Form Number : Paper Code

)7//1CMD3/382///4)
English

(7001CMD303820004)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2020 - 2021)

PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE

PHASE (E-LEARNING) : 8, & 9

Test Type : MINOR TEST Test Pattern : NEET(UG)

TEST DATE : 24 - 01 - 2021

Important Instructions

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

1. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

2. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material during the exam.

3. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination.

4. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

5. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer

is harmful.

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2021

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 Leader Course/Phase-8 & 9/24-01-2021
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TOPIC : Ray Optics, Wave Optics, Modern Physics
1. Ratio of intensity of two waves is 25 : 1. If 8. A single slit of width d is placed in the path of
interference occurs, then ratio of maximum and beam of wavelength l. The angular width of
minimum intensity should be :- the central maximum obtained is :-
(1) 25 : 1 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 9 : 4 (4) 4 : 9
d l 2l 2d
2. When a thin transparent plate of thickness 't' (1) (2) (3) (4)
l d d l
and refractive index m is placed in the path of
one of the two interfering waves of light, then 9. A thin prism P1 with angle 4° and made from
the path difference changes by :- glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another thin prism P 2 made from glass of
(m + 1) ( m - 1)
(1) (m + 1)t (2) (m – 1)t (3) (4) refractive index 1.72 to produce dispersion
t t
3. When exposed to sunlight, thin films of oil on without deviation. The angle of prism P 2 is :-
water often exhibit brilliant colors due to the (1) 2.6° (2) 3° (3) 4° (4) 5.33°
phenomenon of :- 10. A prism ABC of angle 30° has its face AC sileved.
(1) interference (2) diffraction A ray of light incident at an angle of 45° at the
(3) dispersion (4) polarisation face AB retraces its path after refraction at face
4. If an interference pattern have maximum and AB and reflection at face AC. The refractive index
minimum intensities in 36 : 1 ratio then what of the material of the prism is :
will be the ratio of amplitudes :- A
(1) 5 : 7 (2) 7 : 4 (3) 4 : 7 (4) 7 : 5
Silvered
5. In a Young's double slit experiment, a slab of 45°
thickness 1.2 mm and refractive index 1.5 is placed
in front of one slit and another slab of thickness
t and refractive index 2.5 is placed in front of the
second slit. If the position of the central fringe B C
remains unaltered, then the thickness t is : 3 4
m (1) 1.5 (2) (3) 2 (4)
(1) 0.4 mm 1
2 3
t1
S1 11. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on one
(2) 0.8 mm
refracting face of a prism of angle 75°. It passes
(3) 1.2 mm
S2 t2 through the prism and is incident on the other
(4) 7 mm m2
face at the critical angle. If the refractive index
6. The conversation going on, in some room, can
of the material of the prism is 2 , the angle
be heared by the person outside the room. The
reason for it is :- of incidence on the first face of the prism is :-
(1) 36° (2) 45°
(1) Interference of sound (2) Reflection of sound
(3) 60° (4) 0°
(3) Diffraction of sound (4) Refraction of sound 12. A ray is incident at an angle of incidence i on
7. A light source of 5000Å wave length produces one surface of a prism of small angle A and
a single slit diffraction. The first minima in emerges normally from the opposite surface.
If the refractive index of the material of the
diffraction pattern is seen, at a distance of 5mm prism is m, the angle of incidence i is nearly
from central maxima. The distance between equal to :-
screen and slit is 2 metre. The width of slit in A A
(1) (2)
mm will be :- m 2m
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.4 mA
(3) mA (4)
(3) 0.2 (4) 2 2
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13. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective 19. A proton, a deutron , an electron and a uranium
of focal length 60 cm and a single eye lens of nucleus all have the same wavelength. The one
focal length 5 cm is focussed on a distant with the maximum kinetic energy will be :-
object is such a way that parallel rays comes (1) Proton (2) Deutron
out from the eye lens. If the object subtends (3) Electron (4) Uranium nucleus
an angle 2° at the objective, the angular width 20. The approximate wavelength of a photon of
of the image :- energy 2.48 eV is :-
(1) 10° (2) 24° (3) 50° (4) 1/6° (1) 500 Å (2) 5000 Å
14. An astronomical telescope has an angular (3) 2000 Å (4) 1000 Å
magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects. 21. In photo electric effect, when the wavelength
The separation between the objective and the of incident radiation is l the kinetic energy of
eye piece is 36 cm and the final image is formed most energetic electron is 4eV. If the
at infinity. The focal length fo of the objective wavelength of incident radiation becomes 2l
and the focal length fe of the eye piece are :- the value of maximum kinetic energy of photo
(1) fo = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm electrons may become :-
(2) fo = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm (1) 2eV (2) 8eV
(3) fo = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm (3) 9.5eV (4) 1.8eV
(4) fo = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm 22. A graph between stopping potential and
15. In a simple microscope, if the final image is located frequency is shown in the figure. According to
at infinity then its magnifying power is :- the graph the value of work function will be
25 D f f maximum for :
(1) (2) (3) (4) V0 (Stopping potential)
f 26 25 D +1
16. An electron of mass m when accelerated A
through a potential difference V has de-broglie B
wavelength l. The de-broglie wavelength C

associated with a proton of mass M accelerated

n (frequency)
through the same potential difference will be :-
(1) Metal A
m m (2) Metal B
(1) l (2) l
M M (3) Metal C
(4) Same for all the metal
M M 23. If the speed of an electron is v and de-broglie
(3) l (4) l
m m wavelegth of the electron is l then the relation
17. For the Bohr's first orbit of circumference 2pr, between l and n will be :-
the de-Broglie wavelength of revolving l l

electron will be :- (1) (2)

