ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM

Questionnaire No. :_______________

1. The law that regulates the practice of chemistry in the Philippines also know as the Modern
Chemistry Act is
a. RA 10567 b. RA 10657 c. RA 10765 d. RA 10675
2. Encompasses the personal and corporate standards of behaviour which chemical
technicians should observe in the practice of his/her profession
a. Professional b. Respect c. Responsibility d. Ethics
3. Are standard hazmat identifiers designed to meet specifications and are placed on outer
containers, trucks, cylinders or other vehicles used for transport of chemicals.
a. Labels b. Markings c. Placards d. Signs
4. A pictogram for identifying toxic chemicals

a. b. c. d.
5. A signal word indicating more severe hazards in the chemicals
a. Warning b. Notice c. Danger d. Instruction
6. A hazard communication label with an overall diamond shape made up of four smaller
diamonds
a. NFPA704 Label b. HMIS Label c. DOT Label d. All
7. The chemical symbol for the element copper
a. Co b. Cu c. Ca d. Cr
8. Convey a specific information about the hazards of a chemical in symbols and other
graphic elements
a. Pictogram b. Product Identifier c. Signal Word d. Markings
9. For the given measurement value, 5.7000x105s, the number of significant figure/s:
a. 5 b. 3 c. 8 d. 2
10. In the mathematical operation, 4.32 + 5.2 + 2.235, the final answer is
a. 11.745 b. 11.75 c. 11.7 d. 12
11. In the mathematical operation, 2.2x3.52x4.125, the final answer is
a. 32 b. 31.9 c. 31.94 d. 31.944
16.3521cm −1.448 cm
12. is equal to
7.085 cm
a. 2.1 b. 2.10 c. 2.104 d. 2.1035
13. A document that lists information relating to occupational safety and health for the use of
various substances and products
a. SDS b. HCS c. HCP d. All
14. Of the SDS-16-section format, which of the following is not regulated by OSHA?
a. Toxicological b. Properties c. Transport d. Hazard
15. The capacity of a material to produce an injury or harm is…
a. Toxicity b. Hazard c. Carcinogen d. All
16. Given 100., the number of significant figure/s is:
a. 3 b. 2 c. 1 d. All
17. What is the use of HPLC?
a. to identify component of mixtures b. to separate component of mixtures
c. to purify the analyte of interest d all
18. Both classical and instrumental methods can be used to determine the concentration of a
specific element or species in a compound. Which of the following pairs is the wrong
combination of the type of analysis with its characteristic?
a.Gravimetric analysis – mass b. Spectrophotometric analysis - density
c. Volumetric analysis – volume d. Potentiometric analysis – voltage
19. NMR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in which of the following materials?
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
a. Radioactive materials b. Insoluble chemical compounds
c. Liquids d. Gases
20. NMR is the study of absorption of __________ by nuclei in a magnetic field?
a. Radioactive radiation b. IR radiation
c. Radio frequency radiation d. Microwaves
21. NMR spectrometer provides ____________ and _____________ method of determining
structure in soluble chemical compounds.
a Accurate, destructive b. Accurate, non-destructive
c. Inaccurate, destructive d. Inaccurate, non-destructive
22. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the following?
a. Composition in sample b. Concentration of elements in sample
c. Relative mass of atoms d. Properties of sample
23. Oxidation means
a. loss of electrons b. gain of electrons c. loss of ions d. gain of ions
24. Oxidizing agents are the species that
a. lose electrons b. gain electrons c. lose ions d. gain ions
25. The oxidation number of an atom in its elemental state is
a. equal to its charge b. zero c. negative d. positive
26. All electrochemical processes involve
a. neutralization reactions b. precipitation reactions
c. redox reactions d. complexation reactions
27. Reduction reaction can occur even without oxidation reaction.
a. false b. true c. possible d. maybe
28. Reducing agents are
a. always reduced b. always oxidized c. negatively charged d.positively charged
29. The cathode is the electrode where
a. reduction takes place b. negative ions accumulate
c. oxidation takes place d. electrons are liberated
30. The reactant which is present in the smallest stoichiometric amount and which limits the
amount of product that can be formed is
a. the reagent with the least number of grams b. the limiting reagent
c. the reagent in excess d. the reagent with the most number of grams
31. A solution is prepared by dissolving 464 g of NaOH (40) in water and then diluting to
one liter. The density of the resulting solution is 1.37 g/ml. The % mass of NaOH is
(questions 33 - 38):
