Test Date: 22/03/2022 Phase-I

C
CODE

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs FINAL TEST SERIES (ONLINE) MM : 300

for JEE (Main) - 2022

Test – 23
Topics Covered :

Physics : Gravitation, Mechanical Properties of Solids, Mechanical Properties of Fluids,

Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics, Kinetic Theory of Gases,
Oscillations, Waves
Chemistry : Equilibrium, Redox Reactions, Hydrogen, The s-Block Elements, The p-Block
Elements (XIth Syllabus), Organic Chemistry (Some Basic Principles and
Techniques), Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry
Mathematics : Trigonometric Functions (Transformation Formulae, Trigonometric Equations,
Properties of Triangle, Height & Distance), Straight Lines (Including Pair of Straight
Lines), Conic Sections-I (Circle), Conic Sections-II (Parabola, Ellipse and
Hyperbola), Mathematical Reasoning.

General Instructions:

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and

Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer.

Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five questions out

of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries

4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

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Test-23_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I

PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION - I 1

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 

(3) v 02 +
GM
ln
(
5 −2 ) 2

20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE


2R (
3+2 2 ) 

is correct. 1

(4) 2v 02 +
GM
ln
(
5 −2 ) 2

1. Consider the arrangement shown in figure. A
thin rod (mass M and length 4R) and a sphere


2R (
3+2 2 ) 

of equal mass M and radius R are located as 3. If a rod of mass M is attached at end of two
shown in figure. The centre of the sphere being wire (1) and (2) as shown in figure. If l1 and l2
at a distance 2R from the centre of the rod on are the elongation of wire 1 and 2 respectively
its perpendicular bisector. Assume that the due to weight of rod, then (Symbols have their
system of rod and sphere is in gravity free usual meaning)
space. Find the force acting on the rod due to
1 2
sphere. 2Y, A, 2L Y, A, L
2R 2R T2
M

R T1
y M
R
x (1) l 2 = 4l1 (2) l1 = 4l 2
M
(3) l1 = l 2 (4) l1 = 2l 2

4. Which of the following is the equation of

(1)
GM 2
4 2R 2
( j) (2)
GM 2
4R 2
(− j ) standing wave?
(1) Y = 2sin(50t – x)
(3)
GM 2
4 2R 2
(− j ) (4)
GM 2
2 2R 2
(− j ) (2) Y = cos(100t – 2x)
(3) Y = 4sin(20t – 40x)
2. A rod of mass M and length 2R is placed along
(4) Y = 2sin(2x)cos(50t)
the axis of ring of mass M and radius R. The
centers of ring and rod coinciding initially. If rod Re g
5. A particle is projected with speed v 0 =
is fixed and ring is given velocity v0 along the 2
rod, then find velocity of ring when it reaches as shown. Maximum height attained by particle
the end of rod (Consider the mutual gravitation from surface of earth, will be (Re : radius of
earth)
force only)

1

(1) v 02 +
GM
ln 
(
2 + 5 2 )


R (
3+2 2 
 )
1 Re 4Re

(2) 2v 02 +
GM
ln 
(
2 + 5 2 ) (1)
3
(2)
3


R (
3+2 2 
 ) (3)
Re
(4) Re
4
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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I Test-23_ (Code-C)

6. How much heat must be supplied to convert   2R   2

(1)  P0 + 0 g  H +   R j
1 kg ice at –10°C to steam at 100°C. (Take   3 
specific heat of ice Si = 0.5 cal/gm°C, latent
2
(2) R 30 g j
heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm and latent heat 3
of vaporization = 540 cal/gm)
  2R   2
(3)  P0 − 0 g  H +   R j
(1) 725 kcal (2) 820 kcal   3 
(3) 830 kcal (4) 735 kcal (4) Zero
7. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACB of 10. A massless vessel containing liquid is placed
same conductivity k carries an amount of heat over smooth horizontal surface. At the bottom
H. The ADB part is now replaced with another of the vessel there exist a hole of cross-
metal keeping the temperatures T1 and T2 sectional area = A0. Liquid is flowing out
constant. The heat carried increases to 2H. horizontally from the vessel due to which the
vessel (cross-sectional area = 50A0) accelerate.
What should be the conductivity of the new
What is the acceleration (approximately) of the
ACB
ADB part? Given = 3. vessel when half of the liquid is drained out
ADB
from the vessel (g → acceleration due to
gravity)