(1) 2pr (2) pr n n

1 1 l l
(3) (4)
2pr 4 pr (3) (4)
n n
18. The kinetic energy of an electron is 5eV.
Calculate the de-Broglie wavelength associated 24. A mark at the bottom of a liquid appears to rise
with it :- by 0.1 m. The depth of the liquid is 1 m. The
[h = 6.6 × 10–34 J-s, me = 9.1 × 10–31kg] refractive index of the liquid is :-
(1) 5.47 Å (2) 10.9 Å 9 10
(1) 1.33 (2) (3) (4) 1.5
(3) 2.7 Å (4) 8.2 Å 10 9
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 Leader Course/Phase-8 & 9/24-01-2021
25. A ray of light is incident at an angle i from denser (1) A convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
to rare medium. The reflected and the refracted rays (2) A divergent lens of focal length 100 cm
are mutually perpendicular. The angle of reflection (3) A convergent lens of focal length 100 cm
and the angle of refraction are respectively r and r', (4) A convergent lens of focal length 200 cm
then the critical angle will be : 30. Two lenses are placed in contact with each
other and the focal length of combination is 80
cm. If the focal length of one is 20 cm, then
i r
the power of the other will be :-
(1) 1.66 D (2) 4.00 D
r'
(3) –1.00 D (4) –3.75 D
(1) sin–1 (sin r) (2) sin –1 (tan r') 31. The power of a light source is 100 watt and the
wavelength of light is 300 nm. Calculate the number
(3) sin –1 (tan i) (4) tan–1 (sin i)
of photons per second emitted by the source :-
26. A fish is a little away below the surface of a
(1) 1.5 × 1019 (2) 1.5 × 1020
lake. If the critical angle is 49°, then the fish
(3) 3 × 1019 (4) 3 × 1020
could see things above the water surface within 32. A light source of power 50 watt emitting a
an angular range of q° where : light of wavelength 5000Å, which incident on
Air a surface normally. The surface behaves as
50% perfectly reflecting surface. Find the force
Water q exerted on the surface :-
(1) 25 × 10–6 N (2) 25 × 10–9 N
(3) 15 × 10–8 N (4) 25 × 10–8 N
(1) q = 49° (2) q = 90°
33. When a metal plate is illuminated with a light
1° of wavelength 310 nm, the emission of photo
(3) q = 98° (4) q = 24
2 electrons take place. If the stopping potential
is 2 volts then find the value of work function
27. In the figure shown, for an angle of incidence
45°, at the top surface, what is the minimum of metal plate :-
refractive index needed for total internal (1) 1 eV (2) 2 eV (3) 3 eV (4) 4 eV
reflection at vertical face? 34. A slit of width a illuminated by red light of
wavelength 6500 Å. The first minimum will
45° fall at q = 30o if a is :-
Air
(1) 3250 Å (2) 6.5 × 10–4 mm
m
(3) 1.3 micron (4) 2.6 × 10–4 cm
35. The angle of polarisation for any medium is
2 +1 3 1 60o, what will be the critical angle for this :-
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2 + 1 (1) sin –1 3 (2) tan –1 3
2 2 2
28. A point object O is placed in front of a glass –1 1

rod having spherical end of radius of (3) cos–1 3 (4) sin

3
curvature 30 cm. The image would be formed 36. A beam of unpolarised light is passed first
at (m glass = 1.5) : through a tourmaline crystal A and then
through another tourmaline crystal B oriented
O Air Glass so that its transmission axis is parallel to that
30cm of A. The intensity of the emergent light is I.
15cm
(1) 30 cm left (2) Infinity If A now rotated by 45o in a plane perpendicular
(3) 1 cm to the right (4) 18 cm to the left to the direction of the incident ray, the intensity
29. A lens of power + 2 dioptres is placed in contact of the emergent light will be :-
with a lens of power –1 dioptre. The combination I I I
(1) (2) (3) I (4)
will behave like :- 2 2 4
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 Target : Pre-Medical 2021/24-01-2021
37. Binding energy per nucleon versus mass number image from the mirror after reflection from it of
curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, an object O at the bottom of the beaker is :
Y and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve.
5 cm
The process that would release energy is :
B.E./nucleon in MeV

8.5 Y
10 cm
8.0 X
7.5 W
O
(1) 15 cm (2) 12.5 cm (3) 7.5 cm (4) 10 cm
5.0 Z
42. A ray of light passes from glass having
30 60 90 120
Mass number of nuclei refractive index of 1.6 to air. The angle of
(1) Y ® 2Z (2) W ® X + Z incidence for which the angle of refraction is
(3) W ® 2Y (4) X ® Y + Z twice the angle of incidence is :-
38. Mp denotes the mass of a proton and Mn that (1) sin–1 (4/5) (2) sin –1 (3/5)
of a neutron. A given nucleus, of binding (3) sin –1 (5/8) (4) sin –1 (2/5)
energy B, contains Z protons and N neutrons. 43. Parallel beam of light is incident on the system
The mass M(N, Z) of the nucleus is given by of two convex lenses of focal length
(c is the velocity of light) :- f1 = 20 cm and f2 = 10cm . What should be the
(1) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – Bc2 distance between the two lenses so that rays after
refraction from both the lenses pass undeviated
(2) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + Bc2
(3) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp – B/c2
(4) M(N, Z) = NMn + ZMp + B/c2
39. Two radioactive material X 1 and X 2 have
decay constant 10 l and l respectively. If
f1 f2
initially they have the same number of nuclei,
(1) 60 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 90 cm (4) 40 cm
then the ratio of the number of the nuclei of
44. Figure shows a small concave mirror with CP
X1 and X2 will be 1/e after a time :-
as its principal axis. A ray XY is incident on the
l l l1 l
(1) (2) (3) (4) mirror. Which of the four rays can be the
10l 11l 10l 9l
reflected ray.
40. A point object O is placed infront of a concave
4
mirror of focal length 10 cm. A glass slab of
refractive index µ = 3/2 and thickness 6 cm is Y
3
inserted between the object and mirror. Find
2
image distance when the distance of object is C F P
1
shown in figure (reflected light doesn't pass
through glass slab) :
6 cm X
|||||