a. 33.87% b. 11.6% c. 50.33% d. 12.80%
32. The molarity of the solution is
a. 33.87 M b. 12.80 M c. 11.6 M d. 50.33 M
33. The molality of the solution is
a. 33.87 m b. 1.280 m c. 11.6 m d. 12.80 m
34. The mole fraction of NaOH is
a. 11.6 b. 0.187 c. 0.813 d. 12.80
35. The mole fraction of H2O is
a. 0.87 b. 0.813 c. 33.87 d. 11.6
36. The normality of the solution is
a. 11.6 N b. 5.8 N c. 23.2 N d. 12.80 N
37. The maximum amount of solute that will dissolve in a definite amount of solvent to
produce a stable system at a specified temperature is
a. dilution b. concentration c. Solubility d. None
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
38. A solution that contains more than the maximum amount of solute that the solvent can
normally dissolve is
a. saturated b. supersaturated c. Unsaturated d. diluted
39. What is the relationship between pressure and the solubility of gases in liquids?
a. directly proportional b. no relationship
c. inversely proportional d. no relationship
40. The attachment of solvent molecules to solute molecules is called
a. digestion b. hydration c. Solvation d. dilution
41. The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with
a. increasing temperature b. increasing pressure
c. decreasing temperature d. increasing volume
42. Characterization of the entire sample.
a. bulk analysis b. surface analysis c. structural analysis d. physical analysis
43. Which is not a classical method?, distillation, boiling or melting points,
a. precipitation and extraction b. gravimetric and titrimetric measurements
c. distillation d. conductivity
44. Similar in chemical composition to the sample but without the analyte
a. matrix blank b. reagent blank c. instrument blank d. surrogate blank
45. Composed of 1-20 samples of the same quality systems matrix, meeting the above mentioned
criteria and processed within 24 hours
a. Preparation batch b. Analytical batch c. Sampling Batch d. None
46. A change in the analytical signal caused by anything in the sample other than analyte.
a. Matrix effect b. sampling error c component effect d. intrument’s noise effect
47. Samples are ______, but constituents or concentrations are ______.
a. analyzed, determined b. determined, analyzed c. checked, tested d. tested, analyzed
48. Quantitative amount of a test portion of sample solution.
a. standard b. specimen c. reference d. aliquot
49. Trapping an analyte out of the gas phase
a. filtering b. scrubbing c. grab d. tapping
50. The total error of an analytical result is the sum of sampling, sample preparation and analytical
errors.
a. sampling error b. random error c. systematic error d. indefinite error
51. What Is the difference between C8 And C18 HPLC column?
a. C8 more non-polar. b. C8 has 16 Carbon atoms
c. C8 is more efficient. d. C8 column is more polar than C18.
52. What is a Base Line?
a. detectors’ response to the mobile phase
b. detectors response to the stationary phase.
c. detectors response to the chromatogram
d. all of the above
53. Which is not a source of Base line noise?
a. sample b. system problems
c. temperature variations in lab d. volume of sample injected
54. Apparent changes in the pH solution when it is continuously used for 30 days without
storage at 4 deg. C.
a. microbial growth b. unstable pH
c. high in Nitrogenous substance d. All
55. Factors to be considered during preparation of the sample solution in Gravimetric
Analysis?
a. pH b. Temperature c. Volume of solution during precipitation d. All
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
56. In AAS, If sample concentration is too high to permit accurate analysis in linearity
response range, what should an analyst do?
a. sample dilution
b. using an alternative wavelength having a lower absorptivity
c. reducing the path length by rotating the burner hand.
d. All of the above
57. If an analyte absorbs green, the color perceived is
a. red b. blue c. orange d. violet
58. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a reference electrode?
a. It must have a known output potential
b. It must have a constant output potential
c. Its output potential is dependent on the composition of the solution
d. It is employed in conjunction with the indicator or working electrode
59. Which of the following is the purpose of added membranes in the glass membrane of the
glass electrode?