7
(1) k (2) 2k
3
 g
5 (1)  
(3) k (4) 3k  50 
2
 g
8. A sine wave is travelling in a medium. The (2)  
 25 
minimum distance between the two particles,
 g 
always having same speed, is (3)  
 100 
 
(1) (2)  g
4 3 (4)  
5

(3) (4)  11. The specific heat of alcohol is about half that of
2
water. Suppose you have identical masses of
9. A closed hemisphere of radius R is placed alcohol and water. The alcohol is initially at
inside a container having liquid of density 0 up temperature TA. The water is initially at a
to the height H from its flat surface as shown. different temperature TW. Now the two fluids are
Then force on curved surface of hemisphere mixed in the same container and allowed to
come into thermal equilibrium, with no loss of
due to liquid will be
heat to the surroundings. The final temperature
of the mixture will be
(1) Closer to TA than TW
(2) Closer to TW than TA
(3) Exactly halfway between TA and TW
(4) Dependent on the volume of alcohol used

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Test-23_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I

12. Calculate the velocity of the transverse wave in

a string which is stretched by a load of
15 kg. The mass of string is 3 × 10–2 kg and its
length is 2 m. (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 100 m/s

(2) 95 m/s

(3) 90 m/s

(1) 2  RT ( i ) (2) 4  RT ( −i )
(4) 92 m/s
13. For a certain pipe, three successive resonance
frequencies are observed at 425, 595 and 765 (3) Zero (4) 2  RT ( −i )
Hz. The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s. The 18. Which of the following is a V-T curve for
pipe is a isobaric process?
(1) Closed pipe of length 1 m

(2) Closed pipe of length 2 m

(1) (2)
(3) Open pipe of length 1 m

(4) Open pipe of length 2 m

14. Two identical wire under same tension emits a
note of frequency 100 Hz. If tension in one of
(3) (4)
the wire is changed by 4%, the beat frequency
is

(1) 2 Hz (2) 4 Hz 19. A sample of gas is going through cyclic

process, work-done by gas is
(3) 6 Hz (4) 3 Hz
15. 1 gram ice at 0°C and 1 gram vapour at 100°C
are mixed together. Assuming no heat loss, the
final temperature of the mixture will be
(1) 50°C (2) 10°C
(3) 20°C (4) 100°C
16. The density of a substance decreases from
10 × 10–3 kg m–3 to 7 × 10–3 kg m–3 on heating it
(1) r1 (2) r2
from 0°C to 100°C. The coefficient of linear 2 2

expansion, of substance, is nearly


(1) 4 × 10–3 (°C)–1 (3) ( r1r2 ) (4) Both (1) & (2)
4
(2) 3 × 10–3 (°C)–1
20. An ideal gas is expanding such that
(3) 10–3 (°C)–1 PT2 = constant. The coefficient of volume
(4) 2 × 10–3 (°C)–1 expansion of the gas is

17. Consider a small soap bubble inside a large 1 2

(1) (2)
container having soap solution. Force due to Ist T T
half of soap bubble on IInd half due to surface 3 4
(3) (4)
tension will be (R → radius of bubble) T T

[4]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I Test-23_ (Code-C)

