs because of created III.
negative pressure.
(1) I only (2) I and II only (1) I (2) I II
(3) II and III only (4) All of these (3) II III (4)
83. Find the correct option related to given type of muscles in 83.
given diagram.

(i) Spindle shaped (ii) Striated (i) (ii)


(iii) Cell junction present (iv) Involuntary (iii) (iv)
(v) Found in pancreas and wall of intesetine (v)
(1) Only i, iii, iv and v are correct (1) i, iii, iv v
(2) Only i, iii and iv are correct (2) i, iii iv
(3) Only i, iv and v are correct (3) i, iv v
(4) Only ii and iii are correct (4) ii iii
84. Given below is a diagrammatic representation of a glandular 84.
tissue.

In the list given below, how many glands are related w.r.t.
above diagram -
Pancreas, Salivary gland, Mammary gland, , , ,
Sebaceolus gland, Goblet gland, Tear gland, , , ,
Paneth cells, Sweat gland ,

(1) Two (2) Six (3) Five (4) All (1) (2) (3) (4)

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 14


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
85. The type of tissue which is widely distributed throughout 85.
body forms packing between glands and attaches the skin
to underlying tissues is -
(1) Adipose tissue (1)
(2) Areolar connective tissue (2)
(3) Dense regular collagenous connective tissue (3)
(4) Dense regular elastic connective tissue (4)
86. When a person moves up the hill, to any higher altitude 86.
place (> 3500 m) Rohtang pass, he experiences altitude (> 3500 m)
sickness.
A. What is the reason for this ? A.
B. How did your body solve this problem? B.
Choose the correct answer for A and B. A B
(1) A – Increasing the binding capacity of haemoglobin (1) A –
B – Increasing RBC production B – RBC
(2) A – Low oxygen availability, decreasing binding capacity (2) A –
of haemoglobin
B – Increasing red blood cell production and by B–
increasing breathing rate
(3) A – Increasing the binding capacity of haemoglobin (3) A –
B – Increasing breathing rate and increasing RBC B–
production
(4) A – Decreasing bindin capacity of haemoglobin (4) A –
B – Increasing breathing rate and decreasing RBC B–
production
87. Which statement is true - 87.
(1) Total thickness of diffusion membrane is less than a (1) 1
millimetre
(2) Diffusion capacity of O2 is higher than that of CO2 (2) O2 CO2
(3) Diffusion capcity of CO2 is 20-25 times less than that of O2 (3) CO2 O2 20-25
(4) All of the above (4)
88. Which sequences is correct to initiate expiration? 88.
I. Relaxation of EICM and return of diaphragm and sternum I. EICM
to their normal position
II. Air expelled from lungs II.
III. Volume of thorax decreases III.
IV. Intrapulmonary pressure increases IV.
(1) I  IV  III  II (2) I  IV  II  III (1) I  IV  III  II (2) I  IV  II  III
(2) IV  III  II  I (4) I  III  IV  II (2) IV  III  II  I (4) I  III  IV  II
89. If a person takes a diet which contains about 10g. 89. 10g 40g
Carbohydrate, 40g. protein and 20g fat. What will be the 20g
total amount of energy (in Kcal), which will gain by person? (Kcal )
(1) 380 (2) 420 (3) 500 (4) 300 (1) 380 (2) 420 (3) 500 (4) 300

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 15


CLASS -XIII (Spartan Batch)
B - 4 : Human Physiology-I
90. The accompanying graph depicts the percent saturation of 90.
vertebrate haemoglobin with oxygen. What does X and Y X Y
indicate ?

(1) X–Oxygenated blood, Y–Deoxygenated blood (1) X– , Y–


(2) X–Deoxygenated blood, Y–Oxygenated blood (2) X– , Y–
(3) X–Haemophilic person blood, Y–Blood of normal person (3) X– , Y–
(4) X–Blood of adult, Y–Blood of foetus (4) X– , Y–

Answer Key
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 2 3 4 3 1 3 3 1 2 3 3 4
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 1 2 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 2 2 2 3
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 2 2 2 2
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 1 2 2 4 3 3 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 4 4 2 3 3 4 2
Qus. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. 2 4 1 2 2 2 1 4 1 1

GCI DTS (Dimond Test Series) for NEET- 2020 16

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