a. They act as tightners b. They act as filters
c. They act as conditioners d.They act as collectors
60. Which of the following is known as calomel?
a. Silver chloride b. Mercury chloride c. Potassium chloride d. Mercury sulphate
61. What is Absorbance in spectrophotometry.
a. nonlinear function of light power b. measured quantity
c. . how much light is absorbed by the sample d. All
62. Light emission methods
a. Fluorescence (Xray –UV) b. NMR c. Chromatography d. All
63. An analysis of the wavelength dependence of the absorbance or emission of light is
called
a. Spectroscopy b. Potentiometry c. Gravimetry d. Electrochemical analysis
64. Adjustable wavelength selectors are called
a. monochromators b. PMT c. light sources d. Detectors
65. The near IR wavelength range
a. 190-400 nm b. 400-750 nm c. 750-2500 nm d. a and c
66. What is the path of light through a spectrophotometer?
a. meter, photodetector, filter, sample, light source
b. meter, filter sample, photodetector, light source
c. light source, filter, sample, photodetector, meter
d. light source, sample, filter, photodetector, meter
67. Most significant use of IR spectrophotometer
a. structural analysis b. molecular weight c. atomic structure d. separation of compounds
68. Basically, what is the function of an absorption spectrum?
a. converts light energy into electrical energy \
b. graph of a chem’l relating the abs to conc
c. graph of a chem’l relating the abs to λ
d.amount of radiation retained by a sample
69. Beer's Law states that;
a. Absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the
absorbing species
b. Absorbance is proportional to the log of the concentration of the absorbing species
c. Absorbance is equal to P0 / P
d. Transmittance is inversely proportional with P.
70. Organic solvents that may be used to remove grease films.
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
a.Formaline b. benzene c. toluene d. chloroform
71. Carbon monoxide (CO) can be determined at trace levels using IR absorption
spectrophotometry. Using a 100.0-cm pathlength gas cell, a standard containing 10.0 ppm CO
gave an absorbance of 0.050 at 2170 cm-1. Calculate the concentration (ppm) of a gas
sample, analyzed using the same gas cell, which gives an absorbance of 0.005 at the same
wavenumber. Assume the system obeys Beer’s Law over the concentration range
investigated.
a. 1.5 ppm b. 2.0 c. 1.8 d. 1.0
72. At 510 nm, the iron orthophenanthroline complex has a molar absorptivity of 1.2 x 104.
What is the concentration of iron (in ppm) in a solution which gives an absorbance of 0.002
in a 1.00-cm path length cell?
a. 7.3 x 10-3 ppm b.8.3 x 10-3 ppm c. 9.3 x 10-3 ppm d.6.3 x 10-3 ppm
73. Interaction of solute molecules (or atoms or ions) with the surface of the stationary
phase.in Chromatography.
a. Adsorbtion b. absorption c. desorption d. All
74. Phase which sample is dissolved in may be gas, liquid, or supercritical fluid
a. Stationary phase b. Mobile phase c. lag phase d. none
75. Chromatography separates components in mixtures based on:
a. polarity and boiling point b. ionic strength c. size d. All
76. A graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time.
a. standard calibration graph b. QC graph c. Chromatogram d. All
77. A known amount of a compound, different from analyte, that is added to an unknown.
a. internal standard b. primary standard c. reference standard d. none
78. Carried out on glass plates or strips of plastic or metal coated on one side with a thin layer
of adsorbent (use natural chemistry)
a. GC b. TLC c. HPLC d. LC-MS
79. Which describes Gravimetric Analysis?
a. To measure the purity and an accurate analytical technique
b. It is an ABSOLUTE method
c. Precise methods of macro quantitative analysis and possible sources of errors can
be checked.
d. All of the above
80. Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, a base is
a. a proton donor b. a proton acceptor c. a hydroxide donor d. an electron pair donor
81..Under the Lewis concept of acids and bases, an acid is
a. a proton donor b. a proton acceptor
c. An electron pair donor d. an electron pair acceptor
82. Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, an acid is
a. a proton donor b. a proton acceptor
c. an electron pair donord. d. an electron pair acceptor
83. Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
a. HCN and CN− b. H2O and OH− c. H2S and OH− d. NH3 and NH4+
84. Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction:HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) →
a. H3O+(aq) + OH− b. Na+(aq) + Cl−(aq)
c. NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) d. no reaction takes place
85. Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction: NH3(aq) + HNO3(aq) →
a. NH2OH(aq) + HNO2(aq) b. NH4NO3(aq)
c. NH4OH(aq) d. no reaction takes place
86. What effect will addition of excess of HCl have on the pH of a solution of NH3?
a. increase the pH b. decrease the pH
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
c. no effect d. cannot tell from information given
87. What effect will addition of sodium acetate have on the pH of a solution of acetic acid?
a. increase the pH b. decrease the pH
c. no effect d. cannot tell from information given
88. In complexometric titration, the most common used chelating agent is EDTA
(ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid). EDTA's molecules will combine with metals to form
chelate. EDTA is classified as a?
a. Bidentate ligand b. Hexadentate ligand c. Tetradentate ligand d. Monodentate ligand
89. In redox titration, what chemical substance is added to the iodometry and iodimetry
analysis
a. Starch b. Phenolphthalein c. Glucose d. Argentum
90. The extent of radiation absorbed by the absorbing species is a function of the path length
and the concentration of the absorbing species.
a. Beer-Lambert’s law b. Beer’s Law c. Lambert’s Law d. None of the above
91. Name a chloride of metal which dissolves in excess of ammonium hydroxide ?
a. Lead(II)chloride b. Copper(II)chloride c. Silver chloride d. Sodium chloride
92. Which of the following acids can be used to acidify silver nitrate solution for the test of
halides?
a. Hydrochloric acid b. Dilute nitric acid c. Sulphuric acid d. Carbonic acid
93. After shaking the separating funnel, we should invert it and open the tap. Which of the
following statements is the purpose for the above procedure?
a. To extract the desired substances more efficiently.
b. To mix the two solvent layers by air.
c. To get rid of the impurities.
d. To release the pressure.
