Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 1

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
Mark only one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the
letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES
ALLOWED.GOOD LUCK.

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.
GOOD LUCK.

PART 1: APPLIED MATHEMATICS, SURVEYING, PRINCIPLES OF TRANSPORTATION AND HIGHWAY

ENGINEERING, CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT AND METHODS

1. If logx 2 = 1.2a and logx 3 = 1.5a, find logx 12 .

A. 2.7a C. 2.1a
B. 1.35a D. 1.95a

2. If sin2x + y = m and cos2x + y = n, find y.

A. (m + n + 1)/2 C. (m + n – 2)/2
B. (m + n – 1)/2 D. (m + n + 2)/2

3. Simplify the radical shown: !𝒂#𝒂√𝒂 .

A. a7/8 C. a1/2
B. a3/8 D. a1/3

4. A sum of 1000.00 is invested now and left for eight years, at which time
the principal is withdrawn. The interest that has accrued is left for another
eight years. If the effective annual interest is 5%, what will be the
withdrawal amount at the end of 16th year.
A. 705.42 C. 726.34
B. 742.05 D. 734.26

5. A clock has a minute hand of 16 cm long and an hour hand 11 cm long. Find
the distance between the outer tips of the hands at 2:30 o’clock.
A. 19.6 cm C. 21.6 cm
B. 20.6 cm D. 22.6 cm

6. The engineering group of Review Innovation must decide to spend 90,000 on

the new project The project will cost 5000 per year operations and it will
increase revenues by 20,000 annually. Both costs and revenues will continue
for 10 years. How much interest is incurred in this project?
A. 9.56% C. 11.56%
B. 10.56% D. 12.33%

7. Aedan pays an on-line course a fixed monthly fee plus an hourly charge for
viewing videos. His April bill was $12.48, but in May his bill was $17.54
because he watched twice as much videos as in April. What is the fixed
monthly fee?
A. $2.53 C. $7.42
B. $5.06 D. $6.24

8. In a geometric sequence of real numbers, the sum of the first two terms is
11 and the sum of the first six terms is 77. Find the sum of the first four
terms of the progression.
A. 22 C. 33
B. 55 D. 44

9. Northern Construction and Engineering plans on opening an office in Duluth.

Over the next 25 years, the office is expected to have a positive cash flow
of Php. 250,000 per year. What is the equivalent present worth if the first
12 years has an annual interest rate of 12% and the next 13 years has 15%
compounded monthly.
A. 1.89 M C. 1.96 M
B. 1.77 M D. 1.65 M

10. Arteezy has asked three banks for a loan of $15,000. Each bank has its own
rate and compounding interval, but each loan would be paid back by a single,
lump-sum payment of principal and interest at the end of 5 years. Which loan
has the smallest payment? How much better than the next best is this?

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 1

• First Federal Bank: Annual compounding at 10% per year

• Second State Bank: Monthly compounding at a nominal 9% per year
• City Credit Union: Quarterly compounding at a nominal 8% per year

A. The First federal bank is the most attractive, and its final payment
is $2000 lower than Second State bank.
B. The Second State bank is the most attractive, and its final payment is
$2000 lower than the City Credit Union
C. The City Credit Loan is the most attractive, and its final payment is
$1200 lower than the Second State Loan.
D. The First federal bank is the most attractive and its final payment
is $1200 lower than the Second State Loan.