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

|
|||||||||

µ = 3/2
45. Select the correct statement.
||||||||||||||||

O
(1) Concave mirror always form real image for
|||||

real object
|

32 cm
(1) 15 cm (2) 5 cm (2) Concave mirror always form virtual image
(3) 20 cm (4) 10 cm for real object
41. Consider the situation shown in figure. Water (3) Concave mirror always form real image for
(µ = 4/3) is filled in a beaker up to a height virtual object
10 cm. A plane mirror is fixed at height of (4) Convex mirror always form virtual image
5 cm from the surface of water. Distance of for virtual object
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 Leader Course/Phase-8 & 9/24-01-2021

TOPIC : Redox, Solution, Surface Chemistry, Electrochemistry.

46. A solution of glucose received from some 53. An ideal solution has two components A and
B. A is more volatile than B. i.e. P°A > P°B and
research laboratory has been marked mole
also P°A > PTotal. If XA and YA are mole fraction
fraction (x) and molality (m) at 10°C when you
of A in liquid and vapour phase then :-
will calculate its molality and mole fraction in (1) XA > YA (2) XA = YA
your laboratory at 24°C you will find :- (3) XA < YA (4) None
(1) Mole fraction (x) and molality (m) 54. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of
(2) Mole fraction (2x) and molality (2m) non-volatile solute is P S and the vapour
æxö æmö pressures of pure solvent in P°. The lowering
(3) Mole fraction ç ÷ and molality ç ÷ in vapour pressure is :-
è2ø è2ø
(4) Mole fraction x and molality change (1) positive (2) negative
slightly. PS P°
47. Normality of 4.9% (w/v) solution of H3PO3 :- (3) (4) P
P° S
(1) 1 N (2) 0.5 N (3) 1.5 N (4) 2 N 55. A solution of A and B contains 70% moles of
48. What volume of a liquid will contain 4 mole ? A. If the equilibrium vapours contains 40%
Molar mass of liquid is 280 and its density is 1.4 g/mL moles of B. Then find ratio of vapour pressure
(1) 0.8 L (2) 4.8 × 1023 of pure A and B :-
(3) 0.4 L (4) 1.6 L 7 9 14 2
49. How much water should be added to 100 mL (1) (2) (3) (4)
2 14 9 7
of centimolar solution of H 2SO 4 to make it 56. Vapour pressure of solution is given as
exactly millinormal (1 centimolar = 10-2molar, PS = 150XA + 200, then P°A and P°B will be :-
1 milli normal = 10-3 normal) :- (1) P°A = 350, P°B = 200 (2) P°A = 200, P°B = 350
(1) 1000 mL (2) 900 mL (3) P°A = 250, P°B = 100 (4) P°A = 100, P°B = 250
(3) 2000 mL (4) 1900 mL 57. Lowering in vapour pressure of a solvent is
N 20 mm Hg when mole fraction of solute is 0.3.
50. 5 mL of 1 N HCl, 20 mL of HCl and 30 mL
2 Find the mole fraction of solvent if same solvent
N has to show vapour pressure lowering of 60
of HCl are mixed together and volume made
3 mm of Hg :-
to one litre. The normality of the resulting (1) 0.9 (2) 0.1 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.3
solution is :-
58. Assuming complete ionisation, the solution
N N N N
(1) (2) (3) (4) having maximum freezing point will be :
5 10 20 40
51. Which of the following statement is correct ? (1) 1 M CaF 2 (2) 1.5 M Al2 (SO4 )3
(1) Molality is always greater than molarity. (3) 2 M NaCl (4) 1 M AgNO3
(2) Normality is always greater than molarity. 59. Which solution will have least vapour
(3) % by volume is temperature independent. pressure?
(4) None (1) 0.5 M glucose (2) 0.5 M BaCl 2
52. The vapour pressure of a given liquid will (3) 0.5 M K2SO4 (4) 0.5 M Na3 PO4
decrease if :- 60. The resistance of 0.1 N solution of formic acid
(1) Surface area of liquid is decreased. is 200 ohm and cell constant is 2cm –1 . The
(2) The volume of liquid in the container is equivalent conductivity (in S cm2 eq–1) of 0.1 N
decreased. formic acid is :-
(3) The volume of the vapour phase is (1)100 (2) 10
increased.
(3) 1 (4) 0.1
(4) The temperature is decreased.

