Xii Physics Study Material 2023-24

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN
DEHRADUN REGION
STUDENT SUPPORT
MATERIAL
PHYSICS
CLASS – XII
SESSION 2023-24
KVS RO DEHRADUN
STUDENT SUPPORT MATERIAL
INSPIRATION
Dr. SUKRITI RAIWANI
(Deputy Commissioner, KVS RO DEHRADUN)
Mr. Lalit Mohan Bisht

Asstt. Commissioner, KVS RO DEHRADUN
Ms. Swati Agarwal

Mr. Surjit Singh

MENTOR
Mr. Hanumant Singh
Principal, KV FRI DEHRADUN
RESOURCE PERSONS:-
1) Sh. Bhuwan Chandra Purohit PGT Physics K.V. Banbasa Cantt
2) Sh.Vikas Prabhakar PGT Physics K.V. No.1 Hathibarkala Dehradun
3) Sh. M.K. Batra PGT Physics KV FRI DEHRADUN
KVS RO DEHRADUN
LIST OF PARTICIPANTS
SNO. NAME OF KV NAME OF PGT

1 Almora MS DEEPTI JOSHI
2 Dehradun, OFD Mrs Manju Rani Rawat
3 Dehradun, ONGC Mr R.S Chauhan
4 Dehradun, ONGC Ms Poonam Sharma
5 Haldwani Ist Shift Mr Mohit Sharma
6 Hardwar, BHEL Mr Kamal Kant
7 Kausani Mr. B.S. Kandpal
8 Mirthi, ITBP MR NAVEEN SINGH BHANDARI
9 Mussoorie MR PANKAJ KUMAR
10 Dehraddun, No.2 HBK Ms Ritu Yadav
11 Joshimath Ms. Suryakant
12 Dehradun IIP Mr Ratul Bijalwan
13 Dehradun, IMA Mr. Vikas Monaker
14 Dehradun, IMA Mr. Shrichand Arya
15 Dehradun, ONGC Mr Alok Chandra Malasi
16 Pauri MR MANOJ KUMAR
17 Lansdowne MS UZMA AKHTAR
18 Raiwala Mr Arun Kumar
19 Rajgarhi Mrs. Neha Chauhan
20 Ranikhet Mr. Prem Prakash Pandey
21 Ranikhet Mr. Hitendra Singh
22 Roorkee, No.1 Mrs.SHUCHI YADAV
23 Dehradun, OEF (OLF) SH. DEEPAK THAPLIYAL
24 Srinagar, SSB Sh. Ravi Kumar
25 Uttarkashi Shri Narendra Singh Gangwar
26 NHPC BANBASA SH VIRENDRA SINGH
27 Dehradun, Cantt. Mrs Neena Gupta
28 Dehradun, ITBP (1st Shfit) Mrs. Akshita Chaudhary
29 Dehradun, ITBP (1st Shfit) Sh.V.K Naudiyal

30 Rishikesh Mrs.Monika Arya
31 Haldwani 2nd Shift Mr Vijay shah
32 Lohaghat Mr Krishna Singh Rawat
33 Kashipur Dr. Navin Pant
34 New Tehri Town MRS NIRUPAMA
35 Roorkee, No.1 Mr.S.S.RAWAT
36 Roorkee, No.2 MR. PRAVENDRA SINGH
37 Dharchula, NHPC Dr. Neeraj Singh
38 Gauchar, ITBP Mr. Kuldeep Daundiyal
39 Augustyamuni MR JAIKRISHAN
Electric Charges and Field
MCQ
Q1.SI unit of permittivity of free space is
(a) Farad
(b) Weber
(c) C2N-1 m-2
(d) C2N-1 m-2
Q 2. Which of the following figures represent the electric field lines due to a single negative charge?
Q3.A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two point charges +q and +q as shown in the figure. The
ratio of charges Q and q is
Q4. The total flux through the faces of the cube with side of length a if a charge q is placed at corner A of the cube
is?
Q5.In comparison with the electrostatic force between two electrons, the electrostatic force between two protons is:
(a)greater
(b) smaller
(c) zero
(d) same.
Q6. What is the dielectric constant of a metal?
a. -1
b. 0
c. 1
d. Infinite
Q7. What will be the total flux passing through the cylinder if the surface A and B have surface area S?
a) ES
b) –ES
c) Zero
d) ES/εo
Q8. If the force acting on a point charge kept on the axis of an electric dipole is F, what will be the amount of
force if the distance of the point charge is doubled from the dipole?
1. 2F
2. F/8
3. F/2
4. F/4
Q9. The force per unit charge is known as

(a) electric flux
(b) electric field
(c) electric potential
(d) electric current
Q10. Consider a region inside which, there are various types of charges but the total charge is zero. At points outside
the region
(a) the electric field is necessarily zero.
(b) the electric field is due to the dipole moment of the charge distribution only.
(c) the dominant electric field is inversely pro-portional to r3, for large r (distance from ori-gin).
(d) the work done to move a charged particle along a closed path, away from the region will not be zero.
Assertion and Reason questions electric charges and field

Directions: For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R), choose the correct alternative from the following.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c)A is true but R is false
(d) If both A and R are false
Q1. Assertion : Electric lines of force never cross each other.
Reason : Electric field at a point superimpose to give one resultant electric field.
Q2.Assertion : The Coulomb force is the dominating force in the universe.
Reason : The Coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.
Q3.Assertion : In a cavity within a conductor, the electric field is zero.
Reason : Charges in a conductor reside only at its surface.
Q4. Assertion : Coulomb force and gravitational force follow the same inverse-square law.
Reason : Both laws are same in all aspects.
Q5.Assertion : A metallic shield in form of a hollow shell may be built to block an electric field.
Reason : In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.
Q6. Assertion : On disturbing an electric dipole in stable equilibrium in an electric field, it returns back to its stable
equilibrium orientation.
Reason : A restoring torque acts on the dipole on being disturbed from its stable equilibrium.
Q7. Assertion (A): As force is a vector quantity, hence electric field intensity is also a vector quantity
Reason (R): The unit of electric field intensity is newton per coulomb.
Q8. Assertion (A): Range of Coulomb force is infinite.
Reason (R): Coulomb force acts between two charged particles.
Q9. Assertion (A): A small metal ball is suspended in a uniform electric field with an insulated thread. If high energy
X-ray beam falls on the ball, the ball will be deflected in the electric field.
Reason (R): X-rays emits photoelectron and metal becomes negatively charged.
Q10. Assertion (A): If a point charge be rotated in a circle around a charge, the work done will be zero.
Reason (R): Work done is equal to dot product of force and displacement
Very Short Answers Questions

Electric charges and field
Q1.If the radius of the Gaussian surface enclosing a charge is halved, how does the electric flux through the Gaussian
surface change ?
Q2. Figure shows three point charges, +2q, -q and + 3q. Two charges +2q and -q are enclosed within a surface ‘S’.
What is the electric flux due to this configuration through the surface ‘S’
Q3What is the direction of the electric field at the surface of a charged conductor having charge density σ < 0?
Q4. Two charges of magnitudes -3Q and + 2Q are located at points (a, 0) and (4a, 0) respectively. What is the electric
flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius ‘5a’ with its centre at the origin?
Q5. Write the expression for the work done on an electric dipole of dipole moment p in turning it from its position of
stable equilibrium to a position of unstable equilibrium in a uniform electric
field E
Q6.Draw the pattern of electric field lines, when a point charge – Q is kept near an uncharged conducting plate.
Q7.Is the electric force between two electrons greater than the gravitational force between them ? If so, by what
factor ?
Q8.An isolated conducting sphere is given a positive charge. Does its mass increase, decrease or remain
the same ?
Q9.Consider three charged bodies P, Q and R. If P and Q repel each other and P attracts R, what is the nature
of force between Q and R?
Q10.Two parallel uniformly charged infinite plane sheets, ′1′ and ′2, have charge densities +σ and −2σ respectively. Give the
magnitude and direction of the net electric field at a point.
(i) In between the two sheets and
(ii) Outside near the sheet ′1′.
Short Answers Questions

Electric Charges and Fields
Q1.A sphere S1of radius r1encloses a change Q. If there is another concentric sphere S2of radius r2(r2>r1)and
there is no additional change betweenS1&S2. Find the ratio of electric flux throughS1&S2?
Q2. Electric charge is uniformly distributed on the surface of a spherical balloon. Show how electric intensity
and electric potential vary (a) on the surface (b) inside and (c) outside.
Q3 An infinite line charge produces a field of at a distance of 2 cm. Calculate the linear charge
density.
Q4. . A free proton and a free electron are placed in a uniform field. Which of the two experience greater force
and greater acceleration?
Q5. An electric dipole when held at 300 with respect to a uniform electric field of 104 N/Cexperienced a Torque
of . Calculate dipole moment of the dipole?
Q6. Figure below shows tracks of three charged particles in a uniform electrostatic field. Give the signs of the
three charges. Which particle has the highest charge to mass ratio?
Long Answers Questions

Q1. a) Use Gauss’ law to derive the expression for the electric field (E) due to a straight uniformly charged
infinite line of charge density λ C/m.
(b) Draw a graph to show the variation of E with perpendicular distance r from the line of charge.
(c) Find the work done in bringing a charge q from perpendicular distance r1to r2( r2> r1).
Q2. (a)Obtain the expressions for electric field intensity at any point of an electric dipole.
(b) show that on axial point electric field intensity is twice the equatorial point if the distance of point same in two
case .
Q3.(a)A Particle of mass m and Charge q is released from rest in a uniform electric field of Intensity E. Calculate the
kinetic energy attained by this particle after moving a distance s between the Plates.
(b)find the electric field intensities due to two infinite plane sheet of charges having equal and opposite charge
densities at (i)on either side of plates (b) between the plates.
Case Study Question on Electric Charges and Field

Q1. Surface Charge Density. Surface charge density is defined as the charge per unit surface area the
surface (Arial) charge symmetric distribution and follow Gauss law of electro statics mathematical term of surface
charge density σ=Q/A
σ
Two large thin metal plates are parallel and close to each other. On their inner faces, the plates have surface charge
densities of opposite sign (±σ ). Having magnitude 8.8 × 10–12 cm–2 as shown here. The intensity of electrified at a
point is E =σ/ε0 and flux is Φ=E.ΔS, where ΔS = 1 m2 (unit Arial plate
(i) What will be the value of electric field in region (I)

(a) 1.8 × 10–22 N/C
(b) 1.4 × 10–12 V/m
(c) Zero
(d) None
(ii)what will be the shape of gassian surface for finite plane sheet of chare?
(a) Spherical
(b) Cylindrical
(c) Cube
(d) None
(iii) what will be the electric field at the distance of 5cm, right from the sheetB?
(a) Infinite
(b) 10V/m
(c) Zero
(d) None
(iv)If the both the sheets were thin and like charge densities , then electric field between the plates in the region II?
(a) Infinite
𝜎
(b) 𝜀
(c) Zero
(d) None
Q2.Electric charge is the physical property of matter that causes it to experience a force when placed in an
electromagnetic field. There are two types of charges positive and negative charges. Also, like charges repel each
other whereas unlike charges attract each other.
(i)what is the charge in the body for 100 eccess electron
(a) 3.2 × 10-18 C

(b)3.2 × 10 18 C
(c)-3.2 × 10-17 C
(d)none
(ii)what is total charge on the body if it is charged by Induction?
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) 1.6X10-19C
(d) Noneof these
(iii) A body is positively charged, it implies that:
(a)there is only a positive charge in the body
(b)there is positive as well as negative charge in the body but the positive charge is more than the negative charge
(c)there is equally positive and negative charge in the body but the positive charge lies in the outer regions
(d)the negative charge is displaced from its position
(iv)which of the following is incorrect?
(a) +7.6X10-19C
(b) -9.6X10-19C
(c) Charge on Na+ ion +1.6X10-19C
(d) None
Q3. What is Electric flux ?
Electric flux refers to the measure of the electric field that is equivalent to the flow of liquid in a pipe in a fixed
direction with a velocity of v.
For example, assume the water flows in a fixed direction with v velocity in a pipe. If we in the pipe, consider the
cross-sectional plane and take a small unit area from the plane which is given by ds, the volumetric liquid flow
crossing the plane taken normal to the flow will be taken as vds.
Then, when the plane is not normal to the liquid flow but is inclined on an angle Ɵ, the total liquid volume crossing
the plane will be taken as vdscosƟ per unit of time.
Here, the projected area from the plane perpendicular to the liquid flow is dscosƟ.
The electric field is parallel to the liquid flow.
The electric field line’s magnitude E can be observed passing through the plan with area A which is kept at Ɵ angle
with the direction of the electric field.
In case there is no net charge given in the closed surface then each line of field that is directed in the given surface will
continue through the inside. The negative flux is the same as the positive flux’s magnitude. Hence, the sum or total of
the electric flux effectively comes down to zero.
In case a net charge is embodied in a closed surface, then the sum of electric flux through the plane will be analogous
to the encircled charge, that is, positive in case of positive and negative in case of negative
The formula for electric flux
Electric flux is defined as the sum of electric field lines that pass through a given area in a period. As we see in the
example, if the plane taken is normal with the electric field flow, then the sum of electric flux is taken as ϕ = EA.
Where the same plane can be observed to be tilted at Ɵ angle, the area projected is given as AcosƟ and the sum of flux
through the surface area is taken as Φ = EAcosΘ.
Where E refers to the magnitude of the electric field
A refers to the area of the surface from which the sum of electric flux is to be considered.
And the plane and the axis analogous to the direction of the electric field flow makes the angle Ɵ.
What is the Dimensional formula of electric flux?
The electric flux’s dimensional formula is given by, [M1 L3 T-3 I-1]
Where,
I refer to the Current
L refers to the Length
T refers to the Time
M refers to the Mass.
Types of Flux
There are different types of flux such as Mass flux, Momentum Flux, Electric flux, Magnetic Flux, Heat Flux,
Luminous Flux, Radiant Flux, and Acoustic Flux.
1. Magnetic Flux – It refers to the number of times the lines of the magnetic field pass through a closed plane.
2. Electric Flux – It refers to the number of times the electric field lines pass through a closed plane.
3. Luminous Flux – It refers to the line of visually transmitted radiated sensible energy per second.
4. Energy or Radiant Flux – It refers to the radiated transmitted energy per second coming from any of the energy
sources.
5. Heat Flux – It refers to the transfer of heat energy via an elementary plane per second.
6. Mass Flux – It is defined as the rate at which the mass flows per unit surface.
7. Momentum Flux – It refers to the momentum flow across unit area given per second.
8. Acoustic Flux – It refers to the sound energy flow via the unit surface given per second.
What is the SI unit of electric flux?
Voltmeters (V m) is the SI base unit of electric flux that is the same as the newton-meters squared per coulomb (N m2
C-1). Other than that, kg·m3·s-3·A-1 is the base unit of electric flux.
What does the electric flux through a closed Gaussian surface depend upon?
The electric flux through a closed Gaussian surface depends upon the net charge encircled in the surface. The electric
flux through a closed Gaussian surface does not depend on the size or the shape of the surface.
According to Gauss’s law, the net electric flux that diverges normally from a closed surface equals to 1/ε0 times the
net charge enclosed by the surface. It means that the electric flux through a closed Gaussian surface depends upon the
net charge encircled in the surface. The electric flux through a closed Gaussian surface does not depend on the size or
the shape of the surface.
Hence, the electric flux depends on the net charge inside the closed gaussian surface.
Conclusion
The word “Flux” originates from the word “Fluxus” which is a Latin Word, meaning flow. The word was first used
under the name “fluxion”, by Isaac Newton in differential calculus.
In the world of physics, Flux refers to the effects that travel or pass through the substance or the plane. It can be
thought of as imaginary lines passing through the physical quantity it can travel. It refers to the concept in vector
calculus and applied mathematics with various applications in physics.
In the area of vector calculus, it refers to a scalar quantity, which is defined as the plane integral of the analogous
component of a vector area over a plane.
In the area of transport phenomena, it refers to a vector quantity, which describes the direction and magnitude of the
flow of the substance or property.
(i) Which of the following is correct about electric flux

(a) It is vector physical quantity
(b) It is surface integral of electric field
(c) If a circular ring in moved away from the charge in non uniformfield , electric flux passing through it
increases .
(d) None
(ii) Fluxus means?
(a) Flow
(b) Slow
(c) Motion
(d) None
(iii) The Gaussian surface is increasing, the flux through may be?
(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) Remain same
(d) All of above
(iv) Which of the following is not the unit of electric flux?
(a) Vm
(b) Nm2C-1
(c) Kgm3s-2C-1
(d) None
CHAPTER 2
ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
GIST OF CHAPTER
PREPARED BY:
Ms. UZMA AKHTAR
PGT PHYSICS
KV LANSDOWNE
 Electric potential,
 potential difference,
 electric potential due to a point charge,
 a dipole and system of charges,
 equipotential surfaces,
 electrical potential energy of a system of two-point charges and of electric dipole in an
electrostatic field.
 Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a conductor.
 Dielectrics and electric polarization,
 capacitors and capacitance,
 combination of capacitors in series and in parallel,
 capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectric medium between
the plates,
 energy stored in a capacitor (no derivation, formulae only).
BASIC CONCEPTS (MASTER CARD)

 Electric Potential
The electric potential at any point in an electric field is defined as the work done in bringing a
unit positive test charge from infinity to that point without acceleration.
If W is the work done in bringing infinitesimal positive test charge q0 from infinity to given
point, then electric potential
𝑉 = 𝑊/𝑞 0
Electric potential at any point is also defined as the negative line integral of electric field from
infinity to given point (independent of path followed).
𝑟
− ∫ →.→
𝐸 𝑑𝑙
∞
The unit of electric potential is joule/coulomb or volt.
 Potential Difference
The potential difference between two points in an electric field is defined as the work done in
bringing unit positive charge from one point to another.
1 𝑞
(a) Due to a point charge q at a point distant r is 𝑉 =
𝑟 4𝜋∈0
(b) Due to a short electric dipole at a distance r from its centre
(i) At its axis
(ii) at its equatorial position, V = 0

(iii) Potential at a point due to an electric dipole
(c) due to a system of charges is
 Equipotential Surface
An equipotential surface is the surface having the same potential at each point. The surface of a
charged conductor in equilibrium is a equipotential surface.
 Electric Potential Energy of a System of two-point charges
If q1 and q2 are point charges at separation r12, then electric potential energy
Electrical potential energy of electric dipole in an electrostatic field

Potential energy of dipole in uniform electric field is
Work done in rotating the dipole in uniform electric field from inclination θ1 to θ2
If dipole is initially in stable equilibrium position (θ1=0) and finally its inclination is θ, then
 Conductors and insulators

Conductors are those substances which contain free charge carriers and so allow easy flow of
current.
Insulators are those substances which contain practically no free charge carriers and do not
allow the flow of current.
 Free and Bound Charges Inside a Conductor

The electrons are free charge carriers inside a metallic conductor while positive ions fixed in
lattice are bound charge carriers.
 Dielectrics and electric polarization

The insulators are often referred as dielectrics. Each dielectric is formed of atoms/molecules. In
some dielectrics the positive and negative charge centres coincide, such dielectrics are said to
be non-polar dielectrics. While in some other dielectrics the centres of positive and negative
charges do not coincide, such dielectrics have permanent electric dipole moment and said to be
polar dielectrics. The example of polar dielectric is water, while example of non-polar dielectric
is carbon dioxide (CO2).
When a dielectric is placed in an external electric field, the centres of positive and negative
dipoles get separated (in non-polar dielectrics) or get farther away (in polar dielectrics), so that
molecules of dielectric gain a permanent electric dipole moment; this process is called
polarization and the dipole is said to be polarized.
The induced dipole moment developed per unit volume in an electric field is called polarization
density. Numerically it is equal to surface charge density induced at the faces which are
perpendicular to the direction of applied electric field.
 Conductor and Dielectric in the Presence of External Electric Field.

Conductor Dielectric
No electric field lines travel inside conductor. Alignment of atoms takes place due to
electric
field.
Electric field inside a conductor is zero. This results in a small electric field inside
dielectric in opposite direction.
𝐸
Net field inside the dielectric is 𝐾
 Capacitors and Capacitance

A capacitor contains two oppositely charged metallic conductors at a finite separation. It is a
device by which capacity of storing charge may be varied simply by changing separation and/or
medium between the conductors.
The capacitance of a capacitor is defined as the ratio of magnitude of charge (Q) on either plate
and potential difference (V ) across the plate, i.e.,
𝑄
𝐶=
𝑉
The unit of capacitance is coulomb/volt or farad (F).
 Combination of capacitors in series and in parallel

(a) Series Combination: When capacitors are connected in series, then net capacitance C is
given by
Net charge Q=q1= q2 = q3 (remains same)

Net potential difference V=V1+V2+V3
(b) Parallel Combination: When capacitors are connected in parallel, then the net capacitance
C = C1 + C2 + C3
In parallel combination net charge Q = q1 + q2 + q3
Net potential difference V = V1 = V2 = V3 (remain same)

 Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor
A parallel plate capacitor consists of two parallel metallic plates separated by a dielectric. The
capacitance is given by
where K is dielectric constant, A = area of each plate and d = separation between the plates.
Special Cases:
(i) When there is no medium between the plates, then K=1, so
(ii)When space between the plates is partly filled with a medium of thickness t and dielectric
constant K, then capacitance
Hence, C>C0, i.e., on introduction of a dielectric slab between the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor, its capacitance increases.
 Energy stored in a capacitor
This energy resides in the medium between the plates.

The unit is joule (J) .The energy stored per unit volume of a charged capacitor is given by
where E is electric field strength. The unit is joule/m3(J/m3)
PREPARED BY:
Ms. UZMA AKHTAR
PGT PHYSICS
KV LANSDOWNE
CHAPTER 2
PREPARED BY:
Ms. UZMA AKHTAR
PGT PHYSICS
KV LANSDOWNE
One mark questions:

Multiple Choice Questions:
1. A 4µf capacitor is charged 400V and then its plates are joined through a resistance 1kΩ. The
heat produced in the resistance is
(a) 0.16J (b) 0.64J (c) 0.32J (d) 1.28J
2.The variation potential V with r & electric field with r for a point charge is correctly shown in
the graphs.
3.Equipotential surfaces
(a) are closer in regions of large electric fields compared to regions of lower electric
fields.
(b) will be more crowded near sharp edges of a conductor.
(c) will be more crowded near regions of large charge densities.
(d) will always be equally spaced.
4. Three capacitors of capacitance 1µF, 2 µF and 3 µF are connected in series and a p.d. of
11 V is applied across the combination. Then, the p.d. across the plates of 1µF capacitor is
(a) 2V (b) 4V (c)1V (d)6V
5. A hollow metallic sphere fixed on an insulating stand is charged positively. The electric
potential inside the sphere is
(a) Zero (b) Everywhere same as on the surface
(c) higher than that on the surface (d) lower than that on the surface
6. Four point charges – Q, – q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The
relation between Q and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero is
1 1
(a)Q= q (b) Q= - q (c) Q=- 2q (d) Q= q
2
7. A parallel plate capacitor C consists of two identical circular plates each of radius ‘R’
separated by a distance ‘d’. The capacitance of the capacitor when radius of each plate
separation is doubled will be
(a) 8C (b) 2C (c) 4C (d) C
8. A charge q is distributed over a metal sphere of radius R. The variation of potential with
distance r from its centre is shown as
9. If n number of equal capacitors each of capacitance Care connected

in series then equivalent capacitance will be given as:
(a) nC (b) C/n (c) n+C (d) n²C
10. Five identical capacitors are connected as shown in figure. The equivalent capacitance
between A and B is
(a) 1µF (b) 2µF (c) 3µF (d) 4µF

Solutions
1. (c) The capacitor keeps charging and discharging through the resistance till the entire energy
stored in it gets lost as heat in the resistance
1 1
H = 2CV2 = 2*4*10-6*400*400 =0.32J
2. (b) 3. (a), (b), (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c)
Assertion and Reasoning based questions:
Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
11. Assertion (A): Electric field is always normal to the equipotential surfaces and along the
direction of decreasing order of potential.
Reason(R): Negative gradient of electric potential is electric field.
Answer A
12.
Assertion(A): No work is done in moving a point charge 𝑄 around a circular arc of radius ′𝑟′ at
the Centre of which another point charge ′𝑞′ is located.
Reason(R): No work is done in moving a test charge from one point to another over an
equipotential surface.
Answer: A
13.
Assertion(A): A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate
capacitor, its capacitance increased.
Reason(R): A metal plate is introduced between the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor,
the effective separation between the plates is decreased.
Answer: A
14. Assertion(A): When the distance between the parallel plates of a parallel plate capacitor is
halved and the dielectric constant of the dielectric used is made three tiems, then the
capacitance becomes three times.
Reason (R) : Capacitance does not depend on the nature of material of the plates.
Answer : B
15.
Assertion(A): In the presence of external electric field the net electric field within the conductor
becomes zero.
Reason(R): In the presence of external electric field the free charge carriers move and charge
distribution in the conductor adjusts itself.
Answer: A
Two marks Questions:
1. Find the charge on the capacitor as shown in the circuit.
Solution:
2. Net capacitance of three identical capacitors in series is 1 µF. What will be their net
capacitance if connected in parallel?
Find the ratio of energy stored in the two configurations if they are both connected to the
same source.
Solution :
3. Two point charges q and -2q are kept d distance apart. Find the location of the point
relative to charge q at which potential due to thid system if charges is zero.
Ans. X= d/3.
4.A slab of material of dielectric constant has the same area as that of the plates of a parallel
plate capacitor but has the thickness 3d/4, where d is the separation between the plates. Find
out the expression for its capacitance when the slab is inserted between the plates of the
capacitor.
Solution.
5. Two charges +1µC and -1 µC are kept at points A and B 5cm apart
(i) Identify an equipotential surface of the system.
(ii) What is the direction of electric field at every point on the surface.
Ans: (i) A plane normal to AB and passing through the mid point of AB it has zero potential
everywhere.
(ii) Normal to the plane in the direction parallel to AB.
6. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8 PF. What will
be the capacitance if the distance between the plates be reduced by half and the space
between them is filled with a substance of dielectric constant k=6.
Solution:
C=∈0A/d = 8pF
𝑘∈0A
C=
𝑑/2
Or, C=2kC0=2*6*8= 96pF.
7. Find the net capacitance between A and B :
Ans. 28/19µF
8. Three points A, B and C lie in a uniform electric field (E) of 5 × 103 N/C as shown in the
figure. Find the potential difference between A and C.
Solution:
The line joining B to C is perpendicular to electric field, so potential of
B = potential of C i.e., VB = VC
Distance AB =4 cm
Potential difference between A and C = E × (AB)
= 5 × 103 × (4 × 10–2)
= 200 volt
9. Why does current in a steady state not flow in a capacitor connected across a battery?
However momentary current does flow during charging or discharging of the capacitor.
Explain.
Ans. (i) In the steady state no current flows through capacitor because, we have two sources
(battery and fully charged capacitor) of equal potential connected in opposition.
(ii) During charging or discharging there is a momentary flow of current as the potentials of the
two sources are not equal to each other.
10. Net capacitance of three identical capacitors in series is 1 µF. What will be their net
capacitance if connected in parallel?
Ans. 9µF
11. Obtain an expression for the work done to dissociate the system of three charges placed
at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a as shown in figure.
𝟏
Ans. 𝟒𝝅∈𝟎𝒂10q2
12. The electric field at a point charge is 20N/c and the electric potential at that point is
10J/C. Calculate the distance of the point from the charge and also the magnitude of the
charge.
Ans 5.56 * 10-10C
13. Obtain the enrgy acquired by an electron when accelerated through s potential difference
of 2000V. How much speed will the eletron gain?
Ans. 8/3 * 107m/s.
1/2mv2= qV
Speed of electron, v = √2qV/m
14. A point charge Q is placed at point 'O' as shown in figure. Is the potential at point A, i.e., VA,
greater, smaller or equal to potential, VB, at point B, when Q is (i) positive, and (ii) negative charge
Ans. (i) VA>VB (ii)VA<VB
15. What is the work done in moving a 2µC point charge from the corner B of a square ABCD when a
10 µC charge is kept at the centre of the square.
Ans. Since the points are equidistant from the centre of the square
So, VA= VB and work done, W=q(VA- VB) =0
Three marks Questions:

1.A capacitor of capacitance C is charged fully by connecting it to a battery of emf E. It is then
disconnected from the battery. If the separation between the plates of the capacitor is
doubled then, how will the following change?
(i) Charge stored in the capacitor (iii) field strength between the plates
(ii) Energy stored by the capacitor.
Ans. (i) charge does not change as battery is disconnected
(ii)Energy gets doubled U= q2/2C , C gets halved as C is inversely proportional to d.
(iii)Field between the plates does not change as E =σ/ϵ0=q/A ϵ0.
2.Define an equipotential surface. Draw equipotential surfaces
(i)in the case of a single point charge and
(ii) in a constant electric field in Z-direction. Why the equipotential surfaces about a single
charge are not equidistant?
(iii)Can electric field exist tangential to an equipotential surface? Give reason.
Ans. (iii) No if the field lines are tangential, work will be done in moving a charge on the surface
which goes against the definition of equipotential surface.
3. Two parallel plate capacitors X and Y have the same area of plates and same separation
between them. X has air between the plates while Y contains a dielectric medium, εr = 4.
(i) Calculate the capacitance of each capacitor if equivalent capacitance of the combination is
4 µF.
(ii)Estimate the ratio of electrostatic energy stored in X and Y.
Ans.
(ii)
1. Find the ratio of the potential difference that must be applied across the parallel and
series combination of two capacitors C1 and C2 with their capacitances in the ratio 1:2 so
that the energy stored in the two cases become the same.
Solution:
2. A 500 pF capacitor is charged by a 100 V battery. (a) Calculate the electrostatic energy
stored by it. (b) When the capacitor is disconnected from the battery and connected
to another uncharged 500 pF capacitor, calculate the electrostatic energy stored by
the system.
Ans. (a) 2.5 *10-6J (b)1.25 *10-6J
3. (i) Find equivalent capacitance between A and B in the combination given below. Each
capacitor is of 2 µF capacitance.
(ii)If a dc source of 7 V is connected across AB, how much charge is drawn from the
source and what is the energy stored in the network?
Ans. (i) 6/7µC (ii) 21 μJ

4. A parallel plate capacitor having a dielectric slab k between its plates is charged by a
battery . The battery is then disconnected after some time and the dielectric slab is
removed from the capacitor. How will the (i) Capacitance (ii) Electric field in between
plates (iii) energy stored be affected? Justify your answers.
5. A slab of material of dielectric constant k has the same area A as the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor and has a thickness (3/4d), where d is the separation of the plates. Find the ratio of
the capacitance with dielectric inside it to its capacitance without dielectric.
Ans. 4K/(K+3)
6. Find the ratio of the potential differences are made equal calculate the ratio of the energy
stored in the two capacitances C1 and C2 in the ratio 1:3 so that the energy stored in the two
cases becomes the same. If the potential differences are made equal calculate the ratio of the
energy stored in the two capacitances.
Ans.
7. Prove that the total electrostatic energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor is. Hence derive an
expression for energy density of the capacitor. How does the stored energy change if air is replaced by
medium of dielectric constant ‘K’ ?
Ans. Solve Derivation.
Five Marks Questions:
1. (a)Draw equipotential surfaces for (i)an electric dipole and (ii) two identical positive
charges placed near each other.
(b) In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of6 x 10 -
3 2
m and the separation between the plates is 3 mm.
(i) Calculate the capacitance of the capacitor.
(ii) If the capacitor is connected to 100V supply, what would be the the charge on each plate?
(iii) How would charge on the plate be affected if a 3 mm thick mica sheet of k=6 is inserted
between the plates while the voltage supply remains connected?
Ans.
2.(a) Obtain an expression for the energy stored per unit volume in a charged parallel plate
capacitor.
(b) Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and
series combination of two capacitors C1 and C2 with their capacitances in the ratio 1 : 2 so that
the energy stored in the two cases becomes the same.
Solution: (a) Derivation
(b)
3.(i) Compare the individual dipole moment and the specimen dipole moment for H 2O
molecule and O2 molecule when placed in
(a) Absence of external electric field
(b) Presence of external eclectic field. Justify your answer.
(ii) Given two parallel conducting plates of area A and charge densities +σ and –σ . A dielectric
slab of constant K and a conducting slab of thickness d each are inserted in between them as
shown.
(a) Find the potential difference between the plates.
(b) Plot E versus x graph, taking x = 0 at positive plate and x = 5d at negative plate.
Ans . (i) Compare
4. (a) Distinguish, with the help of a suitable diagram, the difference in the behaviour of a
conductor and a dielectric placed in an external electric field. How does polarised dielectric
modify the original external field?
(b) A capacitor of capacitance C is charged fully by connecting it to a battery of emf E. It is
then disconnected from the battery. If the separation between the plates of the capacitor is
now doubled, how will the following change:
(i) charge stored by the capacitor.
(ii) field strength between the plates.
(iii) energy stored by the capacitor.
Justify your answer in each case.
Ans. (a) Distinguish it.
(b) (i) charge does not change as battery is disconnected
(ii) Field between the plates does not change as E =σ/ϵ0=q/A ϵ0.
(iii)Energy gets doubled U= q2/2C , C gets halved as C is inversely proportional to d.
5. A capacitor of capacitance C1 is charged to a potential V1 while another capacitor of
capacitance C2 is charged to a potential difference V2. The capacitors are now disconnected
from their respective charging batteries and connected in parallel to each other.
(i) Find total energy in two capacitors before they are connected.
(ii) Find the total energy stored in the parallel combination of the two capacitors.
(iii)Explain the reason for the difference of energy in parallel combination in comparison to
the total energy before they are connected.
Solution: (i) Total energy stored = ½ C1V12 +1/2C2V22
(ii) Total energy stored in the parallel combination= [C1V1+ C2V2]2/2(C1+ C2)
(iii)The total energy of the parallel combination is different from the total energy before the
capacitors are connected. This is because some energy gets used up due to the movement of
charges.
CHAPTER 2
PREPARED BY:
Ms. UZMA AKHTAR
PGT PHYSICS
KV LANSDOWNE
CASE BASED QUESTIONS: ( 4 Marks Each)
1. Dielectric with polar molecules also develops a net dipole moment in an

external field, but for a different reason. In the absence of any external field,
the different permanent dipoles are oriented randomly due to thermal
agitation; so the total dipole moment is zero. When an external field is
applied, the individual dipole moments tend to align with the field. When
summed overall the molecules, there is then a net dipole moment in the
direction of the external field, i.e., the dielectric is polarised. The extent of
polarisation depends on the relative strength of two factors: the dipole
potential energy in the external field tending to align the dipoles mutually
opposite with the field and thermal energy tending to disrupt the alignment.
There may be, in addition, the ‘induced dipole moment’ effect as for non-
polar molecules, but generally the alignment effect is more important for
polar molecules. Thus in either case, whether polar or non-polar, a dielectric
develops a net dipole moment in the presence of an external field. The dipole
moment per unit volume is called polarization.
(1) Calculate the polarisation vector of the material which has 100 dipoles per unit
volume
in a volume of 2 units.
(a) 200
(b) 50
(c) 0.02
(d) 100
(2) The total polarisation of a material is the
(a) Product of all types of polarisation
(b) Sum of all types of polarisation
(c)Orientation directions of the dipoles
(d)Total dipole moments in the material
(3) Dipoles are created when dielectric is placed in __________

(a) Magnetic Field (b) Electric field (c) Vacuum (d) Inert Environment
(4) Identify which type of polarisation depends on temperature.