94. Which of the following statements about Mohr's method is INCORRECT?
a. The pH of the reaction mixture should not be too high to prevent the formation of
undesirable precipitates.
b. The pH of the reaction mixture should not be too low to prevent the conversion of
chromate ions to dichromate ions.
c. This method is used to determine the concentration of chloride ions in a water
sample.
d. A bluish-green precipitate can be observed at the end point of the titration.
95. With a “standard” sample with a known absorbance and concentration and a measured
absorbance, it is easy to determine an unknown concentration of †the same substance by.
a. Beer’s Law b. Beer-Lambert’s Law c. Nerst equation d. Boyle’s Law
96. The scale of a spectrophotometer extends from 1 to 100% T, what are the values of these
two extremes in absorbance?
a. 0, 2.0 b. 2.0, 0 c. 0, 1.99 d. 1.99, 0
97. If the %T is actually 0, what is the value of the absorbance?
a. 2.0 b. infinite c. 1.99 d. 1.0
98. At 425 nm a 1.2 x 10-3 M solution of compound Q has Absorbance = 0.879. Another
solution of Q is prepared by diluting 25.00 mL of the 1.2 x 10-3 M Q to a total volume of
100.00 mL.What is the Absorbance of the new solution at 425 nm?
a. 0.21 b. 0.22 c. 0.33 d.0.12q
99. Calculate the velocity, frequency, and wavelength of the sodium D line (589 nm) as light
form this source passes through a species whose refractive index, nD, is 1.09.
a. 140 nm b. 540 nm c.555 nm d. 640 nm
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
100. A solution contains 3.0mg Fe2+/L. The Fe2+ is converted into a complex with 1,10
phenanthroline and the absorbance of the solution in a 1.0 cm cell is 0.60. The MW of the
complex is 596. Calculate the absorptivity.
a. 1.1x104 b. 1.1x105 c. 1.4x103 d. 1.4x102
101. A solution containing 4.48 ppm KMnO, had a % transmittance of 30.9% in a 1.00 cm
cell at 520 nm. Calculate the molar absorptivity of KMnO, at 520 nm.
a. ε = 1.80x104 L mol-1 cm-1 b. ε = 1.890x104 L mol-1 cm-1
4
c. ε = 1.95x10 L mol-1 cm-1 d. ε = 1.98x104 L mol-1 cm-1
102. A photometer which uses a filter as a wavelength selector used in the visible range as
samples must be colored.
a. Colorimeter b. Visible spectrophotometer c. UV-Vis spectrophotometer d. IR
103. Balance that has a capacity of 1 to 3 g and a precision of 0.001mg.
a. Semi-micro analytical b. Macro-analytical c. spring-balance d. top-loading
104. Chemical drying agent (desiccants)
a. anhydrous calcium chloride or calcium sulfate b. magnesium perchlorate
c. phosphorus pentoxide. d. All
105. Which affects pipetting accuracy
a. Temperature and pressure b. Volume and pH
c. Humidity and volume of sample d. None of the above
106. Most accurate pipets with well defined tolerance limits.
a. Automatic Pipets b. Class A c. Class B d.. Serological pipets
107. The rounded or approximate value of a characteristic of a measurement instrument that
provides a guide to use.
a. True value b. Nominal value c. Numerical value d. Guaranteed value
108. What acids are used to treat Ashless paper to remove metallic impurities and silica.
a. HCl and HF b. HCN and HF c. Sufuric acid and HF d. HCL and Nitric Acid
109. Defined as metals in an acidified sample retained by a 0.45 µm membrane filter
a. Total metals b. Suspended metals c. Dissolved Metals d. All
110. The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to
determination of metals is
a. 3 months b. 1 week c. 6 months d. 48 hours
111. A fraction of the sample actually used in the final laboratory analysis.
a. composite sample b. sub-sample c. laboratory sample d. a, b and c
112. Medium containing analyte.
a. reactant b. matrix c. solute d. reference material
113. Nearness of a measurement to its true value or accepted value C
a. accurate but precise precision b. accuracy c. assayed controls d. All
114. The ability of an analytical method to measure solely the analyte it intends to measure.
a. Iophilized b. Precision c. Specificity d. Standard use
115. Which of the following hastens the rate of solution?
a. pulverization b. scratching the sides of the container c. Seeding d. cooling
116. Which of the following solutes will produce the highest boiling point of solution when
dissolved in water?