SECTION - II y are in cm and t in sec. Wavelength of any

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section component progressive wave is___ cm.
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five 27. A vessel containing liquid of density 0 is
questions out of 10. The answer to each question moving with an acceleration 10 m/s2 in vertical
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter x–y plane as shown. If the value of (PB – PA) is
the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
n0. Then find value of n (PA and PB are the
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30) pressure at A and B). (g = 10 m/s2) (Assume all
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric values are in S.I. unit)
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
21. The equation of stationary wave in a stretched
string is given by y = 5 sin (x/3) cos (4t)
where, x and y are in cm and t is in second.
The separation (in cm) between two adjacent
nodes is
22. A cyclic process ABC is performed on one mole
of an ideal gas TA = 350 K and TB = 370 K. A
total of 50R of heat is withdrawn from the gas in 28. Consider a thin layer of liquid of thickness t, a
the complete cycle. Magnitude of work done by cubical block of mass m, side length a is placed
the gas during process B → C is kR. The value over thin layer of liquid as shown in diagram.
of k is ____ Value of force F, to maintain constant velocity
T C v0 up the inclined plane is 3mg, then coefficient
B
nmgt
A of viscosity of liquid is . Find value of n.
v 0 a2
V

23. The ends of a uniform metre stick of iron are

maintained at 80°C and 30°C. One end of
another rod is maintained at 50°C. Where
should its other end be touched from cold end
(in cm) on the metre stick so that there is no 29 If the surface tension of soap solution is T, then
heat current in the rod in steady state?
work to be done to increase the radius from 2r
24. A liquid cools from 70°C to 60°C in 5 minute. to 3r, is 10nr2 T. Find the value of n.
Calculate the time taken (in minutes) by the 30. A rod of length L kept on a smooth horizontal
liquid to cool from 60°C to 50°C, if the surface is pulled along its length by a force F.
temperature of the surrounding is constant at
The area of cross section is A and Young’s
30°C (Assume Newton’s law of cooling to be
modulus is Y. If the strain at mid point of rod is
valid).
nF
25. The time period of oscillations (in seconds) of a . Find the value of n.
AY
second pendulum at a height h = 2 × Re (Re :
Radius of earth) is
26. Equation of a stationary wave can be
x
expressed as y = 8 sin cos 20t, where x and
4

[5]
Test-23_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I

PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I 35. Select the incorrect statement about different
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains isotopes of hydrogen.
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 (1) Tritium is radioactive in nature
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE (2) Deuterium is also known as heavy
is correct. hydrogen and it exists mostly in the form of
D2 in nature
31. Which of the following is buffer solution that has
pH less than 7? (pKa of CH3COOH and HCN (3) All three isotopes of hydrogen differ in their
rate of reactions
are 4.75 and 10 respectively)
(4) Ordinary hydrogen has no neutrons
(1) CH3 COONa + HCl
(1L of 0.1 M) (1L of 0.05 M) 36. Select the incorrect statement.
(2) CH3 COOH + HCl (1) Water can act as an acid as well as a base
(1L of 0.1 M) (1L of 0.05 M)
(2) During photosynthesis, water is oxidised to
(3) NH4 OH + NH4 Cl O2
(1L of 0.1 M) (1L of 0.1 M)

(4) NaCN + HCl (3) In molecule CuSO45H2O, all five H2O

(1L of 0.1M) (1L of 0.05 M)
molecules are hydrogen bonded
32. Solubility product (Ksp) of cupric iodate (4) Density of water is maximum at 4°C
[Cu(IO3)2] is 7.4 × 10–8. In which of the following 37. Select the incorrect statement about hydrides.
mixtures, a ppt of cupric iodate will be formed? (1) Ionic hydrides, formed by most of the s-
(1) Equal volume of 0.002 M NaIO3 and 0.002 block elements, are non-conducting in solid
M Cu(ClO3)2 state
(2) Molecular hydrides may act as Lewis acids
(2) Equal volume of 0.001 M NaIO3 and 0.002
(3) Molecular hydrides may act as Lewis bases
M Cu(ClO3)2
(4) Metallic hydrides are almost always
(3) Equal volume of 0.004 M NaIO3 and 0.002
non-stoichiometric and they do not conduct
M Cu(ClO3)2 heat and electricity
(4) Equal volume of 0.02 M NaIO3 and 0.002 M 38. Consider the reaction :
Cu(ClO3)2 2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 ⎯⎯→ Bleaching powder
33. Which of the following order is incorrect against
In product Cl atoms are present in
the mentioned property?
(1) Only +1 oxidation state
(1) Magnitude of hydration enthalpy : Li+ > Na+
(2) Only –1 oxidation state
> K+ > Rb+
(3) +1 and –1 oxidation state
(2) Ionisation enthalpy : Li > Na > K > Rb
(4) –1 and +3 oxidation state
(3) Standard potentials for (M/M+) : Li > Na > K
39. Diborane (B2H6) on combustion give
> Rb
(4) Density : Li < K < Na < Rb (1) Boron (2) Hydrogen