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61. When a concentrated solution of an electrolyte 65. From the following half-cell reactions and their
is diluted ? potentials, which substance is the best reducing agent
(1) Its specific conductance increases
Given :
(2) Its equivalent conductance decreases
4 (eq.) + 2H 2 O( l) + 2e ® HPO 3 + 3OH (eq.); E ° = –1.05V
PO3– – 2– –
(3) Its specific conductance decreases and
equivalent conductance increases
PbO2 (s) + H 2O(l) + 2e – ® PbO(s) + 2OH – (eq.), E° = +0.28V
(4) Both specific and equivalent conductance
increases.
IO 3– (eq.) + 2H 2O( l) + 4e – ® IO – (eq.) + 4OH – (eq.), E° = +0.56V
62. A graph was plotted between molar
conductivity of various electrolytes (NaCl, HCl (1) HPO2– (2) PO3– (3) IO– (4) IO3–
3 4
–1
and NH 4 OH) and c (in moll ) correct
setting :- 66. Co / Co 2 + (C 2 ) || Co 2 + (C1 ) / Co , for this cell DG
is negative if :-
(1) C2 > C1 (2) C1 > C2
I (3) C1 = C2 (4) None
II
67. Calculate the potential of the following cell .
III
Cr / Cr+3 (0.1 M) || Fe2+ (0.01M) / Fe
C
Given :- E°Cr3+/Cr = – 0.74 V
(1) I (NaCl), II (HCl), III (NH4OH)
E°Fe2+/Fe = – 0.44 V :-
(2) I (HCl), II (NaCl), III (NH4OH)
(1) 0.34 V (2) 0.26 V (3) 0.52 V (4) 0.4 V
(3) I (NH4 OH), II (NaCl), III (HCl)
(4) I (NH4 OH), II (HCl), III (NaCl) 68. A dilute aqueous solution of CuSO 4 is
63. Based on the following information arrange electrolysed using platinum electrodes. The
four metals A,B,C and D in order of increasing products at the anode and cathode are :-
ability to act as reducing agents. (1) O2, H2 (2) H2, O2
(I) Only C react with 1 M HCl to give H2 gas.
(II) When A is added to solution of the other (3) O2, Cu (4) S2O82– , H2
metal ions, metallic D is formed but not B
69. Total charge required for the oxidation of
or C.
(1) D < A < C < B 1 mole Mn 3 O 4 into MnO2–
4 in presence of
(2) A < D < C < B alkaline medium is (Mn3O4 ® MnO.Mn2O3) :-
(3) B < D < A < C (1) 5 F (2) 10 F
(4) D < A < B < C
(3) 20 F (4)None
64. The ionic conductivity of Ba+2 and Cl– at infinite
70. In the electrolysis of a CuSO4 solution, how
dilution are 127 and 76 ohm –1 cm 2 eq -1
many grams at Cu are plated out on the cathode
respectively. The equivalent conductivity of
in the time that it takes to liberate 5.6 litre of O2
BaCl 2 at infinity dilution (in ohm–1 cm2 eq–1 )
(g), measured at STP at the anode ?
would be :-
(1) 31.75 (2) 14.2
(1) 203 (2) 279 (3) 101.5 (4) 139.5
(3) 4.32 (4) None
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 Leader Course/Phase-8 & 9/24-01-2021

æwö 75. Given E°Cr +3 / Cr = –0.72 V, E°Fe+2 / Fe = –0.42 V

71. If a 5.24% ç ÷ solution of cane sugar is isotonic
èvø
The potential for the cell

æwö Cr | Cr+3(0.1M) || Fe+2(0.01 M) | Fe is :-

with 1.42% ç ÷ solution of non-electrolyte
èvø (1) 0.26 V (2) 0.339 V

solute, then the molecular weight of solute is (3) –0.399 V (4) –0.26 V
(M.Wt of cane sugar - 342) :- 76. NO2– + H2O ¾® NO3– + 2H+ + ne–
(1) 150g (2) 1262g value of n is :-
(3) 92.6g (4) 100g (1) 1 (2) 2
72. For a given value of degree of dissociation, (3) 3 (4) 4
which of the following have correct Van't Hoff
77. The oxidation state of sulphur in H2S2O8 is:-
factor :-
(1) +2 (2) +4
(1) NaCl, i = 2 + a
(2) Ca(NO3)2, i = 1 + 3a (3) +6 (4) +7

(3) K4 [Fe3(CN)6], i = 1 + 4a 78. The equivalent weight of FeC2O4 in the change

(4) Hg2I2 , i = 1 + 3a FeC2O4 ¾® Fe+3 + CO2 is :-

73. The resistance of decinormal solution of a salt M M

(1) (2)
occupying a volume between two platinum 3 6
electrodes 1.80 cm apart and 5.4 cm2 area was
M M
found to be 32 ohm, then equivalent conductivity (3) (4)
2 1
is :-
79. Match the average oxidation number of central
(1) 104.1 S cm2 eq–1
atom in column-I with column-II.
(2) 52.05 S cm2 eq–1
(3) 0.01041 S cm2 eq–1 Column-I Column-II
(4) 104.1 S m2 eq–1
(A) Brown ring
74. From the following molar conductivities at (P) +8/3
complex
infinite dilution (B) Fe3O4 (Q) +1
–1 2 –1 (C) Caros acid (R) +4/3
Ù¥m for Ba(OH)2 = 457.6 W cm mol
(D) Carbon
–1 2 –1 (S) +6
Ù¥m for BaCl2 = 240.6 W cm mol suboxide

–1 2 –1
Ù¥m for NH4Cl = 129.8 W cm mol (1) A – P; B – Q; C – R; D – S
(2) A – Q; B – P; C – S; D – R
What is the Ù¥m for NH4OH :-
(3) A – Q; B – P; C – R; D – S
(1) 119.15 S cm2 mol–1 (4) A – P; B – Q; C – S; D – R
2 –1
(2) 238.6 S cm mol 80. Which of the following is not a reducing agent?
(3) 346.8 S cm2 mol–1 (1) SO2 (2) H2O2
2 –1
(4) 173.4 S cm mol (3) CO2 (4) NO2