a. 2 moles of NaCl b. 1 mole of MgCl2
c. 1 mole of ethanol d. 2 mole of methanol
117. What is boiling point elevation?
a. It is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
b. It is the sum of the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
c. It is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solute and a pure solvent
d. It is the boiling point of a solution
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
118. The excess pressure required to stop the flow and keep the solution in equilibrium with
the pure solvent is
a. osmotic pressure b. partial pressure c. vapor pressure d. atmospheric pressure
119. The separation of a mixture of substances into pure components on the basis of their
differing solubilities is
a. fractional crystallization c. vacuum distillation
b. steam distillation d. fractional distillation
120. Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood because:
a. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher temperature of the body
b. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules
c. pressure is increased inside the body
D. None of the above
121. A fatal condition known as “bends” occur when a diver ascends too quickly to the
surface of the water. This is due to :
a. nitrogen in the blood boiling off too rapidly as its partial pressure decreases,
forming bubbles in the blood
b. lack of oxygen in water at depths of more than 15 meters
c. the solubility of oxygen is very much decreased at greater depths
d. the solubility of oxygen decreases in the blood as the diver ascends
122. UV Spectrophotometer and Visible Spectrophotometer sample cells, respectively.
a. Quartz (crystalline silica) and Glass b. Glass and quartz (Crystalline silica)
c. test tube and cuvettes d. All
123. Which of the following is not true about galvanic method of oxygen analysis?
a. Electrodes are composed of noble and base metals
b. It can measure dissolved content of oxygen
c. Its principle is based on electrolysis
d. It utilizes an electronic cell
124. A portable photometer with a linear response to radiation registered 73.6 pA with the
solvent in the light path. The photometer was set to zero with no light striking the detector.
Replacement of the solvent with an absorbing solution yielded a response of 24.9 pA.
Calculate the percent transmittance of the sample solution.
a. 33.8% b. 33.7% c. 33.6% d.33.9%
125. Calculate the absorbance of the sample solution.
a. 0.267 b. 0.471 c. 1.471 d.0.265
126. Calculate the transmittance to be expected for a solution in which the concentration of
the absorber is one third that of the original sample solution.
a. 65% b. 69.6% c. 69.7% d.65.9%
127 To produce the proper monochromatic light necessary for the AAS, ____ are used.
a. hollow cathode lamps b. cuvettes c. electric rods d. probes
128. Which of the following is the full scale range of Infrared spectroscopy method used for
measurement of carbon monoxide?
a. 0-2 ppm b. 0-500 ppm c. 0-1 ppm d. 0-50 ppm
129. Which of the following is the purpose of added membranes in the glass membrane of the
glass electrode?
a. They act as tightners
b. They act as filters
c. They act as conditioners
d. They act as collectors
130. Which describes gravimetric analysis
a. Precipitate and weigh products b. very precise c. very limited d. all
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
131. If repeated measurements of the same thing are all very close to one another, then a
measurement is
a. Precise. b. accurate c. estimated d. all
132. Random error is a measure of:
a. precision. b. accuracy c. true value d. all
133. Difference between the mean of a population of measurements and the true value.
a. systematic errors b. random c. gross d. all
134. What optimizes the precision of a calibration curve determination?
a. Calibration and linear regression b. environment c. linear regression d. method
135. Carried out on glass plates or strips of plastic or metal coated on one side with a thin
layer of adsorbent (use natural chemistry)
a. GC b. TLC c. HPLC d. LC-MS
136. A heavy duty electric furnace capable of maintaining controlled temperatures of 1100 oC
or higher used in gravimetric tests.
a. Muffle Furnace b. Graphite Furnace c. Oven d. All
137. Which of the following is not a failure in pH meters?
a. Defective electrodes b. Defective input circuitry
c. Defective electronic circuitry d. Defective calibration
138. When UV light is absorbed by the fluor molecules the light emitted is in which of the
following colours?
a. Pink b. Red c. Green d. Blue
139. ICP’s principle is similar to which of the following?
a. Flame emission spectroscopy b. Fourier transforms spectroscopy
c. Atomic emission spectroscopy d. Absorption spectroscopy
140. Which of the following is most often used in the chromatograph in gas chromatograph
MS?