34. Consider the following balanced redox reaction: (3) B2O3 (4) H2B4O7

aFe2+(aq) + bCr2O72–(aq) + cH+(aq) ⎯→ 40. A linear-chain silicone which is blocked at both

the ends contains three Si—O—Si linkage. The
xFe3+(aq) + yCr3+(aq) + zH2O() units taken for synthesis of this silicone
Select the correct relation. hypothetically is
(1) a + b + c = x + y + z (1) 2 units of (CH3)3SiCl and 1 unit of
(2) a + b = x + y (CH3)2SiCl2
(3) a = x, b = 2y and c = 7z (2) 3 units of (CH3)2SiCl2 and 1 unit of
(4) a = x, z = 7b and c = 2z (CH3)3SiCl

[6]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I Test-23_ (Code-C)

(3) 2 units of (CH3)2SiCl2 and 2 units of 45. Among the following statements, the correct
CH3SiCl3 statement(s) is/are
S1 : Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic
(4) 2 units of (CH3)3SiCl and 2 units of
acid.
(CH3)2SiCl2
41. Select the incorrect statement about diborane S2 : Acidic strength of is
(B2H6). greater than acetic acid
(1) Each B-atom is sp3 hybridised
S3 : Acidic strength of is
(2) Maximum 6-atoms in the structure of B2H6
lesser than acetic acid
lie in a plane
(3) It has 3-centre-2-electron bonds
S4 : The acidic strength of
(4) All the B—H bonds are identical is more than C2H5OH
42. Consider the following molecules : (1) Only S1 (2) S1 and S2 only
I. CH3—CH = CH—CH3
(3) S1, S2 and S4 only (4) S1, S3 and S4 only
II. Cl—CH = CH—CH3 46. Consider the following resonating structures
Select the correct statement. and select the correct statement.
(1) For both I and II, cis-isomer have greater
I.
dipole moment than trans
(2) For both I and II, trans-isomer have greater
II.
dipole moment than cis
(3) For I, cis-isomer and for II, trans-isomer III.
have greater dipole moment than their
(1) Stability order of resonating structures is
respective isomer
I > II > III
(4) For I, trans-isomer and for II, cis-isomer (2) In resonance hybrid contribution of
have greater dipole moment than their structure III is maximum
respective isomer (3) Structure I and II contribute equally towards
43. The pair of molecule which are not the resonance hybrid
resonating structures of each other. (4) Stability order of resonating structures is
III > I = II

(1)

47.
(2)
(3)
The product P is
(4)
44. Which of the following is not considered as (1)
resonating structure of p-nitrophenoxide?

(2)
(1) (2)

(3)

(3) (4)
(4)

[7]
Test-23_ (Code-C)
48. Correct statement among the following is
I. Benzene can never show addition reaction.
II. Benzene does not give bromine water test.
III. Benzene can react with O3/Zn/H2O and
forms CHO – CHO.
(1) Only I and II (2) Only II and III
(3) Only III (4) Only II
49. There are some possible reactions given below.
In which reaction, different geometrical isomers
may be produced?
(1) R4 only
(2) R1 and R2 only
(3) R1, R2 and R4 only
(4) R1, R2 and R3 only
50.
In this reaction, FeCl3 act as
(1) Nucleophile
(2) Lewis acid
(3) Lewis base
(4) Solvent activating agent
SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question
is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter
the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
51. The degree of dissociation of N2O4(g) into
NO2(g) at a particular temperature is equal to
0.25 under a total pressure of 3 atm at
[8]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I
equilibrium. The equilibrium pressure is now
changed to X atm where the degree of
dissociation becomes 0.75.
(Consider N2O4 2NO2 )
a
The value of X can be expressed as (a and
b
b are in their simplest ratio). Then find value of
a + b.
52. PCl5(g) dissociates 50% at 300 K into PCl3(g)
and Cl2(g) at 1 atm pressure. Then the value of
sum of G and G° (in kilo joules) for this
process under given conditions are (Assume
reaction is at equilibrium) [Report answer to
nearest integer]
Mo O
53. CH4 + O2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 3