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88. Which one of the following graph represent
–
z (OH )
81. xP4 + yH2O wPH3 + pH2PO2–
the chemical adsorption :-
The value of coefficients y and z are :-
x
(1) 1, 3 (2) 3, 3 ( = amount of adsorption, T = Temperaturee)
m
(3) 3, 1 (4) 2, 1
82. The number of moles of KI oxidised by 1 mol x
m
of KMnO 4 in alkaline medium is :- (1)
(1) 2 mol (2) 1 mol T
(3) 3 mol (4) 0.5 mol
83. Surface tension of lyophilic sols is :-
x
(1) Lower than water (2) More than water m
(2)
(3) Equal to water (4) None
T
84. The gold numbers of protective colloids A, B,
C & D are 0.04, 0.004, 10 and 40 respectively.
The protective power of A, B, C and D are in
order:- x
m
(1) A > B > C > D (3)
(2) B > A > C > D T
(3) D > C > A > B
(4) D > C > B > A
x
85. W hi ch o f th e fo ll ow in g ha s mi ni m u m m
flocculation value for positively charged (4)
sole ? T
–
(1) Cl (2) SO 2–
4 89. Which one of the following is a increasing
order of coagulating power for anion
(3) PO3–
4
(4) [Fe(CN)6]4–
SO2– – 3–
4 , Cl , PO4 , [Fe(CN)6 ]
4–
to coagulate a
86. In the reaction,
positive :-
xBrO3- + yCr+3 + zH2O ® Br2 + CrO4-2 + H+
(1) Cl– > SO42– > PO43– > [Fe(CN)6]4–
the coefficients x, y, z are?
(2) PO43– > SO2–4 > Cl– > [Fe(CN)6]4–
(1) 6, 10, 11 (2) 6, 10, 20
(3) [Fe(CN)6]4– > PO43– > SO2–4 > Cl–
(3) 6, 8, 22 (4) 6, 10, 22
(4) SO2–4 > PO43– > Cl– > [Fe(CN)6]4–
87. In which of the following reaction the change
in oxidation state of sulphur is fractional? 90. Which method is used for the purification of
colloidal solution :-
(1) 2Na2S2O3 + I2 ® Na2S4O6 + 2NaI
(1) Mechanical dispersion
(2) Na2SO3 + H2O +I2 ® Na2SO4 + 2HI
(2) Dialysis
(3) H2S + I2 ® 2HI + S
(3) Peptization
(4) PbS + 4H2O2 ® PbSO4 + 4H2O
(4) Ultrasonic dispersion

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TOPIC : Digestion, Breathing, Circulation, Excretion, Locomotion & Movement, Biotechnology :

Principles and processes and its application, Microbes in human welfare, Strategies for
Enhancement in food production, Living world.
91. Milk protein is curdled into calcium 101. The conducting part of respiratory tract does
paracaseinate by - not help in :-
(1) Maltase (2) Rennin (1) Transport the atmospheric air to the alveoli.
(3) Trypsin (4) Lactase (2) Clear air from foreign particles
92. Emulsification of fats by bile takes place in- (3) Humidifies and bring the air to body temperature
(1) Duodenum (2) Liver (4) Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and air
(3) Stomach (4) Large Intestine 102. How many statements are right ?
93. Stomach is the main site for the digestion of - (A) Nasal chambers are opened into a part of
(1) Fats (2) Carbohydrate pharynx i.e. Nasopharynx
(3) Protein (4) All of these (B) Pharynx is a common path of food and air
94. The hormone involved in the discharge of (C) Epiglottis is a bony, flap like structure
pancreatic juice in mammal is called- which covers glottis
(1) Gastrin (2) Secretin (D) Larynx is a cartilagenous box which
(3) Secretin & CCK (4) Somatostatin produces sound
95. Absence of which of these in bile will make (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
fat digestion difficult- 103. Signet ring shaped cartilage found in larynx is:-
(1) Cholesterol (2) Bile salts (1) Thyroid (2) Cricoid
(3) Pigment (4) HCl (3) Corniculate (4) Arytenoid
96. Bile is formed in- 104. Cartilagenous rings in trachea are incomplete
(1) Gall bladder (2) Liver at which surface :-
(3) Spleen (4) Blood (1) Dorsal (2) Ventral
97. Rennin enzyme is being secreted by :-
(3) Lateral (4) Ventrolateral
(1) Oxyntic cells (2) Chief cells
105. What is the function of basophils ?
(3) Adult stomach (4) All of the above
(1) Secretion of histamine
98. Digestion of starch begins by :-
(2) Phagocytosis
(1) Saliva (2) Chyme
(3) Synthesis of antibodies
(3) Chyle (4) Bile
(4) All of these
99. Which portion of the human respiratory system
106. Ions which play a significant role in blood
is called sound box ?
clotting :-
(1) Larynx (2) Trachea
(3) Nasopharynx (4) Glottis (1) Cl– (2) HCO–3
100. Match the following :- (3) Ca+2 (4) Na+ and Cl–
107. Papillary muscle are found in :-
Column I Column II
(1) Atria of heart
A. Earthworms I. Tracheal tubes
B. Aquatic arthropods II. Lungs (2) Ventricle of brain
C. Molluscs III. Gills (3) Ventricle of heart
D. Terrestrial organismsIV. Moist cuticle (4) Central canal of spinal cord
E. Insects 108. Select the correct option :-
A B C D E (1) Antigens are present on RBC surface
(1) I II III IV III (2) Antibodies are present in plasma
(2) IV III III II I (3) Basophils are 0.5–1% of total WBC count
(3) IV II I III III
(4) All of these
(4) IV II III I III
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109. 100 ml oxygenated blood deliver (A) ml 114. Which of the following statement/s is/are
O2 to tissue in normal physiological conditions:- correct ?
(1) A = 4 (2) A = 5 (A) All vertebrates possess a two chambered
heart
(3) A = 15 (4) A = 10
(B) Annelids and chordates have a open
110. Select the correct combination :- circulatory system
(1) IC = TV + ERV (C) Fishes have two chambered heart with an
(2) FRC = ERV + IRV + TV atrium and a ventricle
(D) Amphibians have a three chambered heart
(3) RV = IRV
with two atria and a single ventricle
(4) VC = ERV + IRV + TV (1) A,B,C (2) B,C,D
111. Mark the correct answer :- (3) A,C,D (4) C,D
(1) 1 mol. of haemoglobin carry 4 atoms of 115. Which the following can decrease the rate of
oxygen heart beat?