(a)Electronic
(b)Ionic
(c)Orientational
(d) Interfacial
Ans. 1. a 2. b 3. b 4. C
2.
A dielectric slab is a substance that does not allow the flow of charges through it
but permits them to exert electrostatic forces on one another. When a dielectric
slab is placed between the plates, the field Eo polarises the dielectric. This induces
charge -Qp on the upper surface and + Qp on the lower surface of the dielectric.
These induced charges set up a field Ep inside the dielectric in the opposite
direction of external field E.
(i) In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance increases from 4μF to 80μF on
introducing a dielectric medium between the plates. What is the dielectric constant
of the medium?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) 80
(ii) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8pF.
The separation between the plates is now reduced by half and the space between
them is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 5.
Calculate the value of capacitance of the capacitor in the second case.
(a) 20 pF (b) 40 pF (c) 60 pF (d) 80 pF
(iii) A dielectric introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor with
battery remain connected
(a) decreases potential difference between the plates
(b)decreases the electric field between the plates
(c) increases the charge on the plates
(d) all the above
(iv) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 pF has separation between the

plates d. When the distance of separation becomes 2d and wax of dielectric
constant x is inserted in it the capacitance becomes 2 pF. What is the value of x?
(a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 4 (d) 1
Ans. (i) 20 (ii) 80pF (iii) increases the charge on the plates (iv) 4
Current Electricity
Mind mapping / Concept mapping
FORMULA REMEMBERING
MCQ
1. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in diameter, the
change in the resistance of the wire will be:
a) 200% b) 100% c) 50% d) 300%
2. By increasing the temperature, the specific resistance of a conductor and a semiconductor:
a) increases for both b) decreases for both
c) increases, decreases respectively d) decrease, increases respectively
3. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 77 K. The resistance of:
a) copper decreases and germanium increases b) copper increases and germanium decreases
c) each of them increases d) each of them decreases
4. From the graph between current (I) and voltage (V) as shown in the figure, identify the portion corresponding
to negative resistance:
a) AB b) BC c) CD d) DE
5. Two batteries, one of e.m.f 18 V and internal resistance 2 Ω and the other of e.m.f. 12 V and internal
resistance 1 Ω, are connected as shown in the figure. The voltmeter v will record a reading of:
a) 30 V b) 18 V c) 15 V d) 14 V
6. Kirchhoff’s first and second laws of electrical circuits are consequences of:
a) conservation of energy and electric charge respectively
b) conservation of energy
c) conservation of electric charge and energy respectively
d) conservation of electric charge
7. A bridge circuit is shown in the figure. The equivalent resistance between points A and B is:
a) 21 Ω b) 7 Ω c) 252/85 Ω d) 14/3 Ω
8. Dimension of electrical resistance is:
a) [M L2 T-3 A-1] b) [M L2 T-3 A-2] c) [M L3 T-3 A-2] d) [M L3 T-2 A-1]
9. The internal resistance of a cell of e.m.f. 2 V is 0.1 Ω. It is connected to a resistance of 3.9 Ω. The voltage
across the cell is:
a) 0.52 V b) 1.68 V c) 1.95 V d) 2.71 V
10. The current I and voltage V curves for a given metallic wire at two different
temperatures T1 and T2 are shown in the figure. Then,
a) T1 < T2 b) T1 > T2
c) T1 = T2 d) T1 = 2T2
11. n cells each of e.m.f. E volt and internal resistance r ohm are connected in series with an external resistance R.
The current will increase n times that of a single cell, if
a) R is very large as compared to the internal resistance
b) R is very small as compared to the internal resistance
c) R is equal to total internal resistance
d) regardless of relative magnitudes of R and r
12. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. if its length and radius are both doubled, then:
a) the resistance will be doubled and the specific resistance will be halved
b) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will remain unchanged
c) the resistance will be halved and the specific resistance will be doubled
d) the resistance and the specific resistance will both remain unchanged
13. In a Whetstone’s bridge, all four arms have equal resistance R. If the resistance of the galvanometer arm is
also R, the equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is:
a) R b) 2 R c) R / 2 d) R / 4
14. A cell supplies a current of 0.3 A through a resistance of 7 Ω and a current of 0.9 A through a resistance of
2Ω. The internal resistance of the cell is:
a) 2 Ω b) 1.2 Ω c) 1 Ω d) 0.5 Ω
15. In a typical Wheat stone’s network, the resistance in cyclic order are P=10Ω, Q=5Ω, S=4 Ω, and R=4Ω. For
the bridge to balance:
a) 10 Ω should be connected in series with P
b) 10 Ω should be connected in parallel with P
c) 15 Ω should be connected in series with Q
d) 15 Ω should be connected in parallel with Q
Answer:
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (b)
Assertion and Reason
Following questions are assertion and reason type, which consists of two statements, typed as Assertion
and Reason. While answering these questions you are required to choose any one of the following
four responses.
A) If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
B) If both Assertion and the Reason are True but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
C) If Assertion is true but the Reason is False
D) If both Assertion and the Reason are false.
1. Assertion: Conductivity of a metal is much higher than that of an electrolyte at room temperature.
Reason: Free electron density in metals is much lesser than the density of ions in electrolytes and also free
electrons have smaller mobility than ions.
Ans. Option C
2. Assertion: When Wheatstone bridge is balanced, the current through the cell depends on the resistance
of the galvanometer.
Reason: In balanced condition, current through the galvanometer is very high.
Ans. Option D
3. Assertion: The value of temperature of coefficient of resistance is positive for metals.
Reason: The value of temperature or coefficient of resistance is negative for insulators.
Ans. Option B
4. Assertion: When identical cells are connected in parallel to an external load, the effective emf increases.
Reason: All the cells will be sending unequal currents to the external load in the same direction
Ans. Option D
5. Assertion : Current flows in a conductor only when there is an external electric field within the
conductor.
Reason: The drift velocity of the electrons is directly proportional to the electric field.
Ans. Option A
6. Assertion: For good conductors, the I-V graph is a perfect straight line inclined to current axis.
Reason: By Ohm's law, voltage across the ends of a conductor is directly proportional to the resistance
of the conductor.
Ans. Option C
7. Assertion: Kirchhoff's junction rule can be applied to a juction of several lines or a point in a line.
Reason : When steady current is flowing, there is no accumulation of charges at any junction in series
with a galvonometer.
Ans. Option A
8. Assertion : Current is passed through a metallic wire, heating it red. Half of its portion is cooled by
cold water jacket, then rest of the half portion become more hot.
Reason: Resistances decreases due to decrease in temperature and so current through wire increases.
Ans. Option A
9. Assertion: Drift velocity of electrons is independent of time.
Reason: Electrons are accelerated in the presence of electric field.
Ans. Option B
10. Assertion: The bending of an insulated wire increase the resistance of wire
Reason : The drift velocity of electron in this wire decreases
Ans. Option D
Very Short Answer Questions(1 Marks)
1. Define current density. Write its S.I. unit. Is it a scalar or vector quantity ?
2. (a) Define resistance of a conductor. Write its S.I. unit.

(b) What are the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depends ?
3. The plot of the variation of potential difference across a combination of three identical cells in series,
versus current is as shown in the figure. What is the emf of each cell?
Ans.- Total emf of three cells in series = P.D corresponding to zero current = 6V
∴ The emf of each cell = 6/3 = 2V
4. Two conducting wires X and Y of same diameter across a battery. If the number density of electro in X
is twice that in Y, find the ratio of drift velocity of electrons in the two wires.
Ans.-
5. Two wires of equal length, one of copper and the other of manganin have the same resistance. Which
wire is thicker?
Ans.-
For both wires R and l are same and ρ copper < p manganin.
∴ A copper < A manganin
i.e. Manganin wire is thicker than copper wire.
6. Two wires, one of copper and the other of manganin, have same resistance and equal thickness. Which
wire is longer? Justify your answer.
7. Two materials, Si and Cu , are cooled from 300K to 60K. What will be the effect on their resistivity?
[Ans. For Si , resistivity will increase.
Reason : Semiconductors have negative temperature coefficient of resistivity.
For Cu , resistivity will decrease.
Reason : conductors have positive temperature coefficient of resistivity
8. The I-V graph for a metallic wire at two different temperatures T1 and T2 is as shown in the figure.
Which of the two temperatures is higher and why ?
9. Explain, why allows like constantan and manganin are used for making standard resistors ?
[Ans. Because they have
1. High resistivity 2. Very small temperature coefficient of resistivity.
10. Resistance of a conductor increases with the rise in temperature. Why ?
Ans. Due to increase in frequency of collision of electrons with ions/atoms in the conductor.
Short Answer Questions(2 Marks)

1. Figure shows a plot of current I flowing through the cross section of a wire versus the time t. Use the plot
to find the charge flowing in 10 s through the wire.
2. Show that the current density → is related to the applied electric field →by the relation 𝐽⃗ = 𝜎𝐸⃗⃗ Where
𝐽 𝐸
𝜎 defines the conductivity of the material.
3. Define the term (a) Emf of a cell (b) Terminal voltage of a cell.
[Ans. (a) Emf : Emf of a cell may be defined as the energy supplied by the cell in moving unit charge
through the complete circuit (including the cell) i,e, E=W/q
(b) Terminal voltage: It is the potential difference between the electrodes of a cell, when the
cell is in closed circuit. V=E-Ir
4. The figure shows a plot of terminal voltage ‘V’ versus the current ‘i’ of a given cell. Calculate from the
graph
(a) emf of the cell and (b) internal resistance of the cell.
5. (i) Define mobility of a charge carrier. Write its S.I. unit.

(ii) What is its relation with relaxation time ?
(iii) How does the electron mobility change if (a) temperature is increased , (b) potential difference in
doubled ?
6. State Kirchhoff’s rules in electrostatics and explain on what basis they are justified ?
7. Two wires X and Y have the same resistivity but their cross sectional areas are in the ratio 2:3 and lengths
in the ratio 1:2. They are first connected in series and then in parallel to a d.c. source. Find out the ratio of
the drift speeds of the electrons in the two wires for the two cases.
8. In the given circuit, assuming point A to be at

zero potential, use Kirchhoff’s rules to determine
the potential at point B.
Ans:- By KCL, current in DC branch
I = 3-1 = 2A
Applying KVL along path ACDB,
VA + 2 + 2X2 - 4 = VB
=>VB = VA + 2 = 0 + 2 = 2V
9. Two cells of emf 1.5 V and 2V and internal resistance 1 Ω and 2 Ω are connected in parallel to pass a
current in the same direction through an external resistance of 5 Ω.
(a) Draw Circuit Diagram.
(b) Using Kirchhoff’s laws, calculate the current through
each branch of the circuit and p.d. across the 5Ωresistor.
Ans:- (b) I = I1+I2 ,
5I+ I1 = 1.5 and
5I+2I2 = 2
Or I = 5/17 A, I1 = 0.5/17 A and I2 = 4.5/17 A.
∴ P.d. across 5 Ω resistance = 5I = 1.47V
Short Answer Questions(3 Marks)
1. Derive an expression for drift velocity of free electrons in a conductor in terms of relaxation time of
electrons.
2. On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms of number density
of free electrons and relaxation time.
Long Answer Questions(5 Marks)

1. What is Wheatstone bridge ? When is the bridge said to be balanced ? Use Kirchhoff’s rules to obtain
conditions for the balanced condition in a Wheatstone bridge.
2. Two cells of emfs Eand and internal resistances and are connected in parallel as shown in the figure.
Deduce an expression for the
(i) equivalent emf of the combination
(ii) equivalent internal resistance of the combination
(iii) potential difference between the points and
Case Based Questions

1. Emf of a cell is the maximum potential difference between two electrodes of the cell when no current is drawn
from the cell. Internal resistance is the resistance offered by the electrolyte of a cell when the electric current
flows through it. The internal resistance of a cell depends upon the following factors;
(i) distance between the electrodes
(ii) nature and temperature of the electrolyte
(iii) nature of electrodes
(iv) area of electrodes.
For a freshly prepared cell, the value of internal resistance is generally low and goes on increasing as the cell is put
to more and more use. The potential difference between the two electrodes of a cell in a closed circuit is called
terminal potential difference and its value is always less than the emf of the cell in a closed circuit. It can be
written as V = E - Ir.
(i) The terminal potential difference of two electrodes of a cell is equal to emf of the cell when
(a) I≠0 (b) I=0 (c) both (a) and (b) (d) neither (a)nor (b)
(ii) A cell of emf E and internal resistance r gives a current of 0.5 A with an external resistance of 12Ω and
a current of 0.25 A with an external resistance of 25Ω .What is the value of internal resistance of the cell?
(a) 5Ω (b) 1Ω (c) 7Ω (d) 3Ω
(iii) Choose the wrong statement.
(a) Potential difference across the terminals of a cell in a closed circuit is always less than its emf.
(b) Internal resistance of a cell decrease with the decrease in temperature of the electrolyte.
(c) Potential difference versus current graph for a cell is a straight line with a -ve slope
(d) Terminal potential difference of the cell when it is being charged is given as V = E + Ir.
(iv) An external resistance R is connected to a cell of internal resistance r, the maximum current flows in the
external resistance, when
(a) R = r (b) R < r (c) R> r (d) R=l/r
(v) IF external resistance connected to a cell has been increased to 5 times, the potential difference across the
terminals of the cell increases from 10 V to 30 V. Then, the emf of the cell is
(a) 30 V (b) 60V (c) 50 V (d) 40 V
Answers: (i) (b) (ii) (b) (iii) (b) (iv) (a ) (v) (b)
2. A single cell provides a feeble current. In order to get a higher current in a circuit, we often use a combination
of cells A combination of cells is called a battery, Cells can be joined in series, parallel or in a mixed way.
Two cells are said to be connected in series when negative terminal of one cell is connected to positive terminal
of the other cell and so on. Two cells are said to be connected in parallel if positive terminal of each cell is
connected to one point and negative terminal of each cell connected to the other point. In mixed grouping of
cells, a certains number of identical cells are joined in series, and all such rows are then connected in parallel
with each other.
(i) To draw the maximum current from a combination of cells, how should the cells be grouped?
(a) Parallel (b) Series (c) Mixed grouping (d) Depends upon the relative values of internal and external resistances
(ii) The total emf of the cells when n identical cells each of emf e are connected in parallel is
(a) nε (b) n2ε (c) E d) ε/n
(iii) 4 cells each of emf 2 V and internal resistance of 1Ω are connected in parallel to a load resistor of
2Ω. Then the current through the load resistor is
(a) 2 A (b) 1.5 A (c) 1 A (d) 0.888 A
(iv) If two cells out of n number of cells each of internal resistance 'r' are wrongly connected in series, then total
resistance of the cell is
(a) 2nr (b) nr - 4r (c) nr (d) r
(v) Two identical non-ideal batteries are connected in parallel. Consider the following statements.
(i). The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emfs.
(ii) The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than either of the two internal resistances
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are correct. (b) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong
(c) (ii) is correct but (i) is wrong. (d) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong.
Answers: (i) (d) (ii) (d) (iii) (d) (iv) (b ) (v) (c)
3. According to Ohm's law, the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the
potential difference across the ends of the conductor i.e I∝V⇒V/I=R where R is resistance of the
conductor Electrical resistance of a conductor is the obstruction posed by the conductor to the flow of electric
current through it. It depends upon length, area of cross-section, nature of material and temperature of the
conductor We can write R∝l/A or R=ρlA where ρ is electrical resistivity of the material of the conductor.
(i) Dimensions of electr ic resistance is
(a) [ML2 T−2 A−2] (b) [ML2T−3A−2] (c) [M−1 L−2 T−1 A] (d) [M−1L2T2A−1]
(ii) If 1μA current flows through a conductor when potential difference of 2 volt is applied across its ends, then the
resistance of the conductor is
(a) 2×106Ω (b) 3×105Ω (c) 1.5×105Ω (d) 5×107Ω
(iii) Specific resistance of a wire depends upon
(a) length (b) cross-sectional area (c) mass (d) none of these
(iv) The slope of the graph between potential difference and current through a conductor is
(a) a straight line (b) curve
(c) first curve then straight line (d) first straight line then curve
(v) The resistivity of the material of a wire 1.0 m long, 0.4 mm in diameter and having a resistance of 2.0 ohm is
(a) 1.57×10−6Ωm (b) 5.25×10−7Ωm (c) 7.12×10−5Ωm (d) 2.55×10−7Ωm
Answers: (i) (b) (ii) (a) (iii) (d) (iv) (a ) (v) (d)
Work Assigned for the Chapter Magnetic Effect of Current:
1.Master Card:
2. Flow Chart:
3.Question Bank:
MCQ (10q):
1. A charged particle in a state of rest experiences electromagnetic force when:
[a] electric field must be present [b] magnetic field must be present
[c] electric field may be present [d] both electric and magnetic field must be present
Answer: a
2. 50 cm long solenoid has a radius of 1 cm and is made up of 500 turns. If it carries a current of 5 A
then, find the magnitude of magnetic field inside the solenoid.
(a) 6.023 × 10‒23 T (b) 1.6 × 10‒19 T (c) 9 × 10‒9 T (d) 6.28 × 10‒9 T
Answer: d
3. A long solid steel pipe carries a 5-ampere direct current. The magnetic field associated with the
current will be
(a) only inside the pipe (b) only outside the pipe
(c) neither inside nor outside the pipe (d) both inside and outside the pipe
Answer: a
4. An electron and proton having equal linear momentum enter in a uniform magnetic field normal to
the lines of force. If the radii of circular paths are re and rp respectively, then re/rp is:
(a) 1 (b) > 1 (c) < 1 (d) None of these
Answer: a
5. If a particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field, then
(a) its momentum changes but total energy remains same
(b) both momentum and total energy remains the same
(c) its total energy changes but momentum remains same
(d) both momentum and total energy will change
Answer: a
6. The force between two long parallel conductors is inversely proportional to
(a) radius of conductors (b) current in one conductor
(c) product of current in two conductors (d) distance between the conductors
Answer: d
7. The use of permanent magnets is not made in
(a) magnetos (b) energy meters (c) transformers (d) loud-speakers
Answer: c
8. When a magnet is in motion relative to a coil the induced e.m.f. does not depend upon
(a) resistance of the coil (b) motion of the magnet
(c) number of turns of the coil (d) pole strength of the magnets
Answer: a
9. The best material for the core of a transformer is
(a) stainless steel (b) mild steel
(c) hard steel (d) soft iron
Answer: d
10. The ratio of intensity of magnetisation to the magnetisation force is known as
(a) flux density (b) susceptibility (c) relative permeability (d) none of the above
Answer: b
Assertion and Reason (10q):

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q.1. Assertion: In electric circuits, wires carrying currents in opposite directions are often twisted together
Reason: If the wires are not twisted together, the combination of the wires forms a current loop, the magnetic
field generated by the loop might affect adjacent circuits or components.
Answer: a
Q.2. Assertion: The magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid is independent of its length and
cross-sectional area.
Reason: The magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform.
Answer: b
Q.3. Assertion: A charge, whether stationary or in motion produces a magnetic field around it.
Reason: Moving charges produce only electric field in the surrounding space.
Answer: d
Q.4. Assertion: A proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in circular paths
in a uniform magnetic field. The radii of their circular paths will be equal.
Reason: Any two charged particles having equal kinetic energies and entering a region of uniform magnetic
field B in a direction perpendicular to B, will describe circular trajectories of equal radii.
Answer: c
Q.5. Assertion: If the current in a solenoid is reversed in direction while keeping the same magnitude, the
magnetic field energy stored in the solenoid remains unchanged.
Reason: Magnetic field energy density is proportional to the magnetic field.
Answer: c
Q.6. Assertion: Free electrons always keep on moving in a conductor even then no magnetic force act on
them in magnetic field unless a current is passed through it.
Reason: The average velocity of free electron is zero.
Answer: b
Q.7. Assertion: To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter a small resistance is connected in parallel with
it.
Reason: The small resistance increases the combined resistance of the combination.
Answer: c
Q.8. Assertion: The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is increased by placing a suitable magnetic
material as a core inside the coil.
Reason: Soft iron has high magnetic permeability and cannot be easily magnetized or demagnetized.
Answer: c
Q.9. Assertion: Ferro-magnetic substances become paramagnetic above Curie temp.
Reason: Domains are destroyed at high temperature.
Answer: a
Q.10. Assertion: The ferromagnetic substance do not obey Curie’s law.
Reason: At Curie point a ferromagnetic substance start behaving as a paramagnetic substance.
Answer: b
Case Study Based (3q):

Read the paragraph given below and answer the questions that follow:
Case Study Question 1:
Moving coil galvanometer operates on Permanent Magnet Moving Coll (PMMC) mechanism and was
designed by the scientist Darsonval.
Moving coil galvanometers are of two types
(i) Suspended coll
(ii) Pivoted coil type or tangent galvanometer,
Its working is based on the fact that when a current carrying coil is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences
a torque. This torque tends to rotate the coil about its axis of suspension in such a way that the magnetic flux
passing through the coil is maximum.
(i) A moving coil galvanometer is an instrument which
(a) is used to measure emf
(b) is used to measure potential difference
(c) is used to measure resistance
(d) is a deflection instrument which gives a deflection when a current flows through its coil
(ii) To make the field radial in a moving coil galvanometer.
(a) number of turns of coil is kept small
(b) magnet is taken in the form of horse-shoe
(c) poles are of very strong magnets
(d) poles are cylindrically cut
(iii) The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
(a) directly proportional to torsional constant of spring
(b) directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) inversely proportional to the current in the coil
(iv) In a moving coil galvanometer, having a coil of N-turns of area A and carrying current I is placed
in a radial field of strength B. The torque acting on the coil is
(a) NA2B2I (b) NABI2 (c) N2ABI (d) NABI
(v) To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer, we should decrease
(a) strength of magnet (b) torsional constant of spring
(c) number of turns in coil (d) area of coil
Answers:
(i) d (ii) (d) (iii) (b) (iv) (d) (v) (b)

Loudspeakers: A common application of the magnetic force on a current carrying wire is found
in loudspeakers. The magnetic field created by the permanent magnet exerts a force on the voice coil that is
proportional to the current in the coil, the direction of the force is either to the left or to the right, depending
on the direction of the current. The signal coming from the amplifier causes the current to oscillate in
direction and magnitude. The coil and the speaker cone to which it is attached respond by oscillating with an
amplitude proportional to the amplitude of the current in the coil. Turning up the volume knob on the
amplifier increases the current amplitude and hence the amplitudes of the cone's oscillation and of the sound
wave produced by the moving cone.
The force is always perpendicular to both the conductor and the field, with the direction determined by the
same right-hand rule we used for a moving positive charge. Hence, this force can be expressed as a vector
product, just like the force on a single moving charge. We represent the segment of wire with a vector l along
the wire in the direction of the current, then force F on this segment is
F=I l x B (i.e. magnetic force on a straight wire segment)
(i) Loudspeaker works on the principle of

(a) detector (b) generator (c) amplifier (d) motor
(ii) Electrodynamic speaker can handle which type of audio power relative to permanent magnet type
speaker?
(a) Lower (b) Equal (c) Higher (d) Both (a) and (b)
(iii) To increase the power handling capacity in loudspeakers which type of magnet is used?
(a) Temporary magnet (b) Permanent magnet (c) Electromagnet (d) None of these
(iv) A horizontal wire 0.1 m long carries a current of 5 A. Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic
field, which can balance the weight of wire. Given the mass of the wire is 3 x 10-3 kg/m and g = 10 m/s².
(a) 6 x 10-3 T, acting horizontally perpendicular to wire
(b) 6 x 10-3 T, acting vertically upwards
(c) 6 x 10-2 T, acting vertically downwards (d) 6 x 10-2 T, acting horizontally perpendicular to wire
(v) A square current carrying loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the plane of the loop. If
the force on one arm of the loop is F, the net force on the remaining three arms of the loop is
(a) F (b) - F (c) 3F (d) -3F
Answers:
(i) d (ii) c (iii) c (iv) a (v) b

Velocity Selector: ln a beam of charged particles produced by a heated cathode or a radioactive material, not
all particles move with the same speed. Particles of a specific speed can be selected from the beam using an
arrangement of electric and magnetic fields called a velocity selector. A charged particle with mass m, charge
q and speed v enters a region of space where the electric and magnetic fields are perpendicular to the
particle’s velocity and to each other. The electric field E is vertically downward and the magnetic field B is
into the plane. If q is positive, the electric force is downward with magnitude qE, and the magnetic force is
upward with magnitude qvB. For given field magnitude E and B, for a particular value of v the electric and
magnetic force will be equal in magnitude the total force is then zero, and the particles travels in a straight
line with constant velocity. For zero total force, we find v = E/ B
Only particles with speeds equal to E/ B can pass through without being deflected by the fields. By adjusting
E and B appropriately, we can select particles having a particular speed for use in other experiments. Because
q divides out, a velocity selector for positively charged particles also works for electrons or other negatively
charged particles. Therefore, from the above discuss a velocity selector is a region in which there is a uniform
electric field and uniform magnetic field. The fields are perpendicular to one another, and perpendicular to
the initial velocity of the charged particles that are passing through the region.
(i) An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying long solenoid. Which of
the following is true?
(a) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.
(b) The electron will experience a force at 450 to the axis and hence execute a helical path
(c) The electron path will be circular about the axis
(d) The electron will be accelerated along the axis
(ii) A cubical region of space is filled with some uniform electric and magnetic fields. An electron enters the
cube across one of its faces with velocity v and a positron enters via opposite face with velocity -v. At this
instant
(a) the motion of the centre of mass (CM) is determined by B alone
(b) both particles gain or loose energy at the same rate
(c) the magnetic forces on both the particles cause equal accelerations
(d) all of the above
(iii) A charged particle would continue to move with a constant velocity in velocity selector, where in
(a) E not equals to zero, B not equals to zero (b) E equals to zero, B not equals to zero
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) none of these
(iv) A charged particle goes undeflected in a region of velocity selector containing electric and magnetic
field. It is possible that
(a) E is not parallel to B and v (b) E is parallel to B and v
(c) v is parallel B but E is not parallel to E (d) E is parallel to B but v is not parallel to E
(v) A charged particle with charge q enters a region of constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal field E =
50 N/C and magnetic field, B = 2.5 x 10-5 weber/m with a velocity v perpendicular to both E and B. It comes
out without any change in velocity with a magnitude of
(a) 0.5 x 106 m/s (b) 106 m/s (c) 2x 106 m/s (d) 2.5 x 106 m/s
Answers:
(i) a (ii) a (iii) c (iv) b (v) c
Very Short Answer Question (10):
Q1. A beam of protons projected along + 𝑥 axis, experiences a force due to magnetic field along the
– 𝑦 axis. What is the direction of magnetic field?
Q2. When a charged particle moving with velocity 𝑣 ⃗⃗⃗ is subjected to a magnetic field ⃗⃗⃗
𝐵 , the force acting on it
is non zero. Would the particle gain any energy?
Q3. What will be the path of a charged particle moving perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field?
Q4. What will be the path of a charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field at any arbitrary angle?
Q5. What can be the cause of helical motion of a charged particle?
Q6. State Ampere’s circuital law.
Q7. What is the source of magnetic field (or magnetism)?
Q8. Does a magnetic monopole exist? Justify your answer.
Q9. Uniform electric and magnetic fields are produced pointing in the same direction. An electron is
projected in the direction of the fields. What will be the effect on the kinetic energy of electron due to two
fields?
Q10. A proton and deuteron having equal momenta, enters a region of uniform magnetic field at right angles
to the direction of field. Find the ratio of the radii of curvature of the paths of the particles.
Short Answer Question (6):
Q1. State Biot – Savart law and express this law in the vector form.
Q2. How is the magnetic field inside a given solenoid made strong?
Q3. Which one of the following will experience maximum force, when projected with the same velocity 𝑣
perpendicular to the magnetic field: (i) 𝛼 − 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒, and (ii) 𝛽 − 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒 ?
Q4. Draw the magnetic field lines due to a circular loop of area ⃗⃗⃗
𝐴 carrying current I. Show that it acts as a
bar magnet of magnetic moment ⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑀 =I𝐴.
Q5. Derive an expression for the force per unit length between the two infinitely long straight parallel current
carrying conductors. Hence define S.I. unit of current.
Q6. Derive an expression for the torque acting on a rectangular current carrying loop kept in a uniform
magnetic field B.
Long Answer Questions (3):
Q1. A particle of charge ′𝑞′ and mass ′𝑚′ is moving with velocity ⃗⃗⃗ 𝒗 . It is subjected to a uniform magnetic
field ⃗⃗⃗
𝐵 directed perpendicular to its velocity. Show that it describes a circular path. Obtain the expression
for its radius and show that frequency of revolution is independent of velocity.
Q2. Use Biot-Savart’s law to find expression for the magnetic field due to a circular loop of radius ‘𝑟’
carrying current I at its centre.
Q3. Drive the expression for the magnetic field due to solenoid of length ′2𝑙′, radius ′𝑎′ having ′𝑛′number of
turns per unit length and carrying a steady current ′I’ at a point on axial line, distant ′𝑟′ from the centre of the
solenoid.
(i) How does this expression compare with the axial magnetic field due to a bar magnet of magnetic
moment ′𝑀′.
(ii) under what condition does the field become equivalent to that produced by a bar magnet?
NARENDRA SINGH GANGWAR