11. At a certain instant, a lighthouse is 4 miles north of a ship which is

traveling directly east. If after 10 minutes, the bearing of the lighthouse
is found to be North 21 degrees 15 minutes West, find the speed of the ship
in miles per hour.
A. 11.3 mph C. 9.3 mph
B. 10.3 mph D. 8.3 mph

12. A cigarette vendor borrowed P2400 and agreed to pay P3000 after 30 days.
What is the simple interest rate per annum?
A. 100% C. 300%
B. 200% D. 400%

13. How many different value(s) of 𝒙 from 0° to 180° satisfies the equation
(2 sin x - 1)(cos x + 1) = 0?
A. 1 C. 3
B. 2 D. 0

14. The salary of an employee's job has five levels, each one is 5% greater than
the one below it. Due to circumstances, the salary of the employee must
reduce from the top (fifth) level to the second level, which results in a
reduction of $122 per month. What is the employee's present salary per
month?
A. $440 C. $680
B. $570 D. $900

15. What is the smallest nominal rate to yield an annual effective rate of
10.15%?
A. 9.71% C. 9.45%
B. 9.67% D. 9.79%

16. Evaluate C(2000, 2) + C(2000, 5) + C(2000, 8) + ... + C(2000, 29).

A. 4.952 × 1064 C. 2.773 × 1026
B. 5.025 × 1064 D. 6.852 × 1046

17. Ronron and Dandan run at constant speeds along the UP Diliman Academic Oval,
2,300m loop. Running in opposite directions, they meet every 8 minutes while
running in the same direction, they are together every 40 minutes. Find the
speed of the faster runner.
A. 115m/min C. 164m/min
B. 172m/min D. 187m/min

18. A car can be purchased by 5 end of the month payments. The first payment
would be 5000 and would increase by 500 every payment. How much it will cost
if the buyer will buy this on cash instead of installment using 6%,
compounded quarterly?
A. 29523.95 C. 29533.95
B. 29532.95 D. 29522.95

Situation 1. The perimeter of a triangle is 584 cm. The interior angles measure
500, 600, and 700 respectively.

19. What is the length of the shortest side of the triangle?

A. 173.95 C. 181.06
B. 143.44 D. 164.12

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 1

20. What is the area of the triangle?

A. 15,998 C. 17,891
B. 16,073 D. 14,432

21. What is the radius of the largest circle that can be cut from this triangle?
A. 52 C. 58
B. 55 D. 61

PART 2: HYDRAULICS AND PRINCIPLES OF GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING

22. A mercury barometer at the base of a mountain reads 736 mm. At the same
time, another barometer at the top of the mountain reads 590 mm. Assuming
air weighs 12 N/m3, the height of the mountain is nearest to:
A. 1849 m C. 1623 m
B. 2708 m D. 2017 m

23. An open tank contains a liquid 5 m deep of unit weight 7 kN/m3. Water, of
unit weight 9.81 kN/m3, is poured over the liquid and the total depth of
both liquids is 8 m. Obtain the gage pressure in kPa at the point 6 m from
the surface:
A. 44.8 C. 50.4
B. 64.4 D. 29.4

Situation 2. A sample of clay is brought back from the field, extruded from the
Shelby tube, and trimmed to the following dimensions: height = 150 mm,
diameter = 75 mm. It weighs 13.2 N. The water content has been determined
to be 25%. Find the following parameters for the clay, assume the unit
weight of solids is 27 kN/m3:

24. Natural unit Weight.

A. 15.94 kN/m3 C. 19.92 kN/m3
B. 18.24 kN/m3 D. 17.22 kN/m3

25. Degree of Saturation.

A. 99.1% C. 92.7%
B. 82.6% D. 87.4%

26. Porosity.
A. 69% C. 58%
B. 37% D. 41%

27. A building is 82.5 m high above the street level. The water line at the top
of the building requires a static pressure of 2 kg/cm2. What must be the
pressure in kPa in the main waterline located 4.25 m below the street level?
A. 956 C. 1120
B. 1568 D. 1047

28. A barometer reads 76 cm Hg and a pressure gage attached to a tank reads 38

cm of Hg. Determine the absolute pressure (kPa) in the tank.
A. 152 C. 148
B. 164 D. 170

Situation 3. The Atterberg limits of a given soil are as follows:

LL = 68% PL = 37% SL = 22%
If the natural water content of this soil at the site is 42%, determine:

29. Plasticity Index.

A. 36% C. 31%
B. 27% D. 39%

30. Consistency index.

A. 0.84 C. 0.92
B. 0.79 D. 0.69

31. Rating based on liquidity index.

A. Brittle Solid C. Liquid
B. Plastic D. None of the above

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 1

32. A capillary tube of a uniform bore is dipped vertically in water which rises
7 cm in the tube. Find the radius of the capillary, in mm, if the surface
tension is 0.07 N/m.
A. 0.4 C. 0.6
B. 0.2 D. 0.8

33. If the surface tension of water at 20 degrees Celsius is 0.0739 N/m, what
is the pressure inside a water droplet 0.5 mm in diameter.
A. 645 C. 148
B. 591 D. 296

34. Two pipes on the same elevation convey water and oil of specific gravity
0.88 respectively. They are connected by a U-tube manometer with the
manometric liquid having a specific gravity of 1.25. If the manometric
liquid in the limb connecting the water pipe is 2 m higher than the other
find the pressure difference in two pipes, in kPa, if h = 3 m.
A. 11.1 C. 12.1
B. 9.9 D. 10.8

Situation 4. The result of a constant-head permeability test for a fine sand

sample having a diameter of 150 mm and a length of 300 mm are as follows:
Constant-head difference = 500 mm
Water collected in 5 mins = 350 cm3
Void Ratio of sand = 0.61

35. Hydraulic Conductivity in cm/sec.

A. 3.78 x 10-3 C. 4.13 x 10-3
B. 3.82 x 10-3 D. 3.96 x 10-3

36. Discharge Velocity in cm/sec.

A. 6.60 x 10-3 C. 6.37 x 10-3
B. 6.88 x 10-3 D. 6.30 x 10-3

37. Seepage Velocity in cm/sec.

A. 0.017 C. 0.021
B. 0.019 D. 0.023

38. Determine the unit weight (N/m3) of dry air at 6°C and at 93 kPa absolute.
R = 287 J/kg•K.
A. 1.16 C. 12
B. 11.38 D. 9.81

39. If the Philippine Trench is observed to be 10.5 km deep. The pressure on

the trench is greater than the atmospheric pressure. What is the gage
pressure at the bottom of the ocean at that location. Use specific gravity
of water = 1.03.
A. 968 atm C. 1017 atm
B. 997 atm D. 1047 atm

PART 3: PRINCIPLES OF STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS AND DESIGN

Situation 5. Data of a beam section is given below.

Beam width = 300 mm
Effective depth = 420 mm
Concrete fc’ = 35 MPa
Steel fyl = 420 MPa

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 1

Bar diameter = 20 mm

40. Based on the given dimensions and properties of materials, the code requires
to provide a tension steel area (mm2) of at least?
A. 425 C. 590
B. 385 D. 444

41. For the beam to be singly-reinforced, tension-controlled, the tension area

(mm2) must not exceed?
A. 3,169 C. 2,773
B. 2,677 D. 2,946

42. If the factored bending moment is 180 kN-m, determine the required number
of tension bars.
A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5

Situation 6. Given the beam below: E = 200 GPa , I = 𝟏𝟑𝟑 𝒙 𝟏𝟎𝟔 𝒎𝒎𝟒

43. What is the deflection at the free end?

A. 1098 mm C. 981 mm
B. 1414 mm D. 1395 mm

44. What is the location of maximum deflection in span AB measured from point
A?
A. 3.15 m C. 1.85 m
B. 9.85 m D. 13.0 m

45. What is the maximum deflection in between points A and B?

A. 981.33 mm C. 52.33 mm
B. 696.86 mm D. 44.41 mm

Situation 7. Data of a beam section is given below.

B×H = 250 mm × 600 mm
Bar diameter = 20 mm
Clear concrete cover to 10 mm
diameter ties = 40 mm
Concrete fc’ = 35 MPa
Steel fyl = 415 MPa
ϕ=0.90
The beam is simply supported with a span of 6m. It will carry a 5kN/m total
factored dead load and 85 kN factored live load at midspan.