(2) High pO 2 is favourable factor of (A) Sympathetic neural signals.

oxyhaemoglobin formation (B) Parasympathetic neural signals.
(C) Adrenal medullary hormones.
(3) Pneumotaxic centre present in medulla of
brain (D) Vagus nerve.
(E) Thyroxine hormone
(4) Low pCO2 shift the HbO2 curve in left side
(F) Acetylcholine
112. Which of the following factor increase the
(1) A, C, E (2) D, E, F
Cardiac output ?
(3) A, C, D (4) B, D, F
(1) Acetylcholine
116. During ventricular systole
(2) Vagus nerve (1) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the pul-
(3) Adrenaline monary artery and deoxygenated blood is
pumped into the artery.
(4) Parasympathetic system
(2) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta
113. Which of the following sequence is truly a and deoxygenated blood is pumped into
systemic circulation pathway ? the pulmonary artery
(3) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the pul-
LUNGS monary vein and deoxygenated blood is
D pumped into the pulmonary artery.
E
M A F (4) Oxygenated blood is pumped into the aorta
C B G H and deoxygenated blood is pumped into
L
I
the pulmonary vein
K J
117. Which point is incorrect with the regarding of
C E LL S
first heart sound ?
(1) It is produced at the begining of ventricular
(1) A® B ® C ® D ® E ® F systole
(2) J® K ® L ® M ® A ® B ® C ® D (2) It is associated with the closure of the
(3) G® H ® I ® J ® K ® L ® M ® A tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(3) It is called "LUBB"
(4) D® E ® F ® G ® H ® I ® J
(4) It is high pitch sound for short period

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118. Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle 124. Red muscle are called as red muscle due to
mostly due to genetic disorder is called :- presence of high amount of :-
(1) Myasthenia Gravis (2) Muscular (1) Mitochondria
dystrophy (2) Myoglobin
(3) Gout (4) Tetany (3) Sarcoplasmic Recticulum
119. How many of the below joints belong to (4) Haemoglobin
synovial joints ? 125. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibre
connected to it constitute a :-
humerus and pectoral girdle, knee joint, pubis
(1) Motor end plate
symphysis, atlanto-axial joint, carpel and
(2) Motor unit
metacarpel of thumb, intervertebral disc,
(3) Neuro muscular junction
suture, radio-ulnar joint
(4) Both 1 and 3
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 4
126. During shortening of the muscle the length of
120. Fill in the blank with the correct option :-
which band remain constant ?
The two halves of the pelvic girdle meet__a__ (1) I band (2) A band
to form the __b__ containing __c__. (3) H Zone (4) All of the above
(1) a = Dorsally; b = P ubic symphysis; 127. Maximum reabsorption of H2O takes place in
c= fibrous cartilage which segment of Nephron ?
(2) a = Dorsally; b = Pubic symphysis; c=
(1) PCT
fibrous
(2) DCT
(3) a = Ventrally; b =Pubic symphysis;
c=fibrous cartilage (3) Ascending limb of Henle
(4) a = Ventrally ;b = Pubic Symphysis; c = (4) CT
fibrous 128. Concentration of urine depends upon which
121. The number of false ribs in human are :- part of nephron ?
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 10 (1) PCT
122. Statement-I : Ribs are called as bicephalic in (2) Length of Henle's loop
human (3) DCT
Statement-II : Dorsally it has two articulation (4) Bowman's capsule
surface
129. Duct of Bellini opens on :-
(1) Both statement are true and Statement II is
(1) Ureter (2) DCT
a correct explanation of statement I
(3) Collecting duct (4) Renal papilla
(2) Both statement are true but statement II is
130. A notch which is present on the medial side of
not a correct explanation of statement I
kidney is called as _____ ?
(1) Pelvis (2) Pyramid
(3) Statement I is true and statement II is false
(3) Hilum (4) Renal capsule
(4) Both are wrong statement
131. Vasa recta are tubular capillary around :-
123. (1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) Loop of Henle (4) Bowman's capsule
132. Podocytes are found in :-
Identify a, b, c ?
(1) Afferent arteriole
(1) (a)–F-actin, (b)–Troponin, (c)–Tropomyosin
(2) Outer layer of bowman's cup
(2) (a)–Troponin, (b)–Tropomyosin, (c)–F-actin
(3) Efferent arteriole
(3) (a)–Troponin, (b)–F-actin, (c)–Tropomyosin
(4) Inner layer of bowman's cup
(4) (a)–Tropomyosin, (b)–F-actin, (c)–Troponin