PGT (PHYSICS)
KV UTTARKASHI
Magnetism and Matter
GIST of the Lesson
Bar magnet, Bar magnet as an equivalent Solenoid(qualitative treatment only), Magnetic field intensity due to a
magnetic dipole(Bar magnet) along its axis and perpendicular to its axis(Qualitative treatment only), Torque on
a magnetic dipole in a uniform magnetic field(Qualitative treatment only), Magnetic field lines
Magnetic properties of materials- Dia, Para and Ferromagnetic substances with examples, Magnetisation of
materials, effect of temperature on magnetic properties
MASTERCARDS
Bar magnet - The iron ore magnetite which attracts small pieces of iron, cobalt, nickel etc. is a natural magnet. The
natural magnets have irregular shape and they are weak. A piece of iron or steel acquires magnetic properties when it is
rubbed with a magnet. Such magnets made out of iron or steel are artificial magnets. Artificial magnets can have desired
Shape and desired strength. If the artificial magnet is in the form of a rectangular or cylindrical bar, it is called a bar
magnet.
Basic properties of magnets-
(i) When the magnet is dipped in iron filings, they cling to the ends of the magnet. The attraction is maximum
at the two ends of the magnet. These ends are called poles of the magnet.
(ii) When a magnet is freely suspended, it always points along north-south direction. The pole pointing towards
geographic north is called North Pole N and the pole which points towards geographic south is called South
Pole S.
(iii) Magnetic poles always exist in pairs. (i.e) isolated magnetic pole does not exist.
(iv) The magnetic length of a magnet is always less than its geometric length, because the poles are situated a
little inwards from the free ends of the magnet. (But for the purpose of calculation the geometric length is
always taken as magnetic length.)
(v) Like poles repel each other and unlike poles attract each other. North Pole of a magnet when brought near
North Pole of another magnet, We can observe repulsion, but when the north pole of one magnet is brought
near South Pole of another magnet, we observe attraction.
(vi) The force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic poles is given by Coulomb’s inverse square law.
Magnetic field- Magnetic field is the space in which a magnetic pole experiences a force or it is the space around a
magnet in which the influence of the magnet is felt.
Magnetic lines of force- A magnetic field is better studied by drawing as many numbers of magnetic lines of force as
possible. A magnetic line of force is a line along which a free isolated north pole would travel when it is placed in the
magnetic field.
Properties of magnetic lines of force-
(i) Magnetic lines of forces are closed continuous curves, extending through the body of the magnet.
(ii) The direction of line of force is from North Pole to South Pole outside the magnet. While it is from South
Pole to North Pole inside the magnet.
(iii) The tangent to the magnetic line of force at any point gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
(i.e) it gives the direction of magnetic induction (𝐵⃗ ) at that point.
(iv) They never intersect each other.
(v) They crowd where the magnetic field is strong and thin out where the field is weak.
Magnetic moment – Since any magnet has two poles, it is also called a magnetic dipole. The magnetic moment of a
magnet is defined as the product of the pole strength and the distance between the two poles.
If m is the pole strength of each pole and 2l is the distance between the poles, the magnetic moment is given as:
𝑀⃗ = (2𝒍 )
Magnetic moment is a vector quantity. It is denoted by M. Its unit is A m2 . Its direction is from south pole to north
pole.
Bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid - The magnetic dipole moment m associated with a current loop was defined
to be m=NIA where N is the number of turns in the loop, I the current and A the area vector. The direction of
magnetic moment m of a loop can be found by using right hand rule, curl fingers in the direction of current then
thumb gives the direction of magnetic moment. The resemblance of magnetic field lines for a bar magnet and a
solenoid suggest that a bar magnet may be thought of as a large number of circulating currents in analogy with a
solenoid.
Let the solenoid consists of n turns per unit length. Let its length be 2l and radius a. We can evaluate the axial field
at a point P, at a distance r from the centre O of the solenoid. To do this, consider a circular element of thickness dx
of the solenoid at a distance x from its centre. It consists of n d x turns. Let I be the current in the solenoid. The
magnetic field on the axis of a circular current loop at point P due to the circular element is
𝑑𝐵⃗ = 𝜇0𝑛𝑑𝑥𝐼𝑎2/ 2[(𝑟 − 𝑥) 2 + 𝑎 2] 3/2.
The magnitude of the total field is obtained by summing over all the elements — in other words by integrating from
x = – l to x = + l . Thus,
l
𝐵⃗ = 𝜇0𝑛𝐼𝑎 2 /2 ∫−l[(r − x)2 + a2 ]3/2 𝑑𝑥
Consider the far axial field of the solenoid, i.e., r >> a and r >> l . Then the denominator is approximated by
2[(𝑟 − 𝑥) 2 + 𝑎 2] 3/2= 𝑟 3
Then
𝑙
𝐵⃗ = (𝜇0𝑛𝐼𝑎 2 /2𝑟 3) ∫−𝑙 dx
𝐵⃗ =( 𝜇0𝑛𝐼𝑎 2 /2𝑟 3 )(2𝑙)
Note that the magnitude of the magnetic moment of the solenoid is, m = n (2l ) I (πa 2 ) = (total number of turns ×
current × cross-sectional area).
Thus,
𝐵⃗ =( 𝜇0/ 4𝜋)( 2𝑚/ 𝑟 3)
This is also the far axial magnetic field of a bar magnet which one may obtain experimentally. Thus, a bar magnet
and a solenoid produce similar magnetic fields. The magnetic moment of a bar magnet is thus equal to the magnetic
moment of an equivalent solenoid that produces the same magnetic field.
Magnetic induction - Magnetic induction is the fundamental character of a magnetic field at a point. Magnetic
induction at a point in a magnetic field is the force experienced by unit north pole placed at that point. It is denoted
by B. Its unit is N/Am. It is a vector quantity. It is also called as magnetic flux density.
If a magnetic pole of strength m placed at a point in a magnetic field experiences a force F, the magnetic induction
at that point is 𝐵⃗ = 𝐹 /𝑚
Magnetic flux and magnetic flux density - The number of magnetic lines of force passing through an area A is called
magnetic flux. It is denoted by φ. Its unit is Weber. It is a scalar quantity.
The number of magnetic lines of force crossing unit area kept normal to the direction of line of force is magnetic flux
density. Its unit is Wb m–2 or Tesla. Magnetic flux 𝜙 = 𝐵⃗ ∙ 𝐴
Uniform and non-uniform magnetic field - Magnetic field is said to be uniform if the magnetic induction has the
same magnitude and the same direction at all the points in the region. It is represented by drawing parallel lines.
If the magnetic induction varies in magnitude and direction at different points in a region, the magnetic field is said
to be non-uniform. The magnetic field due to a bar magnet is non-uniform. It is represented by convergent or
divergent lines.
Force between two magnetic poles - In 1785, Coulomb made use of his torsion balance and discovered the law
governing the force between the two magnetic poles.
Coulomb’s inverse square law - Coulomb’s inverse square law states that the force of attraction or repulsion
between the two magnetic poles is directly proportional to the product of their pole strengths and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them. If m1 and m2 are the pole strengths of two magnetic
poles separated by a distance of d in a medium, then
F ∝ m1m2 and F∝ 1 /𝑑2
𝐹 ∝ 𝑚1𝑚2 /𝑑 2
𝐹 = 𝐾 𝑚1𝑚2 /𝑑 2
where K is the constant of proportionality and 𝐾 = 𝜇 /4𝜋 where μ is the permeability of the medium. But μ = μ0× μr ,
μ0 - permeability of free space or vacuum. μr - relative permeability of the medium.
Let m1 = m2 = 1, and d = 1 m,
𝐾 = 𝜇 /4𝜋.
In free space, μo = 4π × 10-7 H m-1
𝐹 = 10−7 𝑚1𝑚2 /𝑑 2
𝐹 = 10−7 1 × 1 /1
F = 10-7 N.
Therefore, unit pole is defined as that pole which when placed at a distance of 1 metre in free space or air from an
equal and similar pole, repels it with a force of 10-7 N.
Magnetic field at a point on the axial line of a bar magnet –
NS is the bar magnet of length 2l and of pole strength m. P is a point on the axial line at a distance d from its
midpoint O.
According to inverse square law,
𝐹 =( 𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚1𝑚2 /𝑑 2)
Magnetic induction (B1) at P due to north pole of the magnet, Along NP
𝐵⃗1 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑁𝑃) 2)
𝐵⃗1 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (d-l) 2)
Magnetic induction (B2) at P due to south pole of the magnet, Along PS
𝐵⃗2 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (PS) 2)
𝐵⃗2 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (d+l) 2)
Magnetic induction at P due to the bar magnet,
B = B1-B2
𝐵⃗ = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (d-l) 2)− (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (d+l) 2)
𝐵⃗ =( 𝜇0𝑚 /4𝜋)( ( 4𝑙𝑑/ (𝑑 2 −𝑙 2) 2 )
𝐵⃗ = 𝜇0𝑚 /4𝜋 ( 2𝑙 × 2𝑑 (𝑑 2 −𝑙 2) 2 )
𝐵⃗ = 𝜇0 /4𝜋 ( 2d × 𝑀⃗ (𝑑 2 − 𝑙 2) 2 ) , As M =m×2l
For a short bar magnet, l is very small compared to d, hence l2 is neglected
𝐵⃗ =( 𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 2𝑀⃗/ 𝑑 3)
The direction of B is along the axial line away from the north pole.
Magnetic induction at a point along the equatorial line of a bar magnet –
NS is the bar magnet of length 2l and pole strength m. P is a point on the equatorial line at a distance d from its
midpoint O.
Components magnetic field at point P are as follows
𝐵⃗1 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚 /(𝑁𝑃) 2)
𝐵⃗1 = (𝜇0/ 4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑑 2 +𝑙 2) ( AS NP2 = NO2 + OP2 )
𝐵⃗2 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚 /(PS) 2)
𝐵⃗2 = (𝜇0/ 4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑑 2 +𝑙 2)
Resolving B1 and B2 into their horizontal and vertical components.
Vertical components B1 sin θ and B2 sin θ are equal and opposite and therefore cancel each other .
The horizontal components B1 cos θ and B2 cos θ will get added along PT.
Resultant magnetic induction at P due to the bar magnet is
B = B1 cos θ + B2 cos θ. (along PT)

𝐵⃗ = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2))( 𝑙/ √𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2) + (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2))( 𝑙/ √𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2)
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 𝑆𝑂/ 𝑃𝑆 = 𝑁𝑂 /𝑁𝑃
As M =2lm
𝐵⃗ =( 𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑀⃗ /(𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2) 3/2)
For a short bar magnet, l 2 is neglected.
𝐵⃗ = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑀⃗/ 𝑑 3)
The direction of ‘B’ is along PT parallel to NS.
Magnetic properties of materials - The study of magnetic properties of materials assumes significance since these
properties decide whether the material is suitable for permanent magnets or electromagnets or cores of
transformers etc. Before classifying the materials depending on their magnetic behavior, the following important
terms are defined.
(i) Magnetizing field or magnetic intensity - The magnetic field used to magnetize a material is called the
magnetizing field. It is denoted by H and its unit is A m–1 . (Note : Since the origin of magnetism is linked to
the current, the magnetizing field is usually defined in terms of ampere turn)
(ii) Magnetic permeability - Magnetic permeability is the ability of the material to allow the passage of
magnetic lines of force through it. Relative permeability μr of a material is defined as the ratio of number of
magnetic lines of force per unit area B inside the material to the number of lines of force per unit area in
vacuum Bo produced by the same magnetizing field.
∴ Relative permeability μr = B / BO,
μr = μH /μ0 H = μ /μ0
(since μr is the ratio of two identical quantities, it has no unit.)
∴ The magnetic permeability of the medium μ = μoμr where μo is the permeability of free space. Magnetic
permeability μ of a medium is also defined as the ratio of magnetic induction B inside the medium to the
magnetizing field H inside the same medium.
𝜇 = 𝐵⃗ /𝐻
(iii) Intensity of magnetization - Intensity of magnetization represents the extent to which a material has been
magnetized under the influence of magnetizing field H. Intensity of magnetization of a magnetic material is
defined as the magnetic moment per unit volume of the material.
𝑀⃗ = 𝑚/ 𝑉
-1
Its unit is A m .
For a specimen of length 2l, area A and pole strength m,
𝑀⃗ = 2𝑙𝑚/ 2𝑙𝐴
𝑀⃗ = 𝑚 /𝐴
Hence, intensity of magnetization (M) is also defined as the pole strength per unit area of the cross section
of the material.
(iv) Magnetic induction - When a soft iron bar is placed in a uniform magnetizing field H, the magnetic induction
inside the specimen B is equal to the sum of the magnetic induction Bo produced in vacuum due to the
magnetizing field and the magnetic induction Bm due to the induced magnetization of the specimen.
B = Bo + Bm
But Bo= μoH and Bm = μoM
B = μoH + μoM
∴B = μo (H + M)
𝐻 = 𝐵⃗/ μo − 𝑀⃗
where H has the same dimensions as M and is measured in units of A m–1 .
Thus, the total magnetic field B
(v) Magnetic susceptibility - Magnetic susceptibility χm is a property which determines how easily and how
strongly a specimen can be magnetized. Susceptibility of a magnetic material is defined as the ratio of
intensity of magnetization induced in the material to the magnetizing field H in which the material is placed.
Thus 𝜒𝑚 = 𝑀⃗ /𝐻
Since I and H are of the same dimensions, χm has no unit and is dimensionless.
Relation between χm and μr
𝜒𝑚 = 𝑀⃗ /𝐻
M = χmH
We know B = μo (H + M)
B = μo (H + χmH)
B = μoH (1 + χm)
If μ is the permeability, we know that B = μH.
∴ μH = μoH (1 + χm)
𝜇 /𝜇0 = (1 + 𝜒𝑚)
μr= 1 + χm
Classification of magnetic materials –

On the basis of the behavior of materials in a magnetizing field, the materials are generally classified into
three categories namely,
(i) Diamagnetic, (ii) Paramagnetic and (iii) Ferromagnetic
(i) Properties of diamagnetic substances - Diamagnetic substances are those in which the net magnetic
moment of atoms is zero.
1. The susceptibility has a low negative value. (For example, for bismuth χm= – 0.00017).
2. Susceptibility is independent of temperature.
3. The relative permeability is slightly less than one.
4. When placed in a non uniform magnetic field they have a tendency to move away from the field (i.e) from
the stronger part to the weaker part of the field. They get magnetized in a direction opposite to the field.
5. When suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field, they set themselves perpendicular to the direction
of the magnetic field Examples : Bi, Sb, Cu, Au, Hg, H2O, H2 etc.
(ii) Properties of paramagnetic substances - Paramagnetic substances are those in which each atom or
molecule has a net non-zero magnetic moment of its own.
1. Susceptibility has a low positive value. (For example : χm for aluminium is +0.00002).
2. Susceptibility is inversely proportional to absolute temperature. As the temperature increases
susceptibility decreases.
3. The relative permeability is greater than one.
4. When placed in a non uniform magnetic field, they have a tendency to move from weaker part to the
stronger part of the field. They get magnetized in the direction of the field.
5. When suspended freely in a uniform magnetic field, they set themselves parallel to the direction of
magnetic field
Examples : Al, Pt, Cr, O2, Mn, CuSO4 etc.
Pierre Curie observed the magnetization M of a paramagnetic material is directly proportional to the
external magnetic filed B and inversely proportional to its absolute temperature T, called Curie’s law
𝑀⃗ = 𝐶 𝐵⃗ /𝑇 Where C = Curie’s constant
𝑀⃗ = 𝐶 𝐵⃗ /𝑇
𝑀⃗ = 𝐶𝐻 𝜇0 /𝑇 (∵ 𝐻 = 𝐵⃗ 𝜇0 )
𝑀⃗ /𝐻 = 𝜒𝑚 = 𝐶 𝜇0 /𝑇
(iii) Properties of ferromagnetic substances - Ferromagnetic substances are those in which each atom or
molecule has a strong spontaneous net magnetic moment. These substances exhibit strong paramagnetic
properties.
1. The susceptibility and relative permeability are very large. (For example : μr for iron = 200,000)
2. Susceptibility is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature. As the temperature increases the
value of susceptibility decreases. At a particular temperature, ferromagnetic become paramagnetic. This
transition temperature is called Curie temperature. The relation between magnetic susceptibility of the
substance in the acquired paramagnetic form and temperature is given by 𝜒𝑚 = 𝐶1 𝑇 − 𝑇𝐶 C1 is a constant
For example: Curie temperature of iron is about 1000 K.
3. When suspended freely in uniform magnetic field, they set themselves parallel to the direction of
magnetic field.
4. When placed in a non uniform magnetic field, they have a tendency to move from the weaker part to the
stronger part of the field. They get strongly magnetized in the direction of the field.
Examples : Fe, Ni, Co and a number of their alloys.
Hysteresis - Consider an iron bar being magnetized slowly by a magnetizing field H whose strength can be
changed. It is found that the magnetic induction B inside the material increases with the strength of the
magnetizing field and then attains a saturated level. This is depicted by the path AB in the fig.
If the magnetizing field is now decreased slowly, then magnetic induction also decreases but it does not
follow the path BA. Instead, when H = 0, B has non zero value equal to AC. This implies that some
magnetism is left in the specimen. The value of magnetic induction of a substance, when the magnetizing
field is reduced to zero, is called residual magnetic induction of the material. AC represents the residual
magnetism of the material. Now, if we apply the magnetizing field in the reverse direction, the magnetic
induction decreases along CD till it becomes zero at D. Thus to reduce the residual magnetism (remnant
magnetism) to zero, we have to apply a magnetizing field AD in the opposite direction. The value of the
magnetizing field H which has to be applied to the magnetic material in the reverse direction so as to reduce
its residual magnetism to zero is called its coercivity. When the strength of the magnetizing field H is further
increased in the reverse direction, the magnetic induction increases along DE till it acquires saturation at a
point E (points B and E are symmetrical). If we now again change the direction of the field, the magnetic
induction follows the path EFGB. This closed curve BCDEFGB is called the ‘hysteresis loop’ and it represents
a cycle of magnetization. The word ‘hysteresis’ literally means lagging behind. We have seen that magnetic
induction B lags behind the magnetizing field H in a cycle of magnetization. This phenomenon of lagging of
magnetic induction behind the magnetizing field is called hysteresis. In the process of magnetization of a
ferromagnetic substance through a cycle, there is expenditure of energy. The energy spent in magnetizing a
specimen is not recoverable and there occurs a loss of energy in the form of heat. This is so because, during
a cycle of magnetization, the molecular magnets in the specimen are oriented and reoriented a number of
times. This molecular motion results in the production of heat. It has been found that loss of heat energy
per unit volume of the specimen in each cycle of magnetization is equal to the area of the hysteresis loop.
The shape and size of the hysteresis loop is characteristic of each material because of the differences in
their retentivity, coercivity, permeability, susceptibility and energy losses etc. By studying hysteresis loops
of various materials, one can select suitable materials for different purposes.
Uses of ferromagnetic materials –
(i) Permanent magnets The ideal material for making permanent magnets should possess high
retentivity (residual magnetism) and high coercivity so that the magnetization lasts for a longer
time. Examples of such substances are steel and alnico (an alloy of Al, Ni and Co).
(ii) Electromagnets Material used for making an electromagnet has to undergo cyclic changes.
Therefore, the ideal material for making an electromagnet has to be one which has the least
hysteresis loss. Moreover, the material should attain high values of magnetic induction B at low
values of magnetizing field H. Soft iron is preferred for making electromagnets as it has a thin
hysteresis loop[small area, therefore less hysteresis loss] and low retentivity.It attains high values of
B at low values of magnetizing field.
(iii) Core of the transformer. A material used for making transformer core and choke is subjected to
cyclic changes very rapidly. Also, the material must have a large value of magnetic induction B.
Therefore, soft iron that has thin and tall hysteresis loop is preferred. Some alloys with low
hysteresis loss are: radio-metals, pern-alloy.
(iv) Magnetic tapes and memory store Magnetization of a magnet depends not only on the
magnetizing field but also on the cycle of magnetization it has undergone. Thus, the value of
magnetization of the specimen is a record of the cycles of magnetization it has undergone.
Therefore, such a system can act as a device for storing memory. Ferro magnetic materials are used
for coating magnetic tapes in a cassette player and for building a memory store in a modern
computer.
Examples : Ferrites (Fe, Fe2O, MnFe2O4 etc.).
MCQs
1Q: In the Bohr model of the Hydrogen atom, the electron revolves around a positively charged nucleus such as
a planet revolves around the sun. The force which binds the electron-proton system is the electrostatic force.
There will be a magnetic moment associated with this circulating current given by M = I A. What will be the
magnetic moment of the electron in the first orbit of H-atom?
(a) 𝑒𝑣𝑟 /2 (b) 𝑒𝑣 /2𝑟 (c) 𝑒𝑣 /2𝑟𝑚 (d) 𝑒𝑣𝑟/ 2𝑚
2Q: The relation between magnetic moment and angular momentum for an electron revolving in the first orbit
of H-atom is:
(a) M = 𝑒 L/2m (b) L = 𝑒 M/2m (c) M = 𝑒𝐵⃗L/2m (d) L = 𝑒𝐵⃗M/2m
3Q: The angle between magnetic moment vector and angular momentum vector is
(a) 0° (b) 45° (c) 90° (d) 180°
4Q: The substances which are weakly repelled by a magnetic field are called:
(a) Non- magnetic (b) Diamagnetic c) Paramagnetic d) Ferromagnetic
5Q: The class of materials, which are strongly attracted in a magnetic field, are called:
(a) Non- magnetic (b) Diamagnetic c) Paramagnetic d) Ferromagnetic
6Q: The magnetic susceptibility of the material, shown below in a magnetising field, is:
a) Positive b) negative c) zero d) cannot be concluded from picture
7Q: Which property of Iron (Fe) makes it suitable for use as core of a transformer?
a) Negative susceptibility b) large Hysteresis loss c) large area of Hysteresis loop d) High permeability
8Q: A magnetic dipole of magnetic moment (m) is rotated in a magnetic field (B) from position 𝜃 = 0o to
𝜃 = 180o. How much work is required for this?
a) – 2mB b) 2mB c) zero d) mB
9Q: The phenomenon of Hysteresis is exhibited by:
a) Dia magnets b) Para magnets c) Ferro magnets d) Non-magnetic substances
10Q: The magnetic permeability of a ferromagnetic material is:
a) Constant b) Increases with magnetising field

c) decreases with magnetising field d) First increases then decreases
11Q: The magnetic susceptibility of a material is found to be: – 2 x 10-6. This materials belongs to class of:
a) Diamagnets b) Paramagnets c) Ferromagnets d) No-magnets
12Q: The dimensional formula for magnetic pole strength of a magnet is:
a) [M0 L -1 T 0 A 1 ] b) [M0 L 1 T 0 A 1 ] c) [M2 L 1 T 0 A 2 ] d) [M0 L 2 T 0 A 1]
13Q: Which of the following statement is not correct about the magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic field lines form a continuous closed curve.

(b) Magnetic field line do not interest each other.
(c) Direction of tangent at any point on the magnetic field line curve gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from South to North Pole of the magnet.
14Q: The net magnetic flux through any closed surface, kept in a magnetic field is:
(a) zero (b) μ0/4π (c) 4π/μ0 (d) 4μ0/π
15Q: Which of these is independent of temperature?
a) Diamagnetism (b) Paramagnetism (c) Ferromagnetism (d) Non-magnetic substances
ANSWERS:
1 a 6 b 11 a
2 a 7 d 12 b
3 d 8 b 13 d
4 b 9 c 14 a
5 d 10 d 15 a
ASSERTION-REASONING TYPE: You have to select one of the four options (a), (b), (c) and (d) as per
the directions given below:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1Q: Assertion- A current carrying coil behaves like a bar magnet.

Reason- The current in the coil appears opposite when viewed from the two sides.
2Q: Assertion- Soft iron core is used to make transformer core.
Reason – Coercivity is low for soft iron core.
3Q: Assertion – Two magnetic field lines never cross each other.
Reason – Magnetic field does not obey superposition principle.
4Q: Assertion – Iron core used in a solenoid increases the magnetic flux through it.
Reason – The metals have a high value of magnetic permeability.
5Q: Assertion – A freely suspended bar magnet always rests in the N-S direction.
Reason – In this direction, the magnetic torque experienced by the magnet is zero.
6Q: Assertion – Ferromagnetic materials show Hysteresis.
Reason – The magnetisation-demagnetisation cycle for a ferromagnetic material is Reversible.
7Q: Assertion - When radius of a circular loop carrying current is doubled, its magnetic moment becomes four times.
Reason : Magnetic moment depends on area of the loop.
8Q: Assertion - The magnetic moment (μ) of an electron revolving around the nucleus decreases with increasing
principle quantum number (n).
Reason - Magnetic moment of the revolving electron μ ∝ 1/n.
9Q: Assertion - The vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is zero at the magnetic equator.
Reason - The magnetic field lines are vertical at the magnetic equator.
10Q: Assertion - The angle of dip is maximum at the poles of the earth.
Reason - The magnetic field lines are parallel to the surface of the earth at the poles.
ANSWERS:
1 a 6 c
2 a 7 a
3 c 8 d
4 c 9 c
5 a 10 c
SA type questions (2 marks)
1Q: Define magnetic susceptibility of a material. Name two elements, one having positive susceptibility and the
other having negative susceptibility. What does negative susceptibility signify?
Ans. (i) Magnetic susceptibility (χm) : It is the property of a material which determines how easily it can be
magnetised when kept in a magnetising field.
Also, it is the ratio of intensity of magnetisation (I) produced in the material to the intensity of magnetising field (H)
χm = I/ H
(ii) Positive susceptibility : paramagnetic material. Example- Al, Ca.
Negative susceptibility : diamagnetic materials. Example- Bi, Cu.
(iii) Negative susceptibility signifies that the material is diamagnetic in nature.
2Q: The figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation versus the applied magnetic field intensity, H,
for two magnetic materials A and B : (i) Identify the materials A and B. (ii) Why does the material B, has a larger
susceptibility than A, for a given field at constant temperature?
Ans. (i) As χm = I/ H. Slope of the line gives magnetic susceptibilities.

For magnetic material B, it is giving higher +ve value. So material is ferromagnetic·
For magnetic material A, it is giving lesser +ve value than ‘B’. So material is paramagnetic·
(ii) Larger susceptibility is due to characteristic ‘domain structure’. More number of magnetic moments get aligned
in the direction of magnetising field in comparision to that for paramagnetic materials for the same value of
magnetising field.
3Q: i) Write two characteristics of a material used for making permanent magnets.
(ii) Why is core of an electromagnet made of ferromagnetic materials?
Ans. (i) Two characteristics of a material used to make permanent magnet are:
(a) High retentivity so that it produces a strong magnetic field.
(b) High coercivity so that its magnetisation is not destroyed by strong magnetic fields, temperature variations or
minor mechanical damage.
(ii) The core of electromagnet is made of ferromagnetic materials because they have high initial permeability so that
magnetisation is large even for a small magnetising field and low resistivity to reduce losses due to eddy currents.
4Q: Draw magnetic field lines when a (i) diamagnetic, (ii) paramagnetic substance is placed in an external
magnetic field. Which magnetic property distinguishes this behaviour of the field lines due to the two
substances?
Ans. (i) When a diamagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field.
(ii) When a paramagnetic material is placed in an external magnetic field. Magnetic susceptibility distinguishes
this behaviour of the field lines due to the two substances.
5Q: A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north tip down
at 60° with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is known to be 0.4
G. Determine the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the place.
Ans. Given : δ = 60°, H = 0.4 G, R = ?
As H = R cos δ, R = H /cosδ = 0.4 /cos 60o ∴ R = 0.4/ (1/2) = 0.8 G
6Q: The relative magnetic permeability of a magnetic material is 800. Identify the nature of magnetic material
and state its two properties.
Ans. Substance is ferromagnetic.
(i) They are strongly attracted by magnets.
(ii) In a non-uniform magnetic field, they tend to move quickly from weaker to stronger parts of the field.
7Q: State two characteristic properties distinguishing the behaviour of paramagnetic and diamagnetic materials.
Ans.
Paramagnetic Diamagnetic
(i) Susceptibility is small and positive, i.e. 0 (i)Susceptibility is small and negative,
< χm < ε (where ε is a small number) for i.e. –1 ≤ χP < 0 for diamagnetic.
paramagnetic.
(ii) Paramagnetic materials are feebly (ii)Diamagnetic materials are feebly
attracted by magnets. repelled by magnets
8Q: Write two characteristic properties each to select materials suitable for (i) permanent magnets and (ii)
electromagnets.
Ans. Properties of a material—

(a) )For making a permanent magnet
(i) High retentivity (ii) High coercivity (iii) High permeability
(b) )For making an electromagnet

(i) High permeability (ii) Low retentivity
9Q: State Coulomb’s inverse square law of magnetism.

Ans. The force of attraction or repulsion between two magnetic poles is directly proportional to the product of
their pole strengths and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
𝝁𝒐 𝒎𝑨 ×𝒎𝑩
⃗ =
𝑭 𝒓̂
𝟒𝝅 𝒓𝟐
10Q: What are the properties of magnetic field lines?
Ans. (i) Magnetic field lines are continuous closed curves. The direction of magnetic field lines is from North pole
to South pole outside the magnet and South pole to North pole inside the magnet.
(ii) The direction of magnetic field at any point on the curve is known by drawing tangent to the
magnetic line of force at that point.
(iii) Magnetic field lines never intersect each other. Otherwise, the magnetic compass needle would
point towards two directions, which is not possible.
(iv) The degree of closeness of the field lines determines the relative strength of the magnetic field. The
magnetic field is strong where magnetic field lines crowd and weak where magnetic field lines thin
out.
SA type questions (3 marks)
1Q: Compute the torque experienced by a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field.
⃗ as shown in Figure.
Ans. Consider a magnet of length 2l of pole strength qm kept in a uniform magnetic field 𝐵⃗
Each pole experiences a force of magnitude qmB but acts in opposite direction. Therefore, the net force exerted on
the magnet is zero, so that there is no translatory motion. These two forces constitute a couple (about midpoint of
⃗
bar magnet) which will rotate and try to align in the direction of the magnetic field 𝐵⃗
⃗⃗𝜏 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝑁 × 𝐹 ⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑁 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝐹𝑆 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝑆 × ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ × (−𝑞𝑚 𝐵⃗
⃗ ) + 𝑂𝑆
𝑂𝑁 × (𝑞𝑚 𝐵⃗ ⃗)
The magnitude of torque about O is: τ = ON(qm B)sin𝜃 + OS(qm B) sin𝜃
Since ON = OS = l, therefore , τ = ON(qm B) + OS(qm B) = 2 qm l B sin𝜃
τ = pm B sin𝜃 , [pm = qm 2l]
𝐩𝐦 × ⃗𝐁
or in vector form: ⃗𝛕 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗
2Q: Obtain the expression for potential energy of a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field.
Ans. When a bar magnet (magnetic dipole) of dipole moment ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

𝐩𝐦 is held at an angle θ with the direction of a uniform
magnetic field 𝐁
The magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is
τ = pm B sin𝜃.
If the dipole is rotated through a very small angular displacement dθ against the torque at constant angular velocity, the
work done by external torque 𝜏𝑒𝑥𝑡 for this small angular displacement is given by, ฀
dW = 𝜏𝑒𝑥𝑡 dθ = pm B sin𝜃 dθ
Total work done in rotating the dipole from θʹ to θ is,
𝜃
W = pm B ∫𝜃́ sin𝜃 dθ
= pm B [− cos𝜃]𝜃𝜃́
= - pm B [cos 𝜃 - cos 𝜃́]
This work done is stored as potential energy in bar magnet. So that
U = W = - pm B [cos 𝜃 - cos 𝜃́]
If the rotation starts from 900, 𝜃́ = 900
U = - pm B cos 𝜃
⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗𝐦 ∙ 𝑩
In vector form: U = - 𝐩
3Q: Obtain an expression for magnetic dipole moment of revolving electron.
Ans. Suppose an electron undergoes circular motion around the nucleus as shown in Figure.
The circulating electron in a loop is like current in a circular loop. The magnetic dipole moment due to current carrying
circular loop is
𝜇𝐿 = I 𝐴 ……………………………………………………(1)
⃗⃗⃗⃗
If T is the time period of an electron, the current due to circular motion of the electron is,
I = −e/T, where –e is the charge on the electron…………………..(2)
If R is the radius of the circular orbit and v is the velocity of the electron in the circular orbit, then,
T = 2𝜋𝑟/𝑣 ……………………………………….(3)
Substituting equation(3) in (2), we have,
I = -ev/2𝜋𝑅 ……………………………………(4)
Substituting equation(4) in (1), we get,

−𝑒𝑣
𝜇𝐿 = ( )A
2𝜋𝑅
But area of the circular loop is A = π R 2 . So that,

−𝑒𝑣 −evR
𝜇𝐿 = ( ) π R2 = ……………………………(5)
2𝜋𝑅 2
The angular momentum of the electron can be written as,
L = pR = mvR
Or vR = L/m
Substituting this in equation(5), we have,
−eL
𝜇𝐿 =
2m
In vector form
−𝐞𝐋
𝝁𝑳 =
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝟐𝐦
The negative sign indicates that the magnetic moment and angular momentum are in opposite direction.
4Q: Explain the magnetic elements of the earth's magnetic field.

Ans. The elements are:
Magnetic declination (𝜃)
Magnetic inclination (d)
Horizontal component (BH)
Magnetic declination:
The small angle between magnetic axis and geographic axis at a place is defined as magnetic declination at that place. It
is represented by θ.
Magnetic Inclination:
Magnetic dip, dip angle, or magnetic inclination is the angle made with the horizontal by the compass needle of a
vertically held compass. This angle varies at different points on the Earth's surface. Positive values of inclination indicate
that the magnetic field of the Earth is pointing downward, into the Earth, at the point of measurement. The value can be
measured with an instrument typically known as a dip circle.
(1)At equator the magnetic field is parallel to the horizon so there will be zero angle of dip.
(2) At poles the magnetic field is almost vertical, here the dip will me maximum.
Horizontal component :
It is the component of earth’s magnetic field along the horizontal direction.

So the angle of dip is the angle between earth’s magnetic field i.e. B and the horizontal component i.e. BH.
5Q: Draw hysteresis curve (B-H curve) for a ferromagnetic substance.
Ans. Hysteresis is characterized as a lag of magnetization intensity (B) behind the magnetic field intensity (H). For a
ferromagnetic substance, When ferromagnetic materials are placed inside a current-carrying coil, the magnetizing
field H caused by the current, forces some or all the atomic magnetic dipoles in the material to align with the external
magnetizing field. In this way material gets magnetized.
The effect of magnetic hysteresis shows that the magnetisation process of a ferromagnetic core and therefore the flux
density depends on which part of the curve the ferromagnetic core is magnetised on as this depends upon the circuits
past history giving the core a form of “memory”. Then ferromagnetic materials have memory because they remain
magnetised after the external magnetic field has been removed.
However, soft ferromagnetic materials such as iron or silicon steel have very narrow magnetic hysteresis loops resulting
in very small amounts of residual magnetism making them ideal for use in relays, solenoids and transformers as they can
be easily magnetised and demagnetised.
6Q: Define the terms Magnetising field(H) and Intensity of magnetization(M). Relate these two and plot a graph
between them for a diamagnetic material.
Ans. Magnetising field(H)-The magnetic field which is used to magnetize a sample or specimen is called the magnetising
⃗ ). Magnetising field is a vector quantity. Its unit is A m-1 .
field(𝐻
Intensity of magnetization(I)-the net magnetic moment per unit volume of the material is known as intensity of
magnetisation or magnetisation vector or magnetisation. Its unit is A m-1 .
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗𝐦
𝐏
⃗⃗⃗ =
𝐌
𝐕
The Intensity of magnetisation of a sample is directly proportional to the Magneting field.
M∝H
M=χH
The quantity χ is called magnetic susceptibility of the material.
For Diamagnetic materials, it is a small negative number and independent of temperature.