46. Which of the following most nearly gives the critical factored moment (kN-
m).
A. 150.0 C. 231.0
B. 217.5 D. 186.5

47. Determine the required number of tension bars.

A. 2 C. 4
B. 3 D. 5

48. If a 4 kN/m service live load is added, determine the required number of
tension bars.
A. 3 C. 5
B. 4 D. 6

49. A pressure vessel, 500 mm in diameter, is to be fabricated from 12 mm thick

steel plates with an average tensile strength of 420 MPa. Determine the
maximum internal pressure (in MPa) that a cylindrical vessel can be subjected
to, if the allowable steel stress is 120 MPa using a safety factor of 3.5?

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 1

A. 5.7 C. 3.3
B. 11.5 D. 1.6

50. Beam ABC is pinned at point A and supported at point B by a tie BD as shown
in the figure below. Which of the following is the minimum safe diameter of
the bolt at B if the allowable shearing stress is 60 MPa?
A. 8.0 C. 12.0
B. 11.0 D. 7.5

51. A pole with 300 mm outside diameter and 6 mm thick supports a 1.7 m wide by
1 m high sign board as shown in the figure below. The sign board is subjected
to a uniform wind pressure of 2.5 kPa. Find the maximum shearing stress in
the pole, due to torsion alone.
A. 4.52 C. 0.80
B. 5.32 D. 6.96

Situation 8. The hook is subjected to three forces P, Q and S as shown. P = 35

kN and Q = 45kN.

y S

α
x
P = 35 kN
60°

Q = 45 kN

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 1

52. Determine the angle α such that the resultant of the three forces is 80 kN
acting horizontally to the right.
A. 22.85º C. 24.98º
B. 21.78º D. 23.12º

53. If angle α = 60°, find the magnitude of the force S such that the resultant
force is horizontal to the right.
A. 48 kN C. 42 kN
B. 51 kN D. 45 kN

54. Find the magnitude of the force S such that the three forces are in
equilibrium.
A. 43.87 kN C. 45.98 kN
B. 40.93 kN D. 38.65 kN

Situation 9. Classify each of the structures shown as externally unstable,

statically determinate, or statically in-determinate. If the structure is
statically indeterminate externally, then determine the degree of external
indeterminacy.

(a)

(b) (c)

55. (a)
A. Statically Determinate
B. Statically Indeterminate to the 1st degree
C. Statically Indeterminate to the 2nd degree
D. Externally Unstable

56. (b)
A. Statically Determinate
B. Statically Indeterminate to the 1st degree
C. Statically Indeterminate to the 2nd degree
D. Externally Unstable

57. (c)
A. Statically Determinate
B. Statically Indeterminate to the 1st degree
C. Statically Indeterminate to the 2nd degree
D. Externally Unstable

Situation 10. A simply supported W 350 x 90 girder, 8 m long carries a

concentrated load P positioned at midpoint point. The beam also carries a
uniform dead load of 5 kN/m (including its own weight) and live load of 7.2
kN/m. Use Fy = 250 MPa and E = 200 GPa.

Properties of W 350 x 90:

d = 350 mm Ix = 266.4 x 106 mm4
tw = 10 mm Sx = 1,510 x 103 mm3
bf = 250 mm
tf = 16.5 mm

Allowable stresses:

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 Review Innovations April 2024 CE Board Exam – Evaluation Exam 1

Allowable deflection = L/360

Flexure, Fb = 0.66Fy
Shear, Fv = 0.40Fy

58. Determine the value of P based on deflection.

A. 18.3 kN C. 25.1 kN
B. 21.1 kN D. 12.3 kN

59. Determine the value of P based on flexure.

A. 68.3 kN C. 83.3 kN
B. 75.8 kN D. 91.1 kN

60. Determine the value of P based on shear.

A. 501 kN C. 405 kN
B. 602 kN D. 701 kN

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