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133. How many of the following are removed out 140. Conventional methods of diagnosis is -
through skin ? (1) Serum analysis
(1) Urea (2) Salts (2) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(3) Water (4) All of the above (3) Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent Assay
134. An increase in blood pressure :- (ELISA)
(1) Can increase GFR (4) All the above
(2) Can decrease GFR 141. Transgenic animals can be made -
(3) Can increase glomerular blood flow (1) To produce useful biological products
(4) Both (1) & (3) (2) For the study of animal disease
135. Which of the followings does not present in (3) To obtain large quantity of meat
glomerular filtrate ?
(4) 1 and 2 both
(1) Amino acids (2) Glucose
142. Microbes produce different types of gaseous
(3) Proteins (4) Ions end-products during growth and metabolism.
136. Read the following statements and choose the The type of gas produced depends upon -
correct option :-
(1) The rate of growth of microbes
(A) RNA interference is used to prevent
(2) The metabolic rate of microbes
infestation of pest in plant.
(3) The number of microbes and the rate of
(B) RNA interference takes place in all
their multiplication
eukaryotic organisms.
(4) The microbes and the organic substrates
(C) RNA interference is a method of cellular
they utilise
defense in eukaryotic organism.
143. Identify the correct pair of combinations
(D) RNA interference involves the silencing of
a specific mRNA by preventing its (A) Parbhani Kranti - Resistance to Virus -
formation from the corresponding gene. Bhindi
Options : (B) Pusa Gaurav - Resistance to aphids -
Mustard
(1) A, B, C and D (2) A, B and C
(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D (C) Pusa Sadabahar - Resistance to fruit borer
- Cow pea
137. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria
do not kill the bacteria themselves because (D) Pusa Shubhra - Resistance to white rust -
(1) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin Cauli flower
(2) Toxin is expelled out by bacteria (1) B and C (2) B and D
(3) Toxin is inactive (3) A and B (4) A and C
(4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac 144. IRRI stands for the
138. The main challenge for production of insulin (1) Indian Rice Research Institute
using rDNA techniques was - (2) International Rice Reserve Institute
(1) Getting the insulin gene transcribed correctly (3) Indian Radiation Research Institute
(2) Getting the insulin gene translated correctly (4) International Rice Research Institute
(3) To prevent the consumption of insulin by host 145. Biofortified rice are enriched in which of the
cell following nutrient?
(4) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form (1) Calcium (2) Iron
139. Which vector is used to introduce ADA cDNA (3) Protein (4) All of the above
into the human lymphocytes in case of 146. EcoRI cut the DNA between the bases
adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency? (1) G and T only (2) G and C only
(1) l-phage (2) Retrovirus (3) G and A only (4) A and T only
(3) BAC (4) YAC
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147. DNA fragments cut by restriction enzyme can (1) Maturation of insulin into proinsulin
be separated by (2) Maturation of proinsulin into insulin
(1) PCR (3) PCR
(2) ELISA (4) Tissue culture
(3) Agarose gel electrophoresis 153. ADA deficiency is caused due to the :-
(4) Downstream processing (1) Deletion (2) Translocation
148. Which is responsible for controlling the copy (3) Substitution (4) Inversion
number of linked DNA in a plasmid? 154. Which of the following is/are correct ?
(1) Cloning sites (1) Molecular diagnosis ® PCR, r-DNA
(2) Ori technology, ELISA
(3) Restriction endonuclease (2) First transgenic cow ® Rosie
(4) Insertional inactivation (3) GEAC ® Genetic engineering approval
149. In pBR-322, ampR and tetR genes are present. committee
When we ligate a foreign DNA at Pst-I site, then (4) All of the above
recombinant plasmid will lose the resistence to the:- 155. ICBN was accepted in :-
(1) Amphicillin (2) Tetracycline (1) 1961 (2) 1975
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above (3) 1753 (4) 1758
150. The cryIIAb and cryIAb produce toxin that controls :-
156. A variety of mung bean which is resistant to
(1) Cotton bollworms and corn borers
yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew is
(2) Tobacco budworms and nematodes
developed by :-
(3) Nematodes and tobacco budworm
(1) Genetic engineering
(4) Flies and mosquito
(2) Mutation breeding
151. Which of the following statements is/are correct
(3) Hybridization
regarding RNA interference ?
(4) Somatic hybridization
(i) A nematode meloidegyne incognitia infects
157. Match the following :-
the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great
reduction in yield. A B
(ii) RNA i takes place in all eukaryotic i Somaclones a Producing thousands
organisms as a method of cellular defence. of genetically identical
(iii) Using agrobacterium vectors, nematode specific plants through tissue
genes were introduced into the host plants. culture
(iv) Nematode can parasitise a wide variety of ii Totipotency b Capacity to generate a
plants and animals including human beings. whole plant from any
Options :- plant cell
(1) i, ii, iii (2) i, iii
iii Micropropagation c Genetically identical
(3) i, ii, iii, iv (4) i, iii, iv to original plant
152. Below diagram explains which of the following
steps :- iv Meristem culture d Virus free plants
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d (2) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d
P ro in sulin
(3) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
158. Identify correct match :-
(1) Brassica - Pusa Gaurav - Disease Resistant
A p e p tid e
(2) Cauliflower - Pusa Komal - Disease Resistant
B p e p tid e
In su lin (3) Bhindi - Parbhani Kranti - Pest Resistant
Free C p eptide (4) Chilli - Pusa Sadabahar - Disease Resistant