For Paramagnetic materials, it is a small positive number and decreases with temperature.
For Ferromagnetic materials, it is a large positive number and disappears at Curie temperature.
7Q: Distinguish between Diamagnetic, Paramagnetic and Ferromagnetic materials.

Ans. The distinction between Ferro, para and diamagnetism is as given below
Property Diamagnetism Paramagnetism Ferromagnetism
They are weakly

Effect of They are weakly attracted by They are strongly attracted by
repelled by
magnets magnets magnets
magnets
Small and positive

Small and negative Very large and positive
Susceptibility i.e. 0< χ m<E, where E is a
i.e. −1< χ m<0 χ m >1000
small number
Magnetic vector
Hysteresis Magnetic vector shows no Magnetic vector shows
show no
effect hysteresis hysteresis
hysteresis.
It acquires weak
It acquires weak
magnetisation in It acquires strong
In external magnetisation in the
the opposite magnetisation in the direction
magnetic field direction of the magnetising
direction to the of the magnetising field.
field.
magnetising field.
It tends to move
slowly from the It tends to move slowly from It tends to move quickly from
In non-uniform
stronger to the weak to the stronger parts of weaker to stronger pails of the
magnetic field
weaker parts of the field. field.
the field.
Susceptibility is Susceptibility varies inversely Susceptibility decreases with

Effect of
independent of as temperature temperature in a complex
temperature
temperature χ m α 1/T manner χ m α 1/T (T>Tc)
Magnetisation lasts
Removal of In it, magnetisation is retained
as long as the As soon as the field is room,
magnetising even after the removal of the
magnetic field is its magnetisation is lost
field magnetising field
applied
8Q: Define the terms Hysteresis, Coercivity, Retentivity.

Ans. Hysteresis-The phenomenon of lagging of magnetic induction behind the magnetising field is called hysteresis.
The graph between magnetic induction and the magnetising field is called hysteresis loop.
Coercivity- The magnitude of the reverse magnetising field for which the residual magnetism of the material vanishes is
called its coercivity.
Retentivity- Remanence or Retentivity is defined as the ability of the materials to retain the magnetism in them even
magnetising field vanishes.
9Q: What is Hysteresis loss? What are the applications of the Hysteresis loop?
Ans. Hysteresis loss - The energy loss during one cycle of magnetisation of the ferromagnetic substance is called
hysteresis loss.
Applications - Hysteresis loop provides information such as retentivity, coercivity, permeability, susceptibility and
energy loss during one cycle of magnetisation for each ferromagnetic material. It is used to selecting proper and
suitable material for a given purpose. Ex: Permanent magnets, Electromagnets and core of transformer.
10Q: What kind of materials should be used to make (i) permanent magnets (ii) Electromagnets (iii) Transformer
core?
Ans. Permanent magnets - The materials with high retentivity, high coercivity and high permeability are suitable for
making permanent magnets.
Ex: Steel and Alnico(Al+Ni+Co).
Electromagnets - The materials with high initial permeability, low retentivity, low coercivity and thin hysteresis loop with
smaller area are preferred to make electromagnets.
Ex: Soft iron and Mumetal (Nickel Iron alloy)
Transformer core - The materials with high initial permeability, large magnetic induction and thin hysteresis loop with
smaller area are needed to design transformer cores.
Ex: Soft iron.
5 Marks questions
1Q: Derive the expression for magnetic field at a point on the axial line of a bar magnet.
Ans. NS is the bar magnet of length 2l and of pole strength m. P is a point on the axial line at a distance d from its
midpoint O.
According to inverse square law,
𝐹 =( 𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚1𝑚2 /𝑑 2)
𝐵⃗1 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑁𝑃) 2)
𝐵⃗1 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (d-l) 2)
𝐵⃗2 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (PS) 2)
𝐵⃗2 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (d+l) 2)
Magnetic induction at P due to the bar magnet,
B = B1-B2
𝐵⃗ = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (d-l) 2)− (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (d+l) 2)
𝐵⃗ =( 𝜇0𝑚 /4𝜋)( ( 4𝑙𝑑/ (𝑑 2 −𝑙 2) 2 )
𝐵⃗ = 𝜇0𝑚 /4𝜋 ( 2𝑙 × 2𝑑 (𝑑 2 −𝑙 2) 2 )
𝐵⃗ = 𝜇0 /4𝜋 ( 2d × 𝑀⃗ (𝑑 2 − 𝑙 2) 2 ) , As M =m×2l
For a short bar magnet, l is very small compared to d, hence l2 is neglected
𝐵⃗ =( 𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 2𝑀⃗/ 𝑑 3)
The direction of B is along the axial line away from the north pole.
2Q: Derive the expression for magnetic field at a point on the equatorial line of a bar magnet.
Ans. NS is the bar magnet of length 2l and pole strength m. P is a point on the equatorial line at a distance d from
its midpoint O.
Components magnetic field at point P are as follows
𝐵⃗1 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚 /(𝑁𝑃) 2)
𝐵⃗1 = (𝜇0/ 4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑑 2 +𝑙 2) ( AS NP2 = NO2 + OP2 )
𝐵⃗2 = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚 /(PS) 2)
𝐵⃗2 = (𝜇0/ 4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑑 2 +𝑙 2)
Resolving B1 and B2 into their horizontal and vertical components.
Vertical components B1 sin θ and B2 sin θ are equal and opposite and therefore cancel each other .
The horizontal components B1 cos θ and B2 cos θ will get added along PT.
Resultant magnetic induction at P due to the bar magnet is
B = B1 cos θ + B2 cos θ. (along PT)
𝐵⃗ = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2))( 𝑙/ √𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2) + (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑚/ (𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2))( 𝑙/ √𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2)

𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 = 𝑆𝑂/ 𝑃𝑆 = 𝑁𝑂 /𝑁𝑃
As M =2lm
𝐵⃗ =( 𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑀⃗ /(𝑑 2 + 𝑙 2)3/2)
For a short bar magnet, l 2 is neglected.
𝐵⃗ = (𝜇0 /4𝜋)( 𝑀⃗/ 𝑑 3)
The direction of ‘B’ is along PT parallel to NS.
3Q: Compute the torque experienced by a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field.
Ans. Consider a magnet of length 2l of pole strength qm kept in a uniform magnetic field 𝐵⃗
Each pole experiences a force of magnitude qmB but acts in opposite direction. Therefore, the net force exerted on
the magnet is zero, so that there is no translatory motion. These two forces constitute a couple (about midpoint of
⃗
bar magnet) which will rotate and try to align in the direction of the magnetic field 𝐵⃗
⃗⃗𝜏 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝑁 × 𝐹 ⃗⃗⃗⃗𝑁 + ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ 𝐹𝑆 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑂𝑆 × ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ × (−𝑞𝑚 𝐵⃗
⃗ ) + 𝑂𝑆
𝑂𝑁 × (𝑞𝑚 𝐵⃗ ⃗)
The magnitude of torque about O is: τ = ON(qm B)sin𝜃 + OS(qm B) sin𝜃
Since ON = OS = l, therefore , τ = ON(qm B) + OS(qm B) = 2 qm l B sin𝜃
τ = pm B sin𝜃 , [pm = qm 2l]
𝐩𝐦 × ⃗𝐁
or in vector form: ⃗𝛕 = ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗
4Q: Obtain the expression for potential energy of a bar magnet in a uniform magnetic field.
Ans. When a bar magnet (magnetic dipole) of dipole moment ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

𝐩𝐦 is held at an angle θ with the direction of a uniform
magnetic field 𝐁
The magnitude of the torque acting on the dipole is
τ = pm B sin𝜃.
If the dipole is rotated through a very small angular displacement dθ against the torque at constant angular velocity, the
work done by external torque 𝜏𝑒𝑥𝑡 for this small angular displacement is given by, ฀
dW = 𝜏𝑒𝑥𝑡 dθ = pm B sin𝜃 dθ
Total work done in rotating the dipole from θʹ to θ is,
𝜃
W = pm B ∫𝜃́ sin𝜃 dθ
= pm B [− cos𝜃]𝜃𝜃́
= - pm B [cos 𝜃 - cos 𝜃́]
This work done is stored as potential energy in bar magnet. So that
U = W = - pm B [cos 𝜃 - cos 𝜃́]
If the rotation starts from 900, 𝜃́ = 900
U = - pm B cos 𝜃
⃗⃗
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗𝐦 ∙ 𝑩
In vector form: U = - 𝐩
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Syllabus
Electromagnetic induction; Faraday's laws, induced EMF and current; Lenz's Law, Self and mutual
induction.
MASTER CARD
Multiple Choice Questions
1. When current in a coil changes from 5 A to 2 A in 0.1 s, average voltage of 50 V is produced. The self-
inductance of the coil is
(a) 1.67 H (b) 6 H (c) 3 H
(d) 0.67 H
Ans-(a)
2. In Faraday’s experiment on electromagnetic induction, more deflection will be shown by galvanometer,

when
a. Magnet is in uniform motion towards the coil
b. Magnet is in uniform motion away from the coil
c. Magnet is in accelerated motion towards the coil
d. Magnet is at rest near the coil
Ans- (c) Magnet is in accelerated motion towards the coil
3. If both the number of turns and core length of an inductor is doubled keeping other factors constant,
then its self-inductance will be-
(a) Unaffected (b) doubled (c) halved (d) quadrupled
Ans- b) doubled
4. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then the induced e.m.f. is
(a) larger in case (i)
(b) smaller in case (i)
(c) equal to both the cases
(d) larger or smaller depending upon the radius of the coil
Ans (a)
5. A metallic cylinder is held vertically and then or small magnet is dropped along its axis. It will fall
with-
(a) acceleration a>g (b) acceleration a˂g (c) acceleration a=g (d) constant velocity a=0
Ans- (b) acceleration a˂g [Eddy current]
6. An emf of 200V is induced in a circuit when current in the circuit falls from 5A to 0A in 0.1 second.
The self-inductance of the circuit is-
(a) 3.5 H (b) 3.9 H (c) 4 H (d) 4.2
Ans-(c) 4 H
7.The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant t is φ=(6t2 -8t+5) Wb, the emf induced in the coil at
t= 2 second is-
a. -16V (b) -24V (c) +24V (d) +16V
Ans-(a) -16V
8. A conducting circular ring is placed in a uniform magnetic field B with its plane Perpendicular to the
field. The radius of the ring starts shrinking at the rate (da/dt). Then induced-emf at the instant when the
radius is a is-
(a) (πa2/2)2B(da/dt) (b) πaB(da/dt) (c) πa2(dB/dt) (d) 2πaB(da/dt)
Ans- d) 2πaB(da/dt)
9. Two pure inductors each of self inductance L are connected in series, the net inductance is
(a) L
(b) 2 L
(c) L/2
(d) L/4
Ans- (b) 2L
10. A coil of 100 turns carries a current of 5 mA and creates a magnetic flux of 10-5 weber. The
inductance is
(a) 0.2 mH (b) 2.0 mH (c) 0.02 mH (d) 0.002 H
Ans-(c )0.02mH
ASSERTIONS AND REASONS:

In the following questions a statement of Assertion is followed by a statement of Reason. Mark the
correct choice as
a. if both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
b. if both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
c. if assessment is true but reason is false
d. both assertion and reason are false statements
1. Assertion- Faraday's laws are consequence of the conversation of energy

Reason- In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current legs behind the EMF in phase.
Answer- (c) Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction concern with the conversion of mechanical
energy into electrical energy in accordance with the law of conservation of energy. But in a purely
resistive AC circuit, the EMF is in phase with the current.
2.Assertion- The presence of large magnetic flux through a current in the coil if the circuit is continuous.
Reason- Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the coil.
Answer- (d) if there is no change in the magnetic flux linked with the coil, there is no induced current.
The current induced in a coil is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the
coil.
3. Assertion- an EMF is induced in a close loop where magnetic flux is varied. The induced E is not a
conservative field.
Reason - The line integral E.dl around the closed loop is non zero.
Answer- (a) both assertion and reason are true
4. Assertion- If current is flowing through a machine of iron, eddy currents are produced.
Reason- Change in magnetic flux through an area causes Eddy current
Answer- (a) both assertion and reason are true
5. Assertion- The bar magnet falling vertically along the axis of horizontal coil will be having a
acceleration less than g.
Reason- Clockwise current is induced in the coil
Answer-(c)
6. Assertion: Lenz’s law violates the principle of conservation of energy.

Reason: Induced emf always opposes the change in magnetic flux responsible for its production.
Answer- a) Lenz’s law (that the direction of induced emf is always such as to oppose the change that
cause it) is direct consequence of the law of conservation of energy.
7. Assertion: An induced current has a direction such that the magnetic field due to the current opposes
the change in the magnetic flux that induces the current.
Reason: Above statement is in accordance with conservation of energy.
Answer – (b)
8. Assertion: Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long solenoid decreases.

Reason: The induced current produced in a circuit always flow in such direction that it opposes the
change to the cause that produced it.
Answer- (a)
9. Assertion: An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a magnetic field.

Reason: An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic field.
Answer- (b)
10. Assertion: An induced emf appears in any coil in which the current is changing.
Reason: Self induction phenomenon obeys Faraday’s law of induction.
Answer-(b)
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS:
1. When current passed through a coil changes, the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes. As a result
an EMF is induced in the coil. This phenomenon is called self-induction. At any instant the flux Nφ
linked with the N turns of the coil is proportional to the current I through the coil i.e. Nφ= LI. This
proportionality Constant L is called self-inductance or simply inductance. Inductance is the ratio of flux
linkage to the current. It is equal to Nφ /I. As per Lenz’s law, the induced EMF opposes the change of
current or dI/dt, so inductance L is a measure of the inertia of the coil against the change of current
through it. In contrast to it, a resistor R opposite the flow of current I through a circuit. A solenoid made
from a thick wire has a negligible resistance but a sufficient large inductance. Such an element is called
and ideal inductor. Inductance of a coil depends on the geometry of the coil, number of turns in the coil
and the permeability of the medium inside the coil.
i.What is the SI unit of self-inductance of a coil?
ii.What is the inductance of a coil of 100 turns carries a current of 5mA and creates a magnetic flux of 10 -
5
weber.
iii.A current of 2A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. Calculate the magnetic flux linked with the
coil.
iv. On what factors a self-inductance of a coil depends?
Ans i. VsA-1
Ans ii. L=φ/NI =0.02mH
Ans iii. Φ=LI = 10 weber
Ans iv. Geometry of the coil, number of turns in the coil and the permeability of the medium inside the
coil.
2. Currents can be induced not only in conducting coils, but also in conducting sheets or blocks. Current
is induced in solid metallic masses when the magnetic flux threading through them changes. Such
currents flow in the form of irregularly shaped loops throughout the body of the metal. These currents
look like eddies or whirlpools in water so they are known as eddy currents. Eddy currents have both
undesirable effects and practically useful applications. For example it causes unnecessary heating and
wastage of power in electric motors, dynamos and in the cores of transformers.
(i) The working of speedometers of trains is based on
(a) wattless currents (b) eddy currents
(c) alternating currents (d) pulsating currents
(ii) Identify the wrong statement
(a) Eddy currents are produced in a steady magnetic field
(b) Induction furnace uses eddy currents to produce heat.
(c) Eddy currents can be used to produce braking force in moving trains
(d) Power meters work on the principle of eddy currents.
(iii) Which of the following is the best method to reduce eddy currents?
(a) Laminating core (b) Using thick wires
(c) By reducing hysteresis loss (d) None of these
(iv) The direction of eddy currents is given by
(a) Fleming's left hand rule (b) Biot-Savart law
(c) Lenz's law (d) Ampere-circuital law
Answers:
i.(b) : The working of speedometers is based on eddy currents.
ii.(a)
iii.(a): To reduce the eddy currents in the metal armature of motors, wire is wrapped around a number of
thin metal sheets called lamination.
iv.(c) : Eddy currents also oppose the change in magnetic flux, so their direction is given by Lenz's law.
3. Read the para given below and answer the questions that follow:
Self Induction. When a current I flows through a coil, flux linked with it is φ = LI, where L is a constant
known as self inductance of the coil.
Any charge in current sets up an induced emf in the coil. Thus, self inductance of a coil is the induced
emf set up in it when the current passing through it changes at the unit rate. It is a measure of the
opposition to the growth or the decay of current flowing through the coil. Also, value of self inductance
depends on the number of turns in the solenoid, its area of cross-section and the permeability of its core
material.
(i) The inductance in a coil plays the same role as

(a) inertia in mechanics
(b) energy in mechanics
(c) momentum in mechanics
(d) force in mechanics
(ii) A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is
(a) 0.5 Wb (b) 12.5 Wb (c) zero (d) 2 Wb
(iii)The inductance L of a solenoid depends upon its radius R as

(a) L ∝ R (b) L ∝ 1/R (c) L ∝ R2 (d) L ∝ R3
(iv) The unit of self-inductance is
(a) Weber ampere (b) Weber-1 ampere (c) Ohm second

(d) Farad
(v) The induced emf in a coil of 10 henry inductance in which current varies from 9 A to 4 A in 0.2
second is
(a) 200 V (b) 250 V`(c) 300 V (d) 350 V
Answer:
(i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) c (v) b
TWO MARK QUESTIONS :
1. Two spherical bobs, one metallic and the other of glass, of the same size are allowed to fall freely from
the same height above the ground. Which of the two would reach earlier and why?
Ans. Glass would reach earlier. This is because there is no effect of electromagnetic induction in glass,
due to presence of earth’s magnetic field, unlike in the case of metallic ball.
2. When current in a coil change with time, how is the back emf induced in the coil related to it?
Ans. The back emf induced in the coil opposes the change in current.
3. State the law that gives the polarity of the induced emf.
Ans. Lenz’s Law: The polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to produce a current which opposes the
change in magnetic flux that produces it.
4. A light metal disc on the top of an electromagnet is thrown up as the current is switched on. Why? Give
reason.
Ans. A metal disc is placed on the top of a magnet, as the electric current flows through the coil, an
induced current in the form of Eddies flows through the metal plate, the lower face attains the same
polarity, and hence the metal disc is thrown up.
1. 5.A planar loop of rectangular shape is moved within the region of a uniform magnetic field acting
perpendicular to its plane. What is the direction and magnitude of the current induced in it?
Ans. If planar loop moves within the region of uniform magnetic field, there is no magnetic flux changes
by loop so, no current will be induced in the loop. Hence no direction.
6.The motion of copper plate is damped when it is allowed to oscillate between the two poles of a magnet.
What is the cause of this damping?
Ans. As the plate oscillate, the changing magnetic flux through the plate produces a strong eddy current
in the direction, which opposes the cause. Also, copper being diamagnetic substance, it gets magnetised in
the opposite direction, so the plate motion gets damped.
7. A rectangular loop and a circular loop are moving out of a uniform magnetic field region to a field free
region with a constant velocity. In which loop do you expect the induced emf to be a constant during the
passage out of the field region? The field is normal to the loop.
Ans-In rectangular coil the induced emf will remain constant because in this the case rate of change of
area in the magnetic field region remains constant, while in circular coil the rate of change of area in the
magnetic field region is not constant.
8. Predict the polarity of the capacitor C connected to coil, which is situated between two bar magnets
moving as shown in figure
Ans-Current induced in coil will oppose the approach of magnet; therefore, left face of coil will act as N-
pole and right face as S-pole. For this the current in coil will be anticlockwise as seen from left, therefore,
the plate A of capacitor will be positive and plate B will be negative.
9. A wire in the form of a tightly wound solenoid is connected to a DC source, and carries a current. If the
coil is stretched so that there are gaps between successive elements of the spiral coil, will the current
increase or decrease? Explain.
Ans-The current will increase. As the wires are pulled apart the flux will leak through the gaps. Lenz’s
law demands that induced emf resist this decrease, which can be done by an increase in current.
10. A solenoid is connected to a battery so that a steady current flows through it. If an iron core is inserted
into the solenoid, will the current increase or decrease? Explain.
Ans-The current will decrease. As the iron core is inserted in the solenoid, the magnetic field increases
and the flux increases. Lenz’s law implies that induced emf should resist this increase, which can be
achieved by a decrease in current. However, this change will be momentarily.
THREE MARK QUESTIONS
1. Define self-inductance of a coil. Show that magnetic energy required to build up the current I in a coil
of self-inductance L is given by ½ LI2.
2. How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coils change when

(i) distance between the coils is increased and
(ii) number of turns in the coils is increased?
Ans
3. Derive an expression for the self-inductance of a long air-cored solenoid of length l and number of
turns N
4. A 100 mH coil carries a current of 1 A. Energy stored in the form of magnetic field is
Ans: Given – L = 100 mH
I=1A
E = ½ LI2
E = ½ 100 × 10-3 × 1
E = 50 × 10-3 J
5. In an a.c generator, a coil with N turns all of the same area A and total resistance R, rotates
with frequency ω in a magnetic field B. What is the maximum value of e.m.f. generated in coil ?
Ans: |E| = |-dϕ/dt|
E = dϕ/dt
E = d (NBA cos θ)/ dt
E = NBA sinθ dθ/dt
E = NABω -------------------------- ω = dθ/dt , sinθ= 1
6. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of 2A is passed through it, the resulting magnetic flux
linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4×10-3 Wb. The self inductance of the solenoid is
Ans: Given – Φ = 500 turns × 4×10-3 Wb
I=2A
Φ = LI
L = ϕ/I
L = 500 × 4 × 10-3/ 2
L = 1000 ×10-3 H
L=1H
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS
1. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field B = 0.025 T with its plane
perpendicular to the field. The radius of the loop is made to shrink at a constant rate 1 mm s -1. The
induced e.m.f. when the radius is 2 cm is ?
Ans: Given - B = 0.025 T
R = 2 cm
dR/dt = 1 mm s-1
The direction of B and A is same
|E| = |-dϕ/dt|
E = dϕ/dt
E = d (BA cos 0)/ dt
E = B cos0 dA/dt
E = B d(πR2)/ dt
E = B π2R dR/dt
E = 0.025 × π × 2 × 2 × 10-4 × 1 ×10-3
E = π × 10-6 V
E = π μV
2. A magnetic field of 2 × 10-2 T acts at right angles to a coil of area 100 cm2 with 50 turns. The average
e.m.f. induced in the coil is 0.1v, when it is removed from the field in the time t. the value of t is?
Ans: Given – N = 50
B = 2 × 10-2 T
A = 100 cm2
E = 0.1 v
|E| = |-dϕ/dt|
|E| = |ϕ2 – ϕ1/dt|
dt = |0 – NBA cos0 / 0.1| -------------------------- 0˚ because it acts as a right angle of a coil
dt = |0 – 50 × 2 ×10-2 × 100 × 10-4 cos0/ 0.1|
dt = 0.1 s
3.What is mutual induction?

Two coils have a mutual inductance 0.005 H. The current changes in the first coil according to equation I
= I0 Sin ωt, where I0 = 10 A and ω = 100 π rad-1 . Then what is the maximum value of e. m. f. in the
second coil ?
Ans:
Mutual inductance – When two coils are brought in proximity with each other then the magnetic field
in one of the coils tends to link with the other coil. This leads to generation of voltage in the second coil.
This property of the coil that affects or changes the current and voltage in the secondary coil is called
mutual inductance.
Given – M = 0.005 H
I0 = 10 A and ω = 100 π rad-1
E = |M dI/ dt|
E = |M d I0 Sin ωt / dt|
E = 0.005 × I0 cos ωt × ω
Emax = 0.005 × I0 × ω
Emax = 0.005 × 10 × 100π
Emax = 5π
ALTERNATING CURRENT CIRCUITS
Read the para given below and answer the questions that follow:
Resonant Series LCR Circuit. When the frequency of ac supply is such that the inductive reactance and
capacitive reactance become equal, the impedance of the series LCR circuit is equal to the ohmic
resistance in the circuit. Such a series LCR circuit is known as resonant series LCR circuit and the
frequency of the ac supply is known as resonant frequency. Resonance phenomenon is exhibited by a
circuit only if both L and C are present in the circuit. We cannot have resonance in a RL or RC circuit. A
series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480 nF, R = 23 Ω is Connect to a 230 V variable frequency
supply.
(i) Find the value of source for which current amplitude is maximum.
(a) 222.32 Hz
(b) 550.52 Hz
(c) 663.48 Hz
(d) 770 Hz
(ii) The value of maximum current is

(a) 14.14 A
(b) 22.52 A
(c) 50.25 A
(d) 47.41 A
(iii) The value of maximum power is

(a) 2200 W
(b) 2299.3 W
(c) 5500 W
(d) 4700 W
(iv) At resonance which of the following physical quantity is maximum?

(a) Impedance
(b) Current
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer
Answer:
(i) c
(ii) a
(iii) b
(iv) b
Case study question
2.When a pure resistance R, pure inductor L and an ideal capacitor of capacitance C is connected in series
to a source of alternating e.m.f., then current at any instant through the three elements has the same
amplitude and is represented as I = Iosinwt. However, voltage across each element has a different phase
relationship with the current as shown in graph.
The effective resistance of RLC circuit is called impedance of the circuit and the voltage leads the current
by a phase angle ϕ.
A resistor of 12Ω a capacitor of reactance 14Ω and a pure inductor of inductance 0.1 H are joined in
series and placed across 200 V, 50 Hz a.c. supply
(i) The value of inductive reactance is
(a) 15Ω (b) 31.4Ω (c) 20Ω (d) 30Ω
(ii) The value of impedance is
(a) 20Ω (b) 15Ω (c) 30Ω (d) 21.13Ω
(iii) What is the value of current in the circuit?
(a) 5 A (b) 15 A (c) 10 A (d) 9.46 A
(iv) What is the value of the phase angle between current and voltage?
(a) 53°9′ (b) 63°9′ (c) ) 55°4′ (d) 50°
(v) From graph, which one is true from following?
(a) VL≥VC (b) VL<VC (c) VL>VC (d) VL=VC
answers
1. (i) (b):Given: R=12Ω,XC=14Ω,L=0.1H
XL=ωL=2πfL=2×3.14×50×0.1
XL =31.4Ω
(ii)(d): Impedance Z= √R2 + (X L − X C )2

=21.13Ω
Ev 200
(iii) (d): IV = Z
=21.13
=9.46 A
(X −XC ) 31.4−14
(iv) (c): tanϕ = L 𝑅 = =1.45
12
ϕ=tan−1(1.45)=55∘4′
(v) (c)
3.A transformer is essentially an a.c. device. It cannot work on d.c. It changes alternating voltages or
currents. It does not affect the frequency of a.c. It is based on the phenomenon of mutual induction. A
transformer essentially consists of two coils of insulated copper wire having different number of turns and
wound on the same soft iron core.
The number of turns in the primary and secondary coils of an ideal transformer are 2000 and 50
respectively. The primary coil is connected to a main supply of 120 V and secondary coil is connected to
a bulb of resistance 0.6Ω
(i) The value of voltage across the secondary coil is

(a) 5V (b) 2V (c) 3 V (d) 10 V
(ii) The value of current in the bulb is
(a) 7 A (b) 15 A (c) 3 A (d) 5 A
(iii) The value of current in primary coil is
(a) 0.125 A (b) 2.52 A (c) 1.51 A (d) 3.52 A
(iv) Power in primary coil is
(a) 20W (b) 5W (c) 10 W (d) 15W
(v) Power in secondary coil is
(d) 8 W
(a) 15W (b) 20 W (c) 7W
Es Ns Ns
1. (i) (c) :As Ep = Np⇒Es=Ep. Np
120 × 50
= 3𝑉𝑂𝐿𝑇
2000
𝐸𝑆
(ii) (d): Is=
𝑅
3
IS = 0.6 = 5𝐴
𝐼 𝐸
(iii) (a): I𝑃 = 𝐸𝑆
S 𝑃
IP=0.125A
(iv) (d): Power in primary Pp=Ep×Ip=120×0.125
= I5W
(v) (a): Power in secondary coil Ps=Es×Is=3×5
= I5W
MCQ
Q.1. The peak value of the a.c. current flowing throw a resistor is given by
(a) I0 = e0/R
(b) I = e/R
(c) I0= e0
(d) I0 = R/e0
Answer: A
Q.2. The alternating current can be measured with the help of

(a) hot wire ammeter
(b) hot wire voltmeter
(c) moving magnet galvanometer
(d) suspended coil type galvanometer
Answer: A
Q.3. The heat produced in a given resistance in a given time by the sinusoidal current I0sinωt will
be the same as that of a steady current of magnitude nearly
(a) 0.71 I0
(b) 1.412 I0
(c) I0
(d) √I0
Answer: A
Q.4. An A.C. source is connected to a resistive circuit. Which of the following is true?
(a) Current leads ahead of voltage in phase
(b) Current lags behind voltage in phase
(c) Current and voltage are in same phase
(d) Any of the above may be true depending upon the
value of resistance.
Answer: C
Q.5. In which of the following circuits the maximum power dissipation is observed?
(a) Pure capacitive circuit (b) Pure inductive circuit
(c) Pure resistive circuit (d) None of these
Answer: C
Q.6. With increase in frequency of an A.C. supply, the inductive reactance

(a) decreases
(b) increases directly with frequency
(c) increases as square of frequency
(d) decreases inversely with frequency
Answer: B
Q.7. If the frequency of an A.C. is made 4 times of its initial value, the inductive reactance will
(a) be 4 times
(b) be 2 times
(c) be half
(d) remain the same
Answer: A
Q.8. A capacitor acts as an infinite resistance for

(a) DC
(b) AC
(c) DC as well as AC
(d) neither AC nor DC
Answer: A
Q.9. The capacitive reactance in an A.C. circuit is

(a) effective resistance due to capacity
(b) effective wattage
(c) effective voltage
(d) None of these
Answer: A
Q.10. Of the following about capacitive reactance which is correct?