a. Curvette b. Paper support c. Capillary tube d. Flask
141. The chemical species that is being measured.
a. analyte b. matrix c. compound d. component
142. Powerful analytical instrument but suitable for volatile chemicals only.
a. HPLC b. IR c. GC d. NMR
143. Volumetric glassware is calibrated by measuring the mass of a liquid of known ______
and ______ that is contained in the volumetric ware.
a. volume and density b. density c. concentration and density d. density & temperature
144. All reagents shall be properly stored according to manufacturer’s
instructions,______requires temperature conditions up to 30 oC.
a. Cold storage b. Frozen storage c. Ambient Storage d. STP
145..Sampling technique in which sample units are selected so that all combinations of n
units under consideration have an equal chance of being selected as the sample.
a. random sampling b. analytical sampling c. bias sampling d. bulk sampling
146. Homogenization can be achieved using:
a. mechanical devices b. enzymatic methods c. chemical methods d. All
147. Sample holding time for preserved samples for metal determination
a. 3 mos b. 1 year c. 6 mos d. 2 mos
148, Acids commonly used in sample dissolution and digestion:
a. HCl, HNO3, H2SO4 b. Acetic Acid, HF, HCN c. H3PO4, HF and HClO4 d. All
149. Heating a finely powdered solid sample with a finely powdered salt at high temperatures
until mixture melts
a. Molten salt fusion b. base fusion c. digestion d. dissolution
150. Burning an organic material in air or oxygen
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
a. wet ashing b. dry ashing c. ignition d. All
151. Specimens or materials which are analysed solely for quality control purposes and are
not used for calibration purposes.
a. quality control (QC) b. storage of reagents
c. control materials d. constant systematic error
152. Error is consistently low or high by the same amount caused by the presence of
interfering substances in the sample or reagents.
a. homemade controls b. constant systematic error c. control materials d. None
153. How well tests are reproduced. one measure is percent coefficient of variation %CV.
The smaller the %CV, the more precise the test.
a. precision b. specificity c. median d. sensitivity
154. Specimens or materials which are analysed solely for quality control purposes and are
not used for calibration purposes.
a. constant systematic error b. homemade controls
c. control materials d. post-analytical factors
155. Any bias that effect which introduces error into a laboratory procedure or result (i.e.
environment. Methods of observation, instruments used.
a. systematic variation affecting laboratory result
b. systematic error
c. pre-analytical factors
d. lab testing and federal regulation
156. Occurs when the data set can be accurately described by the SD and the mean. Occurs
when the data elements are centered around the mean. Focuses on the distribution of errors
a. Quality improvement b. Quality Control c. Youden Graph d. Gaussian Curve
157. Is a solution that contain a known amount of an analyte and is used to calibrate an assay
method.
a. Quality assurance b.Quality improvement c. Calibrator/Standard d. Quality Assessment
158. Defined as the limits between we expect a specified portion of a population lie
a. Standard Deviation b. Range c. Confidence interval d. Proficiency Testing
159. Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing caustic
soda?
a. Potassium Hydroxide b. Ammonia c. Hydrochloric Acid d. Buffer 10 Solution
160. This chemical is usually used to disinfect waste containing microbial organisms.
a. Chlorine b. sodium chloride c. sodium sulfate d. fluorine
161. Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effect of waste?
a. Inhalation b. Dermal c. Ingestion d. All
162. Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing
phosphoric acid?
a. hydrochloric acid b. sodium hydroxide c. distilled water d. acetone
163. Which of the following waste is classified as halogenated waste?
a. Waste containing toluene b. Waste containing dichloromethane
c. Waste containing acetone d. Waste containing ammonia
164. Which of the following waste is not classified as inorganic waste?
a. Waste containing mercury c.. Waste containing lead
c. Waste containing arsenic d. Waste containing acetonitrile
165. What is the minimum concentration of cyanide contained in a waste to be classified it
under A101( wastes containing cyanide )?
a. 20 ppm b. 100 ppm c. 200 ppm d. 1000 ppm
166. According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include:
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
a Volume of Waste b. Generator ID Number c. Container Material d. All
167. A solution that causes only a relatively small change in pH upon addition of small
amounts of acids and bases is
a. Saturated b. a salt c. a buffer d. unsaturated
168. Which of the following is buffer?
a. NaCl/NH4Cl b. NH3/NH4Cl
c. NH3/CH3COOH d. CH3COOH/NaOH
169. A buffer solution may be a mixture of
a. a weak acid and its salt b. a weak base and its salt
c. an excess of a weak acid with a strong base d. All
170. The conjugate base of acetic acid is
a. HCOOH b. NH3 c. CH3COO− d. OH−
171. The conjugate acid of ammonia is
a. H3O+ b. NH4+ c. HCOOH d. OH−
172. The effect produced by an ion, say from a salt, which is the same ion produced by the
dissociation of a weak acid or base is called
a. colloidal effect b. precipitation effect
c. common ion effect d. ligand effect
173. A principle which states that if stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the
equilibrium is shifted in the direction that tends to reduce the stress.
a. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle b. Le Chatelier’s Principle
c. Hund’s Rule d. Debye-Huckel Principle
174. Water cannot function as which one of the following?
a. a Bronsted acid b. a Bronsted base c. a Lewis acid d. a Lewis base
175. HCOOK is a/an
a. acid b. base c. salt d. oxide
176. When a strong acid is titrated with a weak base, the pH at the equivalence point is
a. basic b. acidic c. Neutral d. None
177. When a strong acid is titrated with a strong base, the pH at the equivalence point is
a. basic b. acidic c. Neutral d. None
178. When NH4Cl hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
a. acidic b. basic c. neutral d. None
−4 o −
179. We have a 5.43 x 10 M solution of HNO3 at 25 C. What is the [OH ] in this solution?
a. 1.84 x 10−11 M b. 5.43 x 10−10 M c.. 5.43 x 10−4 M d. 3.67 x 10−6 M
180. What is the pH of a 5.82 x 10 M solution of NaOH at 25oC?
−3

a. 4.76 b. 11.76 c. 7.00 d. 2.45

181. What is the [H3O ] of a 0.100 M solution of HCN at 25 C? Ka (HCN) = 4.0 x 10−10
+ o

a. 1.58 x 10−8 M b. 2.00 x 10−5 M c. 6.32 x 10−6 M d. 4.00 x 10−11 M

o
182. A 0.200 M solution of an acid, HA, has a pH of 2.70 at 25 C. What is Ka for this acid?
a. 2.21 x 10−4 b. 4.55 x 10−6 c. 1.99 x 10−4 d. 2.00 x 10−5
o
183. What is the pH of a 0.52 M solution of CH3COONa at 25 C? Ka (CH3COOH) = 1.76 x 10−5
a. 9.23 b. 4.77 c. 9.37 d. 10.21
184. A buffer solution is 0.50 M with respect to acetic acid, CH 3COOH and 0.50 M with
respect to sodium acetate, CH3COONa. Ka (CH3COOH) = 1.76 x 10-5. Assuming no volume
change, the pH of the solution is
a.. 4.74 b. 9.26 c. 4.00 d. 10.00
185. In choosing the right buffer system, the pKa of the weak acid or base should be
a. way above the desired pH b. way below the desired pH
c. closest to the desired pH d. nowhere near the desired pH
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
186. Which equation correctly describes the relationship between K b & Ka for a conjugate
acid/base pair ?
a. Kb = Kw x Ka b. Kb= Kw/Ka c. Kb = Ka/Kw d. Kb = Kw + Ka
187. Which acid would have the STRONGEST conjugate base?
a. HIO3 Ka = 0.16 b. HC2O4− Ka = 5.4 x 10−5
−3
c. H3AsO4 Ka = 6.0 x 10 d. C6H5OH Ka = 1.0 x 10−10
188. Which Kinetic Molecular Theory rationale explains why the pressure increases when
the temperature increases in a sealed container at constant volume?
a. The number of gas particles increases, thus increasing the frequency of collisions
with the wall of the container.
b. The average kinetic energy increases, so the gas particles hit the wall of the
container with greater force.
c. The surface area of the wall decreases, so the gas particles the hit the wall of the
container more often.
d. The number of gas particles increases, thus forcing the wall of the container to
expand until the pressure inside balances the pressure outside.
189. What is the volume of 0.100 mole of He in a balloon at 25°C and 755 mm Hg?
a. 0.0395 L b. 2.46 L c. 0.0273 L d. 0.207 L
190. As a bubble of air rises from a diver’s helmet to the surface of the water, it continuously
expands. This illustrates
a. Boyle’s Law c. Charles’ Law
b. Avogadro’s Law d. Graham’s Law of Diffusion
191. What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken on a cold day?
a. the volume decreases c. the volume increases
b. remains the same d. the volume is zero
192. If a gas is compressed from 4 liters to 1 liter and the temperature remains constant,
what happens to the pressure?