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159. Which of following statement is correct ? 163.
(1) Stickiness of the ends produced by
restriction endonuclease facilitates the
action of the enzyme RNA ligase
(2) The linking of antibiotic resistance gene
with the plasmid vector became possible
with the enzyme DNA ligase
(3) In gel electrophoresis the DNA fragements
separate according to their shape through
sieving effect provided by the agarose gel If the alien DNA is ligated at the Pvu-I site of
(4) The downstream processing and quality ampicillin resistance gene in the given vector
control testing are same for all products then gene which get inactivated due to insertion
of alien DNA helps in the selection of :
160. Correctly match column I with II :-
(1) Transformants (2) Recombinants
Column I Column II (3) Non-transformants (4) Both (2) and (3)
(A) Transgenic mice (i) ADA deficiency 164. A good cloning vector should have all
(B) Rosie (ii) a-1-antitrypsin except :-
(C) Emphysema (iii) Human alpha (1) Origin of replication to start replication
lactalbumin protein
(2) Many recognition sites for single restriction
(D) Gene therapy (iv) Polio vaccine
enzyme
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (3) High copy number
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i (4) Selectable marker
165. Which of the following alcoholic drink is/are
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
obtain without distillation ?
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (1) Wine (2) Beer
161. Restriction endonucleases are :- (3) Brandy (4) Both (1) and (2)
166. In 1963 several varieties such as sonalika and
(1) Present in mammalian cells for degradation
Kalyan sona were introduced all over the wheat
of DNA when the cells dies
growing belt of India which were :
(2) Synthesized by bacteria as a part of their (1) High yielding
defence mechanism (2) Disease resistant
(3) Resistant to water stress
(3) Used for in vitro DNA synthesis
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Used in genetic engineering for ligating two 167. The Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins
DNA molecules but once an insect ingest the inactive toxin, it
is converted into an active form of toxin due
162. Which step proved to be the main challenging
to the :-
obstacle in the production of human insulin by
(1) Neutral pH of the gut
genetic enginering ? (2) Acidic pH of the gut
(1) Spliting A & B polypeptide chains (3) Alkaline pH of the gut
(4) Acidic pH of the stomach
(2) Addition of C-peptides to pro-insulin
168. Which of the following is direct method of
(3) Getting insulin assembled into mature form gene transfer and suitable for plants ?
(1) Micro-injection (2) Biolistics
(4) Remvoal of C-peptide from active insulin
(3) Gene gun (4) Both (2) and (3)

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169. Which of the following variety of Brassica is 176. Two different organisms belong to same class
resistance to Aphids ? but not the same family, then these two
(1) Pusa swarnim (2) Pusa gaurav organisms may belong to the same?
(3) Pusa sem 2 (4) Pusa sawani (1) Genus (2) Order
170. Which of the following step is a very time
(3) Species (4) Sub - species
consuming and tedious in breeding a new
177. ....(a).... the category, greater is the difficulty of
genetic variety of a crop?
determining the relationship to other ....(b)....
(1) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents Select the correct option for (a) and (b)?
(3) Cross hybridisation among the selected parents (1) (a) – Lower (b) taxa at the same level
(4) Collection of variability (2) (a) – Higher (b) taxa at the different level
171. EcoR I cuts the DNA between the same two (3) (a) – Lower (b) taxa at the different level
bases on the opposite strands when following (4) (a) – Higher (b) taxa at the same level
sequence is present in the DNA ? 178. Consider the following four statements (a – d)
51 G AATTG 31 51 G AATTC 31 and select the correct option about them?
(1) (2)
1
3 CTTAA C 5 1
31 CTTAA G 51 (a) Monographs contain information on any
1 1 1 1
one taxon.
5 C CC GGG 3 5 G GATCC 3
(3) 1 1
(4) 1 1 (b) Separate keys are made for same taxonomic
3 GGG CC C 5 3 CCTAG G 5
categories.
172. The collection of specimens requires regular
(c) Insect are preserved in insect boxes in
field visit which are source have to get
zoological park.
information about the place, habitat, season and
(d) Keys are analytical in nature.
the time of collection of a specific plant :
Options :
(1) Keys (2) Museums
(1) Statements (a) and (d)
(3) Zoological parks (4) Herbarium
(2) Statements (a), (b) and (d)
173. Each category represents a rank and commonly
(3) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
termed as :-
(1) species (2) Genus (4) Statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(3) taxon (4) taxonomic hirearchy 179. Identify (A), (B) and (C) in the given hierarchial
174. Animals, Mammals and dogs represent? arrangement of taxonomic categories :-
(1) Taxa at same level Kingdom
(2) Taxa at different level
(3) Name of taxonomic categories A
(4) Members of kingdom mycota
175. Match the column I and column II and select B
the correct option from given table?
C
Column-I Column-II
Family
(a) Family (i) Poales
Genus
(b) Order (ii) Angiospermae
Species
(c) Class (iii) Dicotyledonae
(1) A = class, B = order, C = phylum
(d) Division (iv) Poaceae (2) A = division, B = class, C = order
Options : (3) A = phylum, B = order, C = class
(1) a – (iv), b – (iii), c – (i), d – (ii) (4) A = class, B = order, C = phylum
(2) a – (i), b – (iv), c – (iii), d – (ii) 180. Largest unit of classification is :-
(3) a – (iv), b – (i), c – (ii), d – (iii) (1) Kingdom (2) Genus
(4) a – (iv), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (ii) (3) Key (4) Species
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