(a) The reactance of the capacitor is directly proportional to its ability to store charge
(b) Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to the frequency of the current
(c) Capacitive reactance is measured in farad
(d) The reactance of a capacitor in an A.C. circuit is similar to the resistance of a capacitor in a D.C.
circuit
Answer: B
Q.12. Phase difference between voltage and current in a capacitor in an ac circuit is

(a) π
(b) π/2
(c) 0
(d) π/3
Answer: B
Q.13. An inductor, a resistor and a capacitor are joined in series with an AC source. As the
frequency of the source is slightly increased from a very low value, the reactance of the
(a) inductor increases
(b) resistor increases
(c) capacitor increases
(d) circuit increases
Answer: A
Q.14. In an L.C.R. series a.c. circuit, the current

(a) is always in phase with the voltage
(b) always lags the generator voltage
(c) always leads the generator voltage
(d) None of these
Answer:D
Assertion and Reason Questions

Directions: Each of these questions contains two statements, Assertion and Reason. Each of these
questions also has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select
one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason is not a correct explanation for assertion
(c) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(d) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct.
Q.1. Assertion : In series LCR resonance circuit, the impedance is equal to the ohmic resistance.
Reason: At resonance, the inductive reactance exceeds the capacitive reactance.
Answer:C
Q.2. Assertion : A capacitor is connected to a direct current source. Its reactance is infinite.
Reason : Reactance of a capacitor is given by χc = 1/ωC.
Answer:A
Q.3. Assertion : Average value of ac over a complete cycle is always zero.
Reason: Average value of ac is always defined over half cycle.
Answer:B
Q.4. Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the emf by a phase angle of, π/2 when AC flows
through an inductor.
Reason : The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of AC source increases.
Answer:B
Q.5. Assertion : The inductive reactance limits amplitude of the current in a purely inductive circuit.
Reason: The inductive reactance is independent of the frequency of the current.
Answer: C
Q.6. Assertion : The power is produced when a transformer steps up the voltage.
Reason : In an ideal transformer VI = constant.
Answer: A
Q.7. Assertion : A capacitor blocks direct current in the steady state.
Reason : The capacitive reactance of the capacitor is inversely proportional to frequency f of the source
of emf.
Answer: B
Q.8. Assertion : The voltage and current in a series AC circuit are given by V = V0sinωt and i = i0cosωt.
The power dissipated in the circuit is zero.
Reason : Power in AC circuit is given by P=V0I0 cosΦ / 2
Answer: A
Q.9. Assertion : In a purely inductive or capacitive circuit, the current is referred to as wattless current.
Reason: No power is dissipated in a purely inductive or capacitive circuit even though a current is
flowing in the circuit.
Answer: A
Q.10. Assertion : The power in an ac circuit is minimum if the circuit has only a resistor.
Reason: Power of a circuit is independent of the phase angle.
Answer:D
Very Short Answer Question(10)
Q.1.What is meant by the statement that the current through an inductor lags behind the emf
across it by π / 2?
Solution. This means that in an inductive a.c. circuit whichever value emf attains, current attains a similar
value a quarter of cycle later. For example, if emf attains its maximum value at t = 0, then current attains
its maximum value at t = T / 4, and so on.
Q.2. What is the average value of a.c. over a cycle and why?
Solution. Zero, because a.c is positive during one half cycle and equally negative during other half cycle.
Q.3.Which value of current do you read with an a.c ammeter?
Solution. Root mean square value of the current.
Q.4.When an alternating current is passed through a moving coil galvanometer, it shows no

deflection. Why?
Solution. A moving coil galvanometer measures average value of current, which is zero for a.c. over
every cycle. So galvanometer shows no deflection.
Q.5. Voltages across L and C in series are 180° out of phase. Comment.
Solution. Given a current in series LC, voltage in L leads current by 90° phase and voltage in C lags
behind current by 90° phase. So voltages in Land C differ by a phase of 180°.
Q.6. On which effect of current, a.c. ammeters are based? Give reason.
Solution. A.C. ammeters are based on heating effect of current because this effect does not depend on the
direction of current.
Q.7. A light bulb and a solenoid are connected in series across an ac source of voltage. Explain, how
the glow of the light bulb will be affected when an iron rod is inserted in the solenoid.
Solution. When the iron core is inserted in the solenoid, the self-inductance L increases. Consequently,
the inductive reactance, XL = ωL increases. This decreases the current in the circuit and the bulb glows
dimmer.
Q.8. When L and C are connected in parallel, currents in L and C are 180° out of phase. Comment.
Solution. Given an applied voltage across parallel LC, current in L lags behind voltage by 90 ° phase,
current in C leads voltage by 90° phase. So currents in Land Care 180° out of phase.
Q.9. Which is the best method of reducing current in an a.c. circuit and why?
Solution. The current in an a.c. circuit can be best reduced by using a choke coil or capacitor. There is no
dissipation of energy in these devices.
Q.10. When a series LCR-circuit is brought into resonance, the current in the circuit increases to a
large value. Why?
Solution. In resonance condition, the impedance of the LCR-circuit becomes minimum and so current in
the circuit rises to a maximum value.
Short Answer Question (6)
Q1-The instantaneous current and voltage of an a.c. circuit are given by i = 10 sin 300 t A and V = 200
sin 300 t V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit? (All India 2008)
Answer:
Question 2
The instantaneous current and voltage of an a.c. circuit are given by i = (10 sin 314 t)A and v = 50
𝜋
sin (314t+2 )V.
Answer:
Phase difference between current voltage
Question 3
Define the term ‘wattless current’.
Answer:- Wattless current is that component of the circuit current due to which the power consumed in
the circuit is zero.
Question 4-
When an ac source is connected across an ideal inductor, show on a graph the nature of variation of the
voltage and the current over one complete cycle.
Answer:
Question 5-
Plot a graph showing variation of capacitive reactance with the change in the frequency of the AC source.
Answer:
Graph showing a variation of xc capacitive reactance with the change in frequency of AC source.
Question 6
A 15.0 µF capacitor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz source. Find the capacitive reactance and the rms
current.
Answer:
Long Answer Questions(3)
Question 1.
A capacitor ‘C’, a variable resistor ‘R’ and a bulb ‘B’ are connected in series to the ac mains in a circuit
as shown. The bulb glows with some brightness. How will the glow of the bulb change if
(i) a dielectric slab is introduced between the plates of the capacitor, keeping resistance R to be the same;
(ii) the resistance R is increased keeping the same capacitance?
Answer:
(i) Brightness will increase due to increase in capacitance on introducing dielectric slab.
(ii) Brightness will decrease, as the resistance (R) is increased, the potential drop across the bulb will
decrease (since both are connected in series).
Question 2
(i) Find the value of the phase difference between the current and the voltage in the series LCR circuit
shown here. Which one leads in phase: current or voltage?
(ii) Without making any other change, find the value of the additional capacitor Cv to be connected in
parallel with the capacitor C, in order to make the power factor of the circuit unity.
Answer:
(ii) To make power factor unity, ϕ = 0°, hence we need to adjust C to a new value C’, the condition is :
XC = XL = 100 Ω
Thus, phase angle is 45° with the current leading the voltage.
To make power factor unity, we need to have XC also equal to 100 Ω. For this, C needs to have a value of
10µ.
We, therefore, need to put an additional capacitor of (10 – 2), i.e., 8 µF in parallel with the given
capacitor.
Question3.
(a) An ac source of voltage v = v0 sin ωt is connected across a series combination of an inductor, a
capacitor and a resistor. Use the phasor diagram to obtain the expression for
(i)impedance of the circuit and
(ii)phase angle between the voltage and the current.
(b) A capacitor of unknown capacitance, a resistor of 100 Ω and an inductor of self-inductance L = (4/π2)
henry are in series connected to an ac source of 200 V and 50 Hz. Calculate the value of the capacitance
and the current that flows in the circuit when the current is in phase with the voltage.
Answer:
(a) (i) Impedance of circuit : The effective resistance offered by a series LCR circuit is called its
impedance.
Suppose an inductance L, capacitance C and resistance R are connected in series to a source of alternating
emf,V=V0 sinωt.
Let I be the instantaneous value of current in the series circuit.
Then voltages across the three components are : ‘
These voltages are shown in the phasor in Figure 2.
Clearly V/I is the effective resistance of the series LCR circuit and is called its impedance(Z).
MASTER CARD
FLOW CHART
CHAPTER: ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Question 1.
Name the part of the electromagnetic spectrum of wavelength 10-2 m and mention its one application.
Ans. Name of the part: Microwave
Applications :It is used in radar communication.
Question 2.
Write the following radiations in ascending order in respect of their frequencies ;
X-rays, Microwaves, UV rays and radiowaves:
Ans. Radiowaves, microwaves, UV-rays and X-rays.
Question 3.
Name the part of electromagnetic spectrum which is suitable for 1. radar systems used in aircraft
navigation 2. treatment of cancer tumours.
Ans.1. Micro-waves
2. Gamma-rays.
Question 4.
Name the EM waves used for studying crystal structure of solids. What is its frequency range?
Ans. X-rays frequency range : 1017 Hz to 1020 Hz
Question 5.
Which part of electromagnetic spectrum has largest penetrating power? (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
γ-rays are the electromagnetic waves of frequency range 3 × 1018 Hz to 5 × 1022 Hz and have the
highest penetrating power.
Question 6.
Which part of electromagnetic spectrum is absorbed from sunlight by ozone layer?
Ans. Ultraviolet rays are absorbed from sunlight by ozone layers.
Question 7.
Which part of electromagnetic spectrum is used in radar systems?
Ans. Microwave region of electromagnetic spectrum is used in radar systems.
Question 8.
Name the part of electromagnetic spectrum whose wavelength lies in the range of 10-10 m. Give its
one use.
Ans. Name : X-rays
Use : In medical diagnosis to look for broken bones; treatment study of crystal structure.
Question 9.
Which of the following has the shortest wavelength :
Microwaves, Ultraviolet rays, X-rays.
Ans. X-rays have the shortest wavelength
Question 10.
Arrange the following in descending order of wavelength :
X-rays, Radio waves, Blue light, Infrared light.
Ans. Radio waves, Infrared light, Blue light, X-rays
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Question 1.
A plane electromagnetic wave travels in vacuum along z-direction. What can you say about the
direction of electric and magnetic field vectors?
Ans. The direction of electric field vector is along X-axis. Magnetic field vector is along Y-axis
Question 2.
The oscillating magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by
By = (8 × 10-6) sin [2 × 10-11 t + 300 π x] T
(i) Calculate the wavelength of the electo-magnetic wave
(ii) Write down the expression for the oscillating electric field.
Question 3.
Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in ascending order of their frequencies:
(i) Microwave
(ii) Radiowave
(iii) X-rays
(iv) Gamma rays
Write two uses of any one of these.
Ans. In ascending order of their frequencies :

Radiowave< Microwave < X-rays < Gamma rays.
Two uses of microwaves are :
1. In microwave ovens.
2. In aircraft navigation
Question 4.Draw a sketch of a plane electromagnetic wave propagating along the z-direction. Depict
clearly the directions of electric and magnetic fields varying sinusoidally with z.
Question 5.
How are infrared waves produced? Why are these referred to as ‘heat waves’? Write their one
important use.
Ans. Infrared rays are produced by hot bodies and molecules. This may involve vibration and bending
of molecules. Infrared band lies adjacent to low-frequency or long-wavelength end of the visible
spectrum. Infrared waves are sometimes referred to as heat waves.
Question 6.
(a) An em wave is travelling in a medium with a velocity v→=vi^. Draw a sketch showing the
propagation of the em wave, indicating the direction of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields.
(b) How are the magnitudes of the electric and magnetic fields related to the velocity of the em wave?
Ans.
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
Question 1..
(a) Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the descending order of their wavelengths :
1. Microwaves
2. Infra-red rays
3. Ultra-violet radiation
4. Gamma rays
(b) Write one use each of any two of them.
Ans. Arrangement:
1. Microwaves
2. Infra-red rays
3. Ultra-violet radiation
4. Gamma rays
(b) Uses :
1. Microwaves are used in radar system.

2. Infra-red rays are used for protecting dehydrated fruits.
Question2.
Answer the following :

(a) Name the em waves which are used for the treatment of certain forms of cancer. Write their
frequency range.
(b) Thin ozone layer on top of stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why?
(c) Why is the amount of the momentum transferred by the em waves incident on the surfrace so
small?
Question 3.
Name the types of e.m. radiations which
1. are used in destroying cancer cells,

2. cause tanning of the skin and
3. maintain the earth’s warmth.
Write briefly a method of producing any one of these waves.
Ans.
1. γ-rays
2. Ultraviolet rays
3. Infrared rays
Mode of production
1. γ-rays are produced by radioactive decay of nucleus.

2. Ultraviolet rays are produced when inner shell electrons in atoms move from one
energy level to an other energy level.
3. Infrared rays are produced due to vibration of atoms and molecules.
Question 3.
For a plane electromagnetic wave, propagating along the Z-axis, write the two (possible) pairs of
expression for its oscillating electric and magnetic fields. How are the peak values of these
(oscillating) fields related to each other?
Ans. For the e.m. wave, propagating along the z-axis, we have
The two possible forms for electric and magnetic fields are :
The peak values of these two fields are related by
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Question 1.
Which of the following has the lowest frequency.
(a) Infraredrays
(b) X-rays
(c) UV rays
(d) γ-rays
Answer: (a) Infraredrays
Question 2.
The frequency of visible light is of the order of.
(a) 1012 Hz
(b) 1015 Hz
(c) 108 Hz
(d) 1018 Hz
Answer: (b) 1015 Hz
Question 3.
Which of the following waves are used in telecommunication.
(a) visible light
(b) microwaves
(c) ultraviolet
(d) infrared
Answer: (b) microwaves
Question 4.
The displacement current flows in the dielectric of the capacitor, when the potential
difference across its plates:
(a) changes (increases/decreases) with time.
(b) changes with distance.
(c) attains a constant value.
(d) None of these.
Answer: (a) changes (increases/decreases) with time.
Question 5.
The physical properties shared by both radiowaves and sound waves are:
(i) both can be polarised.
(ii) both can be reflected.
(iii) both can be diffracted.
(a) if (i), (ii), (iii) all are correct.
(b) if (ii), (iii) are correct.
(c) if only (i) is correct.
(d) None of these.
Answer: (b) if (ii), (iii) are correct.
Question 6.
The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of:
(a) 1 cm
(b) 1 angstrom
(c) 1 micron
(d) 1 m
Answer: (b) 1 angstrom
Question 7.
Normal light is due to:
(a) electric field oscillations.
(b) magnetic field oscillations.
(c) oscillations of electric and magnetic fields in mutually perpendicular directions.
(d) None.
Answer: (c) oscillations of electric and magnetic fields in mutually perpendicular directions.
Question 8.
The strong radiation emitted in an electrical arc is:
(a) Infrared radiation
(b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) y-rays
(d) X-rays
Answer: (b) Ultraviolet radiationQuestion 9.

Which of the following statement is incorrect.
(a) X-rays have minimum ionising power.
(b) α-rays have maximum ionizing power.
(c) ß-rays have maximum penetrating power.
(d) α-rays haye more penetrating power than a-rays.
Answer: (c) ß-rays have maximum penetrating power.
Question 10.
The wavelength of infrared rays is:
(a) less than that of visible light.
(b) greater than, that of visible light.
(c) greater or lesser depending on the source.
(d) None of these.
Answer: (b) greater than, that of visible light.
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS
1. X-ray is a type of radiation known as electromagnetic waves. It helps to create pictures of

the inside of human body. These images show the different part of the body in various
shades of black and white. It is due to the difference in amount of absorption by various
tissues in the body.
As calcium in bones absorb most of the X-rays, so bone look white in colour. Fat and other
tissue absorb less and defects grey colour.
i) To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does a wave of frequency

2×1018 Hz belong?
ii) What is the range of wavelength for X-rays?
iii) How are the X-rays produced?
iv) What are the techniques by which X rays can be detected?
v) Mention any two uses of X-rays.
2.In an electromagnetic wave both the electric and magnetic fields are
perpendicular to the direction of propagation, that is why electromagnetic
waves are transverse in nature. Electromagnetic waves carry energy as
they travel through space and this energy is shared equally by the electric
and magnetic fields. Energy density of an electromagnetic waves is the
energy in unit volume of the space through which the wave travels.
(i) The electromagnetic waves travel in the direction of
(a)E⃗⋅B⃗
(b)E⃗ ×B⃗
(c)B⃗⋅E⃗
(d)B⃗ ×E⃗
(ii) Fundametal particle in an electromagnetic wave is
(a) photon (b) electron
(c) phonon (d) proton
(iii) Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by
(a) polarisation (b) interference
(c) reflection (d) diffraction(iv)
(iv) The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic waves are
(a) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
(b) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
(c) in phase and perpendicular to each other
(d) in phase and parallel to each other.4
3.The radiation pressure of the visible light is oAll the known radiations
from a big family of electromagnetic waves which stretch over a large
range of wavelengths. Electromagnetic wave include radio waves,
microwaves, visible light waves, infrared rays, UV rays, X-rays and gamma
rays. The orderly distribution of the electromagnetic waves in accordance
with their wavelength or frequency into distinct groups having widely
differing properties is electromagnetic spectrum.
(i) Which wavelength of the Sun is used finally as electric energy?
(a) radio waves (b) infrared waves
(c) visible light (d) microwaves
(ii) Which of the following electromagnetic radiations have the longest

wavelength?
(a) X-rays (b) Υ-rays
(c) microwaves (d) radiowaves
(iii) Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?
(a) X-rays (b) gamma rays
(c) cathode rays (d) infrared rays
(iv) Which of the following has minimum wavelength?
(a) X-rays (b) ultraviolet rays
(c) Υ-rays (d) cosmic rays
ASSERTION AND REASONING BASED QUESTIONS
A. Both assertion and reason are True, and reason is the correct explaination .
B. Both assertion and reason are True, but reason is not the correct explaination .
C. Assertion is True , but reason is False .
D. Both assertion and reason are False .
1. Assertion: Electromagnetic waves do not require medium for their propagation.
Reason: They can’t travel in a medium.
Answer: C
2.Assertion: A changing electric field produces a magnetic field.
Reason: A changing magnetic field produces an electric field.
Answer: B
3.Assertion: X-rays travel with the speed of light.
Reason: X-rays are electromagnetic rays.
Answer: A
4.Assertion: Environmental damage has increased amount of Ozone in atmosphere.
Reason: Increase of ozone increases amount of ultraviolet radiation on earth
Answer: D
5.Assertion: Electromagnetic radiation exert pressure.
Reason: Electromagnetic waves carry both - Momentum & Energy.

Answer: B
6.Assertion: During discharging, there is magnetic field between plates of capacitor.
Reason: Time varying electric field produces magnetic field.
Answer: A
7.Assertion: In electromagnetic waves, electric and magnetic Field are perpendicular to
each other.
Reason: E and B are self-sustaining.
Answer: B
8.Assertion: The earth without its atmosphere would be inhospitably Cold.
Reason: All heat would escape in the absence of atmosphere.
Answer: A
9.Assertion: The EM waves of shorter wavelength can travel longer distances on earth’s
surface than those of longer wavelengths.
Reason: Shorter the wavelength, the larger is the Velocity of propagation.
Answer: C
10.Assertion: EM waves follow Superposition principle.
Reason: Differential expression of EM wave is linear.
Answer: A
Electromagnetic
Waves An
electromagnetic
wave is a wave
radiated by an
accelerated or
oscillatory charge in
which varying
magnetic field is the
source of electric
field and varying
electric field is the
source of magnetic
field. Thus two fields
becomes source of
each other and the
1.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. A fish is looking from within water, the outside world through a circular horizon. If the
fish is √7 cm below the surface of water, what is the radius of circular horizon?
a) 3 cm
b) √7 cm
c) 3√7 cm
d) 3/√7 cm
2. A microscope is focussed on a mark on a paper and then a glass slab of thickness 3 cm
and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to
get the mark in focus again
a) 2 cm upward
b) 1 cm upward
c) 4.5 cm upward
d) 1 cm downward
3. In optical fibres, the refractive index of the core is
(a) greater than that of the cladding.
(b) equal to that of the cladding.
(c) smaller than that of the cladding.
(d) independent of that of cladding.
4. Air bubble in water behaves as
(a) sometimes concave, sometimes convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex lens
(d) always refracting surface
5. An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible, it should
(a) behave as a perfect reflector.
(b) absorb all light falling on it.
(c) have refractive index one.
(d) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding fluid.
6. A ray of light incident at an angle θ on a refracting face of a prism emerges from the other
face normally. If the angle of the prism is 5° and the prism is made of a material of refractive
index 1.5, the angle of incidence is
(a) 7.5°
(b) 5°
(c) 15°
(d) 2.5°
7. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After
travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is
(a) blue
(b) green
(c) violet
(d) red
8. The focal length of a biconvex lens of radii of each surface 50 cm and refractive index 1.5, is
(a) 40.4 cm
(b) 75 cm
(c) 50 cm
(d) 80 cm
9. A metal coin is at bottom of a beaker filled with a liquid of refractive index = 4/3 to height of
6 cm. To an observer looking from above the surface of liquid, coin will appear at a depth
(a) 1.5 cm
(b) 6.75 cm
(c) 4.5 cm
(d) 7.5 cm
10. The refractive index of the material of an equilateral prism is√3 What is the angle of
minimum deviation?
(a) 45°
(b) 60°
(c) 37°
(d) 30°
Case Based Study
11. Mirage:A mirage is a naturally occurring optical phenomenon in which light rays bend
via refraction to produce a displaced image of distant objects or the sky. Under certain
conditions, such as over a
stretch of pavement
or desert air heated by
intense sunshine, the air
rapidly cools with elevation
and therefore increases in
density and refractive
power. Sunlight reflected
downward from the upper
portion of an object for
example, the top of a camel in the desert—will be directed through the cool air in the normal
way. Although the light would not be seen ordinarily because of the angle, it curves upward
after it enters the rarefied hot air near the ground, thus being refracted to the observer’s eye as
though it originated below the heated surface. A direct image of the camel is seen also
because some of the reflected rays enter the eye in a straight line without being refracted. The
double image seems to be that of the camel and its upside-down reflection in water. When the
sky is the object of the mirage, the land is mistaken for a lake or sheet of water.
I. For total internal reflection to take place the incident angle should be:
a. greater then critical angle
b. smaller then critical angle
c. equal to the critical angle
d. None of the above.
II. In desert mirage take place when light rays goes from:
a. denser medium to rarer medium
b. rarer medium to denser medium
c. Both (a) and (b)
d. None of the above
III. The refractive index for light of wavelength 400 nm passing through a type of glass is
1.470; when light of wavelength 750 nm passes through the glass the measured refractive
index is 1.455. Which of these kinds of light travels faster in the glass
a. 750nm
b. 850nm
c. 700nm
d. 800nm
IV. A pulse of white light is sent straight down a fibre optic cable 1 km long. The refractive
index for blue light is 1.639 and for red light 1.621. What time interval will there be
between the two components when they reach the far end?
Ans - nb = c/cb, nr = c/crSo the speed of the blue light, cb= c/1.639 = 1.830 × 10 8 m s-1 and the
speed of the red, cr = c/1.621 = 1.851 × 10 8 m s-1
speed = distance / time so time = distance / speed,
So the time taken by the blue light = 1.0 × 103 / 1.830 × 108 = 5.46 μs and the time taken by
the red = 1.0 × 103 / 1.851 × 108 = 5.40 μs
V. Mirage take place when there is-
a.
Total internal reflection of light.
b.
Refraction of light.
c.
Reflection of light
d.
Both (a) and (b)
12. Types of Lenses and their combination
A convex or converging lens is thicker at the centre than at the edges. It converges
a beam of light on refraction through it. It has a real focus. Convex lens is of three types: Double
convex lens, Plano convex lens and Concavo-convex lens.
Concave lens is thinner at the centre than at the edges. It diverges a beam of light on refraction
through it. It has a virtual focus. Concave lenses are of three types: Double concave lens, Plano
concave lens and Convexo-concave lens. When two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are placed in
contact with each other along their common principal axis, then the two lens system is regarded as a
1 1 1
single lens of focal length f as = 𝑓1 + 𝑓2If several thin lenses of focal length f1, f2, .... fnare placed in
𝑓
contact, then the effective focal length of the combination is given by
1 1 1 1 1
= + + + ⋯……+
𝑓 𝑓1 𝑓2 𝑓3 𝑓𝑛
The value of focal length and power of a lens must be used with proper sign consideration
I. Two thin lenses are kept coaxially in contact with each other and the focal length of the
combination is 80 cm. If the focal length of one lens is 20 cm, the focal length of the other
would be
a. -26.7cm
b. 60cm
c. 80cm
d. 30cm
II. A spherical air bubble is embedded in a piece of glass. For a ray of light
passing through the bubble, it behaves like a
a. converging lens
b. diverging lens
c. mirror
d. thin plane sheet of glass
III. Lens generally used in magnifying glass is
a. single concave lens
b. single convex lens
c. combination of convex lens of lower power and concave lens of lower focal
length
d. Planoconcave lens
IV. A convex lens of 20 cm focal length forms a real image which is three times
magnified. The distance of the object from the lens is
a. 13.33 cm
b. 14 cm
c. 26.66 cm
d. 25 cm
V. The magnification of an image by a convex lens is positive only when the
object is placed
a. at its focus F
b. between F and 2F
c. at 2F
d. between F and optical centre
13. The object appear to be raised from its real position
to apparent position (ie from O to I). The distance
through which the position of the object appears to
be raised is called normal shift. The normal shift in
the position of the objects depends upon the real
depth of the object and the refractive index of the
refracting medium.
I. What is the apparent depth of a tank 3 m deep when viewed outside (refractive index of water is
4/3).
(i) 1.1 m (ii) 2.26 m (iii) 1.5 m (iv) 0.5 m
II. A diver under water, looks obliquely at a fisherman standing on the bank of a lake what will he
observe
(i) will observe the fisherman taller than actual height
(ii) will observe the fisherman shoter than actual height
(iii) appear to be of same hieght
(iv) not to be seen at all
III. Does the apparent depth of a tank of water change if viewed obliquely? if so, does the
apparent depth
I. increase
II. decrease
III. remain same
IV. both I and II
IV. A mark at the bottom of a liquid appears to rise by 0.1m. The depth of the liquid is 1m. The
refractive index of the liquid is
(i).1.33 (ii).9/10 (iii)10/9 (iv).1.5v
V.A double convex lens of refractive index u 1 is immersed in a liquid of refractive index u 2 . The lens
will act as transparent plane sheet when
(i)u1=u2 (ii)u1>u2 (iii)u1<u2 (iv) ii and iii both
ASSERTION AND REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Answer: (A) If both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: (B) If both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: (C)If assertion is correct and Reason is wrong.
Answer: (4) If both are wrong
Q.1. Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image.

Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.
Answerb
Q.2. Assertion : The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to , f = R/2.
Reason : The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed in water.
Answer(c) Focal length of the spherical mirror does not depend on the medium in which it
placed.
Q.3. Assertion : an air bubble shines in water

Reason : The air bubble shine in water due to refraction of light
Answer(c)
Q.4. Assertion : The image of an extended object placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a
mirror, will be erect if the object is real but the image is virtual.
Reason : The image of an extended object, placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a mirror,
will be erect if the object is virtual but the image is real.
Answer-b
Q.5. Assertion : different colourstravel with same speed in vacuum

Reason : wavelength of light depends on refractive index of medium .
Answer- a
Q.6. Assertion : The image of a point object situated at the centre of hemispherical lens is also at
the centre.
Reason : For hemisphere Snell’s law is not valid.
Answer(c) The rays from centre of hemisphere cut at the centre after refraction – Snell’s law is
valid in each case of refraction.
Q.7. Assertion: The focal length of an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature R made of
material of refractive index μ = 1.5, is R.
Reason : The focal length of the lens will be R/2.
Answer- c
Q.8. Assertion : When a narrow pulse of light is sent through a medium, it doesn't retain its shape as it
travels through the medium.
Reason : When a narrow pulse of light is sent through a medium, it doesn't retain its shape as it travels
through the medium.
Answer- A
Q.9. Assertion : The resolving power of a telescope is more if the diameter of the objective lens
is more.
Reason : Objective lens of large diameter collects more light.
Answer- a
Q.10. Assertion : The speed of light in vacuum doesn't depend on nature of the source, direction of
propagation, motion of the source or observer wavelength and intensity of the wave.
Reason : The speed of light in vacuum is a universal constant independent of all the factors listed and
anything else
Answer- A
Very short questions

1. A glass lens of refractive index 1.5 is placed in a liquid. What must be the refractive index of the
liquid in order to mark the lens disappear?
Answer:
In order to make the lens disappear the refractive index of liquid must be equal to 1.5 i.e. equal to that
of glass lens.
2. A converging lens of refractive index 1.5 is kept in a liquid medium having same refractive index.
What would be the focal length of the lens in this medium?
Answer:
The lens in the liquid will act like a plane sheet of glass
∴ Its focal length will be infinite (∞)
3. How does the power of a convex lens vary, if the incident red light is replaced by violet light?
Answer:
According to Lens Maker’s formula
∴ power of the lens will be increased.

4. An air bubble is formed inside water. Does it act as a converging lens or a diverging lens?
Answer: An air bubble behaves as a diverging lens inside the water.
5. A converging lens is kept coaxially in contact with a diverging lens — both the lenses being of equal
focal lengths. What is the focal length of the combination?
Answer:
Focal length of the combination is Infinity.
6. For the same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media A, B and C are 15°,
25° and 35° respectively. In which medium would the velocity of light be minimum?
Answer:
∴ Velocity of light is minimum in medium A.
7. If the wavelength of light incident on a convex lens is increased, how will its focal length change?
Answer:
8. A convex lens is placed in contact with a plane mirror. A point object at a distance of 20 cm on the
axis of this combination has its image coinciding with itself. What is the focal length of the lens?
Answer:
Focal length of lens = 20 cm
(Hint: Rays coming out of lens are incident normally on plain mirror and hence reflected rays will
trace the path of incident ray, hence forming image on the object itself, thus object and image
overlapping each other at F of convex lens.)
9. A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in water of
refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging or a diverging lens? Give reason.
Answer:
The lens will behave as a converging lens because
Hence value of ‘f’ will be positive.

10. A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive index 1.65. What is the
nature of the lens?
Answer:
Converging.
Short Answer questions

1. Draw a ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in the normal adjustment position. State
two drawbacks of this type of telescope.
Answer:
(i) Magnifying power m = −f0fe. It does not
change with increase of aperature of
objective lens, because focal length of a lens
has no concern with the aperature of lens.
(ii) Drawbacks :
 mages formed by these telescopes

have chromatic aberrations.
 Lesser resolving power.

 The image formed is inverted and faintes.
2. Calculate the distance of an object of height h from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm, so as
to obtain a real image of magnification 2.
Answer:
Given : f = -10 cm; Magnification, m = 2
To calculate : u = ?
3. Define refractive index of a transparent medium. A ray of light passes through a triangular prism.
Plot a graph showing the variation of the angle of deviation with the angle of incidence.
Answer:
Refractive index of a transparent medium is the ratio of the speed of light in free space to the
speed in the given medium.
4. The radii of curvature of the faces of a double convex lens are 10 cm and 15 cm. If focal length of
the lens is 12 cm, find the refractive index of the material of the lens.
Answer:
Given : R1 = 10 cm,
R2 = -15 cm,
f = 12 cm
Using lens maker’s formula, we have
Refractive index of the material of the lens

5. A biconvex lens has a focal length 2/3 times the radius of curvature of either surface. Calculate
the refractive index of lens material.
Answer:
6. A ray of light, incident on an equilateral glass prism (µ g = √3 ) moves parallel to the base line of
the prism inside it. Find the angle of incidence for this ray.
Answer:
∴ Angle of incidence, i = 60°

7. A tank is filled with water to a height of 12.5 cm. The apparent depth of a needle lying at the
bottom of the tank is measured by a microscope to be 9.4 cm. What is the refractive index of
water? If water is replaced by a liquid of refractive index 1.63 upto the same height, by what
distance would the microscope have to be moved to focus on the needle again?
Solution:
We know the relation
Now if the water is replaced by other liquid, the apparent depth will change and microscope will
have to be further moved to focus the image. With new liquid
Now the microscope will have to shift from its initial position to focus on the needle again which
is at 7.67 cm depth. Shift distance = 9.4 – 7.67 = 1.73 cm.
8. A beam of light converges at a point P. Now a lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam
12 cm from P. At what point does the beam converge if the lens is
(a) a convex lens of focal length 20 cm, and
(b) a concave lens of focal length 16 cm?
Solution:
(a) The convex lens is placed in the path of convergent beam.
The image 1 is formed by further converging beams at a distance of 7.5 cm from lens.
(b) A concave lens is placed in the path of convergent’ beam, the concave lens further diverge the
light.
The image I is formed by diverged rays at 48 cm

away from concave lens.
9. An object of size 3.0 cm is placed 14 cm in front of a concave lens of focal length 21 cm.
Describe the image produced by the lens. What happens if the object is moved further
away from the lens?
Solution:
Object of size 3 cm is placed 14 cm in front of concave lens.
So, the image is virtual, erect, of the size 1.8 cm and is located 8.4 cm from the lens on the
same side as object. As the object is moved away from the lens, the virtual image moves
towards the focus of the lens but never beyond it. The image also reduces in size as shift
towards focus.
10. A compound microscope consists of an objective lens of focal length 2.0 cm and an eyepiece of
focal length 6.25 cm separated by a distance of 15 cm. How far from the objective should an
object be placed in order to obtain the final image at the least distance of distinct vision (25 cm)?
Solution:
We want the final image at least distance of distinct vision. Let the object in front of objective is
at distance υ0.
Now we can get required position of object in point of objective.
LONG ANSWER QUESTION
1. A convex lens made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped, in turn,

(i) a medium of refractive index 1.6,
(ii) a medium of refractive index 1.3.
(a) Will it behave as a converging or a diverging lens in the two cases?
(b) How will its focal length change in the two media?
Answer:
Let fair be the focal length of the lens in air

According to lens maker formula :
As the sign of fB is opposite to that of fair, the lens will behave as a diverging lens.
(b) When lens is dipped in medium B :
As the sign of fB is same as that of /air, the lens will behave as a converging lens.
2. Figure shows an equiconvex lens (of refractive index 1.50) in contact with a liquid layer on top of
a plane mirror. A small needle with its tip on the principal axis is moved along the axis until its
inverted image is found at the position of the needle. The distance of the needle from the lens is
measured to be 45.0 cm. The liquid is removed and the experiment is repeated. The new distance
is measured to be 30.0 cm. What is the refractive index of the liquid?
Solution:
Let us first consider the situation when there is no liquid between lens and plane mirror and the
image is formed at 30 cm i.e., at the position of object. As the image is formed on the object
position itself, the object must be placed at focus of Biconvex lens.
ƒ0 = 30 cm Radius of curvature of convex lens can be calculated
Now a liquid is filled between lens and plane mirror and the image is formed at position of object
at 45 cm. The image is formed on the position of object itself, the object must be placed at focus
of equivalent lens of Biconvex of glass and Plano convex lens of liquid
3. (a) An angular magnification (magnifying power) of 30 X is desired using an objective of focal

length 1.25 cm and an eyepiece of focal length 5 cm. How will you set up the compound
microscope?
(b) Explain: (i) why must both the objective and the eyepiece of a compound microscope have
short focal lengths? (ii) while viewing through a compound microscope, why should our eyes be
positioned not on the eyepiece but a short distance away from it for best viewing?
Solution:
Here we want the distance between given objective and eye lens for the required magnification of
30. Let the final image is formed at least distance of distinct vision for eyepiece.
(b) (i) To achieve a large magnification of small object, the eyepiece and the objective
must have short focal lengths. (ii) If we place our eyes too close to the eyepiece, the area
of the pupil of the eye is less than the area of the eye-ring. So, our eyes will not collect
much of the light and our field of view will get reduced
Wave Optics
Wavefront. The locus of the points in the medium, which at any instant are vibrating in the
same phase, iscalled wavefront.
Ray of light is the line drawn perpendicular to the wavefront.
Spherical, Cylindrical and Plane Wave front
Huygens’ principle.
1. Each point on a given (or primary) wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets,
sendingout disturbance in all directions in a similar manner as the original source of light
does.
2. The new position of the wavefront at any instant (called secondary wavefront) is the
envelope of thesecondary wavelets at that instant.
It is also called Huygens’ construction and it is used to find the new position of the
wavefront at a later time.
Interference of Light
Interference. Phenomenon of redistribution of light energy in a medium on account of
superposition of light waves from coherent sources.
Coherent sources. Two sources are said to be coherent, if they emit light waves of same
wavelength (orfrequency) and of a stable phase difference.
Young’s double slit experiment. consider that two coherent sources are separated by a
distance d so as to produce interference fringes on a screen held at a distance D from the
plane of the slits. When the slits are illuminated with a monochromatic light of
wavelength4, then alternate dark and bright fringes are formed on the two sides of the
central bright fringe. Let be the phase difference and x, the path difference between the two
light waves reaching a point P on the screen.
Diffraction
Diffraction The phenomenon of bending of light round the sharp corners and spreading
into the regions ofthe geometrical shadow is called diffraction.
Diffraction from a slit. A narrow slit of width a is placed at a distance D from the screen.
When the slit is illuminated with a monochromatic light of wavelength, then alternate bright
and dark bands of light are formedon both the sides of the central maximum.
Question Bank
Q1 . What do you understand by a wavefront?
Ans. The locus of all the particles of the medium, which at any instant are vibrating in the
same phase, is called the wavefront.
Q2. In diffraction due to single slit , What is the condition for first minimum?
Ans: d sinѲ= λ
Q.3 When monochromatic light travels from one medium to another, its wavelength
changes but frequency remains the same. Explain.
Ans. Frequency is the fundamental characteristic of the source emitting waves and does not
depend upon the medium. Light reflects and refracts due to the interaction of incident light
with the atoms ofthe medium. These atoms always take up the frequency of the incident
light which forces them to vibrate and emit light of same frequency. Hence, frequency
remains same.
Q.4 Why are coherent sources required to create interference of light?