a. pressure will increase four times c. pressure will remain the same
b. pressure will remain the same d. pressure will be 4 atm
193. When a fixed volume of gas at a specific temperature is heated until its temperature is
twice its original , the pressure exerted by this gas will be
a. doubled b. still the same c. reduced by half d. 760 mm Hg
194. At the same temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases
a. contain 6.02x 1023 molecules b. contain equal number of
molecules
c. will have the same mass d. will experience ideal gas behavior
195. At constant temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of a gas varies
a. inversely as its density
b. directly as its molecular mass
c. directly as the square root of its density
d. inversely as the square root of its molecular mass
196. Which ideal gas relationship is NOT TRUE?
a. Pressure is directly proportional to moles. (P ∞ n)
b. Volume is directly proportional to moles. (V ∞ n)
c. Pressure is directly proportional to Volume. (P ∞ V)
d. Pressure is directly proportional to Temperature. (P ∞ T)
197. A drunk driver hit a tree while driving. His air bag inflated according to the equation
shown:
2NaN3(s) → 2Na(l) + 3N2(g) If the air bag contained 65.0g of NaN3 (65) before the
collision, what volume in L of N2(g) is formed at 1.00 atm at 35°C?
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
a. 1.50 L b. 4.30 L c. 37.9 L d. 187 L
198. Many industrial gases are stored in compressed gas cylinders under high pressures.
Calculate the mass in kg of Helium, He (4.0) that could be stored in a cylinder with a
volume of 60.0 L at 25°C and 180 atm.
a. 1.35 kg of He b. 1.77 kg of He c. 441.3 kg of He d.5264.44 kg of He
199. What is the density of NO(g) (30.0) at 25°C and 783 mm Hg?
a. 1.26 g/L b. 2.68 g/L c. 3.12g/L d. 3.76g/L
200. As altitude increases, air becomes less dense and
a. pressure increases c. pressure remains the same
b. pressure decreases d. none of the above
201. The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is
a. 1 atm b. 760 mm Hg c. 760 torr d. All
202. Hydrogen gas escapes from a porous container twice as rapidly as helium gas escapes
from the same container. This illustrates
a. Charles’ Law b. Dalton’s Law c. Graham’s Law of Diffusion d. Boyle’s Law
203. The total volume of an average adult lungs when expanded is about 6 liters. Calculate
the pressure of oxygen inhaled if 0.05 mole of oxygen is needed to fully fill a
pair of average adult lungs at a normal body temperature of 370C.
a. 0.0253 atm b. 2.58 atm c. 0.212 atm d. 0.308 atm
204. A gas with a volume of 4.0 L at a pressure of 0.80 atm is allowed to expand until the
pressure drops to 0.20 atm. What is the new volume of the gas?
a. 1.6 L b. 0.6 L c. 1.0 L d. 16 L
205. The volume of a gas is 300 ml at 740 torr and 250C. What is its volume at STP?
a. 26.76 ml b. 267.65 ml c. 2.676 ml d. 26760 ml
206. A 20-vessel of Ne contains 2 x 1020 molecules and a 20-liter vessel of Ar at the same
temperature and pressure contains 2 x1020 molecules. This illustrates
a. Avogadro’s law b. Dalton’s law c. Boyle’s law d. Charles’ law
207. For 1000 liters of chlorine gas at 150C and 1 atm pressure, calculate the temperature at
which the volume would be equal to 200 liters. The pressure remains constant.
a. 57.6 K b. 56.7 K c. 576 K d. 5.76 K
208. A solution with a pOH of 10 is a/an
A. Acid b. Salt c. Base d. Neutral
209. A procedure for separating liquid components of a solution that is based on their
differing boiling points is
a. fractional crystallization c. fractional distillation
b. steam distillation d. vacuum distillation
210. The net movement of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane from a
pure solvent or from a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution is
a. osmosis c. reverse osmosis
b. diffusion d. effusion
211. If the overall cell potential of a galvanic cell is positive, the reaction is
a. nonspontaneous b. spontaneous c. Irreversible d. reversible
212. Consider a spontaneously operating electrochemical cell in which the net oxidation-
reduction reaction is: 3 Zr(s) + 4 Fe+3 → 3 Zr+4 + 4 Fe(s).
Choose the statement which is FALSE.

a. The anode reaction is Zr → Zr+4 + 4e−

b. The cathode reaction is Fe+3 + 3e− → Fe
c. Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode.
d. The standard potential for this cell will be > 0.
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
Questionnaire No. :_______________
e. Fe+3 is the oxidizing agent.

213 What is the oxidation number (valence) of the Cl atom in HClO3?

a. +6 b. +3 c. −5 d. +5
214. Given a galvanic or voltaic cell as shown. The standard reduction potentials for the
Cd+2 and Cu+2 ions are −0.403 V and +0.337 V, respectively.

Cd2+ + 2e- → Cd E0 = − 0.403 V

Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu E0 = + 0.337 V
a. What is the standard potential of this cell?
a. +0.740 V b. −0.740 V c. −0.066 V d. +0.066 V
215. What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4?
a) +6 c. +3
b) +7 d. +4