→ A + H2O
Find the molecular weight of product ‘A’
obtained in the above reaction?
54. 3.65 g of HCl is present in 1 L of solution at
25ºC. If x L of water is added such that pH
change by 1 unit at 25ºC, then the value of x is
(Assume no change in volume due to addition
of acid in water)
55. pH of 0.1 M NaHCO3 is (given: pKa1 and pKa2
of H2CO3 is 7 and 10 respectively)
56. 65 mL of x M NaOH solution is treated with 20
mL of 0.2 M HCl solution. The resultant solution
further required 10 mL of 0.3 M H3PO4 solution
for complete neutralisation. Then the value of
10x is
57. A solution of H2O2 is diluted to 10 times of its
initial volume. 20 mL of this diluted solution
requires 10 mL of 0.2 N KMnO 4 for complete
oxidation. Then the volume strength of original
H2O2 solution is
58. 0.85 g of an organic compound is subjected to
Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of nitrogen
present. The ammonia evolved, neutralized
12.75 mL of 1 M H2SO4. Then the percentage
of nitrogen in the compound is
59 The number of alkenes possible with molecular
formula C4H6 is
60. In Carius method for estimation of sulphur, 2 g
of an organic compound gave 4.66 g of barium
sulphate. Then the percentage of sulphur in the
compound is (Atomic mass of Ba = 137)
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I Test-23_ (Code-C)

PART – C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I (1) 5 units (2) 5 3 units
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
(3) 10 3 units (4) 10 units
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE 67. The slopes of the three sides of a triangle PQR
is correct. are –1, –2 and 3. If the orthocentre of the
triangle is at origin, then the locus of the
61. Number of solution(s) of the equation
centroid is given by
 
3tan2x + x3 = 2 in the interval 0,  is m and in
 4 (1) 9x = 2y (2) 9x = –2y

  (3) 2x = 9y (4) 4x = 9y
the interval  ,  is n, then m + n is equal to
4 2
68. If the line y = mx +  (where m and  are
(1) 2 (2) 1 parameters) is a tangent to the hyperbola
(3) 3 (4) 0 xy + 2x – y = 0, then

62. In a triangle ABC, if cotA, cotB, cotC are in (1) m > 0,  > 0 (2) m > 0,  < 0
A.P., then
(3) m < 0,  > 0 (4) m < 0,  < 0
(1) a, b, c are in A.P.
69. The equation of the parabola whose focus is (1,
(2) a, b, c are in G.P.
–1) and whose vertex is (2, 1)
(3) a2, b2, c2 are in A.P.
(4) a2, b2, c2 are in G.P. (1) 4x2 + y2 – 4xy + 8x + 46y – 71 = 0

63. The general solution of x satisfying the equation (2) 4x2 + y2 + 4xy + 8x + 46y – 71 = 0
tan3x – 1 = tan2x (1 + tan3x), is
(3) y2 = 18x
 3
(1) n + ;nZ (2) n  + ;nZ (4) y2 = 18 (x – 3)
2 4
 70. The focus of the parabola (y – 3)2 = 8(x + 2) is
(3) n + ;nZ (4) Non-existent
4 (1) (2, 0) (2) (0, 3)
64. If the angles A, B, C of a triangle ABC are in (3) (0, 2) (4) (3, 0)
A.P. and the sides a, b and c opposite to the
71. The normal to the rectangular hyperbola
angles are in G.P., then a2, b2, c2 are in
xy = 4 at the point t1 meets the curve again at
(1) A.P. (2) G.P.
the point t2. Then the value of t13t2 is
(3) H.P. (4) A.G.P.
(1) 1 (2) 2
65. A tower subtends a right angle at the top of the
(3) –2 (4) –1
hillock and the angle of elevation of the top of
the hillock from the bottom of the tower is 60°. If 72. Which of the following propositions is a
the distance between the tower and the hillock is contradiction?
6 m, then the height of the tower is (1) (~p ~ q)  (p ~ q) (2) (p → q)  (p ~ q)
(1) 8 3m (2) 6 3 m (3) (~p  q)  ( ~ q) (4) (~p  q)  ( ~ q)