Ans. Coherent sources are required for sustained interference. If sources are incoherent, the
intensityat a point will go on changing with time.
Q.5 Differentiate between a ray and a wavefront.

Ans. A wavefront is a surface of constant phase. A ray is a perpendicular line drawn at any
point onwavefront and represents the direction of propagation of the wave.
Q.6 What type of wavefront will emerge from a (i) point source and (ii) distant light
source?
Ans. (i) Spherical wavefront
(ii) Plane wavefront.
Q.7 What will be the effect on interference fringes if red light is replaced by blue light?
Ans. The wavelength of blue light is less than that of red light; hence if red light is
replaced by blue light, the fringe width decreases, i.e., fringes come closer
Q.8 In a single-slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double the original
width. How does this affect the size and intensity of the central diffraction band?
Ans. In single slit diffraction experiment fringe width is If d is doubled, the width of central
maxima is halved. Thus, size of central maxima is reduced to half. Intensity of diffraction
patternvaries with square of slit width. So, when the slit gets double, it makes the intensity
four times.
Q 9. The parameter of light wave which remains unaffected on refraction of light is

(a) speed (b) Frequency (c) wavelength (d) none of these
Ans. (b) frequency
Q10. What is the ratio of slit widths when amplitude ratio of light waves is 1: √2
(a) 1: √2
(b) √2: 1
(c) 1: 2
(d) 2: 1
Ans. (c)
Q 11. In single slit diffraction, how does the width of centrak maxima change when light of
smaller wavelength is used?
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains unaffected (d) can not be predicted
Ans: (a)
Q 12. In YDSE , the intensity of central maximum is I. What will be the intensity at the
same place when one of the slits is closed?
(a) I (b) I/2 (c) I/4 (d) 2I
Ans: (c)
Assertion and Reason

Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
1) Assertion: To observe diffraction of light, the size of the obstacle/ aperture should be of the
order of 10 -7 m
Reason: 10 -7 m is the order of wavelength of visible light
Correct Answer: a
2) Assertion : When a light wave travels from a rarer to a denser medium, it loses speed. The
reduction in speed imply a reduction in energy carried by the light wave.
Reason : The energy of a wave is proportional to velocity of wave.
Correct Answer: d
3) Assertion : No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are infinitely close to
each other.
Reason : The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two slits.
Correct Answer: a
4) Assertion : For best contrast between maxima and minima in the interference pattern of
Young’s double slit experiment, the intensity of light emerging out of the two slits should be equal.
Reason : The intensity of interference pattern is proportional to square of amplitude.
Correct Answer: b
5) Assertion: In Young’s experiment, the fringe width for dark fringes is different from that for
white fringes.
Reason : In Young’s double slit experiment the fringes are performed with a source of white light,
then only black and bright fringes are observed.
Correct Answer: d
6) Assertion : When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from some distance, a
bright spot is seen at the centre of shadow of the obstacle.
Reason : Destructive interference occurs at the centre of the shadow.
Correct Answer: c
7) Assertion : Interference pattern is made by using blue light instead of red light, the fringes
becomes narrower.
Reason : In Young?s double slit experiment, fringe width is given by relation β = λD/d.
Correct Answer: a
8) Assertion: Diffraction is common in sound but not common in light waves.

Reason : Wavelength of light is more than the wavelength of sound.
Answer c
9) Assertion : In Young's double slit experiment if wavelength of incident monochromatic light is

just doubled, number of bright fringe on the screen will increase.
Reason : Maximum number of bright fringe on the screen is directly proportional to the
wavelength of light used.
Answer: d
10) Assertion : In interference and diffraction, light energy is redistributed.

Reason :There is no gain or loss of energy, which is consistent with the principle of conservation
of energy.
Answer: a
11) Assertion : If complete YDSE (Young’s Double Slit Experiment) is dipped in the liquid from
the air, then fringe width decreases.
Reason : Wavelength of light decreases, when we move from air to liquid.
Answer: a
Case study Based
INTERFERENCE
When two or more waves interact and combine, they interfere with one another. But interference is
not necessarily bad: waves may interfere constructively, resulting in a wave larger than the original
waves. Or, they may interfere destructively, combining in such a way that they form a wave
smaller than the original ones. Other examples of interference, both constructive and destructive,
can be found wherever there are waves: in water, in sound, in light.
(i). Interference of light is evidence that:
a) the speed of light is very large
b) light is a transverse wave
c) light is electromagnetic in character
d) light is a wave phenomenon
(ii). In a Young's double-slit experiment the center of a bright fringe occurs wherever waves from
the slits differ in the distance they travel by a multiple of:
a) a fourth of a wavelength
b) a half a wavelength
c) a wavelength
d) three-fourths of a wavelength
(iii). In a Young's double-slit experiment, the slit separation is doubled. To maintain the same
fringe spacing on the screen, the screen-to-slit distance D must be changed to:
a. D/2
b. D/
c. D
d. 2D
(iv).The shape of the fringes observed in interference is-- a) Straight b) Circular c) Hyperbolic d)
Elliptical
(v). The main principle used in Interference is - a) Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle b)
Superposition Principle c) Quantum Mechanics d) Fermi Principle
Refraction of a plane wave

i) What is the angle made by the ray of light on the wavefront?
a) 90˚
b) 0˚
c) 45˚
d) None of the above
ii) Which parameter remains unchanged while a ray of light propagates from one medium to
another?
a) velocity
b) Wave length
c) frequency
iii) According to the above given fig., identify the correct expression for Snell’s law.
a) n1 sin i = n2 sin r
b) n2 sin i = n1 sin r
c) n21 = sin r/ sin i
iv) When a ray of light travels from a denser to a rarer medium, it

a) it bends towards the normal
b) it travels in a straight line irrespective of angle of incidence.
c) it bends away from the normal
• Interference (Young’s Double slit experiment)

i) What is the path difference between the two light waves coming from coherent sources, which
produces 3rdmaxima.
a) λ
b) 2 λ
c) 3 λ
d0
ii) What is the correct expression for fringe width(β).

a) λ d/D
(b) λ dD
(c) d/ λ D
(d) λ D/d
iii) what is the phase diff. between two interfering waves producing 1st dark fringe.
a) π
b) 2π
c) 3π
d) 4π
iv) The ratio of the widths of two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is 4 : 1. Evaluate the ratio
of intensities at maxima and minima in the interference pattern.
a) 1:1
b) 1:4
c) 3:1
d) 9:1
HUYGENS’ PRINCIPLE
Huygens’ principle is a geometrical construction, which is used to determine the new position of a
wavefront at a later time from its given position at any instant. In other words, the principle gives a
method to know as to how light spreads out in the medium.
Huygens’ principle is based on the following assumptions: -Each point on the given or primary
wavefront acts as a source of secondary wavelets, sending out disturbance in all directions in a
similar manner as the original source of lightdoes.
The new position of the wavefront at any instant (called secondary wavefront) is the envelope of
the secondary wavelets at that instant.
(a) Differentiate between a ray and a wavefront.

(b) What type of wavefront will emerge from a (i) point source (ii) distant light source?
(c) Draw the diagrams to show the behaviour of plane wavefronts as they pass through a thin
prism.
OR
Draw the diagrams to show the behaviour of plane wavefronts as they reflect by a concave mirror.
Diffraction at a single slit
(i) In the phenomena of Diffraction of light when the violet light is used in the experiment is used
instead of red light then,
(a) Fringe width increases
(b) No change in fridge width
(c) Fringe width decreases
(d) Colour pattern is formed
(ii) Diffraction aspect is easier to notice in case of the sound waves then in case of the light waves
because sound waves
(a) Have longer wavelength
(b) Shorter wavelength
(c) Longitudinal wave
(d) Transverse waves
(iii) Diffraction effects show that light does not travel in straight lines. Under what condition the
concepts of ray optics are valid. ( D = distance of screen from the slit).
(a) D < Zf
(b) D = Zf
(c) D > Zf
(d) D << Zf
(iv) when 2nd secondary maxima is obtained in case of single slit diffraction pattern, the angular
position is given by
(a) λ
(b) λ/2
(c) 3 λ/2
(d) 5 λ/2
Very Short Answer Question
1. Use Huygens’ geometrical construction to show the behavior of a plane wavefront,

(i) passing through a biconvex lens and reflected by a concave mirror.
2. Why is no interference pattern observed when two coherent sources are infinitely close to each
other?
3. The ratio of maximum and minimum intensities of two sources is 4:1. Find the ratio of their
amplitudes.
4.What changes in the interference pattern in YDSE will be observed when light of smaller
frequency is used?
5. What changes in the interference pattern in YDSE will be observed when apparatus is immersed
in water?
6 . Sketch the reflected wavefront emerging from a (i) concave mirror (ii) convex mirror, if plane
wavefront is incident normally on it.
7 . What is interference of light? Give one example of interference in daily life.
8. What are coherent sources of light? Why are coherent sources necessary to produce a sustained
interference pattern?
9 . What is diffraction of light ? State the essential condition for diffraction of light.
10 . Using Huygen’s construction draw a figure showing the propagation of a plane wavefront
reflecting at a plane surface. Show that the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
11. State two differences between interference and diffraction patterns.
12. What will be the effect on interference fringes if red light is replaced by blue light?
13. Two slits are made one millimetre apart and the screen is placed one metre away. What is the
fringe separation when blue greenlight of wavelength 500 nm is used?
Short Answer Question
1. Two plane monochromatic waves propagating in the same direction with amplitude A and 2A
and differing in phase by Ԥ/3 rad superpose. Calculate the amplitude of resultant wave.
2. In a single slit diffraction experiment, when tiny circular obstacle is placed in path of light from
a distance source, a bright spot is seen at the centre of the shadow of the obstacle. Explain why?
3. Sketch the refracted wavefront emerging from a (i) convex lens, (ii) concave lens and (iii) prism,
if plane wavefront is incident normally on it.
4. Using Huygen’s construction of a wavefront, explain the refraction of a plane wavefront at a

plane surface and hence verify Snell’s law.
5. Why is no interference pattern is observed when two coherent sources are-

(i) infinitely close to each other (ii) far apart from each other
6. A beam of light consisting of two wavelengths, 800nm and 600nm, is used to obtain the
interference fringes in a Young’s double slit experiment on a screen is placed 1.4m away. If two
slits are separated by 0.28mm, Calculate the least distance from the central bright maximum where
the bright fringes of the two wavelengths coincide.
7. What is the effect on the interference fringes to a Young’s double slit experiment, when
(a) the width of the source slit is increased and
(b) the monochromatic source is replaced by a source of white light? Justify your answer in each
case.
8. What is the shape of the wavefront in each of the following cases:

(a) light diverging from a point source.
(b) light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is placed at its focus.
the portion of a wavefront of light from a distant star intercepted by the earth.
9. Explain the following, giving reasons:

(i) When monochromatic light is incident on a surface separating two media, the reflected and
refracted lightboth have the same frequency as the incident frequency.
(ii) When light travels from a rarer to a denser medium, the speed decreases. Does this decrease
in speedimply a reduction in the energy carried by the wave?
(iii) In the wave picture of light, intensity of light is determined by the square of the amplitude
of the wave.What determines the intensity in the photon picture of light?
10. What is the effect on the interference fringes in a Young’s double-slit experiment due to
each of the following operations:
(a) the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits;
(b) the (monochromatic) source is replaced by another (monochromatic) source of shorter
wavelength;
(c) the separation between the two slits is increased;
(d) the source slit is moved closer to the double-slit plane;
(e) the width of the source slit is increased;
(f ) the monochromatic source is replaced by a source of white light?
11. In Young’s double-slit experiment using monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the

intensity of light at a point on the screen where path difference is λ, is K units. What is the
intensity of light at a point where path difference is λ /3?
Long Answer Questions
1. State Huygens’s principle. Show, with the help of a suitable diagram, how this principle is used
to obtain the diffraction pattern by a single slit.
Draw a plot of intensity distribution and explain clearly why the secondary maxima becomes
weaker with increasing order (n) of the secondary maxima
Explain two features to distinguish between the interference pattern in Young's double slit
experiment with the diffraction pattern obtained due to a single slit.
2.(a) What are coherent sources of light?

(b) If S is the size of the source and its distance from the plane of the two slits, what should be the
criterion for the interference fringes to be seen?
(c) In a double-slit experiment the angular width of a fringe is found tobe 0.2° on a screen placed 1
m away. The wavelength of light used is 600 nm. What will be the angular width of the fringe if the
entire experimental apparatus is immersed in water? Take refractive indexof water to be 4/3.
3 . Define a wavefront. How is it different from a ray? Using Huygens’s construction of secondary
wavelets draw a diagram showing the passage of a plane wavefront from a denser to a rarer
medium. Using it verify Snell’s law. In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600nm
and the angular width of the fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. Find the spacing between the
two slits. Write two differences between interference pattern and diffraction pattern.
**************
CLASS – XII UNIT- VII CHAPTER – 11
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATIATION AND MATTER
Concept maps -
MASTER CARD
Photon - A packet or bundle of energy is work function - The minimum energy needed by an electron to
called a photon. come out from a metal surface is called the work function of the
Energy of a photon is E = hʋ =
𝐡𝐜 metal. w or 0 = hʋ0 ,Where ʋ0 is threshold frequency.
𝛌
𝐸 h One Electron Volt (1eV) - It is the kinetic energy gained by an
The kinetic mass of a photon is, m = = electron when it is accelerated through a potential difference of 1
𝐶2 cλ
E h volt. 1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
The momentum of a photon is, p = =
c λ
Experimental study of photoelectric effect

Photoelectric effect- Photoelectric effect is defined as the
process of emission of electrons from the surface of metals when
electromagnetic radiation of suitable frequency (above threshold
frequency) falls on the surface of metal.
The electrons emitted by this effect are called photoelectrons
and current due to this is called photoelectric current.
Variation of photo electric current with intensity of Dependence on frequency of incident radiations.
incident radiations. - the number of photo For a fixed intensity of incident light, the photoelectric
electrons emitted is directly proportional to the current does not depend on the frequency of the incident
intensity of incident radiations. light.
Variation of photo electric current with Dependence on frequency of incident radiations on stopping
accelerating potential- Increase of intensity does potential –The stopping potentials are obtained and it is
not change the stopping potential, though it observed that the stopping potential increases with frequency.
increases the saturation current. the kinetic energy Vo ∝ ʋ (Higher the frequency, higher the stopping potential)
processed by the photo electrons is independent of
the intensity of incident radiation.
Threshold Frequency-The graph between stopping

potential and frequency does not pass through the
origin. The stopping potential Vo depends on
(i)The frequency of incident light (ii)The
nature of emitter material.
Laws of Photoelectric Emission– (Conclusions of study on Einstein’s Photoelectric Equation – The

photo electric effect) energy hʋ of the photon is absorbed by the
(1)For a given metal and frequency of radiation the electron and is used in two ways:
photoelectric current is directly Proportional to the intensity of
incident radiation.
(2)For a given metal if the frequency of incident radiation
below its threshold frequency then no photoelectric effect will
takes place.
According to law of conservation of energy
(3)The maximum kinetic energy of photo electron is directly
hʋ = Ф0 + Kmax or hʋ = hʋ0 + Kmax
proportional to the frequency of incident radiation and 1 1
independent of its intensity. Kmax = h (ʋ- ʋ0 ) or Kmax = hc ( 𝜆 - 𝜆0)
(4)The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process. Here λ = wavelength of the radiation and 𝜆0 =
(5)The photoelectric emission is one-to-one. i.e., for every threshold wavelength for the metal surface, c =
photon of suitable frequency one electron is emitted. speed oflight.
The graph b/w ʋ and stopping potential & max. K.E. Wave nature of matter particles- His
We know Kmax = eVo ------ (1) suggestion was based on: (i) The nature loves
& Einstein’s photoelectric equation, Kmax = hʋ - hʋ0 --- (2) symmetry. (ii) The universe is made of particles
From (1) & (2) eVo= hʋ - hʋ0 For (ʋ ≥ ʋ0 ) and radiations and both entities must be
h Ф0
Or eVo= hʋ - Ф0 or Vo = ( ) ʋ - ( ) symmetrical
e e
This is a equation for straight line (y = mx + c). De-Broglie hypothesis - According to de
h Ф0 Broglie, every moving particle is associated with
Here y = V0 , m = ( ) , x = ʋ , c = - ( )
e e a wave which controls the particle in every
* The graph plotted with V0 versus ʋ is a straight line with respect. The wave associated with a particle is
h
slope = m = ( ) independent of the nature of the material. called matter wave or de Broglie wave.
e
* The Y – intercept gives the value of Work function 0 and
the x – intercept gives the threshold frequency, ʋ0 of the metal.
From this graph Plank's constant (h) can be determined.
Results –
(1) The wavelength associated with a heavier
particle is smaller than that with a lighter
particle.
(2) If v = 0 then λ = ∞ i.e. If the particle is at
rest, then the de Broglie wavelength is infinite.
Expression for de Broglie wave - The energy of the photon is Such a wave can not be visualized. If v = ∞
hc hc h h
E = hν = λ ⇒ mc2 = λ ⇒ λ = m c = P . then λ = 0 i.e. If the particle moves faster, then
Here momentum p = m c . the wavelength will be smaller
De Broglie assumed that above equation could be equally (3) de Broglie wavelength is independent of the
applicable to both the matter as well as radiation. If instead of charge of the particle.
a photon, we have a material particle of mass m moving with De Broglie wavelength of an electron
velocity v, then the equation becomes P = √𝟐 𝐦 𝐊 = √𝟐 𝐦 𝐞 𝐕
h h 𝐡 𝐡 𝐡 𝐡
λ = P = mv ⇒ λ = 𝐦𝐯 λ = 𝐏 = 𝐦𝐊 = 𝐦𝐞𝐕
√𝟐 √𝟐
𝟏.𝟐𝟐𝟕 𝟏𝟐.𝟐𝟕
λ= nm = A0
√𝐕 √𝑽
Question Bank
Multiple choice questions ( MCQ)

1. 7 Maximum KE of photo electrons is 4 e V Then the stopping potential is
(a) 4 V (b) 4 J (c) 4 eV (d) 1.6 V
ANS. (a) 4 V
2. The work function of a substance is 4.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause photo-
electrons emission from this substance is approximately
(a) 540 nm (b) 400 nm (c) 310 nm (d) 220 nm
ANS. (c) 310 nm
3. Photon of frequency v has a momentum associated with it. If c is the velocity of radiation, then the
momentum is (a) hv/c (b) v/c (c) hvc (d) hv/c2
ANS. (a) hv/c
4. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then, the ratio of their threshold
wavelengths is nearest to (a) 1 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 4
ANS. (c) 2 : 1
5. Which of the following when falls on a metal will emit photo electrons?
(a) Infrared radiation (b) Radio waves (c) UV radiations (d) Microwaves
ANS. (c) UV radiations
6. Photons are deflected by

(a) electric field only (b) magnetic field only (c) electromagnetic field (d) None of these
ANS. (d) None of these
7. The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The kinetic energy of the ejected
photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is (hc = 1240 eV nm)
(a) 3.09 eV (b) 1.42 eV (c) 1.51 eV (d) 1.68 eV
ANS. (b) 1.42 eV
8. Photoelectric effect shows

(a) wave like behaviour of light (b) particle like behaviour of light
(c) both wavelike and particle like behavior (d) neither wave like nor particle like behaviour of light.
ANS. (b) particle like behaviour of light
9. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
(a) ½ (b) 2 (c) 1/√2 (d) √2
ANS. (c) ) 1/√2
10. In photoelectric effect, the KE of electrons emitted from the metal surface depends upon
(a) Intensity of light (b) Frequency of incident light
(c) Velocity of incident light (d) Both intensity and velocity of light
ANS. (b) ) Frequency of incident light
11. A photon of energy 3.4 eV is incident on a metal having work function 2 eV. The maximum KE of
photoelectrons is equal to
(a) 1.4 eV (b) 1.1 eV (c) 5.4 eV (d) 6.8 eV
ANS. (a) ) 1.4 eV
12. Electron volt is a unit of – (a) Energy (b) Potential (c) Current (d) Charge
ANS. (a) ) Energy
Short answer questions -

1. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated through a p.d. V is λ. What will be its
wavelength when the accelerating potential is increased to 4 V?
12.27 12.27
Ans: 𝜆 = 𝐴̇ for V = 4 V, 𝜆= 𝐴̇ = 6.135𝐴̇
√𝑉 √4
2. A source of light is placed at a distance of 50cm from a photocell and the cut-off potential is found to be
V0.If the distance between the light source and photocell is made 25 cm ,What will be the new cut-off
potential? Justify your answer
Ans: The stopping potential is still V0.As the distance is decreased from 50cm to 25cm, the intensity of light
becomes four times the original intensity. But the stopping potential is independent of the intensity.
3. Two metal X and Y when illuminated with appropriate radiation emit photoelectron. The work function
of X is higher than that of Y .Which metal will have higher value of threshold frequency and why?
Ans: The work function of metal a metal is given by w = h0 ,where 0 is the threshold frequency as the
work function of metal X is higher ,therefore it will also have higher value of threshold frequency.
4. Two beams one of red light and other of blue light of the same intensity are incident on a metallic surface
to emit photoelectric which one of the two beams emits electrons of greater kinetic energy?
Ans hc
W 
0
1
0 
hc

1 Or  α
𝑤
w w
The photon of blue light emits electrons of greater kinetic energy than that of red light, because larger
wavelength of red than blue.
5. Two lines, A and B, in the plot given below show the variation of de-Broglie wavelength, λ versus 1√V,
Where V is the accelerating potential difference, for two particles carrying the same charge. Which one of
two represents a particle of smaller mass?
ℎ ℎ 1
Ans - λ = 𝑝 = The slope of λ versus graph will be inversely proportional to the square root of mass
√2𝑚𝑞𝑉 √𝑉
of the particles.
Now slope line of B is Greater it represents mass is smaller.
1
6. The two lines marked A and B in the given figure show a plot of de-Broglie wavelength λ versus ,
√𝑉
where V is the accelerating potential for two nuclei 21𝐻 𝑎𝑛𝑑 31𝐻.
(i)What does the slope of the lines represent?
(ii) Identify which of the lines corresponded to these nuclei.
ℎ
ANS. - (i) The slope of the line represent
√2𝑚𝑞
2 3 1
(ii) 1H and 1H carry same charge as they have same atomic number 𝜆√𝑉 α
√𝑚
The lighter mass 21H represented by line greater slope i. e., A and similarly 31H by line B.
7. In an experiment on photoelectric emission, following observations were made. (i) Wavelength of the
incident light = 2 × 10–7 m (ii) Stopping potential = 3 V Find (a) kinetic energy of photoelectrons with
maximum speed (b) work function
Ans - Vs = 3 V and KEmax = eVo, so KEmax = 3 eV
(ii) λ = 2000 Å = 2 × 10–7m.
Energy of incident photon = hc/ λ = 6.6 x 10-34 x 3 x 108 / 2 × 10-7 = 6.20 eV
W = E – KEmax = 3.2 eV
8. An α-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by the same potential. Find the ratio of their de-
Broglie wavelengths.
ℎ ℎ
ANS – λ = =
𝑝 √2𝑞𝑉𝑚
𝜆𝛼 𝑚𝑝 𝑞𝑝 1
=√ =
𝜆𝑝 𝑚𝛼 𝑞𝛼 2√2
9. Write the expression for the de-Broglie wavelength associated with a charged particle having charge q
and mass m when it is accelerated by a potential V.
Ans: The charged particle as a mass m and charge q.
The kinetic energy of the particle is equal to the work done on it by the electric field
KE = qV
1
2
mv2 = qV
𝑃2 1 𝑃2
= qV (we know mv2 = )
2𝑚 2 2𝑚
=> P = √2𝑚𝑞𝑉
10. An electron, an alpha particle and a proton have the same kinetic energy, which one of these particles
has (i) the shortest and (ii) the largest, de, Broglie wavelength? For same kinetic energy.
ANS – h 1
 
2mEk m
(i) Out of given particle, the mass of alpha particle is maximum so de Broglie wavelength associated with
alpha particle is shortest.
(ii)As man of electron is least, so electron has largest de Broglie. Wavelength.
Short answer questions - (2/3 MARKS)

1. Write Einstein’s Photoelectric equation. Explain the terms threshold frequency, and stopping potential.
Ans - Einstein’s Photoelectric equation is
KEmax = hv- Ф0
eV0 = h(v – v0)
(i) Threshold frequency (v0) is that minimum frequency for a metal surface below which no photoelectric
emission is possible, no matter how intense the incident radiation may be or how long it falls on the surface.
ii) Stopping potential is that minimum negative (retarding) potential (V0 ) given to the plate of a
photoelectric tube for which the photocurrent stops or becomes zero. Stopping potential is a measure of
maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons being produced for a given incident radiation
2. An electron and a photon each have a wavelength 2.00 nm. Find-

(i) their momentum
(ii) the energy of photon, and
(iii) the kinetic energy of electron
h 6.6 X 10−34
[ Ans. (i) momentum of electron = momentum of photon = 𝜆 = = 3.3 X 10−25 kgm/s
2.0 𝑋 10−9
h𝑐 6.6 𝑋 10−34 𝑋3 𝑋 108
(ii) energy of photon = 𝜆
= 2.0 𝑋 10−9
= 9.945 X10−17 J.
2
𝑝2 (3.3 X 10−25 )
(iii) K.E. of electron = = = 6.0314 X 10−20 J
2𝑚 2 𝑋 9.1 𝑋 10−31
3. Ultraviolet radiations of different frequencies ν1, ν2 are incident on two photo sensitive materials having
work functions W1 and W2 (W1>W2) respectively. The kinetic energy of emitted electrons is same in both
the cases. Which one of the two radiations will be at the higher frequency?
Ans: We know KE = hν – W
ATQ (KE)1 = (KE)2
hν1 – W1 = hν2 – W2
Here W1 > W2 => ν1 > ν2
4. The work function of Cesium metal is 2.14 eV. When light of frequency 6.0 X 1014 𝐻𝑧 is incident on
metal surface, photoemission of electron occurs. What is the (i) maximum kinetic energy of emitted
electrons (ii) stopping potential, and (iii) maximum speed of emitted photoelectrons
Ans –
(i) E𝑘𝑚𝑎𝑥 = h𝜈 − 𝑊 = 6.6 X 10−34 X 6 X 1014 − 2.14 X 1.6 X10−19
= 1.6 X 10−19 (2.48− 2.14) J = 0.34 eV
(ii) e 𝑉0 = E𝑘𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 0.34 eV ⇨ 𝑉0 = 0.34 𝑉
1
(iii) 2
𝑚𝑣𝑚𝑎𝑥 2 = E𝑘𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 0.34 eV = 0.34 X 1.6 X 10−19 J ⇨ 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 345.8 X 103 𝑚/𝑠
5. Draw a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with the frequency of incident radiation in
relation to photoelectric effect.
(a) What does the slope of this graph represent?
(b) How can the value of Planck's constant be determined from this graph?
(c) How can the value of work function of the material be determined from this graph?
Ans. Determination of Planck's constant and work function. According to Einstein's photoelectron
equation, the maximum K.E. of a photoelectron is given by
Kmax =hv —W₀
If V₀ is the stopping potential, then
Kmax = eV₀
Therefore, eV₀ = hv —W₀
V₀ = (h/e)v —W₀/e
It follows from the above equation that V₀ versus v is a straight line, as shown in Figure
Clearly, slope of V₀ —v graph = h/e
To determine the slope, take two points A and B on the straight line graph. Then
m = tan θ = AC/BC = h/e
h = e × AB/BC = e × slope of V₀ —v graph
Thus, the Planck's constant h can be determined.
Therefore, moreover, the intercept on vertical axis = —W₀/e
W₀ = e × Magnitude of the intercept on vertical axis.
In this way, the work function W₀ can be determined
6. A beam of monochromatic radiation is incident on a photosensitive surface answer the following question
giving reasons.
(i) Do the emitted photoelectrons have the same kinetic energy?
(ii) Does the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons depend on the intensity of incident radiation?
(iii) On what factor does the number of emitted photoelectrons depend?
Ans (i) Yes all emitted electrons have same kinetic energy as the kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons depends upon frequency of the incident radiation for a given photosensitive surface.
(ii) No the kinetic energy of emitted electrons does not depend on the intensity of incident radiation. if the
intensity is increased, number of photons will also increase but energy of each Photon remains same as the
frequency is also same. The maximum kinetic energy depends on Frequency not on intensity.
(iii) the number of emitted photoelectrons depend only on intensity of light for a given frequency of incident
radiation its intensity depends on the number of photons.
7. In Photoelectric effect, (a) do all the electrons which absorb a photon come out as photoelectrons
irrespective of their location? Explain.
(b) What happens if the distance of the light source from the cathode is reduced.
Ans (a) No it is not necessary that if the energy supplied to an electron is more than the work function it
will come out the electron after receiving energy mill loose energy to the metal in course of collision with
the atoms of the metal as a result many electrons gets scattered into the metal only a few electrons near the
surface which get energy more than the work function of the metal are able to come out of the metal surface.
(b) If the distance of the light source from the cathode is reduced then
(i) The photoelectric current increases because the intensity of incident radiation increases and
(ii) The stopping potential V0 remains the same because it is independent of the intensity.
8. The given graph shows the variation of photocurrent for a photosensitive metal:
(a) Identify the variable X on the horizontal axis.
(b) What does the point A on the horizontal axis represent?
(c) Draw this graph for three different values of frequencies of incident radiation v1, v2 and v3 (v1 > v2 > v3)
for same intensity.
(d) Draw this graph for three different values of intensities of incident radiation I1 I2 and I3 (I1 > I2 > I3)
having same frequency.
Ans- (a) ‘X’ is a collector plate potential.

(b) ‘A’ represents the stopping potential.
(c) Graph for different frequencies
Long answer questions - (5 MARKS)

1. (i) Describe briefly three experimentally observed features in the phenomenon of Photoelectric effect.
(ii) discuss briefly how wave theory of light cannot explain this features.
Ans (i) Three experimentally observed features in the phenomena of photoelectric effect is
(a) intensity when intensity of incident light increases as one Photon ejects electron, the increase in intensity
will increase the number of ejected electrons. frequency has no effect on photoelectron.
(b) Frequency when the frequency of incident Photon increases, the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
increases. intensity has no effect on kinetic energy of photoelectron.
(c) no time lag when energy of incident Photon is greater than the work function, the photoelectron is
immediately ejected. Thus, there is no time lag between the incidence of light and emission of
photoelectron.
(ii) these features cannot be explained on the wave nature of light becomes wave nature of radiation cannot
explain the following.
(a) the instantaneous is ejection of the photoelectrons.
(b) the existence of Threshold frequency for a metal surface.
(c) the fact that kinetic energy of the emitted electrons is independent of the intensity of light and depends
upon its frequency.
2. The following graph shows the variation of stopping potential (V0) with frequency (𝜈) of the incident
radiation for two photosensitive surfaces X and Y.
(i) Which of the metals has larger threshold wavelength ? Give reason. X Y
(ii) Explain giving reason, which metal gives out electrons having larger 𝑉0
kinetic energy, for the same wavelength of incident radiation ?
(iii) If the distance between the light source and metal X is halved, how
will the kinetic energy of emitted from it change ? Give reason. 0.5 1.0 𝝂
15 -1
(x10 s )
Ans (i) Metal X has larger threshold wavelength
Reason : (𝜈0 )𝑋 < (𝜈0 )𝑌
𝑐 𝑐
⇨ ( )𝑋 < ( )𝑌
0𝜆 𝜆
0
⇨ (𝜆0 )𝑋 > (𝜆0 )𝑌
(ii) Metal X will emit electrons of larger kinetic energy
Reason : (𝜈0 )𝑋 < (𝜈0 )𝑌
⇨ ( h𝜈0 )𝑋 < (h𝜈0 )𝑌
⇨ 𝑊𝑋 < 𝑊𝑌
hc
Hence from, E𝑘𝑚𝑎𝑥 = λ − 𝑊
metal X will emit electrons of larger kinetic energy
(iii) K.E. will not change as it does not depend on the distance between light source and metal
surface
3. (a) what is Photoelectric effect?

(b) Using Photon picture of light show how Einstein’s photoelectric equation can be established.
(c) Write three salient feature of observed in Photoelectric effect which can be explained using this
equation.
Ans (a) Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from the surface of metals when
light radiation of suitable frequency falls on them.
(b) When a radiation of frequency waves in incident on a metal surface it is observed in the form of discrete
photons each of energy hv. Photoelectric emission occurs because of single collision of photon with a free
electron.
The energy of the photon is used to
(i) Free the electron from the metal surface. it is equal to the work function W0 of the metal.
(ii) Provide kinetic energy of the emitted electron.
Therefore hv = Kmax+ 0
Or hv0 – 0 = Kmax= ½ mv2max
This is Einstein’s photoelectric equation.
(c) Clearly, above the threshold frequency v0,Kmax directly proportional to v that is the maximum K.E. of the
emitted electrons depends linearly on the frequency of incident radiation.
(ii) When v < v0 ,Kmaxbecomes negative the kinetic energy becomes negative which has no physical
meaning has there is no photoelectric emission below the threshold frequency v0.
(iii) it is obvious from the Photoelectric equation that the maximum K.E. of photo-electron does not depend
on the intensity of incident light.
Case study based questions -

QUESTION NO. 1
The discovery of the phenomenon of photoelectric effect has been one of the most important discoveries in
modern science. The experimental observations associated with this phenomenon made us realize that our, ‘till
then’, widely accepted picture of the nature of light – The electromagnetic (wave) theory of light – was quite
inadequate to understand this phenomenon. A ‘new picture’ of light was needed and it was provided by Einstein
through his ‘photon theory’ of light. This theory, regarded light as a stream of particles. Attempts to understand
photoelectric effect thus led us to realize that light, which was being regarded as ‘waves’, could also behave like
‘particles’. This led to the idea of ‘wave-particle duality’ vis-à-vis the nature of light. Attempts to understand this
‘duality’, and related phenomenon, led to far reaching, and very important developments, in the basic theories of
Physics.
1) Which of the following phenomenas explain the wave nature of light?
i) Interference ii) Diffraction iii) polarization iv) all of them
2) Wave –particle duality is shown by
i) Light only ii) matter only iii) both light and matter iv) None of them
3) The experiment to explain the wave nature of light i.e electromagnetic wave theory is given by
i) Hertz ii) Einstein iii) Lenard iv) Huygen
4) The concept of photoelectric effect given by Einstein explains that the light is a
i) Photon ii)Wave iii) Particle iv) Both
5) The practical application of the phenomenon of photoelectric effect and the concept of ‘matter waves’ is
i) Photocells ii) Automatic doors at shops and malls
iii) automatic light switches iv) All of them
Answers: 1) option iv 2) option iii 3) option i 4) option iii 5) option iv
QUESTION NO. 2
Lenard observed that when ultraviolet radiations were allowed to fall on the emitter plate of an
evacuated glass tube, enclosing two electrodes (metal plates), current started flowing in the circuit
connecting the plates. As soon as the ultraviolet radiations were stopped, the current flow also
stopped. These observations proved that it was ultraviolet radiations, falling on the emitter plate, that
ejected some charged particles from the emitter and the positive plate attracted them.
1) Alkali metals like Li, Na, K and Cs show photo electric effect with visible light but metals like Zn, Cd
and Mg respond to ultraviolet light. Why?
i) Frequency of visible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
ii) Frequency of visible light is less than that for ultraviolet light
iii) Frequency of visible light is same for ultraviolet light
iv) Stopping potential forvisible light is more than that for ultraviolet light
2) Why do we not observe the phenomenon of photoelectric effect with non-metals?
i) For non metals the work function is high ii) Work function is low
iii) Work function can’t be calculated iv) For non metals, threshold frequency is low
3) What is the effect of increase in intensity on photoelectric current?
i)Photoelectric current increases ii) Decreases
iii) No change iv) Varies with the square of intensity
4) Name one factor on which the stopping potential depends
i) Work function ii)Frequency iii) Current iv) Energy of photon
5) How does the maximum K.E of the electrons emitted vary with the work function of metal?
i) It doesn’t depend on work function ii)It decreases as the work function increases
iii) It increases as the work function increases iv) It’s value is doubled with the work function
Answers: 1) option ii 2) option I 3) option i 4) option ii 5) option ii
QUESTION NO. 3
We know that metals have free electrons which contribute towards conduction of electricity and heat.
The electrons cannot normally escape from the metal surface. Why? When an electron escapes from
the metal surface, it is quite likely to be quickly absorbed back as the metal becomes positive. One can
thus understand that it is captive within the metal even though it can freely move within the metal. A
certain minimum (external) energy is required to be given to an electron for it to escape a given metal
surface. This is known as the work function for that metal. It is denoted by and is measured in electron
volt eV. One eV is the energy gained by an electron when it is accelerated by a potential difference of
1 Volt.
1) Does the size of the atom effects the value of work function?
i) Yes ii) No iii)Sometimes iv) remain same
2) From which type of metal, electron emission would be easier?
i) Caesium ii) Potassium iii)Sodium iv) Calcium
3) The work function would depend upon the following
i)material of the metal ii)temperature iii) the nature of its surface iv)All of them
4) Work function of platinum is the highest ( =5.65eV) and is least for Caesium ( =2.1eV). If energy, equal
to the work function is required by electrons to escape, which of the two will need lesser energy?
i) Caesium ii)Platinum iii) same for both iv)Can’t be calculated
Answers: 1) option i 2) option i 3) option iv 4) option i
QUESTION NO. 4
According to de-Broglie a moving material particle sometimes acts as a wave and sometimes as a
particle or a wave is associated with moving material particle which controls the particle in every
respect. The wave associated with moving material particle is called matter wave or de-Broglie wave
whose wavelength called de-Broglie wavelength, is given by λ = h/mv
1.The dual nature of light is exhibited by
(a) diffraction and photo electric effect (b) photoelectric effect
(c) refraction and interference (d)diffraction and reflection.
2. If the momentum of a particle is doubled , then its de-Broglie wavelength will
(a)remain unchanged (b)become four times
(c) become two times (d)become half
3. If an electron and proton are propagating in the form of waves having the same
λ , it implies that they have the same
(a)energy (b)momentum (c)velocity (d)angular momentum
4. Velocity of a body of mass m, having de-Broglie wavelength λ , is given by relation
(a) v = λ h/m (b) v = λm/h (c) v = λ/hm (d) v = h/ λm
5. Moving with the same velocity , which of the following has the longest de Broglie wavelength?
(a) ᵦ -particle (b) α -particle (c) proton (d) neutron.
Assertion-Reason (A-R) questions -

Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false
Assertion (A): In photoelectron emission, the velocity of electron ejected from near the surface is
larger than that coming from interior of metal.
Reason(R): The velocity of ejected electron will be zero.
Ans –(c)
Assertion (A): Assertion: As work function of a material increases by some mechanism, it requires
greater energy to excite the electrons from its surface.
Reason(R): A plot of stopping potential (V2) versus frequency (v) for different materials, has greater slope for
metals with greater work functions.
Ans –(c)
Assertion (A): A: Wave nature of particles is not visible in daily life.

Reason(R) : In daily life, mass of particles is very high so their de Broglie wavelength is very small.
Ans – (a)
Explanation - λ = h/mv and it is very low for masses in everyday life as his very small.
Assertion (A): The photoelectric effect is a proof of the quantized nature of the light.
Reason(R): Each photon in a light beam has same amount of energy.
Ans – (c)
Explanation - The assertion is correct but reason is completely false. It can only be true for completely
monochromatic laser.
Assertion (A): Every metal has a definite work function. Still all photoelectrons do not come out with the
same energy if incident radiation is monochromatic.
Reason(R): Work function is the minimum energy required for the electron in the highest level of the
conduction band to get out of the metal. Not all electrons in the metal belong to this level rather they occupy
a continuous band of levels.
Ans – (a)
Assertion (A): There is almost no time-lag between the incidence of light and the emission of
photoelectrons.
Reason(R): A photon transfers almost all its energy to a single electron in a metal.
Ans – (a)
Assertion (A): When a photon of energy hν is incident on an electron in a metal of work function φ (<hν),
the electron will not necessarily come out of the metal.
Reason(R): Work function is the minimum energy required to liberate an electron out of a metal. So some
electrons may require more energy for their liberation.
Ans - (a)
ATOMS
MASTER CARD
1. Experimental arrangement for α-scattering experiment and trajectory followed by α -particles
2. Basic assumption of Rutherford’s atomic
model.
(i) Atom consists of small central core, called
atomic nucleus in which whole mass and positive
charge is assumed to be concentrated.
(ii) The size of nucleus is much smaller than the
size of the atom.
(iii) The nucleus is surrounded by electrons and
atom is electrically neutral.
(iv) Electrons revolve around the nucleus and
centripetal force is of electrostatic nature.
2. Distance of Closest Approach
At a certain distance r0 from the nucleus, whole
of the KE of α-particle converts into electrostatic
potential energy and α-particle cannot go closer to
nucleus;this distance(r0) is called distance of
closest approach.
3. Impact parameter is a perpendicular distance of the velocity vector of a-particle from
the central line of the nucleus of the atom is called impact parameter (b). Where, K is KE of
α-particle, θ is scattering angle, Z is atomic number of the nucleus and e is charge of
nucleus.
4. Drawbacks of Rutherford’s Model
(i) Could not explain stability of atom clearly.
(ii) Unable to explain line spectrum.
5. Bohr’s Theory of Hydrogen Atom
(i) Bohr’s first postulate :An electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the
emission of radiant energy.
(ii) Bohr’s second postulate(Bohr’s quantization condition) : This postulate states
that the electron revolves around the nucleus only in those orbits for which the angular
momentum is some integral multiple of h/2π, mvr = nh/2π where, n = 1, 2, 3, ….
(iii) Bohr’s third postulate(Bohr’s frequency condition) when an electron jumps
from higher level to lower level, a photon is emitted having energy equal to the energy
difference between the initial and final states. hv = Ei– Ef where, Ei and Ef are the energies of the initial
and final states and Ei>Ef.
6. Limitations of Bohr’s Model
(i) Applicable only for hydrogen like atom.
(ii) Does not explain the fine structure of spectral lines in H-atom.
(iii) Does not explain about shape of orbit.
7. Energy Level A
The energy of an atom is the least when its electron is revolving in an orbit
closest to the nucleus i.e. for which n = 1.
8. The lowest state of the atom is called the ground state this state has lowest energy. The Energy of this
state is -13.6 eV. Therefore, the minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of the
hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV.
9.(i) Emission Spectrum Hydrogen spectrum consists of discrete bright lines a dark background and it is
specifically known as hydrogen emission spectrum.
(ii) Absorption Spectrum There is one more type of hydrogen spectrum exists where we get
dark lines on the bright background, it is known as absorption spectrum.
10.. Important formulae related to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atoms are given below:
11. The atomic hydrogen emits a line spectrum consisting of various series.
FLOW CHART
MCQ
Q.1 A set of atoms in an excited state return to lower energy states,
(a) randomly to any of the states with lower energy.
(b) into a lower state only when excited by an external electric field.
(c) all together simultaneously into a lower state.
(d) to emit photons only when they collide.
Answer:- (a)
Q.2 The ionisation potential of hydrogen is 13.6 V. The energy of the atom in n = 2 state will be
(a) 6.8 eV (b) -6.8 eV (c) – 3.4 eV (d) 3.4 eV
Answer:- (c)
Q.3 The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its third to second excited state is :
(a)16/9 (b) 4/9 (c) 9/4 (d) 9/16.
Answer:- (d)
Q.4 The ratio of the radii of the hydrogen electron in first orbit to that in the second orbit is
(a) 1/4 (b)1/2 (c) 2 (d) 4
Answer:- (a)
Q.5 For an electron orbit to be stationary, it should be
(a) such that the angular momentum should be integral multiple of h.
(b) Circular in nature
(c) Elliptical in nature
(d) none of these
Answer:- (a)
Q.6 If the electron in hydrogen atoms is excited to n = 5 state, the number of different frequencies of
radiation which may be emitted is:
(a) 4 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 5
Answer:- (b)
Q.7 Which of the following was/were discovered from the Rutherford's scattering experiment?
(1) neutron. (2) nucleus (3) position of electrons (4) protons
(a)(1) and (2) (b) (2) and (3) (c) (3) and (4) (d) 2 only
Answer:- (b)
Q.8 In Rutherford's experiment, a thin gold foil was bombarded with alpha particles. According to
Thomson's "plum-pudding" model of the atom, what should have happened?
(a) All the alpha particles would have been deflected by the foil.
(b) All the alpha particles should have bounced straight back from the foil.
(c) Alpha particles should have passed through the foil with little or no deflection.
(d) Alpha particles should have become embedded in the foil
Answer:- (c)
Q.9 Lyman series lies in which spectrum?
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Visible (c) Infrared (d) Partially Visible
Answer:- (a)
Q.10 The electrons of Rutherford’s model would be expected to lose energy because
(a) They jump on the nucleus (b) They move randomly (c) they are accelerated charged particles (d)
Escape from the atom
Answer:- (c)
ASSERTION AND REASONING

Instructions:
A) If both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
B) If both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
C) If assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
D) If the assertion and reason both are incorrect.
Q.1 Assertion : According Rutherford atomic model will be such that radius is directly proportional to
velocity of electron.
Reason : According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated particle continuously emits radiation.
Answer: B
Q.2 Assertion : It is not essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available
in the absorption spectrum.
Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum.
Answer: D
Q.3 Assertion : In Bohr’s atomic model atom is stable.
Reason : The angular momentum is integral multiple of nh/2π.
Answer: B
Q.4 Assertion : An electron in the hydrogen atom passes from energy level n=4 to the n=1 level. The
maximum and minimum number of waves of possible emission are 3 and1 respectively.
Reason : The photons are emitted when electron make a transition from the higher energy state to the
lower energy state only.
Answer: A
Q. 5 Assertion : The positively charged nucleus of an atom has a radius of almost 10-15 m.
Reason : In alpha-particle scattering experiment, the distance of closest approach for alpha-particles is of
the approximately of the order of 10-15 m.
Answer: A
Q.6 Assertion : For the scattering of alpha-particles at a large angles, only the nucleus of the atom is
responsible.
Reason : Density of Nucleus is very large in comparison to α particle.
Answer: C
Q.7 Assertion : Balmer series belong to visible region of electromagnetic wave.
Reason : The maximum energy which can be emitted is 3.4 eV and min energy is 1.8 eV.
Answer: A
Q. 8 Assertion : The force of repulsion between atomic nucleus and alpha-particle is electrostatic force.
Reason : In alpha-particle scattering experiment there is no force between electrons and alpha particles.
Answer: C
Q.9 Assertion : In Lyman series, the ratio of minimum and maximum wavelength is ¾
Reason : Lyman series constitute spectral lines belonging to ultra violet region of electromagnetic waves.
Answer:B
Q10. Assertion : Electrons in the atom are held due to coulomb forces.
Reason : The atom is stable because the centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law is balanced by the
centrifugal force.
Answer: C
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. BOHR’S MODEL
The Bohr model is a big part of Physics history. Neils Bohr proposed his model in 1913. It states that
electrons orbit the nucleus at set distances. The model was an expansion on the Rutherford model and
overcame its fallcy. Neils Bohr’s model was based on the observations of the atomic emissions spectrum
of the hydrogen atom. In summary his findings said that the electron can move to a higher-energy orbit by
gaining an amount of energy equal to the difference in energy between the higher energy orbit and the
initial lower-energy orbit and vice versa. However time and research has proved and changed the Bohr
model; though it laid foundation for quantum mechanics and modern atomic model..
a. Rutherford’s atomic model was limited to an extent that it only focused on nucleus of atom. However
Bohr’ atomic model was able to explain the spectral lines of hydrogen atom. Which postulate was key to
this discovery?
b. Quantum mechanics is relatively a new branch of physics and developed with time. Which postulate
lead to quantization of energy of the orbits?
c. What are the fallacy of Bohr’s atomic model?
Or
Find out the energy of an electron with kinetic energy equal to 2.4 eV. Also determine the potential
energy of the electron in same orbit.
Answers: a) III postulate that energy is emitted/ absorbed only when electron jumps from one stationary
orbit to another stationary orbit.
b) II postulate that angular momentum is integral multiple of nh/2π.
c) i. It is applicable to hydrogen and hydrogenic atoms or ions only.
ii. it could not explain fine structure of spectral lines.
iii. It could not explain splitting of spectral lines in strong magnetic field.
iv. It could not explain shape of orbits.
Or
Since K.E= 2.4 eV
And E=-K=U/2
Thus, E= -2.4 eV and U=- 4.8 eV.
2. THE LINE SPECTRA OF THE HYDROGEN ATOM

According to the third postulate of Bohr’s model, when an
atom makes a transition from the higher energy state with
quantum number ni to the lower energy state with quantum
number nf (nf < ni), the difference of energy is carried away by
a photon of frequency ν such that hν = Eni – Enf. Since both nf
and ni are integers, this immediately shows that in transitions
between different atomic levels, light is radiated in various
discrete frequencies. For hydrogen spectrum, the Balmer
formula corresponds to nf = 2 and ni = 3, 4, 5 etc. The results
of the Bohr’s model suggested the presence of other series
spectra for hydrogen atom–those corresponding to transitions
resulting from nf = 1 and ni = 2, 3, etc; nf = 3 and ni = 4, 5, etc.
and so on. Such series were identified in the course of
spectroscopic investigations and are known as the Lyman,
Balmer, Paschen, Brackett, and Pfund series. The electronic
transitions corresponding to
these series are shown in Fig. The various lines in the atomic
spectra are produced when electrons jump from higher energy
state to a lower energy state and photons are emitted. These
spectral lines are called emission lines. But when an atom
absorbs a photon that has precisely the same energy needed by
the electron in a lower energy state to make transitions to a higher energy state, the process is called
absorption. Thus if photons with a continuous range of frequencies pass through a rarefied gas and then
are analysed with a spectrometer, a series of dark spectral absorption lines appear in the continuous
spectrum. The dark lines indicate the frequencies that have been absorbed by the atoms of the gas. The
explanation of the hydrogen atom spectrum provided by Bohr’s model was a brilliant achievement, which
greatly stimulated progress towards the modern quantum theory.
a. The wavelength of Paschen series of spectral lines observed for hydrogen belongs to which region of
electromagnetic waves?
b. If the electron jump from higher energy state to lower energy states spectrum hence obtained is called
by which name?
c. Calculate the ratio of maximum and minimum wavelengths of balmer series.
Or
An electron is in 4 th excited state for hydrogen. What are the possible transitions for emission spectrum?
Answers a) Infrared
b) name of spectrum hence obtained is emission spectrum.
c) λmax: λmin=(R(9-4)/36]-1/[R/4]-1
=> λmax: λmin=36xR/5RX4
=> λmax: λmin=36:20
=> λmax: λmin=9:5
Or
4th excited state means n=5, thus possible transitions are
51, 52, 53, 5-4
43, 42, 41
32, 2-1
2-1
3. The Atom
To study about atom various scientists, perform various experiments and suggest various models of an
atom with some explanation. For example, Thomson gives the "plum pudding" model in which he said
that atom consists of a positive material known as "pudding" with some negative materials ("plums")
distributed throughout. Later, famous scientist, Rutherford gives Rutherford's model of the atom after
performing an Alpha Particle scattering experiment. According to this model, an atom consists of a small,
positively-charged nucleus and negatively-charged electrons orbiting around it in an orbital. These orbits
can have different sizes, energy, etc. And the energy of the orbit is also related to its size, i.e. the lowest
energy is found in the smallest orbit. If the electron is orbiting in nth orbit then we will study about its
Velocity in nth orbit, Radius of nth orbital, Energy of electron in nth orbit, etc. Energy is also emitted due
to the transition of electrons from one orbit to another orbit. This energy is emitted in the form of photons
with different wavelengths. This wavelength is given by the Rydberg formula. When electrons make
transitions between two energy levels in an atom various spectral lines are obtained. The emission
spectrum of the hydrogen atom has been divided into various spectral series like Lyman series, Balmer
series, Paschen series Etc.
a) Who gave the formula which gives the wavelength of emitted photon when electron jumps from
higher energy state to lower energy statee?
b) Bohr’s atomic model is applicable for only____________.
c)What were the causes of rejection of Rutherford atomic model?
Or
What are the merits of Bohr’s atomic model over Rutherford’s model?
Answers a) Rydberg
b) hydrogen and hydrogen like atoms and ions
c) i. It could not explain stability of atom.
ii. it was unable to explain the spectral lines instead of continuous spectrum.
Or
i) It explained the stability of atom successfully.
ii) It explained the spectral lines obtained for H.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS I (2 MARKS)

1.a) Define the distance of closest approach.
b) The K. E. of 𝛼 − particle incident on gold foil is doubled. How does the distance of closest approach
change?
Ans. a) Distance of closest approach : The minimum distance up to which an -particle can approach the
nucleus just before retracing its path, is known as distance of closest approach
Expression of distance of nearest approach can also be written
b) Distance of closest approach will be halved when K.E. is doubled. Since they are inversely
proportional to each other.
2. (i) What is Impact parameter ?
(ii) What is the significance of impact parameter ?
Ans. (i) Impact parameter (b) :It is the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the -
particle from the nucleus when it is moving far away from nucleus.
(ii) Significance : It gives an estimate of size of nucleus.
3. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What are the kinetic and potential
energies of electron in this state ?
Ans. since we know that,
E= -K =U/2
Thus, K=-(-13.6) eV
K= 13.6 eV
And U= 2E= -27.2 eV
4. In the ground state of hydrogen atom, its Bohr radius is given as 5.3x10-11 m. The atom is excited such
that the radius becomes 21.2 X 10-11 m. Find –
(i) the value of principal quantum number and
(ii) the total energy of the atom in this excited state.
Ans. i) r=n2r0
 n2=r/ro
 n2=21.2/5.3
 n2=4
 n=2
ii) E= -13.6/n2
 E= -13.6/4
 E= -3.4 eV
5. What is the longest wavelength of photon that can ionize a hydrogen atom in its ground state? Specify
the type of radiation.
Ans.
6. Calculate the shortest wavelength of the spectral lines emitted in Balmer series. (Rydberg constant,
R=107 m-1)
Ans.
7. Find the relation between the three wavelengths 𝛌1, 𝛌2 and 𝛌3

from the energy level diagram shown below.
Ans.
8. Using Rutherford model of the atom, derive the expression for the total energy of the electron in
hydrogen atom. What is the significance of the total negative energy possessed by the electron?
Ans.
9. The short wavelength limit for the Lyman series of the hydrogen spectrum is 913.4Å. calculate the
short wavelength limit for Balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum.
Ans.
10. a) In Geiger- Marsden experiment, why is the most of the 𝛼 −Particles go straight through the foil and
only a small fraction gets scattered at large angles?
b) In Geiger-Marsden experiment, draw the trajectories traced by –Particles in the Coulomb’s field of
target.
Ans. a) For most of the 𝛼 −Particles, impact parameter is large, hence they suffer very small repulsion due
to nucleus and go straight (right) through the foil.
b)
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS II ( 3 MARKS EACH)

1. (a) Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom.
(b) How these were explained in Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom ?
Ans. (a) Limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom : (i) Electron moving in a circular orbit
around the nucleus would get accelerated. Therefore it loses its energy and hence it should follow spiral
path and ultimately fall in to the nucleus.
(ii) Due to continuously changing radii of orbits, electron will emit electromagnetic waves of all
frequencies. Hence atom should emit continuous spectrum
(b) Explanation according to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom :
(i) Electron in an atom can revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of radiant energy, in
which angular momentum is integral multiple of h/2π
(ii)Energy is released/ absorbed only, when an electron jumps from one stable orbit to
another stable orbit. This results in a discrete spectrum
2. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV.
(i) what is the kinetic energy of an electron in the 2nd excited state ?
(ii) If the electron jumps to the ground state from 2nd excited state, calculate the wavelength of the
spectral line emitted.
Ans.
3. Using Rydberg formula, calculate the longest wavelengths belonging to Lyman and balmer series. In
which region of hydrogen spectrum do these transitions lie? (given R=1.1×107 m-1)
4. How does de-Broglie explain the stationary orbits for revolution of electrons using Bohr’s quantization
condition?
Ans. de-Broglie’s explanation of Stationary orbits
5. Calculate the ratio of the frequencies of the radiation emitted due to transition of the electron in a
hydrogen atom from its
(i) second permitted energy level to the first level and
(ii) highest permitted energy level to the second permitted level.
Ans.
6. Use de-Broglie’s hypothesis to write the relation for the radius of Bohr orbit in terms of Bohr’s
quantization condition of orbital angular momentum.
Ans. λ=h/p= h/mv according to de Broglie’s hypothesis
Only those waves survive which form standing waves for nth orbit according to this condition
2πr=nλ
 2πr=nh/mv
 Mvr=nh/2π
 L=nh/2π
Hence we can show that for n th orbit of an atom the angular momentum is n times h/2π. Which
is second postulate of Bohr’s aatomic model.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(5 MARKS)

1. (a) Explain the origin of spectral series/ lines of hydrogen atom using Bohr’s atomic model.
(b) Draw the energy level diagram showing how the line spectra corresponding to Lyman/Balmer series
occur due to transition between energy levels in a hydrogen atom.
2. Draw a schematic arrangement of the Geiger – Marsden experiment for studying 𝛼 −particle scattering
by a thin foil of gold. Describe briefly, by drawing trajectories of the scattered 𝛼 − particles, how this
study can be used to estimate the size of the nucleus? Draw a plot showing the number of particles
scattered versus scattering angle 𝞱.
Ans. Geiger-Marsden experiment (Rutherford’s –Particle scattering experiment) :
High energetic collimated beam of –Particles is allowed to fall on a very thin gold foil as shown. The
scattered 𝛼 - particles are observed through a rotating detector consisting of ZnS screen and microscope.
Observations and Conclusions :(i) most of the 𝛼 –Particles passed un deflected through the foil. It
indicates that most of the space in an atom is empty.
(ii) some 𝛼 − Particles were deflected through small angles and only a few (1 in 8000) were deflected
through large angles ( 90o) to return back. It concludes that whole of the positive charge and almost whole
mass is concentrated in a tiny central core known
as nucleus.
(iii)The number of 𝛼 –Particles at a scattering
angle is It is due to the fact that, scattering of –
particles is in accordance with Coulomb’s force.
Size of nucleus :
It can be estimated by distance of closest approach
3. Using Bohr’s postulates, derive the expression for the total energy of the electron in the stationary
states of the hydrogen atom. Hence, derive the expression for the orbital velocity and orbital period of the
electron moving in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom.
Ans. Bohr’s theory of H-atom :
NUCLEI
SYLLABUS
Composition and size of nucleus, nuclear force ,Mass-energy relation, mass defect; binding
energy per nucleon and its variation with mass number; nuclear fission, nuclear fusion.
MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Two nuclei have mass number in the ratio 1: 2. The ratio of their nuclear densities is
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 (D) Cannot be defined from mass number ratio.
2. X amount of energy is required to remove an electron from its orbit and Y amount of energy is required
to remove a nucleon from the nucleus.
(A) X = Y (B) X > Y (C) Y > X (D) X ≥ Y
3. Heavy stable nucleus have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that
(A) neutrons are heavier than protons.
(B) electrostatic force between protons are repulsive.
(C) neutrons decay into protons through beta decay.
(D) nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons.
4. The equation 𝑿𝑨𝒁 → 𝒀𝑨𝒁 + 𝒆−𝟏𝟎 + 𝝊 ̅ represents
(A) β-decay (B) γ-decay (C) fusion (D) fission
𝟏𝟎
5. When boron 𝑩𝟓 is bombarded by neutron, alpha-particles is emitted. The resulting nucleus has the
mass number
(A) 11 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 15
6. If radius of the 𝑨𝒍𝟏𝟑 nucleus is taken to be R, then the radius of 𝑻𝒆𝟏𝟐𝟓
𝟐𝟕
𝟓𝟑 nucleus is nearly
3 13 1/3 53 1/3 5
(A) 5 R (B) (53) 𝑅 (C) (13) 𝑅 (D) 3 R
7. In a nuclear fusion reaction, if the energy is released then
(A) BEproducts = BEreactants (B) BEreactants > BEproducts
(C) BEproducts > BEreactants (D) Mass of product > Mass of reactant
8. Nuclear energy is released in fusion reaction, since binding energy per nucleon is
(A) Smaller of fusion products than for fusing nuclei
(B) Same for fusion products as for fusing nuclei
(C) Larger for fusion products than for fusing nuclei
(D) Sometimes larger and sometimes smaller
9. The nuclei 𝑨𝟏𝟑 𝟏𝟒
𝟔 and 𝑩𝟕 can be described as
(A) Isotones (B) Isobars (C) Isotopes of carbon (D) Isotopes of nitrogen
10. Choose the correct statement
(A) Nuclear force becomes strong if the nucleus contains too many protons compared to neutrons
(B) Nuclear force becomes strong if the nucleus contains too many neutrons compared to protons
(C) Nuclei with atomic number less than 82 shows a tendency to disintegrate
(D) The nuclear force becomes weak if the nucleus contains a large number of nucleons
ANSWER KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
C C B A B B C C A D
ASSERTION –REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
Directions for Question No 11 to Question No 20 :
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R).
Mark the correct choice as:
(A) If Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) If Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) If (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) If (A) is false, but (R) is true.
11. A : Uncertainty principle demands that an electron confined to a nucleus must have very high
energy so that the electron cannot reside in a nucleus.
R : The electrostatic attraction between electron and proton is large at such a small distance but is
not enough to bind such a high-energy electron.
12. A : Exothermic reactions are possible when two light nuclei fuse or when a heavy nucleus
undergoes fission into intermediate mass nuclei.
R : The nature of nuclear binding energy curve is such that it rises for lighter nuclei and slightly
decreasing for heavier nuclei.
13. A : A free proton is stable but inside a nucleus, a proton gets converted into a neutron, positron and
neutrino (p → n + e+ + 𝜐).
R : Inside a nucleus, neutron decay (n → p + e– + 𝜐̅ ) as well as proton decay are possible, since other
nucleons can share energy and momentum to conserve energy as well as momentum and both the
decays are in dynamic equilibrium.
14. A : Only in low or medium energy nuclear reactions, the number of protons and number of
neutrons are separately conserved.
R : In high energy reactions, protons and neutrons can be converted into other particles and a new
quantum number, the Baryon number is however, always conserved.
15. A : The radius (r) of a nucleus depends only on the mass number (A) as r ∝ A1/3.
R : Nuclear density is directly proportional to the mass number of the nuclei.
16. A : In 𝛽-decay an electron is emitted by the nucleus.
R : Electrons are not present inside the nucleus.
17. A : Fast moving neutrons do not cause fission of a uranium nucleus.
R : A fast moving neutron spends very little time inside the nucleus.
18. A : Nuclear force is same between neutron-neutron, proton-proton and neutron-proton.
R : Nuclear force is charge independent.
19. A : The binding energy per nucleon, for nuclei with mass number (A) > 56 decreases with A.
R : Nuclear force is weak in heavier nuclei.
20. A : Electrons do not experience strong nuclear force.
R : Strong nuclear force is charge independent.
ANSWER KEY
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A A B C B A A C B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTION
21. Write the relationship between the size of a nucleus and its mass number (A). [CBSE (F) 2012]
1/3
Ans. The relationship is R = R0 A where R = Radius of nucleus and A = Mass number.
22. Write two characteristic features of nuclear force which distinguish it from Coulomb’s force.
[CBSE (AI) 2011]
Ans. Characteristic Features of Nuclear Force
(i) Nuclear forces are short range attractive forces (range 2 to 3 fm) while Coulomb’s forces have range
upto infinity and may be attractive or repulsive.
(ii) Nuclear forces are charge independent forces; while Coulomb's force acts only between charged
particles.
23. The radioactive isotope D-decays according to the sequence. [CBSE Delhi 2010]
If the mass number and atomic number of D2 are 176 and 71 respectively, what is the (i) mass number,
(ii) atomic number of D?
Ans. (i) Given A – 4 = 176 ⇒ Mass number of D, A = 180
(ii) Z – 1 = 71 ⇒ Atomic number of D, Z = 72
24. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 1 : 2. What is the ratio of their nuclei densities?
[CBSE Delhi 2009]
Ans. Nuclear density is independent of mass number, so ratio 1 : 1.
25. What is the nuclear radius of 125Fe, if that of 27Al is 3.6 fermi? [CBSE (AI) 2008]
Ans. Nuclear radius, R = R0A ⇒ R ∝ A
1/3 1/3
26. 𝑯𝒆𝟑𝟐 and 𝑯𝟑𝟏 nuclei have the same mass number. Do they have the same binding energy?
[NCERT Exemplar] [HOTS]
Ans. No, the binding energy of 𝑯𝟑𝟏 is greater. This is because 𝑯𝒆𝟑𝟐 has 2 proton and 1 neutron, whereas
𝑯𝟑𝟏 has 1 proton and 2 neutron. Repulsive force between protons in 𝑯𝟑𝟏 is absent.
27. Four nuclei of an element undergo fusion to form a heavier nucleus, with release of energy. Which of
the two — the parent or the daughter nucleus — would have higher binding energy per nucleon?
Ans. The daughter nucleus would have a higher binding energy per nucleon.
28. What do you mean by mass defect of a nucleus?
Ans. The difference between the rest mass of a nucleus and the sum of the rest masses of its
constituent nucleons is called its mass defect. It is given by Δm = Z m p + (A – Z) mn – M
29. What do you mean by binding energy per nucleon?
Ans. The binding energy per nucleon may be defined as the energy required to break up a nucleus into
its constituent protons and neutrons and to separate them to such a large distance so that they may
not interact with each other. It may also be defined as the surplus energy which the nucleons give up
by virtue of their attractions when they become bound together to form a nucleus. The binding energy
of a nucleus is given by
Δm = Z mp + (A – Z) mn – M
BE= (Δm) C2 =[ Z mp + (A – Z) mn – M] C2
30. On the basis of which relation mass to energy conversion in nuclear fusion and fission is explained ?
Ans. Since, Nuclear Fission and Fusion are processes in which mass is converted into energy. Hence,
nuclear fission and fusion can be explained on the basis of Einstein mass-energy equivalence relation.
SHORT ANSWER QUESTION