(3) 4 3 m (4) 2 3m 73. Let p and q be two statements. Amongst the

following, the statement that is equivalent to
66. For an ellipse having centre at origin, the
p → q, is
distance between foci is 10 units and the
distance between directrices is 40 units. The (1) pq (2) pq
length of minor axis will be (3) pq (4) pq

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Test-23_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2022_PHASE-I

74. The value of c for which line y = 2x + c is SECTION - II

( 5)
2
tangent to circle x + y =
2 2
is Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
(1)  5 (2) ±5
questions out of 10. The answer to each question
(3) ±3 (4) ±1 is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter
75. Negation of logical statement (p → q)  (p  q) is the correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
(1) Contradiction truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
(2) Tautology e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
(3) Neither contraction nor tautology using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
(4) Same as (q → p)  (p → q)
11
76. Two equal sides of an isosceles triangle are 81. If x = tan , then the value of
8
2x + y + 7 = 0 and 2x + 4y – 5 = 0 and its third
side passes through the point (2, –1), then one x4 – 4x3 + 6x2 – 4x is equal to
of the equation of third side is 82. If log0.5 sinx = 1 – log0.5 cosx, then the number
(1) 5x – y – 11 = 0 (2) x – y + 9 = 0 of solutions of x in –2  x  2 is
(3) x + y – 1 = 0 (4) 2x + y – 3 = 0 83. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the
77. A tower of height 5 m and a flagstaff on top of tangents from the point (4, 5) to the circle
the tower subtend equal angles at a point on x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y – 11 = 0 with the pair of radii
the ground, distant 13 m from the base of the
through the points of contact of the tangents is
tower. The height of the flag staff is
84. Two circles of radii 5 cm and 2 cm touch each
485 785
(1) m (2) m other externally and  is the angle contained by
169 144
their direct common tangents. Then sin is
970 485
(3) m (4) m 12 10
36 72 equal to where  equals

x2 y2
78. P and Q are points on ellipse =1 + 85. If n is the number of solutions of equation
a2 b2 1
whose centre is C. The eccentric angle of P and | cot x | = cot x + ; (0 < x < 2), then n
sin x
Q differ by a right angle. If angle PCQ is
equals
minimum, then the eccentric angle of P can be
86. The value of 2 cos20°cos40°cos80° is equal to
  _______
(1) (2)
6 4
87. If two of the straight lines given by 3x3 + 3x2y –
  3xy2 + dy3 = 0, are at right angles, then |d| is
(3) (4)
3 12 equal to _______
79. Tangents are drawn from any point on the line x 88. Consider a circle x2 + y2 – 2x – 4y – 20 = 0 with
– y + 3 = 0 to the parabola y2 = 8x. Then the centre A. If the tangents to the circle at points
variable chord of contact passes through a fixed B(1, 7) and C(4, –2) meet at a point D, then the
point whose coordinates are area of the quadrilateral ABDC is
(1) (3, 2) (2) (2, 4) 89. If A and B are two angles such that sinA + sinB
(3) (3, 4) (4) (4, 1) = 1 and cosA + cosB = 0, then the value of
80. Value of sin47° – sin11° + sin61° – sin25° (36cos2A + 24cos2B) is equal to
equals 90. The number of integral points lying inside both
(1) cos83° (2) sin83° 2 2 2
the circle x + y = 20 and the parabola y = 8x,
(3) sin36° (4) tan36° is________.

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