31. In a typical nuclear reaction, e.g.,
although number of nucleons is conserved, yet energy is released. How? Explain.

Ans. In nuclear reaction
32. (a) Distinguish between isotopes and isobars, giving one example for each.
(b) Why is the mass of a nucleus always less than the sum of the masses of its constituents? Write one
example to justify your answer. [CBSE 2019 (55/5/1)]
Ans. (a) Isotopes have same atomic number but different mass number & isobars have same mass
number but different atomic number. Examples of Isotopes, 𝑪𝟏𝟐 𝟔 and 𝑪𝟔
𝟏𝟒
Examples of Isobars , 𝑯𝒆𝟑𝟐 and 𝑯𝟑𝟏

(b) Mass of a nucleus is less than its constituents because it is in the bound state. Some mass is
converted into binding energy which is energy equivalent of mass defect e.g., mass of 𝑶𝟏𝟔 𝟖 nucleus is
less than the sum of masses of 8 protons and 8 neutrons.
33. Show that the density of nucleus over a wide range of nuclei is constant and independent of mass
number.
Ans. We have R = R0 A1/3
𝑚𝐴 𝑚𝐴
Density, 𝜌=4 3
=4
𝜋𝑅 𝜋(Ro A1/3 )3
3 3
𝑚
𝜌=4 = const
𝜋(Ro )3
3
Hence 𝜌 is independent of A.
34. Find the binding energy per nucleon for a 𝑪𝟏𝟐
𝟔 nucleus.
𝟏𝟐
(Nuclear mass of 𝑪𝟔 = 12.00000 a.m.u. , Mass of proton = 1.007825 a.m.u
Mass of neutron = 1.008665 a.m.u)
Ans.
BE= (Δm) C2 = 7.675 MeV

35. A heavy nucleus X of mass number 240 and binding energy per nucleon 7.6 MeV is split into two
fragments Y and Z of mass numbers 110 and 130. The binding energy per nucleon in Y and Z is 8.5 MeV
per nucleon. Calculate the energy Q released per fission in MeV. [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Ans. Energy released Q =(MY+MZ) C2 – MX C2
= 8.5 (110+130) MeV – 7.6 × 240 MeV
=(8.5 – 7.6) × 240 MeV
= 0.9 × 240 MeV = 216 MeV
36. Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy between a pair of nucleons as a function of
their separation. Indicate the regions in which the nuclear force is (i) attractive, (ii) repulsive.
Write two important conclusions which you can draw regarding the nature of the nuclear forces.
[CBSE 2019 (55/5/2/1)]
Ans. Graph between potential energy between a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation
Conclusions:
(i) The potential energy is minimum at a distance r0 of about
0.8 fm.
(ii) Nuclear force is attractive for distance larger than r0.
(iii) Nuclear force is repulsive if two are separated by
distance less than r0.
(iv) Nuclear force decreases very rapidly at r0 / equilibrium
position.
LONG ANSWER QUESTION
37. Draw the graph showing the variation of binding energy per nucleon with the mass number for a large
number of nuclei 2< A < 240. What are the main inferences from the graph? How do you explain the
constancy of binding energy in the range 30 < A < 170 using the property that the nuclear force is short-
ranged? Explain with the help of this plot the release of energy in the processes of nuclear fission and
fusion. [CBSE (AI) 2010, 2011, Chennai 2015, South 2016]
Ans. The variation of binding energy per nucleon versus mass number is shown in figure. Inferences
from graph
1. The nuclei having mass number
below 20 and above 180 have
relatively small binding energy and
hence they are unstable.
2. The nuclei having mass number
56 and about 56 have maximum
binding energy – 8·8 MeV and so
they are most stable.
3. Some nuclei have peaks, e.g.,
𝑯𝒆𝟒𝟐 , 𝑪𝟏𝟐 𝟏𝟔
𝟔 , 𝑶𝟖 𝒆𝒕𝒄 this indicates
that these nuclei are relatively
more stable than their neighbours.
(i) Explanation of constancy of binding energy: Nuclear force is short ranged, so every nucleon
interacts with its neighbours only, therefore binding energy per nucleon remains constant.
(ii) Explanation of nuclear fission: When a heavy nucleus (A ≥ 235 say) breaks into two lighter nuclei
(nuclear fission), the binding energy per nucleon increases i.e, nucleons get more tightly bound. This
implies that energy would be released in nuclear fission.
(iii) Explanation of nuclear fusion: When two very light nuclei (A ≤ 10) join to form a heavy nucleus,
the binding is energy per nucleon of fused heavier nucleus more than the binding energy per nucleon
of lighter nuclei, so again energy would be released in nuclear fusion.
38. (a) Distinguish between the phenomena of nuclear fission and fusion.
(b) When four hydrogen nuclei combine to form a helium nucleus estimate the amount of energy in
MeV released in this process of fusion (Neglect the masses of electrons and neutrons) Given: (i) Mass
of 𝑯𝟏𝟏 = 1.007825 u (ii) mass of helium nucleus = 4.002603 u, 1u = 931 MeV/C2
Ans. (a) Nuclear fusion : It is the phenomenon of fusing two or more lighter nuclei to form a single
heavy nucleus.
 the nuclear fusion reaction of two deuterons is represented as
𝑯𝟐𝟏 + 𝑯𝟐𝟏 → 𝑯𝒆𝟒𝟐 + 24 MeV
 Temperature ≈ 107 K are required for fusion to take place.
 Nuclear fusion is a basis of hydrogen bomb.
Nuclear fission : It is the phenomenon of splitting a heavy nucleus into two or more
smaller nuclei.
The nuclear fission of 𝑼𝟐𝟑𝟓
𝟗𝟐 is represented as
𝑼𝟐𝟑𝟓 𝟏 𝟏𝟒𝟏 𝟗𝟐
𝟗𝟐 + 𝒏𝟎 →𝑩𝒂𝟓𝟔 + 𝑲𝒓𝟑𝟔 + 3 𝒏𝟎 + Q
𝟏
The value of the Q is 200 MeV per fission reaction.

(b) Energy released = Δm × 931 MeV
39. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number curve is as shown.
𝑺𝑨𝒁 , 𝑾𝑨𝟏 𝑨𝟐 𝑨𝟑
𝒁𝟏 , 𝑿𝒁𝟐 and 𝒀𝒁𝟑 are four nuclei indicated on
the curve.
Based on the graph :
(a) Arrange X, W and S in the increasing order of
stability.
(b) Write the relation between the relevant A and Z
values for the following nuclear reaction.
S→X+W
(c) Explain why binding energy for heavy nuclei is low.
[CBSE 2018]
Ans : (a) S, W, X
(b) Z = Z1 + Z2
A = A1 + A2
(c) Reason for low binding energy : In heavier nuclei, the Coulombian repulsive effects can increase
considerably and can match/offset the attractive effects of the nuclear forces. This can result in such
nuclei being unstable.
CASE STUDY BASED
40. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:
India’s atomic energy programme : The atomic energy programme in India was launched around the
time of independence under the leadership of Homi J. Bhabha (1909-1966). An early historic
achievement was the design and construction of the first nuclear reactor in India (named Apsara) which
went critical on August 4, 1956. India indigenously designed and constructed plutonium plant at
Trombay, which ushered in the technology of fuel reprocessing (separating useful fissile and fertile
nuclear materials from the spent fuel of a reactor). Research reactors that have been subsequently
commissioned include ZERLINA, PURNIMA (I, II and III), DHRUVA and KAMINI. KAMINI is the country’s
first large research reactor that uses U-233 as fuel. The main objectives of the Indian Atomic Energy
programme are to provide safe and reliable electric power for the country’s social and economic
progress and to be self reliant in all aspects of nuclear technology. Exploration of atomic minerals in
India undertaken since the early fifties has indicated that India has limited reserves of uranium, but
fairly abundant reserves of thorium. Accordingly, our country has adopted a three stage strategy of
nuclear power generation. The first stage involves the use of natural uranium as a fuel, with heavy
water as moderator. The Plutonium- 239 obtained from reprocessing of the discharged fuel from the
reactors then serves as a fuel for the second stage — the fast breeder reactors. They are so called
because they use fast neutrons for sustaining the chain reaction (hence no moderator is needed) and,
besides generating power, also breed more fissile species (plutonium) than they consume. The third
stage, most significant in the long term, involves using fast breeder reactors to produce fissile Uranium-
233 from Thorium-232 and to build power reactors based on them.
Q. 1. India’s atomic energy programme was launched by:
(A) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar (B) Homi J. Bhabha
(C) Meghnad Saha (D) Daulat Singh Kothari
Q. 2. First nuclear reactor of India :
(A) APSARA (B) ZERLINA (C) DHRUBA (D) KAMINI
Q. 3. Which one of the following is not a nuclear reactor ?
(A) PURNIMA (B) DHRUVA (C) KAMINI (D) ARYABHATTA
Q. 4. The main objectives of the Indian Atomic Energy programme :
(A) Development of Nuclear weapons for success in warfare
(B) Generation of safe and reliable electric power
(C) Efficient medical treatment
(D) To breed more fissile species
Q. 5. India has limited reserves of ................, but fairly abundant reserves of ................. :
(A) Plutonium, Thorium (B) Thorium, Uranium
(C) Plutonium, Uranium (D) Uranium, Thorium
41. Read the following text and answer the following questions on the basis of the same:
Grand Unification Theory :
There are four fundamental forces in the universe :
 Gravitational force
 Electromagnetic force
 The weak nuclear force
 The strong nuclear force
The weak and strong forces are effective only over a very short range and dominate only at the
level of subatomic particles. Gravitational force and Electromagnetic force have infinite range.
The Four fundamental forces and their strengths
(i) Gravitational Force – Weakest force; but has infinite range.

(ii) Weak Nuclear – Force Next weakest; but short range.
(iii) Electromagnetic Force – Stronger, with infinite range.
(iv) Strong Nuclear Force – Strongest; but short range.
Unification : The weak nuclear force and electromagnetic force have been unified under
the Standard Electroweak Theory, (Glashow, Weinberg and Salaam were awarded the Nobel
Prize for this in 1979).
Grand unification theories attempt to treat both strong nuclear force and electroweak force
under the same mathematical structure. Theories that add gravitational force to the mix and try
to unify all four fundamental forces into a single force are called Super unified Theories. It has
not yet been successful.
Q1: What are the 4 fundamental forces ?
(A) Gravitational force, electromagnetic force, nuclear force, Tension force
(B) Gravitational force, electromagnetic force, nuclear force, Frictional force
(C) Gravitational force, electromagnetic force, weak nuclear force, strong nuclear force
(D) Frictional force, electric force, nuclear force, magnetic force
Q2: Which fundamental force is always attractive ?
(A) Electric force (B) Magnetic force
(C) Gravitational force (D) Strong nuclear force
Q3: Which two fundamental forces have been unified by Standard Electroweak Theory ?
(A) Weak nuclear force and electromagnetic force
(B) Strong nuclear force and electromagnetic force
(C) Gravitational force and electromagnetic force
(D) Weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force
Q4 : Which one is the weakest force ?
(A) Weak nuclear force (B) Electromagnetic force
(C) Strong magnetic force (D) Gravitational force
Q5: Which of the following forces have infinite ranges?
(A) Weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force
(B) Gravitational force and Electromagnetic force
(C) Weak nuclear force and Gravitational force
(d) All the forces
42. Mass Defect and Binding Energy
An atom comprises a nucleus at the center and electrons revolving around it in an orbital fashion.
Nuclei constitute of Protons and Neutrons, Combined called nucleons. Thus, we expect that mass of
the nucleus will be the same as the sum of individual masses of neutrons and protons. But it is not true.
The total mass of the nucleus (M) is less than the sum of individual masses of neutrons and protons
which in fact constitutes it. This difference in the mass is called mass defect given by,
Δm = Z mp + (A – Z) mn – M
According to Einstein’s theory of relativity, The mass-energy is equivalent. That is the mass of a system
measures the total energy of the system. Given by the famous equation E=mc2. Hence, it is implied
that the total energy of the nucleus is less than the sum of the energies of individual protons and
neutrons(nucleons). This implies that when the nucleus disintegrates into constituent nucleons
releasing some energy in the form of heat energy. (Exothermic reaction). The energy emitted here is
mathematically expressed using
Now imagine the situation of breaking the nucleus. To attain this, a certain amount of energy is put
into the system. The amount of energy required to achieve this is called nuclear binding energy. Thus,
we can define nuclear binding energy as, “The minimum energy required to separate nucleons into its
constituent protons and neutrons.” and is given by-
Q. 1. Which of the following particles are constituents of the nucleus

(a) Protons and electrons (b) Protons and neutrons
(c) Neutrons and electrons (d) Neutrons and positrons
Q. 2. The particles which can be added to the nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical
properties are called
(a) Electrons (b) Protons (c) Neutrons (d) None of the above
Q. 3. The mass number of a nucleus is
(a) Always less than its atomic number (b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Always equal to its atomic number (d) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its
atomic number
Q. 4. The energy equivalent of 1 kilogram of matter is about
-15 -12 -17
(a) 10 J (b) 1 J (c) 10 J (d) 10 J
Q. 5. If the binding energy of the deuterium is 2.23 MeV. The mass defect given in a.m.u. is
(a) – 0.0024 (b) – 0.0012 (c) 0.0012 (d) 0.0024
MIND MAPS
SEMICONDUCTOR DEVICES
Multiple choice questions:
Q1. What bonds are present in a semiconductor?
A.Monovalent. b.Bivalent c.Trivalent. d.Covalent
Answer: (d) Covalent
Q2.What happens to the forbidden energy gap of a semiconductor with the fall of
temperature?
A. Decreases. B.Increases. c.Unchanged
D.Sometimes decreases and sometimes increases
Answer: (b) Increases
Q3.In a p-type semiconductor, the current conduction is due to
A Holes. B Atoms. C Electrons. D Protons
Answer: (a) Holes
Q4. In a semiconductor, what is responsible for conduction?
A Electrons only. B.Holes only
C.Both electrons and holes. D.Neither electrons nor holes
Answer: © Both electrons and holes
Q5.What happens to the resistance of semiconductors on heating?
A.Increases. b.Decreases. c.Remains the same. D.First increases later decrease
Answer: (b) decreases
Q6. In intrinsic semiconductors at room temperature, the number of electrons and holes
are
A.Unequal. b.Equal. c.Infinite. d.Zero
Answer: (b) Equal
Q7. A p-type semiconductor is
A.Positively charged. B.Negatively charged. C.Uncharged. d.None of the above
Answer: C. Uncharged
Q8. In a semiconductor
(a) there are no free electrons at 0 K
(b) there are no free electrons at any temperature
© the number of free electrons increases with pressure
(d) the number of free electrons is more than that in a conductor
Answer: (a)
Q9. Let nh and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic
semiconductor. Then
(a) Nh> ne (b) nh = ne (c) nh< ne (d) nh ≠ ne
Answer
Answer: (d)
Q10. The impurity atoms with which pure silicon may be doped to make it a p-type
semiconductor are those of
(a) Phosphorus (b) boron (c) antimony (d) nitrogen
Answer: (b)
Q11. The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be increased by
(a) increasing the temperature
(b) doping acceptor impurities
© doping donor impurities
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q12. The resistivity of a semiconductor at room temperature is in between
(a) 10–2 to 10–5 Ω cm (b) 10–3 to 106 Ω cm (c) 106 to 108 Ω cm (d) 1010 to 1012 Ω cm
Answer: (b)
Q13. In a semiconductor, the forbidden energy gap between the valence band and the
conduction band is of the order is
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 Mev (c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV
Answer: ©
Q14. The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal at 0 K is
(a) 0.071 eV (b) 0.71 eV (c) 2.57 eV (d) 6.57 eV
Answer: (b)
Q15. In a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor valence band is
(a) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(b) close to conduction band of the host crystal
© below the conduction band of the host crystal
(d) above the conduction band of the host crystal
Answer: (a)
Q16. In an n-type semiconductor, donor valence band is
(a) above the conduction band of the host crystal
(b) close to the valence band of the host crystal
© close to the conduction band of the host crystal
(d) below the valence band of the host crystal
Answer: ©
Q17. The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes because
(a) they are light
(b) they carry negative charge
© they mutually collide less
(d) they require low energy to continue their motion
Answer: (a)
Q18. When an impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor,
The conductivity of the semiconductor
(a) increases (b) decreases
© remains the same (d) becomes zero
Answer: (a)
Assertion reason:
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
© If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q1. Q.1. Assertion : A pure semiconductor has negative temperature coefficient of
resistance.
Reason : In a semiconductor on raising the temperature, more charge carriers are
released, conductance increases and resistance decreases.
Answer (a)
Q.2. Assertion : If the temperature of a semiconductor is increased then its resistance
decreases.
Reason : The energy gap between conduction band and valence band is very small.
Answer. (a)
Q.3. Assertion : In semiconductors, thermal collisions are responsible for taking a valence
electron to the conduction band.
Reason : The number of conduction electrons go on increasing with time as thermal
collisions continuously take place.
Answer c
Q.4. Assertion : A p-type semiconductors is a positive type crystal.
Reason : A p- type semiconductor is an uncharged crystal.
Answer (d)
Q.5. Assertion : Silicon is preferred over germanium for making semiconductor devices.
Reason : The energy gap in germanium is more than the energy gap in silicon.
Answer©
Q6. Assertion : Electron has higher mobility than hole in a semiconductor.
Reason : The mass of electron is less than the mass of the hole.
Answer A
Q7.Assertion : The number of electrons in a p-type silicon semiconductor is less than the
number of electrons in a pure silicon semiconductor at room temperature.
Reason : It is due to law of mass action.
Answer A
Q8. Assertion : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is from the p-side to the n-side.
Reason : The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current when the
junction is in forward biased.
Answer (b)
Q9 Assertion : The drift current in a p-n junction is from the n-side to the p-side.
Reason : It is due to free electrons only.
Answer A
Q10. Assertion : A p-n junction with reverse bias can be used as a photo-diode to measure
light intensity.
Reason : In a reverse bias condition the current is small but it is more sensitive to changes in
incident light intensity.
Answer A
Very short question answer:
Q1. What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction when it is
(i) Forward biased,
(ii) Reverse biased?
Answer:
(i) In forward biased, the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction decreases.
(ii) In reverse biased, the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction increases
Q2. What is the difference between an H-type and a p-type intrinsic semiconductor?
Answer
Q3 . How does the depletion region of a p-n junction diode get affected under reverse
bias?
Answer:Depletion region widens under reverse bias.
Q4. How does the width of depletion region of a p-n junction diode change under
forward bias?
Answer:The width of depletion region of a p-n junction.
Q5. Show variation of resistivity of Si with temperature in a graph.
Answer:
Short answer type questions:

Q1.Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a
half-wave rectifier.
Ans.p-n Junction Diode as a Half-Wave Rectifier AC voltage to be rectified is connected to
the primary coil of a step-down transformer. Secondary coil is connected to the diode
through resistors Rj,, across which output is obtained.
Working During positive half cycle of the input AC, the p-n junction is forward biased.
Thus, the resistance in p-n junction becomes low and current flows. Hence, we get
output in the load.
During negative half cycle of the input AC, the p-n junction is reverse biased. Thus, the
resistance of p-n junction is high and current does not flow. Hence, no output in the
load. So, for complete cycle of AC, current flows through the load resistance in the same
direction.
Circuit diagram from NCERT textbook.
Q2.Draw energy band diagram of n-type and p-type semiconductor at temperature T >
OK. Mark the donar and acceptor energy level with their energies.
Answer: Energy band diagram from NCERT textbook.
Q3.Distinguish between a metal and an insulator on the basis of energy band diagram.
Ans.(i) Metal For metals, the valence band is completely filled and the conduction band
can have two possibilities either it is partially filled with an extremely small energy gap
between the valence and conduction bands or it is empty, with two bands overlapping
each other.
(Ii)On applying an small even electric field, metals can conduct electricity.
(i) Insulators : for insulator, the energy gap between the conduction and valence bands
are very large, also the conduction band is practically empty.
(Ii)When an electric field is applied across such a solid, the electrons find it difficult to
acquire. So, a large amount of energy is required to reach the conduction band.Thus, the
conduction band continues to be empty. That is why no current flows through insulators.
Q4.Write two characteristics features to distinguish between n-type and p-type
semiconductors.
Answer. Characteristics from NCERT textbook.
Q5.How is forward biasing different from reverse biasing in a p-n junction diode?
Answer: NCERT textbook
Q6.Explain, how a depletion region is formed in a junction diode?
Ans. With the formation of p-n junction, the holes from p-region diffuse into the n-
region and electrons from n-region diffuse into p-region and electron-hole pair combine
and get annihilated.
This input produces potential barrier, VB across in junction which opposes the further
diffusion through the junction. Thus, small region forms in the vicinity of the junction
which is depleted of free charge carrier and has only immotile ions is called the
depletion region.
Q7.Draw the circuit diagram showing how a p-n junction diode is
(i)forward biased
(ii)reverse biased.
How is the width of depletion layer affected in the two cases?
Answer.Circuit diagram From NCERT textbook.
The width of depletion layer (i) decreases in forward bias.
(iii) Increases in reverse bias.
Long answer type questions:
Q1. .(i) Draw the typical shape of the V-I characteristics of a p-n junction diode both in (a)
forward(b)reverse bias configuration. How do we infer, from these characteristics that a
diode can be used to rectify alternating voltages?
(iii) Draw the circuit diagram of a full-wave rectifier using a centre-tap transformer
and two p-n junction diodes. Give a brief description of the working of this
circuit.
Ans.(i) p-n Junction A p-n junction is an arrangement made by a close contact of n-type
semiconductor and p-type semiconductor.There are various methods of forming p-n junction
diode. In one method, an n-type germanium crystal is cut into thin slices called wafers. An
aluminium film is laid on an n-type wafer which is then heated in an oven at a temperature
of about 600°C. Aluminium then diffuses into the surface of wafer. In this way, a p-type
semiconductor is formed on n-type semiconductor.
Formation of Depletion Region in p-n Junction In an n-type semiconductor, the
concentration of electrons is more than concentration of holes. Similarly, in a p-type
semiconductor, the concentration of holes is more than that of concentration of electrons.
During formation of p-n junction and due to the concentration gradient across p and n-sides,
holes diffuse from p-side to n-side ( p—> n) and electrons diffuse from n-side to p-side (n —
> p).
The diffused charge carriers combine with their counterparts in the immediate vicinity of the
junction and neutralise each other, (l) Thus, near the junction, positive charge is built on n-
side and negative charge on p-side This sets up potential difference across the junction and
an internal electric field Ej directed from n-side to p-side. The equilibrium is established
when the field £, becomes strong enough to stop further diffusion of the majority charge
carriers (however, it helps the minority charge carriers to diffuse across the junction).The
region on either side of the junction which becomes depleted (free) from the mobile charge
carriers is called depletion region or depletion layer. The width of depletion region is of the
order of 10-6 m.The potential difference developed across the depletion region is called the
potential barrier. Potential barrier depends on dopant concentration in the semiconductor
and temperature of the junction.
(a) Forward Biased Characteristics
The circuit diagram for studying forward biased characteristics is shown in the figure.
Starting from a low value, forward bias voltage is increased step by step (measured by
voltmeter) and forward current is noted (by ammeter). A graph is plotted between voltage
and current. The curve so obtained is the forward characteristic of the diode.
The start when applied voltage is low, the current through the diode is almost zero. It is
because of the potential barrier, which opposes the applied voltage. Till the applied voltage
exceeds the potential barrier, the current increases very slowly with increase in applied
voltage (OA portion of the graph).With further increase in applied voltage, the current
increases very rapidly (AB portion of the graph), in this situation, the diode behaves like a
conductor. The forward voltage beyond which the current through the junction starts
increasing rapidly with voltage is called knee voltage. If line AB is extended back, it cuts the
voltage axis at potential barrier voltage.
(b) Reverse Biased Characteristics
The circuit diagram for studying reverse biased characteristics can be described in the figure.
In reverse biased, the applied voltage supports the flow of minority charge carriers across
the junction. So, a very small current flows across the junction due to minority charge
carriers.
Motion of minority charge carriers is also supported by internal potential barrier, so all the
minority carriers cross over the junction.Therefore, the small reverse current remains almost
constant over a sufficiently long range of reverse bias, increasing very little with increasing
voltage (OC portion of the graph). This reverse current is voltage independent upto certain
voltage known as breakdown voltage and this voltage independent current – is called
reverse saturation current.
Use of p-n Junction Characteristics in Rectification
From forward and reverse characteristics, it is clear that current flows through the junction
diode only in forward bias not in reverse bias i.e. current flows only in one direction.
Q2. Describe briefly, with the help of a diagram, the role of the two important processes
involved in the formation of a p-n junction.
Answer. The two process involved in the formation of p-n junction.
(a)Diffusion
(b)Drift
Holes and electrons diffuse from p to n and n to p respectively.
The majority charge carrier drifts under the influence of applied electric field such that
(a)holes along applied E and
(b)electron opposite to E.
Q3. How is a depletion region formed in p-n junction?
(ii)With the help of a labelled circuit diagram. Explain how a junction diode is used as a full-
wave rectifier. Draw its input, output wave forms.
(iii)How do you obtain steady DC output from the pulsating voltage?
Ans.(i) p-n Junction A p-n junction is an arrangement made by a close contact of n-type
semiconductor and p-type semiconductor.There are various methods of forming p-n junction
diode. In one method, an n-type germanium crystal is cut into thin slices called wafers. An
aluminium film is laid on an n-type wafer which is then heated in an oven at a temperature
of about 600°C. Aluminium then diffuses into the surface of wafer. In this way, a p-type
semiconductor is formed on n-type semiconductor.
Formation of Depletion Region in p-n Junction In an n-type semiconductor, the
concentration of electrons is more than concentration of holes. Similarly, in a p-type
semiconductor, the concentration of holes is more than that of concentration of electrons.
During formation of p-n junction and due to the concentration gradient across p and n-sides,
holes diffuse from p-side to n-side ( p—> n) and electrons diffuse from n-side to p-side (n —
> p).
The diffused charge carriers combine with their counterparts in the immediate vicinity of the
junction and neutralise each other, (l) Thus, near the junction, positive charge is built on n-
side and negative charge on p-side This sets up potential difference across the junction and
an internal electric field Ej directed from n-side to p-side. The equilibrium is established
when the field £, becomes strong enough to stop further diffusion of the majority charge
carriers (however, it helps the minority charge carriers to diffuse across the junction).The
region on either side of the junction which becomes depleted (free) from the mobile charge
carriers is called depletion region or depletion layer. The width of depletion region is of the
order of 10-6 m.The potential difference developed across the depletion region is called the
potential barrier. Potential barrier depends on dopant concentration in the semiconductor
and temperature of the junction.
Case study base questions:
Q1.When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = Vk, called
knee voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for p-n
junction,the potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with increase in
forward voltage. When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse bias voltage produces a very
small current about a few microamperes which almost remains constant with bias. This small
current is reverse saturation current.
(I)In which of the following figures, the p-n diode is forward biased.
(ii) Based on the V-I characteristics of the diode, we can classify diode as
(a) bi-directional device (b) ohmic device
© non-ohmic device (d) passive element
(iii) The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse
bias resistance is
(a) 100 (b) 106 (c) 10 (d) 10-6
(iv) In the case of forward biasing of a p-n junction diode, which one of the following figures
correctly depicts the direction of conventional current (indicated by an arrow mark)?
(v) If an ideal junction diode is connected as shown, then the value of the current I is
(a) 0.013 A (b) 0.02 A (c) 0.01 A (d) 0.1 A 5
(a)
Q2.
Rectifier is a device which is used for converting alternating current or voltage into direct
current or voltage. Its working is based on the fact that the resistance of p-n junction
becomes low when forward biased and becomes high when reverse biased. A half-wave
rectifier uses only a single diode while a full wave rectifier uses two diodes as shown in
figures (a) and (b) .
(I)If the rms value of sinusoidal input to a full wave rectifier is V02√
Then the rms value of the rectifier’s output is
(a) V02√
(b) V202√
© V202
(c) 2√V20
(Ii)In the-diagram, the input ac is actoss the terminals A and C. The output across Band D is
(a)Same as the input (b) half wave rectified (c) zero(d) full wave rectified
(iii) A bridge rectifier is shown in figure. Alternating input is given across A and C. If output is
taken across BD, then it is
(a) Zero (b) same as input (c) half wave rectified (d) full wave rectified(iv) A p-n
junction (D) shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. An alternating current source
(V) is connected in the circuit. The current (I) in the resistor® can be shown by
(iv) With an ac input from 50 Hz power line, the ripple frequency is

(v)
(a) 50 Hz in the dc output of half wave as well as full wave rectifier
(b) 100 Hz in the de output of half wave as well as full wave rectifier
© 50 Hz in the de output of half wave and 100 Hz in dc output offull wave rectifier
(d) 100 Hz in the dc output of half wave and 50 Hz
Q3.
From Bohr’s atomic model, we know that the electrons have well defined energy levels in an
isolated atom. But due to interatomic interactions in a crystal, the electrons of the outer
shells are forced to have energies different from those in isolated atoms. Each energy level
splits into a number of energy levels forming a continuous band.The gap between top of
valence band and bottom of the conduction band in which no allowed energy levels for
electrons can exist is called energy gap.
(i) In an insulator energy band gap is
(a) Eg= 0 (b) Eg< 3eV (c) Eg> 3eV (d) None of the above(ii) In a semiconductor,
separation between conduction and valence band is of the order of
(a) 0 eV (b) 1 eV (c) 10 eV (d) 50 eV(iii) Based on the band theory of
conductors, insulators and semiconductors, the forbidden gap is smallest in
(a) conductors (b) insulators (c) semiconductors (d) All of these(iv) Carbon, silicon and
germanium have four valence electrons each. At room temperature which one of the
following statements is most appropriate?
(a) The number of free electrons for conduction is significant only in Si and Ge but small in C.
(b) The number of free conduction electrons is significant in C but small in Si and Ge.
© The number of free conduction electrons is negligibly small in all the three.
(d) The number offree electrons for conduction is significant in all the three.(v) Solids having
highest energy level partially filled with electrons are
(a) semiconductor (b) conductor (c) insulator (d) none of these 5
(a)

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Xii Physics Study Material 2023-24

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KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN

Mr. Lalit Mohan Bisht

Ms. Swati Agarwal

Mr. Surjit Singh

SNO. NAME OF KV NAME OF PGT

29 Dehradun, ITBP (1st Shfit) Sh.V.K Naudiyal

38 Gauchar, ITBP Mr. Kuldeep Daundiyal

Q6. What is the dielectric constant of a metal?

Q9. The force per unit charge is known as

Assertion and Reason questions electric charges and field

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Very Short Answers Questions

Short Answers Questions

Long Answers Questions

Case Study Question on Electric Charges and Field

(i) What will be the value of electric field in region (I)

(i)what is the charge in the body for 100 eccess electron

(a) 3.2 × 10-18 C

The electric field is parallel to the liquid flow.

The formula for electric flux

What is the Dimensional formula of electric flux?

I refer to the Current

L refers to the Length

T refers to the Time

M refers to the Mass.

What is the SI unit of electric flux?

(i) Which of the following is correct about electric flux

BASIC CONCEPTS (MASTER CARD)

(ii) at its equatorial position, V = 0

(c) due to a system of charges is

Electrical potential energy of electric dipole in an electrostatic field

 Conductors and insulators

 Free and Bound Charges Inside a Conductor

 Dielectrics and electric polarization

 Conductor and Dielectric in the Presence of External Electric Field.

 Capacitors and Capacitance

The unit of capacitance is coulomb/volt or farad (F).

 Combination of capacitors in series and in parallel

Net charge Q=q1= q2 = q3 (remains same)

 Energy stored in a capacitor

This energy resides in the medium between the plates.

where E is electric field strength. The unit is joule/m3(J/m3)

One mark questions:

9. If n number of equal capacitors each of capacitance Care connected

(a) 1µF (b) 2µF (c) 3µF (d) 4µF

7. Find the net capacitance between A and B :

Three marks Questions:

Ans. (i) 6/7µC (ii) 21 μJ

Five Marks Questions:

CASE BASED QUESTIONS: ( 4 Marks Each)

1. Dielectric with polar molecules also develops a net dipole moment in an

(3) Dipoles are created when dielectric is placed in __________

(4) Identify which type of polarisation depends on temperature.

(iv) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 pF has separation between the

2. (a) Define resistance of a conductor. Write its S.I. unit.

Short Answer Questions(2 Marks)

5. (i) Define mobility of a charge carrier. Write its S.I. unit.

8. In the given circuit, assuming point A to be at

Long Answer Questions(5 Marks)

Case Based Questions

Assertion and Reason (10q):

Case Study Based (3q):

Case Study Question 2: